FORENSIC MEDICINE MCQS

1. Most common pattern finger print is

a. Whorls
b. Loops
c. Composite
d. Arches
2. Dactylography introduced in India by
a. William Herschel
b. Frances Galton
c. Locard
3. Poroscopy is
a. Counting pores of sweat glands
b. Counting pores of sebaceous glands
c. Counting number of ridges
4. Tattoo marks destroyed, their presence can be inferred from presence of pigment in
a. Deep dermis
b. Subcutaneous tissue
c. Lymph nodes Regional
5. Blush discolouration of neck of tooth due to
a. Cyanosis
b. Bismuth
c. Copper
d. Nicotine
6. Suspected air embolism body cavity to be opened first is
a. Brain
b. Thorax
c. Abdomen
d. Pelvis
7. Under takers fracture due to falling of head (Backward) occurs at
a. L5S1
b. T12L1
c. C6L7
d. C1-C2
8. Most fixed part of intestine is
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Colon
d. Ileum

9. After death blood usually remains fluid except in

a. Pneumonia
b. Septicemia
c. CO poisoning
d. Hypofibrinogenemia
10. Nutmeg liver refers to
a. Amoebic hepatitis
b. Pyogenic abscess
c. Chronic venous congestion
d. Portal cirrhosis
11. Child brain attains mature size and wt at about
a. 3 yrs
b. 5 yrs
c. 7 yrs
d. 9 yrs
12. Time limit for exhumation in India is
a. 2 yrs
b. 5 yrs
c. 7 yrs
d. no time limit
13. For transplantation cornea can be removed from dead upto
a. 6 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 18 hrs
d. 24 hrs
14. Exhumation done under order by
a. Police officer
b. Superintendent police
c. First class magistrate
15. Diagnosis of brain death dependent upon all except
a. Dilated/fixed pupil
b. No spontaneous breathing
c. Flat EEG
d. Cessation of cardiac contraction.
16. After stoppage of circulation muscles can live upto
a. 10 mts
b. 30 mts
c. 3 hrs

d. 6 hrs
17. Anoxic anoxia produced by all except
a. Drowning
b. Fire accidents
c. Cyanide poisoning
d. Strangulation
18. Tardieu spots in hanging are common at all the following sites except
a. Scalp
b. Eyebrow
c. Chest wall
d. Face
19. Tardieus spot
a. Septicemia
b. Endocarditis
c. Meningococcemia
d. All of the above
20. Earliest sign of death is
a. loss of skin elasticity
b. Corneal clouding
c. Cooling of body
d. Postmortem lividity
21. Tache noire refers to
a. Postmortem staining
b. Flaccidity of eyeball
c. Wrinkled dusty sclera
d. Maggot growth
22. Rectal temperature does not appreciably fall till what time after death
a. 15-30 mts
b. 30-60 mts
c. 60-90 mts
d. none of the above
23. Postmortem caloricity seen in poisoning from.
a. Arsenic
b. Strychnine
c. Cyanide
d. Organophosphorus
24. Postmortem lividity well developed with in
a. 2 hrs

b. 4 hrs
c. 6 hrs
d. 8 hrs
25. Fixation of postmortem staining occurs in
a. 2 hrs
b. 4 hrs
c. 6 hrs
d. 8 hrs
26. Rigor mortis starts when muscle ATP is reduced below
a. 50%
b. 5%
c. 15%
d. 5%
27. Rigor mortis first evident in
a. Intestine
b. Myocardium
c. Interstitial muscle
d. Eyelids
28. Cutis anserina of rigor mortis due to stiffness of
a. Erector pilorum
b. Biceps
c. Cremaster
d. Diaphragm
29. Rigor mortis does not occur in fetus less than
a. 9 mth
b. 7 mth
c. 6 mth
d. 8 mth
30. In India rigor mortis lasts for
a. 12-24 hrs
b. 24 48 hrs
c. 36-72 hrs
d. 48-96 hrs
31. Cadaveric spasm commonly seen in
a. Legs
b. Hands
c. Neck muscles
d. Involuntary muscles

32. Heat stiffening occurs when body exposed to temperature

a. 450C
b. 550C
c. 650C
d. 750C
33. Chief agent for bacterial putrefaction is
a. E.coli
b. B. fragilis
c. C.welchii
d. Staph aureus
34. Postmortem hemolysis due to bacterial enzyme
a. Lecithinase
b. Phospholipase
c. Streptokinase
d. Hyaluronidase
35. First external sign of putrefaction of body lying in air is around
a. Umbilicus
b. Rt iliac fossa
c. Lt iliac fossa
d. Chest wall
36. Greenish colour earliest sign of putrefaction due to
a. Hb
b. Meta Hb
c. SulphmetHb
d. CarboxyHb
37. Combustible gas of autolysis is
a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Hydrogen sulphide
c. Methane
d. Carbon dioxide
38. Postmortem luminescence due to
a. Photobacterium fischeri
b. Armillaria mellea
39. First internal organ to putrefy is
a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Larynx / trachea
d. Kidney

