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All India Test Series

MCAT7

AITS CAPSULE

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Section I
Q1.

Overall market growth is 18%. So in order to increase its market share, a company had to
record a growth of more than 18%. Only one company has been able to do so i.e D.
Hence option B is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q2. As seen from the table, D had exports of Rs.1200 crores in the year 2007, which was
the least among all 7 companies.
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q3. Exports of other companies = Total exports - exports by given 7 companies.


Hence, percentage increase in exports = (9817 - 7083) x 100 / 7083 = 39%
Hence option B is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q4. Percentage of car loans sanctioned = (7+8+10+8+5) x 100 / 110 = 34.5%


Hence option B is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q5. As seen from the graph, personal loans form 50% of total loans sanctioned in 2008,
which is the maximum in any year.
Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q6. As seen from the graph, longest such span is of 3 years (2000, 2001, 2002).
Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

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Q7.

As seen from table, percentage of students who participated in singing = 102x100/333 =


30.6%
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q8. As seen from table, percentage of students = 8x100/120 = 6.6%


Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q9. As seen from table, 89 students from Std IV took part in acting.
Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q10. Percentage change in students = 26x100/333 = 7.8%


Hence option A is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q11. Here, after simplifying both I and II, we will not get any relation between (p + 1)
and q.
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q12. From statement I, if we take 2 as first prime number, then there are many possible
combinations where p+q is also prime. Statement I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II, there are two conditions where p2 + q2 is a perfect cube when we take
p = 2; q = 11 and p=11; q=2. Hence, it is also alone not sufficient.
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q13. From statement I, we cannot find any relation in x, y, z.

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From statement II, we cannot get any conclusion.


Hence option E is correct

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q14. Let efficiency of inlet if y=H/t.


Time taken to fill from first outlet to second outlet = H/6(y-x)
Time taken to fill from second outlet to third = H/3(y-2x)
Since both times are equal we get 2y -4x = y-x =>y=3x.
Statement I alone is sufficient.
From statement II we get 12t = H/3(y-2x) =>36y -72x = y =>y =72x/35
Statement II alone is sufficient.
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q15. From statement I, we can infer anything as two line perpendicular to each other can
be anywhere.
Statement II is also not sufficient.
But if lines are perpendicular and there point of intersection is at distance 4√2 we can say
lines are tangent.
Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q16. From the statement the arrangement of people staying in the houses is
__ Amar __ Bmar Kini Cmar __ Eini __ Dini where __ represents vacant houses
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q17. From the above arrangement one can find


I and III are true
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q18. They need three locks with two keys each. If each person owns keys according to
the following scheme,

Then only at least two persons together have keys for all three locks of the treasure box.

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Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q19. The player, having chosen a door, has a 1/3 chance of having the car behind the
chosen door and a 2/3 chance that it's behind one of the other doors. It is assumed that
when the host opens a door to reveal a goat, this action does not give the player any new
information about what is behind the door he has chosen, so the probability of there being
a car behind a different door remains 2/3; therefore the probability of a car behind the
remaining door must be 2/3 Switching doors thus wins the car with a probability of 2/3,
so the player should always switch.
Hence option A is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q20. In this question, it is mentioned that A has won 10 games. That means he has
played 5 games from B and C both. Now, it is given that B has won total of 21 games.
Since, A and B start playing first, so definitely B has played 11 games from A and 10
games from C. So, A and B have played total of 5+11=16 games with each other since,
wins are mutually exclusive.
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

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Section II

Q21.

AB=4cm
C1C = 2cm
CC2=10cm
C1C2=4+2R
From Pythagoras theorem we get
4+2R = 2√26
R = √26 - 2
Hence Option B is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q22.

Five triangles can be best fitted as shown in figure.


Let x be the side of the triangle which best fits.
a/2 +a√3 +a/2 = x
x = a(√3 +1)
So the area of the triangle = a2√3 (4+2√3)/4 = a2(2√3+3)/2
Hence Option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Hard

Q23. Along the length 8 cylinder of height 8m can be placed in the first row
In the next row 5 cylinders of height 12m can be placed.
Now 11 such rows can be placed
So the rows containing 8 cylinders of height 8m each will be 6 and others will be 5.
Volume occupied by odd row cylinders = 6*8*22*0.7*0.7*8/7 =591.36
Volume occupied by even row cylinders = 5*5*22*0.7*0.7*12/7= 462
Total volume of cuboid = 12*8*16 =1536

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Volume left = 1536 -462 -591.36 = 482.64


Hence option B is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q24. Since p is prime divisor of n for all n>1


Therefore f(n) = f(1) -f(n) => f(n) = f(1)/2 for all n>1 and n is a prime number.
Hence if n has exactly two prime factors then f(n) =0
The prime factors of 2001 are 3, 23, and 29
f(2001) = f(667) - f(3); f(667) is zero
So f(3) = -1 => f(1) = -2
Now factors of 2002 are 2,7,11,13
So f(2002) = f(1001) -f(2)
f(1001) = f(91) -f(11) f(91)=0 and f(11) = -1
So f(1001) = 1
f(2002) = 2
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Hard

Q25. P and Q swim along the periphery so the line joining the PQ will be the chord of the
circular pool. Since the distance of R is same from P and Q and its on the line joining PQ
so R is the midpoint of the chord.
Let O be the center of the circle.
Then from right angle triangle OPR we get OP2 = OR2 + RP2
OP = 25 since OR and RP are integers from the Pythagorean triple
we get OR=7 RP=24 this will hold true for OR=24 and RP=7 also.
Also, OR = 0; RP = 25 and OR =25 and RP = 0.
So total P will reach 12 such points
Hence, None of the answers is matching.

