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# MCAT Practice Test 5R Solutions

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MCAT

MCAT P RACTICE T EST 5R S OLUTIONS
Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by Steven A. Leduc National Director of MCAT Research, Production & Development, The Princeton Review

Special thanks to: Jennifer Wooddell Judene Wright

Copyright © 2003, 2001 by Princeton Review, Inc. All rights reserved. MCAT is a service mark of the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC). TPR is not affiliated with Princeton University or with the AAMC. Version 1.0

www.PrincetonReview.com

MCAT P RACTICE T EST 5R S OLUTIONS C ONTENTS :
Physical Sciences ................. 3
Verbal Reasoning .................. 14

Biological Sciences ............ 29

030316

2

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Passage I 1. B. The value of DH∞ for Reaction 1 is given as –92 kJ. Since DH∞ is negative, the reaction is exothermic, by definition. 2. C. According to the data in Table 1, the equilibrium concentration of NH3(g) (% by volume) increases as the pressure increases. This eliminates choices A and B, which show the yield decreasing as the pressure increases. To decide between choices C and D, we first notice that when the pressure increases from 1 atm to 100 atm—which is an increase of 99 atm— the % NH3(g) by volume at equilibrium jumps significantly, from 15.3 to 80.6. However, when the pressure increases from 100 atm to 200 atm—an increase of 100 atm—the % NH3(g) by volume only increases from 80.6 to 85.8. This indicates that the % yield increases sharply with pressure initially, but then increases less abruptly at high pressures. This behavior is illustrated by the graph in choice C. 3. A. The passage states that Reaction 1 is carried out “in the presence of” FeO/Al2K2O4. Furthermore, we notice from Reaction 1 that neither FeO nor Al2K2O4 is consumed in the reaction. We conclude that this mixture is a catalyst for the reaction, and the role of a catalyst is to increase the reaction rate. 4. D. Since NH4+ is a cation with a +1 charge, and SO42– is an anion with a –2 charge, we would expect that a combination of these ions would contain 2 NH4+ ions for each SO42– ion; that is, the compound would be (NH4)2SO4. The balanced acid–base reaction would be 2 NH3 + H2SO4 Æ (NH4)2SO4. 5. D. Choice A is eliminated since the product of Reaction 1, NH3, is not an ion. Because NH3 has a permanent dipole moment, we would expect dipole–dipole interactions between NH3 molecules. In addition, NH3 is capable of hydrogen bonding (the partial positive charge on an H atom of one molecule of NH3 attracted to the partial negative charge on the N atom of another NH3 molecule). 6. A. Of the ions listed, Mg2+ and H+ are cations, and being electron deficient, are acids (eliminating choices C and D). Since nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen and since N3– has a greater negative charge than –OH, N3– is a stronger base than –OH.

Passage II 7. D. According to the passage, “there is a large electrical repulsion between these two fragments that causes them to . . . gain kinetic energy.” 8. A. According to Newton’s Third law, the magnitude of the force by Fragment 1 on Fragment 2 is equal to the magnitude of the force by Fragment 2 on Fragment 1, so choice A must be correct. Since the forces the fragments feel have the same magnitude, but the fragments have different masses, the accelerations of the fragments must be different; since a = F/m, the fragment with the greater mass experiences a smaller acceleration, eliminating choice B. Because both fragments start from rest and have different accelerations, the speeds of the fragments at any moment t will be different (because v = at); this eliminates choice C. To eliminate choice D, notice that
2 2 1 1 KE = 1 2 mv = 2 m (at ) = 2 m 2 F 2 F t) = t (m 2m 2

Since F is the same for both fragments but m is different, the fragments will have different KE values at each moment t.

3

The statement in choice C provides a reasonable and direct answer as to why the strong nuclear force becomes unable to hold large nuclei together. energy must be provided to force them together and overcome their electrical repulsion. the strong nuclear force is a shortrange attractive force that balances the large repulsive force between the positive charges in the nucleus. . we can conclude that if a compound were inert in the upper atmosphere. 14. then it would not “significantly assist” in the depletion of ozone. even if we grant that they are true. 10. Since F is inversely proportional to r2. according to Coulomb’s law. D. According to Coulomb’s law. we find the net reaction of Reactions 1 and 2: Reaction 1: O 2 Æ O + O + Reaction 2: O + O 2 Æ O 3 Net reaction: 2 O 2 Æ O + O 3 Now. 11. 15. . The chlorine atom in Reaction 4 is a radical. First. we calculate DGrxn using the values for DGf given in Table 1: 4 . First. a radical is an atom or molecule fragment with one or more unpaired electrons. If we combine Reactions 4 and 5. B. eliminate choice B. the force between the two charged fragments. is given by the equation F = kQQ/r2 = kQ2/r2. Cl•. Since both nuclei are positively charged. The passage states that CFCs “can undergo photolysis in the upper atomsphere and subsequently assist in the decomposition of ozone. F = kQQ/r2 = kQ2/r2. And according to the passage. Passage III 13. since there is no mention of electrons in the fusion (or fission) of nuclei. A. Neither choice B nor C is applicable here. eliminating choice D. A. and r is increasing). the net reaction is given in choice B: Reaction 4: Cl • + O 3 Æ ClO • + O 2 + Reaction 5: ClO • + O Æ Cl • + O 2 Net reaction: O 3 + O Æ 2 O 2 16. then there would be naturally-occurring elements that have more protons in their nucleus than uranium does. the strong nuclear force is an attractive force between the charges in a nucleus. which is why such large nuclei do not occur naturally (they’ve spontaneous decayed). If all of the heavier elements were stable.” Therefore. so to fuse two nuclei together. the graph of F vs. By definition. C. where r is their separation. crossing out the Cl• and ClO• radicals. once the nucleus contains too many protons). each fragment will experience a decreasing acceleration (a = F/m = kQ2/mr2. . Why have all of the heavier elements radioactively decayed? Why is it that heavier elements can be made only in nuclear reactors? According to the passage. As for choices A and D. which is shown in the graph in choice D. 12. Since each fragment (of charge +Q) experiences a decreasing force as it moves away from the other fragment (because. to determine whether the overall reaction involves an increase or a decrease in free energy. The answer must be A. D. where m is the mass of the fragment). +Q and +Q. we conclude that the short-range strong nuclear force becomes unable to hold the nucleus together. there is no need to “overcome” an attractive force. C. C. r must decrease nonlinearly.9. Once the nucleus get too large (that is. they simply beg the question and do not provide an answer.

In Reactions 3–5. since. we conclude that (NH4)2HPO4 is a basic salt. neither is balanced electrically nor stoichiometrically. Passage IV 19. The equilibrium that would best account for an increase in pH would show the formation of OH– ions.8 mol ◊ K ) J mol ◊ K 18. it becomes HPO42–.0 = 137. 20. Apply Le Châtelier’s principle to Equation 2. D.DGrxn = Â n ◊ DGf. However. O + 1 ◊ DGf. so the best answer here is C. The reactions in choices B and D are incorrect.(2 ◊ 0 mol ) >0 Because DGrxn is positive. The species that results when an acid loses an H+ is called the conjugate base of that acid. 21. Because the statements in choices A. for example.(2 ◊ 238. “Excessively moist soil conditions” describe conditions where the amount of the H2O(l) is increased. O 3 ) . we see that the Cl• generated by the cleavage of a CFC (Reaction 3) causes the decomposition of O3 (Reaction 4).4 J J mol ◊ K ) . we would thus expect that an increase in H2O(l) would shift the equilibrium toward the product side.1 mol + 163. so that only a catalytic amount of CFC is needed to drive the formation of O2. 5 . so A is a better response than C. C. 17. C. A.(2 ◊ SO 3 ) = (3 ◊ 205. When H2PO4– loses an H+. Therefore. 23. Pure liquids are omitted from equilibrium expressions since their concentrations remain essentially constant (not that they’re zero). reactants = (1 ◊ DGf. Choice D is eliminated since it indicates a negative activation energy (since it shows the activated complex at a lower energy level than the reactants). D. and C are all false (since N2 accounts for more than 75% by volume of the atmosphere.(2 ◊ DGf. O 2 ) kJ = (230. HPO42– is the conjugate base of H2PO4–. we can eliminate choices A and B. the Cl• is regenerated in Reaction 5.4 kJ kJ mol ) . A. and N2 is not a noble gas). B. We calculate DS for the reaction 2 O3 Æ 3 O2 using the values for S given in Table 1: DSrxn = Â n ◊ Sproducts . products . The answer must be C. 22.Â n ◊ Sreactants = (3 ◊ SO 2 ) . the correct response must be D.Â n ◊ DGf. D. so we eliminate choice A. Since H2O(l) is a reactant in Equation 2. so we first eliminate choices B and D. causing a greater degree of ionization and releasing more OH–(aq). Since Equation 2 shows the formation of OH–. the N2 molecule is nonpolar.

