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AAMC5RSolutions

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MCAT Practice Test 5R Solutions

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MCAT

MEDICAL COLLEGE ADMISSION TEST

MCAT P RACTICE T EST 5R S OLUTIONS
Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by Steven A. Leduc National Director of MCAT Research, Production & Development, The Princeton Review

Special thanks to: Jennifer Wooddell Judene Wright

Copyright © 2003, 2001 by Princeton Review, Inc. All rights reserved. MCAT is a service mark of the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC). TPR is not affiliated with Princeton University or with the AAMC. Version 1.0

www.PrincetonReview.com

MCAT P RACTICE T EST 5R S OLUTIONS C ONTENTS :
Physical Sciences ................. 3
Verbal Reasoning .................. 14

Biological Sciences ............ 29

030316

2

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Passage I 1. B. The value of DH∞ for Reaction 1 is given as –92 kJ. Since DH∞ is negative, the reaction is exothermic, by definition. 2. C. According to the data in Table 1, the equilibrium concentration of NH3(g) (% by volume) increases as the pressure increases. This eliminates choices A and B, which show the yield decreasing as the pressure increases. To decide between choices C and D, we first notice that when the pressure increases from 1 atm to 100 atm—which is an increase of 99 atm— the % NH3(g) by volume at equilibrium jumps significantly, from 15.3 to 80.6. However, when the pressure increases from 100 atm to 200 atm—an increase of 100 atm—the % NH3(g) by volume only increases from 80.6 to 85.8. This indicates that the % yield increases sharply with pressure initially, but then increases less abruptly at high pressures. This behavior is illustrated by the graph in choice C. 3. A. The passage states that Reaction 1 is carried out “in the presence of” FeO/Al2K2O4. Furthermore, we notice from Reaction 1 that neither FeO nor Al2K2O4 is consumed in the reaction. We conclude that this mixture is a catalyst for the reaction, and the role of a catalyst is to increase the reaction rate. 4. D. Since NH4+ is a cation with a +1 charge, and SO42– is an anion with a –2 charge, we would expect that a combination of these ions would contain 2 NH4+ ions for each SO42– ion; that is, the compound would be (NH4)2SO4. The balanced acid–base reaction would be 2 NH3 + H2SO4 Æ (NH4)2SO4. 5. D. Choice A is eliminated since the product of Reaction 1, NH3, is not an ion. Because NH3 has a permanent dipole moment, we would expect dipole–dipole interactions between NH3 molecules. In addition, NH3 is capable of hydrogen bonding (the partial positive charge on an H atom of one molecule of NH3 attracted to the partial negative charge on the N atom of another NH3 molecule). 6. A. Of the ions listed, Mg2+ and H+ are cations, and being electron deficient, are acids (eliminating choices C and D). Since nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen and since N3– has a greater negative charge than –OH, N3– is a stronger base than –OH.

Passage II 7. D. According to the passage, “there is a large electrical repulsion between these two fragments that causes them to . . . gain kinetic energy.” 8. A. According to Newton’s Third law, the magnitude of the force by Fragment 1 on Fragment 2 is equal to the magnitude of the force by Fragment 2 on Fragment 1, so choice A must be correct. Since the forces the fragments feel have the same magnitude, but the fragments have different masses, the accelerations of the fragments must be different; since a = F/m, the fragment with the greater mass experiences a smaller acceleration, eliminating choice B. Because both fragments start from rest and have different accelerations, the speeds of the fragments at any moment t will be different (because v = at); this eliminates choice C. To eliminate choice D, notice that
2 2 1 1 KE = 1 2 mv = 2 m (at ) = 2 m 2 F 2 F t) = t (m 2m 2

Since F is the same for both fragments but m is different, the fragments will have different KE values at each moment t.

3

The statement in choice C provides a reasonable and direct answer as to why the strong nuclear force becomes unable to hold large nuclei together. energy must be provided to force them together and overcome their electrical repulsion. the strong nuclear force is a shortrange attractive force that balances the large repulsive force between the positive charges in the nucleus. . we can conclude that if a compound were inert in the upper atmosphere. 14. then it would not “significantly assist” in the depletion of ozone. even if we grant that they are true. 10. Since F is inversely proportional to r2. according to Coulomb’s law. D. According to Coulomb’s law. we find the net reaction of Reactions 1 and 2: Reaction 1: O 2 Æ O + O + Reaction 2: O + O 2 Æ O 3 Net reaction: 2 O 2 Æ O + O 3 Now. 11. 15. . The chlorine atom in Reaction 4 is a radical. First. we calculate DGrxn using the values for DGf given in Table 1: 4 . First. a radical is an atom or molecule fragment with one or more unpaired electrons. If we combine Reactions 4 and 5. B. eliminate choice B. the force between the two charged fragments. is given by the equation F = kQQ/r2 = kQ2/r2. Cl•. Since both nuclei are positively charged. The passage states that CFCs “can undergo photolysis in the upper atomsphere and subsequently assist in the decomposition of ozone. F = kQQ/r2 = kQ2/r2. And according to the passage. Passage III 13. since there is no mention of electrons in the fusion (or fission) of nuclei. A. Neither choice B nor C is applicable here. eliminating choice D. A. and r is increasing). the net reaction is given in choice B: Reaction 4: Cl • + O 3 Æ ClO • + O 2 + Reaction 5: ClO • + O Æ Cl • + O 2 Net reaction: O 3 + O Æ 2 O 2 16. then there would be naturally-occurring elements that have more protons in their nucleus than uranium does. the strong nuclear force is an attractive force between the charges in a nucleus. which is why such large nuclei do not occur naturally (they’ve spontaneous decayed). If all of the heavier elements were stable.” Therefore. so to fuse two nuclei together. the graph of F vs. By definition. C. where r is their separation. crossing out the Cl• and ClO• radicals. once the nucleus contains too many protons). each fragment will experience a decreasing acceleration (a = F/m = kQ2/mr2. . Why have all of the heavier elements radioactively decayed? Why is it that heavier elements can be made only in nuclear reactors? According to the passage. As for choices A and D. which is shown in the graph in choice D. 12. Since each fragment (of charge +Q) experiences a decreasing force as it moves away from the other fragment (because. to determine whether the overall reaction involves an increase or a decrease in free energy. The answer must be A. D. where m is the mass of the fragment). +Q and +Q. we conclude that the short-range strong nuclear force becomes unable to hold the nucleus together. there is no need to “overcome” an attractive force. C. C. r must decrease nonlinearly.9. Once the nucleus get too large (that is. they simply beg the question and do not provide an answer.

In Reactions 3–5. since. we conclude that (NH4)2HPO4 is a basic salt. neither is balanced electrically nor stoichiometrically. Passage IV 19. The equilibrium that would best account for an increase in pH would show the formation of OH– ions.8 mol ◊ K ) J mol ◊ K 18. it becomes HPO42–.0 = 137. 20. Apply Le Châtelier’s principle to Equation 2. D.DGrxn =  n ◊ DGf. However. O + 1 ◊ DGf. so the best answer here is C. The reactions in choices B and D are incorrect.(2 ◊ 0 mol ) >0 Because DGrxn is positive. The species that results when an acid loses an H+ is called the conjugate base of that acid. 21. Because the statements in choices A. for example.(2 ◊ 238. “Excessively moist soil conditions” describe conditions where the amount of the H2O(l) is increased. O 3 ) . we see that the Cl• generated by the cleavage of a CFC (Reaction 3) causes the decomposition of O3 (Reaction 4).4 J J mol ◊ K ) . we would thus expect that an increase in H2O(l) would shift the equilibrium toward the product side.1 mol + 163. so that only a catalytic amount of CFC is needed to drive the formation of O2. 5 . so A is a better response than C. C. 17. C. A.(2 ◊ SO 3 ) = (3 ◊ 205. When H2PO4– loses an H+. Therefore. 23. Pure liquids are omitted from equilibrium expressions since their concentrations remain essentially constant (not that they’re zero). reactants = (1 ◊ DGf. Choice D is eliminated since it indicates a negative activation energy (since it shows the activated complex at a lower energy level than the reactants). D. and C are all false (since N2 accounts for more than 75% by volume of the atmosphere.(2 ◊ DGf. O 2 ) kJ = (230. HPO42– is the conjugate base of H2PO4–. we can eliminate choices A and B. the Cl• is regenerated in Reaction 5.4 kJ kJ mol ) . A. and N2 is not a noble gas). B. We calculate DS for the reaction 2 O3 Æ 3 O2 using the values for S given in Table 1: DSrxn =  n ◊ Sproducts . products . The answer must be C. 22. n ◊ Sreactants = (3 ◊ SO 2 ) . the correct response must be D. n ◊ DGf. D. so we eliminate choice A. Since H2O(l) is a reactant in Equation 2. so we first eliminate choices B and D. causing a greater degree of ionization and releasing more OH–(aq). Since Equation 2 shows the formation of OH–. the N2 molecule is nonpolar.

then 11. (CP)n. According to the reaction above. is 1. 25. to travel half this distance. The circumference of the circular path is C = 2pr = 2p(4 cm) = 8p cm. Now. In Equation 1. then x + 4(–2) = –1. B. would increase the yield of the product. not simply CP. we have v= l 2.] =2 fi = 10 2 = 100 [H 2 PO 4 ] [H 2 PO 4 . if the horizontal distance between adjacent crests and troughs is 1. Since the particle complete 4 revolutions (or cycles) per second—that is what “moving on a circular path . So. Passage V 28. if we let x denote the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4–. 16p cm. both have a stoichiometric coefficient of n in the balanced reaction (Equation 1 in the passage). Therefore. C.0 m. B. We now use the equation v = lf. To find the mass of CDP in 10 mL of this solution. Since 10 mL = 1/100 L. .0 seconds. Since a 2 M solution of Na2CO3 contains 2 moles of Na2CO3 per liter. the oxidation number of Mn for the cation Mn2+ is clearly +2. . we have pH – pKa = 2. both [CDP] and [HPO42–] must appear with an exponent of n. We use the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation: pH = pKa + log [conjugate base] [weak acid] Since the solution is buffered at pH 8.7.] 6 . if we treat CO2 as an ideal gas.4 L). we conclude that 10 mL of the solution contains (16/100) mmol of CDP. 32. This eliminates choices B and C. one mole of any ideal gas at STP occupies a volume of 22. (CP)n. in Equation 1. C. First. 1/2 second. First. C. and one of the products. Therefore. to balance the given equation. (CP)n.67 m s T 3. and the stoichiometric coefficient of HPO42– is n. so the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4– differs from its oxidation number in Mn2+ by (+7) – (+2) = 5.7.2 L of CO2 at STP is equivalent to 1/2 mole of CO2 (since. D.0 m. we would need 1/2 mole of Na2CO3 to produce 1/2 mole of CO2. we could increase the concentration of the reactant (which would shift the equilibrium toward the product side). Therefore. A.4 ¥ 10 -2 g mol CDP 29. we need only place a coefficient of 2 in front of both the HCl and the NaCl: Na2CO3 + 2 HCl Æ CO2 + H2O + 2 NaCl Notice that this affects neither the Na2CO3 nor the CO2.Independent Questions 24. so log [HPO 4 2 . The buffered solution at the beginning of Experiment 1 contains 16 mmol of CDP in 1 L of aqueous solution. Next. so x = +7. we multiply (16/100) mmol of CDP by its molecular mass: 16 m = ( 100 ¥ 10 -3 mol CDP) ¥ 403 g 16 ª ( 100 ¥ 10 -3 ) ¥ ( 400 g) = (16 ¥ 4) ¥ 10 -3 g = 64 ¥ 10 -3 g = 6. which is balanced. The molecule MnO4– is not an exception to the rule that the oxidation number of oxygen is –2. l = 2. 30.] [HPO 4 2 . Therefore. the stoichiometric coefficient of the polymer. we would need 1/4 L = 250 mL of this solution to obtain 1/2 mole of Na2CO3. 26. C. we would expect that increasing the amount of the reactant. To increase the yield of the product. if the waves strike the shore every 3. then the period of the waves is T = 3. in the expression for the equilibrium constant for this reaction. then the wavelength is twice as much. Since f = 1/T. CDP. Now. namely HPO42–.0 seconds.0 s 27.0 m = = 0. We apply Le Châtelier’s principle. the concentration of (CP)n is 1/n times the concentration of HPO42–. would require half the time: that is. 31. The expression in A is a better choice than the one in D since the other product of Reaction 1 is (CP)n. B. by Avogadro’s law. The reactant. and pKa = 6. CDP. with a frequency of 4 Hz” means—the particle travels a total distance of 4 ¥ (8p cm) = 32p cm in one second.