Question is Discarded.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q26. x+y+z =2
x2 + y 2 + z 2 = 8.
Sum of square of equation (1)
x2 + y 2 + z 2 + 2(xy+yz+zx) = 4 => xy+yz+zx = -2
since y2 =xz we get y(x+z+y) = -2
=> y=-1
Hence option A is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q27. 80105 < 81105 = 3420 = 27140 < 28140

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C = 26140
Hence option A is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

Q28.

Let AH = w DG=x CF=y EB=z and EH = a HG=b GF=c and EF =d


Now HD = 1- w, GC=1-x, BF=1-y and AE=1-z
From triangle's inequality
a ≤ 1-z +w, b≤ 1-w+x, c≤ 1-x+y and d≤ 1-y+z
So a+b+c+d ≤ 4
Hence option B is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

Q29. From the fig, If you fold and check none will result in a cube.
One of the possible fig which fold into cube is below. You can think of others similarly

Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

Q30. Let U be your function the how much you get to enjoy your money per week.
Let h be the number of hours worked per week.
U = h*(80-h) = 80h – h2
It’s a quadratic equation opening downwards
Maximum value will be at vertex i.e -80/-2 = 40
h = 40
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

Q31. Since the integers should contain only even digits they can only be 2,4,6,8
Hence we need to examine integers between

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1999 and 3000, 3999 and 5000, 5999 and 7000 & 7999 and 9000
So the square root of these integers will lie in 45 and 55, 63 and 71, 77 and 84 or 89 and
95.
Now (10x+y)2 = 100x2 +20xy + y2 It follows that 0<y<9 (10x+y)2 is odd or even
simultaneously with tens digit of y2 is odd or even simultaneously. Hence the square root
of the numbers sought cannot end with the digit 4 or the digit 6. So we are left with only
four possibilities.
682, 802, 782 and 922.
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

Q32. Let x be a real number x = [x] +a where a is a non-negative number less than 1.
similarly y =[y] + b => x+y = [x]+[y]+a+b since a+b≥ 0
Since [x+y] is largest integer which fails to exceed x+y therefore [x+y] ≥ [x]+[y]
Now when [x] is divided by n leaves quotient q and remainder r so [x] /n= q+r/n So
[[x]/n] = q
x = [x]+a =>x= qn+r+a => x/n = q +(r+a)/n since r+a <n therefore [x/n] = q
So [x/n] = [[x]/n]
Hence option A is correct.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q33. (16n3 +23n2 + 13n+6)/(n2 +n) = (n+1)(16n2 +7n+6)/n(n+1) = (16n2 +7n+6)/n


= 16n +7+6/n
Since n is integer so the expression will be integer when 6/n is integer which holds true
for n=1,2,3,-1,-2,-3
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q34. The number of ways for n is 2n! /(n+1)!n! = 8! / 5!4! = 14


These numbers are called Catalan Numbers

Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Hard

Q35. If we pair numbers they are of form (6m+1)2 - (6m-1)2 =24m


So on dividing we will be left with m.

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The different values of m are 41,44,47,50,53,56


Hence sum of this number which are in A.P = (82+5*3)*6/2 = 291
Hence option C is correct

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q36. Roots of E1 are 2 and 3


So roots of E2 will 6 and 7
Similarly roots of E6 will 22 and 23
Equation of E6 = (x-22)(x-23) = x2 -45x + 506
X6 = - b/2a = 45/2
Hence option C is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

Q37. Numbers are of the form n(3n-1)/2 = (3n2 -n)/2 where n=1 to 16
So sum of the series = 2176
Hence option E is correct

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q38. Sum = sum of consecutive odd numbers.


Also
13 = 1
23 = 3+5
33 = 7+9+11
43 = 13+15+17+19
So sum of consecutive odd integers = sum of cube of numbers = [n(n+1)/2]2
Here n=7. So, sum = 784
Hence option E is correct.

Difficulty Level: Medium

Q39.
Time(in A B C D E
seconds)
1 8 6 4 3 2
2 16 14 12 11 10
3 24 22 20 19 18
4 32 30 28 27 26
5 40 38 36 35 34
6 48 46 44 43 42

Table show the position of buckets after each second.