then 11. (CP)n. According to the reaction above. is 1. 25. to travel half this distance. The circumference of the circular path is C = 2pr = 2p(4 cm) = 8p cm. Now. In Equation 1. then x + 4(–2) = –1. B. would increase the yield of the product. not simply CP. we have v= l 2.] =2 ﬁ = 10 2 = 100 [H 2 PO 4 ] [H 2 PO 4 . if the horizontal distance between adjacent crests and troughs is 1. Since the particle complete 4 revolutions (or cycles) per second—that is what “moving on a circular path . So. Passage V 28. if we let x denote the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4–. 16p cm. both have a stoichiometric coefficient of n in the balanced reaction (Equation 1 in the passage). Therefore. C.0 m. B. We now use the equation v = lf. To find the mass of CDP in 10 mL of this solution. Since 10 mL = 1/100 L. .0 seconds. Since a 2 M solution of Na2CO3 contains 2 moles of Na2CO3 per liter. the oxidation number of Mn for the cation Mn2+ is clearly +2. . we have pH – pKa = 2. both [CDP] and [HPO42–] must appear with an exponent of n. We use the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation: pH = pKa + log [conjugate base] [weak acid] Since the solution is buffered at pH 8.7.] 6 . if we treat CO2 as an ideal gas.4 L). we conclude that 10 mL of the solution contains (16/100) mmol of CDP. 32. This eliminates choices B and C. one mole of any ideal gas at STP occupies a volume of 22. (CP)n. in Equation 1. C. First. 1/2 second. First. C. and one of the products. Therefore. to balance the given equation. (CP)n.67 m s T 3. and the stoichiometric coefficient of HPO42– is n. so the oxidation number of Mn in MnO4– differs from its oxidation number in Mn2+ by (+7) – (+2) = 5.7.2 L of CO2 at STP is equivalent to 1/2 mole of CO2 (since. D.0 m. we would need 1/2 mole of Na2CO3 to produce 1/2 mole of CO2. we could increase the concentration of the reactant (which would shift the equilibrium toward the product side). Therefore. A.4 ¥ 10 -2 g mol CDP 29. we need only place a coefficient of 2 in front of both the HCl and the NaCl: Na2CO3 + 2 HCl Æ CO2 + H2O + 2 NaCl Notice that this affects neither the Na2CO3 nor the CO2.Independent Questions 24. so log [HPO 4 2 . The buffered solution at the beginning of Experiment 1 contains 16 mmol of CDP in 1 L of aqueous solution. Next. so x = +7. we multiply (16/100) mmol of CDP by its molecular mass: 16 m = ( 100 ¥ 10 -3 mol CDP) ¥ 403 g 16 ª ( 100 ¥ 10 -3 ) ¥ ( 400 g) = (16 ¥ 4) ¥ 10 -3 g = 64 ¥ 10 -3 g = 6. which is balanced. The molecule MnO4– is not an exception to the rule that the oxidation number of oxygen is –2. l = 2. 30.] [HPO 4 2 . Therefore. the stoichiometric coefficient of the polymer. we would need 1/4 L = 250 mL of this solution to obtain 1/2 mole of Na2CO3. 26. C. we would expect that increasing the amount of the reactant. To increase the yield of the product. if the waves strike the shore every 3. then the period of the waves is T = 3. in the expression for the equilibrium constant for this reaction. then the wavelength is twice as much. Since f = 1/T. CDP. Now. namely HPO42–.0 seconds.0 s 27.0 m = = 0. We apply Le Châtelier’s principle. the concentration of (CP)n is 1/n times the concentration of HPO42–. would require half the time: that is. 31. The expression in A is a better choice than the one in D since the other product of Reaction 1 is (CP)n. B. by Avogadro’s law. The reactant. and pKa = 6. CDP. with a frequency of 4 Hz” means—the particle travels a total distance of 4 ¥ (8p cm) = 32p cm in one second.

then it would reabsorb some of that light. For the photon described in this question. C. To prevent (or at least to minimize) this reabsorption of light. the scintillator should therefore be (nearly) transparent to the light it emits. As stated in the passage. 35. we look at Table 1. we expect the combination of Cd and Cl to be CdCl2 and the balanced reaction between Cd(NO3)2 and NaCl to be Cd(NO3)2 + 2 NaCl Æ CdCl2 + 2 NaNO3. Because 14C undergoes beta decay. and notice that Cu and Cl2 form CuCl2. the relative boiling points of Cl2 and I2 are irrelevant to the determination of the oxidation state of copper in the compounds it forms in reactions with these substances. an electron. A.6 ¥ 10 -34 J ◊ s)(3 ¥ 10 8 m s) = l 450 ¥ 10 -9 m ª 20 ¥ 10 -26 J ◊ m 4. copper is in a +2 oxidation state. To decide between choices C and D. whereas I2 is not) and although statement B is true. If the object currently contains 1000 atoms of 14C. Cl2 is a gas at room temperature. then. statement A is false (after all. Cl–. in addition to the pulses that are actually due directly to the decaying object itself). We first eliminate choices A and B. A. its kinetic energy is 2 KE = 1 2 mv = 1 2 1 2 (9 ¥ 10 -31 kg)(3 ¥ 10 7 m s) 2 (9)(32 ) ¥ 10 -31 ¥ 1014 J = ª 40 ¥ 10 -17 J = 4. thereby overestimating the radiation energy and rate of decay. Therefore. we would select choice C over choice D. also has a –1 charge. 39. Furthermore. which the photomultiplier would then turn into electrical pulses and add to the count (that is. C. has a –1 charge. The nitrate ion. we can rewrite the equation for photon energy as E = hc/l.Passage VI 33. This would clearly produce an inaccurate reading.4 ¥ 10 -19 J Passage VII 38. A. we see that C undergoes b decay and emits -. 2 half-lives ago. C.000 years represents approximately 3 half-lives. Since Cu “gives up” two electrons to chlorine but only one to iodine in these compounds.0 ¥ 10 -16 J 36. NO3–. it contained 8000 atoms of 14C. The passage gives the mass of a beta particle as 9 ¥ 10–31 kg. if its speed is 3 ¥ 107 m/s. a scintillator is a substance that produces light when it absorbs the energy accompanying radioactive decay. it will not emit an alpha particle or neutron in the decay process. Since f = c/l. 37. 7 . it contained 4000 atoms of 14C. the half-life of 14C is approximately 6000 years. Since the radioactive decay process is 14 6 C Æ 7 N + -1 e . so a cadmium cation would have a +2 charge in order for the molecule Cd(NO3)2 to be neutral. Since the chloride ion. it contained 2000 atoms of 14C. we would expect that each Cl atom in Cl2 would have a stronger attraction for electrons than each I atom in I2. In CuCl2. The scintillator is attached to a photomultiplier that collects this light and converts it into electrical impulses. since Cl is higher in the periodic table than I. These pulses then serve to measure the rate at which decay occurs. D. then 1 half-life ago. copper is in only a +1 oxidation state. If the scintillator were to be non-transparent to the light it emits. we have E= hc (6. which are then counted. while Cu and I2 form CuI. and 3 half-lives ago. a time period of 18. The energy of a photon of frequency f is given by the equation E = hf. -0 1e 34. According to the passage.5 ¥ 10 -7 m ª 4. where h is Planck’s constant. this eliminates 14 0 14 – choices B and C. So. while in CuI.