then it would reabsorb some of that light. For the photon described in this question. C. To prevent (or at least to minimize) this reabsorption of light. the scintillator should therefore be (nearly) transparent to the light it emits. As stated in the passage. 35. we look at Table 1. we expect the combination of Cd and Cl to be CdCl2 and the balanced reaction between Cd(NO3)2 and NaCl to be Cd(NO3)2 + 2 NaCl Æ CdCl2 + 2 NaNO3. Because 14C undergoes beta decay. and notice that Cu and Cl2 form CuCl2. the relative boiling points of Cl2 and I2 are irrelevant to the determination of the oxidation state of copper in the compounds it forms in reactions with these substances. an electron. A.6 ¥ 10 -34 J ◊ s)(3 ¥ 10 8 m s) = l 450 ¥ 10 -9 m ª 20 ¥ 10 -26 J ◊ m 4. copper is in a +2 oxidation state. To decide between choices C and D. whereas I2 is not) and although statement B is true. If the object currently contains 1000 atoms of 14C. Cl2 is a gas at room temperature. then. statement A is false (after all. Cl–. in addition to the pulses that are actually due directly to the decaying object itself). We first eliminate choices A and B. A. its kinetic energy is 2 KE = 1 2 mv = 1 2 1 2 (9 ¥ 10 -31 kg)(3 ¥ 10 7 m s) 2 (9)(32 ) ¥ 10 -31 ¥ 1014 J = ª 40 ¥ 10 -17 J = 4. thereby overestimating the radiation energy and rate of decay. Therefore. we would select choice C over choice D. also has a –1 charge. 39. Furthermore. which the photomultiplier would then turn into electrical pulses and add to the count (that is. C. has a –1 charge. The nitrate ion. we can rewrite the equation for photon energy as E = hc/l.Passage VI 33. This would clearly produce an inaccurate reading.4 ¥ 10 -19 J Passage VII 38. A. we see that C undergoes b decay and emits -. 2 half-lives ago. C.000 years represents approximately 3 half-lives. Since Cu “gives up” two electrons to chlorine but only one to iodine in these compounds.0 ¥ 10 -16 J 36. NO3–. it contained 8000 atoms of 14C. The passage gives the mass of a beta particle as 9 ¥ 10–31 kg. if its speed is 3 ¥ 107 m/s. a scintillator is a substance that produces light when it absorbs the energy accompanying radioactive decay. it will not emit an alpha particle or neutron in the decay process. Since f = c/l. 37. 7 . it contained 4000 atoms of 14C. the half-life of 14C is approximately 6000 years. Since the radioactive decay process is 14 6 C Æ 7 N + -1 e . so a cadmium cation would have a +2 charge in order for the molecule Cd(NO3)2 to be neutral. Since the chloride ion. it contained 2000 atoms of 14C. we would expect that each Cl atom in Cl2 would have a stronger attraction for electrons than each I atom in I2. In CuCl2. The scintillator is attached to a photomultiplier that collects this light and converts it into electrical impulses. since Cl is higher in the periodic table than I. These pulses then serve to measure the rate at which decay occurs. D. then 1 half-life ago. copper is in only a +1 oxidation state. If the scintillator were to be non-transparent to the light it emits. we have E= hc (6. which are then counted. while Cu and I2 form CuI. and 3 half-lives ago. a time period of 18. The energy of a photon of frequency f is given by the equation E = hf. -0 1e 34. According to the passage.5 ¥ 10 -7 m ª 4. where h is Planck’s constant. this eliminates 14 0 14 – choices B and C. So. while in CuI.

which is the “new metal [that] forms on the surface of the Cu strip. According to the data for Trial 5 given in Table 1. Therefore. Therefore. like oxygen. 41.”] 8 . Since the volume of the wire is given in the question to be V = 5 ¥ 10–7 m3. This eliminates the graphs in B and D. B. Because boiling-point elevation is a colligative property. we see that R increases by a steady 2. 47. Since Cd is in the same family as Zn. then 4 and 5. First. since the resistance R is approximately 14 W. we have q = mcDT = ( 4 ¥ 10 -3 kg)( 460 J )(200 kg ◊ K K) = 368 J [Note: The question uses the term “heat capacity” where it should use the term “specific heat. We use the equation q = mcDT. 42. we notice in Table 1 that Zn and S form the compound ZnS. the question becomes. Passage VIII 44. Since the only choices left are the graphs in choices A and C. as Cu atoms are oxidized. “Does R increase linearly with T?” Comparing Trials 2 and 3. the solution whose solute dissociates into the greater number of ions will be the one with the higher boiling point. since it is highly unlikely that the cation Ag+ would be oxidized—or that Ag or Cu would be reduced—in this situation. D. then the oxidation state of Cd must be +2. In the first paragraph of the passage. Now sulfur. Since the mass of the wire is m = 4 ¥ 10–3 kg.8 ¥ 10 4 kg m 3 = 8 ¥ 10 3 kg m 3 = 8. Since Zn(NO3)2 dissociates into 3 ions (Zn2+ + 2 NO3–) while AgNO3 dissociates into only 2 ions (Ag+ + NO3–). According to the data in Table 1. So.6 W for every 100 K increase in temperature. D. Looking to the passage for a clue about the product that would most likely form between Cd and S. the mass of the wire is given to be m = 4 ¥ 10–3 kg. Ag+ ions are reduced to Ag. then 3 and 4. and C. C. 48. and the voltage across the wire is 28 V. the density of the wire is r= m 4 ¥ 10 -3 kg = = 0. note that we can eliminate choices A. B. the specific heat of iron is c = 460 J/kg·K. eliminate choice B (where is the source of carbon to form CO2?). B. D. where m is the mass of the sample being heated and c is the specific heat of the sample (in this case. If the oxidation state of S in CdS is –2. R increases as T increases (as we can see by reading the values of R as the temperature increases from Trial 1 through Trial 5). C. and the answer is A. The AgNO3(aq) solution contains Ag+ ions. T. R does increase linearly with T. 000 kg m 3 V 5 ¥ 10 -7 m 3 46. we see that the energy radiated from the heated wire each second is proportional to T 4. A. HNO3 must react with copper metal. the current I is 2 A. which show the resistance R either constant or decreasing with temperature. if T increases by a factor of 2 . The temperature. A. A.40. it is reasonable to expect that Cd and S would form the compound CdS. we’d expect the boiling point of Zn(NO3)2(aq) to be higher than that of AgNO3(aq). is most commonly in a –2 oxidation state in its compounds with other atoms. AsT4. the energy radiated each second increases by a factor of ( 2 ) 4 = [( 2 )2 ]2 = [2]2 = 4 . and DT = 573 K – 373 K = 200 K. is 673 K in Trial 5. the only logical choice for the product of the reduction of HNO3 is NO. the power dissipated by the wire is P = IV = (2 A)(28 V) = 56 W. Of the remaining choices (A. From the expression given in the last paragraph of the passage. 43.] 45. Copper metal (Cu0) must be oxidized during this reaction. [Alternatively. and HNO3 must be reduced.” Also. the power dissipated is P = I 2R = (2 A)2(14 W) = 56 W. it is the iron wire). and D). Since evolution of gas occurs only with the addition of HNO3.

A. Because the activity decreased to 60/240 = 1/4 its initial value. DS > 0. this eliminates choices A and C. where m is the mass of the –q particle). then one half-life must be 12 minutes. Since the –q charge is accelerating. the phase change from solid to gas (sublimation) represents an increase in the entropy. If a time period of 2 half-lives is equal to 24 minutes. 51. As the diagram below shows. Since the molecules in the gas phase of a substance are much more disordered than in the solid phase. That is. the negatively-charged particle will move toward the fixed positive charge Q. Therefore. if the voltage remained constant at 28 V. This eliminates choice D. B. the resistance of the wire was R1 = 4 W when T = 293 K. –q +Q r The negatively-charged particle experiences a force (F = kQq/r2) as it approaches +Q.9 W ª 14 W. C.01 –0. 53. this means that 2 half-lives elapsed. the resistance rose to R5 = 13. According to the data in Table 1 for Trial 1. 52. the current decreased. its speed of approach cannot be constant. D. B.49. so it will undergo an acceleration (a = F/m = kQq/mr2. The Doppler Effect implies that when the source of a sound moves away from the observer. S.0 –3. When T = 673 K (Trial 5). the perceived frequency is lower than the emitted frequency. Because opposite charges attract.6 1. 9 . from I1 = V 28 V = =7A R1 4W to I5 = V 28 V = =2A R5 14 W Independent Questions 50. the vapor will become a solid and then a liquid: off the diagram at P = 200 atm solid pressure (torr) liquid vapor 4. C.1∞C and 1.0 0. and as the pressure is increased at constant temperature.1 temperature (∞C) 54. water at –0.0 torr is vapor. since (1/2)2 is equal to 1/4.

so choice C is eliminated immediately. atomic number 22) is in the 3d “block” of the Periodic Table. so choices C and D are eliminated.Passage IX 55. atomic number 22). their momentum before the collision is zero. it has only s and p orbitals and can form no more than four hybrid orbitals. 60. the momentum of the sled and rider (S&R). Of the elements listed in the choices. According to the passage. B. Since the toboggan and rider (T&R) are stationary before the collision. two contain lone pairs and two contain a single electron each. the loss of some electrons. C. Titanium doesn’t contain electrons in 4p or 5f orbitals. The transition metal titanium (Ti. 58. and titanium’s 2s electrons (choice A) are not in the valence shell. so we eliminate choice B. Choice B is false (since there are no hydrogen bonds between toluene and water to compare with those between THF and water). Choice D should be eliminated immediately as well (s2p2 hybridization?). the toboggan is opposed by a constant 60 N frictional force when it’s sliding down the hill. so choices A and B are eliminated. which will form the s bonds with the carbons. 62. 63. Passage X 61. so we eliminate choice A. the energy conversion is best described by choice C: potential to kinetic and thermal. B. so the total momentum before the collision is simply MS&RvS&R. we notice that the solubility of XT-n increases as n increases. the sample XT-n contains n% Ti. 59. When the toboggan begins its slide from Point A. The elements in each family of the Periodic Table have similar properties and have identical (or very similar) outer configurations. Choice D provides the most reasonable explanation for the loss of mass by the samples as they are heated. could not account for this much of a decrease in mass. so they’re unavailable to form bonds. MS& R vS& R = ( MS& R + MT& R )v ¢ fi v ¢ = MS& R vS& R (3 kg + 47 kg) ◊ (10 m s) 50 = = m s ª 4. We apply Conservation of Total Momentum to this completely inelastic collision. As for choice C. 56.55 m s MS& R + MT& R (3 kg + 47 kg) + (6 kg + 54 kg) 11 10 . The momentum after the collision is (MS&R + MT&R)v¢. the work done by sliding friction on the toboggan is equal to –(60 N)(l). where n = 0. A. so the energy lost to friction is (60 N)(l). Therefore. Since the toboggan feels this force for the entire length. l. the formation of hydrogen bonds would not decrease the weight of a sample. which is converted to kinetic energy as the toboggan slides down the hill. 57. and while the statements in choices C and D are true. even if they escaped from the heating chamber. B. we conclude that the XTs are more soluble in toluene than in THF. A. D. or 5. 3. according to the data in Table 2. some of the potential energy is also converted to heat (thermal energy). Since the entry in each row is greater for toluene than for THF. only zirconium (Zr. C. the masses (and therefore the weights) of the samples decrease by 20% when heated from 20∞C to 700∞C. As stated in the first paragraph of the passage. but toluene cannot. Since the passage states that the toboggan experiences friction as it slides. Therefore. so there must be four equivalent hybrid orbitals on the oxygen atom. Since oxygen is an element in Period 2. D. The oxygen atom in THF is bonded to two carbon atoms. it is highly unlikely that simply heating the compound to 700∞C would cause a nuclear reaction. along the hill. they don’t answer the question. we’d expect THF to be more soluble than toluene in H2O. Even if there were any indication in the passage that the XTs are even capable of hydrogen bonding. Next. Looking at the data in Table 1. 1. formed by sp3 hybridization. atomic number 40) is in the same family (group) as titanium (Ti. the removal of protons from nuclei requires extreme conditions (like those in a nuclear reactor). Since THF can participate in hydrogen bonding with H2O. which means its valence electrons are in 3d orbitals. it has gravitational potential energy (relative to Point B).

the distance between adjacent nodes (labeled N) on a standing wave is always equal to half the wavelength. since the ball is thrown horizontally). 2 PE Æ KE fi Mgh = 1 2 Mv fi v = 2gh fi vµ h If the sled and rider start at a point on the hill that is 10 m lower than Point A. D. in this time. the snowball would. The passage states that. we find that 2 y=1 fi 20 m = 1 2 (10 2 gt m 2 )t s2 fi t=2s Because the snowball’s horizontal speed is vx = 25 m/s. if h is reduced by a factor of 2. Since Ffrict = mN. a decrease by a factor of 2. Passage XI 67.64. D. so Ffrict = 50 N. Point A snowball y = 20 m t = 2 sec x = 50 m Point B 66. then v will be reduced by factor of 2 . so the gravitational potential energy of the sled and rider at Point A is transformed into kinetic energy at Point B. l/2: l N N 1 2 N N N l 11 . We use Conservation of Mechanical Energy. we have m= Ffrict 50 N 1 = = = 0. B. Let’s first figure out how long this will take. travel a horizontal distance of x = vxt = (25 m/s)(2 s) = 50 m Since this equals the horizontal distance from Point A to Point B. As the diagram below shows. A. the sled and rider are opposed by a 50 N frictional force. Therefore. Using Big Five # 3 (with v0y = 0. then the sled and rider’s initial height above Point B is being reduced from 20 m to 10 m. the snowball will land at Point B. The snowball will land when it has fallen a vertical distance of y = 20 m.1 500 N 10 N 65. to the right of Point B. Since v is proportional to h . The passage states that the sled and rider slide free of friction from Point A to Point B. and N = MS&Rg = (3 kg + 47 kg)(10 m/s2) = 500 N.

