Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Biology
Biology
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Arrangement of atoms and molecular groups in DNA and RNA can be studied through
(A) Spectrophotometer
(B) X-ray diffraction
(C) Histochemistry
(D) Centrifugation
For solving a scientific problem which is not correct?
(A) Hypotheses are formulated
(B) Each hypothesis is subjected to experimentation
(C) No control experiment is set up
(D) Observation is made directly or indirectly.
Given below are assertion and reason. PoINt out if both are correct and reason is correct
explanation (A), Both are true but reason is not correct explanation (B), Assertion is true but
reason is false (C), Both are wrong (D)
Assertion: Study of biology requires basic knowledge of chemistry and physics.
Reason: Living organisms are made of atoms and molecules which follow chemical and physical
laws.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Kalpa Vriksha is
(A) Banyan
(C) Fig
(B) Coconut
(D) Date.
Aquaculture does not include
(B.H.U 2003)
(A) Prawns
(B) Pisces
(C) Silkworm
(D) Shell fishery
Nonpoisonous leeches were used for preventing the clotting of blood in the post operative cases
during 600 B.C. by
(A) Atrey
(B) Charaka Samhita (C) Taittirya
(D) Susrata Samhita
A prediction made by a scientist based on his observation
is known as
(A) Hypothesis
(B) Theory
(C) Principle
(D) Law.
Aristotle is connected with
(A) Biogenetic law (B) Scala Naturae
(C) Parallelism
(D) Catastrophism
Amniocentesis is employed for diagnosis of
(A) Brain disease
(B) Heart disease
(C) Spina bifida
(D) Hereditary defects
Select the false statement
(A) Pasteur developed vaccine against anthrax
(B) Susrata Samhita describes classification of plants and animals.
(C) Dhanwantari is regarded father of ancient Indian medicine.
(D) Pasteur provided experimental evidence in support of theory of spontaneous generation.
Nobel Prize of 1970 was awarded to
(A) Robert W. Holley
(B) Norman E. Boilaug
(C) Avery
(D) Watson and Crick.
Most widely used bioweapon is
(A) Pseudomonas putida
(B) Bacillus anthracis
(C) Bacillus subtilis
(D) None of the above.
Which is correct
(A) Snakes can hypnotise their prey because they do not blink their eyes
(B) Snakes play on flutes as they like hearing good music
(C) Snakes suckle cows when they are in forest
(D) Snakes do not prey becomes fear.blink their eyes but the motionless because of
In september 2001, a bioweapon used in America was
(A) Polio virus
(B) Anthrax
(C) AIDS virus
(D) Botulinum
A biological weapon is
(A) Brazzein
(B) Anthrax
(C) AIDS virus
(D) Botulinum
ANSWER KEY
1. (B)
11. (B)
21. (A)
31. (B)
41. (D)
51. (C)
61. (D)
71. (D)
81. (A)
91. (D)
101. (A)
111. (B)
121. (B)
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12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.
102.
112.
122.
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(D)
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
93.
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113.
123.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(D)
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
$4.
64.
74.
84.
94.
104.
114.
124.
(D)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(B)
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
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105.
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125.
(B)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
86.
96.
106.
116.
126.
(A)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
7.
17.
27.
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47.
57.
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(D)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
8.
18.
28.
38.
4$.
58.
6$.
78.
88.
98.
108.
118.
128.
(D)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(D)
9. (A)
19. (D)
29. (D)
39. (B)
49. (D)
59. (B)
69. (B)
79. (B)
89. (A)
99. (B)
109. (A)
119. (D)
10. (C)
20. (D)
30. (C)
40. (A)
50. (A)
60. (A)
70. (D)
80. (B)
90. (C)
100. (A)
110. (B)
120. (A)
What is living
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Phospholipids possess
(A) One polar head and one nonpolar tail
(B) One polar head and two hydrophobic tails
(C) Two polar heads and one hydrophobic tail
(D) One hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail.
Common steroid is
(A) Hydrocortisol
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Stillbesterol (D) Stigmasterol.
Steroids are constituents of
(A) Cell membranes (B) Vitamin D
(C) Some hormones
(D) All the above.
20-carbon fatty acids which act as local messengers are
(A) Prostaglanclins (B) Polyterpenes
(C) Steroids
(D) Phospholipids.
Number of amino acids taking part in protein synthesis is
(A) 500
(B) 200
(C) 120
(D) 20.
NH2 group is called
(A) Amino
(B) Hydroxyl
(C) Carbonyl
(D) Aldehyde.
Carboxyl group of an amino acid is
(A) CHO
(B) CO
(C) COOH
(D) OH.
CONH is called
(A) Ionic bond
(B) Amide bond
(C) Peptide bond
(D) Both B and C.
An amino acid possesses
(A) NH2 and COOH groups
(B) NH2 COOH, H and side group
(C) NH2 COOH and side group
(D), NH2 COOH and H group.
In haemoglobin, the adjacent polypeptide chains are held together by
(A) Covalent bonds
(B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Both covalent and hydrogen bonds
(D) Ionic bonds.
In hormone insulin, the two polypeptides are joined together by
(A) Ionic bonds
(B) Covalent bonds (C) Hydrogen bonds
(D) Both B and C
Percentage of dry weight constituted by proteins in a living organism is
(A) 9%
(B) 12%
(C) 29%
(D) 50%.
A transport protein is
(A) Insulin
(B) Imniunoglobulin (C) Haemoglobin (D) Actin.
A structural protein is
(A) Immunoglobulin (B) Actin and myosin (C) Collagen
(D) Both B and C.
Antibodies are
(A) Enzymes
(B) Immunoglobulins (C) Structural proteins (D) Transport proteins.
Nucleic acids are
(A) Two types
(B) Polynucleotides (C) Heteropolymers (D) All of these.
C-base of nucleotide is
(A) Cysteine
(C) Cytosine
(B) Cystine
(D) Serine.
G-base of nucleotide is
(A) Guanine
(B) Glycine
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Glutaniine.
Uracil of RNA is replaced by in DNA
(A) Guanine
(B) Adenine
(C) Thymine
(D) Cytosine.
Which ones are purines
(A) Adenine and cytosine
(B) Guanine and cytosine
(C) Adenine and guanine
(D) Cytosine and thymine.
Which ones are pyrnidines
(A) Cytosine, Thymine and Adenine
(B) Adenine, Guanine and Cytosine
(C) Cytosine, Guanine and Thymine
(D) Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil.
Ribose is a
(A) Hexose sugar
(B) Pentose sugar
(C) Tetrose sugar
(D) Triose sugar.
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If the external environment is hot, the body of endothermic organisms does not become hot due to
(A) Evaporation of water
(B) Vasoconstriction of superficial blood vessels
(C) Vasodilation of superficial blood vessels (D) Both A and B.
Thermostat and internal thermoreceptors are located in
(A) Medulla oblongata
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Anterior pituitary
(D) Cerebrum.
Thermoreceptors present in the skin are
(A) Warm receptors below the epidermis and cold receptors in dermis
(B) Warm receptors in epidermis and cold receptors below the epidermis
(C) Cold receptors in epidermis and warm receptors below epidermis
(D) Cold receptors below the epidermis and warm receptors in dermis.
Homeothermy in humans is maintained through
(A) Negative feed-back loop
(B) Thermoreceptors
(C) Cold receptors
(D) Warm receptors.
If the external temperature is low
(A) Warm receptors are activated
(B) Cold receptors are inhibited
(C) Thermostat becomes operational ordering vasocontriction of peripheral vessels and
stimulation of skeletal muscles
(D) Thermostat becomes operational ordering vasodilation of peripheral vessels and activation of
sweat gland
Growth occurs due to synthesis of
(A) Protoplasmic substance
(B) Apoplasrnic substances
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
Apoplasmic growth is through the formation
(A) Cell walls and cell junctions
(B) Matrix and fibres of connective tissue
(C) intake of water
(D) Both A and B.
Conversion of blastula into gastrula is
(A) Cleavage
(B) Morphogenesis (C) Differentiation
(D) Reproduction.
Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is
(A) Mimicry
(B) Predation
(C) Adaptation
(D) Camouflage.
Long term adapt4on is
(A) Inheritable
(B) Permanent
(C) Formed due to evolution
(D) All the above.
Which organ remains functional for a few hours after clinical death?
(A) Heart
(B) Kidneys
(C) Eyes
(D) All the above.
Which of the birds hovers over a flower for sucking nectar or catching insects without sitting over
it
(A) Humming bird (B) Sandpiper
(C) Hornbill
(D) Parrot.
Flowers of Opiuys mscifera resemble
(A) Male Colpa
(B) Female Colpa
(C) Male Housefly
(D) Female Housefly.
In birds long term adaptation is
(A) Pneumatic bones
(B) Wings from fore-limbs
(C) Formation of beak
(D) All the above.
Clinical death is noted from
(A) Stoppage of breathing
(B) Stoppage of heart beat
(C) Wide pupil without photoreaction
(D) All the above.
What is legal death
(A) Biological death
(B) Clinical death
(C) Death when revival is not possible.
(D) Both B and C.
A dead but protective animal structure is
(A) Feathers
(B) Nails and claws (C) Skin surface
(D) All the above.
Many desert plants possess
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Homeostasis is
(A) Tendency to charge with change in environment
(B) Tendency to resist change
(C) Disturbance inregulatory control
(D) Plants and animal extracts used in homeopathy.
174. Sweating is meant for
(A) Killing of skin bacteria
(B) Regulation of body temperature
(C) Removal of excess salt
(D) Removal of excess water.
175. Cholesterol is
(A) Monosaccharide (B) Protein
(C) Sterol
(D) Wax
176. An orchid resembling the female of an insect so as to be able to get pollinated is due to
phenomenon of
(A) Mimicry
(B) Pseudocopulation (C) Pseudopollination (D) Pseudoparthenocarpy
177. Maintenance of internalfavourable conditions despite changesin external environment is
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Homoeostasis
(C) Entropy
(D) Steady state.
178. Saline dip is given to patient suffering from cholera&
(A) Na+ ions help in retention of water in body tissues
(B) NaCl is involved in supply of energy
(C) NaC1 furnishes most of cell fuel
(D) Na+ impairs nerve impulses involved in transmission of pain sensation.
179. Total heat content of a system is
(A) Free energy
(B) Enthalpy
(C) Entropy
(D) Kinetic energy.
180. A person exposed to cold environment does not show
(A) Shivering
(B) Vasoconstriction of peripheral vessels
(C) Increased secretion of thyroid and adrenal medula
(D) Increased heart beat and volume per stroke.
181. Which is correct about energy changes in living cells?
(A) First energy transfer, then energy transformation
(B) First energy transformation, then energy transfer
(C) Both occur discontinuously
(D) Both occur continuously
182. Which one is not an adaptation?
(A) Hibernation
(B) Cell division
(C) Phototropism
(D) Geotropism.
183. Animals not possessing a fixed temperature are called
(A) Homeotherms
(B) Stenotherms
(C) Poikilotherms
(D) Heterothernis.
184. Mimicry is meant for
(A) Concealment
(B) Offence
(C) Defence
(D) Both B and C.
185. Which one is incorrect
(A) New individuals replace the dead ones
(B) Homeostasis produces a self regulated steady state
(C) Most homeostatic mechanisms operate through feed-back systems
(D) Cell obtains instructions for divisions from a hereditary protein.
186. Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true and the reason is correct
explanation (A), both are true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion is true but reason
is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Living systems are closed systems. Reason.
Energy of living organisms cannot be lost or gained from environment.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true and the reason is correct
explanation (A), both are true but reason is not .correct explanation (B), assertion is true but
reason is wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Death is regarded as the most regulatory
process on earth. Reason. It avoids over-crowding caused by continuous reproduction
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Thanatology is the science that deals with
(A) Death in all its aspects
(B) Solving paternity of child
(C) Identification of living
(D) Detection of lie.
Cold blooded animals are
(A) Homeotherms
(B) Eurytherms
(C) Poikilotherms
(D) Endotherms
Body temperature is regulated by
(A) Lungs, muscles and skin
(B) Skin only
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Skeletal system
The smallest unit of life is
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Cell
(D) Protein.
During the occurrence of a spontaneous process, free energy
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Is not liberated
(D) Remains constant.
Living steady state has a self regulatory mechanism called
(A) Homeothermy
(B) Feedback mechanism
(C) Homozygosity
(D) Homeostasis.
Energy flow and energy transformations of a living system follow
(A) Law of limiting factors
(B) Law of thermodynamics
(C) Liebigs law of minimum
(D) Biogenetic law
Highest level of biological and ecological organisation is
(A) Biome
(B) Ecosystem
(C) Landscape
(D) Biosphere.
During cold, hairs are raised to near vertical position by
(A) Hair follicles
(B) Arrector pili
(C) Capillary plexus
(D) Sebaceous glands.
Animals spending winter in dormant condition is referred to
(A) Aestivation
(B) Camouflage
(C) Hibernation (D) Mimicry
Energy transfers or transformations are never 100% efficient due to
(A) Entropy
(B) Homeostasis
(C) Catabolism (D) Anabolism
Metabolism is
(A) Release of energy
(B) Gain of energy
(C) Release or gain of energy
(D) Catabolism of a reaction.
Biological organisation begins at
(A) Cellular level
(B) Atomic level
(C) Organismic level
(D) Submicroscopic molecular level.
A living organism can be unexceptionally differentiated from a nonliving thing on the basis of its
ability for
(A) Reproduction
(B) Growth and movement
(C) Responsiness to touch
(D) Interaction with environment and progressive evolution
An example of negative feed back loop in humans is
(A) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
(B) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles in cold
(C) Secretion of tears on dust particles falling in eyes.
(D) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
1. (A)
11. (B)
21. (A)
31. (C)
41. (C)
51. (D)
61. (D)
71. (C)
81. (B)
91. (C)
101. (D)
111. (B)
121. (C)
131. (D)
141. (B)
151. (D)
161. (A)
171. (C)
181. (D)
191. (C)
201. (A)
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.
102.
112.
122.
132.
142.
152.
162.
172.
182.
192.
202.
(D)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
93.
103.
113.
123.
133.
143.
153.
163.
173.
183.
193.
203.
(C)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
14.
84.
94.
104.
114.
124.
134.
144.
154.
164.
174.
184.
194.
204.
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(B)
ANSWER KEY
5.
(D) 6.
(C)
15. (D) 16. (A)
25. (A) 26. (B)
35. (D) 36. (C)
45. (C) 46. (C)
55. (C) 56. (D)
65. (B) 66. (D)
75. (A) 76. (D)
85. (D) 86. (B)
95. (C) 96. (C)
105. (A) 106. (C)
115. (C) 116. (C)
125. (D) 126. (C)
135. (B) 136. (A)
145. (A) 146. (B)
155. (A) 156. (B)
165. (B) 166. (A)
175. (C) 176. (A)
185. (D) 186. (D)
195. (D) 196. (B)
205. (D) 206. (A)
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.
97.
107.
117.
127.
137.
147.
157.
167.
177.
187.
197.
207.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(C)
8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
78.
88.
98.
108.
118.
128.
138.
148.
158.
168.
178.
188.
198.
208.
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D
(B)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(B)
9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
69.
79.
89.
99.
109.
119.
129.
139.
149.
159.
169.
179.
189.
199.
209.
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(B)
10. (D)
20. (C)
30. (B)
40. (B)
50. (D)
60. (C)
70. (A)
80. (B)
90. (C)
100. (C)
110. (B)
120. (A)
130. (C)
140. (D)
150. (D)
160. (A)
170. (A)
180. (D)
190. (A)
200. (D)
SYSTAMATICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
Systernatics is
(A) Identification
(B) Nomenclature
(C) Relationships and classification
(D) All the above.
Taxonomy is connected with
(A) Collection of plants and animals
(B) Classification of organisms
(C) Identification,. nomenclature and classification of organisms (D) All the above.
Classification deals with
(A) Identification of organisms
(B) Arranging organisms into groups
(C) Arranging organisms in herbaria and museums
(D) Naming, identification and grouping of organisms.
The term taxonomy was coined by
(A) D Candoile
(B) Theophrastus
(C) Pliny
(D) Linnaeus.
The book which has left the maximum influence on the thinking of taxonomists is
(A) Species Planterum
(B) Origin of Species
(C) Systema Naturae
(D) Historia Plantarum.
New Systematics differs from Classical Systematics in employing
(A) Experimental Taxonomy
(B) Biochemical and Cytotaxonomy
(C) All biological parameters
(D) Numerical Taxonomy.
Karyotaxonomy is a component of
(A) Cytotaxonomy
(B) Experimental Taxonomy
(C) Biochemical Taxonomy
(D) Numerical Taxonomy.
Taxonomy is important in agriculture because it helps in
(A) Identification of plant pests
(B) Identification of weeds
(C) Identification of pathogens
(D) All the above.
The term taxon was given by
(A) Meyer
(B) Linnaeus
(C) Laniarck
(D) D Candolle
For classification of angiosperms floral characters are preferred over vegetative characters
because
(A) Reproductive axis shows a large degree of prominent variations
(B) Floral characters show less variations than vegetative traits
(C) Shape of flower is diagnostic feature in many families
(D) it is more handy to study floral features than vegetative characters.
Father of Botany is
(A) Hippocrates
(B) Aristotle
(C) Plato
(D) Theophrastus.
Classical systematics beievea in
(A) Cytological studies
(B) Fixity of species
(C) Dynamic nature of species
(D) Genetic studies.
Study of only one or a few organisms for obtaining knowledge about species/higher group is
(A) Nominalistic concept
(B) Classical systematics
(C) Typological concept
(D) New systematics.
Phylogenetic system differs from a natural system in its stress on
(A) Anatomical details
(B) Physiological traits
(C) Morphological details
(D) Origin and evolutionary trends.
A genus with a single species is
(A) Monotypic
(B) Typical
(C) Atypical
(D) Polytypic.
Number of obligate categories is
(A)9
(B)7
(C) S
(D) 3.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
(A) Linnaeus
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
(B) Hutchinson
(D) D Candolle.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
Revision Question
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
(A) Species
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
(B) Genus
(C) Order
(D) Taxon.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
Whittaker proposed
(A) Two kingdom classification
(B) Five kingdom classification
(C) Four kingdom classification
(D) Three kingdom classification.
Protista includes
(A) Heterotrophs
(B) Chemoautotrophs (C) Chemoheterotrophs (D) All the above.
In Whittakers classification, non-nucleated unicellular organisms/procaryotes are included under
(A) Plantae
(B) Monera
(C) Protista
(D) Animalia.
In Whittakers five kingdom classification, eucaryotes are assigned to
(A) All the five kingdoms
(B) Only four kingdoms
(C) Only three kingdoms
(D) Only two kingdoms
Four kingdom classification was proposed by
(A) Whittaker
(B) Copeland
(C) Haeckel
(D) Linnaeus.
Mitochondria probably originated from bac teria because both have
(A) Similar type of circular DNA
(B) Similar pigments
(C) Same function
(D) All the above.
Species is
(A) Specific unit of evolution
(B) Specificunit in the evolutionary history of a race
(C) Specific class of evolution
(D) Not related to evolution.
Phylogenetic classification is based on
(A) Utilitarian system
(B) Habits
(C) Overall similarities
(D) Common evolutionary descent.
Binomial nomenclature consists of two words
(A) Genus and species
(B) Order and family
(C) Family and genus
(D) Species and variety.
Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without flesh is the statement of
(A) Oswald Tippo
(B) John Hutchinson (C) Takhtajan
(D) Bentham and Hooker.
Mayrs biological concepts of species is mainly based on
(A) Morphological traits
(B) Reproductive isolation
(C) Modes of reproduction
(D) Morphology and reproduction.
Two morphologically similar populations are intersterile. They belong to
(A) One species
(B) Two biospecies (C) Two sibling species (D) None of the above.
Linnaean system of plant classification is based on
(A) Morphological and anatomical characters(B) Evolutionary trends
(C) Floral characters
(D) None of the above.
Which one possesses characters of both plants and animals?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Mycoplasma
(C) Paramoeciu,n
(D) Euglena.
Distinction of procaryota and eucaryota is mainly based on
(A) Nucleus only
(B) Cell organelles only
(C) Chromosomes only
(D) All the above.
On the basis of nucleus, virus should be
(A) Prokaryotes
(B) Eukaryotes
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
Specimen used the author is
(A) Holotype
(B) Isotype
(C) Syntype
(D) Lactotype.
Two similar holotypes are called
(A) Mesotypes
(B) Meotypes
(C) Syntypes
(D) Isotypes.
A binomial nomenclature has words/parts
(A) Five
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) One.
Binomial system of nomenclature for plants is effective from
(A) 5.8.1771
(C) 1.8.1758
(B) 1.5.1753
(D) 6.7.1736.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264
265.
266.
267.
268.
269.
(A) Amoeba
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Euglena
(D) Giardia.
Feeding on dead and decaying organisms is a nutrition called
(A) Autotrophic
(B) Saprotrophic
(C) Parasitic
(D) Holozoic.
Latest classification of biological kingdoms has been proposed by
(A) Linnaeus
(B) Haeckel
(C) Whittaker
(D) John Ray.
On which of the following, five kingdom classification is based
(A) Cell wall
(B) Genetic material (C) Types of organelles (D) Mode of nutrition.
Which one is saprophytic in nutrition
(A) Fungi
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Viruses
(D) All the above.
Number of criteria used in classifying organisms in five-kingdom classification is
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2.
Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus
(A) Species
(B) Family
(C) Class
(D) Division.
What is correct
(A) APIS INDICA
(B) trypansoma gainbiense
(C) Ficus Bengalensis
(D) Mangifera indica.
Which covers the largest number of organisms
(A) Genus
(B) Family
(C) Phylum
(D) Class
Find out the correct sequence in hierarchy
(A) Phylum, Class, Family, Species, Order
(B) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class
(C) Species, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class
(D) Class, Family, Species, Genus, Order.
Which of the following is not taxon but a category
(A) Division
(B) Angiosperms
(C) Polypetalae
(D) Hibiscus.
Chemotaxonomy is connected with
(A) Classification of chemicals found in plants
(B) Use of phytochemical data in systematic botany
(C) Application of chemicals on herbarium sheets
(D) Use of statistical methods in chemical yielding plants.
Descending arrangement of categories is called
(A) Classification
(B) Taxonomy
(C) Hierarchy
(D) Key.
Holotype is
(A) Specimen used by author as nomenclature type
(B) Specimen referred along with original description
(C) Duplicate of nomenclature type
(D) Sp selected from original when nomenclature type is missing.
Keysto species are
(A) Species belonging to same period
(B) Species that determine structure of biotic community
(C) Species reproducing sexually
(D) Species recorded only in the fossil
Institution which encourages publication of local flora is
(A) NBRI
(B) FRI
(C) BSI
(D) IARI.
Nicotiana is
(A) Variety
(B) Subspecies
(C) Species
(D) Genus.
Which one is odd/not a category?
(A) Species
(B) Class
(C) Phylum
(D) Glumaceae/Malvaceae.
The correct hierarchical order is
(A) Kingdom, genus, class, phylum a division
(B) Phylum, kingdom, genus, species a class
(C) Kingdom, phylum, class, genus a species
270.
271.
272.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
(A) Localised growth and definite life span (B) Localised growth and indefinite life span
(C) Diffused growth and indefmite life span (D) Diffused growth and definite life span
.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
303.
304.
.305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
A homonym is
(A) Two or more names for the same taxon (B) Species name repeats the generic name
(C) Identical name of two different taxa
(D) Name given to a taxon in local language.
In Oiyza sativa saliva stands for
(A) Name of species
(B) Specific nomenclature
(C) Specific epithet
(D) Specific name
An organism is in the same class but not in the same family. It may belong to same
(A) Genus
(B) Species
(C) Variety
(D) Order.
Classification based on a few morphological characters is
(A) Artificial
(B) Natural
(C) Phylogenetic.
(D) Both B and C.
Scala Naturae was written by
(A) Darwin
(B) Whittaker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle.
The number of species classified in Species Plantarum is
(A) 3800
(C) 5900
(B) 4000
(D) 6000.
In Whittakers system of classification, pro karyotes are kept in kingdom
(A) Monera
(B) Protista
(C) Plantae
(D) Animalia.
Two kingdoms figuring in all biological class signification are
(A) Protista and Plantac
(B) Protista and Animalia
(C) Monera and Animalia
(D) Plantae and Animalia.
Largest herbarium in India is at
(A) National Botanical Garden, Lucknow (B) Lloyd Botanical Garden, Darjeeling
(C) Forest Research Institute, Dehradum
(D) Indian Botanical Garden, Sibpur.
The famous botanical garden of Kew is located in
(A) India
(B) England
(C) Germany
(D) France.
A phylum common to unicellular animals an plants is
(A) Monera
(B) Plantae
(C) Fungi
(D) Protista.
Related genera belong to same
(A) Variety
(B) Family
(C) Species
(D) None of the above
Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(A) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals
(B) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants as animals
(C) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a specie or group
(D) Classification of species based on fossil record
What is true about assertion a and reason r?
Assertion a. The biological species concept helps us to ask bow species are formed.
Reason r. The concept of biological species focusses our attention on the question how
reproductive isolation comes about.
(A) Both a and r are correct but r doesnot explain a.
(B) Both a and r are correct and r is true explanation of a
(C) Both a and r are not true
(D) Only a is true, r is not correct.
Which is not applicable to biological species concept
(A) Hybridisation
(B) Reproductive isolation
(C) Natural selection
(D) Gene pool.
Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
(A) Morphological features
(B) Chemical constituents
(C) Evolutionary relationships
(D) Floral characters.
Which taxonomic aid gives comprehensive account of complete compiled information of a genus
or family at a particular time?
(A) Taxonomic key (B) Herbarium
(C) Monograph
(D) Dictionary.
ANSWER KEY
1
(D)
11. (D)
21. (D)
31. (C)
41. (B)
51. (A)
61. (C)
71. (C)
81. (C)
91. (B)
101. (A)
111. (C)
121. (D)
131. (C)
141. (C)
151. (C)
161. (D)
171. (D)
181. (A)
191. (D)
201. (D)
211. (A)
221. (C)
231. (B)
241. (B)
251. (C)
261. (A)
271. (D)
281. (D)
291. (A)
301. (C)
311. (A)
321. (A)
331. (B)
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.
102.
112.
122.
132.
142.
152.
162.
172.
182.
192.
202.
212.
222.
232.
242.
252.
262.
272.
282.
292.
302.
312.
322.
332.
(C) 3.
(B) 13.
(B) 23.
(D) 33.
(C) 43.
(C) 53.
(D) 63.
(C) 73.
(D) 83.
(D) 93.
(B) 103.
(B) 113.
(D) 123.
(D) 133.
(D) 143.
(A) 153.
(D) 163.
(C) 173.
(C) 183.
(D) 193.
(B) 203.
(B) 213.
(B) 223.
(D) 233.
(B) 243.
(B) 253.
(B) 263.
(A) 273.
(B) 283.
(C) 293.
(C) 303.
(C) 313.
(D) 323.
(A) 333.
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
4.
(A)
14. (D)
24. (D)
34. (C)
44. (A)
54. (D)
64. (B)
74. (B)
84. (C)
94. (B)
104. (A)
114. (A)
124. (D)
134. (B)
144. (D)
154. (B)
164. (D)
174. (D)
184. (B)
194. (B)
204. (D)
214 (B)
224. (C)
234. (C)
244. (A)
254. (D)
264. (A)
274. (B)
284. (D)
294. (A)
304. (C)
314. (C)
324. (A)
334. (C)
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.
95.
105.
115.
125.
135.
145.
155.
165.
175.
185.
195.
205.
215.
225.
235.
245.
255.
265.
275.
285.
295.
305.
315.
325.
(B)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
86.
96.
106.
116.
126.
136.
146.
156.
166.
176.
186.
196.
206.
216.
226.
236.
246.
256.
266.
276.
286.
296.
306.
316.
326.
(C)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(D)
7. (A)
17. (A)
27. (A)
37. (A)
47. (C)
57. (C)
67. (B)
77. (A)
87. (A)
97. (C)
107. (B)
117. (A)
127. (A)
137. (D)
147. (D)
157. (C)
167. (B)
177. (D)
187. (B)
197. (C)
207. (B)
217. (A)
227. (D) .
237. (A) .
247. (B)
257. (A)
267. (D)
277. (B)
287. (B)
297. (A)
307. (B)
317. (C)
327. (B)
8. (D)
18. (C)
28. (D)
38. (B)
48. (C)
58. (C)
68. (D)
78. (D)
88. (D)
98. (D)
108. (A)
118. (B)
128. (B)
138. (C)
148. (D)
158. (C)
168. (C)
178. (B)
188. (A)
198. (B)
208. (D)
218. (A)
228. (A)
238. (D)
248. (D)
258. (D)
268. (D)
278. (A)
288. (D)
298. (D)
308. (B)
318. (C)
328. (D)
9. (A)
19. (A)
29. (A)
39. (B)
49. (C)
59. (A)
69. (A)
79. (A)
89. (C)
99. (D)
109.(D)
119. (C)
129.(B)
139.(D)
149.(B)
159.(B)
169.(A)
179.(A)
189. (A)
199. (C)
209. (A)
219. (D)
229. (D)
239. (C)
249.(A)
259.(C)
269.(C)
279.(A)
289.(C)
299.(B)
309.(B)
319. (D)
329. (B)
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.
110.
120.
130.
140.
150.
160.
170.
180.
190.
200.
210.
220.
230.
240.
250.
260.
270.
280.
290.
300.
310.
320.
330.
(B)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(A)
The parasite that is nonliving outside a living cell but becomes living on entering it
(A) Bacterium
(B) Bacteriophage
(C) Plasmodium
(D) Yeast.
RNA is genetic material in
(A) T virus
(B) T virus
(C) SV 400
(D) TMV.
Double stranded RNA is found in
(A) Influenza Virus (B) Reovirus
(C) Polio Virus
(D) T Virus.
Smallest virus is
(A) Foot and Mouth virus
(B) Alfalfa Mosaic virus
(C) Pseudomonas Pf
(D) TMV
Who discovered virus to be nucleoprotein entity?
(A) Causius
(B) Pasteur
(C) Ivanowski
(D) Bawden and Pine.
Name the most common viral diseases
(A) Flu
(B) Common Cold
(C) Rabies
(D) Chicken Pox.
The term virus was coined by
(A) Ivanowski
(B) Beijerink
(C) Pasteur
(D) Loeffler and Frosch
A viral disease known from prehistoric times is
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Small Pox
(C) Poliomyelitis
(D) Both B and C.
Rabies or hydrophobia is a disease
(A) Viral
(B) Bacterial
(C) Protozoan
(D) Helmintic.
Who discovered vaccination against small pox?
(A) Jenner
(B) Pasteur
(C) Lister
(D) Mayer.
Extract of Tobacco with Mosaic disease was called contagium vivum fluidum by
(A) Mayer
(B) Ivanowski
(C) Beijerink
(D) Pasteur.
Who found poliomyelitis to be viral disease?
(A) Pasteur
(B) Popper
(C) De Herelle
(D) Loeffler and Frosch.
Bacteriophages were discovered by
(A) Twort
(B) De Herelle
(C) Takahashi and Rawlins (D) Stanley.
The term bacteriophage was coined by
(A) Pasteur
(B) Ivanowski
(C) Saffarman and Morris
(D) De Herelle.
Name the us which was crystallised for the first time
(A) Parrot Fever Virus
(B) Small Pox Virus
(C) TMV
(D) HIV
Who cultured the virus for the first time?
(A) Stanley
(B) Enders
(C) Takahashi and Rawlins
(D) Issacs and Lindemann.
The first virus to be cultured in human cells was
(A) Polio Virus
(B) Dengue Virus
(C) Influenza Virus
(D) HIV.
Coliphages are viruses parasitising
(A) Fungi
(B) Alimentary canal (C) Escherichia coli
(D) Yeast.
Who discovered that RNA is genetic material in TMV?
(A) Gierere and Schramin
(B) Issacs and Lindemann
(C) Sinsheimer
(D) De!bruck.
The most mutable virus is
(A) Chicken Pox Virus(B) HIV
(C) Influenza Virus
(D) Dengue Virus.
Retroviruses and reverse transcriptase were discovered by
(A) Sinsheimer
(B) Stanley in
(C) Temin and Baltimore (D) Hershey and Chase
Single stranded DNA as genetic material 174 was discovered by
(A) Deibruck
(B) Saffarman and Morris
(C) Reed and Findley
(D) Sinsheimer.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
TMVIs
(A) Helical Virus
(B) Polyhedral Virus
Bacteriophage T
(A) Filamentous
(B) CbOidal
Which is absent in virus?
(A) Genetic material (B) Protein cover
Virion is
(A) Virus in stage of multiplication
(C) Virus inside cytoplasm of host cell
Peplomers are subunits of
(A) Protein cover of virus
(C) Viral envelope
Viral envelope is made of
(A) Proteins
(B) Lipids
Host component of viral envelope is mostly
(A) Lipids
(C) Lipids and proteins
Capsid is
(A) Genetic material of virus
(C) Extra genetic material of bacterium
A virus having enzyme lysozyme is
(A) Retrovirus
(B) Influenza virus
Genomic nucleic acid is fragmented in
(A) TMV
(B) Influenza virus
Virus having enzyme lysozyme is
(A) Retrovirus
(B) Influenza virus
Reverse transcriptase occurs in virus
(A) HIV
(B) Influenza virus
A plant virus having DNA is
(A) TMV
(C) Potato Mosaic Virus
(C) Binal
(D) Spherical.
(C) Protoplasm
(B) Carbohydrates
(D) Lipids and carbohydrates.
(B) Protein cover of virus
(D) House keeping genome of bacterium.
(C) Bacteriophage
(C) HIV
Revision Questions
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
Viruses are
(A) Obligate parasites
(B) Obligate saprophytes
(C) Partial parasites
(D) Facultative parasites.
Viruses possess
(A) DNA only
(B) Nucleic acid, DNA or RNA
(C) Protein only
(D) Nucleic acid and protein.
AIDS virus contains
(A) DNA only
(B) RNA only
(C) DNA + protein
(D) RNA + protein.
Coliphage x 174 virus contains
(A) Single stranded RNA
(B) Double stranded RNA
(C) Single stranded DNA
D) Double stranded DNA
Single stranded DNA occurs as a genetic material in
(A) T2
(B) T4
(C) x 174
(D) Lambda.
Not applicable to viruses is
(A) Cannot use 02 for respiration
(B) Made of proteins and nucleic acids
(C) Can be grown in sugary medium
(D) Multiply only in living host cells.
In viruses, the nucleic acid is
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Both A or B
(D) Either A or B.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
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127.
128.
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133.
134.
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136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
Cryptogram of TMV is
(A) R/1, 1/8, S/S, S/Af
(B) R/2, 1/5, E/P, O/S
(C) R/1, 2/5, E/E, S/O
(D) R/1, 2/7, E/E, S/O.
Which of the following is false?
(A) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses
(B) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses
(C) TMV has a doubled stranded RNA
(D) T bacteriophage has double stranded
Viral genome that has been integrated and incorporated with bacterial genome is called
(A) DNA
(B) Prophage
(C) RNA
(D) Both B and C.
Identify the correct pair having double stranded RNA
(A) Cauliflower mosaic virus and Dahlia mosaic virus
(B) Poliovirus and Wound tumour virus
(C) Tobacco mosaic virus and Reovirus
(D) Wound tumour virus and Reovirus.
The latest view for the origin of viruses is
(A) They have arisen from nucleic acid and protein found in primitive soup
(B) They arose from bacteria as a result of loss of cell wall, ribosomes, etc.
(C) They arose from some bacteria which developed a nucleus only
(D) They are modified plasmids which are in fact the fragments of nucleic acids of the host.
Viral envelope contains
(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) All the above.
Retrovirus employs to make complementary DNA from RNA
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) Restriction endonuclease
(C) Reverse transcriptase
(D) Reverse polymerase.
Process of reverse transcription was discovered by
(A) Garrod
(B) Temin and Baltimore
(C) Beadle and Tatum
(D) Marshall and Nirenberg
Provirus is the name of
(A) Free virus
(B) Free DNA
(C) Primitive virus
(D) Integrated viral genome.
Bacteriophage releases lysozyme at
(A) Absorption phase (B) Penetration phase (C) Eclipse phase
(D) Maturation phase.
Host of TMV is
(A) Nicotiana
(B) Triticum
(C) Datura
(D) Withania.
Prion consists of
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Both DNA and RNA (D) Protein.
Viroid causes
(A) Cauliflower mosaic
(B) Potato spindle mosaic
(C) Tobacco mosaic
(D) Tulip yellow mosaic
Franklin Conrat demonstrated that RNA is genetic material in
(A) HIV
(B) CMV
(C) TMV
(D) Mouse Sarcoma.
Proteinaceous infectious particles causing diseases are
(A) Prions
(B) Viroids
(C) Viruses
(D) Chlamydia.
RNA like particles that cause disease are
(A) Virus
(B) Viroid
(C) Prion
(D) Mycoplasma.
RNA retroviruses have a special enzyme that
(A) Polymerises host DNA
(B) Translates host DNA
(C) Disintegrates host DNA
(D) Transcribes viral RNA to cDNA.
Virus multiplies in
(A) Dead tissue
(B) Soil
(C) Living tissue
(D) Culture medium.
Which one does not occur in lytic life cycle of a virulent DNA phage?
(A) The host cell lyses
(B) New phages are released
(C) Host cell produces a number of virions (D) Phage DNA integrates with host DNA.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
A virus containing ssRNA that acts as template for DNA synthesis is known as
(A) Polio virus
(B) Retrovirus
(C) Adeno virus
(D) Pox virus.
F the correct matches
List I
List II
a) M13 bacteriaphage
i.
dsRNA
b) Rice Dwarf Virus
ii.
ssRNA
c) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus iii. ssDNA
d) Pollo Virus
iv. dsRNA
(A) ai.i, bi, civ, dii
(B) au, bi, cui, div
(C) aui, biv, cui, dI
(D) aiv, bui, ci, dii.
Which institute is correctly matched with its location?
(A) National institute of communicable diseases Lucknow
(B) National Institute of Virology Pune
(C) National, Institute of Nutrition Mumbai
(D) Central Drug Research Institute Kasauli.
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
(A) Affects non-vegetarians faster than vegetarians
(B) Is an acute form of asthma
(C) Is caused by a variant of Common Cold Virus (Corona virus)
(D) Is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae.
Rabies is caused by a
(A) Bacterium
(B) Worm
(C) Virus
(D) Fungus.
Which one has ssRNA?
(A) x 174
(B) T bacteriophage (C) Pox virus
(D) TMV.
Genetic material of Rabies virus is
(A) Double stranded RNA
(B) Single stranded RNA
(C) Double stranded DNA
(D) Single stranded DNA
Virion is
(A) Virus without protein coat
(B) Enucleated virus
(C) Prion
(D) Virus.
What is false?
(A) TMV has double stranded RNA molecule
(B) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses
(C) Bacteriophage has a double stranded DNA molecule
(D) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.
Which one is intracellular obligate parasite?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Slime moulds
(C) Viruses
(D) Blue-green algae.
Potato Spindle Tuber disease is due to
(A) Nematodc
(B) Virus
(C) Bacterium
(D) Viroid.
HIV is a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in
(A) DNA instead of RNA
(B) DNA
(C) RNA instead of DNA
(D) Protein coat
Spongiform encephalopathy is caused by
(A) Prion
(B) E. coli
(C) Virus
(D) Fungus.
The agents which are known to cause CJD are
(A) Protein particles (B) A class of bacteria (C) A class of viruses (D) Fungi
T.O. Diener discovered
(A) Bacteriophage
(B) Infectious protein (C) Free infectious DNA(D) Free infectious RNA.
AIDS virus contains
(A) RNA with protein (B) DNA only
(C) DNA with protein (D) DNA without protein.
ANSWER KEY
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.
91.
101.
111.
121.
131.
141.
151.
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(I))
2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.
102.
112.
122.
132.
142.
152.
(D)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(C)
3. (B)
13. (A)
23. (A)
33. (C)
43. (D)
53. (A)
63. (B)
73. (C)
83. (A)
93. (D)
103.(A)
113.(B)
123.(C)
133.(D)
143.(B)
153.(A)
4. (A) 5.
14. (D) 15.
24. (C) 25.
34. (A) 35.
44. (C) 45.
54. (D) 55.
64. (C) 65.
74. (B) 75.
84. (C) 85.
94. (C) 95.
104. (B) 105.
114. (B) 115.
124. (B) 125.
134. (B) 135.
144. (C) 145.
154. (A) 155.
(D) 6. (B)
(C) 16. (B)
(C) 26. (D)
(B) 36. (A)
(C) 46. (D)
(A) 56. (C)
(D) 66. (A)
(A) 76. (B)
(B) 86. (C)
(A) 96. (B)
(C) 106. (D)
(C) 116. (D)
(D) 126. (D)
(C) 136. (A)
(C) 146. (D)
(D) 156. (A)
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.
97.
107.
117.
127.
137.
147.
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(B)
8. (D) 9.
18. (C) 19.
28. (D) 29.
38. (D) 39.
48. (B) 49.
58. (B) 59.
68. (A) 69.
78. (A) 79.
88. (B) 89.
98. (A) 99.
108. (B) 109.
118. (B) 119.
128. (C) 129.
138. (1)) 139.
148. (D) 149.
(A) 10.
(A) 20.
(D) 30.
(C) 40.
(D) 50.
(D) 60.
(A) 70.
(B) 80.
(I)) 90.
(C) 100.
(D) 110.
(D) 120.
(B) 130.
(C) 140.
(A) 150.
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(C)
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
If a bacterial cell divides once every minute and takes 60 minutes to fill a cup. How much time it
will take to fill half the cup?
(A) 30 mm.
(B) 32 mm
(C) 29 mm.
(D) 59 mm.
Blue green algae used in rice fields to increase fertility is
(A) Rivularia
(B) Nostoc
(C) Aulosira
(D) Anabaena.
Extra nuclear DNA in E. coil is termed as
(A) F factor
(B) Sex factor
(C) Episome
(D) All of above.
Smallest cell/organism is that of
(A) Vibno
(B) Bacillus
(C) Mycopiasma
(D) Rhizobium.
Bacteria which retain purple colour after staining with Gram stain is
(A) Gram + ye
(B) Gram ye
(C) Trichous
(D) Spirillum.
Blue green algae cultivated in water tanks as protein rich animal food are
(A) Spirilluin
(B) Spirulina
(C) Oscillatoria
(D) Nostoc.
The common mode of reproduction in bacteria is
(A) Fission
(B) Budding
(C) Sexual reproduction(D) Sporulation.
Thyphoid is caused by
(A) Xanthomonas typhosus
(B) Bacillus desenteriae
(C) Salmonella typhi
(D) Bacillus diplococcus.
Griffith performed experiments on bacteria
(A) Bacillus pneumoniae
(B) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(C) Salmonella pneumoniae
(D) Xanthomonas pneumoniae.
Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle because
(A) Salts inhibit reproduction
(B) Bacteria do not get enough light for photosynthesis
(C) They become plasmolysed and consequently killed
(D) The pickle does not contain nutrients necessary for bacteria to live.
Studies of Griffith concluded the occurrence of
(A) Transformation in bacteria
(B) Conjugation in bacteria
(C) Asexuality in bacteria
(D) Transduction in bacteria.
Pasteurization means
(A) Vaccination for a baby against small pox
(B) Sterilization in steam cooker at 100C for 10 minutes
(C) Heating milk or other liquids to 60C to 70C for short duration
(D) A technique of curing people bitten by mad dogs.
Bacteria differ from plants in that they do not have
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Cell wail
(D) A well defined nucleus.
Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at one end are called
(A) Peritrichous
(B) Monotrichous
(C) Lophotrichous
(D) Amphitrichous.
Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at both ends are called
(A) Peritrichous
(B) Bitrichous
(C) Amphitrichous
(D) Atrichous.
Bacteria were regarded to be plants because
(A) Some of them are green
(B) They are present every where
(C) Some of them cannot move
(D) They have a rigid cell wall.
It is important to boil surgical instruments before using them in an operation. It is done
(A) To kill all the pathogens which may be infecting the instruments
(B) To facilitate the handling of the instruments by the doctor
(C) To enable the patient feel warm and comfortable at the time of operation
(D) To kill all the pathogens present at the place of operation of the patient.
18.
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20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
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29.
30.
31.
32.
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34.
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37.
The fixation of free nitrogen from the air in the nodules of roots of leguminous plants is done by
symbiotic bacteria
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Bacillus subtius
(D) Micrococcus.
Vinegar is prepared from fermented sugar solution by the activities of
(A) Acetobacter aceti (B) Bacillus aceti
(C) B. subtilis
(D) Diplococcus.
