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MOCK TEST for Class 9 (Problem Solving Assessment)

Time 2 Hours M.M. 90

General Instructions:
1. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B and C. A
candidate is required to attempt all the three sections. There are 24 questions in
section A, 18 Questions in section B and 18 questions in section C.
Section A: Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24)
Section B: Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42)
Section C: Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60)
2. All the three sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these
questions are passage based MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of
these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate
has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet
against the question.

3. Each Question carries 1 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 1
marks. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted
question earns no mark.

4. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET
TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.

5. Use blue/ black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and writing or
marking responses on Answer Sheet.

6. The candidates should ensure that the answer sheet is not folded or damaged. Do not
make any stray marks on the answer sheet.

7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as
per Rules and Regulations of the Board
Registration No: ---------------------------------
Candidates Name: ----------------------------------
Candidates Signature: ----------------------------------
Invigilators Signature: ------------------











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Section A (Language Conventions)
Note: This section of the question paper contains 24 questions.

Instructions for Q 1 to Q8
Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from the
choices given.
Greyhound racing is the sixth most popular spectator sport in the United States. Over
the last decade, a growing number of racers have been adopted to spend their
retirement as household pets, once their racing careers are over. Many people hesitate
to adopt a retired racing greyhound because they think only very old dogs are available.
Actually, even champion racers only work until they are about three-and-a-half years
old. Because greyhounds usually live to be 12 to 15 years old, their retirement is much
longer than their racing careers.
People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active than other breeds and
will need a large space to run. These are false impressions. Greyhounds have naturally
sweet, mild dispositions, and while they love to run, they are sprinters rather than
distance runners and are sufficiently exercised with a few daily laps around a fenced-in
backyard. Greyhounds do not make good watchdogs, but they are very good with
children, get along well with other dogs (and usually cats as well), and are affectionate
and loyal. They are intelligent, well-behaved dogs, usually housebroken in only a few
days. A retired racing greyhound is a wonderful pet for almost anyone.
1. Greyhound is a breed of _________________
a. cats b. dogs c. Rabbits d. Cows

2. Based on the tone of the passage, the author's main purpose is to
a. teach prospective owners how to transform their racing greyhound into a good pet.
b. show how the greyhound's nature makes it equally good as racer and pet.
c. encourage people to adopt retired racing greyhounds.
d. objectively present the pros and cons of adopting a racing greyhound.

3. According to the passage, adopting a greyhound is a good idea for people who
a. do not have children. b. live in apartments.
c. do not usually like dogs. d. already have another dog or a cat.

4. Which of the following is implied by the passage?
a. The public is more aware of greyhounds than they used to be.
b. Greyhounds are more competitive than other dogs.
c. Greyhound racing should not be allowed.
d. People who own pet rabbits should not adopt greyhounds.
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5. One drawback of adopting a greyhound is that
a. greyhounds are not good with children.
b. greyhounds are old when they retire from racing.
c. the greyhound's sensitivity makes it temperamental.
d. greyhounds are not good watch dogs.

6. This passage is most like an advertisement because it
a. uses statistics to prove its point.
b. does not present information to substantiate its claims.
c. says nothing negative about greyhounds.
d. encourages people to do something.

7. According to the passage, a retired racing greyhound available for adopt ion will most
likely be
a. happy to be retiring. b .easily housebroken.
c. champion, or else it would have been euthanized.
d. less high-strung than those that are not available for adoption.

8. Greyhounds are fond of
a. eating b. playing c. running d. sleeping

Instructions for Q9 to Q12
Rita wishes to rewrite the sentences below. She started the process, but left it
incomplete. Complete the sentences such that there is no change in the meaning:

9. I am more interested in sports than he is. He is obviously _______.
a. not interested in sports at all b. more interested in sports than I am.
c. less interested in sports than I am. d. always interested.

10. I had never had such a satisfying meal before. It was _________
a. better meal I have ever had. b. the best meal I have ever had..
c. the most satisfying meal I have ever had. d. the most tasteful meal I have ever had

11. The problem of administration increases with the size of the organisation. The bigger
the organisation, ___________ .
a. the smaller the problem of administration
b. the bigger the problem of administration.
c. no problem of administration d. many problems of administration

12. I have always scored better than Meera in Maths. Meera has never ________
a. scored better than me in Maths. b. scored lesser than me in Maths.
c. scored the highest in Maths. d. scored the lowest in Maths
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Instructions for Q13 to Q16:
The following passage from a history textbook has not been edited. There is one error in
each line. Underline each error and choose the most appropriate answer:
Few things have been forgotten (13 )___________
because we do not have some written account of them. (14) __________
Sometimes men did keep the record of (15) _________
the most important happenings in our country so it was often (16) ___________
destroyed by fire or in a war. Sometimes there was never any record at all because no
people of those times knew
how to write.
13. a. a lot of b. many c. several d. some
14. a. many b. every c. any d. none
15. a. a b. some c. little d. no
16. a. yet b. and c. but d. still
Instructions for Q17 to Q20
Choose the answer that means the same as the word underlined in each sentence:
17. The classroom was chaotic once the teacher left the room


a. Confused b. Messy c. entertaining d. orderly
18. The young man is so nave that he believes everything he reads on the Internet.
a. Religious b. Informed c. Careful d. innocent
19. The kids persisted with their soccer game even though recess was over.
a. Continued in spite of resistance b. Stopped c. Insisted on d.
resisted
20. The teacher implied that we'd have a pop quiz on Friday, but we won't know for
certain until we get to class.
a. Explained exactly b. Suggested
c. Asserted indirectly d. Questioned