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Now in 4 second buckets whose position is less than 14cm will pour water in P
E will pour water twice i.e 100 lt.
D will pour water twice i.e 80lt.
C will pour water twice i.e 60lt.
A and B will pour water once i.e 10 and 20 lts.
So volume of water in P = 270 lts.
Hence option B is correct

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q40. From the above table positions will be in reverse order so position of C after
10seconds = 14cm
Hence option C is correct

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q41.

From the figure BC=5√3a/2


AC = a+a/2 = 3a/2
AB = √(AC2 +BC2) = a√21
Hence option D is correct.

Difficulty Level: Easy

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Section III

Q42. The first paragraph says, “subjects perceive or conceive objects in the process of
knowing.” The pair that may best be substituted in that is knower and known.
Hence, correct answer is option B.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q43. The passage uses “Drink to me only with thine eyes” to show that the poet is
fundamentally concerned with sensations and emotions. The quotation is an example of
the subjective. In fact, the author finishes the paragraph by saying, “This it is to be
subjective.”
Hence, correct answer is option C.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q44. The author tells us that scientists, whom he defines as objective, are “primarily
concerned with the identity and continuity of the external object that stimulates (their)
response.” That is, to be objective one must believe that the world is a collection of stable
objects, each of which always looks the same. E is a single example consistent with this
assumption but is not itself broad enough to support the question of objectivity in general.
D is also too broad to be the best answer. C is not an assumption allowed by the passage.
Hence, correct answer is option A.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q45. The third paragraph defines an object as the “external cause of a thing - a
hypothesis,” with its singularity or plurality indeterminable. This is a definition peculiar
to this passage
Hence, correct answer is option E.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q46. Demand, as economists use the word, requires the relationship between price and
the quantity demanded to remain unchanged. In both statements I and III, the price has
changed, rising in statement III and falling in statement I.
Hence, correct answer is option B.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q47. Initially, the passage emphasizes a distinction between demand and quantity
demanded, concluding that “demand shifts when there is a change in income,

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expectations, taste, etc., such that a different quantity of the good is demanded at the
same price.” This statement fits A precisely. All other choices include or allow for a
changing price.
Hence, correct answer is option A.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q48. This situation establishes a relationship between price and quantity that parallels the
paragraph’s explanation of the law of demand. This section discusses “the consumer’s
desire to get the ‘best buy’” and goes on to say that “if the price of a good A increases,
the individual will tend to substitute another good and purchase less of good A.” Since
the appearance of a lower-priced breakfast drink makes orange juice more “expensive” in
relation, the law of demand as so described would prevail.
Hence, correct answer is option C.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q49. Shark study has been slowed because the sharks are so dangerous and live in murky
waters.
Hence, correct answer is option D.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q50. All organisms have a bioelectric field, so the male shark would be able to find many
sharks more easily than one. They congregate to make it more difficult for the male to
grasp one, not to make detection more difficult.
Hence, correct answer is option D.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q51. The sharks’ sensing the voltage created by currents moving through the earth’s
magnetic field is at least tangentially relevant to choice B.
Hence, correct answer is option B.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q52. Among B, C and D, D is the most suitable for the starting statement. Now we need
to decide between B and C for the next statement to follow statement D. Statement B will
come after D since it introduces the role of parents gender orientations.
Hence, correct answer is option D.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q53. Statement E will start the paragraph since it introduces animal bodies. Statement C
looks to be a continuation of some other statement other than E. So, statement A will
come after statement E.

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Hence, correct answer is option E.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q54. Between statements A and B, statement B is better to start with. Statement A will
follow statement B since it contains the description of temperate regions which will be
compared in statement D with arid and semiarid regions.
Hence, correct answer is option C.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q55. It should be ‘exercise in futility’ in option A. Rest other options are correct.
Hence, correct answer is option A.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q56. Option E is wrong since the right word here is ‘rises’ not ‘raises’.
Hence, correct answer is option E.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q57. Statement B is wrong, it should be ‘a fortune’- the article is missing. Statement D


is wrong as it should be ‘fruit vendors’, not ‘fruits vendors’. A and C are correct.
Hence, correct answer is option C.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q58. Here in sentence B, ‘put up a question mark’ is incorrect. It should be ‘put a


question mark’. All other sentences are correct.
Hence, correct answer is option B.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q59. In sentence C, it should be ‘consumer’s passion’. In sentence D, it should be ‘but


as the economy evolves, so will the advertising.’ A and B are correct.
Hence, correct answer is option A.

Difficulty Level: Easy

Q60. The passage sets up the thesis that sometimes individuals yield to others’ interests.
Choices A and E are unsubstantiated or not mentioned in the passage; C does not fit the
structure of the sentence; B could possibly be the correct answer, but D more nearly
completes the thought of the passage and is neatly juxtaposed with the first part of the
incomplete sentence.
Hence, correct answer is option D.

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Difficulty Level: Moderate

Q61. The argument presupposes both that candidates are spending too much on television
advertising (“the waste”) and that television can be used to inform the public (“provide
air time to all candidates to debate the issues”). Statement III is irrelevant to the argument.
Hence, correct answer is option D.

Difficulty Level: Moderate

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