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Ob Gyne FinalA
Ob Gyne FinalA
1.
Which of the following is the correct flow of blood from the uterine wall to
the endometrium?
A. Uterine artery arcuate artery radial artery
straight & coiled spiral artery
B. Uterine artery radial artery arcuate artery straight
& coiled spiral artery
C. Uterine artery arcuate artery straight artery radial
& coiled spiral artery
D. Uterine artery straight artery arcuate artery radial
& coiled spiral artery
2.
3.
4.
5.
During the secretory phase, what is the uppermost layer from the uterine
cavity ?
A. Zona compacta
B. Zona basalis
C. Zona spongiosa
D. Decidua basalis
What stage of human development is implanted in the uterine cavity?
A. blastomeres
B. embryo
C. blastocyst
D. morula
How many new primary oocytes are there during puberty?
A. 0
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000
What is the important event that occurs prior to implantation?
A. Formation of daughter cells
B. Extrusion of the polar body
C. Accumulation of fluid between blastomeres
D. Disappearance of the zona pellucid
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
At what part of the fallopian tube does tubal rupture occur earliest?
A. Interstitial
B. B. Ampullary
C. Isthmic
D. Fimbria
13.
14.
15.
16.
C. Conjoined
D. Locked
17.
18.
The level of the presenting part in the birth canal described in relationship
to the ischial spines, which is halfway between the pelvic inlet and the
pelvic outlet is called
A. position
B. B. effacement
C. Dilatation
D. station
19.
20.
A 30 year old G1P0, term was admitted for labor pains. FH- 34 cm, FHT140 bpm. IE- cervix is 4 cm dilated, 60% effaced, cephalic, station -2,
rupture BOW. Uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, moderate. After 2
hours, IE- cervix 4-5 cm dilated, 70 % effaced, station -2. After 2 hours, IEcervix is 5-6 cm dilated, 80% effaced, station -1.Describe the progress of
labor.
A. Normally progressing
B. Protracted cervical dilatation
C. Protracted descent
D. Arrest in descent
21.
22.
A 19 year old G1P0 PU 40 weeks, not in labor, was seen at the OPD for
decreased fetal movement. She was hooked to an electronic fetal monitor
and tracing showed: Baseline FHT- 140s, good variability, with more than
2 accelerations of 20 bpm lasting for 20 secs. The tracing is interpreted
as:
A. reactive
B. non-reactive
C. positive
D. negative
23.
24.
What is the presentation type when the fetal head is artially flexed with the
anterior fontanel or bregma is presenting?
A. face
B. vertex
C. brow
D. sinciput
25.
You were the intern on duty in the ER and you did an abdominal exam on
a 22 year old G2P1 PU 37 weeks who consulted because of hypogastic
pain. You found out that the fundus is occupied by a hard ballotable mass.
What Leopolds maneuver did you perform?
A. LM 1
B. LM 2
C. LM 3
D. LM 4
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
A 22 year old G1P0 patient at 39 weeks AOG was admitted for elective
Cesarean Section for breech presentation. She requested to her
obstetrician that a transverse suprapubic abdominal incision be done to
her. This type of incision is called
A. Kerr
B. Kronig
C. Pfannensteil
D. Classical
35.
36.
37.
The process by which the uterus returns to its normal size, tone and
position after delivery is called
A. involution
B. puerperium
C. subinvolution
D. atony
38.
What is the mechanism behind the increase in cardiac output right after
delivery?
A. maternal exhaustion
B. increase caval compression
C. sympathetic stimulation
D. autotransfusion
39.
D. 36-38 weeks
40.
41.
42.
A 30 year old G1P1 consulted at the OPD for Pap smear. According to
her, she had an IUD in-situ for 1 year. On PE, you can not visualize the tail
of the IUD string. What is the best thing to do for this patient?
A. Assume that the device has been expelled
B. Assume that the patient is telling a lie
C. Perform an transvaginal ultrasound
D. Assume that the device has been expelled and perform
the Pap smear
43.
44.
45.
46.
C. Simmonds syndrome
D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
47.
48.
49.
50.