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Instructions for Q21 to Q24
Choose the answer that means opposite to the word underlined in each sentence:
21. The students gathered quickly when the celebrity came.
a. collected b. Dispersed c. disappeared d. spread
22. Her visits have become very frequent.
a. few b. unusual c. rare d. extinct
23. The revised pay scale is uniform.
a. opposite b. different c. irregular d. distinguished
24. Still in many villages the girl child is abandoned.
a. Rejected b. helped c. liked d. supported

Section B (Qualitative Reasoning)
Note: This section of the question paper contains 18 questions.

Instructions for Q25 to Q30
Read the paragraph given below and choose the correct answer.
Disability refers to any kind of physical or mental incapacity that limits a persons
ability to work. Yet it is seldom that we have thanked God for the gift of Good health
and well being. The smallest actions like seeing the sunrise, brushing our teeth,
popping peanuts into your mouth come so naturally and effortlessly, and Yet we are
never satisfied, always discontented. It is not so for the disabled. For them it requires
immense concentration, effort, will power, energy and a lot of time. Despite this, it
could be a long way of perfection. It takes great courage and determination to cope
with disability. We can make life easier for them by becoming more sensitive to their
handicap, their needs and their problems. Feeling of pity or under sympathy will only
shake their confidence. Give them encouragement, facilities and resources, and then
watch them as they learn, earn, play, work and even start their families. Very often we
find that a person lacking in one faculty is gifted in some other way. Thats natures
way of maintaining balance. Some of the most beautiful greeting cards are made by
disabled children, using one hand, one foot or even mouth. Nothing stops them from
using their talent, intelligence and their knowledge.

25. To cope up with disability one needs lot of .
a. Courage b. Determination c. Courage and determination d. Effort

26. Pity and sympathy can make them loose.
a. Confidence b. Will power c. Determination d. Ability

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27. If we are sensitive to their needs and problems we will.
a. Learn to cope better b. Admire ability
c. Enhance their lives d. All of the above

28. A person lacking in one faculty is gifted in some other way. Thats how nature
.
a. Maintains imbalance b. Maintains balance c. Helps them cope with disability
d. Helps them to be tough

29. An agency promoting greeting cards made by specially gifted children is
A WTO b.IMF c. UNICEF d. WHO

30. We should thank God for
a. Being able to do easiest of tasks b. Being able to enjoy benefits of nature
c. Being able to walk and talk d. All the above

Instructions for Q31 to Q36

Read the paragraph given below and choose the correct answer.
The bulk of our population is poor and illiterate. Their sorry condition poses a problem.
On the one hand there is a shortage of teachers for Adult Education and on the other, the
adults feel shy of starting to learn at a late age and attend classes. Moreover, the adult
villagers have little time to spare for attending classes as the job of a farmer is very
strenuous. In addition, he finds that what is taught at adult centres of education has no
bearing on his daily needs, therefore he has become cynical about adult education. It is
necessary to make it more meaningful for farmers in the villages. In towns and cities also,
emphasis should be laid at increasing literacy rate and encourage adult educati on.
Though it can be made useful and work based to arise their interest. It should comprise
types of system in which earning and learning go together. Efforts to enhance adult
education will ultimately discourage tendency to migrate to towns for better earning.

31. What is needed for Adult Education in villages?
a. It should be agriculture oriented b. It should be free
c. It should be compulsory d. It should be available in all villages
32. The main problem for educating adult in village is ..
a. Financial helplessness to purchase books etc.
b. They hardly find time to study and feel shy
c. Their inability to read and write
d. There is no room for schools in villages
33. A farmer has grown cynical about education because
a. He has no time go to school
b. What is taught in such schools is mostly of no use in his daily life.
c. He has no money to pay fees
d. He needs rest & recreation after strenuous work.
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34. Adult Education should be encouraged in ..
a. Towns and cities b. Schools, collages
c. Towns, cities and villages d. Only villages
35. The inherent problem of education system is .
a. Lack of funds b. Shortage of teachers
c. No spare space for schools d. Lack of interest
36. The education imparted should be..
a. Entertaining and interesting b. Vocational
c. Useful & Meaningful d. Limited to cities

Instructions for Q37 to Q42 (Stand alone MCQs)