Streptococcus lactis is responsible for
(A) Conversion of molasses into alcohol
(B) Conversion of milk into curd
(C) Tanning of leather
(D) Flavouring the leaves of tea and tobacco.
Cholera is caused by
(A) Bacillus mycobacterium
(B) Vibrio cholerae
(C) Pseudomonas citri
(D) Streptococcus cholerae.
The preparation and flavouring of leaves of tea and tobacco is due to the activities of
(A) Streptococcus lactis
(B) Bacillus megarherium
(C) Acetobacter
(D) Bacillus radicicola.
Biogas is produced by
(A) Eubacteria
(B) Archaebacteria (C) Mycoplasma
(D) Cyanobacteria.
Bacillus ramosus examples of
(A) Ammonifying bacteria
(B) Nitrate bacteria
(C) Nitrite bacteria
(D) Symbiotic bacteria.
The fixation of free nitrogen by bacteria in the soil is done by
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Nitrosomonas.
(C) Nitrobacter
(D) Thiobacillus
Bacillus subtilis are
(A) Hay bacteria
(B) Nitrifying bacteria(C) Ammonifying bacteria (D) Intestinal bacteria.
Nitrifying bacteria convert the
(A) Nitrates into nitrites
(B) Nitrites into nitrates
(C) Ammonium salts into nitrates
(D) Ammonium salts into amino acids.
The bacterial genome is called
(A) Nucleus
(B) Nucleolus
(C) Nucleoid
(D) None.
Escherichia coli is a bacterium which is common inhabitant of
(A) Human intestine (B) Soil
(C) Milk
(D) Water.
The cells of cyanobacteria and bacteria exhibit similarity in having
(A) Plastids
(B) Nuclei
(C) Centrosome
(D) Naked DNA.
Chemosynthetic bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because
(A) They prepare their food without the help of light
(B) They do not like sunlight brightness
(C) Due to absence of chlorophyll they are incapable of manufacturing their own food
(D) They use other kinds of light for manufacturing their own food.
Clostridium butylicum has been used in the synthesis of
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D.
Organisms which participate most actively in nitrogen cycle in nature are
(A) Saprophytic angiosperms
(B) Parasitic fungi
(C) Bacteria
(D) Cereals.
Antibiotics are mostly obtained from
(A) Bacteria
(B) Viruses
(C) Angiosperms
(D) Fungi.
Bacteria producing T.B. and Leprosy (Mycobacterium species) belong to
(A) Archaebacteria (B) Actinomycetes (C) Eubacteria
(D) Rickettsiae.
Bacteria are classified on the basis of
(A) Nucleus
(B) Cell wall
(C) Gram +ve and Gram ye
(D) Method of nutrition.
A compound which is produced by an organism and inhibits the growth of other organism is
called
(A) Antiseptic
(B) Anticoagulant
(C) Antibiotic
(D) Antiallergic.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
S8.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
Rickettsiae is a group of
(A) Viruses
(B) Microorganisms (C) Bacteria
(D) PPLO.
Common mode of multiplication in cyanobacteria is
(A) Heterocyst
(B) Exospore
(C) Hormogone
(D) Trichome.
For production of methane, methanogens
(A) Oxidise carbon dioxide
(B) Reduce carbon dioxide
(C) Reduce alcohol
(D) Oxidise alcohol.
Cyanobacterial cells which are specialized for nitrogen fixation are
(A) Phycobilisomes (B) Heterocysts
(C) Hormogonia
(D) Trichomes.
The disease caused by bacteria is
(A) Amoebic dysentery
(B) Arthritis
(C) Ben-ben
(D) Diphtheria.
Some bacteria have a capsule outside cell wall. It is made of
(A) Protein
(B) Cellulose
(C) Fat
(D) Mucopolysacchanide.
Cell membranes contain branched chain lipids in
(A) Actinomycetes (B) Spirochaetes
(C) Eubacteria
(D) Archaebacteria.
Bacillus haemophilus causes
(A) Influenza
(B) Pneumonia
(C) A form of meningitis in young children (D) Whooping tough.
Leguminous plants are important in agriculture because
(A) They are disease resistant
(B) They have high amounts of proteins
(C) They require less nitrogen for growth
(D) Nitrogen fixing bacteria are symbiotically associated in them.
Tetanus is a disease caused by
(A) Virus
(B) Bacterium
(C) Fungus
(D) Insect.
Which of the following is not true of Escherichia coli?
(A) Gene recombination can occur through transformation, transduction and conjugation
(B) It occurs in human intestine
(C) It lacks true nucleus
(D) It is diploid.
Bacterial reproduction is
(A) Only asexual
(B) Only sexual
(C) Mostly asexual
(D) Mostly sexual.
Which statement is correct?
(A) All bacteria are autotrophic
(B) All bacteria are heterotrophic
(C) All bacteria are photosynthetic
(D) Mostly bacteria are heterotrophic but some are autotrophic.
Bacteria are thought to be primitive organisms because they
(A) Are small, microscopic plants, which cannot be seen by naked eye
(B) Cause serious diseases in h beings, domesticated animals and crop plants
(C) Produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions
(D) Possess incipient nucleus and show division similar to amitosis.
Which is not a bacterial action?
(A) Nitrogen fixation (B) Emulsification of fat(C) Sewage disposal (D) Ripening of cream.
The uniqueness of bacterial photosynthesis is because it can occur
(A) Without CO2
(B) Without photosynthetic pigment
(C) Without light
(D) Without evolution of oxygen.
Cyanobactenia are
(A) Saprotrophs
(B) Photoautotrophs (C) Chemoautotrophs (D) Chemoheterotrophs.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
Gram positive bacteria differ from Gram negative bacteria in the structure of their
(A) Nucleoid/genophore
(B) Cytopism
(C) Cell wall
(D) Ribosomes.
Terramycin is obtained from
(A) Streptomyces rimosus
(B) Streptomyces griseus
(C) Streptomyces venezuelae
(D) Streptomyces aureofaciens.
Transduction in bacteria was discovered by
(A) Zinder and Lederberg
(B) Woliman and Jacob
(C) Herelle and Twort
(D) Lederberg and Tatum.
The bacterium which reduces the fertility of soil is
(A) Nitrosom on as (B) Bacillus denitrificans (C) Azotobacter sp. (D) Nitrobacter.
The part of bacterial chromosome that is homologous to a genome fragment transferred from the
donor to the recipient cell in the formation of a merozygote is known as
(A) Endogenote
(B) Dysgenic
(C) Exogenote
(D) None of these.
In bacteria the site for respiratory activity is found in
(A) Episome
(B) Microsome
(C) Ribosome
(D) Cell membrane/Mesosome.
In unfavourable adverse conditions bacteria produce resting spores called
(A) Exospores
(B) Chlamydospores (C) Oidia
(D)Endospores.
Food poisoning is caused by
(A) Clostridium botulinum
(B) Salmonella typhosa
(C) Clostridium tetani
(D) None of these.
The role of bacteria in retting of fibres is the hydrolysis of
(A) Cellulose of the cell wails of the fibres (B) Lignin of the secondary wall
(C) Living contents of the cells
(D) Pectic substances that bind the cells together.
Bacteria which can also live in the absence of oxygen are
(A) Obligate aerobes
(B) Facultative aerobes is
(C) Obligate anaerobes
(D) Facultative anaerobes.
An exampl of chemoautotrophic bacterium
A) Lactobacilius
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Escherichia coil
(D) Rhizobium.
The flagella of bacteria are composed of
(A) Carbohydrate
(B) Lipid
(C) Protein
(D) Amide.
During bacterial conjugation there is usually
(A) Mutual and complete exchange of genetic material between two conjugants
(B) Complete transfer of genetic material from o conjugant to the other Only a partial transfer of
genetic material from one conjugant to the other
(C) Only a partial transfer of genetic material from one conjugant to the other
(D) A partial but material exchange of genetic material between the conjugants.
A red pigment present in the root nodules of 1eguminous plants is known as
(A) Phycoerythrin
(B) Bacteriochiorophyll (C) Leghaernoglobin (D) Bacterioviridin.
Chromoplasm refers to
(A) Cytoplasm rich in chioroplasts
(B) Cytoplasm having photosynthetic pigments
(C) Peripheral thylakoid rich part of cyanobacteria
(D) Inner thylakoid rich part of cyanobacterial cell.
Root nodules are found in
(A) Some feguminous plants only
(B) In all plants
(C) Some leguminous plants and some other plants also
(D) All leguminous plants but never in other plants.
Bacteria and yeast are similar in all the following features except that
(A) Both are unicellular
(B) Both are prokaryotes
(C) Both are capable of causing fermentation (D) Both produce spores
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The chemotherapeutic substance derived from living organisms that has an inhibitory effect on
parasitic organisms is known as
(A) Exotoxin
(B) Bacteriocide
(C) Antibody
(D) Antibiotic.
The similarity between cyanobacterium and bacterium is
(A) Presence of flagella
(B) Presence of 80 S ribosomes
(C) Presence of nucleoid
(D) None of these.
The genetic material of bacteria is known as
(A) Gene
(B) Chromosome
(C) Genophore
(D) Nucleohistone.
A cell wall material present only in blue green algae and bacteria is
(A) Muramic acid
(B) Cellulose
(C) Chitin
(D) Pectin.
Blue colour of blue-green algae is due to
(A) Phycocyanin and allophycocyanin
(B) Phycoerythrin
(C) Anthocyanin
(D) Anthoxanthin.
Clostridium botulinum is
(A) Obligate aerobe (B) Facultative aerobe (C) Facultative anaerobe (D) Obligate anaerobe.
One of the following is less resistant or more susceptible to antibiotics
(A) Gram positive bacteria
(B) Gram negative bacteria
(C) Escherichia coli
(D) None of these.
Putrefying bacteria act upon
(A) Fats
(B) Carbohydrates
(C) Proteins
(D) Starch.
Red Sea is named after the abundant occurrence of
(A) Red coloured planktonic cyanobacterium Trichodesmium e,ythreum
(B) Red coloured hypnospores of Chiamydomonas nivalis
(C) Dinoflagellate Gonyaulax species
(D) Red alga Rhodymenia.
A membranous coiled semicircular structure attached to plasma membrane and found m bluegreen algae is called
(A) Lamellasome
(B) Lomasome
(C) Mesosome
(D) Microsome.
Which of the following is an autotrophs bacterium?
(A) Rhizobjum
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Nitrobacter
(D) Clostridium.
In transformation
(A) DNA segment of a dead relative cc:, a living cell and replaces homologous section
(B) Chromosomal mutation takes place
(C) DNA is duplicated
(D) RNA is duplicated.
Dehydrated thick-walled bacterial cell having dipicolinic acid are
(A) Endospores
(B) Conidia (C) Exospores
(D) Oidia.
Grape-like aggregates of coccus bacterk constitute
(A) Sarcina
(B) Staphylococcus (C) Streptococcus
(D) Diplococcus.
Pasteurization is performed at
(A) 100 for 15 minutes
(B) 82 for 30 minutes
(C) 72 for 20 minutes
(D) 62 for 30 minutes.
Bacterial activity is minimum at
(A) Low temperature
(B) High temperature
(C) Moderate temperature
(D) Moderately high temperature.
Chloramphenicol and erythromycin (Board spectrum antibiotics) are produced by
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Streptomyces
(C) Feniciiium
(D) Nitrobacter.
Comma-shaped bacteria are
(A) Vibrio
(B) Spirillum
(C) Spirochaete
(D) Coccus.
In photosynthetic bacteria the photosynthetic pigment occurs in
(A) Grana
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Tylakoids/Chromatophore (D) Stroma.
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Revision Questions
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When milk is heated at 62C for 30 minutes and then cooled, the process is called
(A) Sterilization
(B) Pasteurisation
(C) Nitrification
(D) Freezing.
If bacteria and fungi are destroyed
(A) Antibiotics will disappear
(B) Living beings will becomes immortal
(C) Earth will become packed with excretions and dead bodies
(D) The soil will be depleted of nitrogen.
Pasteuristaion frees food stuffs of
(A) All bacteria
(B) All living organisms
(C) Vegetative forms of bacteria
(D) Vegetative forms of all pathogenic bacteria.
Photosynthetic bacteria include
(A) Nitrobacter and Nitrosomonas
(B) Chiorobium and Rhodospirillum
(C) Streptococcus and Staphylococcus
(D) Chiorobium and Clostridium.
Nitrogen fixing organism which can be free as well as symbiotic is
(A) Anabaena
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Liverworts
(D) Mosses.
Blue-green algae living endophytically in protozoan protists are known as
(A) Plasmids
(B) Cyanophages
(C) Cyanellae (D) Bacteriophages.
Unilamellate thylakoids occur in
(A) Chiamydomonas (B) Nostoc
(C) Euglena
(D) Laminaria.
Bacteria without flagella are
(A) Atrichous
(B) Lophotrichous
(C) Amphitrichous
(D) Peritrichous.
Cyanobacteria is the modern name of
(A) Myxomycetes
(B) Myxophyceae
(C) Schizomycetes
(D) Mycoplasma.
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Nitrosomonas is a
(A) Photoautotroph (B) Chemoautotroph (C) Chemoheterotroph (D) Photoheterotroph.
A nonphotosynthetic aerobi nitrogen fixing soil bacterium is
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Clostiidium
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Kiebsiella.
Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria belong to
(A) Xanthomonas
(B) Acetobacter
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) Rhizobium.
Hydrogen donor in photosynthesis of purple sulphur bacteria is
(A) H2S
(B) H2O
(C) NH3
(D) H2SO3
In filamentous cyanophyceae the trichomes often get broken into short segment. propagules called
(A) Autospores
(B) Heterocysts
(C) Hormogonia
(D) Autocolonies.
Red colour of Red Sea is due to alga named
(A) Chiorella
(B) Sargassum
(C) Trichodesmium
(D) Chiamydomonas.
Sexual reproduction does not occur in
(A) Nostoc
(B) Riccia
(C) Ulothrix
(D) Rhizopus.
Water bloom is commonly caused by
(A) Bacteria
(B) Green algae
(C) Blue-green algae (D) Hydrilla.
In bacteria, sex is determined by presence of
(A) Pili
(B) Episome
(C) Mesosome
(D) Flagella.
Retting of fibres is caused by
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Clostridium
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Nitrobacter.
Streptococcus lactis is responsible for
(A) Conversion of curd into lactic acid
(B) Tanning of leather
(C) Conversion of milk into curd
(D) Flavouring of Tea
Streptomyces is a member of
(A) Viruses
(B) Fungi
(C) Eubacteria
(D):Actinomycetes.
Selman Waksman was a well known
(A) Physiologist
(B) Soil microbiologist (C) Phycologist
(D) Bryologist.
Tetracycline is extracted from
(A) Streptomyces rimosus
(B) Streptomyces aurofaciens
(C) Streptomyces scoleus
(D) Bacillus licheniforinis
Maximum number of antibiotics got from any group is
(A) Actinomycetes (B) Fungi
(C) Eubacteria
(D) Viruses.
Streptomycin is produced by
(A) Streptomyces scoleus
(B) Streptomyces fradiae
(C) Streptomyces venezuellae
(D) Streptomyces griseus.
The term antibiotic was first used by
(A) Fleming
(B) Pasteur
(C) Waksman
(D) Llster
A bacterial disease is
(A) Amoebic dysentery (B) Ben-ben
(C) Leprosy
(D) Arthritis.
Mycolic acid occurs in wall of pathogen that causes
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Tetanus
(D) Cholera.
Bordetella peflus. causes
(A) Whooping cough (B) Meningitis
(C) Influenza
(D) Pneumonia.
In bacteria, sexuality/pnjugation was discovered by
(A) Lederberg and Tatuni
(B) Zinder and Lederberg
(C) Watson and Crick
(D) Hershey and Chase.
Under optimum conditions, bacteria dividing at intervals of
(A) 24 hours
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 20 minutes
(D) 10 minutes.
Nitrosomonas changes
(A) Nitrite to nitrate
(B) Nitrogen to ammonia
(C) Ammonia to nitrogen
(D) Ammonia to nitrite
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(E) Polysomes.
Gram () ye bacteria possess peptidoglycol and an extra layer of
(A) Protein
(B) Lipoprotein
(C) Lipopolysaccharide (D) Lipid.
Which one is nonpathogenic bacterium of colon?
(A) Balantidiuin coli (B) Entarnoeba coli (C) Enterobium vermicularis(D) Escherichia coli.
Shape of Staphylococcus bacteria is
(A) Circular
(B) Oval
(C) Elongated
(D) Cubical.
Genes for antibiotic resistance as found in bacteria are located on
(A) Nucleiod
(B) Plasmid
(C) Chondrioid
(D) Plastid.
Thermal bacteria survive in
(A) Hot water near 100C
(B) Hot water near 85C
(C) Hot sulphur spring near 70C
(D) All the above. (B.H.U.
A bacterial cell divides once every minute takes one hour to fill a cup. How much ti will it take to
fill half the cup
(A) 59 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 29 minutes
(D) 20 minutes.
Plasmids are found naturally in
(A) Viruses
(B) Chloroplasts
(C) Chromosomes
(D) Bacteria.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called
(A) Coccus
(B) Spirillurn
(C) Bacillus
(D) Actinomyces.
In which of the following will you look for Escherjchja coli
(A) Water
(B) Soil
(C) Milk
(D) Human intestine
Salmonella causes
(A) Polio
(B) T.B.
(C) Tetanus
(D) Typhoid.
A bacterial disease is
(A) Tetanus
(B) Polio
(C) Filaria
(D) Malaria.
Maximum number of bases in plasmids in
(A) 50 kiobase
(B) 500 kilobase
(C) 5000 kilobase
(D) 50,000 kilobase.
What is true about archaebacterja
(A) All photosynthetic
(B) All fossils
(C) All halophiles
(D) Oldest living beings.
Cyanobacteria are/Nostoc is
(A) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(B) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(C) Nonoxygenic with nitrogenase
(D) Nonoxygenic without nitrogenase.
In Nostoc, the enzyme nitrogenase occurs in
(A) Vegetative cells (B) Heterocysts
(C) Both A and B
(D) Only in hormogones.
Mycoplasma causes a disease
(A) Tobacco wilt
(B) Citrus canker
(C) Apple fireblight
(D) Little leaf disease.
Extrachromosomal DNA of bacteria is
(A) Mesosome
(B) Microsome
(C) Plasmid
(D) Chromosome.
R-gene present on plasmid is meant for
(A) Drug resistance
(B) Nitrogen fixation
(C) Locomotion
(D) Exchange of genetic material.
Bacteria found in hot acidic aerobic conditions are
(A) Halophiles
(B) Thermoacidophiles (C) Methanogens
(D) Rickettsiae.
Kingdom monera includes
(A) Procaryotes only (B) Eucaryotes only (C) Both A and B
(D) Mesocaryotes only.
Which one is useful in prokaryotic replication?
(A) Mesosme
(B) Plasmid
(C) Ribosome
(D) Mitochondrjon.
Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes inabsence of
(A) DNA
(B) Plasmid
(C) Histones
(D) Mitochondrjon
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Column II
(i) Free living aerobic nitrogen fixer.
(ii) Convert ammonia into nitric
(iii) Changes nitrite to nitrate
(iv) Free living anaerobic nitrogen
fixer.
(A) (a) (ii), (b) (iv) (c) (iii), (d) (i)
(B) (a) (iii), (b) (iv) (c) (ii), (d) (i)
(C) (a) (iv), (b) (ii) (c) (1), (d) (iii)
(D) (a) (i), (b) (ii) (c) (iii), (d) (iv)
Anthrax is due to a
(A) Virus
(B) Bacterium
(C). Fungus
(D) Protozoan.
Outer limiting layer of Mycoplasma is formed of
(A) Slime
(B) Mucilage
(C) Cell wall
(D) Cell membrane.
Number of endospores usually produced by one bacterial cell is
(A) Numerous
(B) Three to four
(C) Two
(D) One
Smallest bacterium is
(A) Dialister
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Bacillus
(D) Spiriiiutn.
Prokaryotic genetic system contains
(A) DNA and histone
(B) DNA but no histone
(C) Hist but no DNA
(D) Neither DNA nor histones.
Xanthomonas cit,i contains
(A) Single polar flagellum
(B) Bipolar flagella
(C) Tuft of flagella
(D) No flagella
Genetic recombination through trans duction was first discovered in bacterium
(A) Agro bacterIum. Turnefaciens
(B) Eschechia coli
(C) Salmonella typhimurium
(D) Diplococcus pneumoniae
In blue green algae, product of photo synthesis is
(A) Glycerophsphate (B) Glycogen like
(C) Glucoside
(D) Globulin.
Which one is a prokaryotic?
A) Osdilatoria/bacteria
(B) chiamydomonas
(C) Volvox
(D) Chibrella
PPLO is
(A) Virus
(B) Viroid
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Bacteria?
Which one is alga
(A) Rhodospirillium (B) Cynobacteria
(C) Purple bacteria
(D) Green bacteria.
Anton van Lecuwenhoek belong to
(A) France
(B) Holland
(C) Sweden
(D) Britain.
Which one is peritrichous? A) Pseudomonas B) Bacillus typhosus
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Bacillus typhosus (C) Spirilliuin
(D) Vibrio
Xanthomonas din is related to
(A) Disease in Xanthiuin
(B) Xanthophyceae
(C) A virus
(D) Citrus canker
Bacteria useful in biogas fermentation are
(A) Methanogens
(B) Halophiles
(C) Vibrio
(D) Thermoacidophila
(E) Cyanobacteria.
Antibiotics are
(A) Drugsto kill viruses
(B) Toxins produced by bacteria
(C) Produc of bacterial metabolism
(D) Both B and C
(E) Bacteria that fix nitrogen.
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Diphtheria is characterised by
(A) Gum bleeding
(B) Suffocation
(C) Hydrophobia
(D) Dehydration.
Which one inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosome?
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Streptomycin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Penicillin.
Nitrogen fixation is
(A)N2 NH3
(B) N2 NO3
(C) N - Amino acid
(D) Both A and B.
Which one does not have eukaryots organisation?
(A) Green algae
(B) Blue green algae (C) Red algae
(D) Golden brown algae.
Which one Is used as biofertilizer?
(A) Nostoc
(B) Funaria
(C) Volvox
(D) Rhizopus.
Conversion of ammonia into nitritic and nitrate is
(A) Ammonification (B) Denitriflcation
(C) Nitrification
(D) All the above.
DNA is not associated with histones in
(A) Prokaryotes
(B) Eukaryotes
(C) Fungi
(D) Animals.
Bacterial photosynthesis is characterised by
(A) Evolution of O2 (B) Evolution of H2 (C) Evolution of CO2 (D) Non-evolution of O2
What is correct about Escherichia coli and Rhizobium japonicum?
(A) E. coli Gram () and R. japonicum Gram (+)
(B) Both Gram (+)
(C) Both Gram ()
(D) E. c Grain (+) and R. japonicum Gram ().
Which one protects bacteria from enzymes present in the external medium?
(A) Slime layer
(B) S-layer
(C) Flagella
(D) Cell wall.
Nostoc fixes nitrogen in the symbiotic association of the following 1. Alnus 2. Gunnera 3.
Anthoceros 4. Casuarina. The correct combination is
(A) l and 2
(B) l and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 3.
Which one is nitrogen fixer?
(A) Ulothrir
(B) Anabaena
(C) Ulva
(D) Hydrodictyon.
Which one is a bacterial disease?
(A) Anthrax
(B) Tick fever
(C) Coccidiosis
(D) Rinderpest.
Which of the following is esspntial for nitrogen fixation in legumes?
(A) Anthocyanin
(B) Phycocyanin
(C) Phycoerythrin
(D) Leghaemoglobin.
Cyanobacteria are
(A) Myxomycetes
(B) Dinoflagellates (C) Blue green algae (D) Red algae.
Prokaryotes are placed in a group
(A) Monera
(B) Pteridophytes
(C) Bryophyta
(D) Angiosperms.
Episomes are
(A) Extranuclear part of bacteria
(B) Toxin producing bodies of bacteria
(C) Plasmids with ability to integrate with bacterial chromosome
(D) Extranuclear components with least number of genes
Photosynthetic pigments of bacteria are located in
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Thylakoid membranes
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Chioroplast membrane. (Ward/ia 2005)
Which ones are the most primitive amongst the following?
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Monocots
(D) Cyanobacteria
Bacteria are considered plants as they
(A) Are green in colour
(B) Have rigid cell wall
(C) Have chlorophyll
(D) Have stomata.
Disease associated with secretion of toxin is
(A) Tetanus
(B) T.B
(C) Food poisoning
(D) AIDS.
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536.
Barophilic prokaryotes
(A) Occur in water containing high concentration of barium hydroxide
(B) Grow slowly in alkaline frozen lakes at high altitude
(C) Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
(D) Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched with soluble salt of barium.
For retting of Jute, the fermenting microbe is
(A) Methanophulic bacteria
(B) Butyric acid bacteria
(C) Helicobacterpylori
(D) Streptococcus lactin
Statements regarding Frankia are correct except
(A) Induction of root nodules in many plant species
(B) Like Rhizobium, it infects host through root hair and induces proliferation of cortex
(C) Form specialised vesicles in which nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier
involving triterpene hopanoids
(D) Cannot fix nitrogen in free state.
Grown gall disease of plants is caused by
(A) Ti-plasmid
(B) Pi-plasmid
(C) Virus
(D) Protozoan.
All monerans
(A) Contain DNA and RNA
(B) Are bacteria
(C) Demonstrate a circular strand of DNA without a covering of nuclear membrane
(D) All of these
Halophilic archaebacterium (Halobacterium salinwum) found in Great Salt Lake and Dead Sea
cannot live in
(A) Less than 3 M NaC1 concentration
(B) Less than 5 M NaCl concentration
(C) More than 4 M NaC1 concentration
(D) More than 3 M .NaCl concentration.
Curing of Tea leaves is brought about by the activity of
(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Viruses
(D) Mycorrhiza.
Photoautotrophic bacteria have
(A) Chioroplast
(B) Grana
(C) Chromatophore
(D) Carotene.
The cell wall material present both in blue-green algae and bacteria is
(A) Pectin
(B) Chitin
(C) Muraniic acid
(D) Cellulose.
Which one is a prokaryote?
(A) Entamoeba
(B) Saccharomyces (C) Paramecium
(D) E. coli.
Given below are assertions and reasons. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is
wrong (C), both are wrong (D).
AssertIon. Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal
diseases.
Reason. Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids
and electrolytes should be ensured.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Assertion. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.
Reason. The outer face of outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria contain lipopolysccharides a
part of which is integrated with membrane lipids.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D).
In prokaryotes, chromatophores are
(A) Specialised granules responsible colouration of cells
(B) Structures responsible for determinin shape of the organism
(C) Inclusion bodies lying free in the c; for carrying out various motabolic activities
(D) Internal membrane system that it; become extensive and complex IL photosynthetic bacteria.
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558.
559.
When a bacterial cell possesses a flagellum on its anterior and posterior sides, the condition is
called
(A) Peritrichous
(B) Lophotrichous
(C) Amphitrichous
(D) Monotrichous.
Infolding of bacterial membrane is called
(A) Mesosome
(B) Sphaerosome
(C) Acrosome
(D) Episome
Alternation of generations is not found bacterium E. coil due to lack of
(A) Syngamy
(B) Reduction division (C) Nucleus
(D) Chromosomes.
Cyanobacteria are useful biofertilizers in fields of
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane
Bacteria that are smallest in size are
(A) Bacilli
(B) Cocci
(C) Spirilla
(D) Vibrios.
F-factor occurs in
(A) Plasmid
(B) Cosmid
(C) Golgi body
(D) Cell wall.
Penicillin has inhibitory effect over bacteria by
(A) Destruction of nucleus
(B) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
(C) Stopping entrance of antibody
(D) None of the above
Nitrite is changed to nitrate by
(A) Nitrobacter
(B) Nitrosom on as (C) Clost,idium
(D) Psudomonas.
Rod-shaped bacteria are called
(A) Cocci
(B) Bacilli
(C) Spirilli
(D) Vibrios.
Amphitrichous flagellation has
(A) Flagella absent
(B) Flagella at one end
(C) Flagella at both the ends
(D) Flagella all around
An anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria is
(A) Azotobacter
(B) Chiorobium
(C) Rhodospirillum
(D) Clostndium.
Sexual reproduction is absent in
(A) Xanthophyta
(B) Cyanophyta
(C) Chlorophyta
(D) Rhodophyta
In bacteria cell division is
(A) Amitotic
(B) Mitotic
(C) Meiotic
(D) All the above.
It causes abortion
(A) Viruses
(B) Bacteria
(C) Mycoplasma
(D) Chiamydia.
During replication anchored to
(A) Chromosome
(B) Ribosome
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Mesosome.
Hans Ris cointed the term genophore for
(A) Genetic material of virus
(B) Genetic material of fungus
(C) Bacterial chromosome
(D) Stalk supporting spores
Which amino acid is present only in bacteria and cyanobacteria
(A) Glycine
(B) Tyrosine
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Diaminopimellic acid.
A filamentous nitrogen fixing bacterium is present in root nodules of flowering plants.
(A) Cicer arietinum
(B) Casuanna equisetifolia
(C) Cycas revolute
(D) Crotalaria juncea
Which is wrong about mycoplasma
(A) They are called PPLO
(B) They are pleomorphic
(C) They are sensitive to penicillin
(D) They cause diseases in plants.
Bacteria connected with acetogenesis is
(A) Streptomonas
(B) Clostridium
(C) Bacillus
(D) Citromonas.
Spirulina belongs to the kingdom
(A) Monera
(B) Protista
(C) Plantae
(D) Fungi.
Cell wall of Gram (+ )bacterium contains mucopolypeptide
(A) 60-70%
(B) 7080%
(C) 8090%
(D) 90-100%.
Incipient nucleus occurs in
(A) Myxophyceae
(B) Chlorophyceae (C) Phaeophyceae
(D) Rhodophyceae.
560.
561.
562.
563.
564.
565.
566.
567.
568.
569.
570.
571.
572.
573.
574.
575.
A plasmid
(A) Cannot replicate
(B) Shows independent assortment
(C) Lies alongwith chromosome
(D) Can replicate independently.
Fleterocysts occur in
(A) Chlorophyceae (B) Phaeophyceae
(C) Cyanophyceae
(D) Rhodophyceae.
Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is
wrong (C), both are wrong (D).
Assertion. True nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes.
Reason. An undifferentiated, unorganised, fibrillar nucleus without any limiting membrane is
found in prokaryotic cells.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Transduction was discovered in bacteria by
(A) Lederberg and Tatum
(B) Zinder and Lederberg
(C) Wallace and Jacob(D) Herelle and Twort
Chemical substance by microorganisms for inhibiting growth of another organism is
(A) Antibody
(B) Antiallergic
(C) Afflatoxin
(D) Antibiotic
Golgi apparatus does not occur in
(A) Yeast
(B) Liver cells
(C) Higher plants
(D) Bacteria and blue green algae.
Yield of rice is increased, by
(A) Ciostridium
(B) Anabaena
(C) Azolla
(D) Nostoc.
Select correct answers according to code
(A) 1, 2, 3 correct
(B) 1 and 2 correct (C) 2 and 4 correct
(D) 1 and 3 correct.
What is true for archaebacteria
(1) Extreme halophiles (2) Extreme thermophiles (3) Methanogens (4) Occurrence of
peptidoglycan in cell wall.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D).
Which one occurs in cell walls of Gram (+) bacteria only?
(A) Peptidoglycan
(B) Lipopolysaccharide (C) Teichoic acid
(D) None of the above.
Which is not characteristic of Gram (+) bacteria?
(A) Smooth cell wall
(B) Outer membrane
(C) Prominent mesosomes
(D) Two rings in basal body of flagellum
(E) 70-80% murein in cell wall.
Pathogenecity of leprosy and tuberculosis is due to
(A)Wax D
(B) Prostaglandins
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Glycerol.
(E) Ergasterol
Shorter generation time of E. coil as compared to eukaryotes k due to
(A) Absence of organelles
(B) Presence of cell wall
(C) Shape
(D) Large surface/volume ratio.
Bacteria generally multiply through
(A) Budding
(B) Binary fission
(C) Multiple fission
(D) Plasmotomy.
Antibiotic active against fungi are
(A) Neomycin
(B) Terramycin
(C) Polyenes
(D) Streptomycin.
Mycoplasma is not inhibited by penicillin because it does not have
(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Cell wall
(C) Nucleus
(D) Ribosomes.
On the basis of rRNA genes, bacteria are divisible into
(A) Cyanobacteria and Mycoplasma
(B) Actinomycetes and Mycoplasma
(C) Bacteria and Archaebacteria
(D) Gram (+) and Gram ().
576.
577.
578.
579.
580.
581.
582.
583.
584.
585.
586.
587.
588.
589.
Assign the following substances to cell wall, flagella, S-layer and pill of bacteria in proper
sequence
(a) Glycoprotein
(b) Fimbrin
(c) Teichoic acid
(d) Flagellin.
(A) c,a,d,b
(B) c4a,b
(C) b,4c,a
(D) cd,b,a.
People recovering from long illness are often advised to take Spin4ina because it
(A) Restores intestinal microflora
(B) Makes food easily digestible
(C) Has antibiotic properties
(D) Is rich in proteins.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in
(A) Location and functioning
(B) Movement and placement
(C) Microtubular organisation and functioning
(D) Microtubular movement. Organization and
Tuberculosis is caused by
(A) Ciostridium
(B) Mycobacrenum (C) Vibrio cholerae
(D) Salmonella typhi.
Nitrification is conversion of
(A) NH3
(B) NO2
(C) NO3
(D) All the above.
Which is not moneran?
(A) Mycoplasma
(B) Slime Moulds
(C) Archaebacteria
(D) Eubactcria.
Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobactenum exemplify,
(A) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which has a cytoskeleton as well
as mitochondria
(B) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosome
(C) Archaebacteria that contain proteins homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(D) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is
negatively supercoiled.
Which one is true about domain archaea?
(A) They differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(B) They completely differ from prokaryotes
(C) They resembe eukarya in all aspects
(D) They have some novel, features absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Spinsiuza is rich source of
(A) Minerals
(B) Vitamins
(C) Proteins
(D) All the above.
Bacteria are examples of
(A) Protistan cells
(B) Eukaryotic cells (C) Animal cells
(D) Prokaryotic cells.
Cyanobacteria are
(A) Autotrophic prokaryotes with characteristic blue green pigments
(B) Bacteria infecting the cyanophycean algae
(C) Viruses infecting blue green algae
(D) Cyanophycean members infecting bacteria.
A symbiotic bacterium is
(A) Erwinia amylovora
(B) Rhizobium leguminosaium
(C) Xanthomonas cwnpestris
(D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
In root nodules of legumes, Ieghaemoglobin
(A) Transports oxygen to root nodules
(B) Acts as an oxygen scavanger
(C) Acts as a catalyst in transamination
(D) Provides energy to nitrogen fixing bacteria.
A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness and toxic chemicals. This indicates
that it is probably able to form
(A) A thick peptidoglycan wall
(B) Endospores
(C) Endotoxins
(D) Endogenous buds.
590.
591.
592.
593.
594.
595.
1. (D)
11. (A)
21. (B)
31. (A)
41. (A)
51. (A)
61. (B)
71. (D)
81. (D)
91. (C)
101. (A)
111. (C)
121. (C)
131. (C)
141. (D)
151. (C)
161. (C)
171. (B)
181. (A)
191. (C)
201. (C)
211. (C)
221. (C)
231. (D)
241. (A)
251. (C)
261. (A)
271. (D)
281. (D)
291. (A)
301. (A)
311. (B)
321. (C)
2. (C)
12. (C)
22. (B)
32. (A)
42. (A)
52. (A)
62. (B)
72. (D)
82. (D)
92. (B)
102.(A)
112. (C)
122.(D)
132.(B)
142.(C)
152.(D)
162.(C)
172.(A)
182.(A)
192.(B)
202.(A)
212.(B)
222.(D)
232.(B)
242.(A)
252.(B)
262.(D)
272.(A)
282.(B)
292.(B)
302.(A)
312.(A)
322.(C)
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
93.
103.
113.
123.
133.
143.
153.
163.
173.
183.
193.
203.
213.
223.
233.
243.
253.
263.
273.
283.
293.
303.
313.
323.
(D)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(D)
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
74.
84.
94.
104.
114.
124.
134.
144.
154.
164.
174.
184.
194.
204.
214.
224.
234.
244.
254.
264.
274.
284.
294.
304.
314.
324.
(C)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.
95.
105.
115.
125.
135.
145.
155.
165.
175.
185.
195.
205.
215.
225.
235.
245.
255.
265.
275.
285.
295.
305.
315.
325.
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(A)
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
86.
96.
106.
116.
126.
136.
146.
156.
166.
176.
186.
196.
206.
216.
226.
236.
246.
256.
266.
276.
286.
296.
306.
316.
326.
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(I))
(B)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.
97.
107.
117.
127.
137.
147.
157.
167.
177.
187.
197.
207.
217.
227.
237.
247.
257.
267.
277.
287.
297.
307.
317.
327.
(A) 8.
(A) 18.
(C) 28.
(C) 38.
(C) 48.
(A) 58.
(D) 68.
(A) 78.
(C) 88.
(A) 98.
(D) 108.
(D) 118.
(A) 128.
(B) 138.
(D) 148.
(A) 158.
(D) 168.
(B) 178.
(C) 188.
(A) 198.
(B) 208.
(B) 218.
(B) 228.
(C) 238.
(B) 248.
(A) 258.
(B) 268.
(B) 278.
(C) 288.
(B) 298.
(B) 308.
(B) 318.
(B) 328.
(C) 9.
(B) 19.
(C) 29.
(A) 39.
(A) 49.
(A) 59.
(A) 69.
(A) 79.
(C) 89.
(D) 99.
(A) 109.
(D) 119.
(B) 129.
(A) 139.
(D) 149.
(B) 159.
(A) 169.
(D) 179.
(D) 189.
(C) 199.
(A) 209.
(C) 219.
(C) 229.
(C) 239.
(A) 249.
(D) 259.
(B) 269.
(C) 279.
(D) 289.
(A) 299.
(A) 309.
(D) 319.
(D) 329.
(B)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(C)
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.
110.
120.
130.
140.
150.
160.
170.
180.
190.
200.
210.
220.
230.
240.
250.
260.
270.
280.
290.
300.
310.
320.
330.
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(B)
331. (D)
341. (D)
351. (B)
361. (B)
371. (D)
381. (D)
391. (B)
401. (B)
411. (D)
421. (A)
431. (C)
441. (D)
451. (B)
461. (D)
471. (B)
481. (B)
491. (A)
501. (B)
511. (C)
521. (D)
531. (C)
541. (B)
551. (D)
561. (C)
571. (D)
581. (B)
591. (B)
332.(C)
342.(D)
352.(C)
362.(B)
372.(B)
382.(B)
392.(B)
402.(C)
412.(A)
422.(A)
432.(B)
442.(C)
452.(C)
462.(A)
472.(D)
482.(B)
492.(B)
502.(D)
512.(B)
522.(B)
532.(C)
S42.(A)
552.(C)
562.(A)
572.(B)
582.(C)
592.(D)
333.
343.
353.
363.
373.
383.
393.
403.
413.
423.
433.
443.
453.
463.
473.
483.
493.
503.
513.
523.
533.
543.
553.
563.
573.
583.
593.
(A)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
334.
344.
354.
364.
374.
384.
394.
404.
414.
424.
434.
444.
454.
464.
474.
484.
494.
504.
514.
524.
534.
544.
554.
564.
574.
584.
594.
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(A)
335.
345.
355.
365.
375.
385.
395.
405.
415.
425.
435.
445.
455.
465.
475.
485.
495.
505.
515.
525.
535.
545.
555.
565.
575.
585.
595.
(C)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(D)
336.
346.
356.
366.
376.
386.
396.
406.
416.
426.
436.
446.
456.
466.
476.
486.
496.
506.
516.
526.
536.
546.
556.
566.
576.
586.
(D)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
337.
347.
357.
367.
377.
387.
397.
407.
417.
427.
437.
447.
457.
467.
477.
487.
497.
507.
517.
527.
537.
547.
557.
567.
577.
587.
(C) 338.
(B) 348.
(A) 358.
(C) 368.
(C) 378.
(C) 388.
(D) 398.
(A) 408.
(D) 418.
(D) 428.
(B) 438.
(D) 448.
(B) 458.
(B) 468.
(A) 478.
(A) 488.
(D) 498.
(A) 508.
(C) 518.
(A) 528.
(C) 538.
(D) 548.
(A) 558.
(A) 568.
(D) 578.
(B) 588.
(D) 339.
(A) 349.
(D) 359.
(D) 369.
(D) 379.
(B) 389.
(A) 399.
(D) 409.
(C) 419.
(A) 429.
(D) 439.
(D) 449.
(B) 459.
(A) 469.
(B) 479.
(C) 489.
(A) 499.
(C) 509.
(A) 519.
(D) 529.
(A) 539.
(B) 549.
(B) 559.
(C) 569.
(D) 579.
(B) 589.
(D)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(I))
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
340.
350.
360.
370.
380.
390.
400.
410.
420.
430.
440.
450.
460.
470.
480.
490.
500.
510.
520.
530.
540.
550.
560.
570.
580.
590.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(I))
(B)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(C)
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Protista includes
(A) Unicellular prokaryotes
(B) Unicellular eucaryotes
(C) Bacteriophages
(D) Blue-green algae
Which do not belong to Protista?
(A) Euglenoids
(B) Zooflagellates
(C) Methanogens
(D) Ciliates.
Kingdom Protista includes
(A) Unicellular eukaryotes
(B) Colonial eucaryotes
(C) Both A and B
(D) Multicellular eucaryotes.
Percentage of global photosynthesis performed by photosynthetic protists is
(A) 30%
(B) 50%
(C) 65%
(D) 80%.
Percentage of plankton constituted by protistans is
(A) 95%
(B) 85%
(C) 80%
(D) 70%.
The life style present in protists is
(A) Plant
(B) Fungal
(C) Animal
(D) All the above.
Protistans are connecting link between
(A) Plants and animals
(B) Fungi and plants
(C) Monerans and kingdoms of multicellular organisms
(D) Fungi and animals.
Parasitic mode of nutrition is
(A) Absorptive
(B) Phagotropic
(C) Both A and B
(D) Holotrophic.
A symbiotic protist is
(A) Plasmodium
(B) Lophomonas
(C) Fuligo
(D) Tiypanosoma.
Binary fission is transverse in
(A) Paramecium
(B) Euglena
(C) Ceratium
(D) Amoeba.
Plasmotomy occurs in case of
(A) Umnucleate protests
(B) Binucleate protists
(C) Multinucleate protests
(D) All the above.
The first eucaryotes to evolve were
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Green algae
(C) Blue-green algae (D) Protistans.
Which one is slowest mode of locomotion
(A) Pseudopodial
(B) Ciliary
(C) Flagellar
(D) Both A and C.
Which is the fastest mode of locomotion?
(A) Wriggling
(B) Pseudopodial
(C) Ciliary
(D) Flagellar.
A conserved structure is
(A) Contractile vacuole (B) Flagellum
(C) Pseudopodium
(D) All the above.
Gametic meiosis occurs in
(A) Diatoms
(B) Acellular Slime Moulds
(C) Noctiluca
(D) All the above.
Binary fission is oblique in
(A) Ceratium
(B) Noctiluca
(C) Fuligo
(D) Vorticella.
In protista, phagotrophic nutrition is form in
(A) Protozoan protests
(B) Some dinoflagellates
(C) A few euglenoids
(D) All the above.
Osmotrophy is related to
(A) Saprophytic nutrition
(B) Parasitic nutrition
(C) Ingestive nutrition
(D) Holophytic nutrition.
Syngamy may occur through
(A) Isogamy
(B) Anisogamy
(C) Oogamy and paedogamy (D) All the above.
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Whirling Whips are protists which possess two flagella that beat
(A) Slightly towards one side so as to cause rotation of the organism while moving forward
(B) Forward, backward and sideways depending upon the requirement
(C) At right angles to each other due to being present in different grooves
(D) Along with numerous cilia.
Protists having transverse and longitudinal groove in their theca are
(A) Foraminiferans (B) Radiolarians
(C) Diatoms (D) Dinoflagellates.
Photosynthetic euglenoids are
(A) Obligate autotrophs
(B) Facultative heterotrophs
(C) Facultative autotrophs
(D) Obligate heterotrophs.
Eye spot of Euglena is a
(A) Nonpiastid structure found near the reservoir
(B) Nonplastid structure found on the side near the middle
(C) Plastid structure present near the reservoir
(D) Plastid structure found near the middle.