which is the “new metal [that] forms on the surface of the Cu strip. According to the data for Trial 5 given in Table 1. Therefore. Therefore. like oxygen. 41.”] 8 . Since the volume of the wire is given in the question to be V = 5 ¥ 10–7 m3. This eliminates the graphs in B and D. B. Because boiling-point elevation is a colligative property. we see that R increases by a steady 2. 47. Since Cd is in the same family as Zn. then 4 and 5. First. since the resistance R is approximately 14 W. we have q = mcDT = ( 4 ¥ 10 -3 kg)( 460 J )(200 kg ◊ K K) = 368 J [Note: The question uses the term “heat capacity” where it should use the term “specific heat. We use the equation q = mcDT. 42. we notice in Table 1 that Zn and S form the compound ZnS. the question becomes. Passage VIII 44. Since the only choices left are the graphs in choices A and C. as Cu atoms are oxidized. “Does R increase linearly with T?” Comparing Trials 2 and 3. the solution whose solute dissociates into the greater number of ions will be the one with the higher boiling point. since it is highly unlikely that the cation Ag+ would be oxidized—or that Ag or Cu would be reduced—in this situation. D. then the oxidation state of Cd must be +2. In the first paragraph of the passage. Now sulfur. Since the mass of the wire is m = 4 ¥ 10–3 kg.8 ¥ 10 4 kg m 3 = 8 ¥ 10 3 kg m 3 = 8. Since Zn(NO3)2 dissociates into 3 ions (Zn2+ + 2 NO3–) while AgNO3 dissociates into only 2 ions (Ag+ + NO3–). According to the data in Table 1. So.6 W for every 100 K increase in temperature. D. Looking to the passage for a clue about the product that would most likely form between Cd and S. the mass of the wire is given to be m = 4 ¥ 10–3 kg. Ag+ ions are reduced to Ag. then 3 and 4. and C. C. 48. and the voltage across the wire is 28 V. the density of the wire is r= m 4 ¥ 10 -3 kg = = 0. note that we can eliminate choices A. B. the specific heat of iron is c = 460 J/kg·K. eliminate choice B (where is the source of carbon to form CO2?). B. D. where m is the mass of the sample being heated and c is the specific heat of the sample (in this case. If the oxidation state of S in CdS is –2. R increases as T increases (as we can see by reading the values of R as the temperature increases from Trial 1 through Trial 5). C. and the answer is A. The AgNO3(aq) solution contains Ag+ ions. T. R does increase linearly with T. 000 kg m 3 V 5 ¥ 10 -7 m 3 46. we see that the energy radiated from the heated wire each second is proportional to T 4. A. HNO3 must react with copper metal. the current I is 2 A. which show the resistance R either constant or decreasing with temperature. if T increases by a factor of 2 . The temperature. A. A.40. it is reasonable to expect that Cd and S would form the compound CdS. we’d expect the boiling point of Zn(NO3)2(aq) to be higher than that of AgNO3(aq). is most commonly in a –2 oxidation state in its compounds with other atoms. AsT4. the energy radiated each second increases by a factor of ( 2 ) 4 = [( 2 )2 ]2 = [2]2 = 4 . and DT = 573 K – 373 K = 200 K. is 673 K in Trial 5. the only logical choice for the product of the reduction of HNO3 is NO. the power dissipated by the wire is P = IV = (2 A)(28 V) = 56 W. Of the remaining choices (A. From the expression given in the last paragraph of the passage. 43.] 45. Copper metal (Cu0) must be oxidized during this reaction. [Alternatively. and HNO3 must be reduced.” Also. the power dissipated is P = I 2R = (2 A)2(14 W) = 56 W. it is the iron wire). and D). Since evolution of gas occurs only with the addition of HNO3.

A. Because the activity decreased to 60/240 = 1/4 its initial value. DS > 0. this eliminates choices A and C. where m is the mass of the –q particle). then one half-life must be 12 minutes. Since the –q charge is accelerating. the phase change from solid to gas (sublimation) represents an increase in the entropy. If a time period of 2 half-lives is equal to 24 minutes. 51. As the diagram below shows. Since the molecules in the gas phase of a substance are much more disordered than in the solid phase. That is. the negatively-charged particle will move toward the fixed positive charge Q. Therefore. if the voltage remained constant at 28 V. This eliminates choice D. B. the resistance of the wire was R1 = 4 W when T = 293 K. –q +Q r The negatively-charged particle experiences a force (F = kQq/r2) as it approaches +Q.9 W ª 14 W. C.01 –0. 53. this means that 2 half-lives elapsed. the resistance rose to R5 = 13. According to the data in Table 1 for Trial 1. 52. the current decreased. its speed of approach cannot be constant. D. B.49. so it will undergo an acceleration (a = F/m = kQq/mr2. The Doppler Effect implies that when the source of a sound moves away from the observer. S.0 –3. When T = 673 K (Trial 5). the perceived frequency is lower than the emitted frequency. Because opposite charges attract.6 1. 9 . from I1 = V 28 V = =7A R1 4W to I5 = V 28 V = =2A R5 14 W Independent Questions 50. the vapor will become a solid and then a liquid: off the diagram at P = 200 atm solid pressure (torr) liquid vapor 4. C.1∞C and 1.0 0. and as the pressure is increased at constant temperature.1 temperature (∞C) 54. water at –0.0 torr is vapor. since (1/2)2 is equal to 1/4.

so choice C is eliminated immediately. atomic number 22) is in the 3d “block” of the Periodic Table. so choices C and D are eliminated.Passage IX 55. atomic number 22). their momentum before the collision is zero. it has only s and p orbitals and can form no more than four hybrid orbitals. 60. the momentum of the sled and rider (S&R). Of the elements listed in the choices. According to the passage. B. Since the toboggan and rider (T&R) are stationary before the collision. two contain lone pairs and two contain a single electron each. the loss of some electrons. C. Titanium doesn’t contain electrons in 4p or 5f orbitals. The transition metal titanium (Ti. 58. and titanium’s 2s electrons (choice A) are not in the valence shell. so we eliminate choice B. Choice B is false (since there are no hydrogen bonds between toluene and water to compare with those between THF and water). Choice D should be eliminated immediately as well (s2p2 hybridization?). the toboggan is opposed by a constant 60 N frictional force when it’s sliding down the hill. so choices A and B are eliminated. which will form the s bonds with the carbons. 62. 63. Passage X 61. so we eliminate choice A. the energy conversion is best described by choice C: potential to kinetic and thermal. B. so the total momentum before the collision is simply MS&RvS&R. we notice that the solubility of XT-n increases as n increases. the sample XT-n contains n% Ti. 59. When the toboggan begins its slide from Point A. The elements in each family of the Periodic Table have similar properties and have identical (or very similar) outer configurations. Choice D provides the most reasonable explanation for the loss of mass by the samples as they are heated. could not account for this much of a decrease in mass. so they’re unavailable to form bonds. MS& R vS& R = ( MS& R + MT& R )v ¢ ﬁ v ¢ = MS& R vS& R (3 kg + 47 kg) ◊ (10 m s) 50 = = m s ª 4. We apply Conservation of Total Momentum to this completely inelastic collision. As for choice C. 56.55 m s MS& R + MT& R (3 kg + 47 kg) + (6 kg + 54 kg) 11 10 . The momentum after the collision is (MS&R + MT&R)v¢. the work done by sliding friction on the toboggan is equal to –(60 N)(l). where n = 0. A. so the energy lost to friction is (60 N)(l). Therefore. Since the toboggan feels this force for the entire length. l. the formation of hydrogen bonds would not decrease the weight of a sample. which is converted to kinetic energy as the toboggan slides down the hill. 57. and while the statements in choices C and D are true. even if they escaped from the heating chamber. B. we conclude that the XTs are more soluble in toluene than in THF. A. D. or 5. 3. according to the data in Table 2. some of the potential energy is also converted to heat (thermal energy). Since the entry in each row is greater for toluene than for THF. only zirconium (Zr. C. the masses (and therefore the weights) of the samples decrease by 20% when heated from 20∞C to 700∞C. As stated in the first paragraph of the passage. but toluene cannot. Since the passage states that the toboggan experiences friction as it slides. Therefore. so there must be four equivalent hybrid orbitals on the oxygen atom. Since oxygen is an element in Period 2. D. The oxygen atom in THF is bonded to two carbon atoms. it is highly unlikely that simply heating the compound to 700∞C would cause a nuclear reaction. along the hill. they don’t answer the question. we’d expect THF to be more soluble than toluene in H2O. Even if there were any indication in the passage that the XTs are even capable of hydrogen bonding. Next. Looking at the data in Table 1. 1. formed by sp3 hybridization. atomic number 40) is in the same family (group) as titanium (Ti. the removal of protons from nuclei requires extreme conditions (like those in a nuclear reactor). Since THF can participate in hydrogen bonding with H2O. which means its valence electrons are in 3d orbitals. it has gravitational potential energy (relative to Point B).

