Set-14 dtd 12/10/2015

1. In relation to workshop practices, the tool telescopic

gage is used to
a) take internal measurements
b) as in a) & can take measurements accurately within the
range of to 6
c) as in a) & can take measurements accurately within the
range of to 1
d) both a) & b)
2. Small hole gages are used to measure the dimension of
a) small holes
b) grooves and slots
c) outside dimensions
d) both a) & b)
3. Needle file is
a) used by toolmakers, die makers & watch makers
b) it is knurled on one end so that separate handle is not
needed
c) as in a) and is knurled on both ends to prevent slippage
d) both a) & b)
4. Needle bearings are roller bearings which are used
a) in small and restricted areas
b) where motion is oscillatory rather than rotary
c) for both axial and radial loads
d) both a) & b)
5. The greatest size drill amongst the following is
a) No.1
b) No.30
c) 3/16
d) E
6. MTCS
a) straight fluted reamer has a less tendency to chatter
b) Bottoming reamer is tapered for a short distance back of
the end to aid in starting
c) spirals fluted reamer is tapered for a short distance back of
the end to aid in starting
d) spirals fluted reamer has a greater tendency to chatter
7. D.P. (Diametrical Pitch) of a gear gives
a) No. of teeth
b) height of gear teeth
c) size if gear teeth
d) both a) & b)
8. The terms which are not associated with other types of
gears but ae only used in case of worm gears
a) throat and throat radius
b) throat diameter
c) pitch diameter
d) both a) & b)
9. 1/2-13NC-3B indicates
a) pitch diameter is 1/2
b) 13 NC indicates 13 TPI of national form
c) 3B indicates class 3 fit of external threads
d) ATA
10. In a gear systems, the driver and driven gears are on
different shafts to get the same direction of rotation
a) bevel gears are used
b) one of the gears should have internal teeth
c) as in a) and no mechanical advantage is obtained
d) NOTA

11. The given figure indicates

a) both take radial load only
b) A takes radial load and
B takes both radial & thrust loads
c) both take thrust load only
12. Least count of micrometer is 0.01mm, reading on the
sleeve is 0.5mm and 27th division is with datum and it has an
error of +0.005cm. Find the reading
a) 0.077cm
b) 0.072cm
c) 0.72cm
13. Pitch of micrometer is 1mm and thimble scale is divided
in to 100 divisions. If the reading on the main scale is 2mm
and 45th division of the thimble scale is inline with the
datum. Find the least count of the micrometer and the
diameter of the wire from the above readings
a) 0.001cm and 0.245cm
b) 0.01cm and 2.45cm
c) 0.1mm and 0.245mm
14. Find the micrometer reading from the given diagram
a) 0.04699
b) 0.4699
c) 0.4692
15. External threads are checked by
a) roller and anvil type caliper gage
b) ring thread, gage is used
c) as in a) and ovality can also be checked
d) ATA
16. Composite has the advantage of high strength and low
weight, considering this property the composites are
a) mud and straw
b) dope and fabric
c) fiber reinforced plastic(FRC) and aramid
d) ATA
17. Hybrid means
a) two types of fibers combined to increase strength and
reduce cost
b) interplay and intraply are the same
c) as in a) & carbon/graphite blended with Kevkar are used
to substitute Boron fibers
d) ATA
18. Corrosion from Magnesium surface is cleaned by
a) steel wire brush
b) carbourandom abrasive
c) stiff hog bristle brush
d) steel burnishing tool
19. MTCS
a) ceramic fibers are characterized by dazzling white color
b) ceramic fibers are used where high strength is required
c) Kevlar has tensile strength fou times of that of aluminium
d) ATA
20. Circular magnetization method used in MPI cannot
detect which type of defect:
a) lateral cracks
b) longitudinal cracks
c) deep sub-surface flaws
d) torsional cracks on a shaft