Photosynthetic protists having trichocysts are
(A) Dinophyceae
(B) Ciliates
(C) Badilariopllyceae (D) Euglenophyceae.
What is true about Euglena?
(A) It stores fat as reserve food
(B) It swims by means of a single flagellum
(C) Creeping movements can occur through metaboly
(D) Both B and C.
In dmophyceae the two flagella are
(A) Anterior
(B) One transverse and other vertical
(C) Lateral
(D) Posterior.
The sulcus or longitudinal groove of dinophycean shell contains
(A) Narrow smooth flagellum
(B) Thick ribbon-shaped flagellum
(C) Tail
(D) Mucilage canal.
Mesokaryon is
(A) A nucleus like structure
(B) Nucleoid with histone protein
(C) A nucleus with ondensed chromosomes (D) A nucleoid with distinct chromosomes.
Mesokaryon occurs in
(A) Zooflagellates
(B) Euglenoids
(C) Sarcodines
(D) Dinoflagellates.
Noctiluca is
(A) Sarcodine
(B) Dinoflagellate
(C) Zooflagellate
(D) Ciliate.
What is true of bacillariophyceae
(A) Epitheca is smaller
(B) Hypotheca is smaller
(C) Both epitheca and hypotheca have same size
(D) Any of the two can be larger.
Hypotheca of parent diatom forms in daughter
(A) Hypotheca
(B) Epitheca
(C) Is shed
(D) Forms the whole frustule.
Chrysolaminarin is chemically
(A) 1-4 glucan
(B) 1-6 glucan
(C) 1-3 glucan (D) 1-3 glucan.
A primitive filament is formed in protist
(A) Gonyaulax
(B) Gymnodinium
(C) Melosira
(D) Pinnularia.
In diatoms the nucleus generally lies in
(A) Epivalve
(B) Hypovalve
(C) Central vacuole
(D) Peripheral cytoplasm.
Diatom frustule is made of
(A) Silica
(B) Calcium carbonate (C) Calcium hydroxide (D) Both B and C.
Cod liver oil is derived from
(A) Diatoms
(B) Dinoflagellates (C) Euglenoids
(D) All the above.
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Periplast of Euglena is
(A) Continuous
(B) With longitudinal plates
(C) With transverse plates
(D) Made of spiral plates.
Periplast plates of Euglena are
(A) Interlocked
(B) Pliable
(C) Underlined by mucilage and microtubules (D) All the above.
Eye spot granules of Euglena are formed c
(A) Fucoxanthin
(B) Astaxanthin
(C) -carotens (D) -carotene.
Astaxanthin found in Euglenoid eye spots also occurs elsewhere in
(A) Annelida
(B) Cephalopoda
(C) Crustacea
(D) Insecta.
Photosensitivity of Euglena is due to
(A) Paraflagellar body(B) Eye spot
(C) Both A and B
(D) Chromatophores.
Paraflagellar body occurs in Euglena
(A) Near base of flagella
(B) Region of union of flagellar branches
(C) Area of basal granules
(D) On reservoir wall.
Paramylum granules are made of
(A) 1-3 glucan
(B) 1-3 glucan
(C) 1-4 glucan
(D) 1-4 glucan.
Euglena occurs in
(A) Sea
(B) Fresh water
(C) Both A and B
(D) Moist soils.
Contractile vacuole of Euglena is
(A) Posterior
(B) Middle
(C) Anterior
(D) Anterior and fixed.
Metabody of Euglena is due to
(A) Myonemes
(B) Microtubules
(C) Pellicle plates
(D) Both B and C.
A phagotrophic euglenoid is
(A) Euglena
(B) Peranma
(C) Rhabdomonas
(D) Both B and C.
Red tide is mostly caused by
(A) Noctiluca
(B) Gymnodinium
(C) Symbiodinium
(D) Nematodinium.
Dinophycean theca is made of
(A) Silica
(B) Lime
(C) Cellulose
(D) Protein.
In dinophyceae, sulcus is
(A) Transverse flagellum
(B) Longitudinal flagellum
(C) Transverse groove
(D) Longitudinal groove.
Transverse flagellum of dinophyceac is
(A) Narrow
(B) Ribbon like
(C) With delicate threads (D) Both Band C.
Chromosomes are without centromere in
(A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Euglenophyceae (C) Dinophyceae
(D) Both B and C.
In dinophyceae the food reserve is
(A) Glycogen
(B) Leucosin
(C) Starch and oil
(D) Oil and paramylum.
In dinophyceae trichocysts occur in
(A) Peridinium
(B) Nematodinium (C) Caratium
(D) Gonyaular.
A dinoflagellate with nematocysts is
(A) Nematodinjum (B) Ceratium
(C) Gonyaulax
(D) Symbodinium.
Fire algae are members of
(A) Phaeophyceae
(B) Dinophyceae
(C) Rhodophyceae
(D) Bacillariophyceae.
An unarmoured dinoflagellate is
(A) Ceratium
(B) Noctiluca
(C) Gonyaulax
(D) Both B and C.
Bioluminescence was first recorded in
(A) Gonyaular
(B) Peridlniuni
(C) Noctiluca
(D) Pyrodinium.
Noctiluca swims with the help of
(A) Transverse flagellum
(B) Longitudinal flagellum
(C) Tentacle
(D) Both A and B.
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Which is a symbiont?
(A) Vorticella
(B) Paramecium
(C) Colpidium
(D) Trichonympha.
Fossils protists often associated with petroleum bearing rocks are
(A) Ciliates
(B) Cellular Slime Moulds
(C) Foraminiferan shells
(D) Diatoms.
Marine Amoebae are
(A) With contractile vacuole
(B) Without contractile vacuole
(C) With temporary contractile vacuoles
(D) All the above.
Lobopodia are present in
(A) Elphidium
(B) Radiolarians
(C) Amoeba
(D) None of the above,
Sol-gel theory about the locomotion is Amoeba was proposed by
(A) Dellinger
(B) Jennings
(C) Hyman
(D) None of the above.
Amoeba is
(A) Herbivorous
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Sanguivorous
(D) Omnivorous.
Entamoeba is
(A) Monopodial
(B) Dipodial.
(C) Multipodial
(D) None of the above
Amoeba is
(A) Ammonoteic
(B) Ureoteic
(C) Uricotelic
(D) None of the above
In Amoeba the process of digestion is
(A) First in alkaline medium then in acidic medium
(B) First in acidic medium then in alkaline medium
(C) In alkaline medium only
(D) None of the above.
Binary fission in Amoeba occurs by
(A) Mitosis
(B) Meiosis
(C) Amitosis
(D) None of the above.
Sporulation in Amoeba occurs during
(A) Favourable conditions
(B) Unfavourable conditions
(C) Both
(D) None.
Slipper Animalcule/Slipper Organism is
(A) Paramecium
(B) Euglena
(C) Plasm odium
(D) Monocystis.
Trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica multiplies by
(A) Encystment
(B) Sporulation
(C) Binary fission
(D) Multiple fission.
Entamoeba histolytica is
(A) Monogenetic
(B) Digenetic
(C) Free living
(D) None of the above.
How many nuclei are present in magna form of Entamoeba histolytica?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6.
The trophic form in Entamoeba histolytica is
(A) Magna form
(B) Minuta form
(C) Monogenetic form (D) Digenetic form.
Malaria Day is
(A) 20th August
(B) 15th August
(C) 5th June
(D) 6th January.
Entamoeba histolytica secretes proteolytic enzyme called
(A) Polypeptidase
(B) Histolysin
(C) Pepsin
(D) Trypsin.
If Entamoeba attacks liver it causes
(A) Diarrohoea
(B) Amoebiasis
(C) Abscesses
(D) Hepatitis.
Pyorrhoea is aggravated by
(A) Entamoeba hastmanni
(B) Entamoeba coli
(C) Entamoeba histolytica
(D) Entamoeba gingivalis.
Multinucleate protozoan is
(A) A,noeba
(B) Pelomyxa
(C) Giardia
(D) Arcella.
Gambia fever or sleeping sickness is caused by
(A) Plasmodium
(B) Giardia
(B) Entamoeba
(D) Trypanosoma.
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American trypanosomiasis is
(A) Chagas disease (B) Dumdum fever (C) Espundia
(D) Both B and C
Proterospongia is
(A) Unicellular zooflagellate
(B) Colonial zooflagellate
(C) Sarcodine
(D) Incipient colonial ciliate.
Proterospongia has
(A) Choanocytes
(B) Amoeboid cells (C) Both A and B
(D) Mastigamoeba like cells.
Proterospongia is link between
(A) Sponges and coelenterates
(B) Coelenterates and aschelminthes
(C) Protists and sponges
(D) Sponges and coelenterates.
Mastigamoeba is link between
(A) Zooflagellates and sarcodines
(B) Sarcodines and diliates
(C) Zooflagellates and sporozoans
(D) Sporozoans and ciliates.
Tsetse fly is
(A) Phiebotamus
(B) Glossina
(C) Tnatoma
(D) Musca.
Thchomonas tenax lives in
(A) Human intestine (B) Buccal cavity
(C) Genital tract
(D) Nasal tract.
Posterior end of Amoeba can be recognised by
(A) Uroid
(B) Nucleus
(C) Psuedopodia
(D) Food vacuole.
Charcoat-Leyden crystals are characteristic
(A) Trichomonas hominis
(B) Giardia intestinalis
(C) Entamoeba histolytica
(D) Entwnoeba coli.
Actinophiys is
(A) Radiolarian
(B) Foraminifer
(C) Heliozoan
(D) Amoeboid
Aulocantha is
(A) Radiolarian
(B) Foraminifer
(C) Amoeboid
(D) Heliozoan
Nummulites (= Camerina species) belong to
(A) Sporozoa
(B) Ciliata
(C) Foraminifera
(D) Radiolaria.
In malaria, pigmentation of skin and urine occurs due to
(A) Schuffners granules
(B) Excessive loss of RBCs
(C) Excessive degeneration of haemoglobin (D) All the above.
Ronald Ross discovered
(A) Erythrocyte cycle of Plasmodium
(B) Oocysts on stomach of female Anopheles
(C) Transmission of malaria by female Anopheles
(D) Both B and C.
Erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium was studied by
(A) Laveran
(B) Golgi
(C) Grassi
(D) Shortt.
Small blood vessels may get blocked in infection of
(A) Plasmodium ovale(B) P.vivax
(C) P.malariae
(D) P. falcipanim.
Fish effective in controffing Anopheles is
(A) Mosquito Fish Gambusia
(B) Guppy fish Poecilia
(C) Stickleback, Minnow and Trout
(D) All the above.
A sedentary ciliate is
(A) Paramecium
(B) Tetrahymena
(C) Vorticella
(D) Balantidium.
Two micronuclei occur in
(A) Paramecium Aurelia
(B) Paramecium caudatum
(C) Paramecium multimicronucleatum
(D) Balantidium coli.
Ciliate commonly used as organism is
(A) Vorticella
(B) Balantidium
(C) Tetrahymena
(D) Paramecium.
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Revision Questions
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(B) Mendel
(C) Laveran
(D) Stephens.
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(A) Golgi
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(C) Laveran
(D) Shortt.
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Carnivorous fish Gambusia introduced in water bodies for controlling a deadly disease feeds on
larvae of
(A) Dragonfly
(B) Anopheles
(C) Nephantis
(D) All the above.
Red tide is caused by
(A) Gonyaulax
(B) Noctiluco
(C) Ceratium
(D) None of the above.
Exo-crythrocytic cycle is absent in
(A) P. ovale
(B) P. vivax
(C) Both A and B
(D) P. falciparum.
Unicellularity is characteristic of
(A) Cyanobacteria
(B) Monera
(C) Protista
(D) All the above.
Flat, broad pseudopodia are called
(A) Filopodia
(B) Lobopodia
(C) Reticulopodia
(D) Axopodia.
High temperature in malaria occurs after completion of
(A) Erythrocytic cycle
(B) Exo-erythrocytic cycle
(C) Pre-erythrocytic cycle
(D) Gametogony
Plasmodium is inoculated in humans by
(A) Female Culex
(B) Male Cukr
(C) Male and female Anopheles
(D) Female Anopheles
Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Pre-cyst
(C) Uninucleate cyst (D) Tetranucleate cyst.
Sandfly is a causative agent of
(A) Kala-azar
(B) Sleeping sickness (C) Typhoid
(D) Dysentery.
Which one of the following can photosynthesise its food?
(A) Hydra
(B) Paramoecium
(C) Monocysris
(D) Euglena.
Medically secondary host for Plasmodium vivax is
(A) Anopheles female (B) Anopheles male (C) Cuter male
(D) Culex female
Oriental sore is caused by
(A) Bacterium
(B) Virus
(D) Protozoan
(D) Fungus.
Sporozoites of Plasmodium are formed in
(A) Gametocytes
(B) Oocysts
(C) Sporoblasts
(D) Trophozoites
Diatom frustule/shell is made of
(A) Silica
(B) Lime
(C) Magnesium carbonate (D) Any of the above.
Seeding ponds with Gambusia fish is an example of
(A) Parasitism
(B) Hyperparasitism (C) Biocontrol
(D) Both A and B
Leishmania tropica produces
(A) Sleeping sickness (B) Kala-azar
(C) Dysentery
(D) Oriental sores.
Tiypanosoma brucei produces
(A) Sleeping sickness (B) Kala-azar
(C) Dysentery
(D) A disease of animals.
Chloroquine is given for treating
(A) AIDS
(B) Cancer
(C) Tetanus
(D) Malaria.
After how many days could a patient commonly feel malaria from the time of biting of mosquito?
(A) 28 days
(C) 1020 days
(B) 810 days
(D) 2030 days.
Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to
(A) Sporozoa
(B) Ciliata
(C) Sarcodina
(D) Mastigophora.
Protozoan found commensal in human colon is
(A) Entamoeba coli (B) P. vivax
(C)A. aegypti
(D) All the above
A person suffering from malaria runs fever when
(A) Exoerythrocytic cycle is completed
(B) Signet ring stage is formed
Euglena is a
(A) Ciliate
(B) Sporozoan
(C) Flagellate
(D) Sarcodine.
Micronucleus and macronucleus occur in
(A) Entamoeba and Plasmodium
(B) Entamoeba and Vorticella
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Amoeba is
(A) Unicellular
(B) Multicellular
(C) Plant
(D) Moneran.
Sporozoan protists are
(A) Parasitic
(B) Without locomotory organs
(C) With pseudopodia
(D) Both A and B.
Incubation period of Plasm odium falciparum is
(A) Ten days
(B) 15 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days.
Which protistan shows bioluminescence
(A) Euglena
(B) Noctiluca
(C) Forminiferans
(D) Diatoms
What is wrong for Entamoeba
(A) Presence of contractile vacuole
(B) Presence of nucleus
(C) Presence of food vacuole
(D) Presence of pseudopodium.
Kingdom Protista includes
(A) Amoeba, Euglena and Penidihium
(B) Amoeba, Spirogyra, Penicihhium
(C) Amoeba, Euglena and Diatoms
(D) Euglena, Spirogyra and Penicihlium
Which is not component of nutrition in Amoeba
(A) Phagocytosis
(B) Intracellular digestion
(C) Saprotrophy
(D) Exocytosis
A mode of sexual reproduction in protozoa is
(A) Schizogony
(B) Autogamy
(C) Plasmotomy
(D) Anisogamy
What is true of Paramecium
(A) Macronucleus takes reproduction
(B) Macronucleus metabolism
(C) Micronucleus metabolism
(D) Micronucleus reproduction.
Binary fission is absent in
(A) Monocystis/Plasmodium
(B) Euglena
(C) Paramecium
(D) Amoeba
Malarial parasites with 48 hr cycle are
(A) Plasmodium malariae, P. falciparum and P. ovale
(B) Plasmodium malariae, P. falciparum and P. vivax
(C) Plasmodiurn rnalariae, P. ovale and P. vivax
(D) Plasmodium falcipanzm, P. ovale and P. vivax
Cysts of Enta histolytica have
(A) One nucleus
(B) Two nuclei
(C) Four nuclei
(D) Many nuclei
Maximum mass of living diatoms occurs in
(A) Salt lakes
(B) Marine pelagic habitat
(C) Moist soil and swamps
(D) Deep coal mines
Where had Ronald Ross done his research related to malarial parasite
(A) London
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Chennai.
What is incorrect about Paramecium
(A) Macronucleus can be more than one
(B) Micronucleus can be more than one
(C) Macronucleus is vegetative
(D) Micronucleus is reproductive.
Post-erythrocytic part of life cycle of Plasmodium is called
(A) Golgi cycle
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Shortt cycle
(D) Ross cycle.
Which is not a protistan disease
(A) Giardiasis
(B) Amoebiasis
(C) Sleeping sickness (D) Elephantiasis.
All protozoans possess
(A) Holozoic nutrition
(B) Contractile vacuole
(C) Pseudopodia
(D) Eucaryotic organisation.
What is not true of Euglena
(A) Presence of chlorophyll
(B) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle
C) Presence of cellulose cell wall
(D) Presence of flagellum
451.
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(A) Holozoic
(B) Saprozoic
(C) Both A and B.
(D) Holophytic.
What is correct
(A) Slime Moulds are haploid
(B) Protozoans lack cell wall
(C) Pellicle is absent in Euglena
(D) Dinoflagellates are immobile.
Which one is a slime mould
(A) Physarum
(B) Rhizopus
(C) Anabaena
(D) Thiobacillus.
Match the following
Coloumn I
Column II
a) Leishmania donovani
(p)
Malaria
b) Wuchereria bancrofti
(q)
Amoebiasis
c) Trypanosoma gunbiense
(r)
Kalazar
d) Enamoeba histolytica
(s)
Sleeping sickness
(t)
Filariasis
(A) ar, bf, cs, dq
(B) ar, bt, cq, dp
(C) as, br, cq, dp
(D) a r, bs, ct, dp.
Which one is a protozoan disease
(A) AIDS
(B) Taeniasis
(C) Polio
(D) Malaria.
Removal of micronucleus in Paramecium impairs
(A) Locomotion
(B) Osnioregulation (C) Reproduction
(D) Excretion.
Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is
wrong (C), both are wrong (D).
Assertion. Euglena is a plant due to presence of chlorophyll.
Reason. Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two kingdom classification.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Match the items in the two columns
Coloumn I
Column II
a) Chrysophytes
(i)
Paramecium
b) Dinoflagellates
(ii)
Fugiens
c) Eugleneids
(iii)
Gonyandar
d) Protozoans
(iv)
Diatoms
(A) aiv, bui, cu, di
(B) au, bi, ci, div
(C) au, biv, cui, di
(D) a bu, cui, di
(E) aui, biv, ci, dii.
Read the following statements and identify the correct option given
(a) Sap vacuolesContain enzymes for digestion of nutrients
(b) Contractile vacuoles Osmoregulation and excretion
(c) Food vacuoles Store and concentrate minerals and nutrients
(d) Air vacuoles Store metabolic gases and provide buoyancy
(A) a and b correct (B) a and c correct
(C) b and d correct
(D) a and d correct
(E) b and c correct
Paramecium is
(A) Virus
(B) Bacterium
(C) Azinelid
(D) Protozoan.
Certain stages of Plasmodium vivax may survive for a long time in liver of man in dormant state.
On reactivation they enter into cycle
(A) Erythrocytic schizogony
(B) Cycle of Ross
(C) Gametogony
(D) Exoerythocytic schizogony.
Chemical used in National Malaria Eradication Programme has been
(A) 24D
(B)DDT
(C) BHC
(D) Pyrethroid.
Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is called
(A) Import
(B) Circumvallation (C) Circunifluence
(D) Invagination.
503.
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505.
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In Penicillum the mycelium bears sex organs. The male organ is called antheridium while the
female one is known as
(A) Archegonium
(B) Spermatangium (C) Ascogonium
(D) Sporogonium.
The rusts, are serious diseases of our economic plants. The disease is caused by the fungus
(A) Rhizopus
(B) Ustilago
(C) Puccinia
(D) Agaricus.
In Penicillium the asexual reproduction takes place by
(A) Ascospore
(B) Aplanospores
(C) Sporangiospores
(D) Conidia.
The smuts of crop plants are caused by
(A) Puccinia
(B) Cystopus
(C) Ustilago
(D) Agaricus.
The edible fungi are
(A) Rusts
(B) Moulds
(C) Mildews
(D) Mushrooms.
Peniciiium is economically important because it
(A) Cause pathogenic diseases
(B) Spoils food material
(C) Used in preparation of alcohol
(D) Provides antibiotic drugs.
In mycorrhiza, the tips of fungal hyphae occur inside cortical cells in
(A) Ectomycorrhiza (B) Endomycorrhiza (C) Exomycorrhiza
(D) None of the above.
Amanita, a poisonous fungus is a
(A) Mushroom
(B) Bracket Fungus (C) Toadstool
(D) Puffball.
The important antibiotic wonder drug extracted from Penicillium is
(A) Penicillin
(B) Aureomycin
(C) Streptomycin
(D) Terramycin.
The conidia are borne on sterigmata which are in turn borne by
(A) Ranii
(B) Metulae
(C) Phialides
(D) Conidiophores.
Penicillin is produced by
(A) P. chrysogenuin (B) P. divaricatun
(C) P. expansum
(D) P. claviforme.
A crustose lichen is
(A) Graphis
(B) Parmelia
(C) Cladonia
(D) Usnea.
Penicillum roqueforti and P. camemberti are responsible for
(A) Pathogenic diseases in man
(B) Pathogenic diseases in plants
(C) Imparting flavours to cheese and ripe fruits (D) None of the above.
The bread becomes soft and porous when the yeast cells are mixed in the lump o dough of wheat
flour, because
(A) Yeast is soft and flour also become soft
(B) Yeast produces acetic acid and alcohol which gives softness to the bread
(C) Evolution of CO2 makes the bread spongy
(D) Yeast produces benzoic acid.
Which of the following is not a fungus?
(A) Sargassum
(B) Mucor
(C) Agari cur
(D) Morchella.
Facultative saprophyte is
(A) Parasite but can be saprophyte
(B) Always parasite
(C) Always saprophyte
(D) Saprophyte but acquires a parasitic mode.
In Mucor and Rhizopus there occurs a phenomenon known as heterothallism which means
(A) Fusion of two gametes from two thalli of opposite strains
(B) Fusion of two gametes from thalli of similar stain
(C) Formation of a zygospore partheno genetically
(D) Torula stage.
A facultative parasite is one which?
(A) Always requires a living host
(B) Is normally a saprophyte but can also become a parasite
(C) Is normally parasitic but can also become saprophyte
D) Always requires dead organic matter.
Which of the following is an edible fungus?
A) Rhizopus
(B) Penicillium
(C) Mucor
(D) Agaricus.
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Revision Questions
112. Yeast and Penicillium/penicillin producing fungus are included under
(A) Basidiomycetes (B) Zygomycetes
(C) Ascomycetes
(D) Phycomycetes.
113. The fungus that may cause disease in human beings is
(A) Puccinia
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Cystopus
(D) Rhizopus.
114. Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in
(A) Ascomycetes
(B) Zygomycetes
(C) Phycomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes.
115. Common form of food stored in fungal cells is
(A) Starch
(B) Sucrose
(C) Glucose
(D) Glycogen.
116. A fungus which requires only one single host for completion of its life cycle is called
(A) Heteroecious
(B) Autoecious
(C) Heterothallism
(D) Heterosporous.
117. Lichens show symbiotic relationships between
(A) Fungus and roots of higher plants
(B) Fungus and alga
(C) Two algae
(D) Two fungi.
118. A fungus whose extract of scierotia can be chemically altered to produce a powerful
hallucinogenic drug is
(A) Claviceps purpurea (B) Aspergillus
(C) Penictilium
(D) Agaricus
119. Yeast cells are rich in vitamin
(A) A
(B)B
(C) C
(D) D.
120. A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from different genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but divide
independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed. It belongs to
(A) Phycomycetes
(B) Zygomycetes
(C) Deuteromycetes
(D) Basidiomycetes.
121. Symbiotic relationship between an alga and a fungus occurs in
(A) Coralloid roots of Cycas
(B) Lichens
(C) Mycorrhiza
(D) Both B and C.
122. The phenomenon that led to discovery of penicillin involves
(A) Biological antagonism
(B) Substrate competition
(C) Struggle for existence
(D) Genotype competition.
123. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution of air
(A) Mosses
(B) Lichens
(C) Mushrooms
(D) Puftballs.
124. Pannelia is a
(A) Crustose lichen (B) Fruticose lichen (C) Foliose lichen
(D) Moss.
125. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
(A) Show association between algae and fungi
(B) Grow faster than others
(C) Are sensitive to SO2
(D) Flourish in SO2 rich environment.
126. Dikaryon formation is characteristic of
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186.
187.
Yeast produces an enzyme complex that is responsible for fermentation. The enzyme complex is
(A) Aldolase
(B) Dehydrogenase (C) Invertase
(D) Zymase.
L.S.D. is derived from
(A) Papaver somniferum
(B) Cannabis sativa
(C) Scierospora graminicola
(D) Claviceps purpurea.
An edible fungus is
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Ustilago
(C) Polyporus
(D) Morchella.
Which one is not a mode of reproduction in Yeast
(A) Budding
(B) Plasmogamy
(C) Oogamy
(D) Ascospore formation.
Penicillin was discovered by
(A) S. Waksman
(B) Robert Koch
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Alexander Fleming.
A fungal disease of humans is due to
(A) Typhoid
(B) Trichophyton
(C) Microsporum
(D) Both B and C.
Late blight of Potato is due to
(A) Altemaria solani
(B) Albugo candida
(C) Fusarium moniliforme
(D) Phytophthora infestans.
White Rust of Crucifers is due to
(A) Albugo candida/Cystopus candidus
(B) Cercospora personata
(C) Colletotrichum falcaturn
(D) Phythium debatyanum.
Food is stored inRhizopus/CystopuslFungi as
(A) Protein and steroids
(B) Sugar and oil
(C) Protein and starch
(D) Glycogen and oil.
Which one secretes pheromones for the function?
(A) Rhizopus for formation of zygospore
(B) All fungi for sexual reproduction
(C) Yeast for mating
(D) Plants for growth and development.
Mycorrhizae are useful for
(A) Providing resistance against stresses
(B) Killing pathogens and insects
(C) Enhanced absorption of mineral nutrients and water from soil
(D) Fixing nitrogen.
In lichens, sexual reproduction is usually performed by
(A) Algal partner only
(B) Fungal partner only
(C) Both algal and fungal partners
(D) Either of the two partners.
Gills of a mushroom take part in
(A) Respiration
(B) Enhancing buoyancy
(C) Nutrition
(D) Bearing spores for reproduction.
An organism over its egg is
(A) Yeast
(B) Funaa
(C) Riccia
(D) Cycas
Mushroom is
(A) Mucor
(B) Agaricus
(C) Yeast
(D) Peniciiium
Which type of life cycle occurs in Mucor
(A) Isomorphic
(B) Heteromorphic (C) Haplontic
(D) Diplontic.
Ustilago caused plant diseases are called smuts because
(A) They parasitise cereals
(B) Mycelium is black
(C) They develop sooty masses of spores
(D) Affected parts become completely
Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of
(A) Smut of Barley (B) Rust of Wheat
(C) Ergot of Rye
(D) Powdcry Mildew of Pea
Decomposers are organisms that
(A) Elaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues
(B) Operate in living body and simplifying organic substances of cells step by step
(C) Attack and kill plants as well as animal
(D) Operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body
188.
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204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
VAM represents
(A) Saprophytic fungi (B) Symbiotic fungi (C) Saprophytic bacteria
(D) Symbiotic-bacteria
Mycorrhiza represents
(A) Antagonism
(B) Endemism
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Parasitism.
Antibiotic is got from
(A) Mucor
(B) Gelidium
(C) Ulothrix
(D) Peniciiium.
Disease and causal organism of Bengal famine of 1943 was
(A) Brown leaf spot of Rice by H. oryzae (B) Wheat Rust by Puccinia
(C) Blast of Rice by Pyricularia oiyzae
(D) Blast of Rice by X. oiyzae.
Zygospores are produced in
(A) Mucor/Rhizopus (B) Penicillium
(C) Puccinia
(D) Altemaria.
Smut of Maize is due to
(A) Ustilago hordei (B) U. nuda
(C) U. maydis
(D) U. avenae.
Causal organism for Black Stem Rust of Wheat is
(A) Melanospora lini
(B) Claviceps purpurea
(C) Scierospora graminicola
(D) Puccinia tritici.
In Albugo the food reserve is mostly
(A) Glycogen
(B) Volutin granules (C) Protein granules
(D) Fat.
Fertilization does not require water in
(A) Ulothrix
(B) Albugo
(C) Bryophyta
(D) Pteridqphyta.
Mycelium of Albugo is
(A) Intracellular
(B) Intercellular
(C) Surface of host
(D) Surface of flower.
Cothdia of Albugo are arranged
(A) Irregularly
(B) Acropetally
(C) Basipetaily
(D) Intercalary.
Zoospore of Albugo possesses flagella
(A) Two similar and apical
(B) Four similar and median
(C) Four apical
(D) Two dissimilar and median.
Redrot of Sugarcane is produced by
(A) Phytophthora
(B) Cercospora
(C) Albugo
(D) Colletotrichum.
Which one produces alcohol?
(A) Clost,idium bculinum
(B) Leuconostoc citrovorum
(C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(D) Torulopsis utilis
Toadstool (poisonous mushroom) is
(A) Ganodenna
(B) Phallus
(C) Amanita
(D) Morchella.
Yeast is employed for production of
(A) Curd
(B) Cheese
(C) Acetic acid
(D) Ethyl alcohol.
Phytoalexins produced by plants in response to fungal infections are
(A) Phenolic compounds
(B) Glycoproteins
(C) Proteins
(D) Lipids.
Plasmogamy is fusion of
(A) Two haploid cells including their nuclei (B) Two haploid cells without nuclear fusion
(C) Sperm and egg
(D) Sperm and two polar nuclei
A chemical substance produced by a microorganism for inhibiting the growth of another is
(A) Antibody
(B) Antibiotic
(C) Aflatoxin
(D) Antiallergic.
Which one is a fungal disease? (A) Tuberculosis (B) Cholera (C) Small pox (I)) 1
Number of spore stages in Puccinia is
(A) Five
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Two.
Which statement is wrong about lichens?
(A) Some species are eaten by Reindeers
(B) Lichens are indicators of pollution
(C) They grow, rapidly about 2 cm.per day
(D) They have symbiotic relationship between alga and fungus.
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273.
(A) Eiysiphe
(B) Gibberella
(C) Phytophthora
(D) Albugo.
Fungi are always
(A) Heterotrophs
(B) Saprophytes
(C) Parasites
(D) Autotrophs
Aflatoxins are produced by
(A) Viruses
(B) Bacteria
(C) Fungi
(D) Nematodes.
Mycelium of Mucor/Rhizopus is
(A) Aseptate and unicellular
(B) Septate and unicellular
(C) Septate and multicellular
(D) Coenocytic.
In an ascus of ascomycetes, number and arrangement of ascospores are
(A) 8 in linear order
(B) 4 in linear order
(C) Both A and B
(D) 8 or 4, linear order or unordered
A harmful lichen is
(A) Umbilicaria
(B) Letlza,ia
(C) Usnea
(D) aadonia
Mycorrhizal association occurs in Pinus, Ficus and
(A) Utncularic
(B) Legumes
(C) Eucalyptus
(D) Azadirachta
Sexual reproduction is absent in
(A) Deuteromyctes (B) Phycomycetes
(C) Ascomycetes
(D) Basidiomycetes.
Collateral host is
(A) Additional host
(B) Host in which life cycle is completed
(C) Alternate host
(D) Infected host
Similarity between fungi and bacteriophage lies in
(A) Cell wall
(B) Organelles
(C) DNA
(D) RNA as genetic material
A coprophilous fungus is
(A) Trichodenna
(B) Pilobolus
(C) Fusarium
(D) Humicola.
In Agancus, the largest phase of nucleus condition is
(A)n
(B)2n
(C) n+n
(D)3n
Black colour of Bread Mould is due to
(A) Zygophores
(B) Colour of hyphae
(C) Decaying organic matter
(D) Sporangia.
Fungi differ from other kingdoms in being
(A) Unicellular consumers
(B) Unicellular decomposers
(C) Multicellular consumers
(D) Multicellular deconiposers.
Which one is decomposer
(A) Lichen
(B) Pungus
(C) Algae
(D) Carnivores.
Reindeer Moss is
(A) Lichen
(B) Fungus
(C) Bryophyte
(D) Cnidarian.
Fungi Imperfecti is
(A) Phycomycetes
(B) Ascomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes
Symbiotic association between fungus and root of higher plant is
(A) Lichen
(B) Mycorrhiza
(C) Orchid
(D) Puffball.
Fungi are always
(A) Heterophytes
(B) Autotrophic
(C) Saprophytic .
(D) Parasitic.
Fungal hyphae are able to penetrate the host with the help of
(A) Mechanical pressure
(B) Softening by enzymes
(C) Both A and B
(D) Suckers and hooks
Torula condition occurs in
(A) Rhizopus
(B) Ulothnx
(C) Spirogyra
(D) Riccia
Match the columns
Column I
Column - II
a)
Early Blight of potasto
(i)
Puccinia graminals
b)
Late Blight of Potato
(ii)
Ustilago tritici
c)
Smut of Wheat
(iii) Phytophthora inferans
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
292.
293.
d)
Rust of Wheat
(iv) Alternasolani
(A) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)
(B) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i)
(C) (a) (ii), (b) (iii.), (c) (iv), (d) (i)
(D) (a)(iv), (b) (ii), (c)(iii), (d)(i).
VAM contains
(A) Symbiotic bacteria
(B) Saprophytic bacteria
(C) Symbiotic fungi
(D) Saprophytic fungi
Fungal wall is formed of
(A) Fungal chitin
(B) Chitin
(C) Muramic acid
(D) Cellulose.
Penicillin is got from an
(A) Alga
(B) Bacterium
(C) Fungus
(D) Dinoflagellate.
Ashbya gossypi is
(A) Fungus producing riboflavin
(B) Fungus forming B
(C) Actinomycetes excreting vitamin A
(D) Bateriuin forming antibodies.
Sporangiospores of Mucor are
(A) Polyploid
(B) Triploid
(C) Diploid
(D) Haploid.
Mucor has
(A) Isogamy
(B) Anisogamy
(C) Oogamy
(D) All the above.
Failure of gainetangial fusion in Rhizopus forms
(A) Zygote
(B) ZygospOre
(C) Parthenospore
(D) Oidia.
Ainsworth has placed Rhizopus in
(A) Zygomycetes
(B) Mastigomycotina (C) Ascomycotina
(D) Myxomycotina
White rust fungus is
(A) Rhizopus
(B) Albugo
(C) Pythium
(D) Ustilago.
In Rhizopus, hyphae are
(A) Branched,, septate and uninucleate
(B) Branched, aseptate and multinucleate
(C) Unbranched, aseptate and multinucleate (D) Unbranched, septate and coenocytic.
What is true?
(A) Toadstool is an edible fungus
(B) Rust fungi are homoecious
(C) Parathecium is fruiting body
(D) in Mushroom gills produce basidia.
Fungus Rhizopus resembles moss in having
(A) Hyphae
(B) Mycelium
(C) Spores
(D) Archegonia.
Rice blast is caused by
(A) Taphrina defonnis
(B) Puccinia graminis
(C) Pyricularia oryzae
(D) Colletotrichutn falcatum
Interval between infection and appearance of disease is called
(A) Inoculation period
(B) Incubation period
(C) Infection period
(D) Penetration period
Which of the following group produces spores but does not possess vascular tissues
(A) Monocots
(B) Dicots
(C) Fungi
(D) Gymnosperms.
An edible s fungus is
(A) Lycoperdon
(B) Agaricus
(C) Morchella
(D) Rhizopus
Pseudomycelium occurs in
(A) Yeast
(B) Rhizopus
(C) Aspergillus .
(D) Synch
A septum having pore complex in eumycota is
(A) Septal pore
(B) Dolipore septum (C) Lomasome
(D) Coenocyte.
Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by
(A) Sphaelotheca cnuenta
(B) Sphaelotheca reiliana
(C) Sphaelotheca sorghi
(D) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii.
Wart disease caused by Synchytrium endobioticum occurs in
(A) Cabbage
(B) Pea
(C) Groundnut
(D) Potato.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
Fungi with septate mycelia but where sexual reproduction is not known are included under
(A) Phycomycetes
(B) Deuteromycetes (C) Basidiomycetes
(D) Ascomycetes.
Zygospore of Rhizopus develops into
(A) Gametangium
(B) Promyceium
(C) Progametangium (D) Zygosporangium.
A fungal disease that spreads by seeds and flowers is
(A) Loose smut of Wheat
(B) Corn smut
(C) Covered smut of Barley
(D) Soft rot of Potato
Toxin is secreted during storage condition by
(A) Fusarium
(B) Colletotrichum (C) Penicillium
(D) Asp ergillus.
Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus occurs through
(A) Gametangial contact
(B) Gametangial copulation
(C) Planogametic copulation
(D) Spermatoganiy.
An ascomycetous fungus is
(A) Agarics
(B) Phytopthora
(C) Yeast
(D) Pleurotes.
Structure helping lichens in respiration is
(A) Isidium
(B) Soredium
(C) Cephalodium
(D) Cyphella.
Basidiospores are produced by
(A) Yeasts
(B) Diatoms
(C) Agaricus
(D) Bacteria.
Antihaemorrhagic ergot alkaloids are gives from
(A) Cinchona
(B) Alga
(C) Bryophyte
(D) Fungus.
The deadliest mushroom is
(A) Agaricus
(B) Amanita
(C) Pleurotus
(D) Volvariella.
Which is wrong
(A) Sporangiospores ofRhizopus are diploid
(B) Rhizopus belongs to zygomycetes
(C) Dominant phase of Chlamydomonasi haploid is haploid
(D) Zoospores of Chlamydomona. And haploid
Lichen depicts
(A) Parasitism between alga and fungus
(B) Parasitism between protest and bryophyte
(C) Symbiosis between alga and fungus
(D) Symbiosis between alga and gymnosperm.
Pick the odd one
(A) Sunflower
(B) Rose
(C) Hibiscus
(D) Rock Flower.
In endomycorrhiza, the fungus is generally
(A) Ascomycetes
(B) Zygomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes.
Edible part of Mushroom is
(A) Basidiocarp
(B) Primary mycelium (C) Basidospores
(D) Fungal hyphae.
Yeast belongs to
(A) Phycomycetes
(B) Anthocerotae
(C) Ascomycetes
(D) Basidiomycetes.
Conidia are sickle-shaped in
(A) Penicillium
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Colletotrichum
(D) Alternaria.
Dolipore septum occurs in
(A) Zygomycetes
(B) Basidiomycetes (C) Ascomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes.
Litmus is got naturally from
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Lichens
(D) Protozoans.
Clamp connections are found in
(A) Ascomycetes
(B) Zygomycetes
(C) Saccharomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes.
In lichen, fungus has
(A) Symbiotic relationship with alga
(B) Epiphytic relationship with alga
(C) Saprophytic relationship wih alga
(D) Parasitic relationship with alga.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
321.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungus
Which are mostly anaerobic?
(A) Algae
(B) Mosses
(C) Nematode
(D) Polychaete.
(C) Fungi
Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a
piece of bread?
(a) Temperature about 25C (b) Temperature about 5C (c) Relative hymidity of about 5% (d)
Relative humidity of about 95% (e) A shaded place (f) A brightly illuminated place. Choose the
answer from the following options
(A) b, c and f only
(B) c and e only
(C)a,dandenly
(D)b,d andeonly
Indentify a fungus with medicinal importance
(A) Peniciiium
(B) Ceivospora
(C) Agancus
(D) Saccharomyces.
Among rust, smut and mushroom, all the three
(A) Are pathogens
(B) Are saprobes
(C) Bear ascocarps
(D) Bear basidiocarps.
Red rot of Sugarcane and white rust of Radish are respectively caused by
(A) Collerotrichum and Albugo candida
(B) Colletotrichum and Fusarium
(C) Pythium and Phytophthora
(D) Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis
(E) Albugo candida and Cercopora.
Select the false statement
(A) Scientists who study and contribute to classification of organisms are known as systematists
(B) Phycomycetes are cajied club fungi bec of a club-shaped end of mycelium known as basidium
(C) Carolus Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species
(D) A five kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by R.H, Whittaker.
(E) Genus is a group of species which are related and have less characters in common as
compared to species:
Coenogametes are formed in
(A) Alternaria
(B) Albugo
(C) Rlzizopus
(D) Saccharomyces.
In Mucor, conjugation results in
(A) Zoospore
(B) Akinete
(C) Arthrospore
(D) Zygospore.
Usnic acid is an antibiotic obtained from
(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Lichen
(D) Algae.
Fungal cell wall is formed of
(A) Pctin
(B) Hemicellulqse
(C) Chitin and cellulose (D) Chitin and pectin.
Select the correct match
(A) Phytoplankton Protozoa
(B) Symbiosis Lichen
(C) Holozoic nutrition Fungi
(D) Autotrophs Monerans
Tikka disease occurs in
(A) Rice
(B) Groundnut
(C) Wheat
(D) Sugarcane
A eukaryotic group which causes serious plant diseases comes under
(A) Monera
(B) Fungi
(C) Protista
(D) Viruses.
Symptoms of red rot disease appear over
(A) Leaf tip
(B) Whole leaf
(C) Mid rib
(D) Leaf margin.
Which is not found in mushroom
(A) Eukaryotic structure
(B) Dikaryotic mycelium
(C) Basidiospores
(D) Ascospores.
Penicillin was used during
(A) World war II
(B) World war I
(C) Both A and B
(D) III war of Panipat.
Mycorrhiza generally occurs in
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
(C) Oligotrophicsoils
366.
367.
368.
369.
370.
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
(A) Alga
(B) Fungus
(C) Virus
Cladonia rangiferina is
(A) Lichen
(B) Alga
(C) Fungus
Decomposers are
(A) Autotrophs
(B) Heterotropbs
(C) Organotrophs
Cellulose is major component of cell wall of
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Saccharomyces (C) Pythium
(D) Bacterium
(D) Angiosperm.
(D) Autoheterotrophs.
(D) Xanthomonas.