the distance between adjacent nodes (labeled N) on a standing wave is always equal to half the wavelength. since the ball is thrown horizontally). 2 PE Æ KE ﬁ Mgh = 1 2 Mv ﬁ v = 2gh ﬁ vµ h If the sled and rider start at a point on the hill that is 10 m lower than Point A. D. in this time. the snowball would. The passage states that. we find that 2 y=1 ﬁ 20 m = 1 2 (10 2 gt m 2 )t s2 ﬁ t=2s Because the snowball’s horizontal speed is vx = 25 m/s. if h is reduced by a factor of 2. Since Ffrict = mN. a decrease by a factor of 2. Passage XI 67.64. D. so Ffrict = 50 N. Point A snowball y = 20 m t = 2 sec x = 50 m Point B 66. then v will be reduced by factor of 2 . so the gravitational potential energy of the sled and rider at Point A is transformed into kinetic energy at Point B. l/2: l N N 1 2 N N N l 11 . We use Conservation of Mechanical Energy. we have m= Ffrict 50 N 1 = = = 0. B. Let’s first figure out how long this will take. travel a horizontal distance of x = vxt = (25 m/s)(2 s) = 50 m Since this equals the horizontal distance from Point A to Point B. As the diagram below shows. A. the sled and rider are opposed by a 50 N frictional force. Therefore. Using Big Five # 3 (with v0y = 0. then the sled and rider’s initial height above Point B is being reduced from 20 m to 10 m. the snowball will land at Point B. The snowball will land when it has fallen a vertical distance of y = 20 m.1 500 N 10 N 65. to the right of Point B. Since v is proportional to h . The passage states that the sled and rider slide free of friction from Point A to Point B. and N = MS&Rg = (3 kg + 47 kg)(10 m/s2) = 500 N.

and we can eliminate choices A and C. 69. C.68. 12 . That the light emitted by the laser is coherent is stated in the first sentence of the passage. the ratio Bunknown/Bbenzene is equal to 12/5. eliminating choices B and C. then it produces only one wavelength of light (since. Thus. Therefore. the answer must be B.” Because the laser produces light of only one wavelength. Since the block is stationary before the collision. the light is monochromatic (“one color”). “laser cavities have mode numbers that are related to the allowed cavity wavelength[s].fm Independent Questions 72. Because l = c/f. the ratio Bunknown/Bbenzene is Bunknown r unknown Vg r unknown = = Bbenzene r benzene Vg r benzene Since we’re given that Bunknown = 12 N and Bbenzene = 5 N.7r H 2 O r benzene = Ê r H 2 O ˆ = r r ¯ 50 H 2 O 100 H 2 O 5 5 Ë 10 This tells us that the specific gravity of the unknown liquid is approximately 1. (Note that we didn’t need to check Item III. By Le Châtelier’s principle. B. the momentum of the sliding object. and the buoyant force exerted by benzene is given by Bbenzene = rbenzeneVg. so the total momentum before the collision is simply mobjvobj. we have l beat = c c = fbeat fm +1 . and the answer must be B. By Archimedes’ Principle. A. Since the value of Ksp can be changed only by a change in temperature. If we substitute lm = c/fm into the equation mlm = 2L (both of which are given in the passage). so Item II is true. additional Ca(OH)2(s) will dissolve. its momentum before the collision is zero. if we did. mobj vobj = ( mobj + mblock )v ¢ ﬁ v ¢ = mobj mobj + mblock vobj = 1 kg vobj = 1 v =1 (8 m s) = 2 m s 4 obj 4 1 kg + 3 kg 74. Therefore. according to the passage. The momentum after the collision is (mobj + mblock)v¢. B. but. therefore. Increasing the acidity of the solution has the effect of reducing the concentration of OH–(aq).68r H 2 O ª 1. If the laser has only one mode of oscillation. The oppositely-directed traveling waves must have equal amplitudes (choice A) since the resultant standing wave has displacement zero at the node positions (where the equal-amplitude traveling waves arrive exactly out of phase with each other and thus completely cancel).) 70. since fbeat = fm+1 – fm. Therefore. B. The traveling waves whose superposition generates a standing wave travel in opposite directions.7. it would not be characterized as diffuse. since laser light is sharp and focused. removing a product causes a shift toward the products. the buoyant force exerted by the unknown liquid on the object is given by Bunknown = runknownVg. B. We apply Conservation of Total Momentum to this perfectly inelastic collision. r unknown 12 = 5 r benzene ﬁ r unknown = 12 12 7 84 168 = = 1. D. so Item I is true. The equilibrium is Ca(OH)2(s) Ca2+(aq) + 2 OH–(aq). 73. we have lbeat = c/fbeat. we find that m◊ m)(9 ¥ 1014 Hz) c 2 Lfm 2( 1 = 2L ﬁ m = = 3 = 2 ¥ 10 6 fm c 3 ¥ 10 8 m s 71.

And choice B is eliminated since. 3p. The principal quantum number. has nothing to with the number of valence electrons of an atom (choice C) or with the mass number (choice D).6 N and B = 11. Thus.68 r H 2 O 11. the 3s.6 – 19. n.6 N but has an apparent weight of only 19.8 N.6/11. for example. A divergent corrective lens is required to cause the light from distant objects to diverge slightly before entering the lens of the eye. the buoyant force exerted by the water on the solid is given by B = rH OVg. B.8 N when submerged in water.75.8 = 11. so the principal quantum number cannot be a “measure” of the approximate shape of an electron cloud. the larger the radial size of the electron cloud). The weight of the unknown solid is given by the equation wsolid = rsolidVg.68. n = 3). Therefore. rsolid 31. and 3d orbitals all have different shapes but the same principal quantum number (namely. The best response here must be A (and the higher the value of n. by Archimedes’ Principle. the ratio wsolid/B is also equal to 31.8 This tells us that the specific gravity of the solid is approximately 2. 13 . the ratio wsolid/B is 2 wsolid rsolid Vg rsolid = = B r H 2 O Vg r H 2 O Because the solid weighs 31.8. light from distant objects is focused in front of the retina. A.8 N. diverging corrective lens retina retina nearsighted eye nearsightedness corrected 76. For nearsighted individuals.6 = ª 2. the buoyant force on the object must be 31. A. so that it may be focused on the retina. and. Since wsolid = 31. 77. which occurs if the focal length of the lens of the eye is smaller than the distance to the retina.

Compare this choice with choice D. C: As in choices A and B. 85. D: This choice is both out of scope and too extreme. The very nature of a script is that once developed. 83. The author presents the restaurant scenario as an example of how this occurs. Item II: Yes. B: Yes. Thus we can infer that national governments do not exhibit competitive economic behavior. and so the word “usually” is too extreme. D: Yes. In the final paragraph. Finally. In paragraphs 2. this statement contradicts the passage. it can be used to help us understand and take action in new instances (paragraphs 3 and 4). D A: This choice is inconsistent with the main idea of the passage. In fact. B: The experience of the Great Lakes states is one of a failed attempt to restrict competition. the passage does not indicate that this would necessarily be true for important things. the author does not indicate that this can be extrapolated into a generalized comparison between the effectiveness of state and local leaders. but also guide our behavior in those contexts (lines 22-24). This example is introduced with the more general statement that cooperation is elusive (line 44).D: This is not an assumption made by the author. and scripts not only help us understand new instances of familiar situations. while local leaders organized the successful Monongahela attempt at cooperation (lines 80-83). once instantiated. but are affected by our past experiences. D: Schemas are activated and instantiated when we are confronted with situations similar to those we have experienced in the past (lines 8-15). 3 and 4 the author explains how schemas. Furthermore. Furthermore. B A: The author explains in lines 59-64 that false memories cannot always be distinguished from correct or true memories. Scripts are a special form of schema (lines 22-24). the passage states that we may remember information that was never part of the original event. help us to understand new information and act upon it. not unfamiliar situations. while imperfect recall is one aspect of schema theory. The power of national governments to regulate competition is never discussed. it is not presented as the most important aspect of it. encounters with certain events are not new learning experiences. then. The fact that some state governments failed (lines 44-45) does not in and of itself indicate that local governments are or would have been more successful. the passage mentions the failure of Great Lakes states’ governors to keep communities within those states from pirating or stealing economic developments from each other. Choice C is the opposite of the credited response. Thus memory is activated in these cases by familiar. which is in part that schemas and scripts (a special type of schema) are activated in situations that are similar to events and experiences from our past. Compare this choice to answer choice B. This is the main idea of the passage. In lines 44-46. In cases where scripts are active. 15 . D Item I: The passage indicates that a difference between national and state or local economic activity is that state and local economic development is competitive and that state and local governments are “awash in competition” (lines 4-9). Furthermore. Item III: Yes. Passage II 84. This is directly stated in lines 4-9. or as the reason why schema theory is itself important. C: While the author does state that certain things may be forgotten (lines 60-64). C: The passage makes no such comparison between state and local governments. This is directly stated in lines 4-9. the author does not indicate that many other state governments have made similar attempts. For that reason. the Monongahela case is an example of local leaders successfully regulating or limiting local competition (lines 72-83). 82. A A: Yes. the passage discusses how there may be glitches or flaws in that process that also could affect our memory and comprehension of events. the final paragraph presents a case in which local leaders crossed state lines to foster cooperation between jurisdictions (lines 80-83). B: In lines 60-64. this choice is too extreme.