40. Last organ to putrefy

a. Uterus / prostate
b. Testes
c. Ovary
d. Adrenals
41. Putrefaction occurs more rapidly in
a. Water
b. Air
c. Soil
d. Cold-salt water
42. Adipocere starts early in all of following except
a. Face
b. Breast
c. Buttock
d. Chest wall
43. Dehydration / Shriveling of cadaver is called
a. Putrefaction
b. Mummification
c. Saponification
44. Formaldehyde injected for embalming is
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
45. Odour of mummified body is
a. Pungent
b. Putrid
c. Offensive
d. Odorless
46. For embalming chemicals are injected into
a. Femoral artery
b. Abdominal cavity
c. Chest cavity
47. Maggots appear in natural orifices of dead in summer in about
a. 2 4 hrs
b. 6 8 hrs
c. 8 12 hrs
d. 12 24 hrs

48. After death all of following show rise in CSF except

a. Lactic acid
b. Amino acid
c. Urea
d. Uric acid
49. After death blood level of following decrease
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Magnesium
d. None
50. Brush burn refers to
a. Electric burn
b. Lightening burn
c. Sliding abrasion
d. Pressure abrasion
51. Wound cause by sickle is
a. Stab wound
b. Incised wound
c. Both
52. Beveling cut refers to
a. Flap wound
b. Overhang margins
c. One margin under mined
d. Irregular margins
53. Cut-throat wound cause death by
a. Air embolism
b. Haemorrhage
c. Tracheobronchial aspiration
d. All of above.
54. Blunt trauma more likely to produce incised like wounds
a. Hand
b. Neck
c. Chest
d. Scalp
55. Fabricated wounds are mostly
a. Abrasions
b. Incised wounds
c. Contusions
d. Lacerations

56. Diastic fracture refers to fracture through

a. Outer table
b. Inner table
c. Sutural line
d. None
57. In Contrecoup impact lesion is present
a. At site of impact
b. At a site opposite to impact
c. At a site tangential to impact
58. Extradural haemorrhage commonly occurs from rupture of
a. Superior sagittal sinus
b. Middle meningeal artery
c. Dural sinus
d. None of above.
59. Common cause of death in Extradural haemmorhage is
a. Haemorrhagic shock
b. Respiratory failure
c. Cardiac failure
d. Neurogenic shock
60. Rupture of berry aneurysm commonly produces
a. Subarachnoid bleed
b. Intracerebral sued
c. Subdural bleed
61. Most common cause of aneurysm formation
a. Trauma
b. Septic emboli
c. Congenital
d. Syphilitic and arteritis
62. Whiplash is which form of injury
a. Hyper flexion
b. Hyperextension
c. Lateral flexion
d. Atlanto-axial dislocation
63. Blunt abdominal trauma commonest site of GI ruptures is
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Jejunum
d. Transverse colon

64. Dowry death the time limit after marriage is

a. 2 years
b. 7 years
c. 20 years
d. 30 years
65. Any hurt grievous provided the victim is unable to follow his ordinary pursuit for
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
66. Amount of air necessary to produce fatal air embolism is
a. 20 ml
b. 50 ml
c. 100 ml
d. 250 ml
67. Malignant hyperthermia is a danger with
a. Atropine
b. Succinylcholine
c. Pancuranium
68. Hypothermia is said to exist when Rectal / oral temp less than
Ca. 35
Cb. 30
Cc. 25
Cd. 20
69. Frostbite occurs when continuous exposure to temp. range of
C and belowa. 10
C and belowb. 2.5
Cc. 2 4
Cd. 5 10
70. Frost bite is very common in
a. Lips
b. Nose
c. Cheeks
d. Hair
71. Burn type relatively painless
a. 1st degree
b. 2nd degree
c. 3rd degree

72. Minimum temp to produce burn is

Ca. 40
Cb. 44
Cc. 50
Cd. 60
73. Haemoglobinuria occurs when burnt skin surface exceeds
a. 20 %
b. 30 %
c. 50 %
d. 70 %
74. Scalding is caused when liquid in contact has temperature above
Ca. 44
Cb. 50
Cc. 60
Cd. 80
75. Satyriasis is
a. Excessive inclination for sex
b. Dislike for sex
c. Sexual perversion
76. Commonest cause of impotency in male is
a. Adrenal dysfunction
b. Testicular failure
c. Mal developed penis
d. Psychogenic
77. Chadwicks sign is
a. Softening of cervix
b. Increased vaginal mucous secretion
c. Blue colouration of vagina
78. Radiological signs of fetal death includes all except
a. Overlapping of skull bones (Spaldings sign)
b. Hyperextension of spine
c. Collapse of spinal column
d. Gas in aorta
79. Punishment for rape in pregnant women is
a. 7 years
b. 10 years
c. 12 years
d. Life term

80. pH of seminal fluid is

a. 6
b. 7
c. 7.4
d. 8.2

ANSWERS KEY FSM

1. b 2.a 3. a 4. c
5. d 6. b 7. c 8. anat
9. a 10. path 11. paed 12. d
13. a 14. c 15. d 16. b
17. c 18. c 19. d 20. a
21. c 22. b 23. b 24. b
25. c 26. c 27. d 28. a
29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c
33. c 34. a 35. b 36. c
37. b 38. a 39. c 40. a
41. c 42. d 43. b 44. d
45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c
49. a 50. c 51. c 52. c
53. d 54. d 55. b 56. c
57. b 58. b 59. b 60. a
61. path 62. b 63. d 64. b
65. c 66. c 67. phar 68. a
69. b 70. b 71. c 72. b
73. b 74. c 75. a 76. d
77. c 78. b 79. d 80. c