and we can eliminate choices A and C. 69. C.68. 12 . That the light emitted by the laser is coherent is stated in the first sentence of the passage. the ratio Bunknown/Bbenzene is equal to 12/5. eliminating choices B and C. then it produces only one wavelength of light (since. Thus. Therefore. the answer must be B.” Because the laser produces light of only one wavelength. Since the block is stationary before the collision. the light is monochromatic (“one color”). “laser cavities have mode numbers that are related to the allowed cavity wavelength[s].fm Independent Questions 72. Because l = c/f. the ratio Bunknown/Bbenzene is Bunknown r unknown Vg r unknown = = Bbenzene r benzene Vg r benzene Since we’re given that Bunknown = 12 N and Bbenzene = 5 N.7r H 2 O r benzene = Ê r H 2 O ˆ = r r ¯ 50 H 2 O 100 H 2 O 5 5 Ë 10 This tells us that the specific gravity of the unknown liquid is approximately 1. (Note that we didn’t need to check Item III. By Le Châtelier’s principle. B. the momentum of the sliding object. and the buoyant force exerted by benzene is given by Bbenzene = rbenzeneVg. so the total momentum before the collision is simply mobjvobj. we have l beat = c c = fbeat fm +1 . and the answer must be B. By Archimedes’ Principle. A. Since the value of Ksp can be changed only by a change in temperature. If we substitute lm = c/fm into the equation mlm = 2L (both of which are given in the passage). so Item II is true. additional Ca(OH)2(s) will dissolve. its momentum before the collision is zero. if we did. mobj vobj = ( mobj + mblock )v ¢ fi v ¢ = mobj mobj + mblock vobj = 1 kg vobj = 1 v =1 (8 m s) = 2 m s 4 obj 4 1 kg + 3 kg 74. Therefore. according to the passage. The momentum after the collision is (mobj + mblock)v¢. B. but. therefore. Increasing the acidity of the solution has the effect of reducing the concentration of OH–(aq).68r H 2 O ª 1. If the laser has only one mode of oscillation. The oppositely-directed traveling waves must have equal amplitudes (choice A) since the resultant standing wave has displacement zero at the node positions (where the equal-amplitude traveling waves arrive exactly out of phase with each other and thus completely cancel).) 70. since fbeat = fm+1 – fm. Therefore. B. The traveling waves whose superposition generates a standing wave travel in opposite directions.7. it would not be characterized as diffuse. since laser light is sharp and focused. removing a product causes a shift toward the products. the buoyant force exerted by the unknown liquid on the object is given by Bunknown = runknownVg. B. We apply Conservation of Total Momentum to this perfectly inelastic collision. r unknown 12 = 5 r benzene fi r unknown = 12 12 7 84 168 = = 1. D. so Item I is true. The equilibrium is Ca(OH)2(s) Ca2+(aq) + 2 OH–(aq). 73. we have lbeat = c/fbeat. we find that m◊ m)(9 ¥ 1014 Hz) c 2 Lfm 2( 1 = 2L fi m = = 3 = 2 ¥ 10 6 fm c 3 ¥ 10 8 m s 71.

And choice B is eliminated since. 3p. The principal quantum number. has nothing to with the number of valence electrons of an atom (choice C) or with the mass number (choice D).6 N and B = 11. Thus.68 r H 2 O 11. the 3s.6 – 19. n.6 N but has an apparent weight of only 19.8 N.6/11. for example. A divergent corrective lens is required to cause the light from distant objects to diverge slightly before entering the lens of the eye. the buoyant force exerted by the water on the solid is given by B = rH OVg. B.8 N when submerged in water.75.8 = 11. so the principal quantum number cannot be a “measure” of the approximate shape of an electron cloud. the larger the radial size of the electron cloud). The weight of the unknown solid is given by the equation wsolid = rsolidVg.68. n = 3). Therefore. rsolid 31. and 3d orbitals all have different shapes but the same principal quantum number (namely. The best response here must be A (and the higher the value of n. by Archimedes’ Principle. the ratio wsolid/B is also equal to 31.8 This tells us that the specific gravity of the solid is approximately 2. 13 . the ratio wsolid/B is 2 wsolid rsolid Vg rsolid = = B r H 2 O Vg r H 2 O Because the solid weighs 31.8. light from distant objects is focused in front of the retina. A.8 N. diverging corrective lens retina retina nearsighted eye nearsightedness corrected 76. For nearsighted individuals.6 = ª 2. the buoyant force on the object must be 31. A. so that it may be focused on the retina. and. Since wsolid = 31. 77. which occurs if the focal length of the lens of the eye is smaller than the distance to the retina.

If this cooperation were followed by prosperity. First. C Note: To be the credited response. C: Yes. D: Yes. the author indicates that national economic development is not characterized by competition (lines 4-6). local leaders in the Monongahela region worked to increase cooperation and decrease competition between jurisdictions (lines 70-83). No role for national officials is mentioned. B: This choice is out of scope (“state law”) and too extreme (“only if”). an example of cooperation is given with no suggestion that state law played any role (lines 70-83). the author does not make this assumption. and so choice C does describe an assumption that is called into question by the study. not that it is impossible. For both choices A and B. This statement is followed by the one example of a successful attempt at cooperation given in the passage. In the final paragraph. In fact. D: The author does not say that local governments in the Valley region ever received federal grants. nor does the passage draw any link between federal moneys and either prosperity or cooperation. only pacts. this statement contradicts a main idea of the passage—that competition can have negative effects. If local leaders’ cooperative efforts (lines 80-83) were followed by prosperity. competition between private firms is never discussed. Thus. 79. the author does not make this assumption. A secondary problem with this choice is that efficiency is never mentioned in the passage. B: Yes. B A: The primary purpose of the author is to discuss competition and cooperation on a subnational level. Furthermore. the answer choice must both present an assumption that can reasonably be attributed to the author and be inconsistent with the new information given in the question. the lesson would be to cooperate more. Second. the author states that “Economic conditions may ultimately serve as the catalyst for greater cooperation…. but now are managing to cooperate in the face of a regional economic downturn (lines 70-83). C: The passage makes only two references to the national level. The author describes one successful attempt at cooperation. C: Academic researchers are never discussed in the passage.VERBAL REASONING Passage I 78. C: Yes. not less (and so compete less. the passage presents a specific example of cooperation between local jurisdictions (lines 77-83). it is likely that continued cooperation would lead to continued prosperity for the region. The study cited in the question gives cases in which cooperation followed a period of economic improvement. policies. local jurisdictions had competed in the past. B: According to the final paragraph. this cooperation occurred when the region was experiencing economic difficulties (lines 73-80). The passage also describes a case in which increased cooperation between jurisdictions in the Monongahela River Valley may better address those jurisdictions’ economic problems than would competition (lines 72-83). 81. the author does make the assumption that cooperation is most likely in times of economic stress. and agreements within and between states and localities. less competition would be called for. If these efforts were followed by prosperity. D A: A main theme of the passage is that competition between state and local governments can be destructive. No positive benefits are mentioned. 14 . The author cites the critics’ claim that cooperation would be more likely than competition to result in increased national (“overall”) productivity (lines 39-44). an effort organized by local leaders (lines 8083). State law is never mentioned.” (lines 70-71). not more). B: As in choice A. Neither reference supports a link between subnational competition and incentives for national development policy. A: This choice is too extreme. remember that the main idea of the passage is that cooperation may be more advantageous than competition at subnational levels. the author cites the critics’ claim that local and state competition does not contribute to national productivity (lines 39-43). 80. Furthermore. C A: According to the passage. The author indicates that cooperation is difficult (lines 44-55). D: The author does not discuss any role for media representatives. subnational governments compete with each other to attract private firms to their area.

Compare this choice with choice D. C: As in choices A and B. 85. D: This choice is both out of scope and too extreme. The very nature of a script is that once developed. 83. The author presents the restaurant scenario as an example of how this occurs. Item II: Yes. B: Yes. Thus we can infer that national governments do not exhibit competitive economic behavior. and so the word “usually” is too extreme. D: Yes. In the final paragraph. Finally. In paragraphs 2. this statement contradicts the passage. it can be used to help us understand and take action in new instances (paragraphs 3 and 4). D A: This choice is inconsistent with the main idea of the passage. In fact. B: The experience of the Great Lakes states is one of a failed attempt to restrict competition. the passage does not indicate that this would necessarily be true for important things. the author does not indicate that this can be extrapolated into a generalized comparison between the effectiveness of state and local leaders. but also guide our behavior in those contexts (lines 22-24). This example is introduced with the more general statement that cooperation is elusive (line 44).D: This is not an assumption made by the author. and scripts not only help us understand new instances of familiar situations. while local leaders organized the successful Monongahela attempt at cooperation (lines 80-83). once instantiated. but are affected by our past experiences. D: Schemas are activated and instantiated when we are confronted with situations similar to those we have experienced in the past (lines 8-15). 3 and 4 the author explains how schemas. Furthermore. Furthermore. B A: The author explains in lines 59-64 that false memories cannot always be distinguished from correct or true memories. Scripts are a special form of schema (lines 22-24). the passage states that we may remember information that was never part of the original event. help us to understand new information and act upon it. not unfamiliar situations. while imperfect recall is one aspect of schema theory. The power of national governments to regulate competition is never discussed. it is not presented as the most important aspect of it. encounters with certain events are not new learning experiences. then. The fact that some state governments failed (lines 44-45) does not in and of itself indicate that local governments are or would have been more successful. the passage mentions the failure of Great Lakes states’ governors to keep communities within those states from pirating or stealing economic developments from each other. Choice C is the opposite of the credited response. Thus memory is activated in these cases by familiar. which is in part that schemas and scripts (a special type of schema) are activated in situations that are similar to events and experiences from our past. Compare this choice to answer choice B. This is the main idea of the passage. In lines 44-46. In cases where scripts are active. 15 . D Item I: The passage indicates that a difference between national and state or local economic activity is that state and local economic development is competitive and that state and local governments are “awash in competition” (lines 4-9). Furthermore. Item III: Yes. Passage II 84. This is directly stated in lines 4-9. or as the reason why schema theory is itself important. C: While the author does state that certain things may be forgotten (lines 60-64). C: The passage makes no such comparison between state and local governments. This is directly stated in lines 4-9. the author does not indicate that many other state governments have made similar attempts. For that reason. the Monongahela case is an example of local leaders successfully regulating or limiting local competition (lines 72-83). 82. A A: Yes. the passage discusses how there may be glitches or flaws in that process that also could affect our memory and comprehension of events. the final paragraph presents a case in which local leaders crossed state lines to foster cooperation between jurisdictions (lines 80-83). B: In lines 60-64. this choice is too extreme.

A child first learning to ride a bicycle would not necessarily have had other similar experiences in the past. This happens during or after instantiation (lines 35-46). D: Yes. Notice the word “however” in line 35. when activated. B: The author does not discuss partial activation of scripts nor suggest in any way that partial activation cannot occur. this would provide evidence that recall errors do in fact occur. correct or incorrect. The person may then later remember these things as if they actually happened in that more recent situation (lines 35-45. as the author does discuss instantiation of a script based on partial information (lines 15-19). Most importantly. C: While it is likely that scripts are instantiated subconsciously (without our direct knowledge). not on processing the new information itself. If different readers recalled the same text differently. As for Item II. a child first learning the alphabet would not necessarily have had previous experience with similar situations that could have created a schema or that would lead to slot filling within that schema. affect both how we process new information and how we behave based on that information (lines 10-12. In this choice. the author explains that instantiation occurs when new information is judged to be “similar enough to the content of the schema. not when the schema (prior knowledge) is incomplete. slot filling provides specific. and those slots may be filled with information that does not match the current reality.86. The author states that inferencing may lead to recall errors and that some information may be forgotten (lines 56-64). when slot filling occurs (lines 35-52). in lines 14-15. A Item I: Item II: Item III: Yes. the child has already had one year of school. B: Alteration of a schema may occur when slot filling and inferencing occurs (lines 56-64). Inferencing occurs after activation and instantiation. not generalized information within that script (lines 35-52). for example). This choice may sound familiar. they may not match exactly. 87. D: Activation of the script influences processing of new information (lines 10-12). B: According to the passage. 35-46) and recall error as described in the question and in the passage (lines 60-64). not a new schema. C: As described by the author. It does not determine whether or not instantiation has occurred. D: Instantiation of multiple schemas is never discussed in the passage. 60-64). not its quantity. The author explains that scripts. Schemas and scripts are based on memory or prior knowledge (lines 3-4. Always be sure to go back to the passage and reread carefully. A person may fill in slots in a current situation [inferencing (lines 39. 89. similar experiences (lines 35-52). pre-existing schema. the author states that a “schema is thus instantiated by the new information. 49)] with information from the schema.” 90. D: Yes. 16 .” not that the person instantiates it through a deliberate act of will. errors occur when slots are inappropriately filled in a current situation with information from the schema (lines 59-64). the author does not make a connection between the way in which schemas are instantiated (lines 1221. It is at that point that the author shifts from discussing scripts in general to describing the particular function of slot filling. In lines 12-15. For example. D A: The passage only discusses inferences. that are made within schemas (lines 35-52. 88. C A: Careful reading is never suggested as a factor in recall errors. instantiation depends on the quality of the information [whether or not it matches a preexisting schema (lines 12-15)]. C: While scripts provide general information about particular circumstances (lines 32-34). 22-24). certainly not as a cause of error. D A: Instantiation depends on the availability of an appropriate old. B: Yes. Thus inferencing depends on the availability of specific pieces of information from the past. the author never states it. presumably with significant similarities to the second year. Notice the wording of the passage. C: Yes. B A: The passage does not suggest that scripts are instantiated through a deliberate or conscious act. Slot filling occurs when a script created by previous experiences helps us to understand and fill in gaps in other. 53-64). While the situations are similar (as they must be for the schema to be activated and instantiated).