56-62 for the second). B: Dust is never mentioned in the context of the CO2 theory. not what those measurements would show. that would be insufficient evidence to either disprove the dust scenario or prove the CO2 theory. the increase in atmospheric CO2 would cause a decrease in CO2 in ocean waters (due to increases in temperatures) (lines 54-59). D A: The passage never suggests that CO2 is poisonous to fish. Avoid a trap by going back to the passage and re-reading carefully. Ice cores would indicate if such a change did in fact occur. D: Yes. prove or indicate. 22) or in shallow ocean beds (line 22). the author does not discuss it or the contradictory belief in inner states in order to make that claim. According to the CO2 theory. 49-50). This choice is also too extreme. or other creatures that themselves eat algae (lines 6062). Fish may in fact eat algae. or which release CO2 into the atmosphere by colliding with beds of carbonate rock on dry land or in shallow water (lines 20-23. that would not be sufficient to prove that the cause was an asteroid strike. Compare this choice to answer choice A. As dissolved CO2 levels fell. Even if decreased levels of oceanic CO2 levels were found (and we don’t know that they would be). D: See the explanation for choice C. The credited response must be something that these measurements would. This choice is too extreme. Decreases in dissolved CO2 would cause algae to decline. the base of the food chain (lines 56-62). However. A Note: Notice the word “would” in the question. Even if it were shown that CO2 levels had fallen in the oceans at the K–T boundary. so would the population of algae. not what those measurements would be. D Note: Notice that the passage discusses only asteroid strikes on dry land (lines 8-11. The CO2 theory posits that increases in atmospheric CO2 would have caused decreases in levels of CO2 dissolved in ocean waters (lines 56-59).D: While behaviorism may be a relatively new (very new is too extreme) tradition. it could have been a decrease in the dissolved CO2 level in the ocean waters (and an increase in atmospheric CO2) that lead to extinctions of marine life by inhibiting the growth of algae. There is no indication in the passage that a hit in deep ocean would release CO2 into the atmosphere and set off a chain of events leading to large-scale extinctions. C: Nowhere in the passage are extinctions limited to aquatic species discussed. The author only discusses asteroid impacts which might send up clouds of smoke and dust (lines 8-11) (and so presumably occur on dry land). which sit at the base of the oceanic food chain (lines 59-61). 102. C: This choice contradicts the passage. D: Yes. Disruption of the food chain could then have led to the extinction of a variety of marine species (lines 60-62). including species of fish. Always keep the main idea of the paragraph in mind when answering “support” or “in order to” questions. 19 . C: The new information in the question states only that measurements could be made. Passage IV 100. 101. A: Yes. B: The new information in the question describes the possibility of measurement. not in the deepest part of the ocean. not to flourish (lines 59-60). not just could show. This choice illegitimately combines aspects of the two different theories presented in the passage (lines 8-11 for the first. An increase in atmospheric CO2 would cause global warming (lines 46-51). Higher temperatures would cause less CO2 to dissolve in ocean waters (lines 56-59). B: A large enough asteroid could cause mass extinctions if it hit a layer of carbonate rock [on dry land or in ocean shallows (lines 20-27)]. A: Such warming would occur if a 10 km asteroid hit in a bed of carbonate rock (lines 48-51). Neither does the author present evidence suggesting that an asteroid hit in deep water would cause any extinction of marine species. 45-46.

Ten percent of that energy is passed on to animals that eat the plants. Dove describes a series of events and experiences in Thomas and Beulah’s shared and individual lives that show a mixture of positive and negative emotions. A: Yes. not to Thomas (see the explanation for choice A). ten percent of what is left goes to the animals that eat the plant eaters. and according to the passage. killer whales would be expected to feed on seals. This choice is also too extreme. according to the author’s description of the food chain. The author does not suggest a relationship between the energy available at each level and the number of species at that same level. B: This choice is too extreme. the author does not generalize from Thomas and Beulah’s experiences to all couples. they should apply to other couples as well. “sound quivered like a rope stretched clear to land…a man gurgling air. in the ocean). in fact the passage itself states that they do so (lines 52-54). and so on up to the top of the energy pyramid (lines 7-23). 52. The second quote in the question corresponds to Beulah. Furthermore. She is also associated with images of flowers (lines 19. her thoughts of China as she dies (lines 53-55). However. when he marries. thus it is consistent with the passage that they feed on algae. but does not go so far as to suggest that people as a whole are rarely happy.126. C: This choice is too extreme. as shown in such lines as “she would make it to Paris one day” (line 50). the author explains that ten percent of the sunlight reaching the Earth is fixed by photosynthesis. B: See the explanation for choice A. It is also directly stated in the passage (lines 59-60). and so violate the hierarchical relationship posited by the author. 129. A A: Yes. 52-60). While Thomas and Beulah both have ambivalent feelings about their marriage. 127. The passage describes unhappiness in the lives of both characters. Item II: As in Item I. Item III: Yes. 20-30). Copepods are small animals. suggesting a desire for freedom. 26 . and her preference for “a pianola and scent in a sky-colored flask” (line 65). C: “Canary in Bloom” presents Beulah (paragraph 5). The ten percent rule relates only to the energy pyramid (lines 7-23). The second quote corresponds to Beulah’s desires for a beautiful and sensuous life. the appropriate order is reversed. and the title “Canary in Bloom”). Ticks feeding on jackals would invert this relationship. the author does not describe them as fundamentally mismatched emotionally. 37-39). There is no specific proportional relationship given in the passage. Passage VIII 128. Jackals are not top predators. and “Mandolin” Thomas (paragraph 2). Be careful not to use outside knowledge to choose or eliminate choices. In the second paragraph. feels he has “raised a mast and tied himself to it” (lines 31-35. each level feeds on smaller and more numerous species below and is fed upon by those above (lines 13-20). the author does not indicate that each successive layer weighs ten percent of the layer below it (or above it. his death is described only in order to show how it affects Thomas (lines 9-12. D: The passage indicates that Thomas. A Note: Neither quote given in the question is from the passage. While the biomass pyramid on land is broad at the bottom and narrow at the top (lines 28-40) (and inverted in the sea). A Item I: Item II: Item III: Yes. the author does not say that this is true of all married men. See the explanation for choice A for discussion of the quotes given in the question. except for the top predators (lines 17-20). The first quote in the question corresponds to Thomas’s pain and helplessness as described in such lines as “one pierced cry” (line 22). D: No images associated with Lem are given in the passage. B Note: Eliminate the items that are consistent with the passage. joys and uncertainties (see for example the last paragraph). Item I: The food web as described in the passage has for the most part larger animals feeding on smaller and more numerous animals and plants (lines 13-23. Here.” and “too frail for combat” (lines 40-41). If Dove’s insights into her characters’ thoughts and emotions are accurate.