A 69- year old G4P4 (4004) consulted for an ulcerated mass on the right
labium majus. She had been to several physicians who have prescribed
unrecalled topical creams and solutions without relief. Upon seeing the
patient, your recommendation would be:
A. Observation
B. Steroid topical cream
C. Excision biopsy of the mass
D. Simple vulvectomy
51.
The area of the cervix that is most prone to precancerous and cancerous
neoplasms is the:
A. Histologic portio
B. Transformation zone
C. Histologic endocervix
D. Isthmus
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
A 28 year old, single, nulligravid patient consulted in the OPD for the result of
her pelvic ultrasound. It revealed a 18mm x 10mm x 14mm and a 13mm x
16mm x 10 mm intramural myomatas. She is asymptomatic.
58.
59.
60.
61.
A 29 year old sexually active female consulted in your clinic because of vulvar
lesion. History revealed that it started as paresthesia of the vulvar skin then
papule and subsequent vesicle formation. Simple clinical inspection revealed
ulcers which are painful when touched with cotton-tipped applicator. The most
likely diagnosis is _____.
A. Syphilis
B. Granuloma inguinale
C. LGV
D. Genital herpes
62.
What are the most important goals of the medical therapy of acute PID?
A. prevention and treatment of the disease
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
Among the factors causing female infertility, the easiest to diagnose and
manage is
A. cervical factors
B. uterine factors
C. ovulatory factors
D. tubal/peritoneal factors
69.
70.
Over the counter pregnancy test kits will test for which placental hormone?
((Baja-Panlilio Chapter 6, p. 64)
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. human placental lactogen
D. human chorionic gonadotropin
71.
72.
Hydroureter during pregnancy is more marked on the right than on the left
because of: (Baja panlilio Chapter 8 Page 107)
A. renal artery crossing the ureter on the right
B. dextrorotation of the uterus
C. sigmoid colon on the right
D. majority of fetus staying on the right maternal side
73.
74.
75.
76.
The best basis for the diagnosis of Preterm Labor in this patient is the
presence of: (Baja Panlilio Chapter 37 , page 355)
A. mucoid vaginal discharge
B. painful uterine contractions
C. contractions occurring every 10 to 15 minutes
D. cervical dilatation and effacement
77.
10
78.
A 29 year old G1P0, consulted for the 1st time on her 28 weeks AOG. Her
BP was 160/120 mmHg. She had severe headache and her fundic height
was only at the level of the umbilicus. The appropriate laboratory exams
to be done initially is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p. 337
A. non-stress test
B. doppler velocimetry
C. biophysical profile
D. liver enzymes
79.
A 35 year old, G6P5 (5005) on her 12th week of pregnancy was diagnosed
on ultrasound to have an h-mole. What will be the management for this
case? ((Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 30, p. 350)
A. single agent chemotherapy
B. hysterotomy
C. suction curettage
D. hysterectomy, followed by prophylactic
chemotherapy
80.
When the long axis of the fetus parallels the longitudinal axis of the uterus,
the lie of the fetus is called: (Panlilio, Textbook of Obstetrics (Pathologic
and Physiologic) 2nd ed, Page 210)
A. transverse
B. longitudinal
C. cephalic
D. breech
81.
The tracings showed that the fetus: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 21 pp. 237
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.
11
83.
A 25 year old G1P0, 38-39 wks. AOG consulted at the emergency room
due to labor pains. She has no prenatal check-ups and family history
revealed diabetes mellitus in sister and mother. Abdominal exam
revealed fundic height = 40 cm, uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, 4550 secs. duration. Internal exam has remained unchanged at 6 cms
dilated, fully effaced, station -2, cephalic, (-) BOW for the past 2 hrs.
The serious complication during vaginal delivery of this baby where there
is arrest in delivery of the shoulder is: (Baja-Panlilio, . 421-422)
A. Shoulder dystocia
B. Deep transverse of the head
C. Erbs palsy
D. Prolonged second stage of labor
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
12
A 42 year old G2P1 at her 32 weeks gestation with known renal disease
and hypertension presents with BP of 220/120 mmHg but is
asymptomatic. The diagnostic test you will perform to detect chronicity of
her illness is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p. 342)
A. Doppler velocimetry
B. urine protein
C. fundoscopy
D. elevated serum creatinine
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
A 5 year old child was initially treated with antibiotics for purulent vaginal
discharge for a week. On follow up, the discharge was noted to be foul
smelling and bloody. The most probable cause is: (Comprehensive
Gynecology, 4th ed, page 274-277)
13
A.