92. it is also unlikely that the explanation would draw on or utilize a schema. When information came only from the schema and did not in fact exist in the text being read. D: As in choice A. Given that the word is unfamiliar. but only the current text itself. A A: Yes. the passage does not indicate that activation and instantiation of schemas requires any conscious act of will.91. It is people’s belief in indetermination (lines 62-68). Inferences are made when the reader takes information from a pre-existing schema and inserts it into gaps in a text (lines 35-45). The passage does not discuss the activation of inappropriate or wrong texts. D: The credited response must involve the development or use of schemas or “organized knowledge structures in memory” (lines 3-4). a person may still later incorrectly remember them as part of that text (lines 59-64). rote memorization would be unlikely to provide the kind of generic knowledge structures that could be applied to new situations (lines 3-7). Yes. with fixed and precise properties” (lines 40-45). The author offers quantum physics as an example of a scientific theory that has not managed to shake most people’s common-sense view of “the world as being populated by substantial objects. with fixed and precise properties” (lines 40-45). 22-24). B Item I: Item II: Item III: Inferences occur when a person fills in empty spaces in the current text with details from an instantiated script. Nothing in the passage indicates that an explanation of an unfamiliar word would help create a schema. An understanding of schema theory would most likely lead the teacher to teach reading in a way that created and/or utilized pre-existing knowledge structures. A script is not instantiated unless it is significantly similar to. essentially “rewriting” the text in their memory. Skimming a text to acquire specific facts does not involve this use of pre-existing memory structures. most people refuse to change their world view to accommodate the insights of quantum mechanics (lines 40-45). B A: The author uses quantum mechanics as an example of a new [“in our own time” (lines 40-43)] scientific research tradition that has not managed to overcome most people’s common-sense view of “the world as being populated by substantial objects. that is incompatible with the idea that we live in a universe governed by natural laws (lines 68-72). B: Nothing in the passage suggests that improved pronunciation would either utilize or develop “organized knowledge structures in memory” (lines 3-4). C: While memory is involved in this choice. as in concentrated study. and that schemas provide a context that helps us to comprehend and utilize new information (lines 10-12. the current text or situation (lines 12-15). C: This is the right answer to the wrong question. According to the passage. 93. B: Yes. and so most likely appropriate for. C: Schemas help us to comprehend new situations when not all of the facts are present. D: See answer choice A. The development of background knowledge would help create such structures. not quantum mechanics. as shown by the example of recognition of a face when only a few details are available (lines 15-21). B: Yes. Inferencing occurs when empty slots in a text are filled in with details from a pre-existing schema (lines 35-45). Compare this choice to answer choice A. B A: The passage does not indicate that the formation or use of knowledge structures requires effort or purpose. Passage III 94. The main idea of the third paragraph is that some world views persist despite the appearance of scientific traditions that contradict those views. 17 . The author indicates that schemas are formed through previous experiences (lines 3-7).

nor does the application of physical laws to humans indicate that some physical changes can only be explained by statistical laws. See the explanations for Items I and II. and moral beliefs are inconsistent with the idea that these laws could apply to human beings and perhaps higher animals (lines 68-72). in a different context (lines 55-68). were thought to apply to all physical objects or changes (lines 55-59). apply to human beings as well (lines 62-64). not theories. D: The Newtonian view of reality was eventually accepted. Our social. Our social. 96. and moral beliefs contradict the idea that all physical changes are subject to the same unchanging natural laws (lines 62-72). D: Yes. political. B A: Newton’s ideas were “eventually” (lines 21-22) accepted after a “process of readjustment” (line 26). not acceptance of new scientific ideas (lines 62-72). physical laws. B: This choice also takes words and ideas from the passage out of context. The author’s discussion of the application of natural law to human behavior comes later in the passage. 99. The passage gives no indication that the laws governing human actions must be statistical in nature. political. 62-72). This choice is not consistent with the main ideas of the last two paragraphs. B: Yes. The view that all physical changes are completely determined would. However. 18 . The passage never indicates that the theory of behaviorism is itself weak. According to the passage. C: The passage indicates that most people eventually modified their world view to bring it into line with Newton’s ideas (lines 14-26). according to the author. B: This is the right answer to the wrong question. most of our social. or that most people’s acceptance of those theories was feigned or only superficial. A Item I: Item II: Item III: Yes. 97. C: The passage states that in the 17th century. the scientific tradition that holds that all physical changes are subject to natural law has been accepted since the 17th century (lines 55-59). not (as far as we know) people in the 17th century who assume that these laws apply equally to human beings (lines 62-64). The new information in the question describes people changing their views of reality in order to accommodate new scientific findings. D A: The author refers to this claim in order to make the argument that some long-standing scientific traditions (in this case. the author draws no direct connection between those research traditions and the social. the fact that people still believe in inner mental states indicates that the scientific tradition of behaviorism has not been able to supplant or transform an old world view that contradicts this scientific theory (lines 32-40). and moral beliefs discussed in lines 64-72. since the 17th century) have still not been accepted by most people (lines 49-68). The question gives an example of adaptability and acceptance of changing world views. it is the author. C: Yes. 98. political. Secondly. Such systems sometimes conflict with scientific theories and traditions (lines 32-40. According to the author. This choice describes resistance to. See the explanation for Item I. Thus the words “readily” and “quickly” are too extreme. C: Yes. 45-47). This choice indicates that some new scientific ideas may never find acceptance in the face of contradictory world views. and moral beliefs are themselves a broader system of cultural attitudes.95. and that the strength of old world views may not necessarily fade over time. The author argues that behaviorism is not widely accepted due to the strength of the old world view in which inner mental states exist (lines 32-37. D: While the author does argue that Darwinism and Marxism have been accepted by “reflective people” (lines 26-31). There is no indication that the implications of Newton’s theories were ignored. C A: Remember the main idea of the passage. B: The author writes that natural laws may be either statistical or nonstatistical (lines 58-59). C A: This choice takes words out of the context of the passage. political. not rejected (lines 21-26). This choice corresponds to the author’s description of the process of readjustment that led to acceptance of Newton’s ideas (lines 14-26).

56-62 for the second). B: Dust is never mentioned in the context of the CO2 theory. not what those measurements would show. that would be insufficient evidence to either disprove the dust scenario or prove the CO2 theory. the increase in atmospheric CO2 would cause a decrease in CO2 in ocean waters (due to increases in temperatures) (lines 54-59). D A: The passage never suggests that CO2 is poisonous to fish. Avoid a trap by going back to the passage and re-reading carefully. Ice cores would indicate if such a change did in fact occur. D: Yes. prove or indicate. 22) or in shallow ocean beds (line 22). the author does not discuss it or the contradictory belief in inner states in order to make that claim. According to the CO2 theory. 49-50). This choice is also too extreme. or other creatures that themselves eat algae (lines 6062). Fish may in fact eat algae. or which release CO2 into the atmosphere by colliding with beds of carbonate rock on dry land or in shallow water (lines 20-23. that would not be sufficient to prove that the cause was an asteroid strike. Compare this choice to answer choice A. As dissolved CO2 levels fell. Even if decreased levels of oceanic CO2 levels were found (and we don’t know that they would be). D: See the explanation for choice C. The credited response must be something that these measurements would. This choice is too extreme. Decreases in dissolved CO2 would cause algae to decline. the base of the food chain (lines 56-62). However. A Note: Notice the word “would” in the question. Even if it were shown that CO2 levels had fallen in the oceans at the K–T boundary. so would the population of algae. not what those measurements would be. D Note: Notice that the passage discusses only asteroid strikes on dry land (lines 8-11. The CO2 theory posits that increases in atmospheric CO2 would have caused decreases in levels of CO2 dissolved in ocean waters (lines 56-59).D: While behaviorism may be a relatively new (very new is too extreme) tradition. it could have been a decrease in the dissolved CO2 level in the ocean waters (and an increase in atmospheric CO2) that lead to extinctions of marine life by inhibiting the growth of algae. There is no indication in the passage that a hit in deep ocean would release CO2 into the atmosphere and set off a chain of events leading to large-scale extinctions. C: Nowhere in the passage are extinctions limited to aquatic species discussed. The author only discusses asteroid impacts which might send up clouds of smoke and dust (lines 8-11) (and so presumably occur on dry land). which sit at the base of the oceanic food chain (lines 59-61). 102. C: This choice contradicts the passage. D: Yes. Disruption of the food chain could then have led to the extinction of a variety of marine species (lines 60-62). including species of fish. Always keep the main idea of the paragraph in mind when answering “support” or “in order to” questions. 19 . C: The new information in the question states only that measurements could be made. Passage IV 100. 101. A: Yes. B: The new information in the question describes the possibility of measurement. not in the deepest part of the ocean. not to flourish (lines 59-60). not just could show. This choice illegitimately combines aspects of the two different theories presented in the passage (lines 8-11 for the first. An increase in atmospheric CO2 would cause global warming (lines 46-51). Higher temperatures would cause less CO2 to dissolve in ocean waters (lines 56-59). B: A large enough asteroid could cause mass extinctions if it hit a layer of carbonate rock [on dry land or in ocean shallows (lines 20-27)]. A: Such warming would occur if a 10 km asteroid hit in a bed of carbonate rock (lines 48-51). Neither does the author present evidence suggesting that an asteroid hit in deep water would cause any extinction of marine species. 45-46.

a theory which according to the author has serious weaknesses (lines 13-17). we would find increased sea levels at the K–T boundary. The author appears to prefer the CO2 theory as shown by the problems raised regarding the first theory (lines 13-17) and by the last line of the passage. is correct. Finally. A A: Yes. if the CO2 theory is valid. or ash in the atmosphere (the first theory presented. The iridium evidence is consistent with both theories presented in the passage. and would support. not weaken the CO2 theory. B: In the first paragraph. 20 . not its indirect effects through global warming. In fact. A A: Yes. the author explains that high iridium levels at the K–T boundary inspired the idea that an asteroid struck the Earth at that time. It is reasonable to assume that massive amounts of ash in the atmosphere would have a similar effect. C: Yes.103. Sea levels would have risen much more dramatically at the K–T boundary if the temperature had increased 5–20 ∞C. The author states that low-level global warming of 2–4 ∞C due to burning of fossil fuels may lead to melting of the polar ice caps and flooding (lines 38-43). the presence of excess iridium would also be consistent with the CO2 theory. the CO2 theory. D: The CO2 theory does not rest on the claim that only asteroid impact could lead to increases in global CO2. including that of the dinosaurs. which also claims that the primary cause of extinction was an asteroid strike (lines 18-20). lasting for 10. in the rest of the passage). the author describes other factors that increase atmospheric CO2 levels. D: Yes. B: Excess iridium is mentioned in the context of the “dust and smoke” theory (lines 5-11). D A: This choice is too extreme. then high levels of CO2 may have lead to large-scale extinctions. both of which explain the extinctions as the result of the impact of a large asteroid or comet. Further correlation between CO2 levels and global warming would strengthen. in the context of presenting the CO2 theory. smoke. if the main hypothesis presented in the passage (the CO2 theory) is correct. the author does not suggest that all forms of life were or would have been destroyed. C: The main theory presented in the passage. The only reference in the passage to a species that is directly sensitive to CO2 levels is to a marine species. if the main theory presented in the passage. Thus. causing global warming and a decrease in oceanic CO2 levels.000 years (lines 46-53). The author states that the dust and smoke from an asteroid impact could have temporarily cooled the Earth by blocking out sunlight (lines 8-17). Beware of opposite answer choices. The author describes two theories in the passage. It is reasonable to assume that massive amounts of ash would have a similar blocking effect. C A: The possibility of a loss of carbonate rock is not addressed by the passage. B: The passage indicates just the opposite. “Thus. it would significantly undermine the causal claims at the heart of the CO2 theory. D: This is the right answer to the wrong question. 105. 44-53). excess iridium could well be present. We can infer that this flooding would be caused by an increase in sea level due to the melting ice. argues that major extinctions did occur at the K–T boundary (lines 60-66). not challenge the CO2 theory. large amounts of dust and smoke in the atmosphere would lead to a rapid decrease in temperature and a temporary “winter” (lines 8-11). in the first paragraph) and increases in CO2 (the second theory described. Dust and smoke filling the atmosphere would block sunlight from reaching the Earth (lines 10-11). If a major asteroid hit on carbonate rock were not followed by climatic change. by causing global warming. However. there is no connection to be made to an ash-spewing volcano. 104. global warming could have led to the extinction of the dinosaurs. C: The passage makes no such comparison. According to the passage. such as burning of fossil fuels (lines 32-38).” 106. the wording of this answer choice (“survive in high levels of CO2”) appears to indicate that it is the CO2 itself that kills. Thus. C: The CO2 theory argues that increased levels of atmospheric CO2 would lead to global warming (lines 28-32. However. the CO2 theory. B: According to the passage. algae (lines 57-60). The passage makes no connection between dust. Even if we were to speculate that an asteroid hit that released CO2 from carbonate rocks would entail a reduction in the rocks’ mass (and this speculation would not be sufficiently supported by the passage). The CO2 hypothesis is based on the claim that a major asteroid impact on a bed of carbonate rock would release CO2 into the air.