we would expect marine mammals to have a greater bulk than invertebrate fish. C A: If some carnivores could utilize the sun’s energy directly. If some top carnivores could consume a greater percentage of the sun’s energy by utilizing it directly. which has no direct relevance to the shape of the biomass pyramid. see the explanation for choice A. if photosynthesizing top carnivores were reclassified as plants and included in that level). Plants use ten percent of the sun’s energy that reaches the Earth. if they were to capture almost all of it. Finally and most importantly. or one percent of the total sunlight reaching the Earth’s surface. Thus this choice is inconsistent with the author’s statement that the pyramid is inverted. D: The passage never indicates that top carnivores get any energy directly from the sun. D: For the pyramid to flatten. even if it did. Ten percent of that energy is converted to food energy (lines 7-14).. Secondly. C: The passage does not discuss sources of energy available to plants other than the sun. C: Yes. Neither the passage nor the question gives us any reason to believe reclassification or collapsing of categories would occur. the percentage of the sun’s total energy utilized at the top of the pyramid would increase. and so the pyramid would not invert.130. the top of the pyramid would broaden to include that increased amount. not all whales are top carnivores. a level would have to be removed (e. B: The pyramid would change at least to some extent. and so on down the line (lines 7-20). plants would not be utilizing less (there is plenty to go around). this does not imply that top sea carnivores are not close to that edge. B: The passage states that the top carnivores on land skirt the edge of extinction (not the same. the author mentions extinction in the context of the energy pyramid. B: Both land plants and algae are described as “green plants” (lines 10. Only the latter is relevant to this question.g. it would have no effect on the author’s claim that the oceanic biomass pyramid is inverted. 63). Thus in the inverted pyramid. According to the inverted biomass pyramid. Thus the statement that whales are close to extinction has no effect on the author’s argument about inversion of the biomass pyramid. The passage already states that algae are better than land plants at capturing solar energy (lines 49-51). not inconsistent with the inverted pyramid. 132. Thus each group is able to use or absorb ten percent of the total energy from the sun available at that level— equivalent levels of efficiency. This choice is consistent. as being on the brink of extinction). the base would stay the same. Ten percent of the sunlight reaching the Earth serves life directly through photosynthesis. First of all. 131. Animals that eat the plants get ten percent of the total available energy. C: Zooplankton feed on phytoplankton (lines 49-54). Marine mammals feed on invertebrate fish (lines 56-59). 27 . D A: The correct answer will be inconsistent with the statement cited in the question. D: Yes. we would expect zooplankton to have a greater bulk. However. A A: Yes. in context.

B: The boss is not giving anything to the workers. B: The author does not suggest that selfishness must always exist or be expressed. C: According to the passage. and act in each other’s interests. A A: Yes. C: Dave and the author’s inability to perceive the interests of the other as their own would be consistent. 38-41). the author lists three additional aspects of friendship other than caring for each other. the author indicates through personal example that friendship cannot be one-sided. 134. This example appears to be more of a case of shared interests than of an expression of power. the husband is not granting the vacation to his wife in the context of an unequal power relationship. with no expectation of subservience on the part of homeless people in return. this does not undermine the author’s definition of moral friendship. The author argues that giving may not be selfless in some cases. and gives specific examples in the second paragraph. D: Both the husband and the wife can benefit from the vacation. The author gives us no reason to believe that two people who have a friend in common will themselves have and share all of the qualities necessary for friendship. but those needs may be different for each person (see also Question 136. Through arguing with Dave. the trust. D: This choice is consistent with the new information in the question. B A: The author argues that friendship is a moral activity because it entails caring about and giving to someone else for their own sake (lines 5-8. This choice is not inconsistent with the passage.Passage IX 133. If. If one identifies one’s own interests with those of another. as shown in the example of the power-hungry husband (lines 11-25). as described. Notice that the theme of this question is the same as that in Question 135 (cooperation and conflict). 42-47). In this example.and other-interest may still exist. 137. Disagreement over shared activities does not necessarily indicate that these friends do not truly care about each other in this way. friendship exists when people like each other. D: Coming to see the interests of a friend as your own does not necessarily entail becoming similar to that friend in all or most ways. 136. they satisfy each other’s needs (lines 5-8. care about each other. D A: Transitivity of friendship in this mathematical sense is never discussed in the passage. C: The author describes the case of the selfish man and his wife in order to support this assertion (lines 15-25). D A: The author explains this assertion in lines 5-9. B: Yes. caring and affection must go both ways. A A: Yes. D: Yes. however. B: If Mary and Bill are friends. Thus this choice would weaken the author’s argument in lines 52-54. C: True friendship cannot exist without equality and reciprocity. a purely altruistic act. In lines 42-49. but simply commanding or requesting certain behavior on their part. the judge is granting leniency to those who acknowledge his or her authority and flatter his or her ego through respectful forms of address. D: Yes. 135. C: This is. explanation D). B: In lines 29-31. 28 . The author makes this assertion in lines 34-35 without supporting it with explanation or example. Frequent arguments over how they will spend time together indicates that a division between self. they are not truly friends in the highest moral sense. it is reasonable to expect that those two people will naturally tend to cooperate to serve those interests. Beneficent acts may be performed because a subordinate beneficiary will in turn “flatter the ego” of the one in power (lines 17-21) and confirm his or her dominance. and that grounds for conflict would be lessened. the author may be exploring and defining his own real interests and desires. The author never indicates that this is possible only when people know each other very well. not inconsistent with the claim that not everyone is capable of true and full moral friendship. Compare your answers on similar questions to be sure that they are consistent with each other.

This is an ambiguous question because there is no “normal mechanism of self-tolerance” described in the passage. this would be a mechanism for autoimmunity. the passage suggests that this does not occur (“if clonal deletion. after which they proliferate. thus. Based on the descriptions of the hypotheses given in the passage. just through a different mechanism. nor would they decrease the number of suppressor cells for the original tissue. A disturbance to that balance could be a loss of suppressor cells (given in the passage). this is described in Hypothesis 1: “Identical groups (clones) of circulating lymphocytes remain inactive until they encounter their specific antigens. and this includes both B and T lymphocytes (choice A can be eliminated). It further states that the loss or inactivation of suppressor cells may lead to autoimmune disease. and this is a vague term at best. Cells obtained from an identical twin would be identical to the original cells. Hypothesis 2 may correct for errors made with Hypothesis 1. Cells from a new tissue may increase the number of effector cells for the new tissue. and suppressor cells as those that limit the action of effector cells. the two do not seem mutually exclusive.. and lymphocytes specific for that antigen were activated. Corneal tissue is a living tissue (choice B can be eliminated).” Clones that do not encounter their specific antigen remain inactive (choice C can be eliminated). T-cell processing occurs in the thymus (remember: “T” is for “thymus”).is hindered. immune system function. these lymphocytes will incorrectly recognize a specific body tissue as foreign. it would appear that the question is really asking about the body’s normal mechanism of responding to foreign antigen in general. Hypothesis 1 occurs very early in life. the injection of a foreign substance that cross-reacts with the original tissue would lead to an increase in effector cells for that tissue. C. 143. To decide between the remaining choices is difficult because an explanation of “cross-react” is not provided in the passage.”). and choice D suggests that self-tolerance does develop. 142. 141. 139. failure to delete auto-reactive clones early on can be compensated for by creating suppressor cells to prevent the activity of auto-reactive effector cells. A. an autoimmune reaction to that tissue may result. thereby disturbing the balance between effectors and suppressors and leading to autoimmunity (choice C is correct and D is eliminated). If the antigen is from the body’s own tissues. and that clones activated by the body’s own tissues (antigens) are deleted.. Thus antigens that do not circulate could never encounter lymphocytes specific for them. Choice C describes how the cornea might be protected against infection. Hypothesis 2 describes effector cells as those that attack and destroy antigens.e. i. A. rather. Therefore. not for self-tolerance (choice B can be eliminated). or it could be an increase in effector cells. and Hypothesis 2 seems to occur throughout life. Judging by the answer choices available. Assuming that “cross-react” means to elicit a similar immunological effect. 140. individuals with both autoimmune thyroid and autoimmune liver disease must have lost or inactivated suppressor cells that respond to both of these tissues. 29 . B. Hypothesis 1 states that circulating lymphocytes are activated after encountering their specific antigens.. these self-reactive lymphocytes would not be activated and would not be deleted (selftolerance would not develop). but would not increase the number of effector cells for the original tissue. Note that the loss or inactivation of effector cells (choices C and D) would reduce the possibility of autoimmune disease. Note that although choice A is tempting. Hypothesis 1 states that self-tolerance is generated when the body is processing T and B lymphocytes. and would be virtually ignored by the body (choice A can be eliminated). Hypothesis 2 states that if the balance between effector and suppressor cells for a particular tissue is disturbed. D. that is. but does not address the issue of the failure to develop self-tolerance. Essentially. they seem mutually supportive. and B-cell processing occurs in the bone marrow (remember: “B” is for “bone marrow”).. D. autoimmunity would not result (choice B can be eliminated)..BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES Passage I 138.