506) B
507) B
508) C
ANSWER KEY
509) B 510) C 511) C 512) A
516)
526)
536)
546)
556)
566)
576)
586)
596)
606)
616)
626)
636)
646)
656)
666)
517)
527)
537)
547)
557)
567)
577)
587)
597)
607)
617)
627)
637)
647)
657)
667)
518)
528)
538)
548)
558)
568)
578)
588)
598)
608)
618)
628)
638)
648)
658)
668)
519)
529)
539)
549)
559)
569)
579)
589)
599)
609)
619)
629)
639)
649)
659)
669)
B
C
B
D
D
A
B
D
D
B
A
B
D
B
C
A
D
C
A
C
D
A
C
A
B
B
C
A
C
B
B
C
D
C
A
D
B
C
B
C
A
B
B
B
B
C
A
A
A
D
C
A
D
B
A
D
B
D
B
C
A
B
A
B
520)
530)
540)
550)
560)
570)
580)
590)
600)
610)
620)
630)
640)
650)
660)
670)
D
C
C
C
D
A
D
D
B
A
D
C
A
C
C
C
521)
531)
541)
551)
561)
571)
581)
591)
601)
611)
621)
631)
641)
651)
661)
671)
A
D
A
A
D
A
B
D
D
A
B
A
B
D
D
B
522)
532)
542)
552)
562)
572)
582)
592)
602)
612)
622)
632)
642)
652)
662)
672)
C
D
A
C
A
B
B
C
A
C
B
A
B
B
B
C
513) C
514) D 515) C
523)
533)
543)
553)
563)
573)
583)
593)
603)
613)
623)
633)
643)
653)
663)
673)
524)
534)
544)
554)
564)
574)
584)
594)
604)
614)
624)
634)
644)
654)
664)
674)
C
B
A
A
A
B
C
D
D
A
A
B
A
A
B
A
B
C
B
C
C
A
D
A
D
B
B
A
C
D
A
D
525)
535)
545)
555)
565)
575)
585)
595)
605)
615)
625)
635)
645)
655)
665)
675)
A
A
D
B
A
C
D
D
A
C
D
B
D
B
A
D
676)
686)
696)
706)
716)
726)
736)
746)
756)
766)
776)
786)
796)
806)
816)
826)
836)
846)
856)
866)
876)
D
D
A
C
B
A
A
B
C
C
C
A
B
C
B
A
B
D
C
A
D
677)
687)
697)
707)
717)
727)
737)
747)
757)
767)
777)
787)
797)
807)
817)
827)
837)
847)
857)
867)
877)
C
A
A
C
A
C
B
A
B
B
A
B
C
D
D
B
C
B
A
D
B
678)
688)
698)
708)
718)
728)
738)
748)
758)
768)
778)
788)
798)
808)
818)
828)
838)
848)
858)
868)
878)
D
B
C
D
D
B
C
A
A
C
B
B
D
B
C
B
C
B
C
B
B
679)
689)
699)
709)
719)
729)
739)
749)
759)
769)
779)
789)
799)
809)
819)
829)
839)
849)
859)
869)
879)
D
C
D
A
A
A
A
C
C
D
C
D
B
A
A
D
A
B
B
D
A
680)
690)
700)
710)
720)
730)
740)
750)
760)
770)
780)
790)
800)
810)
820)
830)
840)
850)
860)
870)
880)
D
D
A
B
B
D
C
D
D
D
A
C
B
C
B
B
D
C
C
B
C
681)
691)
701)
711)
721)
731)
741)
751)
761)
771)
781)
791)
801)
811)
821)
831)
841)
851)
861)
871)
A
C
B
B
D
D
C
B
D
B
C
C
A
D
A
D
A
D
B
A
682)
692)
702)
712)
722)
732)
742)
752)
762)
772)
782)
792)
802)
812)
822)
832)
842)
852)
862)
872)
D
D
B
D
D
B
A
D
B
A
A
B
D
B
B
C
B
A
D
C
683)
693)
703)
713)
723)
733)
743)
753)
763)
773)
783)
793)
803)
813)
823)
833)
843)
853)
863)
873)
A
B
C
A
C
C
D
A
C
D
D
C
B
A
C
D
C
C
A
C
684)
694)
704)
714)
724)
734)
744)
754)
764)
774)
784)
794)
804)
814)
824)
834)
844)
854)
864)
874)
C
C
D
C
C
B
D
A
A
B
A
C
C
C
B
A
D
B
B
D
685)
695)
705)
715)
725)
735)
745)
755)
765)
775)
785)
795)
805)
815)
825)
835)
845)
855)
865)
875)
B
D
D
A
B
B
A
B
A
A
C
A
D
C
C
B
C
D
C
C
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
A Chiamydomonas plant is left exposed mud. What would be its means of survival
(A) Formation of aplanospores
(B) Palmella stage
(C) Formation of hypnospores
(D) All the above:
Chiamydomonas shows
(A) Isogamy
(B) Anisogamy
(C) Oogamy
(D) All the above.
In isogamous species, the gametes a Chiamydomonas undergo temperature clustering before they
depart in pairs. The phenomenon is called
(A) Gametic differentiation
(B) Clumping
(C) Homothallism
(D) Parthenogenesis.
In Chlainydomonas the term hologamy applied to a mode of sexual reproduction which
(A) Gametes are mot
(B) Gametes are holozoic
(C) The young unicellular thaili direct behave as gametes
(D) The gametes are differentiated into male and female.
Oogamy is found in
(A) Chiamydomonas eugametos
(B) C. monoica
(C) C. coccifera
(D) Both A and B.
Palmellaspores are produced during
(A) Favourable conditions
(B) Any type of unfavourable conditions
(C) Deficiency of water or presence of toxic chemicals
(D) None of the above.
Chloroplast of Chiamydomonas is
(A) Cup shaped
(B) Star shaped
(C) Ribbon shaped
(D) Lamellate.
Life cycle in Chlamydomonas/Ulothrix/Spirogya is
(A) Diplontic
(B) Diplohaplontic (C) Haplontic
(D) None of the above
Red eye spot of certain grcen aLgae or their propagules is meant for
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Photosensitivity (C) Visibility
(D) Respiration.
In addition to reproduction, zygospore also helps in
(A) Perennation
(B) Dispersal
(C) Genetic variability (D) All the above.
Spirogyra filaments increase in length due to division in
(A) Basal cells
(B) Rhizoidal cell
(C) Every green cell
(D) Apical cell.
Meiosis takes place in Ch1w in
(A) Zygospore
(B) Zoospore
(C) Hypnospores
(D) Aplanospores.
Spirogyra is found in
(A) Running fresh water
(B) Stagnant salt water
(C) Stagnant fresh water
(D) None of the above.
Spirogyra is called pond silk because
(A) Filaments are made up of silk
(B) Filaments are slippery to touch
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
Spirogyra has chioroplast with shape
(A) Ribbon-like and spiral
(B) Cup shaped
(C) Stellate
(D) Spiral.
Maximum number of chloroplasts in a single cell of Spirogyra is
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
(A) Four
(B) Sixteen
(C) One
(D) Six.
Spirogyra belongs to the class
(A) Rhodophyceac (B) Cyanophyceae
(C) Xanthophyceae
(D) Chlorophyccae.
A parasitic green alga is
(A) Chiorella
(B) Ulva
(D) Cephaleuros
(C) Cladophora
The cell of Spirogyra differs from that of Chiarnydomonas in
(A) Presence of cellulose cell wall
(B) Presence of central vacuole
(C) Both A and B
(D) Presence of chioroplasts.
Red rust of Tea is caused by
(A) Puccinia
(B) Ustilago
(C) Cephaleuros
(D) Harveyella.
The nucleus of Spfrogyra cell lies
(A) Suspended in central vacuole
(B) Embedded in cytoplasm
(C) Just near the cell membrane
(P) In contact with the chioroplast.
The fusing gametes of Spirogyra are
(A) Morphologically similar and physiologically dissimilar
(B) Morphologically as well as physiologic ally similar
(C) Morphologically dissimilar but physiologically similar
(D) Morphologically as well as physiologic ally dissimilar.
All algae have two photosynthetic pigments in common
(A) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
(B) Chlorophyll b and carotenes
(C) Chlorophyll a and carotenes
(D) Phycobilins and carotenes.
Scalariform conjugation of Spirogyra occurs in
(A) Monoecious species
(B) Dioecious species
(C) Usually in dioecious species and some times in monoecious
(D) Equally frequent in monoecious and dioecious species.
Mode of sexual reproduction in Spimgyra is
(A) Isogamous
(B) Anisogamous
(C) Heterogamous
(D) Oogamous.
Fusion between dissimilar gametes is
(A) Autogamy
(B) Isogamy
(C) Allogamy
(D) Dichogamy.
In scalariform conjugation of Spirogyra the fusing gametes are derived from
(A) Same filament
(B) Two different filaments
(C) Both A and B
(D) Only one filament is involved in the process.
In brown algae, the motile stages have flagella inserted
(A) Anteriorly
(B) Laterally
(C) Posteriorly
(D) Both A and B.
The male gamete in Spirogyra is
(A) Motile but aflagellate
(B) Motile and flagellate
(C) Nonmotile and flagellate
(D) Multinucleate.
Which of the following is not correct about Spiro gyra
(A) Each cell of the filament is vegetative as well as reproductive
(B) It is a gametophyte
(C) The zoospores are produced during asexual reproduction
(D) Sexual reproduction is physiological anisogamous.
The zygospore of Spirogyra produces
(A) Four meiospores
(B) A single filament
(C) Four filaments
(D) A large number of spores each of which produces a filament.
The most common mode of reproduction in Spirogyra is
(A) Conjugation
(B) Aplanospore formation
(C) Fragmentation
(D) All the above.
An edible rhodophyte is
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(A) Polysiphonia
(B) Batrachosper,num (C) Porphyra
(D) Coraiina.
Meiosis in Spirogyra occurs at the time of
(A) Zoospore formation
(B) Gamete formation
(C) Akinete formation
(D) Germination of zygospore.
Which one is not connected with spore dispersal in Funaria
(A) Foot
(B) Annulus
(C) Seta
(D) Peristome
Which one is a kelp
(A) Batrachospermum
(B) Ulothrir
(C) Macrocystis
(D) Dictyota.
Main plant of Funaria belongs to phase
(A) Polypoid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) Haploid.
Sporogonium of Funaria is dependent on gametophyte
(A) Fully
(B) For food only
(C) Partially for water and minerals
(D) None of the above.
The moss plants are characterised by
(A) Presence of stem and leaves
(B) Absence of vascular tissue
(C) A filamentous juvenile gametophyte
(D) All the above.
The stem and leaves in Funaria are not, real because
(A) They are a part of gametophytic generation
(B) They lack xylem and phloem
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither of the two.
Knobbed paraphyses are found with
(A) Archegonia of Funaria
(B) Antheridia of Funaria
(C) Antheridia as well as archegonia
(D) Neither of them.
The juvenile stage of the gametophyte of moss is
(A) Green, filamentous and structure called protonema
(B) A tetraflagellate body
(C) Dorsoventrally flattened plate like body
(D) A colourless mass of tubular structures,
The largest alga is
(A) Lwninaria
(B) Macrocystis
(C) Nereocystis
(D) Sargassum.
First land inhabitating plants are
(A) Pteridophytes
(B) Bryophytes
(C) Gymnosperms
(D) Angiosperms.
The only positive evidence to aquatic ancestry of Bryophytes is
(A) Their green colour
(B) Thread like protonema
(C) Ciliated sperms
(D) Some forms are still aquatic.
Antherozoids of moss are
(A) Short, curved and bidiliate
(B) Rod shaped, bidiliate
(C) Short and multiciliate
(D) Long and multiciliate.
A tree Fern is
(A) Adiantum
(B) Diyoptens
(C) Asplenium
(D) Cyathaea.
In which of the following plants gametophytic phase is dominant?
(A) Fern
(B) Moss
(C) Angiosperm
(D) Cycas.
The stem and leaves of Funaria are (A) Analogous to those of angiosperms
(B) Homologous to those of angiosperms
(C) Not comparable to those of angiosperms in any way
(D) None of the above.
Life cycle of Funaria is not completed without water. Choose the correct statement
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(D) Oosphere.
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A living fossil is
(A) Pinus
(B) Ephedra
(C) Cedms
(D) Cycas
The developing embryo in Selaginella derives its food from
(A) The sporophyte
(B) The female prothallus
(C) The male prothallus
(D) None of these.
The life cycle of Selaginella/Fern/Moss is
(A) Diplontic
(B) Haplo-diplontic (C) Haplontic
(D) Diplo-haplontic.
Sporangia bearing leaves in Pteridophytes are called
(A) Ramenta
(B) Son
(C) Sporophylls
(D) Indusium
The sperms of Selaginella reach archegonia under chemotaxis of
(A) Proteins
(B) Sugars
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Malic acid.
Sieved septa occur in
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Red algae
(C) Some complex green algae
(D) Some large brown algae.
A gymnosperm having vessels is
(A) Cedrus
(B) Gnetum
(C) Cycas
(D) Pinus.
The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Selaginella is
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Eight to ten.
Archegonium of Selaginella differs from that of Funaria in
(A) Embedded venter (B) Absence of stalk (C) Short neck
(D) All the above.
The vegetative part of the malegametophyte of Selaginella is represented by
(A) Prothallial cell
(B) Androgonial cells (C) Jacket cells
(D) All the above structures.
Selaginella/FernfPteridophyte differs from moss in
(A) An independent gametophyte
(B) An independent sporophyte
(C) Sporophytic phase in Gymnosperms
(D) Sporophytic phase in Angiosperms.
A living fossil is
(A) Pinus
(B) Ephedra
(C) Cedms
(D) Cycas
The developing embryo in Selaginella derives its food from
(A) The sporophyte
(B) The female prothallus
(C) The male prothallus
(D) None of these.
The life cycle of Selaginella/Fern/Moss is
(A) Diplontic
(B) Haplo-diplontic (C) Haplontic
(D) Diplo-haplontic.
Sporangia bearing leaves in Pteridophytes are called
(A) Ramenta
(B) Son
(C) Sporophylls
(D) Indusium
The sperms of Selaginella reach archegonia under chemotaxis of
(A) Proteins
(B) Sugars
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Malic acid.
Sieved septa occur in
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Red algae
(C) Some complex green algae
(D) Some large brown algae.
A gymnosperm having vessels is
(A) Cedrus
(B) Gnetum
(C) Cycas
(D) Pinus.
The number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of Selaginella is
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Eight to ten.
Archegonium of Selaginella differs from that of Funaria in
(A) Embedded venter (B) Absence of stalk (C) Short neck
(D) All the above.
The vegetative part of the malegametophyte of Selaginella is represented by
(A) Prothallial cell
(B) Androgonial cells (C) Jacket cells
(D) All the above structures.
Selaginella/FernfPteridophyte differs from moss in
(A) An independent gametophyte
(B) An independent sporophyte
(C) Swimming antherozoids
(D) Archegonia.
Male gametophyte of Selaginella is formed
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(A) Volvox
(B) Chiamydomonas (C) Chlrella
(D) Spiro gyra.
Coenobium occurs in
(A) Spiro gyra
(B) Ulothrix
(C) Volvox
(D) Chiorella.
After liberation of daughter colonies, the parent colony of Volvox
(A) Undergoes sexual reproduction
(B) Forms a new set of daughter colonies
(C) Undergoes fission
(D) Disintegrates.
In which of the following sexual reproduction is unknown?
(A) Chiorella
(B) Spirogyra
(C) Chiamydomonas (D) Ulva.
Alga that is useful for prolonged space flight for liberation of oxygen, consumption of CO2
disposal of wastes and formation of food is
(A) Ulva
(B) Cau1e
(C) hlorella
(D) Chiamydomonas.
A daughter colony
is formed in Volvox by
(A) Fission
(B) Gonidium
(C) Budding
(D) All the above.
Reproduction by autospores occurs in
(A) Volvox
(B) Ulva
(C) pirogyra
(D) Chiorella.
Lammaria is a
(A) Green alga
(B) Brown alga
(C) 1 alga
(D) Fungus.
Food reserve of Laminaria is
(A) Starch
(B) Fat
(C) Mannitol
(D) Glycogen.
Trumpet hyphae occur in
(A) Pungi
(B) Red algae
(C) Green algae
(D) Brown algae.
Laminana is
(A) kelp
(B) Liverwort
(C) Hornwort
(D) Aquatic horsetail.
Kombu, an article
(A) Gelidium
(B) Laminaria
(C) Viva
(D) Polysiphonia.
Tetrsporophyte
(A) Laminaria
(B) ulva
(C) Gelidium
(D) Sargassum.
Carpogonium is
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Female sex organ
(C) Pructification formed over female sex organ
(D) All the above.
Thallus of Anthoceros is
(A) Dichotmously branched
(B) Irregularly branched
(C) Unbranched
(D) Foliaceous
Sex organs of Anthoceros are
(A) Terminal
(B) orne over dorsal surface of thallus
(C) Embedded
(D) Formed over gametophores.
A common hornwort is
(A) Anthoceros
(B) Funaria
(C) Marchantia
(D) Riccia.
Slime pores occur ventrally in
(A) Marchantia
(B) Riccia
(C) Sphagnum
(D) Anthoceros.
A bryophyte harbouring Nostoc colonies is
(A) Zoopis
(B) Anthoceros
(C) Dawsonia
(D) Marchantia.
What is characteristic of sporophyte of Anthoceros?
(A) Presence of mechanical tissue
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Meristematic zone
(D) Foot.
In Lycopodium the leaves are
(A) Eligulate
(B) Ligulate
(C) Megaphyllous
(D) Both B and C.
Lycopodium is
(A) Heterosporous
(B) Homosporous
(C) Water Fern
(D) Both B and C.
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(D) Pteridium.
(C) Stalked
Revision Questions
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(A) Indusium
(B) Rhizome
Neck canal cells in Diyopteris/Fern are
(A) One with two nuclei
(C) One with one nucleus
(C) Ramenta
(D) Son
(B) Two
(D) Four.
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(D) Starch.
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(A) Gametophyte
(B) Sporophyte
(C) Sometimes gametophyte and sometimes sporophyte
(D) Predominrnitly gametophyte with sporophyte attached to it
Which one controls dehiscence of sporangium in Dryopteris
(A) Annulus
(B) Tapetum
(C) Sorus
(D) Indusium.
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(D) Gymnosperms
(D) Aplanospores.
(D) Suberin.
A saprobiotic bryophyte is
(A) Ricciocarpus
(B) Porella
(C) Buxbaumia aphylla (D) Sphagnum.
Sex organs are embedded in the thalius in
(A) Moss
(B) Riccia
(C) Azolla
(D) Fern
In Funana, mate and female sex organs occur at the tip of two branches, main axis and large
branch. The condition is called
(A) Pleurocarpous
(B) Acrocarpous
(C) Apocarpous
(D) Sync
Which is haploid in Funwia?
(A) Capsule
(B) Columella
(C) Protonema
(D) Seta
Retort cells occur in
(A) Funaria
(B) Polygonatum
(C) Porella
(D) Sphagnum.
In which of the following elater mother cells and spore mother cells belong to same generation
(A Marchantia
(B) Reboulia
(C) Riccardia
(D) D,yopteris
Seed habit originated in certain
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Ferns
(C) Gymnosperms
(D) Angiosperms.
First seed plants evolved durmg
(A) Cretaceous
(B) Carboniferous
(C) Devonian
(D) Silurian.
Cycas resembles angiosperms in having
(A) Circinate vernation in leaves
(B) Vessels
(C) Motile sperms
(D) Ovules
Gymnosperm seeds are naked due to lack of
(A) Pericarp
(B) Perianth
(C) Nucelius
(D) Integuments.
In Pinus, male and female cones occur
(A) On the same branch
(B) On different branches of same plant
(C) On different plants
(D) On the trunk.
Microsporangia occur on the microsporophyli of Cycas on
(A) Abaxial side
(B) Adaxial side
(C) Axils
(D) Margins.
Maiden Hair Tree is
(A) Araucaria
(B) Thuja
(C) Ginkgo
(D) Pinus.
Formation of embryo without gametic union is
(A) Apogamy
(B) Apospory
(C) Isogamy
(D) Syngamy.
In life cycle of Funaria spores are beginning of the generation
(A) Gametophytic
(B) Sporophytic
(C) Both A and B
(D) Peristome
Plant body of Selaginella is
(A) Sporophyte
(B) Gametopliyte
(C) Halophyte
(D) Both B and C.
Pinus is
(A) Dioecious
(B) Monoecious
(C) Unisexual
(D) Both A and B.
Pinus seed is
(A) Nonendospermic and monocotyled onous (B) Abaxial and rounded
(C) Adaxial and endospermic
(D) Hypogeal and nonendospermic.
Heterospory and seed ha are exhibited by non-flowering plant which also possesses
(A) Bract
(B) Ligule
(C) Petiole
(D) Spathe.
Botanical name of Sanjeevam is
(A) Selaginella chrysocaulos
(B) Selaginella bryopteris
(C) S. Chrysorhizos
(D) None of the above
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(A) Nucleus
(B) Cell wall
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Chioroplast.
Chloroplasts are found in the spores of
(A) Yeast
(B) Funaria
(C) Dryopteris
(D) Rhizopus.
A bryophyte of considerable economic importance is
(A) Marchantia
(B) Riccia
(C) Funaria
(D) Sphagnum.
Vessels and companion cells occur in
(A) Angiosperms
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Pteridopbytes
(D) Viruses
Fern gametophyte bears
(A) Roots
(B) Antheridia
(C) Archegonia
(D) Both B and C.
Sago comes from
(A) Calamus ritung (B) Meiroxylon nsmphii(C) Areca catechu
(D) Phoenir dactylifera.
Angiosperms show
(A) Monospory
(B) Bispory
(C) Trispory
(D) Tetraspory
At the time of pollination the pollen grains of Pinus arc
(A) One celled
(B) Two celled
(C) Three celled
(D) Four celled
Sulphur shower is due to
(A) Acid rain
(B) Excess SO2 and SO3 in atmosphere
(C) Exposed sulphur rocks
(D) Pollen of Pinus/Cedms.
In Selaginella
(A) Gametophyte is dominant
(B) Sporophyte is dominant
(C) Sporophyte is total parasite
(D) Gametophyte is total parasite.
Sporophyte is completely dependent in
(A) Selaginell
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Riccia
(D) Pinus.
The term prothallus is used for
(A) Stage before thallus
(B) Plant body without differentiation of stem, leaves and roots
(C) Reduced gametophyte
(D) Reduced sporophyte
Thin-walled nonflagellate spores are
(A) Zoospores
(B) Aplanospores
(C) Hypnospores
(D) Zygospores.
Which one of the following has not changed for the last several thousand years
(A) Diyopteris
(B) Gnetum
(C) Ginkgo
(D) Palms.
Iodine can be obtained from
(A) Lamina
(B) Porphyra
(C) Chlorella
(D) Polysiphonia.
Selaginella multiplies vegetatively through
(A) Tubers
(B) Resting buds
(C) Fragmentation
(D) All the above
In Funaria, calyptra is formed from
(A) Capsule
(B) Archegonium
(C) Columeila
(D) Antheridium.
Which one is the earliest land plant
(A) Rhynia
(B) Hornea
(C) Cooksonia
(D) Cordaites.
Largest ovules, trees and gametes are found in
(A) Monocots
(B) Dicots
(C) Both A and B
(D) Gymnosperms.
Cleavage and archegonial polyembroyony is common in
(A) Gymnosperms
(B) Pteridophytes
(C) Angiosperms
(D) Bryophytes
Chl a, Chl d and phycoerythrin occur in
(A) Chlorophyceae (B) Badillariophyceae (C) Cyanophyceae
(D) Rhodophyceae.
Wood of Pinus is
(A) Manoxylic and homoxylous
(B) Manoxylic and heteroxylous
(C) Pycnoxylic and homoxylous
(D) Pycnoxylic and heteroxylous.
In Selaginella, the male gametes are
(A) Uniflagellate
(B) Biftagellate
(C) Nonflagellate
(D) Multiflagellate.
Moss sporophyte does not possess
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(A) Elaters
(B) Seta
Nonflagellate gametes occur in
(A) Ulothrix
(B) Spirogyra
Annulus occurs in
(A) Annual plants
(C) Both mosses and ferns
(C) Foot
(D) Coluniella.
(C) Funaria
(D) Selaginella.
(B) Mosses
(D) Gymnosperms
577.
578.
579.
580.
581.
582.
583.
584.
585.
586.
587.
588.
589.
590.
591.
592.
593.
594.
595.
596.
597.
598.
599.
600.
601.
602.
603.
604.
605.
606.
607.
608.
609.
610.
611.
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
(D) Taxus
617.
618.
619.
620.
621.
622.
623.
624.
625.
626.
627.
628.
629.
630.
631.
632.
633.
634.
635.
636.
637.
638.
639.
640.
641.
642.
643.
644.
645.
646.
647.
648.
649.
650.
651.
652.
653.
654.
655.
656.
657.
658.
659.
660.
661.
662.
663.
664.
665.
666.
667.
668.
669.
670.
671.
672.
673.
674.
(A) Algae
(B) Fungi
(C) Biyophyta
Which ones secrete calcium carbonate and appear like corals
(A) Red algae
(B) Brown algae
(C) Blue-green algae
Pond Silk is common name of
(A) Corailina
(B) Spirogyra
(C) Selaginella
(D) Pteridophyta.
(D) All the above. (Kerala
(D) Chiorella.
675.
676.
677.
678.
679.
680.
681.
682.
683.
684.
685.
686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
691.
692.
693.
694.
695.
696.
697
698.
699.
700.
701.
702.
703.
704.
705.
706.
707.
708.
709.
710.
711.
712.
713.
714.
715.
716.
717.
Column - II
Zooidogamy
Nakuc acud
Oogamy
Sucrose
Physiological anisogamy
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(A) (a) (i), (b)(v), (c) (iv), (d) (iii)
(B) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(v)
(C) (a)(ii), (b)(v), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
(D) (a)(il), (b)(i), (c)(iv), (d)(v)
Match the items of columns I and II
Column I
Column - II
a)
Sarcotesta of Cycas
(i)
Haploid
b)
Aposporous gametophores of Funaria
(ii)
Diploid
c)
Azygospore of Rhizopus
(iii) Diploid
d)
Azygospore Rhizopus
(iv) Haploid
e)
Hypostomium Pteris
(v)
Diploid
(A) (a)(v), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(ii) (B) (a)(i), (b)(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(v)
(C) (a)(v), (b)(t), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)
(D) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(iii), (d)(i).
Which of the following is resurrection plant?
(A) Adiantum capillus-veneris
(B) Dryopteris filix-mas
(C) Selagineila lepidophyila
(D) Adiatum caudatum.
In gymnosperms how many male gametes are produced by each pollen grain
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1.
Which of the following is a flagellated algal
(A) Chiamydomonas (B) Ulothnx
(C) Spirogyra
(D) Acetabularia.
Alginic acid is produced by
(A) Red alga
(B) Green alga
(C) Blue green alga
(D) Brown alga.
During fertilization in ferns, male gamete reaches the female gamete through the agency of
(A) Wind
(B) Water
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals.
Coenocytic condition is found in
(A) Ulothrix
(B) Chlainydomonas (C) Spirogyra
(D) Vauchena.
Female gametophyte of a heterosporous fern is
(A) Archegonium
(B) Protonema
(C) Prothallus
(D) Megasporangiuni.
Fern prothallus produces
(A) Spored .
(B) Gametes
(C) Stolons
(D) Both A and B.
Sporophyte of Riccia is
(A) Total parasite
(B) Partial parasite (C) Saprophyte
(D) Autotroph
Vascular cryptogarns are
(A) Gymnosperms
(B) Pteridophytes
(C) Bacteriods
(D) Angiosperins.
Which is characteristics of ferns?
(A) Lea1 gametophyte
(B) Circinate vernation
(C) Mycorrhizal roots
(D) Coralloid roots
Transfusion tissue can be traced in
718.
719.
720.
721.
722.
723.
724.
725.
726.
727.
128.
729.
730.
731.
732.
733.
734.
735.
736.
737.
738.
739.
740.
741.
742.
743.
744.
745.
746.
d)
Apocarpae
(4)
Orchidaceae
e)
Coronariae
(5)
Plamae
(A) (a)(2), (b)(3), (c)(4), (d)(5), (e)(1)
(B) (a)(3), (b)(4), (c)(5), (d)(1), (e) (2)
(C) (a)(4), b)(3), (c)(5), (d)(1), (e) (2)
(D) (a)(1), (b)(2), (c)(3), (d)(4), (e) (5)
(E) (a) (5), (b) (4), (c) (3), (d) (2), (e) (1)
Which of the following is not correctly matched
(A) Chiamydomonas Unicellular flagellate
(B) Volvox Colonial, nonflagellate
(C) Laminaria Flattened leaf like thallus
(D) Chiorella Unicellular, nonflagellate
(E) Spirogyra Filamentous strucutre.
The term frond in a fern is used for
(A) Rachis
(B) Whole plant
(C) Spore bearing leaf
(D) Sexually reproducing structures.
In Cycas, the vascular bundles are arranged in the shape of inverted omega in
(A) Leaf
(B) Rachis
(C) Leaflet
(D) Stem.
Laminaria (Kelp) and Fucus (Rock Weed) are examples of
(A) Green algae
(B) Brown algae
(C) Red algae
(D) Golden brown algae.
Funaria differs from Ptedium in absence of
(A) Root
(B) Stem
(C) Archegonia
(D) Embryo.
Which is peat moss
(A) Sphagnum
(B) Riccia
(C) Funaria
(D) Marchantia
Algae producing tocopherol
(A) Chiorella
(B) Synechocystis
(C) Chiwnydomonas (D) Volvox.
Bryophytes are amphibious of plant kingdom as their
(A) Reproductive phase requires water
(B) Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed
(C) Conducting strands have tracheids.
(D) All the above
Which one contains alginic acid
(A) Diatoms
(B) Blue green algae (C) Laminaria
(D) Yellow green alge.
An ovule of Cycas has ardiegonia
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Eight
(D) 28.
Cycas resembles angiosperms in having
(A) Vessels
(B) Circinate vernation
(C) Siphonogany
(D) Dichotmous branching
Phylogenetic system of angiosperm classification was given by
(A) Hailer
(B) Hutchinson
(C) Takhtajan
(D) All the above.
Structure protecting archegoma of Marchantia is
(A) Apophysis
(B) Perichaetium
(C) Periphysis
(D) Apophysis.
What is incorrect for brown algae
(A) Presence of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll e
(B) Occurrence of fucoxantium
(C) Presence of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
(D) Attachment to substratum.
Halophytic green alga Dunahella stores
(A) Glycerol
(B) Sorbitol
(C) Proline
(D) None of the above.
In prothallus of vascular crypogams, antherozoids and eggs mature at different times resulting in
(A) High degree of sterility
(B) Apomixis
(C) Preventon of self fertilization
(D) No change in success rate are fertilization
Which set contains flagellated male gamates
(A) Spirogyra, Anthoceros and Funaa
(B) Zygnema Saprolagnia and Hydrilla
747.
748.
749.
750.
751.
752.
753.
754.
755.
756.
757.
758.
759.
760.
761.
762.
763.
764.
765.
766.
767.
768.
769.
770.
771.
772.
(C) Zamiapygmia
(D) Sequoia sempervirens.
Ramenta occur in
(A) Marchantia
(B) Funaria
(C) Diyopteris
(D) None of the above.
Choose the wrong pair
(A) Hepaticopsida Marchantia
(B) Lycopsida Selaginella
(C) BryopsidaAnthoceros
(D) Pteropsida D,yopteris
(E) Sphenopsida Equisetum.
Select the correct major pigments and stored food in different groups of algae
(A) Chlorophyceae Stored food starch, major pigments Chi a, b
(B) Phaeophyceae Stored food laminarin, major pigments Chi a, b
(C) Rhodophyceae Stored food floridean starch, major pigments Chl a and d, phycoerythrin.
(A) c correct, a and b wrong
(B) a correct, b and c wrong
(C) a and b correct, c is wrong
(D) a and c correct, b wrong
(E) b correct.
Merit of Bentham and Hookers system is
(A) Placement of renales in beginning
(B) Placement of orchidaceae in microspermae
(C) Placement of asteraceae in beginning of gamopetalae
(D) Position of gymnospermae in between dicots and monocots
Name the group of algae in which sexual reproduction is absent
(A) Bacillariophyceae (B) Cyanophyceae
(C) Chlorophyceae
(D) Phaeophyceae.
Assertion a. Life cycle of Funaria is called diplohaplontic.
Reason r. In Funaria there is alternation of haploid gametophytic and diploid sporophytic phases,
one becoming parent to other.
The correct answer is
(A) Both a and r are true and r is correct explanation of
(B) Both a and r are correct but r is not the correct explanation of a
(C) a is true but r is false
(D) a is false but r is true.
Match the columns
Column I
Column - II
a)
Exarch
(1)
Rhizome of Pteris
b)
Endarch
(2)
Roots of Pteris
c)
Mesarch
(3)
Pinnule of Cycas
d)
Pseudomesarch
(4)
Primary stem of Cycas
(A) q 4, b3, c4, d2
(B) a2,b4,c3,d1
(C) a3, b2, c1, d4
(D) a2, b4, c1, d3.
Tracheophyta characterised by habitual hekrophylly, absence of companion cells and presence of
vessels in xylem is
(A) Pteris
(B) Drimys
(C) Selaginella
(D) Gnetum.
Based on its nuclus, which one is different in Spirogyra
(A) Zygospore
(B) Azygospore
(C) Akinete
(D) Aplanospore
Which one shows correct descending sequence with reference to the number of cohorts.
(A) Heteromerae, Inferae, Disciforae, Calyciflorae
(B) Bicarpellatae, Disciflorae, Heteromerae, calyciflorae
(C) Disciflorae Thalainiflorae, Calyciflora; Heteromerae
(D) Thalamiflorae Calyciflorae, Disciflorae, Inferae
Sphaerocarpos belongs to
(A) Pteridophyta
(B) Bryophyta
(C) Gymnospermae
(D) Angiospermae.
What is true of bryophytes? They have
(A)Thalloid nature (B) Chioroplasts
(C) Archegonia
(D) All the above.
Phanerogams include
(A) Gymnosperms
(B) Angiosperms
(C) Pteridophytes
(D) Both A and B
773.
774.
775.
776.
777.
778.
779.
780.
781.
782.
783.
784.
785.
786.
787.
788.
789.
791.
792.
793.
794.
795.
796.
797.
798.
799.
800.
801.
Ten cells each in the two adjacent filaments of Spiro affinir are participating in reproduction. How
many new Spirogyra plants are produced through sexual reproduction
(A) 5
(B)10
(C) 20
(D) 40.
Which of the following show zooidogamous oogamy?
(i) Spirog
(ii) Funana
(iii) Pteris
(iv) Cycas.
(A)i, u,iii
(B) ii, iii, iv
(C) ii iv
(D) i. ii, iv.
FemaleconeofPinusisa
(A) Modified scale
(B) Mod needle
(C) Modified dwarf shoot
(D) Modified long shoot
Prothallus of fern produces
(A) Spores
(B) Cones
(C) Gametes
(D) Both A and C.
Fern spores are
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Triploid
(D) Tetraploid.
Leaves of moss plant possess
(A) Stomata and chloroplasts
(B) No stomata, nq, chioroplasts
(C) Stomata but no chioroplasts
(D) No stomata but chioroplasts.
Lower vascular plants which produce seeds but not fruits belong to
(A) Bryophyta
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Gymnosperms
(D) Equicetum
An alga rich in protein is
(A) Nostoc
(B) Ulothrix
(C) Spirogyra
(D) Clllorel/a.
Yellow green pigmentation is found in
(A) Xanthophyta
(B) Phacophyta
(C) Rhodophyta (D) Chlorophyta.
Which one is not a feature of gymnosperms
(A) Perennial plant (B) Parallel venation (C) Distinct branches (D) Xylem with vessels.
ANSWER KEY
1.
(C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4.
(B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (A.) 27. (B)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C)
41. (C) 42. . (B) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (C)
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (D) 67. (C)
71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (D) 77. (A)
81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (C) 86. (D) 87. (A)
91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (C) 97. (A)
101. (D) 102. (C) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (C) 106. (C) 107. (B)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (B) 114. (D) 115, (C) 116. (C) 117. (A)
121. (B) 122. (C) 123. (D) 124. (D) 125. (B) 126. (B) 127. (C)
131. (C) 132. (D) 133. (C) 134. (C). 135. (C) 136. (B) 137. (D)
141. (B) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (A) 145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (C)
151. (B) 152. (D) 153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (D) 156. (A) 157. (B)
161. (C) 162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (B) 165. (C) 166. (A) 167. (B)
171. (B) 172. (D) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (C) 176. (D) 177. (A)
181. (A) 182. (D) 183. (D) 184. (B) 185. (C) 186. (A) 187. (B)
191. (D) 192. (A) 193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (C) 196. (D) 197. (B)
201. (D) 202. (B) 203. (B) 204. (A) 205. (C) 206. (D) 207. (D)
211. (B) 212. (A) 213. (B) 214. (A) 215. (C) 216. (C) 217. (B)
221. (D) 222. (D) 223. (A) 224. (D) 225. (B) 226. (C) 227. (A)
8. (B)
18. (A)
28. (D)
38. (B)
48. (D)
58. (D)
68. (B)
78. (D)
88. (B)
98. (C)
108.(B)
118. (B)
128.(C)
138.(D)
148.(D)
158.(C)
168.(D)
178.(D)
188.(D)
198.(A)
208.(D)
218.(A)
228.(C)
9. (C)
19. (C)
29. (D)
39. (B)
49. (C)
59. (B)
69. (C)
79. (B)
89. (B)
99. (B)
109. (B)
119. (A)
129. (A)
139. (C)
149. (A)
159. (B)
169. (C)
179. (C)
189. (C)
199. (A)
209. (A)
219. (B)
229. (A)
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.
110.
120.
130.
140.
150.
160.
170.
180.
190.
200.
210.
220.
230.
(C)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
231. (C)
241. (C)
251. (C)
261. (B)
271. (C)
281. (A)
291. (A)
301. (C)
311. (B)
321. (A)
331. (B)
341. (A)
351. (A)
361. (C)
371. (C)
381. (A)
391. (B)
401. (A)
411. (C)
421. (C)
431. (A)
441. (B)
451. (C)
461. (D)
471. (D)
481. (B)
491. (D)
S01 (A)
511. (D)
521. (C)
531. (D)
541. (13)
551. (A)
561. (C)
571 (A)
581. (A)
591. (A)
601. (A)
611. (A)
621. (C)
631. (D)
641. (A)
651. (C)
661.. (B)
671. (C)
681. (B)
691. (C)
701. (D)
711. (D)
721. (C)
731. (C)
741. (D)
232. (A)
242. (B)
252. (B)
262. (D)
272. (A)
282. (C)
292. (B)
302. (A)
312. (C)
322. (B)
332. (B)
342. (D)
352. (C)
362. (D)
372. (A)
382. (C)
392. (D)
402. (D)
412. (D)
422. (B)
432. (B)
442. (D)
452. (B)
462. (B)
472. (C)
482. (D)
492. (C)
502. (B)
51.2.(B)
522. (B)
532. (D)
542. (C)
552. (D)
562. (B)
572. (D)
582. (D)
592. (D)
602. (B)
612. (A)
622. (A)
632. (B)
642. (D)
652. (B)
662. (C)
672. (B)
682. (A)
692. (A)
702. (A)
712. (C)
722. (B)
732. (B)
742. (B)
233. (C)
243. (D)
253. (A)
263. (A)
273. (B)
283. (A)
293. (C)
303. (C)
313. (C)
323. (D)
333. (A)
343. (A)
353. (B)
363. (B)
373. (C)
383. (C)
393. (C)
403. (B)
413. (C)
423. (D)
433. (A)
443. (A)
453. (B)
463. (B)
473. (D)
483. (C)
493. (B)
503. (A)
513. (B)
523. (D)
533. (B)
543. (C)
553. (C)
563. (A)
573. (B)
583. (B)
593. (A)
603. (C)
613. (B)
623. (B)
633. (B)
643. (C)
653. (D)
663. (D)
673. (A)
683. (D)
693. (B)
703. (B)
713. (B)
723. (A)
733. (B)
743. (C)
234. (D)
244. (C)
254. (A)
264. (A)
274. (D)
284. (D)
294. (C)
304. (A)
314. (C)
324. (C)
334. (A)
344. (B)
354. (A)
364. (D)
374. (A)
384. (D)
394. (B)
404. (A)
414. (B)
424. (D)
434. (C)
444. (B)
454. (C)
464. (A)
474. (B)
484. (B)
494. (A)
504. (D)
514. (D)
524. (A)
534. (D)
544. (B)
554. (B)
564. (B)
574. (B)
584. (A)
594. (B)
604. (D)
614. (C)
624. (B)
634. (C)
644. (D)
654. (A)
664. (A)
674. (A)
684. (B)
694. (D)
704. (D)
714. (A)
724. (C)
734. (A)
744. (A)
235. (C)
245. (A)
255. (D)
265. (B)
275. (B)
285. (C)
295. (D)
305. (B)
315. (D)
325. (D)
335. (A)
345. (B)
355. (D)
365. (C)
375. (A)
385. (D)
395. (C)
405. (A)
415. (D)
425. (B)
435. (B)
445. (A)
455. (B)
465. (B)
475. (A)
485. (A)
495. (C)
505. (C)
515. (A)
525. (D)
535. (A)
545. (C)
555. (A)
565. (B)
575. (C)
585. (C)
595. (C)
605. (D)
615. (B)
625. (D)
635. (C)
645. (C)
655. (B)
665. (C)
675. (B)
685. (C)
695. (A)
705. (A)
715. (B)
725. (B)
735. (A)
745. (C)
236. (B)
246. (A)
256. (C)
266. (D)
276. (A)
286. (B)
296. (A)
306. (A)
316. (D)
326. (A)
336. (D)
346. (C)
356. (B)
366. (C)
376. (D)
386. (A)
396. (D)
406. (B)
416. (B)
426. (C)
436. (B)
446. (C)
456.(C)
466.(C)
476.(B)
486.(C)
496.(A)
506.(B)
516.(D)
526.(B)
536.(D)
546.(A)
556.(B)
566.(C)
576.(C)
586.(D)
596.(C)
606.(B)
616.(B)
626.(C)
636.(D)
646.(B)
656.(C)
666.(B)
676.(D)
686.(C)
696.(B)
706.(C)
716.(B)
726.(D)
736.(B)
746.(D)
237. (C)
247. (D)
257. (B)
267. (D)
277. (D)
287. (B)
297. (C)
307. (D)
317. (13)
327. (C)
337. (B)
347. (B)
357. (A)
367. (B)
377. (A)
387. (C)
397. (A)
407. (A)
417. (B)
427. (C)
437. (C)
447. (A)
457. (A)
467. (A)
477. (A)
487. (D)
497. (B)
507. (A)
517. (C)
527. (C)
537. (B)
547. (D)
557. (C)
567. (A)
577. (A)
587. (B)
597. (C)
607. (D)
617. (D)
627. (A)
637. (C)
647. (A)
657. (A)
667. (D)
677. (C)
687. (A)
697. (C)
707. (C)
717. (D)
727. (D)
737. (A)
747. (B)
238.(D)
248.(A)
258.(D)
268.(B)
278.(B)
288.(C)
29$.(C)
308.(A)
318.(D)
328.(D)
338.(C)
348.(D)
358.(B)
368.(B)
378.(C)
388.(A)
398.(B)
408.(B)
418.(C)
428.(A)
438.(D)
448.(A)
458. (D)
468.(B)
478,(B)
488. (A)
498. (C)
508. (C)
518.(B)
528.(.A)
538.(D)
548.(B)
558.(D)
568.(D)
578.(D)
588.(A)
598.(A)
608.(D)
618.(B)
628.(C)
638.(B)
648.(D)
658.(D)
668.(B)
678.(D)
688.(A)
698.(C)
708.(A)
718.(C)
728.(D)
738.(C)
748.(D)
239. (B)
249. (C)
259. (B)
269. (A)
279. (D)
289. (C)
299. (B)
309. (C)
319. (B)
329. (A)
339. (D)
349. (C)
359. (B)
369. (C)
379. (B)
389. (B)
399. (A)
409. (D)
419. (A)
429. (D)
439. (A)
449. (A)
459. (B)
469. (A)
479. (D)
489. (B)
499. (A)
509. (D)
519. (A)
529. (C)
539. (D)
549. (C)
559. (A)
569. (A)
579. (B)
589. (C)
599. (B)
609. (C)
619. (A)
629. (D)
639. (D)
649. (C)
659. (B)
669. (C)
679. (A)
689. (C)
699. (D)
709. (D)
719. (D)
729. (C)
739. (D)
749. (C)
240.
250.
260.
270.
280.
290.
300.
310.
320.
330.
340.
350.
360.
370.
380.
390.
400.
410.
420.
430.
440.
450.
460.
470.
480.
490.
500.
510.
520.
530.
540.
550.
560.
570.
580.
590.
600.
610.
620.
630.
640.
650.
660.
670.
680.
690.
700.
710.
720.
730.
740.
750.
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(B)
751.
761.
771.
781.
791.
801.
(D)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(D)
752. (A)
762. (D)
772. (D)
782. (D)
792. (B)
753. (C)
763. (A)
773. (C)
783. (A)
793. (B)
754.
764.
774.
784.
794.
(A)
(B)
(8)
(B)
(D)
755.
765.
775.
785.
795.
(D)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(C)
756.(B)
766.(D)
776.(D)
786.(C)
796.(A)
757. (B)
767. (C)
777. (C)
787. (A)
797. (D)
758.(A)
768.(A)
778.(A)
788.(B)
798.(C)
759. (13)
769. (D)
779. (A)
789. (D)
799. (D)
760.
770.
780.
790.
800.
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(A)
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
(A) Annelida
(B) Porifera
(C) Coelenterata
(D) Both B and C.
A coelom is absent in
(A) Porifera
(B) Coelenterata
(C) Platyhelminthes
(D) All the above.
A phylum with triploblastic acoelomate animals is
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes
(C) Annelida
(D) Arthropoda.
Echinoderms and chordates have
(A) Pseudocoelom
(B) Schizocoelom
(C) Enterocoelom
(D) Haemocoel.
Haemocoel occurs in
(A) Earthworm
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach and Pila (D) Leech
An animal with metameric segmentation/ metamerism is
(A) Housefly
(B) Earth worm,
(C) Roundworm
(D) Plan aita.
A social/colonial animal is
(A) Locust
(B) Mosquito
(C) White Ant
(D) Fish.
Invertebrate constitute percentage of animal kingdom
(A) 95%
(B) 75%
(C) 60%
(D) 30%.
Sponges and coelenterates resemble each other in being
(A) Monoblastic and acoelomate
(B) Diploblastic and acoelomate
(C) Triploblastic and acoelomate
(D) Triploblastic and pseudocoelomate.