First.D: As in choices B and C. even elementary ones. Picasso’s later apparent spontaneity is contrasted with his academic. and so indicates that starvation was likely a major cause of extinction. Second. the “fragmented and distorted” works from his childhood. 21 . 60-65). 32-35). Note as well that the questions never ask for the author’s own views on those points. this choice contradicts the passage. Compare this choice to answer choice C. 35-41). D: Yes. while the “unreflective virtuoso” represents the former category. B A: The author believes that asteroids may have indirectly. This is more likely true of an academic painter or “cerebral structurer. C: Only one example of revision is given (lines 61-64). B: While we know from the passage that Picasso and Braque invented cubism (line 10). just that the dust itself was not sufficient to cause mass extinction (lines 13-20) D: The passage states just the opposite. or that revision was a reason for his level of artistic achievement. According to Apollinaire and to the author. Passage V Note: This passage is particularly confusing because the author’s own position on the issue of whether or not Picasso was in fact a “cerebral structurer” as a young child. who relies on nature” (lines 46-54). the “unreflective virtuoso” Picasso still displayed mastery of his art. D: This choice is too extreme. In fact. The author centers the passage on a basic contrast between childhood or childlike art on one hand. The “cerebral structurer” represents the latter. Decreased levels of CO2 in the oceans could have lead to a decrease in the algae population. An adult artist who draws like a child works not from rules and tradition. the author explains that reduction in plant growth disrupts the food chain. The CO2 theory is predicated on the claim that atmospheric CO2 levels rose (lines 23-27). nor was his work effortless (lines 22-26. In both of the scenarios described. Don’t get distracted by things that are left unclear in the passage if they are not necessary for answering the questions. a consequence of the asteroid or comet impact would be slowing of plant growth (lines 11-13. Picasso’s “spectacular progress” came when he transformed himself into an “unreflective virtuoso. what is the relationship between his work as a child and as an adult. the passage does not indicate that Picasso rejected the art movements of his time (he could have built upon them. Global warming would have affected the entire planet. the “harbingers [forerunners] of his later genius” (lines 3-7) indicate that he did not paint naturalistic scenes or objects. and a childlike or “unreflective” and spontaneous approach to art. and precise work as a child around the age of nine (lines 24-29). what is the relationship between his mature work and his artistic creation as a child. and whether or not he did in fact “begin again” as an adult artist is never made clear (see lines 8-12. and academic. C A: This choice is too literal. 59-64). literal. 109. We do not know from the passage that Picasso had a practice of making many revisions. C: The author may well believe that dust filled the air after an impact. 52-54). caused the dinosaurs’ extinction. and so disruption of the entire marine food chain (lines 56-62). His unrealistic portrait of Gertrude Stein provides additional evidence along these lines (lines 59-64). B: It is unlikely that the “unreflective virtuoso who relies on nature” would consciously refer to or employ defined aesthetic principles. B: Yes. According to the passage.” C: Yes. His achievements arose from the transformation or metamorphosis that came later (lines 43-45. for example). literal. 108. D A: The author argues that Picasso was not a genius or “frankly precocious” as a child (lines 41-45). The passage never suggests that Picasso [an example of an artist who relies on nature (lines 50-52)] painted naturalistic scenes. not directly. not that they (and the composition of the atmosphere) remained constant. 107. The primary purpose of the passage is to assess Picasso’s work along two related lines. or that such rejection would itself be a cause of his artistic accomplishments. but with intuitive spontaneity and adventurousness (lines 22-29. there would have been no need for the dinosaurs to be located near the impact site. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. and precise art on the other. In the context of discussing the CO2 theory (the author’s preferred explanation).

Thus the author is not neutral. not inconsistent with the claim that we can see the seeds of Picasso’s adult style in his work as a child. playfulness. and realistic manner (lines 24-29). This choice is too literal. Picasso’s early drawings are described as unusually skilled and his progress as spectacular (lines 41-45). C A: Picasso indicates his goals through his statement that “it has taken me a whole lifetime to learn to draw like a child” (lines 27-29). C: Yes. but “childlike” early drawings would indicate that he was such an artist from the beginning. A: This choice is inconsistent with the new claim made in the question. the author rejects the standard story of Picasso’s precocious childhood talent (lines 13-15. D: Revision of Stein’s portrait from memory has no direct relevance to the argument about the nature of Picasso’s art in his childhood. This choice inappropriately indicates that the portrait was intended to be realistic at some time in the future. He also argued that he had to entirely begin again as an adult painter (lines 15-21). B: See the explanation for choice A. as a “cerebral structurer. This indicates that Picasso was not a purely academic and realistic painter in his youth. literal. Secondly. B: The author explicitly criticizes the standard story of Picasso’s precocious talent (lines 13-15. D: See the explanation for choice B. D A: This choice is partially correct. and precise.” Picasso and Apollinaire claim that Picasso became an artist of the first type later in life. B Note: The statement made in the question is new information. that is.” B: Yes. 114. B: There is nothing particularly childlike about muted or subtle colors and elongated figures. D: Rendering “hard-edged” multifaceted perspectives would require a level of skill and purposefulness beyond the capacity of an imprecise and childlike painter. D: Yes. the author 22 . it is not inconsistent. However. and that there is some continuity between his youthful creations and his mature artistic style. lines 41-45 for the author’s opinion). This is contradicted by the author’s assertion that Picasso’s early works contained aspects of distortion. Both claim that Picasso became an “unreflective virtuoso” later in life. A A: Yes. and that he later transformed himself into an entirely different kind of painter (lines 22-29). and so entirely wrong. not with the new claim made in the question. See the explanations above (and lines 13-15 for the standard story. B: Picasso’s later work was characterized by distortion (lines 61-64). C: This directly contradicts the author’s rejection of the standard claim that Picasso displayed a precocious genius from early childhood (lines 13-15. 41-45). 113. that would appear in his adult creations. C: As in choice A. The author claims that Picasso transformed himself into an “unreflective virtuoso” (lines 47-54) who learned to “draw like a child” as an adult (lines 27-29). this statement is consistent with Picasso and Apollinaire’s analyses. precise. Nothing in the passage indicates that piecing a work together out of found objects is a childlike approach to art. C: The assertion made in the question is not directly relevant to the lack of drawings from Picasso’s first eight years. 111. Therefore. Thus the playfulness of his youthful graphic experimentation (lines 8-12) is entirely consistent with the claim that these experiments were precursors of his mature artistic style. 41-45). Thus this choice is consistent. The portrait was not intended to be realistic or accurate. Picasso himself claimed that his first drawings were academic. Exuberant experimentation would more likely characterize an “unreflective virtuoso who relies on nature” than a “cerebral structurer who relies on understanding. puns. etc. 41-45). C A: We must take the retort in the context of the passage and the main idea of the paragraph in which it appears. 112. tricks.110. Raphael drew in an academic. This choice is out of the scope of the question. The author uses Stein’s portrait to illustrate Apollinaire’s claim that Picasso left behind realism as he metamorphosed into an artist of the first type (lines 50-64). Simple figures and bright colors represent a childlike style. It is inconsistent with the claims made in the passage by Picasso and Apollinaire.

C: While Picasso in his cerebral phase did paint in a realistic manner (lines 24-26).e. this choice does not match up with the contrast presented in the passage between the “unreflective virtuoso who relies on nature” and the “cerebral structurer who relies on understanding. or intellectual about terse (succinct) and realistic dialogue. childlike) painter in this stage of his life. 35-41). This choice is inconsistent with the new information presented in the question.e. The author indicates that Picasso may in fact not have made a radical transformation from Apollinaire’s second kind of artist to the first kind (lines 8-12. 50-51)] would have great emotional power. produce only childlike works provides no proof that those artists carried over that quality from their own childhood and did not “begin again” as adults. but not “frankly precocious” (lines 41-45). it would weaken Picasso’s claim that the adult artist must “begin. and that his first drawings as a child were not “frankly precocious” (lines 41-45).) C: Formal artistic training is not a relevant issue in the passage.. it is unclear from the passage exactly what the author’s position is on this topic. B Note: The credited response must both accurately represent the author’s views in the passage and be relevant to the new information in the question. B: Yes. 115. the argument in this choice is made by Picasso himself (lines 15-17). There is nothing in the passage to suggest even indirectly that a novel written with academic precision [qualities which characterized Picasso in his cerebral phase (lines 24-26. In fact. If the naïveté which characterized children’s art does not in fact disappear. C: If Picasso’s early work was in fact childlike [i. as we do not know for sure that these artists are adults. A A: Yes. Furthermore. D: The author never suggests that Picasso intended to teach viewers of his paintings how to see art in a different way. The main idea of this (and the previous) paragraph is that Picasso left behind realism and became a more intuitive. nonacademic style as children.from the beginning. academic. spontaneous. D: Symbolism is never suggested by the passage as an aspect of a cerebral style. Furthermore. but is available on some level to the adult artist. B A: This choice strengthens Picasso’s claim. this would indicate that the transition away from a cerebral structurer into a more “childlike” artist came earlier than the age of nine. B: Yes. Thus the example of the portrait is intended to illustrate how Picasso was now guided by concerns other than accuracy of a likeness or realism in his work. D: This choice would tend to strengthen Picasso’s claim that childlike qualities do not automatically carry over from childhood into adulthood. 117. or that if they are adults that they painted in a naïve.” There is nothing uniquely cerebral. 46-67). in contradiction to Picasso’s own claims (lines 21-26)].) 23 . however. Thus the new information in the question is consistent with the author’s views that the nine-year-old Picasso was not yet a uniquely skilled artist.” (Notice that the author himself makes the assertion given in the answer choice in lines 11-12. and adventurous (i. the main idea of this part of the passage is that Picasso had left behind the academic or analytic approach to art for a more “unreflective” and childlike style. and at times in apparent agreement. trained or untrained. The fact that some artists. And yet the author cites Picasso and Apollinaire’s opinions that such a radical metamorphosis did occur without directly refuting them (lines 15-29. The author claims that Picasso’s childhood drawings were very skilled. and understanding would be necessary to both create and appreciate a novel written with many layers of meaning.indicates that the portrait was finished at the time Picasso made his remark (line 63).. (It doesn’t quite qualify as a “strengthen” answer choice. 116. A: This choice contradicts the author’s argument that Picasso made striking progress after his early years. B: Emotion is never directly discussed in the passage. D: The new information in the question contradicts Picasso’s claim that his first drawings were not childlike (lines 21-26). C: Yes.. similar to the work of other children. A cerebral structurer “relies on understanding” (line 48)..

The new information in the question tells us that they existed long before the appearance of the Neandertal. even if the passage did claim that the Neandertals were highly intelligent.Passage VI 118. This choice is the best supported of the four options. D: See the explanation for choice C. C: Radiocarbon dating is never mentioned in the passage. the passage does not suggest that those advances were driven by a need for more sophisticated technology. but it is not presented as the reason why Neandertals are so fascinating to anthropologists. Use process of elimination! We know from the passage that Homo erectus predated the existence of modern humans (lines 3-5). Furthermore. The rest of the passage either directly or indirectly addresses this issue. The word “normally” makes this choice incorrect. and so is less likely. Burial of the dead is one clue to Neandertals’ potential humanness (lines 26-28). B A: Tools remained few and crude until the development of the Levallois technique. B: The new information about Homo erectus tells us nothing new about the direct relationship between apes. D: The Neandertals refined the Levallois technique. support for that claim is weak. C: Notice the word “primary” in the question. B: Yes. and modern humans. this statement is a much more extreme version of A. the passage indicates that they would still be related. B: While the passage describes one instance of slowing of the rate of change after a technological innovation (lines 6066). they would have impressive mental powers (lines 21-25). which is that the classification of Neandertals has not yet been determined. 121. The author claims that the Neandertals made a wide range of artifacts without providing specific examples of different kinds of tools. A A: Yes. B: The author states that we do not know whether they are the direct ancestors of modern human beings (lines 1-12). the author does not indicate that this is representative of rates of technological change in general. This choice contradicts the main idea of the passage. C: The author never claims that the Neandertals were highly intelligent. they did not invent it (lines 60-64). 119. Thus. that in and of itself would not provide strong support for claims about their resourceful tool-making. D: Yes. it does not represent the primary significance of Neandertals. making it more likely (although not certain) that Homo erectus was an ancestor (direct or distant) to both Homo sapiens sapiens and the Neandertal. Thus this choice does not accurately describe the tools used by the Neandertals. The author states that “Stone tools clearly signal the pace of change in human prehistory” (lines 55-56). C: Even if Neandertal is not a direct ancestor of modern humans. but never claims that quantity is in fact the only measure. even if distantly (lines 10-12). The new information in the question about Homo erectus provides no clue that a completely separate human family tree exists. for example. This choice is a more extreme version of choice A. A A: Yes. is not described as a response to changing conditions that necessitated more refined tools. The passage states that if cranial capacity were the only measure. The Neandertals refined that technique even further (lines 56-66). Be careful not to rely on outside knowledge. indicating that the tools made and used by a species tell us something about that species. and so is even less supported by the passage. 24 . the Neandertal. The invention and refinement of the Levallois technique. 120. While the use of stone tools is a significant fact about Neandertals. D: As in choice B. D A: While advances in the technology of stone tools occurred. The author introduces the passage by stating that the classification of Neandertals (as direct or distant relatives to modern humans) is “One of the hottest topics in anthropology today” (lines 1-3) and “the subject of a long and contentious debate” (lines 6-8). The passage as a whole describes aspects and characteristics of the Neandertal as a way of exploring their true nature.