according to the passage. however. However. 147. Increasing substrate concentration would have no effect on an irreversible or noncompetitive inhibitor (choices A and C are false). The action of Drug X is to increase ACh by preventing its degradation. Since in this case an increase in ACh (the substrate) decreases the effect of the inhibitor (Drug X). It does not increase ACh production (choice B is false). if the concentration of substrate for that enzyme is increased. 150. A competitive inhibitor binds at the active site of an enzyme and prevents its activity. B. Drug Y blocks the receptors noncompetitively (noncompetitive blockers bind somewhere other than the ligand-binding site and render the receptor unable to bind ligand. or D is true. In the second half of Step 6. it prevents the destruction of ACh. and the effect of the inhibitor will be counteracted. choice A is false). B.Passage II 144. Ketals are converted back into their corresponding ketones by treatment with acid (eliminating choice D). while a sharp absorption at 1700 cm–1 is indicative of a carbonyl (C=O stretching). C. the excess ACh cannot overcome the effects of Drug Y because. A. the action of Drug Y is to block ACh receptors. nor does it degrade ACh (choice C is false). they are generally less reactive than carbonyls (eliminating choice B) and are used as carbonyl-protecting groups. The ketal group protects the carbonyl at C-8 from undergoing these reactions. 146. C. 30 . C. By analogy. 145. H2O is used to neutralize the alkoxide anion generated in the first half of the reaction. Tracing the reaction pathway backwards. A broad absorption at 3300 cm–1 in an IR spectrum is indicative of an alcohol (O–H stretching). they are not sites of Ca2+ influx (choice B is false). Drug Y has nothing to do with the synthesis of acetylcholinesterase (choice A can be eliminated). A. Nucleophilic addition reactions (Step 2) and olefination reactions (Step 4) occur at carbonyls. 151. compare Compound Y to Scheme A and determine which compound it most closely resembles. 149. Compound IV is identical to Compound Y except that it bears a methyl substituent on C-1 rather than an ethyl substituent (note their stereochemistries). While ketals are not inert (eliminating choice A). we see that the methyl substituent is introduced using CH3MgBr in Step 2. First. Since Drug X is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Since Drug Y blocks the ACh receptors. D. it is more probable that the enzyme will bind a substrate molecule instead of an inhibitor molecule. it must be a case of competitive inhibition. Replacing H2O with D2O will result in the deuterated alcohol: OCH3 H O OCH3 1) LiAlH4 OCH3 H +Li–O 2) D2O OCH3 H DO OCH3 OCH3 Passage III 148. and it therefore seems likely that the concentration of ACh in the synapse would increase. and there is no such thing as a “mixed competitive/noncompetitive inhibitor” (choice D is false). There is nothing to suggest that choice B. D. no action potential would be initiated and no contraction would result (choice C is correct and D is wrong). The binding of ACh to receptors on muscle cells initiates an action potential that results in muscle contraction. First. Compound Y could be produced using CH3CH2MgBr in Step 2. and the T-tubules of muscle cells are simply invaginations of the plasma membrane deep into the cell interior.

but they do not have to be (choice C is better than choice A). but only with another inhibitor! The receptors would still remain blocked. macronuclei are derived from micronuclei in Step 6 of conjugation. but the binding site is not available due to the action of Drug Y (choice C can be eliminated). If that were the case. Drug Y is a noncompetitive ACh-receptor blocker. thus making D the best answer choice available. Passage IV 155. The primary reason for sexual reproduction is to increase genetic variability within the population (choice A is true and C is false). 160. The primary characteristic of extrachromosomal pieces of DNA is that they are able to undergo replication independently of the chromosomal DNA. the ACh receptors will remain blocked (choice B can be eliminated). A. it seems unlikely that they would trigger additional S phases. Since the macronucleus does not undergo meiosis.” not somatic (choice B is false). or C. 158. there would always be additional S phases. since the competitive stimulator would bind at the ACh-binding site. The ACh receptor is found in the plasma membrane. It seems much more likely that this system operates on a sort of negativefeedback basis. and Drug X improved learning at low to moderate doses and prevented it at higher doses. Therefore. C. and D are false). and that high DNA content inhibits the S phase. the cytoplasm is divided unequally between daughter cells. regardless of the size of the macronucleus (choice B is false). it seems likely that these genes are eliminated during macronuclear differentiation. meaning that it binds somewhere other than the ACh-binding site and prevents the receptor from binding ACh (probably through a conformational change in the receptor). choice D is false). During binary fission the chromosomes are replicated and apportioned. C. macronuclear chromosomes are not lost. 157. choice B is true and A is false. In the experiment described in the passage. the ACh receptor is not associated with the organelles in choices A. with one cell receiving almost all the cytoplasm (the developing oocyte) and one cell receiving very little (the polar body). D. whereby a low concentration of DNA in the macronucleus triggers extra S phases to increase DNA content. however. This does not imply they are nonfunctional (choice B) nor rearranged (choice D). the presence of high concentrations of DNA or enzymes in the micronucleus would not affect the macronucleus (choices C and D are false). so the deletion of this gene would result in plasma membranes that lacked ACh receptors and that could be considered “abnormal. A. the rate of learning was determined by the number of trials necessary for rats to learn to avoid an unpleasant stimulus. so it must retain DNA sequences involved in that process. 31 . 159. it does not undergo crossing over (choice B is false).. Since Drug Y blocks ACh receptors. Furthermore. Based on that assumption. Furthermore. The only remaining choice is choice A. 153. protein synthesis) during the vegetative state. A. and they do not undergo mitosis (oogonia undergo meiosis. plasmids). so they do not have distinct genetic origins (choice C is false).” The question is somewhat ambiguous since the plasma membrane is not typically considered to be an organelle. Administering another noncompetitive inhibitor that acts at the same site as Drug Y might displace Drug Y. translation. but they might be distributed differently between daughter cells (choice D is better than A).g. they do not add or skip S phases (choice C is false). D. The micronucleus is described in the passage as “germ-line. A. and sexual reproduction is not a means of rapidly increasing population size (that’s the function of binary fission. choices C and D are false. The passage states that the macronucleus is the site of gene expression (i. 156. this would not counteract the effects of Drug Y (choice D can be eliminated).e. B. However.152. such as those for transcription. Drug X increases ACh concentration. During the meiotic divisions of oogenesis. 154. In this respect they are similar to the macronuclei of Tetrahymena.. B. Since centromeres are always present. Some are nonlinear (e. Drug Y prevented learning (the number of trials necessary increased at every tested dose). and ribosome production (choices A. Administering a competitive-receptor stimulator would not counteract Drug Y. B. learning was assumed to have taken place more quickly. increase the rate of metabolism of Drug Y and its elimination from the body. choice D is false). regardless of any increases in the amount of ACh present (as might be achieved by increasing the amount of Drug X). If the number of trials decreased. The cytoplasm of ova-producing cells (oogonia) does not contain any nuclear material (choice B is false). since the macronucleus does not under meiosis.