B.
C.
D.
monilial infection
child molestation
foreign body in the vagina
precocious puberty
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
14
103.
104.
A 20 year old commercial sex worker presented at the clinic due to painful
shallow ulcers in the vulva associated with burning sensation during
urination. She also has multiple oral ulcers at the time of consultation. The
most likely diagnosis is: (Compre Gyne, , Chapter 22, page 656)
A. Herpes simplex infection
B. granuloma inguinale
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum
D. Syphilis
105.
106.
107.
A patient with chronic ulcers in the vulva had smears done taken from the
ulcers. Findings shows presence of dark staining bacteria with a bipolar
appearance found in the cytoplasm of large mononuclear cells .These are
diagnostic of ; (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 660
A. Granuloma inguinale
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Chancroid
D. Syphilis
108.
A patient with painless vulvar ulcers came with a positive screening test
for syphilis. Confirmatory test that should be done can either be any of the
following except: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 664)
A. RPR
B. TPI
C. FTA-ABS
15
D. MHA-TP
109.
110.
111.
Linda, 65 year old, G7P7 came to your clinic complaining of vaginal itching
with burning discomfort. This condition may be due to a decrease in what
hormone? (Compre Gyne, p.1223)
A. LH
B. progesterone
C. estrogen
D. FSH
112.
Linda, 18 year old, delivered an 8 lbs baby. There was note of laceration
on the lateral wall off the vaginal vault with profuse vaginal bleeding.
There was a sudden drop of BP. Post partum there was note of
amenorrhea. Lab examination shows destruction of the pituitary gland.
Linda has what syndrome? (Compre Gyne p. 1116)
A. Simmonds syndrome
B. Sheehans syndrome
C. Edwards syndrome
D. Ashermans syndrome
113.
114.
The fetal heart tones can be best heard in this area if the following were
the Leopolds findings:
L1- large nodular mass
L2 hard, resistant structure at the right side of the mother
Small, irregular, mobile parts on the left side of the mother
L3 movable hard round mass
L4 tips of the fingers able to meet
A. right lower quadrant
B. left lower quadrant
C. right upper quadrant
16
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
17
B. Gartners duct
C. Mullerian duct
D. Urogenital sinus
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
During the second and third trimester, daily caloric intake should be
increased by:
A. 400
B. 300
C. 200
D. 100
127.
128.
The relation of the point of direction to the right and left of the maternal
birth canal is called:
A. presentation
B. posture
C. position
D. station
18
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
The motor pathways to the uterus leaves the spinal cord at the level of:
A. T9T10
B. T7T8
C. T6
D. T7
135.
136.
137.
138.
19
139.
140.
Patient with heart disease without any obstetrical indication are best
delivered by:
A. cesarian section under general anesthesia
B. normal spontaneous delivery under pudendal block
C. outlet forceps extraction under epidural anesthesia
D. cesarian section under epidural anesthesia
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
20
146.
147.
148.
149.
A woman using the oral contraceptive pills for the first time should be
advised to start taking it :
A. on day 1 of menses
B. on day 5 of menses
C. on day 7 of menses
D. anytime as long as she is not pregnant
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
21
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
The so called tobacco pouch appearance of the fallopian tube is seen in:
A. gonorrhea infection with tubo ovarian abscess
B. Chlamydia infenction with tubo ovarian abscess
C. Pelvic tuberculos
D. Old tubal ectopic gestation
160.
161.
162.
163.
22
A.
B.
C.
D.
AGUS
ASCUS
LSIL
HSIL
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
A Pap smear is likely to identify all the following except (ANS: B page 150151)
A. cervical squamous cell carcinoma
B. gonorrhea
C. human papilloma virus
D. inflammatory changes
171.