Annelids have
(A) Tube-within-a-tube plan, unsegmented body and haemocoel
(B) Blind sac plan, segmented body and true coelom
(C) Tube-within-a-tube plan, metameric segmentation and true coelom
D) Tube-within-a-tube plan, metameric segmentation and enterocoelom.
Revision Questions
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
etamerism is characteristic of
A) Platyhelminthes B) Mollusca
(C) Porifera
nimals/organisms floating on the surface of water are
A) Plankton
B) Pelagic
(C) Benthon
ody does not show any segmentation in
A) Frog
B) Cockroach
(C) Earthworm
Radial symmetry occurs in
(A) Fishes
(B) Molluscs
(C) Star Fishes
Animals having well marked digestive cavity are included under
(A) Parazoa
(B) Enterozoa
(C) Mesozoa
Haemocoel is present in
(A) Hydra
(B) Earth
(C) Nereis
A true coleom is absent in phylum
(A) Nematoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Echinodermata.
True coelom or body cavity occurs in
(A) Hydra
(B) Taenia
(C) Pheretima
An animal having condition is
(A) Ascaris
(B) Sea Anemone
(C) Planaria
True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution in
(A) Aschelminthes (B) Chordata
(C) Echirodermata
A gregarious but nonsocial animal is
(A) Ant
(B) Honey Bee
(C) Locust
An animal without segmentation is
(A) Shipworm
(B) Earthworm
(C) Tapeworm
Sponges are
(A) Monoblastic
(B) Diploblastic
(C) Triploblastic
D) Annelida
D) Neritic
D) Star Fish/Hydra.
(D) Sponges
(D) Metazoa
(D) Scolopendra.
(D) Mollusca.
(D) Sycon
(D) Periplaneta
(D) Annelida.
(D) Wasp.
(D) Glow-worm.
(D) Heteroblastic.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
.
93.
94.
95.
96.
.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
Nektons are
(A) Floaung plants
(B) Swimming organisms
(C) Suspended plants
(D) Animals associated with plants
Cold blooded animals are
(A) Bat, Rat
B) Frog, Snake
(C) Snake, Bird
(D) Bird. Rabbit.
Which animal group ni high and constant body temperature?
(A) Reptiles
(B) Amphibians
(C) Birds
(D) Fishes.
In contrast to anneids, the platyhelminthes show
(A) Absence of body cavity
(B) Bilateral symmetry
(C) Radial symmetry
(D) Presence of pseudocoel
Engulfing of food in solid or fluid state is
(A) Saprozoic nutrition
(B) Parasitic nutrition
(C) Sapropbytic nutrition
(D) Holozoic nutrition
Enterocoelous cavity is present in
(A) Astonna
(B) Protostomia
(C) Blastostomia
(D). Deuterostomia.
Which one does not have radial symmetry?
(A) Hydra
(B) Starfish
(C) Spider
(D) Aurelia.
Metameric segmentation is characteristic of
(A) Mollusca and chordate
(B) Platyhelminthes and arthropoda
(C) Echinodermata and annehcla
(D) Annelida and arthropoda
Homo sapiens is
A) Coclomate
(B) Pseudocoelomate (C) Acoelomate
(D) Paracoelomate
Oranisms which give birth to young ones directi are
(A) Oviparous
(B) Ovoviparous
(C) Viviparous
(D) Both A and B.
Amoeba is
(A) Biradial
(B) Asymmetric
(C) Radial
(D) Bil
Triploblastic animals have primarily
(A) Bilateral symmetry
(B) True coelom
(C) Sexual dimorphism
(D) High regeneration power
Animals with built in thermostat for maintaining body temperature are called
(A) Oligothermic
(B) Biothermic
(C) Poikilothermic
(D) Homoeothermic.
Which ones lack tissue organ level organisation
(A) Sponges
(B) Annelids
(C) Trematodes
(D) Neanatodes.
Which one has a biradial symmetry?
(A) Cockroach
(B) Jelly fish
(C) Sea Anemone
(D) Paramoecium.
In deuterostomia, embryonic blastopore produces
(A) Mouth
(B) Anus
(C) Gonopore
(D) Both A and B.
Larva of Jelly Fish (Aurelia) is
(A) Plannula
(B) Medusa
(C) Polyp
(D) Blastula.
Larva occurs in
(A) Invertebrates
(B) Vertebrates
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
Stage between two larval moults is
(A) Larva
(B) Instar
(C) Pupa
(D) Morula
Changes that convert larva into adult constitute .
(A) Metastasis
(B) Metagenesis
(C) Alternation
(D) Metamorphosis.
Thigmotaxis does not occur in
(A) Hydra
(B) Amoeba
(C) Paramecium
(D) Ascaris.
108.
109.
110.
111.
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.
91.
101.
111.
Cross section of body of an invertebrate is given. Identify the animal from the body plan
(A) Cockroach
(B) Planaria
(C) Roundworm
(D) Earthworm.
Deuterostome condition and indeterminate radial cleavage are characteristics of
(A) Arthropods and echinoderms
(B) Chordates and arthropods
(C) Chordates and echinoderms
(D) Chordates, arthropods and annehds.
Which is an ectotherm?
(A) Lizard
(B) Pigeon
(C) Rabbit
(D) Camel.
Which one is the group of bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic animals?
(A) Sponges
(B) Coelenterates
(C) Ctenophores
(D) Aschelminthes.
(B)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
2. (D)
12. (D)
22. (D)
32. (D)
42. (C)
52. (B)
62. (B)
72. (D)
82. (B)
92. (D)
102. (B)
3. (C)
13. (D)
23. (D)
33. (A)
43. (A)
53. (C)
63. (A)
73. (A)
83. (A)
93. (C)
103. (A)
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
74.
84.
94.
104.
(A)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.
95.
105.
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(B)
6. (D) 7. (A)
16. (B) 17. (C)
26. (C.) 27. (B)
36. (B) 37. (D)
46. (D) 47. (B)
56. (D) 57. (B)
66. (D) 67. (A)
76. (A) 77. (C)
86. (C) 87. (B)
96. (C) 97. (B)
106. (D) 107. (D)
8. (B)
18. (C)
28. (C)
38. (A)
48. (C)
58. (C)
68. (C)
78. (D)
88. (B)
98. (A)
108.(B)
9. (C)
19. (C)
29. (D)
39. (A)
49. (D)
59. (B)
69. (A)
79. (C)
89. (C)
99. (D)
109. (C)
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.
110.
(D)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(A)
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
(D) Trophocytes.
(D) All the above.
(D) Germ cells.
(D) All the above.
(D) All the above.
(D) All the above.
(D) Gulf of Mexico.
(D) All the above.
(D) Infected appen&
(D) All the above.
(D) Hyalonema.
(D) Fresh Water.
Revision Questions
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
.153.
Characteristics of sponges is
(A) Diploblastic
(B) Aquatic
(C) Link between living and nonliving
(D) Body has pores
All sponges
(A) Are marine
(B) Possess spongin fibres
(C) Possess spicules
(D) Have spongocoel.
Porifers are
(A) Mostly marine, a few fresh water
(B) Mostly fresh water, a few marine
(C) All marine
(D) All fresh water.
Sponges have evolved from
(A) Ciliates
(B) Flagellates
(C) Protozoans
(D) Choanoflagellates.
Which is a special feature of porifera
(A) All are marine
(B) Calcareous spicules(C) Canal system
(D) Division of labour.
Internal bud for overcoming unfavourable conditions in Spongilla is
(A) Budding
(B) Regeneration
(C) Gemmule
(D) Parenchymula
Which is universal for sponges?
(A) Marine
(B) Calcareous spicules
(C) Radial symmetry
(D) High regenerative power
In sponges, canal system develops due to
(A) Gastrovascular system
(B) Folding of inner walls
(C) Porous walls
(D) Reproduction.
Osculum occurs in
(A) Star Fish
(B) Ray Fish
(C) Hydra
(D) Sponge.
Which is common in sponges having different types of canal system?
(A) Apopyle
(B) Paragastric cavity (C) Prosopyle
(D) Radial chambers.
Larva of Leucosolenia is
(A) Veliger
(B) Auricularia
(C) Parenchymula
(D) Trochophore
Incurrent canals are lined by
(A) Choanocytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Porocytes
(D) None of the above.
Choanocytes in Ascon-type of canal system form lining of
(A) Spongocoel
(B) Porocyte
(C) Apopyle
(D) Incurrent canal.
Sponges capture food by
(A) Pinacocytes
(B) Choanocytes
(C) Thesocytes
(D) Trophocytes
The middle layer in body wall of porifera is
(A) Mesoderm
(B) Mesenchyme
(C) Mesogloea
(D) Mesentery.
Sponge structure corresponding to mouth ofother animals is
(A) Incurrent canal (B) Ostium
(C) Osculum
(D) Excurrent canal
Boring sponge is
(A) Cliona
(B) Euplectella
(C) Chalina
(D) Hyalonema.
After drying, a bath sponge contains
(A) Holdfast
(B) Tentacles
(C) Spicules
(D) Spongin fibres.
In porifera, skeleton forming cells are
(A) Scierocytes
(B) Archaeocytes
(C) Thesocytes
(D) Amoebocytes.
Glass Rope sponge is
(A) Hyaloneina
(B) Euplectella
(C) Scypha
(D) Spongilla.
Type of spongocoel/canal system found in Leucosolenia is
(A) Ascon
(B) Leucon
(C) Sycon
(D) Rhagon.
Skeleton made of spongin fibres occurs in
(A) Calcarea
(B) Demospongiae (C) Hexactinellida
(D) Both A and B.
Amphiblastula is larva of
(A) Leucosolenia
(B) Sycon
(C) Hydra
(D) Planaria.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
1) B
11)
21)
31)
41)
51)
61)
71)
81)
91)
101)
111)
121)
131)
141)
151)
161)
171)
2) B
D
D
B
A
B
C
D
B
C
A
B
C
D
C
A
B
A
12)
22)
32)
42)
52)
62)
72)
82)
92)
102)
112)
122)
132)
142)
152)
162)
3) C
D
B
A
C
C
B
C
B
C
D
B
D
D
C
B
A
13)
23)
33)
43)
53)
63)
73)
83)
93)
103)
113)
123)
133)
143)
153)
163)
ANSWER KEY
5) A
6) D
4) B
D
D
C
C
C
C
C
A
B
A
C
A
A
A
B
D
14)
24)
34)
44)
54)
64)
74)
84)
94)
104)
114)
124)
134)
144)
154)
164)
B
B
B
A
A
B
B
A
B
B
B
B
D
B
A
A
15)
25)
35)
45)
55)
65)
75)
85)
95)
105)
115)
125)
135)
145)
155)
165)
D
B
D
D
A
C
B
B
C
C
A
C
C
C
B
B
16)
26)
36)
46)
56)
66)
76)
86)
96)
106)
116)
126)
136)
146)
156)
166)
7) B
B
A
D
D
B
A
A
C
C
C
C
B
C
B
D
B
17)
27)
37)
47)
57)
67)
77)
87)
97)
107)
117)
127)
137)
147)
157)
167)
8) C
B
C
A
C
C
B
D
D
D
B
B
A
D
A
C
C
18)
28)
38)
48)
58)
68)
78)
88)
98)
108)
118)
128)
138)
148)
158)
168)
9) A
C
C
B
B
C
C
B
B
A
A
D
B
B
D
B
B
19)
29)
39)
49)
59)
69)
79)
89)
99)
109)
119)
129)
139)
149)
159)
169)
A
B
D
D
D
A
A
D
B
D
B
C
D
A
C
C
10)
20)
30)
40)
50)
60)
70)
80)
90)
100)
110)
120)
130)
140)
150)
160)
170)
C
B
D
A
A
A
A
C
B
C
A
B
B
A
B
A
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
Nematocyst is a
(A) Cell
(B) Group of cell
(C) Organ
(D) Part of a cell.
The smallest cnidoblast in the body of Hydra is
(A) Penetrant
(B) Volvent
(C) Atrichous isorhiza (D) Holotrichous isorhiza.
The largest nematoblast is
(A) Stenotele
(B) Desmoneme
(C) Small glutinant
(D) Large glutinant.
Germ cells of Hydra are
(A) Ectodermal
(B) Mesodermal
(C) Endodermal
(D) None of the above.
Digestion in Hydra is
(A) Intercellular
(B) Intracellular.
(C) Both
(D) None.
One of the following is a coelenterate
(A) Sea Fan
(B) Sea Dollar
(C) Sea Cucumber
(D) Sea Horse.
The mesolamella/mesogloea is formed by
(A) Epidermis
(B) Gastrodermis
(C) Epidermis and gastrodermis
(D) Mesoderm.
Undigested food of Hydra is expelled from
(A) Mouth
(B) Anus
(C) General surface
(D) Hypostome.
Hydra does not feed on lower animals because
(A) They are so small
(B) They are distasteful
(C) They lack glutathione
(D) None of the above.
Digestion in the enteron of Hydra starts with
(A) Proteolytic enzymes
(B) Amylolytic enzymes
(C) Lipolytic enzymes
(D) None of the above.
Perisarc is absent in Hydra because
(A) It is fixed
(B) It is free swimming
(C) Epidermis cannot secrete it
(D) None of the above.
Great Barrier Reef occurs off the coast of
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Philippines
(C) Australia
(D) Maharashtra.
Hydra is
(A) Insectivorous
(B) Frugivorous
(C) Omnivorous
(D) Carnivorous.
Which part of Hydra is without supporting lamella?
(A) Basal disc
(B) Central part of pedal disc
(C) Tentacles
(D) None of the above.
Which part of Hydra is without nematoblasts?
(A) Pedal disc
(B) Tentacles
(C) Manubrium
(D) Stomach region.
In which nematoblast thread tube is unarmed and open at the tip
(A) Penetrant
(B) Volvent
(C) Small glutinant
(D) Large glutinant.
Tentacles of Hydra are
(A) Hollow
(B) Solid
(C) Half hollow and half solid
(D) None of the above.
The green colour of Hydra viridis (Chiorohydra viridissima) is due to
(A) Chloroplasts
(B) Pigment
(C) Zoochlorella
(D) None of the above.
Which nematoblasts coil around the prey?
(A) Penetrants
(B) Volvents
(C) Small glutinants
(D) Large glutinants.
Nematoblasts responsible for locomotion are
(A) Penetrants
(B) Volvents
(C) Glutinants
(D) None of the above.
Hypnotoxin is
(A) Protein
(B) Aurelia
(C) Lipid
(D) None of the above.
Fresh Water Polyp is
(A) Hydra
(B) Aurelia
(C) Physalia
(D) Obelia.
Epitheliomuscular cells of epidermis of Hydra form
(A) Circular muscles (B) Oblique muscles (C) Longitudinal muscles (D) None of the above.
36.
37.
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46.
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48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
A colonial hydrozoan is
(A) Hydra
(B) Metridium
(C) Aurelia
(D) Obelia.
Hydra contracts its body by means of
(A) Interstitial cells
(B) Cnidoblasts
(C) Nutritive cells
(D) Epithelio-muscular cells.
Sea Anemone is member of class
(A) Hydrozoa
(B) Scyphozoa
(C) Anthozoa/Actinozoa
(D) None of the above.
Metagenesis is found in
(A) Hydra
(B) Obelia
(C) Aurelia
(D) Tubipora
Polymorphic animal is
(A) Physalia
(B) Hydra
(C) Tubipora
(D) Metridium.
Hydra can digest all types of food except
(A) Proteins
(B) Fats
(C) Starches
(D) None of the above.
Mesogloea of Hydra contains
(A) Nerve cells
(B) Phagocytic cells (C) InterstitIal cells
(D) None of the above.
Cnidom is a
(A) Battery of a nematoblasts
(B) Group of nematoblasts
(C) Armed thread
(D) Unarmed thread.
Larva of Hydra is
(A) Absent
(B) Planula
(C) Tadpole
(D) Hydrula.
A coral island with a central shallow lake is known as
(A) Coral reef
(B) Lagoon
(C) Atoll
(D) Corallite.
Gas gland occurs in
(A) Gorgonia
(B) Physalia
(C) Pennatula
(D) Red Coral.
Chitinous covering or perisarc is present in
(A) Obelia
(B) Hydra
(C) Aurelia
(D) Physalia.
Blastostyle of Obelia bears
(A) Tentacles
(B) Polyps
(C) Medusac
(D) Gonads.
Polyps of Obelia are
(A) Reproductive zooids
(B) Nutritive zooids
(C) Zoids meant for dispersal
(D) All the above.
Pneumatophore is present in
(A) Hydra
(B) Obelia
(C) Aurelia
(D) Physalia.
Reproductive zooids of Physalia are
(A) Medusae
(B) Cormidia
(C) Gastrozooids
(D) Gonophores.
A cormidium of Physalia consists of
(A) Tentacles
(B) Zooids
(C) Both A and B
(D) Tentacles, zooids and pneumatophore.
Jelly Fish is
(A) Adamsia
(B) Aurelia
(C) Scoliodon
(D) Torpedo.
Hermit Crab develops a beneficial association with
(A) Adamsia
(B) Aurelia
(C) Gorgonia
(D) Pennatula.
Sea Flowers are
(A) Corals
(B) Red corals
(C) Sea Anemones
(D) Jelly Fishes.
Coral Islands are
(A) Laccadives
(B) Srilanka
(C) Iceland
(D) Mumbai.
Pennatula is
(A) Sea Fan
(B) Sea Pen
(C) Sea Star
(D) Sea Flower.
The term coelenterata was coined by
(A) Linnaeus
(B) Leuckart
(C) Clark
(D) Grant.
Whih one is polymorphic coelenterate
(A) Obelia
(B) Hydra
(C) Aurelia
(D) Adamsia.
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(A) Epidermis
(B) Intercellular and intracellular digestion
(C) Cnidoblasts
(D) Medusa phase.
Symmetry of ctenophores is generally
(A) Bilateral
(B) Radial
(C) Biradial
(D) Absent.
Tentacles of ctenophores contain
(A) Cnidoblasts
(B) Colloblasts
(C) Digestive glands (D) All the above.
Tentacles are absent in
(A) Beroe
(B) Ctenoplana
(C) Honn4thora
(D) Obelia.
Ctenophores possess statocysts in
(A) Oral region
(B) Aboral region
(C) Base of comb plates
(D) Base of tentacles.
Comb plates of ctenophores possess
(A) Cilia for locomotion
(B) Cilia for filter feeding
(C) Teeth for crushing
(D) Teeth for filtering.
Which one is absent in Beroe?
(A) Statocyst
(B) Stomodaeum
(C) Tentacles
(D) Anal pores.
Ctenoplana differs from Horiniphora and Beroe in having
(A) Pear shaped body
(B) Conical ovate body
(C) Flat bibbed body
(D) Branched axis.
Anal pores occur in gastrovascular system of
(A) Physalia
(B) Corals
(C) Aurelia
(D) Ctenophores.
In Hydra, both pseudopodia and flagella occur in
(A) Nutritive cells
(B) Epithelio-muscular cells
(C) Second cells
(D) Gland cells
Penetrant, volvent and glutinant are types of
(A) Nematocysts of Hydra
(B) Tentacles of Hydra
(C) Zooids of Obelia
(D) Tentacles of Obelia
Mesogboea of Porifera and Coelenterata contains
(A) Nerve cells
(B) Sensory cells
(C) No cells
(D) Branches of muscle cells
The ovary of Hydra possesses
(A) Numerous ova
(B) Few ova
(C) No ovum
(D) One ovum
The gastrovascular cavity of Hydra provides for
(A) Digestion and storage
(B) Storage and circulation
(C) Excretion and storage
(D) Digestion and circulation.
Testes are located in Hydra at
(A) Proximal half
(B) Distal half
(C) Middle
(D) Tentacles.
Hydra/Obelia is
(A) Diploblastic, acoebomate
(B) Diploblastic, and acoebomate radially symmetrical and bilaterally symmetrical
(C) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical and coelomate
(D) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate.
A mature Hydra usually bears
(A) One testis and several ovaries
(B) One testis and one ovary
(C) Several testes and one ovary
(D) Several testes and several ovaries.
Zoochlorellae and zooxanthallae present in Hydra are
(A) Symbionts in nutritive cells
(B) Symbionts in the gut
(C) Symbionts in cnidoblasts
(D) Organisms that provide hypnotoxin.
Jelly Fishes belong to class
(A) Hydrozoa
(B) Scyphozoa
(C) Anthozoa
(D) None of the above.
Portuguese-Man-of-War is a
(A) Colonial monomorphic coelenterate
(B) Polymorphic coelenterate
126.
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(C) Coral
(D) Sea Anemone.
Body cavity of Hydra. is called
(A) Enterocoel
(B) Coelenteron
(C) Gastrovascular cavity
(D) Both B and C.
Precious Red Coral is/Coral used in ornaments is
(A) Astraea
(B) Fungia
(C) Corallium
(D) Tubipora.
Organ Pipe Coral is
(A) Tubipora
(B) Astraea
(C) Helipora
(D) Fungia.
Hypnotoxin is produced by
(A) Sponges
(B) Bath sponge
(C) Nematocysts
(D) Leucosolenia.
Gonads of Obelia occur
(A) In hydrula stage and indefinite in number
(B) Bases of tentacles of medusa and 8 in number
(C) On blastostyles and 8 in number
(D) On radial canals, oral surface of medusa and four in number.
Gastrodermis of Hydra takes part in digestion of
(A) Carbohydrates and fats
(B) Proteins and fats
(C) Proteins, fats and some carbohydrates (D) Proteins and carbohydrates.
Which is a coelenterate?
(A) Sea Pen
(B) Sea Urchin
(C) Sea Fish
(D) Sea Cucumber.
In Sea Anemone, the symmetry is
(A) Radial
(B) Spherical
(C) Bilateral
(D) Absent.
The cells absent in gastrodermis of Hydra
(A) Nutritive cells
(B) Stinging cells/Cnidoblasts
(C) Gland cells
(D) Nerve/sensory cells.
Muscles of Hydra are
(A) Smooth
(B) Skeletal
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
A radially symmetrical diploblastic animal is
(A) Roundworm
(B) Earthworm
(C) Hydra
(D) Liver fluke.
Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in
(A) Starfish and Hydra
(B) Hydra and sponges
(C) Tapeworm and Hydra
(D) Sponge and starfish
Which one of the following animals possesses nerve cells but no nerves?
(A) Hydra
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Frogs tadpole.
Poisonous fluid present in nematocysts of Hydra is
(A) Hypnotoxin
(B) Haeinatin
(C) Haemozoin
(D) Agglutinogen.
Nematocysts take part in
(A) Locomotion
(B) Offence and defence (C) Food capture
(D) All the above.
Common between trichocysts of Paramecium and nematocysts of Hydra is
(A) Attachment and defence
(B) Defence only
(C) Sensitivity
(D) Food capturing
Corals belong to phylum
(A) Cnidaria
(B) Porifera
(C) Mollusca
(D) Annelida.
Special character of coelenterates is
(A) Polymorphism (B) Nematocysts
(C) Flame cells
(D) Hermaphroditism.
Nematocysts are activated by
(A) Water
(B) Touch
(C) Brain
(D) None of the above.
Point out a non-parasite
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Mosquito
(C) Leech
(D) Sea Anemone.
Portuguese Man of War is
(A) Pennatula
(B) Coral
(C) Physalia
(D) Obelia
Which pair of cells is present in epidermis of Hydra but not in its endoderm?
148.
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154
15L
156.
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182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
A polymorphic coelenterate is
(A) Physalia
(B) Fungia
(C) Hydra
(D) All the above.
Which one belongs to anthozoa?
(A) Dugesia
(B) Fungia
(C) Aurlia
(D) Stercularkr.
In Hydra, digestion is
(A) Extracellular
(B) Intracellular
(C) First extracellular and then intracellular (D) First intracellular and then extracellular,
Medusa of Obelia is
(A) Carnivorous
(B) Herbivorous
(C) Detritus feeder
(D) Omnivorous,
Sense organs of Aurelia are
(A) Tentilla
(B) Tentaculocyst
(C) Nematocyst
(D) Otolith.
Statocysts are sense organs of
(A) Paramecium
(B) Ascaris
(C) Medusa of Obelia (D) Taenia solium.
Special character of coelenterates/Hydra is
(A) Hermaphroditism (B) Nematocysts
(C) Polymorphism
(D) Flame cells.
Ephyra is young stage of
(A) Obelia
(B) Sea Anemone
(C) Physalia
(D) Aurelia.
Germ cells of Hydra are derived from
(A) Ectoderm
(B) Endoderin
(C) Mesoderm
(D) Mesogloea.
Characteristic free swimming larva of coelenterates is
(A) Onchosphere
(B) Rhabditiform
(C) Planula
(D) Cysticercus.
Cell-tissue organisation occurs in
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Tapeworm
(D) Ascaris.
Coelenterates are mostly
(A) Asymmetrical
(B) Radially syntmetrical
(C) Bilaterally symmetrical
(D) Irregular
Hydra is
(A) Coral
(B) Worm
(C) Polyp
(D) Medusa.
In ectoderm of Hydra, bulk of cells are
(A) Musculo-epithelial
(B) Interstitial
(C) Nematoblasts
(D) Germ cells
Hydra is coelenterate because it possesses
(A) Mesogloea
(B) Nematocysts
(C) Body cavity
(D) Tentacles.
A member of scyphozoa is
(A) Silver Fish
(B) Jelly Fish
(C) Cuttle Fish
(D) Cat Fish.
In Hydra, cnidoblasts employed during looping are
(A) Volvents
(B) Stenoteles
(C) Atrichous isorhizas (D) Desmonemes.
Animal showing thigmotaxis is
(A) Ascaris
(B) Taenia
(C) Fungia
(D) Hydra.
Hydra reproduces through
(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Encystment
(C) Polyembryony
(D) Sexually and asexually.
Which is correct about nematocyst in Hydra
(A) It is re-used
(B) Ejection is conditioned reflex
(C) Ejection occurs in response to contact and pierces the prey
(D) Prevents coming in contact with other Hydra
In Hydra, egestion of undigested food and excretion of nitrogenous wastes occur through
(A) Mouth and tentacles
(B) Mouth and body wall
(C) Mouth and mouth
(D) Body wall and body wall.
Hydra will regenerate from a fragment, if it contains
(A) Tentacles
(B) Epidermis and gastrodermis
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
.
225.
226.
227,
Lagoon is
(A) Full moon
(B) Sea breaking into land and separated by sand dunes
(C) Spot in desert with presence of water
(D) Horse-shoe shaped coral reef.
In Hydra, nematocy occur only in
(A) Epidermis
(B) Gastrodermis
(C) Mesodermis
(D) Endodermis.
Hydra belongs to class
(A) Scyphozoa
(B) Hydrozoa
(C) Actinozoa
(D) Cnidaria.
Asexual reproduction in Hydra occurs through
(A) Budding
(B) Binary fission
(C) Fragmentation
(D) Sporulation.
Which one is incorrect
(A) Nematocyst Cnidaria
(B) Colloblast Ctenophora
(C) Trichocyst Ciliata
(D) None of the above
Which one is mismatched
(A) Hydra vulgaris Sea water
(B) Hydra gangelica Fresh water
(C) Obelia Sea water
(D) Physalia Sea water
Polyp phase does not occur in
(A) Obelia
(B) Aurelia
(C) Hydra
(D) Physalia.
Scyphozoan medusa is commonly known as
(A) Sea Pen
(B) Jelly Fish
(C) Obelia
(D) Sea Urchin.
In Hydra, absence of circulatory system is compensated by
(A) Gastrovascular cavity
(B) Tentacles
(C) Pseudocoelomic fluid
(D)Mesoglea
Nematocysts occur in
(A) Ctenophora
(B) Flanaria
(C) Fasciola
(D) Obelia.
Match the columns
Coloumn I
Column II
a) Protoxoa
1
Pennanila
b) Aschelminthes 2
Beroe
c) Porifera
3
Monocyaris
d) Ctenophore
4
Wuchereria
e) Cnidaria
5
Cliona
(A) a 3, b 5, c 4, d 1, c 2
(B) a 4, b 3, c 5, d 2, c 1
(C) a 3, b 4, c 5, d 2, e 1
(D) a 2, b 4, c 5, d 3, c 1
(E) a 3, b4, c 5, d 1, e 2.
Mesoglea occurs between
(A) Ectoderm and endoderm
(B) Ectoderm and mesoderm
(C) Mesoderm and endoderm
(D) Just below mesoderm.
Highest degree of polymorphism is found in
(A) Protozoa
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Platyhelminthes
(D) Arthropoda.
A dicecious aulmal is
(A) Tape worm
(B) Earthworm
(C) Liver fluke
(D) Aurelia.
Comb plates occur in
(A) Adamisia
(B) Nereis
(C) Pleurobrachia
(D) Aurelia.
Hydra reproduces by budding. It is
(A) Asexual reproduction
(B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Parthenocarpy
(D) Regeneration
Digestion of food occurs in Hydra in
(A) Abdominal cavity (B) Gastrovascular cavity(C) Pericardial cavity
(D) Pelvic cavity.
Type of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is
(A) Binary fission
(B) Sporulation
(C) Multiple fission
(D) Budding
228.
(C) Cnidaria
(D) Annelida.
ANSWER KEY
175) C 176) A 177) A 178) A
179) A
180) A 181) C
182)
192)
202)
212)
222)
232)
242)
252)
262)
272)
A
C
B
C
D
D
A
D
B
C
183)
193)
203)
213)
223)
233)
243)
253)
263)
273)
B
A
C
D
C
A
A
B
D
A
184)
194)
204)
214)
224)
234)
244)
254)
264)
274)
D
B
A
B
B
C
B
C
D
C
185)
195)
205)
215)
225)
235)
245)
255)
265)
275)
C
C
A
A
A
B
B
B
B
C
186)
196)
206)
216)
226)
236)
246)
256)
266)
276)
A
D
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
187)
197)
207)
217)
227)
237)
247)
257)
267)
277)
A
B
D
B
A
B
A
A
B
C
188)
198)
208)
218)
228)
238)
248)
258)
268)
278)
C
A
D
A
B
D
C
B
D
C
189)
199)
209)
219)
229)
239)
249)
259)
269)
279)
A
C
C
C
B
A
B
B
B
B
190)
200)
210)
220)
230)
240)
250)
260)
270)
280)
C
A
B
B
A
C
A
D
D
A
191)
201)
211)
221)
231)
241)
251)
261)
271)
281)
A
C
A
D
B
D
D
A
C
B
282)
292)
302)
312)
322)
332)
342)
352)
362)
372)
382)
392)
A
A
C
A
A
D
C
B
C
D
A
A
283)
293)
303)
313)
323)
333)
343)
353)
363)
373)
383)
393)
C
C
A
A
D
B
B
C
B
A
B
B
284)
294)
304)
314)
324)
334)
344)
354)
364)
374)
384)
394)
C
A
A
B
D
D
D
D
A
C
A
D
285)
295)
305)
315)
325)
335)
345)
355)
365)
375)
385)
395)
D
B
B
B
B
A
A
D
C
C
D
C
286)
296)
306)
316)
326)
336)
346)
356)
366)
376)
386)
396)
A
B
D
D
D
B
C
C
C
B
A
A
287)
297)
307)
317)
327)
337)
347)
357)
367)
377)
387)
397)
A
D
C
C
A
A
B
B
A
A
B
B
288)
298)
308)
318)
328)
338)
348)
358)
368)
378)
388)
398)
C
C
B
C
D
B
B
B
D
D
B
D
289)
299)
309)
319)
329)
339)
349)
359)
369)
379)
389)
399)
B
A
A
B
A
C
C
B
C
D
A
C
290)
300)
310)
320)
330)
340)
350)
360)
370)
380)
390)
D
C
A
A
B
A
A
D
B
C
D
291)
301)
311)
321)
331)
341)
351)
361)
371)
381)
391)
B
D
D
B
A
B
B
A
C
D
C
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
(A) Schistosoma
(B) Echinococcus
(C) Fasciola
(D) Taenia.
Dog Tapeworm is
(A) Schistosoma haematobium
(B) Opisthorchis sinensis
(C) Taenia nana
(D) Echinococcus granulosus.
The secondary host of Taenia saginata is.
(A) Cow
(B) Sheep
(C) Pig
(D) Both A and B.
The secondary host of Taenia soliurn is
(A) Buffalo
(B) Sheep
(C) Pig
(D) Goat.
In Schistosoma
(A) Male is longer than female
(B) Male is broader than female
(C) Male has gynaecophoric canal for holding female
(D) Both B and C.
The number of proglottides in Taenia solium is about
(A) 500
(B) 900
(C) 300
(D) 200.
Four suckers present on the scolex of Tapeworm are meant for
(A) Attachment
(B) Sucking food
(C) Crushing food
(D) All the above.
A cestode with only 3 segments is
(A) Taenia solium
(B) Diphyllobothriumlatum
(C) Echinococcus
(D) Hymen olepis nana.
Fasciola hepatica Is a
(A) Endoparasite
(B) Free living
(C) Ectoparasite
(D) Both B and C.
Cysticercus stage of Taenia solium is found in
(A) Man
(B) Pig
(C) Goat
(D) Sheep.
Liver Fluke belongs to class
(A) Trematoda
(B) Turbellaria
(C) Cestoda
(D) Nematoda.
The body of a Tapeworm consists of
(A) Scolex and neck
(B) Scolex and proglottides
(C) Scolex, neck and proglottides
(D) Neck and strobila.
Fasciola hepatica occurs in
(A) Bile duct of sheep
(B) Liver of sheep
(C) Liver of man
(D) Human bile ducts.
Tape worm is
(A) Anoxybiotic
(B) Oxybiotic
(C) Aerobic
(D) None of the above.
Each segment of Taenia is
(A) Monoecious
(B) Dioecious
(C) Aseuxal
(D) None of the above.
Hydatid worm is
(A) Schistosoma indicum
(B) Ancylostoma duodenale
(C) Enterobius vermicularis
(D) Echinococcus granulosus.
The infective stage of Fasciola hepatica is
(A) Sporocyst
(B) Redia
(C) Cercaria
(D) Metacercaria.
Which one of the flatworms has eyes?
(A) Fasciola
(B) Dugesia
(C) Schistosoma
(D) Echinococcus.
Hexacanth is activated by
(A) Bile salts
(B) Pancreatic juice (C) Intestinal juice
(D) None.
Hexacanth reaches
(A) Voluntary muscles
(B) Involuntary muscles
(C) Cardiac muscles
(D) None of the above.
The disease caused by Taenia is
(A) Cysticercosis
(B) Liver rot
(C) Ascariasis
(D) None.
Fasciola attaches itself to walls of the bile ducts by means of
(A) Anterior sucker
(B) Adhesive zone
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
(C) Nonmotile
(D) Capsule.
(C) Cestoda
(C) Mid-ventral
(D) Antero-ventral.
(C) Schistosoma
(D) Ventral.
Revision Questions
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
ANSWER KEY
1) D
2) B
3) D
11)
21)
31)
41)
51)
61)
71)
81)
91)
101)
111)
121)
B
C
A
A
B
A
D
D
C
B
A
A
12)
22)
32)
42)
52)
62)
72)
82)
92)
102)
112)
122)
D
B
B
A
C
C
A
C
B
B
D
A
13)
23)
33)
43)
53)
63)
73)
83)
93)
103)
113)
123)
B
A
A
A
A
N
B
C
D
A
B
D
14)
24)
34)
44)
54)
64)
74)
84)
94)
104)
114)
124)
C
D
C
D
B
A
B
D
C
D
A
A
15)
25)
35)
45)
55)
65)
75)
85)
95)
105)
115)
125)
A
D
A
A
C
C
A
C
C
A
B
B
131)
141)
151)
161)
C
D
A
B
132)
142)
152)
162)
A
B
B
D
133)
143)
153)
163)
B
B
D
A
134) A
144) D
154) B
135)
145)
155)
D 136)
A 146)
B 156)
4) C
5) A
6) B
16)
26)
36)
46)
56)
66)
76)
86)
96)
106)
116)
126)
7) A
A
C
A
A
A
A
B
B
D
B
A
D
17)
27)
37)
47)
57)
67)
77)
87)
97)
107)
117)
127)
8) A
C
D
A
D
A
A
A
A
A
C
D
B
C 137) D
D 147) D
C 157) B
18)
28)
38)
48)
58)
68)
78)
88)
98)
108)
118)
128)
9) A
D
B
D
B
D
B
A
D
D
B
B
A
138) B
148) C
158) C
19)
29)
39)
49)
59)
69)
79)
89)
99)
109)
119)
129)
A
A
D
A
C
D
C
A
C
A
C
C
10)
20)
30)
40)
50)
60)
70)
80)
90)
100)
110)
120)
130)
A
C
B
D
D
D
A
A
B
C
C
A
139) C 140) B
149) B 150) C
159) C 160) A
Aschelmlnthes or Nemathelminthes
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Lips of Ascaris are
(A) Smooth
(B) Rough
(C) Denticulate
(D) Spiny.
Number of lips of Ascaris are
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) One.
Taste receptors of Ascans are
(A) Phasmids
(B) Amphids
(C) Labial papillae
(D) Both B and C.
Amphids for olfacto-reception are present in Ascaris on
(A) Pre-anal papilla (B) Post-anal papilla (C) Dorsal lip
(D) Ventrolateral lips.
Excretory pore of Ascwis occurs at
(A) Posterior end
(B) Middle of body
(C) Behind the anterior end
(D) Near the posterior end.
A distinct genital aperture is present in Ascaris
(A) Male behind the excretory pore
(B) Female near the anus
(C) Female behind the excretory pore
(D) Male near the posterior end.
Anus lies in Ascaris at
(A) Tip of tail
(B) In front of posterior end
(C) Just near the excretory pore
(D) In the middle of body.
In male Ascaris, anus is
(A) Absent
(B) Replaced by gonopore
(C) Replaced by cloaca
(D) None of the above.
Ascaris juveniles cause
(A) Appendicitis
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Hepatitis and brain damage
(D) All the above.
Ascaris disturbs digestion of host by
(A) Feeding on digested food
(B) Injuring intestinal wall
(C) Secretion of anti-enzymes
(D) Both A and B.
A free living roundworm is
(A) Strongyloides
(B) Rhabditis
(C) Loa
(D) All the above.
Revision Questions
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
(A) Mucus
(B) Antienzymes
(C) Antienzymes and cuticle (D) Cuticle
Musculature of Ascaris consists of
(A) Circular muscles only
(B) Outer longitudinal and inner circular
(C) Outer circular and inner longitudinal
(D) Longitudinal muscles only.
Rhabditoid/rhabditiform larva occurs in life cycle of
(A) Liver fluke
(B) Ascaris
(C) Tapeworm
(D) Planaria
Which is true of Ascaris?
(A) HOst
(B) Aquatic
(C) Unisexual
(D) Bisexual.
Roundworms differ from flatworms in possessing
(A) Flame cells
(B) Pseudocoelom
(C) Segmented body
(D) Production of antienzymes.
Amiphids present on ventrolateral lips of Ascaris are
(A) Chemoreceptors (B) Olfactoreceptors (C) Tactoreceptors
(D) Gustatoreceptors.
During its journey through the body, the juvenile Ascaris passes through
(A) Spleen
(B) Kidney
(C) Skeletal muscles (D) Lung
Alcopar is drug useful for
(A) Taeniasis
(B) Amoebiasis
(C) Ascariasis
(D) Schistosomiasis.
Give the correct matching of causative agent/germ and disease
(A) Anopheles Malaria S
(B) Leishmania Sleeping Sickness
(C) Glossina Kala-azar
(D) Wuchereria Filariasis
Cyclops is intermediate host of
(A) Planaria/Dugesia (B) Echinococcus
(C) Drancunculus
(D) Ancylostoma.
Filariasis is caused by
(A) Wuchereria
(B) Culex
(C) Trichinella
(D) Schistosoma.
Microfilariae are carried by
(A) Sandfly
(B) Culex mosquito (C) Anopheles mosquito (D) Housefly
The first and last moults of Ascans occur in
(A) Heart
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
(D) Intestine.
Which one is used in treatment of ascariasis?
(A) Chenopodiuin oil (B) Paludrin
(C) Terramycin
(D) None of the above.
Pseudocoel occurs in
(A) Hydra
(B) Ascaris
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm.
A thick layer of cuticle on the surface of Ascaris indicates
(A) Reproduction
(B) Growth
(C) Parasitism
(D) Evolution.
Embryonated egg of Ascaris is
(A) An egg with gastrula
(B) An egg with blastula
(C) An egg with juvenile
(D) An egg within an egg
Infective stage of Ascaris is
(A) Adult worm
(B) Second juvenile (C) Fourth juvenile
(D) Egg
Sensory structures in Ascaris are
(A) Phasmids
(B) Aniphids
(C) Papiilae
(D) All the above.
Excretory pores present in Ascaris are
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) One pair
(D) Two pairs.
In humans, elephantiasis is caused by
(A) Ascaris lumbicoides
(B) Dracunculus medinensis
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti
(D) Ancylostoma duodenale
The study of worms causing parasitic infestation in humans is
(A) Helminthology (B) Ichthyology
(C) Malacology
(D) Herpetology
Which is secondary/intermediate host of Hookworm?
(A) Bed Bug
(B) Sandfly
(C) Mosquito
(D) None of the above.
Filaria is transmitted through/secondary host of Wuchereria is
(A) Anopheles
(B) Culex
(C) Tse-tse fly
(D) Sandfly
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
Filariform is larva of
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes
(C) Annelids
(D) Arthropods.
Filariasis is due to
(A) Virus
(B) Protozoan
(C) Bacterium
(D) Helminth.
Filariasis is due to infection of
(A) Nematode worm (B) Leech
(C) Bed Bug
(D) Flea.
One of the following is pseudocoelomate
(A) Leech
(B) Liver fluke
(C) Hookworm
(D) Jelly fish.
An ovoviviparous parasite is
(A) Taenia
(B) Wucherena
(C) Ascaris
(D) Plasmodium.
Animal group with pseudocoelom is
(A) Echinoderms
(B) Molluscs
(C) Aschelminthes/Nematodes (D) Annelids.
Pseudocoelom develops from
(A) Blastopore lip
(B) Archenteron
(C) Embryonic mesoderm (D) Blastocoel
Ascaris lumbricoides is commonly called
(A) Roundworm
(B) Hookworm
(C) Seat worm
(D) Pinworm (E) Filarial worm.
Third moulting of Ascaris occurs in
(A) Liver
(B) Egg
(C) Lung
(D Intestine.
Differentiating trait of Ascaris is
(A) Sexual dimorphism and rhabditiform larva
(B) Unisexual and digenetic parasite
(C) Pseudocoelom and metameric segmentation
(D) Hermaphrodite and pseudocoelon
Adult Wuchereria bancrofti attacks
(A) Nervous system (B) Lymph vessels
(C) Muscular system (D) Blood vessels.
Sites of first, second and third moulting of Ascaris larva are
(A) Soil, lung, intestine
(B) Soil, alveoli, lung
(C) Soil, intestine, lung
(D) Liver, stomach, intestine.
Which of the following penetrates through skin and enters the intestine
(A) Ascaris
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Hookworm
(D) Entainoeba.
Filaria Worm is
(A) Wuchereria boncrofti
(B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Echinococcus
(D) Ancylosloma duodenale
Find out the correct match
(A) Amoeba proteus Kala-azar
(B) Leishmania donovuni-Sleeping sickness
(C) Wuchereria bancrofti Filariasis
(D) Culex Malaria
Given below are reason and assertion. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is
wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Tapeworm, Roundworm and Pinworm are
endoparasites of human intestine. Reason. Improperly cooked food is source of all intestinal
infections.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Choose the correct statement regarding Ascaris
(A) Hatching of embryo takes place within 10 hours.
(B) Development and moulting takes place in alveoli of lungs
(C) Flatching of embryo takes place in stomach due to lyric enzymes
(D) Adulthood is reached within body of host in 10 days.
Which one requires intermediate host
1. Dugesia
2. Schistosoma 3. Echinococcus 4. Ancylostoma 5. Wucherena.
(A) 3,4
(B) 3,5
(C) 1,4
(D) 2,5
Cuticle of Ascaris is secreted by
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
(A) Syncytium
(B) Muscle layer
(C) Epufermis
(D) None of the above.
In Ascaris, male is different from female in
(A) Presence of suckers
(B) Elongated body
(C) Tapering tail with penial spicules
(D) Curved tail with penial spicules.
Elephantiasis is caused by a member of
(A) Ascbelminthes (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelida
(D) Arthropoda.
Ascaris occurs in
(A) Stomach
(B) Intestine
(C) Rectum
(D) Urinary bladder.
Ascaris infection is common in
(A) Men
(B) Women
(C) Children
(D) Both A and B.
Wuchereria occurs in
(A) Lungs
(B) Lymph nodes
(C) Eyes
(D) Gonads.