37. Origami: Paper:: Ikebana :
a. Trees b. Theatre c. Flowers d. Tapestry
38. If the word PORTER can be coded as MBNZQN, how will VOTES be written in the same
code?
a. NQMNBZ b. NQMBNZ c. NBQMNZ d. None of these
39. Avinash is Ravi's eldest brother. Ravi is younger than Ajay. Ravi and Ajay are not
brothers. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
a. Ajay is younger than Avinash b. Avinash is younger than Ajay
c. Ajay is younger than Ravi d. None of these
40. Nitin is counting the numbers in descending order from 32. Shashank is counting the
numbers in ascending order from 1 and he pronounces only the odd numbers. If they are
counting with the same speed, which same number will they pronounce together?
a. 21 b. 22 c. 19 d. no number
41. Two N.C.C Cadet groups A and B are facing east and west directions respectively. They
were given following commands -----left turn, about turn, right turn and left turn. At last, in
which directions group A and B are facing now?
a. East, West b. West, East c. North, South d. South, North
42. Fatima introduces Mr. Zakir to her husband and said that father of his brother is the only
son of her grandfather. How is Fatima related to Mr. Zakir?
a. Mother b. Aunt c. Sister d.Niece



Section C (Quantitative Reasoning)
Note: This section of the question paper contains 18 questions.






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Instructions for Q43 to Q52 (Stand alone MCQs)
43. Observe the dimensions of given fish tank carefully:
When it is half full, this fish tank contains 12 000 L of water.

If 3 000 L of water is added to the tank, how high will the water level rise?
a. 25 cm b. 50 cm c. 75 cm d. 100 cm

44. If 14
th
August of 1989 was Friday, what was the day on 6
th
July 1988?
a. Sunday b. Monday c. Friday d. Saturday
45. Which one is correct order of Cartesian plane for the points
(4, 4), (3, 2), (5, 7) and (6, 3)?
a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, II, III, I c. III, II, I, IV d. II, III, IV, I


46. A clock is set right at 7a.m.. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the
approximate time when the clock indicates 1p.m. on the following day?
a. 10:40 p.m. b. 12:48 p.m. c. 12:15 p.m. d. 10 p.m.

47. If we multiply a fraction by itself and divide the product by its reciprocal, the fraction
becomes 18

. The original fraction is:

a. 8/27 b. 8/3 c. 4/3 d. 5/3

48. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days and C and A in 20 days.
They all together finish the work in:
a. 10 days b. 9 days c. 8 days d. 20 days

49. At the rate of m metres/sec, how many metres does a cyclist travels in x minutes?
a. m/sx b. 60mx/s c. 60m/s 60ms/x

50. Divide 300 into 2 parts such that, half of the first part is 48 less that the other.
a. 160, 140 b. 168,132 c. 200,100 d. 150, 150

51. There are 20 boys and 30 girls in a class. Their average ages are 12 years and 11 years
respectively. The average age of the whole class is:
a. 11.4 years b. 11.6 years c. 11.2 years d. 12 years

52. The unit digit of (12357)
655
is:
a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 9




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Instructions for Q53 to Q56
Read the given information and choose the correct answer.
The measures adopted in health arena have increased the life expectancy to over 64
years in 2000. Infant mortality rate (IMR) has come down from 147 in 1951 to 75 in
2000. Crude birth rates have dropped to 26.1 and death rate to 8.7 within the same
duration of time. Increase in life expectancy and improvement in childcare are useful in
assessing the future progress of the country.

53. How much did the life expectancy increase in the year 2000?

a. 47 b. 75 c. 26 d. 64

54. What percentage of the infant mortality rate fell during 1951 to 2000?

a. 48.9 % b. 50 % c. 51 % d. 51.9 %

55. How much has been the growth rate from 1951 to 2000?

a. 8.7 b. 17.4 c. 26.1 d. 64

56. How much did the death rate reach in 2000?

a. 7.5 b. 8.7 c. 6.4 d. 6.2

Instructions for Q57 to Q60

Study the following table and choose the correct answer.
Various food grains sold by farmers at different prices (per Kg)
Farmers Rice Corn Bajra Paddy Jowar
P 30 22.5 22 24 18
Q 36 28 24.5 25 24
R 40 24 21 26 20.5
S 34.5 27.5 28 25 25
T 36 32 30 28.5 27

57. If farmer P sells 350 Kg rice, 150 Kg corn and 250 Kg jowar, how much he would earn?
a. Rs 18500 b. Rs 18375 c. Rs 15585 d. Rs 19425
58. The average price per Kg of bajra sold by all farmers together is
a. Rs 25.10 b. Rs 24.50 c. Rs 25 d. Rs 23.40
59. If farmer S and T, both sell 240 Kg bajra each, what would be the respective ratio of their
earnings?
a. 15 : 14 b. 11: 13 c. 14: 15 d. 13 : 15
60. If farmer R sells 180 Kg each of corn, paddy and jowar, he would earn
a. Rs 13540 b. Rs 12550 c. Rs 13690 d. Rs 12690