B. surgical separation
C. a work-up for sexual abuse
D. manual separation in the clinic
172.
173.
The most commonly encountered cancer of the breast (ANS: D page 383)
A. lobular carcinoma in situ
B. lobular infiltrating carcinoma
C. ductal carcinoma in situ
D. ductal infiltrating carcinoma
174.
175.
176.
The greatest lifetime risk of breast cancer is associated with a(an) (ANS:
C page 430)
A. early menarche
B. late menopause
C. history of oral contraceptive use longer than 10 years
D. history of postmenopausal estrogen use longer than 10
years
177.
178.
179.
24
180.
The cell origin of the most common type of ovarian neoplasm is (ANS B
page 958)
A. germ cells
B. epithelial cells
C. stromal cells
D. lipoid cells
181.
182.
Most perinatal deaths are due to the following maternal factors: (ANS: A
p.8)
A. Premature labor
B. Anoxia from maternal hemorrhage
C. Postmaturity
D. Cephalopelvic disproportion
The placental circulation (feto-maternal) is established by this day after
fertilization (ANS: D p.57)
A. 12th day
B. 14-15th day
C. 10th day
D. 17th day
183.
184.
185.
This maneuver of Leopold is often called the umbilical grip and answers
the question, What side is the fetal back? (ANS: B p.122)
A. first maneuver
B. second maneuver
C. third maneuver
D. fourth maneuver
186.
Triple screen as a diagnostic tool for the detection fof Downs syndrome
utilizes the following except: (ANS: D p.153)
A. unconjugated estriol
B. alphafetoprotein
C. human chorionic gonadotrophin
D. human placental lactogen
25
187.
188.
Relation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother; (ANS:
C p.183)
A. attitude
B. presentation
C. lie
D. position
189.
A 28 y/o at 32 weeks age of gestation consults at a clinic. She had one set
of twins both are alive and she had an abortion. Her OB code is:
A. G3P2(2102)
B. G3P1(1012)
C. G3P2 (2012)
D. G2P1(1012)
190.
191.
What is the maneuver were the index and middle fingers are applied over
the maxilla in order to free the head?
A.
Bracht
B.
Zavanelli
C.
Pinard
D.
Mauriceau
192.
193.
The most common cause of direct maternal deaths in the Philipppines is:
(p. 4)
A.
Hemorrhage
B.
Hypertension
C.
Infection
D.
Heart Disease
194.
195.
The fern formation of dried cervical mucus is due to the effect of: (p.116)
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Human placental lactogen
26
D. Relaxin
196.
197.
When is the earliest time that can hCG be detected in maternal urine after
implantation? (p.116)
A. 5-7 days
B. 14-16 days
C. 8- 9 days
D. 18-21 days
198.
A woman who has had three consecutive abortions and no other pregnancies is
called: (p.119)
A. Nullipara
B. Multipara
C. Primipara
D. Primigravida
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
27
204.
205.
Failure to maintain temperature regulation in the newborn may lead to one or all
of the following: (p. 246)
A. Peripheral vasoconstriction
B. Hypoxia
C. Acidosis
D. All of the above
206.
207.
What is the average maternal weight loss immediately after delivery? (p. 254)
A. 4 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 6 kg
D. 7 kg
208.
The lochia consisting of servical mucus and debris from healing tissues and
leucocytes, lighter yellow and creamy in color: (p. 254)
A. Rubra
B. Alba
C. Cervicosa
D. Serosa
209.
210.
211.
The implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the endometrium lining the uterine
cavity is called: (p. 279)
A. Eccyesis
B. Ectropion
C. Endosalpingosis
D. Blighted ovum
28
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
The anticonvulsant of choice control of convulsion secondary to pregnancyinduced hypertension is: (p. 339)
A. Methyldopa
B. Hydralazine
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Diazepam
217.
218.
219.
In case of discordant twins resulting from twin to twin transfusion, the smaller
twin usually presents with: (p. 348)
A. Severe anemia
B. Growth retardation
C. Oligohydramnios
D. All of the above
220.