Wuchereria bancrofti belongs to phylum
(A) Nemathelminthes (B) Platyhelininthes (C) Nematoda
(D) Coelenterata.
The parasite that completes its life cycle in one host is
(A) Fasciola hepa.tica
(B) Ascaris lumbricoides
(C) Plasmodium vivax
(D) Taenia solium
Abnormalities in host associated with Wuchereria, Plasmodium and Fasciola respectively are
(A) Parasitic castration
(b) Hyperplasia
(c) Febrile paroxysm
(d) Peritonitis (e) Lymphangitis. The correct match is
(A)e,c,b
(B)e,c,d
(C)b,4e
(D)c,4b.
Ascaris is characterised by
(A) Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
(B) Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
(C) Presence of true coelom and metamerism
(D) Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
Filariasis is caused by
(A) Dead adult fzlariae
(B) Presence of bacteria in filarial wall
(C) Microfilariae
(D) Biting of filarial worm
A parasitic disease which is not transmitted through the bite of an insect is
(A) Filariasis
(B) Leishmaniasis
(C) Malaria
(D) Ascariasis.
ANSWER KEY
1) C
2) D
3) B
11)
21)
31)
41)
51)
61)
71)
81)
91)
101)
111)
121)
131)
141)
13)
23)
33)
43)
53)
63)
73)
83)
93)
103)
113)
123)
133)
143)
C
B
C
C
B
C
D
D
B
B
C
C
C
C
12)
22)
32)
42)
52)
62)
72)
82)
92)
102)
112)
122)
132)
142)
C
A
C
C
D
A
B
B
C
B
D
B
D
A
4) D
B
B
A
D
C
D
C
A
D
C
C
D
B
D
14)
24)
34)
44)
54)
64)
74)
84)
94)
104)
114)
124)
134)
144)
5) A
C
C
D
D
B
C
A
D
C
C
A
A
A
B
15)
25)
35)
45)
55)
65)
75)
85)
95)
105)
115)
125)
135)
145)
6) A
B
B
A
C
A
D
A
C
B
D
B
C
A
B
16)
26)
36)
46)
56)
66)
76)
86)
96)
106)
116)
126)
136)
146)
7) C
C
B
B
C
B
B
C
B
B
B
D
A
D
D
17)
27)
37)
47)
57)
67)
77)
87)
97)
107)
117)
127)
137)
147)
8) C
A
A
D
C
D
B
B
C
A
C
A
D
B
C
18)
28)
38)
48)
58)
68)
78)
88)
98)
108)
118)
128)
138)
148)
9) C
B
D
D
B
C
A
D
D
D
B
B
B
A
B
19)
29)
39)
49)
59)
69)
79)
89)
99)
109)
119)
129)
139)
149)
B
B
B
C
B
C
C
C
D
B
B
C
D
C
10)
20)
30)
40)
50)
60)
70)
80)
90)
100)
110)
120)
130)
140)
150)
A
D
B
A
A
C
D
C
D
D
C
A
B
B
154) B
164) C
174) A
155)
165)
175)
C 156)
C 166)
B 176)
D 157) A
B 167) D
A 177) B
158) C
168) C
178) C
159) A 160) B
169) D 170) A
179) D
Phylum-Annelida
1.
The unique characteristic of annelida is
(A) Coelom
(B) Nephridia
(C) Hermaprodite (D) Alimentary canal is complete.
2.
The common larva of polychaeta/annelida is
(A) Trochophore
(B) Actinotrocha
(C) Glochidiuni
(D) Tornaria.
3.
Name any annelid. which is dioecious
(A) Pheretirna
(B) Eisenia
(C) Nereis
(D) Lumbricus.
4.
The number of segments in Hirudinaria is
(A) 105
(B) 53
(C) 33
(D) 23.
5.
Annelids are
(A) Flatworms
(B) Roundworms
(C) 6-legged invertebrates (D) Segmented worms.
6.
Locomotion occurs in Sandworm or Nereis through
(A) Chaetae
(B) Setae
(C) Legs
(D) Parapodia.
7.
A trait common in Leech and Mosquito is
(A) Anticoagulants
(B) Abundant asexual reproduction
(C) Cellular level of organization
(D) Absence of sexual phase.
8.
The major characteristic of phylum Annelida is
(A) Flame cells
(B) Metameric segmentation
(C) Botryoidal tissue
(D) Trochophore larva.
9.
The first segment of annelids is
(A) Prostomium
(B) Peristomium
(C) Prestomiuin
(D) Poststomium.
10.
Blood pigment of annelids is
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Cyanin
(C) Haemanin
(D) Haemocyanin.
11.
Hirudinaria is
(A) Omnivorous
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Sanguivorus.
12.
Body cavity of annelids/Nereis is
(A) Schizocoel
(B) Enterocoel
(C) Pseudocoel
(D) None of the above
13.
Nereis is
(A) Carnivorous
(B) Herbivorous
(C) Sanguivorous
(D) Parasitic.
14.
Heteronereis is
(A) Member of Hirudinea
(B) Fresh water annelid
(C) Sexual phase of Nereis
(D) Sanguivorous animal.
15.
Hirudinaria is
(A) Marine aquatic (B) Terrestrial anneid (C) Endoparasite
(D) Ectoparasite.
16.
What is true of Hirudinwia
(A) It has a cephalic sucker
(B) Mouth is triradiate
(C) Segments are superficially subdivided (D) All the above.
17.
A temporary ditellum occurs during the breeding season in
(A) Pheretima
(B) Heteronereis
(C) Hirudinwia
(D) Aphmdite.
18.
Leech does not allow blood clotting by
(A) Heparin
(B) Thromboplastin (C) Hirudin
(D) Haemophiliac factor.
19.
The incorrect classification is
(A) Polychaeta Nereis
(B) Archiannelida Polygordius
(C) Polychaeta Hirudinaria
(D) Oligochaeta Pheretima.
20.
The segmental appendages of Nereis are
(A) Tentacles
(B) Setae
(C) Suckers
(D) Parapodia.
21.
Number of eyes present on the prostomiuxn of Nereis is
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) One.
22.
Last segment of Nereis bears
(A) Tentacles
(B) Parapodia
(C) Anal cirri
(D) Penial spicules.
23.
Metameric segmentation is
(A) External segmentation corresponding to internal segmentation
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25.
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27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
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33.
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42.
Revision Questions
43.
Leech is
(A) Carnivorous
(B) Sanguivorous
(C) Ectoparasite
(D) Both B and C.
44.
True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution of
(A) Aschelminthes (B) Chordata
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Annelida.
45.
The main function of ditelluni is
(A) Coccon formation (B) Locomotion
(C) Excretion
(D) Copulation.
46.
Coelom filled with muscular and connective tissues or botryoidal tissue occurs in
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(A) Ascaris
(B) Nereis
(C) Pheretima
(D) Hirud.
Suctorial mouth occurs in
(A) Butterfly
(B) Leech
(C) Taenia
(D) Cockroach.
Which one assists in locomotion
(A) Trichocysts in Paramecium
(B) Pedicellariae of Star Fish
(C) Clitellum in Pheretima
(D) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria.
Trait common amongst Earthworm, Leech and Centipede is
(A) Absence of legs
(B) Hermaphrodite nature
(C) Ventral nerve cord(D) Malpighian tubules
Metainerism is characteristic of phylum
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida
(C) Porifera
(D) Mollusca
Name the animal having both setae and nephridia
(A) Sea Urchin
(B) Sea Mouse
(C) Sea Anemone
(D) Sea Pen.
Nereis belongs to
(A) Mollusca
(B) Arthropoda
(C) Echinodermata
(D) Annelida.
Animals having multiple or numerous setae are included under
(A) Polychaeta
(B) Oligochaeta
(C) Hirudinea
(D) Onychophora
Which one exhibits concentric tube-within- tube plan?
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Oligochaeta/Earthworm
(C) Mollusca
(D) Echinodermata.
Which one is not deuterostome
(A) Protochordata
(B) Cephalochordata (C) Annelida
(D) Echinodermata.
Annelida is advanced over nematoda in having
(A) Closed circulation
(B) Metameric segmentation
(C) True coelom
(D) All the above.
A mismatch is
(A) Odd toe Horse
(B) Pheretima parapodia
(C) Hydra Cnidaria
(D) Cartilaginous Fish Shark.
Leeches are
(A) Phytophagous animals
(B) Blood sucking animals
(C) Insectivorous animals
(D) Soil eating animals.
In Earthworm, neurons are
(A) Sensory
(B) Motor
(C) Both A and B
(D) Mixed.
Animals with metameric segmentation, bilateral symmetry and closed circulatory system belong
to phylum
(A) Annelida
(B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda
(D) Mollusca.
External segmentation is absent but internal segmentation is present in
(A) Polychaeta
(B) Oligochaeta
(C) Archiannelida
(D) Hirudinea.
Bilateral symmetry, blastopore mouth and true coelom occur in
(A) Echinodermata (B) Chordata
(C) Annelida
(D) Platyhelminthes.
Which one is correct
(A) Flatworms are eucoelomates
(B) Fishes are radially symmetrical
(C) Birds are poikilothermic
(D) Earthworm is metamerically segmented.
Pick up the mismatched
(A) AnnelidaHydra
(B) Nemathelminthes Ascaris
(C) Arthropoda Cockroach
(D) Echinodermata Starfish.
Sea Mouse belongs to phylum
(A) Chordata
(B) Mollusca
(C) Annelida
(D) Echinodermata.
Heart to pump blood evolved for the first time in
(A) Annelids
(B) Arthropods
(C) Roundworms
(D) Flatworms.
A feature absent in annelids is
(A) Clitellum
(B) Pseudocoelom
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(B)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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52.
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72.
(A)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(D)
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
(C)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(D)
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
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74.
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(A)
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
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75.
(D)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
6. (D)
16. (D)
26. (A)
36. (B)
46. (D)
56. (D)
66. (A)
76. (D)
7. (A)
17. (C)
27. (D)
37. (A)
47. (B)
57. (B)
67. (B)
8. (B)
18. (C)
28. (A)
38. (B)
48. (D)
58. (B)
68. (D)
9. (B)
19. (C)
29. (C)
39. (C)
49. (C)
59. (C)
69. (D)
10. (A)
20. (D)
30. (B)
40. (D)
50. (B)
60. (A)
70. (A)
Phylum-Arthropoda
1.
Cyclops is
(A) Terrestrial free living chilopod
(B) Aquatic free living crustacean
(C) Cursorial arachnid
(D) Aquatic insect.
.2.
Cyclops differs from Daphnia in
(A) Having green colouration
(B) Absence of heart
(C) Absence of carapace
(D) All the above.
3.
Walking Worm is
(A) Hermit Crab
(B) Millipede
(C) Peripatus
(D) Scylla serrata.
4.
Trilobites are
(A) Extinct arthropods
(B) Connecting link between annelids and molluscs
(C) Living fossils
(D) Insects.
5.
An arthropod having unjointed legs is
(A) Limulus
(B) Peripatus
(C) Eupagurus
(D) Millipede.
6.
Daphnia resembles aphids in
(A) Parasitic mode of living
(B) Aquatic habitat
(C) Presence of carapace
(D) Parthenogenesis for a few generations.
7.
Stink glands occur in
(A) Julus
(B) Scolopendra
(C) Palwnnaeus
(D) Paratelphusa.
8.
A characteristic feature of scorpions is
(A) 4 pairs of walking legs
(B) Vivipary
(C) Chelicerae
(D) Pedipalpi.
9.
In hypermetamorphosis, there are
(A) Several larval moultings
(B) More than one pupal stage
(C) Several larval stages showing different structure and habits
(D) Several types of larvae.
10.
Lepisma is
(A) Stick Insect
(B) Leaf Insect
(C) Praying Mantis
(D) Silver Fish.
11.
Praying Mantis is
(A) Herbivorous
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Saprozoic
(D) Coprophagous.
12.
Walking Stick is a
(A) Chilopod
(B) Diplopod
(C) Crustacean
(D) Insect.
13.
Naiads are
(A) Nymphs of Locust
(B) Nymphs of Grasshopper
(C) Nymphs of Dragonfly
(D) All the above.
14.
Eggs of Pediculus are
(A) Nits .
(B) Tumblers
(C) Nalads
(D) Instars.
15.
Complete metamorphosis occurs in
(A) Moth
(B) Grasshopper
(C) Bed Bug
(D) Silver Fish.
16.
Human Louse is
(A) Lepisma
(B) Pediculus
(C) Cimex
(D) Xenop.sylla.
17.
Plant lice are
(A) Locusts
(B) Ticks and Mites (C) Aphids
(D) Plant Bugs.
18.
Ticks and Mites belongs to
(A) Insecta
(B) Crustacea
(C) Diplopoda
(D) Arachnida.
19.
Scabies is due to
(A) Ticks
(B) Itch Mite
(C) Maggots
(D) Fungal infection.
20.
Worker termites are
(A) Wingless
(B) Sterile
(C) Blind
(D) All the above.
21.
Which social insect produces the biggest colony
(A) Bees
(B) Ant
(C) Termites
(D) Wasps.
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106.
(A) Anopheles
(B) Musca
(C) Dragon flies
(D) Butter flies.
Eggs of Anopheles are
(A) Singly laid with air floats
(B) Singly laid without air floats
(C) Laid in groups with float
(D) Laid in groups without float.
Aquatic larva of mosquitoes is popularly called
(A) Maggot
(B) Grub
(C) Wriggler
(D) Naiad.
Vector insects are which
(A) Spread disease (B) Destroy crop
(C) Spoil soil
(D) Act as scavengers.
Anopheles eggs are
(A) Rounded without floats
(B) Boat-shaped with floats
(C) Rounded with floats
(D) Boat-shaped without floats.
The most economic insect is
(A) Silver fish
(B) Desert locust
(C) Bonzbyx mon
(D) Dragon fly.
The home of white ant is known as
(A) Mole hill
(B) Hive
(C) Termitarium
(D) Sanatorium.
Rice bug emits unpleasant odour from its scent glands located in
(A) Thorax
(B) Head
(C) Abdomen
(D) Legs.
Paddy bug attacks Rice plants
(A) In seedling stage (B) Milk grain stage (C) Ripe grain stage
(D) All the above.
During non-paddy season, Rice bug subsists on
(A) Grass
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Maize or Sorghum (D) All the above.
Leptocorisa varicornis has mouth parts
(A) Cutting and chewing
(B) Piercing and sucking
(C) Sponging
(D) Siphoning.
Balanus differs from Lepus in being
(A) Sessile
(B) Stalked
(C) Absence of cement glands
(D) Absence of mantle.
Cement glands of Lepus and Balanus open over
(A) Antennules
(B) Antennae
(C) Maxillae
(D) Maxillules.
Barnacles feed on
(A) Other crustaceans (B) Worms
(C) Microorganisms
(D) All types of animals.
Barnacles are pests of
(A) Crop plants
(B) Fruit trees
(C) Marine plants
(D) Ships and hard shelled animals.
Squilla is a
(A) Arachnid
(B) Crustacean
(C) Chilopod
(D) Insect.
In Squilla, respiration occurs through
(A) Book lungs
(B) Tracheae
(C) Gills
(D) Book gills.
Triops/Apus is
(A) Marine crustacean
(B) Fresh water crutacean
(C) Fresh water arachnid
(D) Terrestrial arachnid.
Which one is Tadpole Shrimp (Tadpole Fish)?
(A) Lepus
(B) Squilla
(C) Balanus
(D) Triops.
Triops commonly multiplies through
(A) Sexually
(B) Asexually
(C) Parthenogenetically (D) All the above.
Revision Questions
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(C) Louse/Pediculus
(D) Mosquito/Aedes.
An insect differs from spider in having
(A) 3 pairs of legs and 2 pairs of wings instead of 4 pairs of legs and no wings
(B) 3 pairs of legs and 2 pairs of wings instead of 3 pairs of legs and no wings
(C) 3 pairs of legs and no wings instead of 5 pairs of legs and generally one pair of wings
(D) 6 pairs of legs and one pair of wings instead of 4 pairs of legs and no wings.
Haemocoel is found in
(A) Hydra
(B) Sponge
(C) Earthworm
(D) Scolopedra.
Complete metamorphosis is observed in
(A) Silver Fish
(B) Gypsy Moth
(C) Bed Bug
(D) Grasshopper.
Basic unit in the eye of Cockroach/insect is
(A) Retina
(B) Rhabdome
(C) Corneal facet
(D) Ommatidium.
Mosquito sitting at an acute angle is
(A) Anopheles
(B) Cule.r
(C) Aedes
(D) Psorophora.
Lac is a product of
(A) Faecal matter
(B) Secretion from body
(C) Excretion from body
(D) Excess food oozing out of the body.
A character common amongst Centipede, Spider and Cockroach is
(A) Book lungs
(B) Green glands
(C) Compound eyes
(D) Jointed legs.
Structure common between Earthworm and Cockroach is.
(A) Cocoon
(B) Ommatidja
(C) Dorsal nerve cord (D) Ventral nerve cord.
Blood does nOt transport oxygen due to absence of respiratory pigment in
(A) Cockroach
(B) Earthworm
(C) Frog
(D) Rabbit.
Anopheles eggs float in water due to
(A) Egg raft
(B) Yolk
(C) Air float
(D) All the above.
In arthropods the body cavity is called
(A) Enteron
(B) Pseudocoel
(C) Haemocoel
(D) Coelom.
Peripatus is connecting link between
(A) Annelida and Arthropoda
(B) Mollusca and Arthropoda .
(C) Annelida and Mollusca
(D) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes.
Mouth parts of a butterfly are of type
(A) Spongng
(B) Siphoning
(C) Piercing and sucking (D) Chewing and sucking.
A characteristic common to Cockroach, Housefly and Mosquito is
(A) Three pairs of legs
(B) Sucking mouth parts
(C) Long antennae
(D) Two pairs of wings
Set of useful insects is
(A) Wasp, Anopheles and Bed Bug
(B) Bed Bug, Silk Moth and Anopheles
(C) Honey Bee, Bed Bug and Locust
(0) Cochineal Insect, Lac Insect and Honey Bee.
In Housefly the larva lives in
(A) Water
(B) Muddy soil
(C) Dung
(D) Vegetation.
Matching pair of vector and disease is
(A) SandfiyPlague
(B) Culex Pilariasis/Elephantiasis
(C) Body Louse :_Typhoid
(D) Housefly Yellow Fever.
Filaria, Malaria, Dengue, Sleeping Sickness and Yellow Fever are due to
(A) Insects
(B) Mosquitoes
(C) Bacteria
(D) Viruses.
An insect without pupa stage is
(A) Mosquito
(B) Silk Moth
(C) Bed Bug
(D) Butterfly
Silk thread is obtained from Silk Moth during
(A) Pupal state
(B) Larval state
(C) Nymph state
(D) Adult state.
An important feature of Arthropoda is
(A) Exoskeleton
(B) Antennae
(C) Jointed legs
(D) Tracheal respiration.
Young fully formed Housefly/Mosquito is known as
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(A) Maggot
(B) Caterpillar
(C) Nymph
(D) Imago.
Which is not exclusive trait of Arthropoda
(A) Presence of wings(B) Jointed appendages(C) Hacosocoel
(D) Chitinous exoskeleton.
Natural parthenogenesis is found in
(A) Pheretima
(B) Frog
(C) Star Fish
(D) Honey Bee.
Casting off of old skeleton during growth of an animal is
(A) Skinning
(B) Moulting
(C) Ecdysis
(D) Both B and C.
Fish which can be used in biological control of mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is
(A) Eel
(B) Carp
(C) Cat Fish
(D) Gambusia,.
A queen Honey Bee lays eggs of
(A) One type from which all caste$ develop
(B) Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones
(C) Three types forming queen, drone and workers
(D) Unfertilised eggs die while fertilised ones form all castes
Bee dances are meant for
(A) Courtship
(B) Communication (C) Recreation
(D) Instinct.
Ecdysone/moulting hormone is produced by
(A) Prothoracic gland (B) Corpora allata
(C) Corpora cardiaca (D) Abdominal gland.
Johnstons organ is found in
(A) Antenna of Mosquito
(B) Head of Cockroach
(C) Abdomen of Housefly
(D) Abdomen of Spider.
Mouth parts of Housefly are of
(A) Sponging
(B) Siphoning
(C) Piercing and sucking (D) Biting and chewing.
Which disease is spread by Housefly
(A) Dengue fever
(B) Encephalitis
(C) Filariasis
(D) Gangrene.
Haltcrcs in Mosquitoes and Housefly develop from
(A) Prothorax
(B) Metathorax
(C) Mesothorax
(D) Head.
Mouth parts of Mosquito are of
(A) Siphoning type
(B) Piercing and sucking type
(C) Sponging type
(D) Cutting and chewing.
Mouth parts of Cockroach are of
(A) Piercing and sucking
(B) Sucking and siphoning
(C) Cutting and biting type
(D) Sucking and rasping.
In insects, oxygen is carried to different tissues by
(A) Diffusion through surface
(B) Tracheal tubes
(C) Respiratory pigment through blood
(D) Gills
Anal cerci occur in
(A) Both male and female cockroaches
(B) Male Cockroach
(C) Female Cockroach
(D) Female Ascaris
The order of metamorphosis in Housefly is
(A) Egg, nymph, pupa and adult
(B) Egg, larva, nymph and adult
(C) Egg, larva, pupa and adult
(D) Egg, pupa, larva and adult
Housefly transmits all the diseases except
(A) Cholera
(B) Dysentery
(C) Yellow fever
(D) Typhoid.
Hormone produced by corpora allata in insects is
(A) Growth hormone (B) Moulting hormone (C) Inhibiting hormone(D) Juvenile hormone.
Silver Fish, Lepisma, is
(A) Mammal
(B) Insect/Arthropod (C) Fish
(D) Echinoderm
Rearing of silkworm is/Silk industry is related to
(A) Apiculture
(B) Pisciculture
(C) Sericulture
(D) Horticulture.
In hot summer and cold winter, the number of malaria cases as well as Anopheles declines.
Reappearance of malaria in humid warm conditions is due to
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(A) Proboscis
(B) Wings
(C) Antennae
(D) Size
Spiders and Scorpions belong to class
(A) Arachnida
(B) Anthozoa
(C) Crustacea
(D) Onychophora.
Tracheae of Cockroach and Mammal are similar in having
(A) Paried nature
(B) Noncollapsible walls
(C) Ciliated inner lining
(D) Origin from head
Out of pneumonia, gangrene, yellow fever, dengue fever, malaria and elephantiasis, mosquitoes
transmit diseases
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2.
Joisted appendages are characteristic of phytem
(A) Ethinodermata (B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Arthropoda.
PuPa occurs in the life cycle of
(A) Cockroach
(B) Housefly
(C) Blatta
(D) Earthworm.
Vestigial wings occur in
(A) Housefly
(B) Mosquito
(C) Blatta
(D) Peviptaneta.
Insects excrete nitrogen as
(A) Uric acid
(B) Guanine
(C) Urea
(D) Ammonia.
Which part of Cockroach has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton
(A) Head
(B) Thorax
(C) Abdomen
(D) All the above.
In Cockroach, wings are absent from
(A) Prothorax
(B) Mesothorax
(C) Metathorax
(D) None of the above.
Young one of Cockroach is called
(A) Maggot
(B) Nymph
(C) Ephyra
(D) Pupa.
The first animals to fly were
(A) Mammals
(B) Lizards
(C) Birds
(D) Insects.
Common House Fly (Musca nebulo) lays eggs on
(A) Cow/Horse dung (B) Stagnant water (C) Hanging ropes
(D) Open meats and sweets.
Which is a connecting link
(A) Limulus
(B) Penpatus
(C) Penptan eta
(D) Pita
Which is nonpoisonous
(A) Scorpion
(B) Centipede
(C) Crab
(D) Spider.
Pollen basket occurs in Honey Bee on
(A) Prothoracic leg
(B) Mesothoracic leg
(C) Metathoracic leg
(D) Union of thorax and abdomen.
In Honey Bee, barbiess sting occurs in
(A) Workers
(B) Queen Bee
(C) Drone
(D) In all the three.
Which one is a tracheate group
(A) King Crab Scorpion Housefly
(B) Crab Centipede Cockroach
(C) Spider Peripatus Mosquito
(D) Bed BugSandflySilkworm.
In which bee, the wax glands are present
(A) Workers
(B) Drone
(C) Queen Bee
(D) Both Queen and Worker bees
Filaria is spread by
(A) Bed Bug
(B) Mosquito
(C) Housefly
(D) Flea.
Which is common amongst Fly, Mosquito and Cockroach?
(A) Open excretory system
(B) Two pairs of wings
(C) All belong to class insecta
(D) 13-chambered heart
Arrhenotoky is parthenogenetic develop ment found in
(A) All insects
(B) Mosquitoes
(C) Butterifies
(D) Honey Bees, Wasps and Ants.
Sandfly is
(A) Ancyclostoma
(B) Musca
(C) Phiebotomus
(D) Drosophila.
194.
195.
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Coloumn I
Column II
a) Ommatidia
(i) Articulation with thorax
b) Trochanter
(ii) For vision
c) Coxa
(iii) Forming oxoskeleton
d) Selerites
(iv) Fused with large and stout femur
(A) a (iv) b (iii) c (i) d (ii)
(B) a (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv)
(C) a (ii) b (iv) c (i) d (iii)
(D) a(iii) b(i) c(ii) d(iv)
Acarology is study of
(A) Coral reefs
(B) Mullusca
(C) Fossils
(D) Ticks and Mites
Peritrophic membrane is secreted in Cockroach by
(A) Tracheal tubes
(B) Mesenteron
(C) Brood pouch
(D) Salivary glands
In Cockroach, glands present between 5th and 6th abdominal segments are
(A) Blood
B) Pharyngeal
(C) Salivary
(D) Stink.
Complete metamorphosis occurs in
(A) Housefly and Cockroach
(B) Mosquito and Cockroach
(C) Housefly and Mosquito
(D) Cockroach and Locust.
Organ of mastication of Cockroach is
(A) Mandibles
(B) Maxilla
(C) Labium
(D) Labrum.
What is common between Earthworm and Cockroach
(A) Nephridia
(B) Solid ventral nerve cord
(C) Cuticle
(D) Malpighian tubules
Which is an insect
(A) Mites
(B) Prawn
(C) Moth
(D) Scorpion.
Choose the correct match
(A) Housefly yellow fever
(B) Body Louse typhoid
(C) Aedes plague
(D) Anopheles malaria
One of the following respires by gills
(A) Prawn
(B) Crocodile
(C) Whale
(D) Frog.
Insect is distinguishable from crustacean by
(A) Number of eyes
(B) Arrangement of nerve cords
(C) Number of appendages
(D) Presence of wings
Chitin occurs in
(A) Coelenterata
(B) Arthropoda
(C) Mollusca
(D) Porifera.
Immature stage of housefly is
(A) Caterpillar
(B) Nymph
(C) Grub
(D) Maggot.
Silver Fish belongs to
(A) Insecta
(B) Mollusca
(C) Chordata
(D) Echinodermata.
Which one does not occur in Cockroach leg?
(A) Tibia
(B) Femur
(C) Fibula
(D) Coxa
Comma-shaped stage in the life cycle of Mosquito is
(A) Larval stage
(B) Pupal stage
(C) Imago stage
(D) None of the above.
Wriggler is larva of
(A) Butterfly
(B) Housefly
(C) Mosquito
(D) Cockroach.
Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibijs?
(A) Pheretima Sexual dimorphism
(B) Musca Complete metamorphosis
(C) Chamaeleon Mimicry
(D) Taenia Polymorphism.
Insects having piercing and sucking mouth parts are
(A) Butterflies
(B) Aphids
(C) Houseflies
(D) Fruitflies.
Butterflies belong to class
(A) Lepidoptera
(B) Coleoptera
(C) Insecta
(D) Arachnida.
Which one produces honey?
(A) Born byx mon
(B) Antheraea paphia (C) Apis indica
(D) Kerria lacca
316.
317.
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365.
366.
367.
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369.
370.
371.
372.
(A) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton (B) Green glands and tracheae
(C) Book lungs and antennae
(D) Compound eyes and anal cerci.
Insects belong to class
(A) Crustacea
(B) Arachnida
(C) Insecta
(D) Gastropoda.
Which one is related to Cockroach?
(A) Nephridia
(B) Malpighian tubules
(C) Chioragogen cells
(D) Flame cells
Which one is absent in mouth parts of Housefly?
(A) Labrum
(B) Epipharynx
(C) Maxillary palps
(D) Mandibles.
Caterpillar and maggot are
(A) Larvae
(B) Nymphs
(C) Pupae
(D) Adults.
Larva of Mosquito is
(A) Caterpillar
(B) Maggot
(C) Grub
(D) None of the above.
Changes involving conversion of larva into adult are
(A) Metastasis
(B) Metamorphosis
(C) Metagenesis V
(D) Alternation of generations.
Which one is correctly matched
(A) Apiculture Honey Bee
(B) Piseiculture Silk Moth
(C) Sericulture Fish
(D) Aquaculture Mosquito
Daphnia is
(A) Water Flea
(B) Tadpole Shrimp (C) Fairy Shrimp
(D) Clam Shrimp
Mosquito takes in air through
(A) Pedicel
(B) Flagellum
(C) Cilia
(D) None of the above.
Lady Bird Beetle is
(A) Bird
(B) Insect
(C) Worm
(D) Reptile.
Cray fish belongs to
(A) Sponges
(B) Bird
(C) Pisces
(D) Arthropoda.
Largest number of species occurs in the phylum
(A) Annelida
(B) Echinodermata (C) Arthropoda
(D) Coeleuterata.
What is the true about Neries, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver Fish
(A) All possesss dorsal heart
(B) None is aquatic
(C) They belong to same phylum
(D) They have jointed paired appendages.
Which one shows polymorphism
(A) Honey Bee
(B) Cockroach
(C) Earthworm
(D) Frog.
Swarming of Bees is
(A) Nuptial flight
(B) Defence against predator
(C) Movement to a new place
(D) Response to food shortage
Chitnous cuticle forms exoskeleton in
(A) Annelida
(B) Echinodermata (C) Porifera
(D) Arthropoda.
Honey Bee belongs to
(A) Apis
(B) Daphnia
(C) Leptocorisa
(D) Limulus
Common name of paddy pest Leptocorisa is
(A). Silver fish
(B) Water flea
(C) Gandhi Poka
(D) Cray fish.
Respiratory organs of silkworm are
(A) Lungs
(B) Tracheae
(C) Malpighian tubules (D) Skin
Food plant of Antheraea assama is
(A) Terininalia arjuna
(B) Ricinus cummunis
(C) Euphorbia puicherima
(D) Machilus bombycina.
Green gland is excretory organ of
(A) Prawn
(B) Snail
(C) Butterfly
(D) Earthworm.
Name the protozoan disease of Mulberry silkworm
(A) Flacheri
(B) Grasseri
(C) Pebrina
(D) Muscardine.
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
378.
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
386.
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
392.
393.
394.
ANSWER KEY
1) B
2) D
3) C
11)
21)
31)
41)
51)
61)
71)
81)
91)
101)
111)
121)
131)
141)
151)
161)
171)
181)
191)
201)
211)
221)
231)
241)
251)
261)
271)
281)
291)
13)
23)
33)
43)
53)
63)
73)
83)
93)
103)
113)
123)
133)
143)
153)
163)
173)
183)
193)
203)
213)
223)
233)
243)
253)
263)
273)
283)
293)
B
C
C
C
D
B
B
D
B
D
B
B
A
B
C
A
C
B
C
A
D
C
B
C
B
D
A
A
B
12)
22)
32)
42)
52)
62)
72)
82)
92)
102)
112)
122)
132)
142)
152)
162)
172)
182)
192)
202)
212)
222)
232)
242)
252)
262)
272)
282)
292)
D
D
C
B
D
D
B
B
C
B
D
A
D
B
A
C
A
D
D
B
A
A
C
D
C
A
B
B
D
4) A
C
B
C
B
A
C
C
B
C
C
A
D
D
C
D
C
B
A
C
C
B
A
D
B
A
B
B
C
A
14)
24)
34)
44)
54)
64)
74)
84)
94)
104)
114)
124)
134)
144)
154)
164)
174)
184)
194)
204)
214)
224)
234)
244)
254)
264)
274)
284)
294)
5) B
A
A
A
A
C
C
D
A
C
B
B
C
D
B
D
D
B
B
A
B
B
C
D
A
D
B
A
A
B
15)
25)
35)
45)
55)
65)
75)
85)
95)
105)
115)
125)
135)
145)
155)
165)
175)
185)
195)
205)
215)
225)
235)
245)
255)
265)
275)
285)
295)
6) D
A
C
D
D
B
B
B
C
B
D
D
B
A
A
C
B
D
C
B
D
A
C
A
C
C
D
B
B
C
16)
26)
36)
46)
56)
66)
76)
86)
96)
106)
116)
126)
136)
146)
156)
166)
176)
186)
196)
206)
216)
226)
236)
246)
256)
266)
276)
286)
296)
7) A
B
B
B
C
A
A
A
C
D
C
D
A
B
C
B
D
B
C
D
C
C
D
B
B
D
B
C
D
D
17)
27)
37)
47)
57)
67)
77)
87)
97)
107)
117)
127)
137)
147)
157)
167)
177)
187)
197)
207)
217)
227)
237)
247)
257)
267)
277)
287)
297)
8) B
C
A
D
B
C
C
D
C
B
A
A
C
A
C
B
C
C
B
B
A
B
D
B
C
B
A
D
A
B
18)
28)
38)
48)
58)
68)
78)
88)
98)
108)
118)
128)
138)
148)
158)
168)
178)
188)
198)
208)
218)
228)
238)
248)
258)
268)
278)
288)
298)
9) C
D
A
C
D
B
A
C
A
A
B
C
A
A
D
B
B
A
D
C
C
A
A
A
D
A
C
B
C
D
19)
29)
39)
49)
59)
69)
79)
89)
99)
109)
119)
129)
139)
149)
159)
169)
179)
189)
199)
209)
219)
229)
239)
249)
259)
269)
279)
289)
299)
B
D
B
A
A
B
A
C
A
A
C
C
A
B
A
B
A
A
B
D
C
A
B
B
B
B
D
D
C
10)
20)
30)
40)
50)
60)
70)
80)
90)
100)
110)
120)
130)
140)
150)
160)
170)
180)
190)
200)
210)
220)
230)
240)
250)
260)
270)
280)
290)
300)
D
B
A
B
C
B
A
A
C
D
A
D
D
C
D
D
A
B
D
B
C
C
D
D
D
D
D
B
A
301)
311)
321)
331)
341)
351)
361)
371)
381)
391)
B
C
A
C
D
C
D
A
D
C
302)
312)
322)
332)
342)
352)
362)
372)
382)
392)
C
B
C
D
A
B
C
C
A
D
303)
313)
323)
333)
343)
353)
363)
373)
383)
393)
D
B
A
A
C
D
A
A
B
A
304)
314)
324)
334)
344)
354)
364)
374)
384)
394)
A
C
B
A
A
A
A
C
D
A
305)
315)
325)
335)
345)
355)
365)
375)
385)
C
C
C
B
D
D
C
C
C
306)
316)
326)
336)
346)
356)
366)
376)
386)
B
A
B
C
C
B
D
A
B
307)
317)
327)
337)
347)
357)
367)
377)
387)
D
D
C
A
B
A
A
A
C
308)
318)
328)
338)
348)
358)
368)
378)
388)
A
B
B
C
D
A
C
D
C
309)
319)
329)
339)
349)
359)
369)
379)
389)
C
D
D
C
B
D
B
A
B
310)
320)
330)
340)
350)
360)
370)
380)
390)
B
C
A
D
A
B
D
C
D
Mollusca
1.
Study of mollusca is called
(A) Malacology
(B) Conchology
(C) Maminology
(D) Mastology.
2.
Elephants Tusk Shell belongs to
(A) Amphineura
(B) Monoplacophora (C) Scaphopoda
(D) Gastropoda.
3.
Which class shows 8 dorsal plates of shell?
(A) Amphineura
(B) Monoplacophora (C) Scaphopoda
(D) Cephalopoda.
4.
Shell is internal in
(A) Monoplacophora (B) Gastropoda
(C) Pelecypoda
(D) Cephalopoda.
5.
Sepia and Octopus are molluscs which can move swiftly by means of
(A) Arms
(B) Lateral fins
(C) Suckers
(D) Jet propulsion through siphon.
6.
Glochidium larva is found in
(A) Pila
(B) Unlo
(C) Sepia
(D) Asterias.
7.
Pearl is the secretion of
(A) Mouth
(B) Mantle
(C) Kidney
(D) None.
8.
Sea Mouse is a marine mollnsc. Its scientific name is
(A) Chiton
(B) Teredo
(C) Unio
(D) Nautilus.
9.
The method of induction of foreign particles between the mantle and the shell of pearl oyster for
the stimulation of pearl formation was introduced in Japan by
(A) Katu
(B) Mikimoto
(C) Von Mohl
(D) Haeckel.
10.
Sea-foam which is drifted to the sea shores isa
(A) External shell of Cuttle Fish
(B) internal shell of Cuttle Fish
(C) Bones of Octopus
(D) Calcareous matter excreted by cephalopods.
11.
A wood boring mollusc well known for causing damage to ships and docks is
(A) Doris
(B) Loligo
(C) Octopus
(D) Teredo.
12.
The largest clam is
(A) Unio
(B) Mytilus
(C) Teredo
(D) Tridaena.
13.
The most primitive mollusc is
(A) Patella
(B) Neopilina
(C) Chiton
(D) Dentalium.
14.
The largest invertebrate is
(A) Giant Octopus
(B) Giant Squid
(C) Giant Snail
(D) Giant Clam.
15.
Osphradium is a structure in Pila/molluscs. It is a
(A) Sensory organ for smell and chemicals/chemoreceptor
(B) Sensory organ for balancing
(C) Swimming organ
(D) Locomotory organ
16.
A triploblastic animal with bilateral symmetry in larval stage but asymmetry in adult is
(A) Arachnid
(B) Echinoderm
(C) Gastropod
(D) Bivalve.
17.
Visceral mass is characteristic of
(A) Arthropods
(B) Molluscs
(C) Echinoderms
(D) All the above.
18.
Blood vascular system of molluscs is
(A) Reduced
(B) Open
(C) Closed
(D) Absent.
19.
Respiratory pigment of molluscs is
(A) Haemocyanin
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Erythrocruorin
(D) Chiorocruorin.
20.
A mollusc that forms pearls is
(A) Neopillna
(B) Sepia
(C) Oyster
(D) Octopus.
21.
Pearl Oyster belongs to
(A) Cephalopoda
(B) Scaphopoda
(C) Gastropoda
(D) Pelecypoda.
22.
A gastropod without a shell is
(A) Pila
(E) Snail
(C) Neopilina
(D) Slug.
23.
Connecting link between annelida and mollusca is
(A) Squid
(B) Nautilus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Sepia.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
Devil Fish is
(A) Loligo
(B) Octopus
(C) Sepia
(D) Nautilus.
An internal shell occurs in
(A) Sepia
(B) Unio
(C) Pila
(D) Oyster.
A rasping organ with transverse teeth and present in the buccal cavity of a mollusc is called
(A) Dental plate
(B) Radula
(C) Tongue
(D) Rasper.
Radula is present in
(A) Loligo
(B) Mytilus
(C) Pila
(D) Unio.
Elephants Tusk shell is
(A) Nautilus
(B) Li,nax
(C) Dentaliuin
(D) Cypraea.
A mollusc previously used as currency is
(A) Turbinella
(B) Dentalium
(C) Pila
(D) Cypraea.
Filter feeding is
(A) Holding food particles by closely appressed teeth
(B) Picking food articles from a water current
(C) Crushing and chewing of food and allowing only finely divided one to pass further
(D) None of the above.
A mollusc discovered in 1950s is
(A) Nautilus
(B) Chiton
(C) Neopilina
(D) Pinctada.
The most primitive mollusc is
(A) Neopilina
(B) Patella
(C) Chiton
(D) Nautilus.
Arms present in Sepia are
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 6.
Hectocotylised arm of Sepia is
(A) Right third
(B) Left third
(C) Right fourth
(D) Left fifth.
In male Octopus, the hectocotylised arm is
(A) Right fifth
(B) Right fourth
(C) Right third
(D) Left fifth.
An internal shell is absent in
(A) Octopus
(B) Sepia
(C) Loligo
(D) Both B and C.
Siphon of cephalopods is connected internally to
(A) Mantle cavity
(B) Ink gland
(C) Haemocoel
(D) Both A and B.
Number of arms in Devil Fish are
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 10
(D) 8.
Giant Squid is
(A) Loligo
(B) Architeuthis
(C) Octopus
(D) Tethys.
Squid is also called Sea Arrow because of
(A) Triangular trunk
(B) Pointed head
(C) Lateral fins fused posteriorly
(D) Lateral fms fused anteriorly.
Number of tentacles present in Sepia and Loligo is
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 2.
Tentacles of Sepia possess suckers
(A) All along the inner surface
(B) All along the outer surface
(C) Both A and B
(D) At the tips.
A cephalopod with an external shell is
(A) Sepia
(B) Nautilus
(C) Loligo
(D) Octopus.
The shell of Nautilus is
(A) Bivalved
(B) Spirally coiled
(C) Multi-chambered (D) Both B and C.
Nautilus occurs in its shell in
(A) First chamber
(B) All chambers
(C) Last chamber
(D) Partly in first chamber and partly outside.
A structure peculiar to Nautilus is
(A) Siphuncle
(B) External shell
(C) Spirally coiled shell (D) Nocturnal nature.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
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63.
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66.
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68.
69.
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72.
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75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
(A) Cypraea
(B) Helix
(C) Limax
(D) Pila.
Pila is
(A) Temple Shell
(B) Apple Snail
(C) Pond Snail
(D) Both B and C.
Coiling in the shell of Pila is
(A) Dextral or sinistral
(B) Dextral and sinistral
(C) Dextral
(D) Sinistral.
Tentacles are replaced by captacula in
(A) Pila
(B) Dentalium
(C) Neopilina
(D) Both B and C.
Shell is. curved, tubular and open at both ends in
(A) Dentalium
(B) Chiton
(C) Neopilina
(D) Turbinella.
A mollusc in which the detached body gets coiled like a millipede is
(A) Turbinella
(B) Neopilina
(C) Chiton
(D) Helix.
Eyes of cephalopods are
(A) Exactly similar to vertebrate eyes
(B) Functionally similar to vertebrate eyes
(C) Structurally similar to vertebrate eyes (D) Superficially similar to vertebrate eyes.
Balancing organ of molluscs is
(A) Radula
(B) Statocyst
(C) Osphradium
(D) Tentacles.
In mollusca, nervous system is represented by
(A) A paired nerve cord
(B) A paired nerve cord with brain and circumpharyngeal connectives
(C) 34 paired ganglia
(D) Primitive brain and nerve cord.
Molluscs have
(A) 34 pairs of hearts
(B) A single tubular heart
(C) 23 chambered heart
(D) Multichambered heart.
Molluscs are
(A) Unsegmented
(B) Soft bodied
(C) Shelled
(D) All the above.
Internal segmentation is present in mollusks belonging to class
(A) Monoplacophora (B) Polyplacophora (C) Gastropoda
(D) Scaphopoda.
Aplysia is
(A) Gastropod
(B) Bivalve
(C) Scaphopod
(D) Siphonopod.
Edible Oyster is
(A) Pinctade
(B) Ostrea
(C) Mytilus
(D) Lamellidens.
In molluscs, head and foot regions have come together in
(A) Scaphopods
(B) Pelecypods
(C) Siphonopods
(D) Both A and B.
Visceral mass is segmented in
(A) Neopilina
(B) Aplysia
(C) Denlalium
(D) Xancus.
A mollusc with parapodia is
(A) Aplysia
(B) Doris
(C) Chiton
(D) Pila
Giant Land Snail is
(A) Lirnax
(B) Helix
(C) Achatina
(D) Pila
Doris is
(A) Fresh water mollusk
(B) Marine mollusc
(C) Terrestrial mollusk
(D) Connecting link between mollusks annclids.
Which gastropod emits coloured liquid camouflage
(A) Turbinella
(B) Cypraea
(C) Doris
(D) Aplysia
Cerata are
(A) Toothed tentacles
(B) Feathery primary gills
(C) Secondary anal gills
(D) Retractile tentacles
Anal gills occur in
(A) Doris
(B) Limax
(C) Slug
(D) Nautilus
Sea Lemon is
91.
(C) Limax
(D) Nautilus
(C) Aplysia
(D) Cypraea
Revision Questions
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
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111.
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114.
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122.