79) with alkyl bromide is 12. A. Independent Questions 162. to protein amino acid sequence.2. and humans (organisms with dramatic differences). then from the equation pH max = 1 2 ( pH i + pKa ) .2) . the greatest number of amino acid differences will most likely be found between members of different phyla. This is true for everything from basic appearance. A cross between two heterozygotes results in a 3:1 phenotype distribution in the F1 generation. the less alike the members are. a-Carbohydrates differ from corresponding b-carbohydrates in the stereochemistry about the anomeric carbon (C-1).pKa = 2(12. and translocation (choice D) is the movement of a ribosome along a strand of mRNA during protein translation.11. Transduction (choice B) is the transfer of genetic material from one host to a new host via viral infection. “phyla” is the highest taxonomic group. to behavior. Therefore. C. Transformation (choice A) is the uptake of naked DNA from the environment by bacteria and occurs when the bacteria are subjected to unfavorable conditions. kingdom Animalia includes insects. D. etc.161. 165. For example. If the maximum pH for the reaction of N-methylmethanesulfonamide (pKa = 11. Since the old macronuclei are destroyed during sexual reproduction. Passage V 166. The ability to initiate conjugation is a trait encoded by the F (fertility) plasmid. B. but order Primates (within kingdom Animalia) includes gorillas and humans (organisms that are fairly similar to one another). so 75% of the offspring will express the dominant trait and 25% will express the recessive trait.79 = 12. A. 6 5 COOH O H 2 6 COOH O H 2 H 4 OR 1 H 4 5 H 1 H OH 3 H OH 3 OH H H OH OH OR H OH b -D-glucuronide a -D-glucuronide 164. The bigger (or higher) the taxonomic group. In a solution at neutral pH. this is due solely to the interaction of the micronuclei. their genetic make-up cannot contribute to the genotype distribution in the F1 generation.61 32 . glycine (like all amino acids) will have a positively-charged amino group and a negatively-charged carboxylate group. This dipolar nature gives it a high dipole moment and high water solubility. 163. birds. we have pH i = 2 ◊ pH max . A. Of the choices given.

thus a higher carbon dioxide concentration is always associated with a lower pH.167. the pulmonary arterial blood has less oxygen (choices A and B are false) and more carbon dioxide (choice D is false). A. Not that it matters for this particular question. The reversal of Equation 3 requires the neutralization of the carboxylates followed by heating to produce the anhydride: O 2 H3C O H3O 2 H3C OH O D H3C O O O + H2O CH3 169. Amines bonded to two alkyl groups (R2NH) are called secondary amines. Carboxylic acid anhydrides can be formed by heating the corresponding carboxylic acids. So compared to aortic blood (left side of the heart to the body). but carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid. C.] Passage VI 171. Elimination of acetate then produces the corresponding amide: O H3C H2N O R O O + CH3 H3C H N H H2O O R CH3 H3C NHR H3C O O O O 170. D. Amines bonded to only one alkyl group (RNH2) are called primary amines. [Since the nitrogen atom of aniline is bonded directly to an aromatic ring. The other nitrogen-containing functional groups are also shown below: O R O anhydride O R R O N H imide H N R imine CH3 R NH2 CH2 O R R amide O NH2 eneamine 168. Replacing the central oxygen atom of acetic anhydride with a nitrogen atom produces an imide. The addition–elimination of an amine with acetic anhydride begins with addition of the nitrogen atom of the amine to the carbon atom of the carbonyl to form a tetrahedral intermediate. B. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs to pick up oxygen and to eliminate carbon dioxide. aniline is considered an aromatic amine (choice C). which dissociates into bicarbonate ion and hydrogen ion. C. Note from Table 1 that aniline and benzylamine are both primary amines. 33 .

Blood-filled sinuses are compatible with an open circulatory system. C. 174. This increases the size of the thoracic cavity and decreases the pressures there (choices C and D are false). but nervous tissue is derived from ectoderm (choice D is false). B. not endoskeletons (choice B is eliminated). D. 180. Judging by its name. Choice A is also true. air flows out of the lungs when the alveolar pressure (PA) is higher than atmospheric pressure (P). 175. Thus. choice B is false). As blood passes by the alveoli of the lungs. The function of the malpighian tubules of insects is described as the collection of waste fluids and is similar to the mammalian kidney. The passage states that aortic blood pressure is 100 mmHg. B. the term “striated muscle” more properly refers to skeletal muscle. Insects have exoskeletons. oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood (alveolar PO2 decreases) and carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood to the alveoli (alveolar PCO2 increases). it flattens (moves downward). Striated (skeletal) muscle would allow for increased voluntary activity. C. if IPP (intrapleural pressure) were lower than PA. The posterior intestines of insects is analogous to the bladder (choice A) since this is where the waste fluids are deposited. The passage states that the arthropods are considered successful because of their diversity (Statement I is true) and their variety of occupied niches (Statement III is true). In order to do this it must have a thicker (more muscular) wall (choice A is eliminated). If PA were lower than P. but choice B is better since it more directly answers the question. air would flow into the lungs (choice A is false). C. 173. the left ventricle must generate more force and a higher blood pressure than the right ventricle (choices B and D are eliminated). and malphigian tubules instead of kidneys (choice D is eliminated). If blood flow to a particular region of the lung were blocked. Note that even though cardiac muscle tissue is striated. and the colon and the liver are not involved in collecting or processing waste fluids (choice B and D are false). The coelom is derived from mesoderm. choice C is eliminated). and if PA were equal to P. The subsequent decrease in alveolar pressure causes air to move into the lungs (inspiration. C. nor are both the coelom and nervous tissue derived from mesoderm. Passage VII 176. These organs belong to the digestive system. The passage also mentions that the species longevity contributes to the success of arthropods. 181. the lungs would expand until their outer surface contacted the inner surface of the thoracic cavity (note that this is the normal situation. 34 . a hepatopancreas is a combination of a liver and a pancreas. 179. They are completely independent processes (choice B is true). Nervous tissue is not derived from the coelom (choice C is false). To move blood against the higher pressure of the aorta. The passage states that insects have respiratory systems that provide gaseous oxygen directly to tissues. no oxygen would be removed from the alveoli (choices B and D can be eliminated) and no carbon dioxide would be added (choice A can be eliminated). When the diaphragm contracts. A. but not the longevity of individuals (Statement II is false). and pumping in the circulatory system is accomplished by means of a heart made out of cardiac muscle tissue (choice C is false). there would be no net movement of air at all (choice D is false). not striated (choice B is false). thus lungs would not be seen (choice A is eliminated). Remember that substances always flow from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. C. A.172. 178. while pulmonary arterial pressure is only 20 mmHg. The development of a coelom has nothing to do with muscle tissue (choice D is irrelevant and eliminated). The muscle of the digestive system is smooth. 177.

eliminating choice B. eliminating choice A. as shown below: O O O HO OH O C O aspirin CH3 salicylic acid O + C CH3 O O + H2 O OH O OH 185. The function of the gallbladder is to store and concentrate bile produced by the liver. The passage states that aspirin is purified by dissolving it in basic solution to produce its water-soluble sodium salt. will also be converted to a water-soluble sodium salt (eliminating choice A) and is therefore the most likely impurity in the final product. Therefore. There is nothing similar to a shark’s spiral valve in the liver or pancreas (choice A is false).Passage VIII 182. the only one that corresponds to intestines is choice C. again eliminating choices B and D. D. Salicylic acid. C. eliminating choices B and D. prostaglandins must enhance the effects of inflammation. A. and the pyloric valve is a sphincter and is neither similar in function nor structure to the description of the spiral valve (choice D is false). but it’s in the stomach. its function is to emulsify fats so that they are more easily digested by pancreatic lipases. not the intestines (choice C is better than B). eliminating choices C and D. having a carboxylic acid. 183. According to the passage. The given description of the spiral valve most closely matches the description and function of the mammalian intestinal villi and convolutions (folds). C. 188. Reaction 1 is a reversible reaction. CH3 – CO2 O CH3 O 35 . The esterification (formation of an ester) reaction between the carboxylic acid of aspirin and the hydroxy group of salicylic acid produces choice A and water. B. C. 186. as depicted. Of the choices given. Therefore. aspirin is an anti-inflammatory agent because it blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins. eliminating choice A. Reaction 3 demonstrates the ammonolysis (cleavage by an amine) of aspirin (an ester) by active enzyme (an amine). The products of the reaction are inactive acetylated enzyme (an amide) and aspirin (a phenol). the unfavorable decarboxylation (loss of carboxylate) of aspirin would not lead to salicylic acid. Early termination of Reaction 1 could lead to unused salicylic acid as a contaminant. D. The stomach mucosa is also folded. However. eliminating choice C. The polymer impurities are not soluble and are filtered away. as shown below: O OH O C O Independent Questions 187. a person whose gallbladder has been removed should restrict the consumption of fats (triglycerides). Bile is secreted into the small intestine in response to the presence of fats. Hydrolysis of the aspirin ester during purification would produce salicylic acid. 184.