a flower. Notice the words “not only” and “but also” in the cited sentences. D: Yes. B: The Neandertals did use tools.” C: This is the right answer to the wrong question. Only the last paragraph discusses the pair’s mixed feelings about their marriage. D A: This choice is only partially correct. the link as described is limited to these poems and these characters. However. B: Thomas’s “always jiving” represents his own individual life and experiences (lines 27-30). 124. C: This is one theme of the passage (lines 6-8). Events linked to water and ships are connected in the passage to a gap in Thomas’s life between desire and fulfillment (lines 31-41). These quotes illustrate Thomas’s (lines 36-37) and Beulah’s (lines 5053) individual lives and thoughts. but also “the significant events of their shared lives” (lines 4-8). who have a smaller brain. and to portray their mixed feelings. “How did I get here?” Beulah turns her back on her father reluctantly. The author introduces the passage with the statement that the collection of poems “presents not only the single most important events and the resultant mind-sets” in each separate life. Thus a toy that recited religious verses (performed rituals) would. C: Yes. 25 . 44-47). C: The author never discusses weaponry. almost-equal parts (lines 2-3). In fact. 66-69). D: Yes. but not as a criterion for humanness (lines 20-25). but this statement is too narrow to be the main idea of the entire passage. while events linked to ships and water characterize Thomas’s existence (lines 41-43). The “psychological and emotional lives of two individuals” would include both their separate and shared experiences. and yet he wonders. The author does not suggest that this association always exists. sweeping the floor (lines 47-53)] and extraordinary [the death of a friend (lines 9-12)]. The correct answer must be supported by the passage. D A: The author discusses the large cranial capacity of the Neandertal. The events described in the passage are both ordinary [parents quarreling. it would make them different from modern humans. The passage never mentions Beulah’s desire “to hear wine pouring. but it is too narrow to be the main idea. while pain and guilt are associated with Thomas (lines 20-27. a music box) are linked to Beulah (lines 15-20. not their mixed feelings about their marriage. However. and we can speculate that they used tools to make tools with the Levallois technique (tools would be needed to strike flakes of stone from a rock). Passage VII 123.122. be most human on that criterion. B: Thomas and Beulah is in fact divided into two. D: This choice is too extreme. C A: Events connected to beautiful objects (a silk handkerchief. as she walks towards her new life with Thomas. However. 125. Notice where each reference appears in the passage. The correct answer must include both. the poems also describe the “single most important events and the resulting mind-sets in the separate lives of Thomas and Beulah” (lines 4-8). the Eiffel Tower. it does not include the other major theme. The purpose of that paragraph is to present the two characters’ perspectives on their marriage. Beulah’s preference for a pianola does represent her mixed feeling about the marriage (lines 56-66). the “one pierced cry” refers to Thomas’s own individual association between music and guilt (lines 20-27). 41-43). tool use is not given in the passage as a primary criterion for humanness. D A: This statement is made in the passage (lines 1-2). B: Beulah desires a sensuous life (lines 44-47). Both quotes come from the final paragraph (lines 63-64. The author describes burial ritual as a “uniquely human activity” (lines 27-28). among the four choices. However. Thomas experiences longing as he wraps the yellow scarf around Beulah’s shoulders. D: Yes. which indicate that there are two main themes in the passage.

Ten percent of that energy is passed on to animals that eat the plants. Dove describes a series of events and experiences in Thomas and Beulah’s shared and individual lives that show a mixture of positive and negative emotions. A: Yes. not to Thomas (see the explanation for choice A). ten percent of what is left goes to the animals that eat the plant eaters. and according to the passage. killer whales would be expected to feed on seals. This choice is also too extreme. according to the author’s description of the food chain. The author does not suggest a relationship between the energy available at each level and the number of species at that same level. B: This choice is too extreme. the author does not generalize from Thomas and Beulah’s experiences to all couples. they should apply to other couples as well. “sound quivered like a rope stretched clear to land…a man gurgling air. in the ocean). in fact the passage itself states that they do so (lines 52-54). and so on up to the top of the energy pyramid (lines 7-23). 52. The second quote in the question corresponds to Beulah. Furthermore. She is also associated with images of flowers (lines 19. her thoughts of China as she dies (lines 53-55). However. when he marries. thus it is consistent with the passage that they feed on algae. but does not go so far as to suggest that people as a whole are rarely happy.126. C: This choice is too extreme. as shown in such lines as “she would make it to Paris one day” (line 50). the author explains that ten percent of the sunlight reaching the Earth is fixed by photosynthesis. B: See the explanation for choice A. It is also directly stated in the passage (lines 59-60). and so violate the hierarchical relationship posited by the author. 129. A A: Yes. 52-60). While Thomas and Beulah both have ambivalent feelings about their marriage. 127. The passage describes unhappiness in the lives of both characters. Item II: As in Item I. Item III: Yes. 20-30). Copepods are small animals. suggesting a desire for freedom. 26 . and her preference for “a pianola and scent in a sky-colored flask” (line 65). C: “Canary in Bloom” presents Beulah (paragraph 5). The ten percent rule relates only to the energy pyramid (lines 7-23). The second quote corresponds to Beulah’s desires for a beautiful and sensuous life. the appropriate order is reversed. and the title “Canary in Bloom”). Ticks feeding on jackals would invert this relationship. the author does not describe them as fundamentally mismatched emotionally. 37-39). There is no specific proportional relationship given in the passage. Passage VIII 128. Jackals are not top predators. and “Mandolin” Thomas (paragraph 2). Be careful not to use outside knowledge to choose or eliminate choices. In the second paragraph. feels he has “raised a mast and tied himself to it” (lines 31-35. each level feeds on smaller and more numerous species below and is fed upon by those above (lines 13-20). the author does not indicate that each successive layer weighs ten percent of the layer below it (or above it. his death is described only in order to show how it affects Thomas (lines 9-12. D: The passage indicates that Thomas. A Note: Neither quote given in the question is from the passage. While the biomass pyramid on land is broad at the bottom and narrow at the top (lines 28-40) (and inverted in the sea). A Item I: Item II: Item III: Yes. the author does not say that this is true of all married men. See the explanation for choice A for discussion of the quotes given in the question. except for the top predators (lines 17-20). The first quote in the question corresponds to Thomas’s pain and helplessness as described in such lines as “one pierced cry” (line 22). D: No images associated with Lem are given in the passage. B Note: Eliminate the items that are consistent with the passage. joys and uncertainties (see for example the last paragraph). Item I: The food web as described in the passage has for the most part larger animals feeding on smaller and more numerous animals and plants (lines 13-23. Here.” and “too frail for combat” (lines 40-41). If Dove’s insights into her characters’ thoughts and emotions are accurate.

we would expect marine mammals to have a greater bulk than invertebrate fish. C A: If some carnivores could utilize the sun’s energy directly. If some top carnivores could consume a greater percentage of the sun’s energy by utilizing it directly. which has no direct relevance to the shape of the biomass pyramid. see the explanation for choice A. if photosynthesizing top carnivores were reclassified as plants and included in that level). Plants use ten percent of the sun’s energy that reaches the Earth. if they were to capture almost all of it. Finally and most importantly. or one percent of the total sunlight reaching the Earth’s surface. Thus this choice is inconsistent with the author’s statement that the pyramid is inverted. D: The passage never indicates that top carnivores get any energy directly from the sun. D: For the pyramid to flatten. even if it did. Ten percent of that energy is converted to food energy (lines 7-14).. Secondly. C: The passage does not discuss sources of energy available to plants other than the sun. C: Yes. Neither the passage nor the question gives us any reason to believe reclassification or collapsing of categories would occur. the percentage of the sun’s total energy utilized at the top of the pyramid would increase. and so the pyramid would not invert.130. the top of the pyramid would broaden to include that increased amount. not all whales are top carnivores. a level would have to be removed (e. B: The pyramid would change at least to some extent. and so on down the line (lines 7-20). plants would not be utilizing less (there is plenty to go around). this does not imply that top sea carnivores are not close to that edge. B: The passage states that the top carnivores on land skirt the edge of extinction (not the same. the author mentions extinction in the context of the energy pyramid. B: Both land plants and algae are described as “green plants” (lines 10. Only the latter is relevant to this question.g. it would have no effect on the author’s claim that the oceanic biomass pyramid is inverted. 63). Thus in the inverted pyramid. According to the inverted biomass pyramid. Thus the statement that whales are close to extinction has no effect on the author’s argument about inversion of the biomass pyramid. The passage already states that algae are better than land plants at capturing solar energy (lines 49-51). not inconsistent with the inverted pyramid. 132. Thus each group is able to use or absorb ten percent of the total energy from the sun available at that level— equivalent levels of efficiency. This choice is consistent. as being on the brink of extinction). the base would stay the same. Ten percent of the sunlight reaching the Earth serves life directly through photosynthesis. First of all. 131. Animals that eat the plants get ten percent of the total available energy. C: Zooplankton feed on phytoplankton (lines 49-54). Marine mammals feed on invertebrate fish (lines 56-59). 27 . D A: The correct answer will be inconsistent with the statement cited in the question. D: Yes. we would expect zooplankton to have a greater bulk. However. A A: Yes. in context.

B: The boss is not giving anything to the workers. B: The author does not suggest that selfishness must always exist or be expressed. C: According to the passage. and act in each other’s interests. A A: Yes. C: Dave and the author’s inability to perceive the interests of the other as their own would be consistent. 38-41). the author lists three additional aspects of friendship other than caring for each other. the author indicates through personal example that friendship cannot be one-sided. 134. This example appears to be more of a case of shared interests than of an expression of power. the husband is not granting the vacation to his wife in the context of an unequal power relationship. with no expectation of subservience on the part of homeless people in return. this does not undermine the author’s definition of moral friendship. The author argues that giving may not be selfless in some cases. and gives specific examples in the second paragraph. D: Both the husband and the wife can benefit from the vacation. The author gives us no reason to believe that two people who have a friend in common will themselves have and share all of the qualities necessary for friendship. but those needs may be different for each person (see also Question 136. Through arguing with Dave. the trust. D: This choice is consistent with the new information in the question. B A: The author argues that friendship is a moral activity because it entails caring about and giving to someone else for their own sake (lines 5-8. This choice is not inconsistent with the passage.Passage IX 133. If. If one identifies one’s own interests with those of another. as shown in the example of the power-hungry husband (lines 11-25). as described. Notice that the theme of this question is the same as that in Question 135 (cooperation and conflict). 42-47). In this example.and other-interest may still exist. 137. Disagreement over shared activities does not necessarily indicate that these friends do not truly care about each other in this way. friendship exists when people like each other. D: Coming to see the interests of a friend as your own does not necessarily entail becoming similar to that friend in all or most ways. 136. they satisfy each other’s needs (lines 5-8. care about each other. D A: Transitivity of friendship in this mathematical sense is never discussed in the passage. C: The author describes the case of the selfish man and his wife in order to support this assertion (lines 15-25). D A: The author explains this assertion in lines 5-9. B: Yes. caring and affection must go both ways. A A: Yes. D: Yes. however. B: If Mary and Bill are friends. Thus this choice would weaken the author’s argument in lines 52-54. C: True friendship cannot exist without equality and reciprocity. a purely altruistic act. In lines 42-49. but simply commanding or requesting certain behavior on their part. the judge is granting leniency to those who acknowledge his or her authority and flatter his or her ego through respectful forms of address. D: Yes. 135. C: This is. explanation D). B: In lines 29-31. 28 . The author makes this assertion in lines 34-35 without supporting it with explanation or example. Frequent arguments over how they will spend time together indicates that a division between self. they are not truly friends in the highest moral sense. it is reasonable to expect that those two people will naturally tend to cooperate to serve those interests. Beneficent acts may be performed because a subordinate beneficiary will in turn “flatter the ego” of the one in power (lines 17-21) and confirm his or her dominance. and that grounds for conflict would be lessened. the author may be exploring and defining his own real interests and desires. The author never indicates that this is possible only when people know each other very well. not inconsistent with the claim that not everyone is capable of true and full moral friendship. Compare your answers on similar questions to be sure that they are consistent with each other.

This is an ambiguous question because there is no “normal mechanism of self-tolerance” described in the passage. this would be a mechanism for autoimmunity. the passage suggests that this does not occur (“if clonal deletion. after which they proliferate. thus. Based on the descriptions of the hypotheses given in the passage. just through a different mechanism. nor would they decrease the number of suppressor cells for the original tissue. A disturbance to that balance could be a loss of suppressor cells (given in the passage). this is described in Hypothesis 1: “Identical groups (clones) of circulating lymphocytes remain inactive until they encounter their specific antigens. and this includes both B and T lymphocytes (choice A can be eliminated). It further states that the loss or inactivation of suppressor cells may lead to autoimmune disease. and this is a vague term at best. Cells obtained from an identical twin would be identical to the original cells. Hypothesis 2 may correct for errors made with Hypothesis 1. Cells from a new tissue may increase the number of effector cells for the new tissue. and suppressor cells as those that limit the action of effector cells. the two do not seem mutually exclusive.. and lymphocytes specific for that antigen were activated. Corneal tissue is a living tissue (choice B can be eliminated).” Clones that do not encounter their specific antigen remain inactive (choice C can be eliminated). T-cell processing occurs in the thymus (remember: “T” is for “thymus”).is hindered. immune system function. these lymphocytes will incorrectly recognize a specific body tissue as foreign. it would appear that the question is really asking about the body’s normal mechanism of responding to foreign antigen in general. Hypothesis 1 occurs very early in life. the injection of a foreign substance that cross-reacts with the original tissue would lead to an increase in effector cells for that tissue. C. 143. To decide between the remaining choices is difficult because an explanation of “cross-react” is not provided in the passage.”). and choice D suggests that self-tolerance does develop. 142. 141. 139. failure to delete auto-reactive clones early on can be compensated for by creating suppressor cells to prevent the activity of auto-reactive effector cells. A. an autoimmune reaction to that tissue may result. thereby disturbing the balance between effectors and suppressors and leading to autoimmunity (choice C is correct and D is eliminated). If the antigen is from the body’s own tissues. and that clones activated by the body’s own tissues (antigens) are deleted.. Thus antigens that do not circulate could never encounter lymphocytes specific for them. Choice C describes how the cornea might be protected against infection. Hypothesis 2 describes effector cells as those that attack and destroy antigens.e. i. A. rather. Therefore. not for self-tolerance (choice B can be eliminated). or it could be an increase in effector cells. and Hypothesis 2 seems to occur throughout life. Judging by the answer choices available. Assuming that “cross-react” means to elicit a similar immunological effect. 140. individuals with both autoimmune thyroid and autoimmune liver disease must have lost or inactivated suppressor cells that respond to both of these tissues. 29 . B. Hypothesis 1 states that circulating lymphocytes are activated after encountering their specific antigens.. these self-reactive lymphocytes would not be activated and would not be deleted (selftolerance would not develop). but would not increase the number of effector cells for the original tissue. Note that the loss or inactivation of effector cells (choices C and D) would reduce the possibility of autoimmune disease. Note that although choice A is tempting. Hypothesis 1 states that self-tolerance is generated when the body is processing T and B lymphocytes. and would be virtually ignored by the body (choice A can be eliminated). Hypothesis 2 states that if the balance between effector and suppressor cells for a particular tissue is disturbed. D. that is. but does not address the issue of the failure to develop self-tolerance. Essentially. they seem mutually supportive. and B-cell processing occurs in the bone marrow (remember: “B” is for “bone marrow”).. D. autoimmunity would not result (choice B can be eliminated)..BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES Passage I 138.