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138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
(C) aq,bs,ct,dp
(D) at, bq, cs, dr.
Which one contains hard shell, muscular body, ommitidiophores and foot
(A) Penpianeta
(B) Limulus
(C) Pil
(D) Tortoise.
Ink gland occurs in
(A) Astenas
(B) Sepia
(C) Pila
(D) Fasciola.
A loose mantle is present over the body in
(A) Echinoderms
(B) Mammals
(C) Plat9helniinthes
(D) Molluscs.
Torsion occurs in the visceral mass of
(A) Gastropoda
(B) Pelecypoda
(C) Cephalopoda
(D) Monoplacophora.
Cilia of gills in bivalve help in
(A) Reproduction
(B) Swimming
(C) Feeding
(D) All the above.
Which is not correctly matched?
(A) Mollsca Pseudocoel
(B) Annelida Chloragogen cells
(C) Echinodermata Water vascular systemD) Cnidaria Nematocysts
Lepidopleurus belongs to
(A) Echinoidea
(B) Cephalopoda
(C) Asteroidea
(D) Polyplacophora.
Coelom of animals commonly known as tooth shells originates
(A) By enterocoelic method
(B) By schizocoelic method and filled with coelomic fluid
(C) By splitting of embryonic mesoderm and filled with blood
(D) From blastocoel
Osphradium is meant for
(A) Excretion
(B) Nutrition
(C) Grinding of food
(D) Selection and rejection of food.
Which one of the following is matching set of phylum and its three examples?
(A) Porifera Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
(B) Cnidaria Bonellia, Physalia Aurelia
(C) Platyhelminthes Planaria, Schistos toma, Enterobius
(D) Mollusca Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
Which one is mismatched pair
(A) Apis indica Honey(B) Kerria laucca Lac (C) Boinbax mon Silk (D) Pita globosa Pearl.
Doris is
(A) Sea Lemon
(B) Shipworm
(C) Sea Hare
(D) Pearl Oyster
Statement (S). In many gastropods, the anus and mantle cavity are placed anteriorly above the
head.
Reason (R). During embryonic development, in many gastropods one side of the visceral mass
grows faster than the other side. The uneven growth rotates the visceral organs upto 180 in many
gastropods
(A) Both S and R are true and R explains S (B) Both S and R are true but R cannot explain S
(C) Only S is correct R is wrong
(D) Both S and R are wrong.
Which is matched with two general characteristics?
(A) Echinodermata Pentamerous radial symmetry, internal fertilisation
(B) Mollusca Normally oviparous, trochophore or veliger larva
(C) Arthropoda Body divisible into head, thorax and abdomen, tracheal respiration
(D) Chordata Notochord, separate anal and urine apertures
Devil Fish and Sea Hare are
(A) Coelenterates
(B) Marine fish and mammal
(C) Crustaceans
(D) Molluscs
Correctly matched set of phylum, class and example is
(A) Mollusca Bivalvia Pinactada
(B) Protozoa Mastigophora Entamoeba
(C) Chordata CyclostomataPhiynosoma(D) Arthropoda Diplopoda Scolopendra
1) A
2) C
3) A
ANSWER KEY
5) D
6) B
4) D
7) B
8) A
9) B
10)
11)
D 12)
D 13)
14)
15)
A 16)
C 17)
18)
19)
A 20)
21)
D 22)
D 23)
24)
25)
A 26)
27)
28)
29)
D 30)
31)
C 32)
A 33)
34)
35)
C 36)
A 37)
38)
39)
B 40)
41)
D 42)
D 43)
44)
45)
C 46)
A 47)
48)
49)
D 50)
51)
A 52)
C 53)
54)
55)
D 56)
D 57)
58)
59)
C 60)
61)
62)
A 63)
64)
65)
D 66)
67)
68)
69)
D 70)
71)
72)
A 73)
74)
75)
B 76)
C 77)
78)
79)
A 80)
81)
82)
C 83)
84)
85)
C 86)
87)
88)
89)
A 90)
91)
C 92)
D 93)
94)
95)
B 96)
C 97)
98)
99)
C 100) B
104) A
105)
C 106)
C 107) C
108) A
109) D 110)
111) B
113) B
114) D
115)
B 116)
C 117)
118)
119)
124) B
125)
B 126)
127) C
128) A
129) C 130) B
134) D
135)
A 136)
C 137) A
138) D
139) C 140) D
144) A
145)
B 146)
D 147) A
148)
149)
112) B
D 120) C
150)
Echinodermata
1.
In Echinodermata locomotion is by mean of
(A) Muscles
(B) Feet
(C) Ambulacral system (D) None of the above.
2.
Which echinoderm is fresh water?
(A) Asterias
(B) Pentaceros
(C) Astropecten
(D) None of the above
3.
Which gives the lily-like appearance?
(A) Brittle star
(B) Pentaceros
(C) Antedon
(D) None of the above,
4.
Excretory organs are absent in
(A) Asterias
(B) Sepia
(C) Unio
(D) Pila.
5.
Echinoderms show
(A) Bilateral symmetry
(B) Radial symmetry
(C) Asymmetry
(D) None.
6.
The larvae of Echinodermates are
(A) Trochophore and Auricularia
(B) Bipinnaria and Brachiolaria
(C) Radia and Cercaria
(D) Miracidium and Cysticerci.
7.
Madreporite is associated with
(A) Water vascular system
(B) Canal system
(C) Blood vascular system
( Digestive system.
8.
Similarity between echinoderms and chordates is
(A) Dcuterostomatjc tube-within-a-tube plan(B) Protostomatic tube-within-a-tube plan
(C) Water vascular system
(D) Kidneys.
9.
Water vascular system is a trait of
(A) Porifers
(B) Molluscs
(C) Echinoderms
(D) Arthropods.
10.
An echinoderm is
(A) Torpedo Fish
(B) Star Fish
(C) Electric Ray
(D) Shark.
11.
Which of the following is fixed
(A) Antedon
(B) Asterias
(C) Echjnus
(D) Cucumaija.
12.
Starfish does not possess
(A) Mouth
(B) Anus
(C) flead
(D) Arms.
13.
Respiratory tree occurs in
(A) Sea Fan
(B) Sea Lily
(C) Sea Cucumber
(D) Sea Urchin.
14.
In echinoderms and molluscs the skeleton is
(A) Chitinous
(B) Siliceous
(C) Calcareous
(D) Nacreous.
15.
Microscopic stalked pincer-like structures present in echinoderms are
(A) Tube feet
(B) Spines
(C) Pedicellariae
(D) Ossicles.
16.
Echinoderms are named so due to presence of
(A) Arms
(B) Spines
(C) Pedicellarjae
(ID) Tube feet.
17.
Structures peculiar to echinoderms are
(A) Tube feet
(B) Pedicellarjae
(C) Ambulacral system (D) All the above.
18.
Coelornate animals devoid of excretory organs are
(A) Annelids
(B) Echinoderms
(C) Molluscs
(D) Arthropods.
19.
A speciality of echinoderms is presence of
(A) Both epidermal exoskeleton and mesodermal endoskeleton
(B) Ciliated epidermis
(C) Coelom
(D) None of the above.
20.
Circulatory system of echinoderms is
(A) Closed
(B) Open
(C) Haemal
(D) Both B and C.
21.
Echinodermata possesses
(A) Pseudocoelom
(B) Schizocoelom
(C) Enterocoelom
(D) None of the above.
22.
Opening of water vascular system is called
(A) Osculum
(B) Ostium
(C) Madreporite
(D) Mouth.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
(D) Cartilage.
(D) None of the above.
(D) All the above.
(D) Scieroblasts.
(D) Crinoidea.
(D) Crinoidea.
(D) Holothuroidea.
(D) Echinoidea.
(D) Holothuroidea.
(D) Both B and C.
(D) Echinus.
(D) Asterias
(D) Terrestrial.
(D) Tube feet.
(D) Omnivorous.
(D) Mosquitoes.
(D) Both A and B.
(D) Crinoidea.
(D) Cucurnaria.
(D) Echinoarachinus.
(D) None of the above.
(D) All the above.
(D) Star-like.
(D) Ecliinus.
(D) Antedo.
(D) Smooth disc.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
Evisceration is characteristic of
(A) Cucumaria
(B) Echinus
(C) Echzoarachinus
An echinoderm that resembles a small herbaceous plant is
(A) Holothuria
(B) Antedon
(C) Salmacis
Radial symmetry of echinoderms is
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(D) Biradial
Stone canal of Star Fish is
(A) Straight
(B) Rounded
(C) Pentangular
Heart Urchin belongs to class
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Ophiuroidea
(C) Echinoidea
Ophiura is
(A) Brittle Star
(B) Feather Star
(C) Sand Dollar
Which echinoderm does not possess arms?
(A) Aste,ias
(B) Echinocardjum (C) Ophiura
A test is present in
echinoderm
(A) Asterias
(B) Ophiura
(C) Echinocardium
(D) Neometra.
(D) Echinus.
(D) Triradial.
(D) S-shaped.
(D) Holothuroidea.
(D) Sea Lily
(D) Astropecten
(D) Antedon
Revision Questions
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
10!.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
1) C
2) D
3) C
ANSWER KEY
5) B
6) B
4) A
7) A
8) A
9) C
10)
11)
A 12)
C 13)
14)
15)
C 16)
17)
18)
19)
A 20)
21)
C 22)
C 23)
24)
25)
C 26)
A 27)
28)
29)
C 30)
31)
32)
D 33)
34)
35)
C 36)
D 37)
38)
39)
B 40)
41)
42)
C 43)
44)
45)
B 46)
C 47)
48)
49)
C 50)
51)
A 52)
D 53)
54)
55)
C 56)
A 57)
58)
59)
B 60)
61)
A 62)
C 63)
64)
65)
A 66)
A 67)
68)
69)
C 70)
71)
72)
73)
74)
75)
A 76)
77)
78)
79)
C 80)
81)
82)
C 83)
84)
85)
A 86)
87)
88)
89)
A 90)
91)
92)
94)
95)
D 96)
A 97)
98)
99)
A 100) C
101) B
93)
102) B
103) D
104) A
105)
C 106)
A 107) C
108) C
109) B 110)
111) D 112) B
113) D
114) D
115)
B 116)
118)
119)
D 120) B
122) A 123) D
124) C
125)
B 126)
129)
130)
121) B
117)
127)
128)
Chordata-Protochordata
1.
Chordates differ from other animals in having
(A) Notochord
(B) Ventral nerve cord(C) Dorsal heart
(D) Schizocoel.
2.
Chordates have
(A) Dorsal nerve cord
(B) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(C) Brain
(D) Ventral nerve cord.
3.
Notochord occurs in the adult animal of
(A) Osteichthyes
(B) Chondrichthyes (C) Protochordata
(D) Amphibia.
4.
Which one of
the following is a protochordate
(A) Amphiarus
(B) Lamprey
(C) Labeo
(D) Exocoetus.
5.
Which group of protochordates contains Balanoglossus
(A) Urochordata
(B) Caphalochordata (C) Tunicata
(D) Hemichordata.
6.
Only the tail portion contains notochord in
(A) Chordata
(B) Caphalochordata (C) Hemichordata
(D) Urochordata.
7.
A free swimming urochordate is
(A) Herdmania
(B) Botiyllus
(C) Salpa
(D) Ciona.
8.
A member of cephalo is
(A) Herdmania
(B) Ciona
(C) Amphioxus
(D) Balanoglossus.
9.
The most important character of chordata
(A) Dorsal hollow nervous system
(B) Vertebral column
(C) Kidneys
(D) None of the above.
10.
Which is a protochordate
(A) Herdmania
(B) Labeo
(C) Lung fish
(D) None.
11.
A current of water is produced in Branchiostoma by
(A) Cilia
(B) Cirri
(C) Wheel organ
(D) Rostruna.
12.
Which one is absent in Branchiostoma
(A) Head
(B) Gill slits
(C) Notochord
(D) Dorsal hollow nerve cord.
13.
The anterior part of Amphioxus is
(A) Oral hood
(B) Rostrum
(C) Mouth
(D) Both A and B.
14.
Cephalochordate Branchiostoma possesses
(A) Laterally compressed spindle-shaped body
(B) Caudal fin
(C) Dorsal and ventral fins
(D) All the above.
15.
Hepatic portal system has evolved in protochordates
(A) Hemichordates (B) Urochordates
(C) Cephalochordates (D) All the above.
16.
In Aniphioxus, circulatory system is
(A) Closed
(B) Without heart
(C) Without respiratory pigment
(D) All the above.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
Branchiostoma is
(A) Filter feeder
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Omnivorous
(D) Herbivorous.
In Branchiostoma, notochord is present in
(A) Larva stage
(B) Head region
(C) Tail region
(D) Throughout body.
In urochordates, the chordate characters are
(A) Well developed
(B) Present only in larva
(C) Present in adult
(D) Present both in adult and larva.
The larva of urochordatcs contains notochord
(A) Throughout
(B) Head region
(C) Tail region
(D) Trunk region.
An ascidian is
(A) Balanoglossus
(B) Herdmania
(C) Branchiostoma
(D) None of the above.
Tunic is
(A) Sac-like covering of urochordates
(B) A string inside cephalochordates
(C) Collar of hemichordates
(D) None of the above.
Tunicin is
(A) Lipopolysaccharide
(B) Cellulose-like polysaccharide
(C) Non-cellulosic polysaccharide
(D) Proteinaceous.
Retrogressive metamorphosis is peculiar to
(A) Urochordates
(B) Hemichordates (C) Cephalochordates (D) All the above.
Mouth of Herdmanja is
(A) Atrial aperture
(B) Excurrent aperture(C) Branchial aperture (D) Both A and B.
Atrial and branchial apertures of Herdmania are surrounded by
(A) Two lips
(B) Three lips
(C) Four lips
(D) Five lips.
Water current is maintained in Herdmanja Lancelet is
(A) Hermania
(B) Salpa
(C) Branchiostoma
(D) Dolioluni.
Lancelet is
(A) Hermania
(B) Salpa
(C) Bran chi ostoma (D) Dolioluni.
In protochordates, the epidermis is
(A) Absent
(B) Multilayered
(C) A few layered
(D) Single layered.
Part of Herdmanja embedded in sand is
(A) Test
(B) Foot
(C) Tunic
(D) Both A and C.
Herdmanja is
(A) Sea Purse
(B) Sea Squirt
(C) Sea Potato
(D) Both B and C.
Which one emits jet of water when disturbed
(A) Balanoglossus
(B) Herdinania
(C) Salpa
(D) Branchiostoma.
In adult urochordate, the dorsal nerve cord of larva is changed into
(A) Ganglin
(B) Brain and spinal cord
(C) Brain and nerve cord
(D) Remains as such.
In cephalochordates, the coelom is
(A) Reduced
(B) Absent
(C) Schizocoel
(D) Lined by ectoderm.
Coelom of urochordate is
(A) Schizocoel
(B) Absent
(C) Enterocoel
(D) Segmented.
Acorn Worm is
(A) Doliolum
(B) Salpa
(C) Balanoglossus
(D) Rhabdopleura.
The body of Tongue Worm Balanoglossus is differentiated into
(A) Head, trunk and tail
(B) Trunk and tail
(C) Proboscis, collar and trunk
(D) Proboscis and collar.
Balanoglossus lives in
(A) U-shaped burrow (B) Vertical burrow (C) Oblique burrow
(D) Horizontal burrow.
Which one swallows mud
(A) Anzphioxus
(B) Sea Squirt
(C) Tongue Worm
(D) Asymmetron.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
Revision Questions
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
Larva of Balanoglossus is
(A) Mullers larva
(B) Tadpole
(C) Tornaria
(D) Kentrogen larva.
A chordate character is
(A) Gills
(B) Spiracles
(C) Post-anal tail
(D) Chitinous exoskeleton.
Which is not a vertebrate
(A) Fish
(B) Amphioxus
(C) Oryctolagus
(D) Sparrow.
All chordates possess
(A) Exoskeleton
(B) Limbs
(C) Skull
(D) Axial skeletal rod of not
In which group, the notochord is limited to only anterior part or proboscis
(A) Hemichordata
(B) Urochordata
(C) Cephalochordata (D) Mammalia
Amphioxus belongs to
(A) Craniata
(B) Hemichordata
(C) Urochordata
(D) Cephalochordata.
Which is an exclusive chordate character
(A) True coelom
(B) Pharyngeal gill slits(C) Bilateral symmetry(D) Triploblastic.
Which one is a link between chordates and nonchordates?
(A) Tadpole larva
(B) Sphenodon
(C) Balanoglossus
(D) Crocodilia
Notochord occurs only in the larva of
(A) Balaiioglossus
(B) Amphioxus
(C) Herdmania
(D) epha1odiscus.
Phosphorescence occurs in
(A) Salpa
(B) Pyrosoma
(C) Petromyzon
(D) Rana.
Group where adults are degenerated while larvae are well developed is
(A) Tunicata
(B) Agnatha
(C) Amphibia
(D) Cephalochordata.
Which is not characteristic of all chordates
(A) Dorsal nerve cord
(B) Diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
(C) Coelom
(D) Pharyngeal gill slits
A primary character of chordates is
(A) Paired nerve cord
(B) Ganglionated nerve cord
(C) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(D) Solid ventral nerve cord.
Acraniata contains
(A) Hemichordata
(B) Urochordata
(C) Cephalochordata (D) All the above
Notochord occurs all through the length of body and throughout life in
(A) Hemichordata
(B) Urochordata
(C) Cephalochordata (D) Vcrtcbrata.
Tunicates are
(A) Mixotrophic
(B) Parasitic
(C) Macrop
(D) Ciiary feeders.
Which one belongs to hemichordata
(A) Salpa
(B) Balanoglossus
(C) Petromyzon
(D) Myxine.
Which is true?
(A) Chordates have ventral hollow nerve cord
(B) All vertebrates have open circulatory system
(C) All chordates are vertebrates
(D) All vertebrates are chordates.
Notochord occurs in the embryonic stage in
(A) Some chordates (B) All chordates
(C) All vertebrates
(D) Some vertebrates.
Which one is common feature of Amphioxus, Frog, Sea Horse and Crocodile
(A) Skeleton of cartilage and bone
(B) Pharyngeal gill slits at least in developmental stages
(C) Dorsal solid nerve cord
(D) Three chambered heart.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
1) A
2) B
3) C
ANSWER KEY
5) D
6) D
4) A
7) C
8) C
9) A
10)
11)
C 12)
A 13)
14)
15)
C 16)
D 17)
18)
19)
B 20)
21)
A 23)
24)
25)
C 26)
C 27)
28)
29)
D 30)
31)
D 32)
33)
34)
35)
B 36)
C 37)
38)
39)
C 40)
41)
A 42)
43)
44)
45)
B 46)
C 47)
48)
49)
C 50)
51)
A 52)
A 53)
54)
55)
D 56)
D 57)
58)
59)
C 60)
61)
C 62)
C 63)
64)
65)
A 66)
D 67)
68)
69)
C 70)
71)
A 72)
73)
74)
75)
C 76)
D 77)
78)
79)
B 80)
81)
D 82)
C 83)
84)
85)
B 86)
C 87)
88)
89)
C 90)
22)
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
(A) Cetorhinus
(B) Carcharinus
(C) Carcharodon
(D) Rincodon
Revision Question
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
Which is viviparous
(A) Bony Fish
(B) Shark
(C) Lung Fish
(D) Frog.
Which one is a fish?
(A) Sea Horse
(B) Sea Cow
(C) Sea Cucumber
(D) Sea Urchin
Vertebrates have
(A) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(B) Ventrally situated heart
(C) Body cavity with alimentary canal
(D) All the above
The group devoid of gliding/flying animals is
(A) Fishes
(B) Cyclostomates
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals.
Bony plates/scutes occur in addition to scales in
(A) Sea Horse
(B) Flying Fish
(C) Climbing Perch
(D) Eel
Association between Sucker Fish (Remora) and Shark is
(A) Commensalism (B) Symbiosis
(C) Predation
(D) Parasitism.
Gwnbusia is
(A) Parasitic Fish
(B) Pest of fishes
(C) Fish predator of mosquito larvae
(D) A mosquito spreading yellow fever.
Vertebral column is derived from
(A) Dorsal nerve cord
(B) Ventral nerve cord
(C) Outgrowth of cranium
(D) Notochord
Heart pumps impure blood in
(A) Frog/Amphibia (B) Whale/Cetacea (C) Lizard/Reptilia
(D) Shark/Pisces.
True Fish is
(A) Whale/Cuttle Fish(B) Silver Fish
(C) Cray Fish/Jelly Fish.(D) Flying Fish/Cat Fish.
Living fossil is
(A) Dog Fish
(B) Flying Fish
(C) Dodo
(D) Coelacanth/Latimena.
Branch of biology dealing with study of fishes is
(A) Fishery
(B) Toxicology
(C) Ichthylogy
(D) Piscology.
A vertebrate having entire cartilaginous skeleton is
(A) Scoliodon
(B) Rana
(C) Labeo
(D) Dolphin.
In fishes the kidney is
(A) Pronephric
(B) Metanephric
(C) Mesonephric
(D) Nephridial.
A common characteristic of all vertebrates is
(A) Presence of skull
(B) Division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
(C) Presence of two pairs of functional appendages
(D) Body is covered with an exoskeleton.
Which is cold blooded animal
A) Pigeon
(B) Kangaroo
(C) Shark
(D) Rabbit.
Common name of marine fish Anguilla is
(A) Rohu
(B) Eel
(C) Hilsa
(D) Bombay Duck.
Sea Horse is an example of
(A) Mammalia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Ayes
(D) Pisces.
Endoskeleton is cartilaginous in
(A) Elasmobranchs (B) Dipnoi
(C) Mollusca
(D) Osteichthyes.
Electric organs occur in
(A) Sharks
(B) Goldfish
(C) Porpoises
(D) Rays.
Isinglass (gelatine-like transparent substance) is obtained from
(A) Air bladder of fishes
(B) Scales of fishes
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
(A) Catla
(B) Labestes
(C) Ganibusia
(D) Aplocheilus
Fishes with swim bladder without direct communication with exterior and where there is little
separation of secretory and absorbent parts are
(A) Physostomes
(B) Physoclists
(C) Euphysoclists
(D) Paraphysoclists.
Stenohaline fishes are
(A) Marine fishes only
(B) Those which tolerate narrow range of salinity
(C) Those which tolerate wide range of salinity(D) Fresh water fishes only.
Salmon fishes are also known as
(A) Trout
(B) Cod
(C) Cartilaginous fishes (D) Bony fishes
Which one has a brood pouch for caring of eggs?
(A) Anabas
(B) Scoliodon
(C) Hippocampus
(D) Cuttle fish.
Aquatic animals with prehensile tail is
(A) Chamaeleon
(B) Macaca
(C) Exocoetus
(D) Hippocampus.
A fresh water fish is
(A) Chanos
(B) Hilsa
(C) Clarius
(D) Rostelliger.
Which one has heterocercal tail
(A) Dipnoi
(B) Bony fish
(C) Cartilaginous fish (D) All the above
One of the following is not a fish
(A) Sucker fish
(B) Flat fish
(C) Flying fish
(D) Cuttle fish.
(E) Pipe fish
Which one belongs to dipnoi?
(A) Lung fish
(B) Cat fish
(C) Rat fish
(D) Star fish.
Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong
(C), both wrong (D). Assertion. Lateral line system is found in fishes and aquatic larval
amphibians. Reason. Lateral line system has receptors which are the clusters of sensory cells
derived from ectoderm.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Fishes have poor sense organs for
(A) Sound perception (B) Vibrations
(C) Odours
(D) Light perception.
Which one is a true fish?
(A) Cuttle fish
(B) Dog fish
(C) Jelly fish
(D) Silver fish.
Tooth-shaped scales are
(A) Cycloid
(B) Ctenoid
(C) Ganoid
(D) Placoid
Which of the following statements is true
(A) All chordates are vertebrates
(B) All vertebrates are chordates
(C) Invertebrates possess a tubular nerve cord(I)) Nonchordates have a vertebral column.
Growing more than one species of fish in the same water body is
(A) Moriculture
(B) Aquaculture
(C) Monoculture
(D) Polyculture.
Lung fish is
(A) Protopterus
(B) Coelacanik
(C) Scoliodon
(D) Labeo.
Which one is a true fish
(A) Sea Horse
(B) Bombay Duck
(C) Salmon
(D) All the above
In cartilaginous fishes, restiform (rope-like) bodies occur in
(A) Heart
(B) Brain
(C) Eyes
(D) Intestine
Which is unique in fishes?
(A) Gills
(B) Tails
(C) Lateral line sensory organs (D) Lungs
Air bladder occurs in
(A) Torpedo
(B) Scoliodon
(C) Anabas
(D) Elasmobrach
Scoliodon is also called
(A) Dog Fish
(B) Cuttle Fish
(C) Jelly Fish
(D) Whale Fish
In elasmobranchs, oviducts are called
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
1) D
2) C
3) B
ANSWER KEY
5) B
6) C
4) B
7) A
8) D
9) B
10)
11)
C 12)
13)
14)
15)
B 16)
D 17)
18)
19)
B 20)
21)
23)
24)
25)
A 26)
A 27)
28)
29)
A 30)
31)
C 32)
D 33)
34)
35)
A 36)
37)
38)
39)
C 40)
41)
D 42)
D 43)
44)
45)
D 46)
47)
48)
49)
C 50)
51)
A 52)
D 53)
54)
55)
C 56)
A 57)
58)
59)
A 60)
61)
A 62)
A 63)
64)
65)
D 66)
A 67)
68)
69)
A 70)
71)
C 72)
73)
74)
75)
B 76)
D 77)
78)
79)
D 80)
81)
A 82)
A 83)
84)
85)
D 86)
D 87)
88)
89)
A 90)
91)
A 92)
C 93)
94)
95)
A 96)
D 97)
98)
99)
C 100) C
104) A
105)
C 106)
D 107) B
108) C
109) A 110)
113) B
114) B
115)
A 116)
A 117)
118)
119)
121) B
122) A 123) C
124) D
125)
C 126)
C 127) D
128) A
129) B 130) A
131) B
132) D 133) B
134) D
135)
A 136)
D 137) B
138) C
139) C 140) A
143) D
144) A
145)
D 146)
147) C
148) D
149) A 150) C
152) C 153) A
154) B
155)
A 156)
D 157) B
158) C
159) A 160) D
101) B
22)
102) C 103) D
111) A 112) B
141) C 142) B
151) B
B 120) D
161) C 162) B
163) D
164) D
165)
A 166)
171) A 172)
173)
174)
175)
176)
A 167) C
177)
168) D
169) B 170) C
178)
179)
180)
Amphibia Vertebrate
1.
Tetrapods include
(A) Amphibia, reptilia, ayes and mammalian (B) Reptilia, mammalia and amphibia
(C) Amphibia and reptiia
(D) Ayes and mammalia.
2.
The number of appendages present in most vertebrates is
(A) One pair
(B) Two pairs
(C) Three pairs
(D) Four pairs.
3.
The limbless amphibian is
(A) Glass Snake
(B) Hyla
(C) lchthyoplzis
(D) Salamander.
4.
In amphibians
(A) Exoskeleton is absent
(B) Skin is respiratory
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
5.
An amphibian having gills in adult stage is
(A) Salamander
(B) Aquatic frogs
(C) Limbless amphibian(D) Newt/Mud Puppy.
6.
Hyla is a
(A) Tree Frog
(C) Salamander
(B) Mud Puppy
(D) Blind worm.
7.
Tympanum or ear drum occurs in
(A) Bony fishes
(C) Necturus
(B) Cartilaginous fishes (D) None of the above.
8.
A limbless amphibian is
(A) Amphiunia
(B) Necturus
(C) Uraeotyphlus
(D) Cryptobranches
9.
Persistence of larval traits is known as
(A) Neogenesis
(B) Paedogenesis
(C) Paedomorphosis
(D) Parthenogenesis.
10.
Male frogs can croak louder than females because of
(A) Large size
(B) Being strong
(C) Large sound box (D) Vocal sacs.
11.
Summer sleep of cold-blooded animals is called
(A) Hibernation
(B) Neoteny
(C) Aestivation
(D) Paedogenesis.
12.
Largest amphibian is
(A) Necturus
(B) Ichthyophis
(C) Ciyptobranches
(D) Amphiunza.
13.
In amphibia, the heart has
(A) Two auricles and two ventricles
(B) Two auricles and one ventricle
(C) One auricle and two ventricles
(D) One auricle, one ventricle and one sinus venosus.
14.
Salamander can swim with the help of
(A) Webbed hind limbs(B) Tail
(C) Webbed fore limbs (D) Webbed toes.
15.
Axolotl undergoes metamorphosis as soon as
(A) Sex organs, develop
(B) Food becomes plenty
(C) It is exposed to air
(D) Both B and C.
16.
Axolotl larva possesses
(A) External gills
(B) Laterally compressed tail (C) Caudal fin (D) All the above.
17.
Neciuius or Mud Puppy is found in
(A) North America (B) South America (C) North India
(D) South India.
18.
Necturus or Mud Puppy is also known as
(A) Water Newt
(B) Water Dog
(C) Both A and B
(D) Himalayan Salamander.
19.
Flying Frog is
(A) Hyla
(B) Rhacophorus
(C) Alytes
(D) Pipa.
20.
Hyla or Tree Fog is
(A) Brown
(B) Green
(C) Spotted green and brown
(D) Dark brown and yellow.
21.
Hyla is able to climb trees with the help of
(A) Long prehensile tail
(B) Long curved hind limbs
(C) Adhesive pads on digits
(D) Claws at tips of digits.
22.
Flying Frog Rhacophorus
(A) Flies with the help of patagia
(B) Flies with the helps of wings
(C) Walks very fast
(D) Jumps long distances.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
Midwife Toad is
(A) Alytes
(B) Pipa
(C) Bufo
(D) Discoglossus.
In Alytes obstetricans
(A) The female collects the fertilised eggs and hides the same in safe place
(B) The female after collecting the eggs, hides itself in a safe place
(C) The male collects eggs around its neck and hides itself
(D) The male collects eggs around its legs and hides itself.
In Surinam Toad, eggs are taken care of by
(A) Male
(B) Female
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above.
Bombinator threatens its adversary by
(A) Sprinkling blood
(B) Exposing its belly having orange red patches
(C) Producing hissing sound
(D) Both B and C.
In Toad, Bufo melanostictus, toxins occur in
(A) Secretion of parotid glands
(B) Skin warts
(C) Both A and B
(D) Saliva.
Bufo differs from Bull Frog Rana in
(A) Absence of teeth and nonbifurcatect tongue(B) Non-implexus
(C) Absence of vocal sacs
(D) All the above.
In Toad, the skin is
(A) Smooth and slimy
(B) Warty, dry and rough
(C) Olive green colour
(D) Without glands.
Bufo lacks
(A) Webs in hind limbs
(B) Shorter fore limbs
(C) Tympana
(D) Longer hind limbs.
In male Frog and male Toad, the number of vocal sacs is
(A) One and one
(B) One and zero
(C) Two and zero
(D) Two and one.
In Toad, the amplexusory pad is
(A) Absent
(B) Found on one inner finger
(C) Present on two inner fingers
(D) Present on two inner toes.
In sitting posture
(A) Both Frog and Toad develop a hump
(B) Frog has hump which is absent in Toad
(C) Toad has hump which is absent in Frog (D) Both Frog and Toad lack hump.
Salamandra atra is
(A) Ovoviviparous (B) Oviparous
(C) Sexually sterile
(D) Parthenogenetic.
Longest gestation period is that of
(A) Human being
(B) Camel
(C) Rhino
(D) Saiwnandra aim.
Gestation period of Salamandra atra is
(A) 200 days
(B) 540 days
(C) 36 months
(D) 440 days.
Mud Eel is
(A) Amphiaum
(B) Anguilla
(C) Siren
(D) Muraena.
Mud Eel possesses
(A) Short for limbs
(B) No hind limbs
(C) Elongated cylindrical body
(D) All the above.
Frogs and Toads belong to order
(A) Apoda
(B) Anura
(C) Urodela
(D) Caecilia.
Vocal cords develop for the first time in
(A) Anurans
(B) Urodelans
(C) Caecilians
(D) None of the above.
Both middle and internal ears occur in
(A) Caecilians
(B) Necturans
(C) Salamanders
(D) Frogs and Toads.
Middle ear and tympanum are absent in
(A) Anura
(B) Apoda
(C) Urodela
(D) Both B and C.
Necturus possesses
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
(A) Two pairs of external gills and three pairs of gill slits
(B) Three pairs of external gills and two pairs of gill slits
(C) Three pairs each of external gills and gill slits
(D) Two pairs each of external gills and gill slits.
Mud Eel (Siren lacertina) has
(A) Five pairs of both external gills and gill slits
(B) Four pairs of both external gills and gill slits
(C) Three pairs each of external gills and gill slits
(D) Two pairs each of external gills and gill slits.
Nictitating membrane is useful to Frog in
(A) Far sight
(B) Short sight
(C) Covering and protecting eye ball from mud and water
(D) Covering and protecting eye lids from mud and other particles.
Caccilians differ from common amphibians in
(A) Absence of middle ear and vocal cords (B) Absence of limbs and girdles
(C) Absence of eye lids
(D) All the above.
Apoda resemble pisces in
(A) Presence of dermal scales
(B) Functionless eyes
(C) Absence of tail
(D) All the above.
An eversible cloaca for copulation occurs in the male of
(A) Rana
(B) Nectwus
(C) Ichthyophis
(D) Hyla.
Salientia is the alternate name of
(A) Anura
(B) Urodela
(C) Apoda
(D) None of the above.
Amphibians evolved in
(A) Sea
(B) Fresh water
(C) On banks of fresh water (D) Land.
Age of amphibians is
(A) Carboniferous
(B) Ordovician
(C) Devonian
(D) Cambrian.
In Frog and Toad, the tongue is attached
(A) Posteriorly
(B) Anteriorly
(C) Laterally
(D) Absent.
Amphibians, are
(A) Amniotes
(B) Anamniotes
(C) Homocothermic
(D) Nontetrapod vertebrates.
In amphibians the heart is
(A) Two chambered and venous
(B) Two chambered and arterial
(C) Three chambered
(D) Incompletely four chambered.
Amphibians possess
(A) Hepatic portal system
(B) Renal portal system
(C) Hypophyseal portal system
(D) All the above.
In Frog, the lower eye lid is
(A) Rapidly movable (B) Slightly movable (C) Immovable
(D) Absent.
In Frog, the upper eye lid is
(A) Absent
(B) Slightly movable (C) Rapidly movable
(D) Immovable.
A structure, absent in pisces, has evolved in amphibians
(A) Tail
(B) Teeth
(C) Scales
(D) Internal flares.
Neoteny is found in larva of
(A) Saiwnandra
(B) Rana
(C) Necturus
(D) Ichtlzyophis.
Revision Questions
60.
61.
Salamander is a member of
(A) Ayes
(B) Amphibia
Which is not a true amphibian animal
(C) Mammalia
(D) Reptilia
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
(A) Salamander
(B) Toad
(C) Tortoise
(D) Frog
Fire bellied toad is
(A) Amphiuma
(B) Discoglossus
(C) Nectu,us
(D) Salamandra
An amphibian lacking tongue is
(A) !chthyophis
(B) Neciurus
(C) Amphiuma
(D) Salamandra.
Necturus is
(A) Hell Bender
(B) Congo Eel
(C) Mud Puppy
(D) Blind Worm.
Lateral line organs do not occur in adult amphibians due to
(A) Metamorphosis
(B) Evolution of terrestrial habit
(C) Change in feeding habit
(D) Development of legs
A limbless am is
(A) Hyla
(B) Ichthyophis
(C) Alytes
(D) Bufo.
A true terrestrial animal is
(A) Frog
(B) Nectwus
(C) Tortoise
(D) Toad.
A frog has
(A) Eyes but no lids (B) Jaws but no teeth (C) Hands but no fingers
(D) Ears but no pinnae
Frog has
(A) Five fingers and four toes
(B) Four fingers and five toes
(C) Five fingers and five toes
(D) Four fingers and four toes.
A frog with body temperature of 20C is transferred to an area with 30C temperature. What will
be the body temperature of frog in the new environment
(A) 20C
(B) 30
(C) 25C
(D) Fluctuates between 20-30C.
Bull Frog of India is
(A) Rana tigerina
(B) R. sylvaiica
(C) R. ecutesbeiana
(D) R. esculenta.
Retention of larval characters even after sexual maturity is called
(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Ontogenesis
(C) Phyllogcnesis
(D) Neoteny.
All vertebrates possess
(A) Renal portal system
(B) Dorsal hollow central nervous system
(C) Four chambered ventral heart
(D) Pharyngeal gill slits
The glands present in the skin of Frog are
(A) Sweat and mammary
(B) Sweat and sebaceous
(C) Sweat and mucous
(D) Mucous and poisonous
Mucus helps frog in forming
(A) Thick skin
(B) Dry skin
(C) Smooth skin
(D) Moist skin.
Frog is
(A) Amnionotelic
(B) Ureotelic
(C) Uricotelic
(D) None of the above,
Neoteny is found in
(A) Axoloti
(B) Hyla
(C) Salamander
(D) Tadpole.
Frog/Toad belongs ti order
(A) Apoda
(B) Anura
(C) Urodela
(D) Caudata.
The functional kidney of frog tadpole is
(A) Archinephros
(B) Pronephros
(C) Mesonephros
(D) Metanephros.
Flying Frog is
(A) Rhacophorus
(B) Hyla
(C) Pipa
(D) Alytes
Neoteny is characteristic of
(A) Bufo
(B) Ichthyophis
(C) Ambystoma
(D) Rana.
Except mammals, the lungs occur in
(A) Pleural cavity
(B) Pleuro-peritoneal cavity
(C) Thoracic cavity
(D) Pericardial cavity
Axolotl is the name of larva of
(A) Amphioxus
(B) Silkworm
(C) Ambystoma
(D) Roundworm.
Neoteny is related to
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
(A) North America due to aerial flow of iodine(B) Genetic feature of some amphibians
(C) Larva develops sex organs
(D) None of the above
Croaking of Frog is
(A) Hunger call
(B) Sex call for female(C) Danger call
(D) Musical note.
Ichthyophis belongs to
(A) Amphibia
(B) Mollusca
(C) Annelida
(D) Reptila.
RBCs are nucleated in
(A) Rat
(B) Cat
(C) Frog
(D) Rabbit.
Which is the smallest taxonoic group having cranium, vertebral column, ventral heart, pulmonary
respiration and two pairs of legs?
(A) Chordata
(B) Gnathostomata (C) Vertebrata
(D) Tetrapoda.
Reproduction in larval stage is known as
(A) Paedogenesis
(B) Parthenogenesis (C) Neoteny
(D) None of the above.
Dicondylic skull with 10 pairs of cranial nerves occur in
(A) Pisces
(B) Amphibia
(C) Reptilia
(D) Mammalia
Ancestral amphibians or early tetrapods evolved during
(A) Devoman
(B) Carboniferous
(C) Cretaceous
(D) Jurassic
Aquatic amphibians are ammonotelic in
(A) Adult stage
(B) Larval stage
(C) Immature stage
(D) Both A and B.
Three-chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as four chambered human heart because
(A) Oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods mix up
(B) Ventricle does not pump blood properly
(C) It does not hold enough blood
(D) Heart muscles are not strong.
In Frog, jelly around the eggs is deposited
(A) In water after fertilization
(B) In water during fertilization
(C) In the oviduct
(D) In the ovary
Opening of rectum in Frog is called
(A) Coccyx
(B) Cloaca
(C) Anus
(D) None of the above.
Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong
(C), both wrong (D). Assertion. Amphibians have evolved from fishes. Reason. Take the example
of fossil Arc haeopteriyx.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Surinam Toad is
(A) Pipa
(B) Alytes
(C) Bufo
(D) Born binator.
Toad contains
(A) Salivary glands, mucus glands and parotid glands
(B) Slippery skin, yellow pigment and abundant mucus glands
(C) Farotid glands, warty skin and semicircular canals
(D) Bifil tongue, slippery skin and mucus glands
Amphibian heart is
(A) Four chambered (B) Three chambered (C) Two chambered
(D) One chambered
Structure present in man but absent in frog is
(A) Salivary glands (B) Pancreas
(C) Adrenal glands
(D) Thyroid gland.
Tadpole respires through
(A) Skin
(B) Gills
(C) Lungs
(D) Tail fin.
KidneyofFrogis
(A) Archinephros
(B) Pronephros
(C) Mesonephros
(D) Metanephros.
An ectothermal cold blooded animal is
(A) Penguin
(B) Lemur
(C) Owl
(D) Frog.
Midwife Toad is
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
(A) Bufo
(B) Rana
(C) Pipa
(D) Alytes.
Green Tree Frog is
(A) Hyla
(B) Rhacophon
(C) Alytes
(D) Pipa.
Mcsonephric kidney is found in
(A) Amphibia
(B) Mammalia
(C) Reptilia
(D) Ayes.
Lateral line system is not well developed in
(A) Shark
(B) Catla
(C) Sea Horse
(D) Frog.
Tail of tadpole is
(A) Locomotory organ
(B) Attachment organ
(C) Digestive organ
(D) Excretory organ
Presence of gills in tadpole of Frog indicates that
(A) Frog will have gills in future
(B) Frog evolved from gilled ancestors
(C) Fishes were amphibians in the past
(D) Fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors.
In Frog, oviduct is formed by
(A) Wolffian duct
(B) Bidders canal
(C) Metanephric duct (D) Mullerian duct
Frog is amphibian because
(A) It has no tail
(B) It has lungs
(C) Its tadpole is aquatic
(D) It lives both on land and water
Which one is useful in metamorphosis of tadpole into frog?
(A) Aldosterone
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Pituitary hormone (D) Oxytocin.
Neoteny is
(A) Development of gonads
(B) Pre-adult animal
(C) Retention of larval traits in adult
(D) Metamorphosis
(E) Precocious development
Exoskeleton is absent in
(A) Frog
(B) Scoliodon
(C) Rabbit
(D) Fowl.
Which is not common between Newt and Hernidactylus?
(A) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail.
(B) Head has a pair of eyes and tympanic membranes.
(C) Trunk has two pairs of limbs.
(D) Heart is three chambered.
Excretion in tadpole is
(A) Ureotelic
(B) Ammonotelic
(C) Uricotelic
(D) None of the above
The process by which tail of tadpole is dissolved and tadpole changes into adult is known as
(A) Neoteny
(B) Paedogenesis
(C) Metamorphosis
(D) Morphogenesis
Limbless amphibians belong to the order
(A) Anura
(B) Urodela
(C) Gymnophiona
(D) Lissamphibia.
Exoskeleton, a characteristic feature of reptiia, is absent in
(A) Fish
(B) Ayes
(C) Mammals
(D) Amphibians.
Match the columns
Coloumn I
Column II
a) Euplectella
1)
Sea pen
b) Physalla
2)
Pin worm
c) Pennatula
3)
Venus Flower Basket
d) Enterobius
4)
Midwife Toad
e) Alytes
5)
Portuguese man of War
A) a5, b4, c3, d2, e1
(B) a5,b3,c4,d2,e1
(C) a4,b5,c1,d2,c3
(D) a3, b5, cI, d2, e4
(E) a2,b1,c3,d--4,e5
The largest RBCs arc seen in
(A) Amphibia
(B) Man
(C) Elephant
(D) Whale.
Select the correct classiflcation of Rana tigrina upto genus
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1) A
2) B
3) C
ANSWER KEY
5) D
6) A
4) C
7) D
8) C
9) C
10)
11)
C 12)
C 13)
14)
15)
C 16)
D 17)
18)
19)
B 20)
21)
C 22)
D 23)
24)
25)
B 26)
D 27)
28)
29)
B 30)
31)
D 32)
C 33)
34)
35)
D 36)
C 37)
38)
39)
B 40)
41)
D 42)
D 43)
44)
45)
C 46)
D 47)
48)
49)
A 50)
51)
A 52)
53)
54)
55)
D 56)
C 57)
58)
59)
A 60)
61)
C 62)
63)
64)
65)
B 66)
67)
68)
69)
B 70)
71)
A 72)
D 73)
74)
75)
D 76)
77)
78)
79)
B 80)
81)
C 82)
83)
84)
85)
B 86)
A 87)
88)
89)
A 90)
91)
A 92)
D 93)
94)
95)
B 96)
C 97)
98)
99)
B 100) A
104) D
105)
A 106)
A 107) D
108) A
109) B 110)
118)
119)
D 120) D
129)
130)
101) B
102) C 103) D
111) D 112) B
113) C
114) A
115)
A 116)
121) A 122) B
123)
124)
125)
126)
117)
127)
128)
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
(A) Ocean
(B) Estuaries
(C) Rivers and lakes
(D) All the above.