The fetal mortality rate in multifetal pregnancy is highest in: (p. 348)
A. Monozygotic, dichorionic, diamniotic
B. Monozygotic, monochorionic, diamnionic
C. Monozygotic, monochorionic, monoamnionic
D. Dizygotic, dichorionic, diamnionic
29
221.
222.
The most common cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in the preterm
neonate is: (p. 395)
A. Hyaline Membrane Disease
B. Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
C. Meconium Aspiration
D. Pneumothorax
223.
What antenatal procedure is used to detect fetal lung maturity? (p. 395-396)
A. Cordocentesis
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. X-ray of the fetal lungs
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
Postpartum hemorrhage is blood loss during the first 24 hours after delivery in
excess of : (p.465)
A. 100 cc
B. 300 cc
C. 500 cc
D. 1,000 cc
30
229.
230.
What is the daily minimum requirement for elemental iron in pregnancy? (p.
561)
A. 4-6 mg
B. 6-8 mg
C. 8-10 mg
D. 10-12 mg
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
31
236.
237.
When the fetal head is fully flexed, the chin lies in front of the chest and
the presenting anteroposterior diameter is suboccipitobregmamtic. What
type of presentation is this?
A. Vertex (occiput) presentation
B. Sinciput Presentation
C. Brow presentation
D. Face presentation
ANS: A (APMC page 211)
238.
239.
240.
241.
32
242.
This is considered as the most crucial event for the further development of
an antral follicle
A. activation of the aromatase system by FSH
B. activation of the aromatase system by LH
C. luteinization of the granulosa cell
D. luteolysis
ANS: A (APMC page 28)
243.
244.
245.
246.
Nayda, an 18-year old primigravida comes to the clinic on her 12th week of
gestation for her 1st check-up. She is curious as to when she can start to
perceive fetal movements. You will reassure her that this will occur :
A. anytime now
B. between the 16th and 18th week
C. between the 18th and 20th week
D. between the 20th and 24th week
ANS: C (APMC page 127)
247.
248.
33
A.
B.
C.
D.
Occipitofrontal
Biparietal
Suboccipitobregmatic
submentobregmatic
ANS: C (APMC page 211)
249.
This movement of the head refers to turning of the occiput from its original
transverse oblique position towards the symphysis pubis or less
commonly towards the hollow of the sacrum:
A. internal rotation
B. extension
C. external rotation
D. flexion
ANS: A (APMC page 244)
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
34
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
35
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
268.
36
269.
270.
Operative treatment for cervical cancer that guarantees the removal of the
entire cervix and uterus with the ureters undisturbed.
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class IV
D. Class V
ANS; A (compre page 902)
271.
272.
273.
274.
A 13 year old who has not had menarche was brought in for consult with
the following features: short stature, low breast development, with
webbing of the neck. The diagnosis is:
A. Gonadal agenesis
B. Turner syndrome
C. Hypothalamic failure
D. Testicular feminization
ANS: B (compre page 1105)
275.
37
D. Kallmann syndrome
ANS: B (compre page 1107)
276.
A 35- year old female came in for infertility work-up. When is the best time
to do hysterosalpingography (HSG)?
A. during menses
B. during the week following the end of menses
C. at mid cycle
D. before menses
ANS: B (compre page 1176)
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
38
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
39
288.
The mean duration of a normal pregnancy calculated from the first day of
LMP averages
close to
.
A. 40 weeks
B. 37 weeks
C. 42 weeks
D. 28 weeks
Answer:
a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 120
289.
290.
291.
What is the term used to describe the encirclement of the largest fetal
head diameter by the vulvar ring?
A. full dilatation
B. full effacement
C. crowning
D. engagement
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 226
292.
293.
40
294.
295.
A 32 year old G6P5 patient comes in 7cm. dilated at 10 am. What time do
you expect her to be fully dilated if labor progress is normal?
A. 11 am
B. 12 am
C. 1 pm
D. 2 pm
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 224
296.
298.
41
299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
What is the role of the hepatitis B surface antigen (+) patient in the
genesis of hepatitis B infection?
A. Chronic carrier state
B. Chronic active hepatitis
C. Acute hepatitis B
D. Facilitates entry of Hepatitis A virus
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 529
304.