according to the passage. however. However. 147. Increasing substrate concentration would have no effect on an irreversible or noncompetitive inhibitor (choices A and C are false). The action of Drug X is to increase ACh by preventing its degradation. Since in this case an increase in ACh (the substrate) decreases the effect of the inhibitor (Drug X). It does not increase ACh production (choice B is false). if the concentration of substrate for that enzyme is increased. 150. A competitive inhibitor binds at the active site of an enzyme and prevents its activity. B. Drug Y blocks the receptors noncompetitively (noncompetitive blockers bind somewhere other than the ligand-binding site and render the receptor unable to bind ligand. or D is true. In the second half of Step 6. it prevents the destruction of ACh. and the effect of the inhibitor will be counteracted. choice A is false). B.Passage II 144. Ketals are converted back into their corresponding ketones by treatment with acid (eliminating choice D). while a sharp absorption at 1700 cm–1 is indicative of a carbonyl (C=O stretching). C. the excess ACh cannot overcome the effects of Drug Y because. A. the action of Drug Y is to block ACh receptors. nor does it degrade ACh (choice C is false). they are generally less reactive than carbonyls (eliminating choice B) and are used as carbonyl-protecting groups. The ketal group protects the carbonyl at C-8 from undergoing these reactions. 146. C. 30 . C. By analogy. 145. H2O is used to neutralize the alkoxide anion generated in the first half of the reaction. Tracing the reaction pathway backwards. A broad absorption at 3300 cm–1 in an IR spectrum is indicative of an alcohol (O–H stretching). they are not sites of Ca2+ influx (choice B is false). Drug Y has nothing to do with the synthesis of acetylcholinesterase (choice A can be eliminated). A. Nucleophilic addition reactions (Step 2) and olefination reactions (Step 4) occur at carbonyls. 151. compare Compound Y to Scheme A and determine which compound it most closely resembles. 149. Compound IV is identical to Compound Y except that it bears a methyl substituent on C-1 rather than an ethyl substituent (note their stereochemistries). While ketals are not inert (eliminating choice A). we see that the methyl substituent is introduced using CH3MgBr in Step 2. First. Since Drug X is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Since Drug Y blocks the ACh receptors. D. it is more probable that the enzyme will bind a substrate molecule instead of an inhibitor molecule. it must be a case of competitive inhibition. Replacing H2O with D2O will result in the deuterated alcohol: OCH3 H O OCH3 1) LiAlH4 OCH3 H +Li–O 2) D2O OCH3 H DO OCH3 OCH3 Passage III 148. and it therefore seems likely that the concentration of ACh in the synapse would increase. and there is no such thing as a “mixed competitive/noncompetitive inhibitor” (choice D is false). There is nothing to suggest that choice B. D. no action potential would be initiated and no contraction would result (choice C is correct and D is wrong). The binding of ACh to receptors on muscle cells initiates an action potential that results in muscle contraction. First. Compound Y could be produced using CH3CH2MgBr in Step 2. and the T-tubules of muscle cells are simply invaginations of the plasma membrane deep into the cell interior.

but they do not have to be (choice C is better than choice A). but only with another inhibitor! The receptors would still remain blocked. macronuclei are derived from micronuclei in Step 6 of conjugation. but the binding site is not available due to the action of Drug Y (choice C can be eliminated). If that were the case. Drug Y is a noncompetitive ACh-receptor blocker. thus making D the best answer choice available. Passage IV 155. The primary reason for sexual reproduction is to increase genetic variability within the population (choice A is true and C is false). 160. The primary characteristic of extrachromosomal pieces of DNA is that they are able to undergo replication independently of the chromosomal DNA. the ACh receptors will remain blocked (choice B can be eliminated). A. it seems unlikely that they would trigger additional S phases. Since the macronucleus does not undergo meiosis.” not somatic (choice B is false). or C. 158. there would always be additional S phases. since the competitive stimulator would bind at the ACh-binding site. The ACh receptor is found in the plasma membrane. It seems much more likely that this system operates on a sort of negativefeedback basis. and Drug X improved learning at low to moderate doses and prevented it at higher doses. Therefore. C. and D are false). and that high DNA content inhibits the S phase. the cytoplasm is divided unequally between daughter cells. regardless of the size of the macronucleus (choice B is false). it seems likely that these genes are eliminated during macronuclear differentiation. meaning that it binds somewhere other than the ACh-binding site and prevents the receptor from binding ACh (probably through a conformational change in the receptor). choice D is false). During binary fission the chromosomes are replicated and apportioned. C. macronuclear chromosomes are not lost. 157. choice B is true and A is false. In the experiment described in the passage. the ACh receptor is not associated with the organelles in choices A. with one cell receiving almost all the cytoplasm (the developing oocyte) and one cell receiving very little (the polar body). D. whereby a low concentration of DNA in the macronucleus triggers extra S phases to increase DNA content. however. This does not imply they are nonfunctional (choice B) nor rearranged (choice D). the presence of high concentrations of DNA or enzymes in the micronucleus would not affect the macronucleus (choices C and D are false). so the deletion of this gene would result in plasma membranes that lacked ACh receptors and that could be considered “abnormal. A. the rate of learning was determined by the number of trials necessary for rats to learn to avoid an unpleasant stimulus. so it must retain DNA sequences involved in that process. 31 . 159. it does not undergo crossing over (choice B is false).. Since Drug Y blocks ACh receptors. Furthermore. Based on that assumption. Furthermore. The only remaining choice is choice A. 153. protein synthesis) during the vegetative state. A. and they do not undergo mitosis (oogonia undergo meiosis. plasmids). so they do not have distinct genetic origins (choice C is false).” The question is somewhat ambiguous since the plasma membrane is not typically considered to be an organelle. Administering another noncompetitive inhibitor that acts at the same site as Drug Y might displace Drug Y. translation. but they might be distributed differently between daughter cells (choice D is better than A).g. they do not add or skip S phases (choice C is false). D. The micronucleus is described in the passage as “germ-line. A. and sexual reproduction is not a means of rapidly increasing population size (that’s the function of binary fission. choices C and D are false. The passage states that the macronucleus is the site of gene expression (i. 156. this would not counteract the effects of Drug Y (choice D can be eliminated).e. B. However.152. such as those for transcription. Drug X increases ACh concentration. During the meiotic divisions of oogenesis. 154. In this respect they are similar to the macronuclei of Tetrahymena.. B. Since centromeres are always present. Some are nonlinear (e. Drug Y prevented learning (the number of trials necessary increased at every tested dose). and ribosome production (choices A. Administering a competitive-receptor stimulator would not counteract Drug Y. B. learning was assumed to have taken place more quickly. increase the rate of metabolism of Drug Y and its elimination from the body. choice D is false). regardless of any increases in the amount of ACh present (as might be achieved by increasing the amount of Drug X). If the number of trials decreased. The cytoplasm of ova-producing cells (oogonia) does not contain any nuclear material (choice B is false). since the macronucleus does not under meiosis.

79) with alkyl bromide is 12. A. Independent Questions 162. to protein amino acid sequence.2. and humans (organisms with dramatic differences). then from the equation pH max = 1 2 ( pH i + pKa ) .2) . the greatest number of amino acid differences will most likely be found between members of different phyla. This is true for everything from basic appearance. A cross between two heterozygotes results in a 3:1 phenotype distribution in the F1 generation. the less alike the members are. a-Carbohydrates differ from corresponding b-carbohydrates in the stereochemistry about the anomeric carbon (C-1).pKa = 2(12. and translocation (choice D) is the movement of a ribosome along a strand of mRNA during protein translation.11. Transduction (choice B) is the transfer of genetic material from one host to a new host via viral infection. “phyla” is the highest taxonomic group. to behavior. Therefore. C. Transformation (choice A) is the uptake of naked DNA from the environment by bacteria and occurs when the bacteria are subjected to unfavorable conditions. kingdom Animalia includes insects. D. etc.161. 165. For example. If the maximum pH for the reaction of N-methylmethanesulfonamide (pKa = 11. Since the old macronuclei are destroyed during sexual reproduction. Passage V 166. The ability to initiate conjugation is a trait encoded by the F (fertility) plasmid. B. but order Primates (within kingdom Animalia) includes gorillas and humans (organisms that are fairly similar to one another). so 75% of the offspring will express the dominant trait and 25% will express the recessive trait.79 = 12. A. 6 5 COOH O H 2 6 COOH O H 2 H 4 OR 1 H 4 5 H 1 H OH 3 H OH 3 OH H H OH OH OR H OH b -D-glucuronide a -D-glucuronide 164. The bigger (or higher) the taxonomic group. In a solution at neutral pH. this is due solely to the interaction of the micronuclei. their genetic make-up cannot contribute to the genotype distribution in the F1 generation.61 32 . glycine (like all amino acids) will have a positively-charged amino group and a negatively-charged carboxylate group. This dipolar nature gives it a high dipole moment and high water solubility. 163. birds. we have pH i = 2 ◊ pH max . A. Of the choices given.

thus a higher carbon dioxide concentration is always associated with a lower pH.167. the pulmonary arterial blood has less oxygen (choices A and B are false) and more carbon dioxide (choice D is false). A. Not that it matters for this particular question. The reversal of Equation 3 requires the neutralization of the carboxylates followed by heating to produce the anhydride: O 2 H3C O H3O 2 H3C OH O D H3C O O O + H2O CH3 169. Amines bonded to two alkyl groups (R2NH) are called secondary amines. Carboxylic acid anhydrides can be formed by heating the corresponding carboxylic acids. So compared to aortic blood (left side of the heart to the body). but carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid. C.] Passage VI 171. Elimination of acetate then produces the corresponding amide: O H3C H2N O R O O + CH3 H3C H N H H2O O R CH3 H3C NHR H3C O O O O 170. D. Amines bonded to only one alkyl group (RNH2) are called primary amines. [Since the nitrogen atom of aniline is bonded directly to an aromatic ring. The other nitrogen-containing functional groups are also shown below: O R O anhydride O R R O N H imide H N R imine CH3 R NH2 CH2 O R R amide O NH2 eneamine 168. Replacing the central oxygen atom of acetic anhydride with a nitrogen atom produces an imide. The addition–elimination of an amine with acetic anhydride begins with addition of the nitrogen atom of the amine to the carbon atom of the carbonyl to form a tetrahedral intermediate. B. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs to pick up oxygen and to eliminate carbon dioxide. aniline is considered an aromatic amine (choice C). which dissociates into bicarbonate ion and hydrogen ion. C. Note from Table 1 that aniline and benzylamine are both primary amines. 33 .