Alligator occurs in
(A) India
(B) America and China (C) Africa
(D) Australia.
Gavialis lives in
(A) Sea
(B) Rivers
(C) Ponds and pools
(D) All the above.
Gavialis is characterised by
(A) Prolonged snout
(B) Green upper surface
(C) Pot like anterior enlargement of snout in males
(D) All the above.
Snout is blunt in
(A) Crocodile
(B) Gavial
(C) Alligator
(D)All the above.
Crocodile swims in water by means of
(A) Laterally compressed tail
(B) Webbed hind limbs
(C) Webbed fore limbs
(D) Both A and B.
In crocodilia, the teeth are
(A) Thecodant
(B) Unequal
(C) Not used for mastication (D) All the above.
Head is prolonged to form snout in members of crocodilia for
(A) Separating nostrils from eyes
(B) Keeping head out of water while swimming
(C) Increasing gape
(D) None of the above.
In crocodilians fore limbs are
(A) Webbed and five digited
(B) Webbed and four digited
(C) Nonwebbed and five digited
(D) Nonwebbed and four digited.
Crocodiles resemble mammals in having
(A) Urinary bladder
(B) Longitudinal cloaca
(C) Diaphragm
(D) Mixing of arterial and venous bloods.
Diaphragm found in crocodiles is
(A) Incomplete
(B) Complete
(C) Present in the abdomen
(D) Found inside thorax.
Bony plates with horny epidermal scales occur in
(A) Lizards
(B) Crocodiles
(C) Snakes
(D) Both B and C.
Green Turtle is known so because its
(A) Shell is green
(B) Fat is green
(C) Body is green
(D) All the above.
Green Turtle is
(A) Testudo
(B) Tn onyx
(C) Lissemys
(D) Chelonfa.
A chelone in which head cannot be withdrawn completely inside the shell is
(A) Testudo
(B) Clzelonia
(C) Trionyx
(D) Both B and C.
The upper dorsal part of chelone shell is
(A) Carapace
(B) Plastron
(C) Epivalve
(D) Epitheca.
Limbs are webbed for swimming in
(A) Tortoise
(B) Turtle
(C) Terrapin
(D) All the above.
Limbs are modified into flippers in
(A) Turtle
(B) Terrapin
(C) Tortoise
(D) Crocodile.
Chelones resemble birds in having
(A) Four chambered heart
(B) Beaked toothless jaws
(C) Inelastic lungs
(D) Presence of diaphragm.
Tuatara belongs to
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Africa
(D) New Zealand.
Tuatara Sphenodon is peculiar in having
(A) Crest
(B) Laterally compressed tail
(C) Median eye
(D) All the above.
Which one is a living fossil
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
(A) Sphenodon
(B) Hydrophis
(C) Thonyx
(D) Testudo.
Snake produces hissing sound through
(A) Vocal cords
(B) Forceful expulsion of air from lungs
(C) Forceful expulsion of air from narcs
(D) Forceful inhalation.
Snakes have
(A) Highly developed lungs
(B) Right lung reduced
(C) Left lung reduced
(D) None of the above.
Permanently. open or functional eyes found in
(A) Snakes
(B) Lizards
(C) Crocodiles
(D) Testudians.
Snake regularly protrudes its forked tongue through a notch in
(A) Upper jaw
(B) Lower jaw
(C) Jointly by upper and lower jaw
(D) Opening of mouth.
Snakes have movable jaw bones for
(A) Wide gape
(B) Crushing of their prey
(C) Protection from violent movements of prey
(D) All the above.
Snakes lack
(A) Scales
(B) Tympanum
(C) Ribs
(D) Locomotion.
Snakes regularly protrude their tongue as the latter is
(A) Sensory
(B) Catches small insects
(C) Excretory
(D) Dissipates body heat.
Poison is neurotoxic in snakes
(A) Viper
(B) Cobra
(C) Krait
(D) Both B and C.
Snake poison is hemotoxic in
(A) Python
(B) Viper
(C) Eryx
(D) Ptyas
A poisonous lizard is
A) Varanus
(B) Phi ynosoma
(C) Helodenna
(D) Ophisaurus.
Gila Monster Helodernza occurs in
(A) Africa
(B) America
(C) Central Asia
(D) China.
Which animal ejects a stream of blood on being irritated
(A) Horned Toad Phiynosoma
(B) Glass Snake Ophisau
(C) Indian Monitor Varanus
(D) Garden Lizard Calotes.
The lizard famous for changing its colour is
(A) Wall lizard
(B) Chwnaeleon
(C) Heloderma
(D) Uromastix.
The lizard having over 20 cm long tongue is
(A) Wall lizard
(B) Varanus
(C) Calotes
(D) Chamaekon.
The largest lizard is
(A) Chwnaeleon zeylanicus
(B) Helodenna suspectum
(C) Varanus komodensis
(D) Varanus monitor.
A lizard where head and neck turn red on being excited is
(A) Calotes
(B) Chamaeleon
(C) Varanus
(D) Uromastir.
Which one is known as Blood Sucker
(A) Hemidactylus
(B) Draco
(C) Garden Lizard
(D) Horned Toad.
Draco is
(A) Garden Lizard
(B) Flying Dragon
(C) Flying Lizard
(D) Both B and C.
Flying Lizard is able to glide in air with the help of
(A) Wings
(B) Patagia
(C) Webbed digits
(D) Flat tail.
The regenerated tail of Wall Lizard is
(A) Without vertebrae
(B) Similar to normal tall
(C) Stumpy
(D) Very long.
Double Headed Snake is
66.
(A) Typhlos
(B) Ptyas
The second head of Sand Boa is
(A) Nonfunctional
(B) Blunt tall end
(C) Eryx
(D) Bungwus.
Revision Questions
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
A nonpoisonous snake is
(A) Viper
(B) Python
(C) Bun
(D) Sea snake.
The most poisonous snake is
(A) Pat snake
(B) Tree snake
(C) Krait
(D) Python.
Snakes do not have
(A) Girdles
(B) Eye lids
(C) Limbs
(D) All the above.
Poisonous fangs of a snake are modified
(A) Canines
(B) Nasals
(C) Mandible
(D) Maxillary teeth.
Snake moulting consists of
(A) Stratum germinativum (B) Dermis
(C) Epidermis
(D) Cornified cells
A poisonous lizard is
(A) Helodenna
(B) Ancistrodon
(C) Chanlaeleon
(D) Varaniss.
Common trait amongst reptiles, fishes and amphibians is
(A) Gills
(B) Scales
(C) Laying of eggs
(D) Shelled eggs.
Amniota includes
(A) Reptiles and mammals
(B) Birds and mammals
(C) Reptiles and birds (D) Reptiles, birds and mammals.
Typhlos is
(A) Sea Snake
(C) Blind Snake
(B) Glass Snake
(D) Grass Snake.
Vestigial hind limbs occur in the snake
(A) Krait
(B) Russels Viper
(C) Python
(D) Cobra.
Marine poisonous snake is characterised by
(A) Body colour
(B) Pit between nostrils (C) Round tail (D) Laterally compressed tail.
Teeth conducting poison in a snake are called
(A) Bunodont
(B) Canines
(C) Fangs
(D) Heterodont.
The reptile which glides in the air is
(A) Phiynosoma
(B) Calotes
(C) Draco
(D) Anguis
Some reptiles show autotomy which means
(A) Signal for courtship
(B) State of starvation prior to death
(C) Signal for charging
(D) Voluntary breaking tail to confuse enemy
Which is not a poisonous snake?
(A) Krait
(B) Viper
(C) Rat Snake
(D) Cobra.
Most favourable land adaptation in reptiles is
(A) Lungs
(B) Scales
(C) Moist skin
(D) Pentadactyl limbs.
A depression or aperture where digestive urinary and reproductive ducts open is
(A) Cloaca
(B) Anus
(C) Vestibule
(D) Gonopore.
Cold blooded animal is the one which has
(A) Cold blood
(B) Low .body temperature
(C) Cold habitat
(D) No regulatory system of body temperature.
Which is correct for Indian snakes?
(A) Only sea snakes are poisonous
(B) Only. sea snakes are nonpoisonous
(C) All sea snakes are poisonous
(D) All water snakes are poisonous.
Heart can be three or four chambered in the vertebrate group
(A) Fishes
(B) Salamanders
(C) Reptilia
(D) Birds.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
126.
125.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
1) B
2) B
3) A
ANSWER KEY
5) B
6) B
4) C
7) A
8) B
9) A
10)
11)
C 12)
A 13)
14)
15)
A 16)
A 17)
18)
19)
B 20)
21)
A 22)
A 23)
24)
25)
B 26)
D 27)
28)
29)
D 30)
31)
A 32)
C 33)
34)
35)
D 36)
D 37)
38)
39)
C 40)
41)
42)
D 43)
44)
45)
C 46)
47)
48)
49)
A 50)
51)
A 52)
D 53)
54)
55)
B 56)
A 57)
58)
59)
C 60)
61)
C 62)
D 63)
64)
65)
C 66)
67)
68)
69)
D 70)
71)
D 72)
A 73)
74)
75)
C 76)
C 77)
78)
79)
C 80)
81)
C 82)
83)
84)
85)
C 86)
C 87)
88)
89)
B 90)
91)
C 92)
A 93)
94)
95)
B 96)
D 97)
98)
99)
D 100) A
104) A
105)
B 106)
A 107) D
108) D
109) C 110)
114) A
115)
B 116)
C 117)
118)
119)
124) B
125)
A 126)
127) D
128) C
129) A 130) A
131) A 132) B
133) D
134) D
135)
C 136)
137) C
138) A
139) A 140) B
144) A
145)
C 146)
A 147) B
148) D
149) C 150) B
154)
155)
156)
158)
159)
157)
A 120) B
160)
AyesThe Birds
1.
Which is a missing link btween birds and reptiles
(A) Strutlzio
(B) Casuarias
(C) Apteryx
(D) Arc haeopterjx.
2.
Which is a world champion bird
(A) Pelicanus
(B) Sterna
(C) Capella
(D) None of the above.
3.
The smallest bird is
(A) Cuban bee
(B) Sun bird
(C) Passer
(D) None.
4.
The bird that hibernates in winter is
(A) Poorwill (Caprirnulgus)
(B) Arctic Tern (Sterna)
(C) Albatross
(D) None, of. the above.
5.
The largest bird is
(A) Pavo
(B) Strut hio
(C) Pelican
(D) None of the above.
6.
Which is the flightless bird?
(A) Fowl
(B) Passer
(C) Kiwi
(D) None of the above.
7.
Teeth are absent in the jaws of
(A) Amphibians
(B) Fishes
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals.
8.
Thin walled air sacs are connected with lungs in
(A) Amphibians
(B) Reptiles
(C) Birds
(D) Mammals.
9.
Pneumatic skeleton is found in
(A) Amphibians/Rana
(B) Reptiles/Wall Lizard
(C) Birds/Pigeon
(D) Mammals/Whale
10.
Peacock is
(A) Passer dornesticus
(B) Pavo cristatus
(C) Archaeopterx lithographica
(D) Psittacula eupatrica.
11.
Which one of the birds is viviparous
(A) Ostrich
(B) Penguin
(C) Albatross
(D) None.
12.
Which of the birds has teeth
(A) Pelican
(B) Ostrich
(C) Albatross
(D) Archaeopteiyt
13.
Birdman of India/Most famous ornithologist of India is
(A) Salim Au
(B) Vishwanathan
(C) Kashyap
(D) Hussain.
14.
Which of the following can fly backwards
(A) Penguin
(B) Albatross
(C) Humming bird
(D) Elephant bird.
15.
Birds do not possess
(A) Teeth
(B) Urinary Bladder (C) Gail Bladder
(D) All the above.
16.
The avian/reptilian eyes are peculiar because of the presence of
(A) Pecten
(B) Large number of cones
(C) Large pupil
(D) Sensitive retina.
17.
The migration of birds is initiated by
(A) Shortage of food
(B) Purpose of breeding
(C) Search of shelter
(D) Day length affecting the endocrine gland
18.
Migration of birds is studied under
(A) Ornithology
(B) Nidology
(C) Phenology
(D) Ecology.
19.
The vertebrae of birds are characteristically
(A) Heterocoelous
(B) Acoelous
(C) Opisthocoelous
(D) Amphicoelous.
20.
The skull of birds is
(A) Monocondylic
(B) Dicondylic
(C) Amphicondylic
(D) None of the above.
21.
The power of young birds to return to the original grounds of parents is
(A) Intelligence and intuition
(B) False conception
(C) Instinct only
(D) Intuition and instinct.
22.
A bird with movable upper jaw is
(A) Vulture
(B) Parrot
(C) Sparrow
(D) Pigeon.
23.
A famous bird sanctuary is
24.
25.
26.
27.
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44
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113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
(A) Mammals
(B) Birds
(C) Amphibians
(D) Reptiles.
In which group, high regulated body tempe rature and limited fat reserve, make a large
requirement of food high in energy value
(A) Mammals
(B) Fishes
(C) Reptiles
(D) Birds
Which is a flightless bird?
(A) Albatross
(B) Emu
(C) Crane
(D) Flamingo.
Vertebrates having air sacs are
(A) Birds
(B) Amphibians
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals.
Besides pneumatic bones, another useful flight adaptation in birds is
(A) Syrinx
(B) Pygostyle
(C) Furcula
(D) Quill feathers.
Toes of Owl are adapted for
(A) Perching
(B) Cursorial
(C) Raptorial
(D) Walking
Ovary is single in
(A) Mammals
(B) Ayes
(C) Reptiles
(D) Amphibians
Urinary bladder is absent in
(A) Amphibians
(B) Mammals
(C) Lizards
(D) Ayes.
Feathers present over nestlings areS
(A) Down
(B) Contour
(C) Filop
(D) Quill
Pneumatic bones, four chambered heart and feathers occur in
(A) Cyclostomata
(B) Ayes
(C) Mammalia
(D) Reptilia.
Archaeopteiyx lived during
(A) Cretaceous
(B) Triassic
(C) Permian
(D) Jurassic.
Given below are assertion and -reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong
(C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. AU birds, except the ones like Koel (Cuckoo) build nests
for retiring and taking rest during night time (day time for nocturnal). Reason. Koel lays its eggs
in the nests of Tailor Bird
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Assertion. Owls can move freely during night
Reason. They have large number of rods on their retina
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Birds have reptilian ancestry as they have
(A) Four chambered heart
(B) Shelled eggs
(C) Beak and feathers
(D) Both A and B.
Which one is not a bird
(A) Himalayan-Quail (B) Albatross
(C) Bufo
(D) Magpie
A distinct feature of birds is
(A) Feathers
(B) Claws
(C) Beak without teeth (D) Wings
Function of amnion in birds is
(A) Nutrition
(B) Excretion
(C) Protection
(D) None.
Which one is group of warm blooded
(A) Fishes
(B) Amphibians
(C) Reptiles
(D) Birds.
Which one has a raft-like keel, a preen gland and a penis?
(A) Dromaius
(B) Passer
(C) Struthio
(D) Tinanzus.
Match the columns
Coloumn I
Column II
a) Limbicis reptile
i)
Lamprey
b) Jawless vertebrate
ii)
Salamander
c) Amphibian
iii)
Snake
d) Cartilaginos fish
iv)
Shark
e) Plightless bird
v)
Ostrich
(A) a (i), (b) (ii), c (iii), d (iv), e (v)
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
ANSWER KEY
1) D
2) B
3) A
4) A
5) B
6) C
7) C
8) C
9) C
10)
11)
D 12)
D 13)
14)
15)
D 16)
A 17)
18)
19)
A 20)
21)
C 22)
23)
24)
25)
A 26)
27)
28)
29)
B 30)
31)
32)
C 33)
34)
35)
A 36)
D 37)
38)
39)
A 40)
41)
42)
C 43)
44)
45)
B 46)
A 47)
48)
49)
C 50)
51)
A 52)
C 53)
54)
55)
D 56)
A 57)
58)
59)
C 60)
61)
C 62)
D 63)
64)
65)
A 66)
C 67)
68)
69)
A 70)
71)
C 72)
73)
74)
75)
D 76)
A 77)
78)
79)
D 80)
81)
C 82)
C 83)
84)
85)
B 86)
87)
88)
89)
D 90)
91)
94)
95)
A 96)
A 97)
98)
99)
C 100) D
92)
93)
104) A
105)
B 106)
D 107) B
108) C
109) A 110)
111) A 112) B
113) B
114) D
115)
B 116)
A 117)
118)
119)
121) A 122) B
123) D
124) C
125)
A 126)
D 127) C
128) A
129) C 130) D
134) B
135)
D 136)
C 137) C
138) B
139)
B 120) D
140)
Mammalia
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
11.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
3!.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
(A) Australia
(B) South America (C) Africa
(D) China.
Orang Utan is found in the forests of
(A) Malayasia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Africa
(D) America.
Heavy belly is characteristic of primate
(A) Gorilla
(B) Orang Utan
(C) Baboon
(D) Gibbon.
Hands and feet are of grasping type in
(A) New World Monkey
(B) Old World Monkey
(C) Apes
(D) All the primates.
Ruminants belong to
(A) Artiodactyla
(B) Perissodactyla
(C) Proboscidea
(D) All the above.
A nonruminant member of artiodactyla is
(A) Camel
(B) Pig
(C) Hippopotamus
(D) Both B and C.
The stomach of Camel is
(A) Five chambered (B) Four chambered (C) Three chambered (D) Two chambered.
Pouches are found over the first two chambers of stomach in
(A) Deer
(B) Camel
(C) Buffalo
(D) Giraffe.
Riverine Horse is
(A) Rhino
(B) Hippopotamus
(C) Tapir
(D) Zebra.
Hollow horns occur in
(A) Deer
(B) Giraffe
(C) Buffalo
(D) All the above.
Horns are deciduous in
(A) Goat
(B) Sheep
(C) Cow
(D) Deer.
Even-toed unguligrade mammal which has nails instead of hoofs is
(A) Giraffe
(B) Camel
(C) Cow
(D) Sheep.
Sweat is reddish in
(A) Hippopotamus (B) Elephant
(C) Rhino
(D) Musk Deer.
Moschus nwschife is
(A) Hog Deer
(B) Swamp Deer
(C) Mus,k Deer
(D) Barking Deer.
Upper lip is cleft in
(A) Hare
(B) Rabbit
(C) Camel
(D) All the above.
Fore limbs and neck are elongated in
(A) Arabian Camel (B) Turkish Camel
(C) Giraffe
(D) African Elephant.
The animal hunted
for its horns is
(A) Ceivus axis
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Giraffa
(D) Wild Boar.
Horn of Rhino is
(A) Keratinised bundle of hair
(B) Bony
(C) Cartilaginous
(D) Partially bony and partially cartilaginous.
Horse is
(A) Digitigrade
(B) Unguligrade
(C) Plantigrade
(D) None of the above.
Zebra has stripes
(A) Reddish
(B) Whitish
(C) Greenish
(D) Yellowish.
What is characteristic of Zebra stripes
(A) Longitudinal
(B) Transverse
(C) Specific for every animal
(D) Oblique.
Upper lip and nose is prolonged to form proboscis in
(A) Giraffe
(B) Tapir
(C) Horse
(D) Ass.
Perissodactyla consists of
(A) Even toed hoofed unguligrade mammals
(B) Odd toed hoofed unguligrade mammals
(C) Even toed non-hoofed digitigrade mammals
(D) Odd toed non-hoofed digitigrade mammals.
Human beings are
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
(A) Plantigrade
(B) Digitigrade
(C) Unguligrade
(D) None of the above.
A digitigrade animal is
(A) Bear
(B) Elephant
(C) Cow
(D) Deer.
Horse does not possess
(A) Gall bladder
(B) Urinary bladder (C) Molars
(D) Premolars.
Animals in which premolars and molars are similar
(A) Elephants
(B) Otters
(C) Jackals
(D) Ass and Horse.
Proboscis of Elephant is formed of
(A) Prolongation of nose
(B) Enlargement of upper lip
(C) Both A and B
(D) Prolongation of lower lip.
Tusks of female Elephant are
(A) Long
(B) Small
(C) Rudimentary
(D) Absent.
In male Elephant, the testes are
(A) Abdominal
(B) Scrotal
(C) Change position with season
(D) Change position with breeding.
Elephant drinks water through
(A) Proboscis
(B) Mouth
(C) First sucks water in proboscis and then pours the same in mouth
(D) Elephant does not drink water.
Gait of Elephant is different from others
(A) The statement is wrong
(B) There is no bending of limbs
(C) There is bending of limbs in the region of ankles
(D) Limbs bend both at knees and ankles.
Tusks of Elephant are made of
(A) Ivory
(B) Hard bone
(C) Fortified cartilage
(D) Mixture of calcium and silica.
In Elephant, external nares occur
(A) Adjacent to mouth
(B) Sides of trunk
(C) Tip of proboscis
(D) Base of trunk.
Number of cervical vertebrae in Manatee is
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 6.
Cervical vertebrae in Bradypus are
(A)5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9.
In Sea CowfManatee
(A) Hind limbs are absent
(B) Fore limbs are modified into paddles
(C) Tail has tin
(D) All the above.
Seal (Phoca) is
(A) Marine mammal (B) Carnivore (C) Both A and B (D) Swimmer as well as fast runner.
A marine mammal of order Carnivora is
(A) Otter
(B) Walrus
(C) Porpoise
(D) Both B and C.
Walrus has tusks which develop from
(A) Upper incisors
(B) Lower incisors (C) Upper canines
(D) Lower canines.
Big Cat which can climb a tree is
(A) Panthera leo
(B) Panthera pardus (C) Panthera tigris
(D) Both B and C.
Claws are retractile in
(A) Cats
(B) Dogs
(C) Fox
(D) Hyaena.
National mammal of India is
(A) Panther
(B) Tiger
(C) Lion
(D) Bear.
Sea Lion is
(A) Otter
(B) Walrus
(C) Seal
(D) None of the above.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
(A) Elongated snout and only molar teeth (B) Bony plates
(C) Cleavage polyembryony
(D) All the above.
Vampire bats are found in
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Africa
(D) Australia.
Vampire bats are
(A) Large sized
(B) Small sized
(C) Sanguivorous
(D) Both B and C.
Remote ancestor of apes is
(A) Water shrew
(B) Musk shrew
(C) Tree shrew
(D) Mole.
Hedge Hog belongs to order
(A) Rodentia
(B) Dermoptera
(C) Insectivora
(D) Pholidota.
Hedge Hog resembles Porcupine in being
(A) Herbivorous
(B) Covered on back by spines
(C) Insectivorous
(D) Both B and C.
Spiny Ant Eater belongs to
(A) Prototheria
(B) Metatheria
(C) Eutheria-Pholidota (D) Eutheria-Insectivora.
Scaly Ant Eater is
(A) Eutherian
(B) Metatherian
(C) Prototherian
(D) None of the above
Opossum belongs to
(A) Prototheria
(B) Metatheria
(C) Edentata
(D) Pholidota.
Scrotum developed in metatheria occurs
(A) On sides of penis
(B) Behind penis
(C) In front of penis
(D) The statement is incorrect as scrotum is absent.
A mammal in which both the sexes produce milk is
(A) Omithorhyncus
(B) Tachyglossus (= Echidna)
(C) Macropus
(D) Dideiphis.
A trait found in all mammals is
(A) Seven cervical vertebrae
(B) Placenta
(C) Hair
(D) All the above
Hair occur in all mammals except those of
(A) Rodentia
(B) Chiroptera
(C) Primata
(D) Cetacea.
A mammal which lays eggs is
(A) Scaly Anteater
(B) Spiny Anteater (C) Porcupine
(D) Hedgehog.
Rodents have
(A) Hooves
(B) Long spine
(C) Long incisors
(D) Long canines.
Mammals having traits of both reptiles and mammals are
(A) Monotremes
(B) Marsupials
(C) Whales
(D) Bats.
The earliest mammals are
(A) Eutheria
(B) Metatheria
(C) Prototheria
(D) Cetacea.
An egg laying mammal is
(A) Kangaroo
(B) Platypus
(C) Koala
(D) Whale.
Mammary glands are modified
(A) Salivary glands (B) Lacrimal glands (C) Sweat glands
(D) Sebaceous glands.
Which one uses radar system for locomotion of its food
(A) Cat
(B) Tiger
(C) Rat
(D) Bat.
Milk glands occur in
(A). All prototherians (B) Metatherians
(C) Eutherians
(D) All mammals
Echidna is
(A) A reptile native of Australia
(B) A mammal native of Australia
(C) A reptile native of Africa
(D) A mammal native of Africa.
An exclusive mammalian trait is
(A) Diaphragm
(B) 4-chambered heart(C) Thecodont dentition(D) Vivipary.
Biggest living creatures belong to
(A) Mammals
(B) Birds
(C) Reptiles
(D) Echinoderms.
What is correct?
(A) A is connecting link between Ayes and Mammalia
(B) Sea Horse is connecting link between fish and horse
(C) Duck Billed Platypus is connecting link between reptiles and mammals
(D) Hydra is connecting link between protozoa and metazoa.
115. Equus rests on
(A) Five digits
(B) Four digits
(C) Three digits
(D) One digit.
116. The smallest eggs belong to
(A) Mammals
(B) Fishes
(C) Amphibians
(D) Reptiles.
117. Ornithorhyncus is a
(A) Duck
(B) Dinosaur
(C) Monotreme mammal
(D) A fossil bird.
118. Kangaroo is inhabitant of
(A) Austria
(B) Australia
(C) Mexico
(D) Africa
119. Egg laying mammals are mostly native of
(A) India
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Arabia.
1:20. Whale Fish is a member of
(A) Reptilia
(B) Arthopoda
(C) Coelenterata
(D) Mammalia.
121. Locomotion in Kangaroo is
(A) Volant
(B) Saltatorial
(C) Cursorial
(D) GraviportaL
122. Kidney of adult Rabbit is
(A) Pronephros
(B) Metanephros
(C) Mesonephros
(D) Opisthonephros.
123. Hallux is
(A) An inward facing part of foot
(B) An inward facing part of hand
(C) An outward part of foot
(D) An outward part of hand
124. Eutherians are characterised by
(A) Hairy skin
(B) True placentation (C) Ovoviviparity
(D) Glandular skin.
125. Animals active during the day are
(A) Nocturnal
(B) Diurnal
(C) Crepuscular
(D) Fossorial.
126. Homoiothermal animals are
(A) Frog, Lion and Fish
(B) Bat, Pigeon and Rabbit
(C) Pigeon, Lizard and Tortoise
(D) Rat, Snake and Crocodile.
127. The cervical vertebrae in humans is
(A) Same as in Whale
(B) More than that in Rabbit
(C) Double than that of Horse
(D) Less than that in Giraffe.
128. What is common in Whale, Bat and Rat?
(A) Absence of neck
(B) Muscular diaphargm between thorax and abdomen
(C) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high temperature of body
(D) Presence of external ears.
129. Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and Humans belong to the same
(A) Species
(B) Genus
(C) Family
(D) Order.
130. Pinna/external ear is found in
(A) Insects
(B) Ayes
(C) Reptiles
(D) Mammals.
131. A mammal in which milk is squirted down to throat of baby by muscular contraction of mother is
(A) Bear
(B) Camel
(C) Whale
(D) Rhinoceros.
132. Kangaroo belongs to
(A) Monotremata
(B) Marsupialia
(C) Prtotheria
(D) Insectivora.
133. Which one has become extinct form India
(A) Lion
(B) Dodo
(C) Two-horned Rhino (D) Tiger
134. Which one has a poisonous gland
(A) Frog
(B) Female Wail Lizard(C) Tiygon
(D) Male Platypus.
114.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
(A) Psittacula
(B) Manis
(C) Planorbis
(D) Hydrophis.
Which is not an odd digitate pentadactylous?
(A) Rhinoceros
(B) Zebra
(C) Camel
(D) Donkey
Marsupials occur in
(A) Africa
(B) North America (C) Asia
(D) Australia
Prototheria or subclass of egg laying mammals is connected with
(A) Kangaroo
(B) Echidna
(C) Omithorhyncus
(D) Both B and C.
Mammalian brain differs from amphibian brain in having
(A) Olfactory lobes (B) Corpus callosum (C) Cerebellum
(D) Hypothalamus.
Haversian system is characteristic of
(A) All bones
(B) Reptilian bones (C) Mammalian bones (D) Avian bones.
Which one is a burrowing marsupial?
(A) Notoiyctus
(B) Thylacinus
(C) Mynnecobius
(D) Phascolaretus.
In terms of number of genera and species, which ones have the maximum number
(A) Aquatic mammals
(B) Herbivore mammals
(C) Terrestrial mammals
(D) Carnivore mammals
Which one has the smallest cranial capacity?
(A) Orang Utan
(B) Gorilla
(C) Chimpanzee
(D) Rhesus Monkey
Long neck of Camel is due to
(A) Increase in number of cervical vertebrae
(B) Increase in length qf cervical vertebrae
(C) Development of muscular pads between successive vertebrae
(D) Developing of extra bony plates between successive cervical vertebrae.
In Horse, the single large hoof represents
(A) Third digit
(B) First digit
(C) Fourth digit
(D) All the above.
Corpus callosum occurs in the brain of
(A) Pigeon
(B) Frog
(C) Crocodile
(D) Elephant.
Zoological name of Lion is
(A) Panthera tigris
(B) Janthera leo-persica(C) Panthera pardus (D) Fells leo
An example of marsupialia is
(A) Elephant
(B) Horse
(C) Macropus
(D) Rabbit.
Sonar system is found in
(A) Otter
(B) Bat
(C) Whale
(D) Both B and C.
A mammal devoid of corpus callosum is
(A) Omithorhyncus (B) Balaenoptera
(C) Macrpus
(D) Macaca.
Which is correct?
(A) Platypus lays eggs
(B) Camel has biconcave RBCs
(C) Rat has cloaca
(D) Bat has feathers
Closest primate relative of human being is
(A) Rhesus Monkey (B) Gorilla
(C) Gibbon
(D) Orang Utan.
Dissection of Rat is done from the side
(A) Dorsal
(B) Ventral
(C) Anterior
(D) Lateral.
Prototherians have evolved from
(A) Reptiles
(B) Birds
(C) Amphibians
(D) Eutherians.
Vestigial pelvic girdle and bone remnants of hind limbs are characteristic of
(A) Whale
(B) Dolphin
(C) Shark
(D) Seal.
Number of cervical vertebrae in Camel/Whale/Giraffe is
(A)9
(B)7
(C) 6
(D) 8.
Orang-utan belongs to family
(A) Homonidae
(B) Pongidae
(C) Hyalobatidae
(D) Bradipolidae
(E) Hapalidae.
In which animal, there is post-anal tail as well as heterodont teeth
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
(A) Scorpion
(B) Krait
(C) Elephant
(D) Cobra.
Animal with placenta shows
(A) Euvivipary
(B) Ovovivipary
(C) Ovipary
(D) Parthenogenesis.
Whale is mammal because it has
(A) Diaphragm
(B) Protruded scrotum
(C) Vivipary (D) Mammary
glands.
Eggs of egg laying mammals are
(A) Macrolecithal
(B) Alecithal
(C) Mesolecithal
(D) Telolecithal.
Which one of the following is not a member of eutheria
(A) Gorilla
(B) Pangolin
(C) Mole
(D) Platypus (E) Pangolin.
Order insectivora belongs to
(A) Class manunalia (B) Class insecta
(C) Phylum arthropoda (D) Phylum echinodermata.
Testes descend into scrotum in mammals for
(A) Spermatogenesis
(B) Fertilization
(C) Development of sex organs
(D) Development of visceral organs.
A reptilean character of protherian is presence of
(A) Left aortic arch
(B) T-shaped clavicle
(C) Diaphragm
(D) Seven cervical vertebrae.
Sea Cows belong to
(A) Sirenia
(B) Cetacea
(C) Lagomorpha
(D) Proboscidia.
An egg laying mammal is
(A) Lons
(B) Lemur
(C) Galago
(D) Bush Baby.
All mammals
(A) Possess uterus
(B) Give birth to live young
(C) Nourish their young ones with milk
(D) Contain thick coat over their young.
In which manunals do the testes remain in the abdomen
(A) Humans
(B) Rabbit
(C) Ox
(D) Elephant
The character which differentiates mammals from birds is
(A) Seven cervical vertc brae
(B) Parental care
(C) One aortic arch
(D) Metanephric kidney
Which one of the following is not a mammalian character
(A) Enucleated RBCs
(B) Three chambered heart
(C) Muscular diaphragm
(D) Hairy skin
Ecolocation through high frequency sound is trait of
(A) Bats
(B) Birds
(C) Insects
(D) Monkeys. (E) Rats
Animals giving birth to young ones are
(A) Viviparous
(B) Oviparous
(C) Triploblastic
(D) Coelomate.
Most animals domesticated by humans belong to
(A) Carnivora
(B) Rodentia
(C) Logomorpha
(D) Ungulata
Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason wrong
(C), and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Bats and whales are classified as mammals. Reason. Bats
and whales are four chambered heart.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Indian Monkey is
(A) Macaca
(B) Gorilla
(C) Ramapithecus
(D) Sunia.
In Rhinoceros, horn is formed from
(A) Adipose tissue
(B) Stratum germinativum
(C) Stratum lucidum
(D) Stratum corneum
A specific system found in Bat is
(A) Echoflight
(B) Echobalance
(C) Echolocation
(D) Echoposition
Unique feature of mammalian body is presence of
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
Given below are assertion and reason. Point out if both are true with reason being correct
explanation (A), both true but reason is not correct explanation (B), assertion true but reason is
wrong (C) and both are wrong (D). Assertion. Duck-billed Platypus and Spiny Ant Eater, both are
egg laying animals, yet they are grouped under mammals. Reason. Both are having seven cervical
vertebrae and twelve pairs of cranial nerves
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D). (A.LI.M.S. 2005)
Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class mammalia?
(A) Thecodont dentition
(B) Alveolar lungs
(C) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(D) Seven cervical vertebrae.
They give birth to young ones
(A) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris (B) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich
(C) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus (D) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi
Which exhibits vivipary?
(A) Frog, Kangaroo (B) Whale, Rabbit
(D) Snake, Lizard
(D) Cockroach, Ayes.
Which one is correctly matched?
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232..
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239
240.
241.
242.
Animal
Characterstic
Taxon
a) Millipodo
Ventral nerve cord
Arachnida
b) Silverfish
Pectoral pelvic fins Chordata
c) Duck-billed Platypus
Oviparous
Mammalia
d) Sea Anomone
Triploblastic
Cnidaria
All mammals, without any exception, are characterised by
(A) Viviparity and biconcave red blood cells
(B) Extra-abdominal testes and a four-chambered heart
(C) Heterodont teeth and 12 pairs of cranial nerves
(D) A muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands
Which are true and false?
(a) In Torpedo the electric organs are capable of generating strong electric shock to paralyse prey
(b) Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal, anal and caudal fins in swimming
(c) Amphibian skin is moist and has thick scales
(d) Birds are poikilothermous animals
(e) Mammalian character is milk producing mammary glands for nourishing young ones.
(A) a, b and c an true, d and e are false
(B) a,bandearetrue,canddarefalse
(C) a, d and e are true, b and c are false
(D) a, b and d are false, c and e are true
(E) Only d is true, a, b, c and e are false.
Order primata contains
(A) Shrew and Hedge Hog
(B) Bats and Vampires
(C) Monkey and Man
(D) Horse and Zebra.
Tusks of Elephant are
(A) Upper canines
(B) Upper incisors
(C) Lower incisors
(D) Lower canines
Duck-billed Platypus is connecting link between
(A) Reptiles mammals
(B) Reptiles and birds
(C) Echinoderms and chordates
(D) Living and non-living
A tail-less primate is
(A) Lemur
(B) Spider Monkey (C) Lons
(D) African Baboon.
What is coi among Parrot, Platypus and Kangaroo
(A) Toothless jaws
(B) Functional post anal tail.
(C) Oviparity
(D) Homoiothrmy
Number of teeth in New World Monk is
(A) 12
(B)16
(C) 32
(D)36.
Arboreal adaptation occurs in
(A) Duck
(B) Squirrel
(C) Horse
(D) Parrot.
Animal with cursorial adaptation is
(A) Tree Frog
(B) Monkey
(C) Chamaeleon
(D) Horse.
Members of hominidae are
(A) Man, Lemur, Ape
(B) Man, Chimpanzee, Gorilla
(C) Monkey, Ape, Lemur
(D) Chimpanzee, Lemur, Ape.
Which one has a copulatory organ?
(A) Squirrel
(B) Snake
(C) Toad
(D) Parrot.
Which is correct set belonging to single group?
(A) Bat, Pigeon, Crow
(B) Man, Monkey, Chimpanzee
(C) Oyster, Octopus, Otter
(D) Cattle Fish, Jelly Fish, Silver Fish
Right systemic arch is absent in
(A) Mammals
(B) Reptiles
(C) Amphibians
(D) Birds.
Which is not a cat?
(A) Lion
(B) Tiger
(C) Cheetah
(D) Jackal.
Baleen (hanging horny plates) occurs in
(A) Dolphin
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
(B) 4rchaeoptei
(D) Shark.
1) B
2) B
3) C
ANSWER KEY
5) C
6) D
4) D
7) C
8) B
9) A
10)
11)
D 12)
A 13)
14)
15)
C 16)
C 17)
18)
19)
A 20)
21)
D 22)
23)
24)
25)
B 26)
D 27)
28)
29)
C 30)
31)
32)
C 33)
34)
35)
A 36)
C 37)
38)
39)
B 40)
41)
42)
D 43)
44)
45)
B 46)
A 47)
48)
49)
D 50)
51)
C 52)
A 53)
54)
55)
A 56)
C 57)
58)
59)
D 60)
61)
62)
C 63)
64)
65)
B 66)
C 67)
68)
69)
C 70)
71)
72)
C 73)
74)
75)
A 76)
77)
78)
79)
C 80)
81)
D 82)
83)
84)
85)
C 86)
87)
88)
89)
A 90)
91)
D 93)
94)
95)
B 96)
A 97)
98)
99)
C 100) B
92)
104) C
105)
A 106)
C 107) B
108) C
109) D 110)
111) B
112) A 113) A
114) C
115)
D 116)
A 117)
118)
119)
121) B
122) B
123) A
124) B
125)
B 126)
127) A
128) B
129) D 130) D
131) C 132) B
133) C
134) D
135)
D 136)
C 137) A
138) C
139) B 140) A
141) D 142) B
143) D
144) B
145)
D 146)
A 147) C
148) B
149) D 150) A
151) D 152) B
153) B
154) D
155)
B 156)
157) C
158) D
159) D 160) B
164) D
165)
B 166)
A 167) D
168) B
169) C 170) B
174) B
175)
A 176)
A 177) B
178) B
179) C 180) A
184) A
185)
A 186)
188) D
189) D 190) B
187) A
C 120) D
194) D
195)
B 196)
C 197) D
198) A
199) B 200) A
204) A
205)
D 206)
C 207) B
208) B
209) A 210) C
214) C
215)
D 216)
217) D
218) D
219) B 220) C
224) A
225)
B 226)
C 227) D
228) B
229) C 230) B
234) D
235)
B 236)
D 237) B
238) A
239) B 240) A
244) D
245)
A 246)
248)
249)
247) D
250)
Brain Teasers
1.
Wheel Animalcules are
(A) Coelenterates
(B) Echinoderms
(C) Rotifers
(D) Protozoans.
2.
Rotifers arc
(A) Unicellular animals
(B) Multicellular animals
(C) Smallest metazoans
(D) Both B and C.
3.
Characteristic of rotifers is
(A) Small size
(B) Ring of cilia
(C) Multicellular nature (D) All the above.
4.
Naked Ape is
(A) Homo sapiens
(B) Simia pygnzaeous (C) Gorilla
(D) Pan saty,us.
5.
Largest fish is
(A) Whale
(B) Whale Shark
(C) Basking Shark
(D) White Shark.
6.
Smell is most acute in
(A) Shark
(B) Whale
(C) Vulture
(D) Cat.
7.
Part of the brain connected with sense of smell in Shark is
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 50%
8.
A shark can detect blood in sea from a distance of
(A) 100 m
(B) 1000 m
(C) 2 km
(D) 5 km
9.
Size of Rhinocodon typus or Whale Shark is
(A) Sm
(B) 10 m
(C) 18 m
(D) 30 m
10.
Remigration is
(A) Migration outside the home range
(B) One time migration with no return
(C) Return migration
(D) Return by next generation.
11.
Remigration is shown by
(A) Stork
(B) Swallow
(C) Golden Plover
(D) Locust.
12.
Rearing of shell fishes was first carried out by
(A) Japanese
(B) Romans
(C) Britishers
(D) Swedes
13.
Cultivation of pearls was undertaken first by
(A) Japanese in 17th century
(B) Japanese towards the end of 19th century
(C) Britishers in 18th century
(D) Americans in the beginning of twentieth century.
14.
Cultivation of pearls was pioneered by
(A) Mikimoto
(B) Hoshimoto
(C) Yabuta
(D) Kurosawa.
15.
Number of verebrate species is
(A) 210,000
(B) 41,000
(C) 141,000
(D) 181,000.
16.
Number of viruses per ml of sea/lake water is
(A) Nil
(B) 10,000100,000 (C) 510 million
(D) 500,0005,000,000
17.
Largest egg is that of
(A) Ostrich
(B) Whale
(C) Whale Shark
(D) Cycas
18.
Zoidiogamy is found in
(A) Algae
(B) Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
(C) A few gymnosperms
(D) All the above.
19.
Egg of Rhinodon t is
(A) 17 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 23 cm
(D) 21 cm.
20.
Hydrostatic skeleton is found in
(A) Earthworm
(B) Pigeon
(C) Shark
(D) Whale.
21.
A species brought from outside which does not require human support is
(A) Exotic species
(B) Introduced species(C) Naturalised species (D) Native species.
22.
In birds and fish, an order ends in
(A) ales
(B) a
(C) formes
(D) idae.
23.
Agar is used as culture medium because it
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
(A) Cycadales
(B) Coniferales
(C) Gnetales
(D) Ginkgoales.
Besides normal roots, Cyca.s possesses another type of roots near the soil surface and called
(A) Surface feeders (B) Coralloid
(C) Mycorrhiza
(D) Adventitious
Maiden Hair Tree is
(A) Bottle Brush
(B) Araucwia
(C) Ginkgo
(D) Juniperus.
Maiden Hair Fern is
(A) Adiwitum
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Cyatlzaea
(D) Pteris.
Which one is aVwater Fern
(A) Azolla
(B) Salvinia
(C) Marsilea
(D) All the above.
Telome theory (Zimmermann, 1930) is related to origin of
(A) Pollen tube
(B) Vascular plants (C) Seed
(D) Fruit.
Transfusion tissiic occurs in
(A) All embryophytes (B) Angiosperms
(C) Gymnosperms
(D) Ferns.
Sago Palm is
(A) Borassus
(B) Cocos
(C) Elceis
(D) Cycas.
Hydrostereom or transfusion tissue is found. in
(A) Gymnosperm roots
(B) Gymnosperm leaves
(C) Gymnosperm stems
(D) All the above.
Cryptogams refer to
(A) Algae and Fungi (B) Bryophytes
(C) Pteridophytes
(D) All the above.
Phenomenon of halotism or controlled parasitism is shown by
(A) Leguniinous roots (B) Lichens
(C) Mycorrhiza
(D) All the above.
Lichens growing on rocks are called
(A) Saxicolous
(B) Corticolous
(C) Lignocolous
(D) Terricolous.
Roots of Trtfolium alxandrinum contains nitrogen fixing
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Nostoc
(C) Aerorhizobium
(D) Anabaena.
1) C
2) D
3) B
ANSWER KEY
5) B
6) A
4) A
7) C
8) B
9) C
10)
11)
D 12)
13)
14)
15)
B 16)
C 17)
18)
19)
B 20)
21)
C 22)
C 23)
24)
25)
D 26)
C 27)
28)
29)
A 30)
31)
D 32)
33)
34)
35)
A 36)
37)
38)
39)
D 40)
41)
A 42)
C 43)
44)
45)
C 46)
A 47)
48)
49)
D 50)
51)
C 52)
A 53)
54)
55)
C 56)
D 57)
58)
59)
D 60)
61)
A 62)
C 63)
64)
65)
C 66)
C 67)
68)
69)
D 70)
71)
A 72)
D 73)
74)
75)
B 76)
C 77)
78)
79)
A 80)
81)
C 82)
A 83)
84)
85)
A 86)
87)
88)
89)
C 90)
91)
C 92)
A 93)
94)
95)
C 96)
D 97)
98)
99)
B 100) A
101) B