42
Answer: d
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 529
305.
A 21 y/o G1P0 12rh week AOG complained of sore throat, cough and
fever and developed
post-auricular lymphadenopathy. What is your
main consideration?
A. Varicella zoster
B. Rubella
C. Rubeola
D. Measles
Answer: b
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 576
306.
307.
308.
You are attending to a 25 y/o, G3P3 who just delivered vaginally to a live
term fetus. Five minutes later, signs of placental separation appeared
followed by profuse vaginal bleeding. Bleeding before placental delivery is
called
.
A. Early postpartum hemorrhage
B. Late postpartum hemorrhage
C. Third-stage bleeding
D. Puerperal bleeding
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 467
309.
43
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 473-474
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
315.
44
316.
317.
318.
Answer: d
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 949
319.
320.
A 3 y/o girl was brought to the Emergency Room because of vaginal bleeding.
On inspection of the external genitalia, there was a mass protruding through the
vaginal introitus. It measured 4x3 cm and resembled a cluster of grapes forming
multiple polypoid masses. The most likely diagnosis is
.
A. Vaginal adenosis
B. Sarcoma botryoides
C. Epidermoid cancer
D. Condyloma acuminata
Answer: b
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 981
321.
45
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
46
329.
330.
331.
A 12 y/o girl was noted to have breast budding. What is the average age
you would expect her to experience menarche?
A. 10 year old
B. 12 year old
C. 14 year old
D. 16 year old
Answer: c
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3 rd Edition, page 1046
332.
333.
334.
47
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
A 25 year old woman and her husband use natural family planning as their
method of contraception. Her menstrual cycle length range from 26 to 32
days. She does not measure her basal body temperature. The time of
her maximum or peak fertility with the first day of her menses defined as
day 1 would be between
A. day 1 14
B. day 8 14
C. day 8 21
D. day 14 21
MPL 0.5 p: 301
340.
341.
What type of myoma insinuates itself between the leaves of the broad
ligament?
A. parasitic
B. serosal
C. interstitial
48
D. intraligamentary
MPL 0.5 p: 498
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
49
B. appendix
C. bladder mucosa
D. peritoneum of culdesac
MPL 0.5 p: 536
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
50
356.
A 32 year old has been having her regular pap smear for the last ten
years. Her latest result however revealed low grade SIL. What is the next
step to do?
A. colposcopic examination
B. repeat smear in 4 months
C. conization
D. laser ablation
MPL 0.33 p: 873
357.
A 19 year old was brought to the ER because of acute pain. There was
also vaginal spotting. Examination revealed a small tender adnexal mass.
Based on the LMP, she is on day 25 of her cycle. Pregnancy test was
negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. ectopic pregnancy
B. acute salpingitis
C. ruptured corpus luteum
D. ruptured endometrial cyst
MPL 0.33
p: 509
358.
A 28 year old nulligravida with primary infertility and cyclic pelvic pain was
diagnosed to have endometriosis. She was placed on hormonal
treatment. However, while on this drug, she developed acne, hirsutism,
and deepening of the voice. What is a better alternative?
A. laparoscopic fulguration
B. GnRH agonist
C. Progesterone injectables
D. Oral contraceptives
MPL 0.33 p. 546
359.
361.
51
D. TSH determination
MPL 0.33 p. 1133
362.
363.
364.
365.
366.
A G2P1 with 7 weeks missed period presents with one week diagnosis of
vaginal bleeding and hypogastric pains. Cervix is 1 cm open with intact
membranes. What is the diagnosis?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Imminent abortion
C. Inevitable abortion
D. Incomplete abortion
MPL 0.33 p. 243
367.
52
369.
370.
371.
372.
A 25 year old consulted for vaginal spotting and sharp pelvic pain. History
revealed 6 weeks amenorrhea. Pregnancy test was positive. Physical
exam elicited cervical wriggling tenderness with a vague mass and
tenderness in the left adnexae. Posterior vaginal fornix as full and
bulging. BP was 100/60 mm Hg., PR 102/min. What should be done next
to this patient?