Blood-filled sinuses are compatible with an open circulatory system. C. 174. This increases the size of the thoracic cavity and decreases the pressures there (choices C and D are false). but nervous tissue is derived from ectoderm (choice D is false). B. not endoskeletons (choice B is eliminated). D. 180. Judging by its name. Choice A is also true. air flows out of the lungs when the alveolar pressure (PA) is higher than atmospheric pressure (P). 175. Thus. choice B is false). As blood passes by the alveoli of the lungs. The function of the malpighian tubules of insects is described as the collection of waste fluids and is similar to the mammalian kidney. The passage states that aortic blood pressure is 100 mmHg. B. the term “striated muscle” more properly refers to skeletal muscle. Insects have exoskeletons. oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood (alveolar PO2 decreases) and carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood to the alveoli (alveolar PCO2 increases). it flattens (moves downward). Striated (skeletal) muscle would allow for increased voluntary activity. C. if IPP (intrapleural pressure) were lower than PA. The posterior intestines of insects is analogous to the bladder (choice A) since this is where the waste fluids are deposited. The passage states that the arthropods are considered successful because of their diversity (Statement I is true) and their variety of occupied niches (Statement III is true). In order to do this it must have a thicker (more muscular) wall (choice A is eliminated). If PA were lower than P. but choice B is better since it more directly answers the question. air would flow into the lungs (choice A is false). C. 173. the left ventricle must generate more force and a higher blood pressure than the right ventricle (choices B and D are eliminated). and malphigian tubules instead of kidneys (choice D is eliminated). If blood flow to a particular region of the lung were blocked. Note that even though cardiac muscle tissue is striated. and the colon and the liver are not involved in collecting or processing waste fluids (choice B and D are false). The coelom is derived from mesoderm. choice C is eliminated). and if PA were equal to P. The subsequent decrease in alveolar pressure causes air to move into the lungs (inspiration. C. nor are both the coelom and nervous tissue derived from mesoderm. Passage VII 176. These organs belong to the digestive system. The passage also mentions that the species longevity contributes to the success of arthropods. 181. the lungs would expand until their outer surface contacted the inner surface of the thoracic cavity (note that this is the normal situation. 34 . a hepatopancreas is a combination of a liver and a pancreas. 179. They are completely independent processes (choice B is true). Nervous tissue is not derived from the coelom (choice C is false). To move blood against the higher pressure of the aorta. The passage states that insects have respiratory systems that provide gaseous oxygen directly to tissues. no oxygen would be removed from the alveoli (choices B and D can be eliminated) and no carbon dioxide would be added (choice A can be eliminated). When the diaphragm contracts. A. but not the longevity of individuals (Statement II is false). and pumping in the circulatory system is accomplished by means of a heart made out of cardiac muscle tissue (choice C is false). there would be no net movement of air at all (choice D is false). not striated (choice B is false). thus lungs would not be seen (choice A is eliminated). Remember that substances always flow from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. C. A.172. 178. while pulmonary arterial pressure is only 20 mmHg. The development of a coelom has nothing to do with muscle tissue (choice D is irrelevant and eliminated). The muscle of the digestive system is smooth. 177.

eliminating choice B. eliminating choice A. as shown below: O O O HO OH O C O aspirin CH3 salicylic acid O + C CH3 O O + H2 O OH O OH 185. The function of the gallbladder is to store and concentrate bile produced by the liver. The passage states that aspirin is purified by dissolving it in basic solution to produce its water-soluble sodium salt. will also be converted to a water-soluble sodium salt (eliminating choice A) and is therefore the most likely impurity in the final product. Therefore. There is nothing similar to a shark’s spiral valve in the liver or pancreas (choice A is false).Passage VIII 182. the only one that corresponds to intestines is choice C. again eliminating choices B and D. D. Salicylic acid. C. eliminating choices B and D. prostaglandins must enhance the effects of inflammation. A. and the pyloric valve is a sphincter and is neither similar in function nor structure to the description of the spiral valve (choice D is false). but it’s in the stomach. its function is to emulsify fats so that they are more easily digested by pancreatic lipases. not the intestines (choice C is better than B). eliminating choices C and D. having a carboxylic acid. 183. According to the passage. The given description of the spiral valve most closely matches the description and function of the mammalian intestinal villi and convolutions (folds). C. 188. Reaction 1 is a reversible reaction. CH3 – CO2 O CH3 O 35 . The esterification (formation of an ester) reaction between the carboxylic acid of aspirin and the hydroxy group of salicylic acid produces choice A and water. B. C. 186. as depicted. Of the choices given. Therefore. aspirin is an anti-inflammatory agent because it blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins. eliminating choice A. Reaction 3 demonstrates the ammonolysis (cleavage by an amine) of aspirin (an ester) by active enzyme (an amine). The products of the reaction are inactive acetylated enzyme (an amide) and aspirin (a phenol). the unfavorable decarboxylation (loss of carboxylate) of aspirin would not lead to salicylic acid. Early termination of Reaction 1 could lead to unused salicylic acid as a contaminant. D. The stomach mucosa is also folded. However. eliminating choice C. The polymer impurities are not soluble and are filtered away. as shown below: O OH O C O Independent Questions 187. a person whose gallbladder has been removed should restrict the consumption of fats (triglycerides). Bile is secreted into the small intestine in response to the presence of fats. Hydrolysis of the aspirin ester during purification would produce salicylic acid. 184.

and the rate of spontaneous mutation has to do with the error rate of DNA polymerase. 195. while the “amine” suffix indicates the presence of an –NH2 group: CH3 H3C C CH3 NH2 = (CH3)3CNH2 190. these areas are covered with extremely thick skin to prevent damage by abrasion. Since Experiment 1a lacks the adrenaline receptor and no glucose was produced. adrenaline cannot stimulate glucose production. There is nothing in the passage to support choice A. For osmosis to occur. However. nothing was denatured (choice A is eliminated). The question states that adenylate cyclase is the enzyme that catalyzes the production of cAMP. A. Inbreeding tends to decrease the genetic diversity of a population. Experiment 1 (overall) shows us that membranes. This question is really just a fancy way of asking where glycolysis takes place. B. 193. there cannot be a direct physical connection between glucose production and the binding of adrenaline. Experiment 1a is missing only the membranes. Structure X is found outside the cell. Since nothing was boiled in Experiment 1a. In the diagram. but 5¢-AMP is not one of them. not the type of breeding occurring (choice C is false). There is no reason to assume or infer that levels of aggression would increase (choice B is false). choice C is false). the relative lack of mitochondria should not be an issue (choice D is eliminated). no portion of glucose metabolism occurs in the nucleus or on the cell membrane (choices A and D are false). Glucose (choice B). This leaves only choice B. Thus there must be something produced as a result of adrenaline binding to its receptor—some chemical—that can stimulate glucose production. not the enzyme that breaks down glycogen (choice D is false). B. 194. The prefix “tert-butyl” denotes a tertiary carbon bonded to three methyl groups. it is likely that the second messenger was not formed. pyruvate dehydrogenase and the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix. this chemical is the second messenger. Passage IX 192. B. Since no part of Experiment 1 involves an intact cell. cytosol. For the purposes of review. the combination of membrane fractions. C. adrenaline. so it would be denatured at high temperatures (it is not heat stable. thus. Salt would limit the diffusion of sweat since it would restrict its passage across cell membranes (choice A is false). Furthermore. choice B is false). and the passage states that the membrane fraction is the site of the adrenaline receptors.189. inbreeding does increase the incidence of expression of recessive traits since there tend to be more heterozygous carriers mating with one another. and cAMP (choice D) would all be located in the cytosol. yet they also sweat freely (choice D is false). B. and ATP resulted in the production of cAMP. In the absence of receptors. in fact. regardless of the quantity of adrenaline present (choice C can be eliminated). D. and sweating occurs virtually all over the body (and all areas are impermeable to water). Consider the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. ATP (choice C). Choice C seems correct based on the results of Experiment 2. and electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation take place along the inner membrane of the mitochondria. not increase it (choice A is false). adenylate cyclase must have been activated. It is precisely because the skin is relatively impermeable to water that the need for sweat ducts exists. glycolysis occurs in the cytosol. The only one of the choices listed that would be found outside the cell is adrenaline. 191. adrenaline. Sweat glands are exocrine glands. and glycogen are all required for glucose production. the barrier (skin in this case) must be water-permeable (which it isn’t. adenylate cyclase can be stimulated through a number of different pathways and by a number of different substances. and since mitochondria are not involved in glucose production. it is described as a protein complex. 36 . they secrete their product through a duct onto the surface of the body (choice B is true).

translation is the more direct process (transcription is the synthesis of RNA. only adrenaline (choice C) is a hormone. and choice C can be eliminated. Experiment 2a shows that cAMP results in glucose production. we would have to run an experiment to measure the amount of glucose produced when only membranes. bacterial spore coats (choice C) are also made of peptidoglycan.e. Prokaryotic cell walls (choice B) are made of peptidoglycan. Experiment 1d tests whether boiling the membranes has an effect (choice C is false).] Passage X 199. the core protein.196. While both transcription and translation are required for protein synthesis. then it cannot be approximately the size of a typical coccus (choice B is wrong). the necessity of its presence is not being tested. which is the same description given to eukaryotic cell membranes. Of the four choices.. 201. D. In Experiment 2. but nowhere does the passage suggest that these proteins were synthesized by the virion. If we wanted to test for the necessity of adrenaline. The passage states that primary messengers are hormones. and we are not given any information regarding the relative size of bacteriophage to this organism. All known eukaryotic cells can be visualized with a light microscope. constituents of the boiled extract were combined with cytosol and glycogen to determine their effects on glucose production. Viral proteins are the result of the expression of viral genes (nucleic acid). again. 200. and glycogen were present (i. 198. Figure 1 shows that the virion contains both RNA (genetic material) and reverse transcriptase (an enzyme). Choice D presents a problem: we know that this organism must be smaller than bacteria. C. noncellular media. Choice D is supported by the passage. [Note that the passage states clearly that cAMP (choice D) is a secondary messenger. A. the lipid bilayer proteins) are shown associated with the virion. growth media for this organism must contain cells (choices A. cytosol. note that this cAMP is boiled cAMP and that Item III is identical to Experiment 2a. in the absence of adrenaline). Transcription and translation of host genes (nucleic acid) result in the production of host proteins (choices A and C are eliminated). B. Cocci bacteria can be seen with a light microscope. and clearly Item II is false (without the enzymes present in the cytosol glucose cannot be produced). This makes choice A better than choice D. choice D is eliminated). The passage states that attempts to grow the virions in sterilized. and C are eliminated). Item I is essentially the same thing as Item III since the boiled extract contains cAMP. If Item III is true. The membrane is described as a lipid bilayer. 203. since bacteria can be seen with a light microscope and this organism can’t. since bacteriophage are also not visible with a light microscope. so Item I is also true. these organisms could not be grown in sterilized. A. so the conclusions presented in choices A and C are clearly not supported by the passage. This is the definition of a parasite. therefore. D. B. implying that they need a cellular host to grow and reproduce. noncellular growth media were unsuccessful. if this object cannot. D. However we cannot say with certainty that this organism is larger than all known bacteriophage. 197. Since adrenaline is present in all four parts of Experiment 1. it must be smaller than all known eukaryotic cells (choice A is correct and C is wrong). and bacterial capsules (choice D) are just a layer of sticky carbohydrates outside the cell wall that aid the bacterium in adhesion. 202. 37 . so this must be the correct answer. A. and Experiment 1c supports the hypothesis that membrane and cytosol must both be present for glycogen breakdown to occur (choice D is false). Choice B is tempting because proteins (reverse transcriptase. then choices A and B can be eliminated. The necessity of the cytosol is tested for in Experiment 1b (choice B is false). since this object could not be seen in this manner.

Independent Questions 209. or “sickled” red blood cells).” it is difficult to characterize the origin of this disease.204. consider some diseases of known microbial origin: influenza. C. Since a particular sequence is involved. streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat). herpes. For the diene in Entry 2 of Table 1. The hallmark characteristic of diseases caused by pathogenic microbes is that they are infectious (able to be passed from organism to organism). not thymine (choice A is wrong). B. none of these are due to a microbe. Thus if a disease is infectious. Consider also some noninfectious diseases: diabetes. After all. C. alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver. Methylation typically occurs on cytosine residues. Choice B is eliminated since the molecule shown does not follow the octet rule. chlamydia. B. if it’s difficult to grow the pathogen. perhaps there is no pathogen. without a better description of “suspicious objects. For example. Polynucleotide sequences are nucleic acids (DNA or RNA). 38 . According to the passage. furthermore. not peptides (amino acid sequences. it occurs on cytosines found in a 5¢C G3¢ combination. which is electron donating. A. a disease of genetic origin. The dienophile in the question bears a methoxy group. The enantiomer of the product in Entry 4 of Table 1 has the opposite stereochemistry at all stereocenters. these positions correspond to choice C. Statement I is vague at best. Sickle-cell anemia. cystic fibrosis. etc. AIDS. Choices A and D do not have the same atomic connectivity as the diionic intermediate and therefore are not resonance structures. choice D is wrong). C. 207. 210. the reaction is more favorable when dienophiles with electron-withdrawing groups are present. the methylation pattern of daughter strands must be very similar to the methylation pattern of template strands (choice C is wrong). 206. 208. it is most likely caused by a microbe pathogen (Statement III is true). Statement II seems to support an opposite hypothesis: that the causative agent is not a pathogenic microbe. making the Diels–Alder reaction unfavorable. results in the production of “suspicious objects” in the blood (misshapen. B. These are all infectious diseases. The diionic mechanism shown in Figure 3 places the charges at the two carbons which will bond to complete the formation of the six-membered ring. The presence of the methyl group makes it more difficult for RNA polymerase to bind and transcribe that region of DNA (choice B is correct). Methylation of DNA involves the addition of a methyl group (–CH3) to the DNA strand. Any nucleotide sequence containing U (uracil) must be RNA and not DNA (choices A and B are wrong). Passage XI 205. Statement I does not support the hypothesis that this disease is of microbial origin. One can therefore expect methylation to occur more in an inactivated X chromosome than in other chromosomes (choice D is wrong). corresponding to choice B. multiple sclerosis.

or an aldehyde (RCH). This gives 650 mL/breath ¥ 10 breaths/min = 6500 mL/min of inspired fresh air. the structure of benzoin is H C OH O O O C It does not contain a carboxylic acid (RCO2H). then the daughter DNA molecules must have the exact same ratio. Based on the formula given. an ether (ROR). C. 39 . O H2N CH CH2 H3C C NH CH CH O C CH3 NH CH CH3 COOH In fact. C. Compound X is the tripeptide Phe–Val–Ala. but it is very straightforward. 214. This question looks scary because it is long and complex-sounding. If the parent DNA molecule has an (A + T) : (G + C) ratio of 3:1. and the two peptide bonds are Phe–Val and Val–Ala. It does contain a ketone (RCR). 213. If the tidal volume is 800 mL/breath. D. 212. Compound X has two peptide (main-chain amide) bonds—highlighted in the structure below—and is therefore a tripeptide. Any daughter DNA molecules produced must be identical to the parent DNA molecule. and 150 mL of that is dead space volume. regardless of the initial molar quantities of dNTPs used to synthesize the DNA.211. D. then the net volume of inspired fresh air is 650 mL/breath.

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