A. culdocentesis
B. emergency transvaginal ultrasound
C. blood transfusion
D. immediate exploration
MPL 0.5
p. 890
373.
53
375.
376.
377.
378.
379.
54
381.
Anticipating a large baby, the patients legs were removed from the
stirrups and sharply flexed upon her abdomen. What will be the effect of
this maneuver?
A. increase pelvic dimension
B. facilitate bearing down effort
C. rotates symphysis pubis toward maternal head
D. dislodges the posterior shoulder
MPL 0.25
p: 461
383.
384.
55
385.
A
53 A 29 year old, Gravida 5 Para 4 (4-0-0-4), Pregnancy uterine
37 weeks, complaining of hypogastric pain of 2 hours, came in the
emergency room. Her vital signs were normal. Fundic height was 35
cms. Fundus is occupied by a hard, round, ballotable mass, fetal back
palpated at the left, as well on the right, another hard, round mass on the
hypogastric area, fetal heart tones of 143/min heard at the left periumbical
area and 152/min heard at the right lower quadrant. On internal
examination, the cervix was 5 cms. Dilated, 1 cm long, ruptured bag of
waters, cephalic, station -2. All her previous pregnancies were delivered
at home. What is the recommended mode of delivery?
A. an outright cesarean section
B. a vaginal delivery for both
C. a vaginal delivery for the first of twin then a cesarean
section for the second
D. a vaginal delivery for the first of twin then an internal
podalic version for the second of twin
MPL 0.25
p: 941
386.
When the fetal breech presents with both legs extended and the hips
flexed, it is classified as
A. complete breech
B. incomplete breech
C. frank breech
D. footling breech
MPL 0.5 p: 567
388.
389.
390.
56
What is considered as the major vestibular glands that lie under the
constrictor muscles of the vagina
A. Paraurethral glands
B. Skenes glands
C. Sebaceous glands
D. Bartholins glands
MPL 0.5 p: 17
392.
393.
394.
What do you call a woman who had 3 pregnancies, all of which were
aborted?
A. nulligravida
B. nullipara
C. multipara
D. primipara
MPL 0.5 p: 207
395.
What is the earliest age of gestation when fetal sex can be identified by
gross examination of the external genitalia?
A. 6 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 14 weeks
D. 20 weeks
MPL 0.33 p: 113
396.
397.
57
398.
How much weight does a average weighted woman gain throughout her
pregnancy?
A. 10 lbs
B. 18 lbs
C. 24 lbs
D. 30 lbs
MPL 0.5 p: 452
399.
400.
401.
A woman on her 41st week of pregnancy had a BPS with the following
findings during the 30 minutes test-sustained breathing movement of 45
secs, five simultaneous limb and trunk movements, 2 episodes of arm
flexion and extension, 3 episodes of fetal heart rate accelerations each for
5 secs with fetal movement, amniotic fluid pocket of 3 cms in
perpendicular planes. What should be done for this patients based on the
BPS score?
A. Do a outright cesarean section
B. Induce labor first
C. Repeat the BPS on the same day
D. Repeat the BPS after a week
MPL 0.5 p: 1104
402.
403.
58
404.
405.
406.
407.
What maneuver will the fetal head undergo right after engagement?
A. internal rotation
B. extension
C. flexion
D. descent
MPL 0.5 p: 416
408.
What part of the uterus forms the lower uterine segment during labor?
21
A. external cervical os
B. cornua
C. fundus
D. isthmus
MPL 0.5 p: 21
409.
410.
59
411.
412.
413.
In which part of labor does the descent of the presenting part of the fetus
is most marked?
A. preparatory division of labor
B. 1st stage of labor
C. pelvic division of labor
D. 3rd stage of labor
MPL 0.5 p:422
414.
415.
416.
417.
60
418.
If her last menstrual period is last Jan 23, 2007, when is her expected date
of confinement?
A. April 30, 2007
B. June 26, 2007
C. Oct 23, 2007
D. Oct 30, 2007
MPL 1.0 p: 208-209
419.
420.
421.
422.
423.
424.
425.
61
427.
428.
429.
62