d) as in b) and heated to purple color

21. Ultrasonic flaw detection technique is used to detect
a) flaws and inclusions in cast metal
b) flaws or cracks in welded structure
c) delamination in bonded structure
d) ATA
22. In fluorescent penetrant inspection method the color of
defect and sound part is
a) brilliant yellow0green and blue-violet
b) yellow-red & green-blue
c) black & white
d) both a) & b)
23. The primary cause of inter granular corrosion is
a) dissimilar metal contact
b) improper heat treatment
c) due to non-metal and metal contact
d) due to corrosive gases
24. In fluorescent penetrant inspection method the volume of
defect is interpreted by
a) staining speed
b) extend of staining
c) rate of staining
d) color
25. In relation to radiographic method of inspection, MTCS
a) thicker the specimen, darker will be the image
b) thicker the specimen, lighter will be the image
c) the darkness of the radiograph does not depend upon the
dariation penetrating the specimen
d)NOTA
26. For lightening protection on the composite material
a) magnesium plate is fixed on the top layer to provide a
conducting layer
b) aluminium is woven to provide a conducting path
c) metal plate is used
d) no lightening protection is needed for composite material
27. Weft threads are
a) at 45 degrees to warp threads
b) perpendicular to warp threads
c) along with the warp threads to form the edge
d) NOTA
28. MTCS
a) carbon/graphite is usually blended with fiber glass
b) Kevlar is characterized by its white color
c) ceramic fibers are used for low heat applications
d) ATA
29. In metallurgy the term creep is caused due to which
factor
a) high temperature for a long period
b) high compressive stress
c) high stress for a long period
d) as in a) & c) and permanent creep leads to rupture
30. Soaking period depends up on
a) soaking does not affect the internal structure of the metal
b) thickness of the metal
c) strength is not affected
d) ATA
31. Centre punch made of tool steel is tempered
a) to cherry red color
b) as in a) and quenched in sand
c) as in b) and heated to dazzling white color

32. Shot peening is

a) used on ferrous alloys only
b) increases strength
c) also known as sand blasting
d) ATA
33. Flux used in welding of aluminium alloy seves the
following purpose
a) improves the penetration
b) get rid of oxides
c) slows the flow of molten metal
d) better fusion
34. Soldering technique of aluminium alloy is
a) similar to that of other materials
b) different to control the expansion & contraction of metal
c) low heat input is required
d) both b) & c) are correct
35. Muntz metal is
a) brass and is used for making nuts and bolts for use in
saline areas
b) copper alloy containing zinc and minute quantities of tin,
nickel,manganese and is used for making nuts and bolts for
use I saline areas
c) both a) & b) are correct
d) bronze and is used in fuel and oil line fitting
36. Titanium is identified by
a) spark test
b) moistening it and using it to draw a line on glass
c) both a) & b)
d) chemical test
37. Friction lock rivet is used to replace
a) solid shank rivet
b) solid shank rivet but one size larger
c) as in b) and is available in hollow, self locking and self
plugging types
d) as in b) and is available in hollow self locking and self
locking with tapped threads
38. Cherry lock rivet is used to replace
a) solid shank rivet
b) as in a) & if the length is less it fails to compress the
sheets
c) as in b) and two size larger
d) as in b) and three size larger
39. Identify the figure
a) low strength material bolt
b) an standard steel bolt
c) reworked bolt
d) an corrosion resistant steel bolt
40. Identify the figure
a) special bolt
b) magnetically inspected bolt
c) dye penetrant inspected bolt
d) an standard steel bolt
41. Identify the figure
a) anchor nut with one leg
b) anchor nut with two leg
c) anchor nut with corner leg
d) floating anchor nut

42. Marking on hydraulic seals is given as

a) yellow mark for fuel
b) red mark for engine oil
c) green mark for skydrol fluid
d) white line for air
43. How can the swaged fitting be removed
a) by drilling with a one size smaller drill
b) by using a scriber
c) unscrew the threaded insert
d) ATA
44. To avoid stress dut to vibration in tube lines
a) atleast one bend is given in the line
b) two bends are given
c) no bend is required
d) preferably no bend is done, if it is done it will be less than
45
45.Rigid tubing used in A/c are classified according to
a) outside diameter
b) wall thickness and outside diameter
c) inside diameter and wall thickness
d) inside diameter
46. 7 X 19 cable indicates
a) 7 strands of 19 wires each
b) 19 strands of 7 wires each
c) 7 strands of 133 wires each
d) 7 strands of 19mm wires each
47. An A.C. generator having 8 poles and 6000 rpm has
frequency of
a) 200 cps
b) 400 cps
c) 800 cps
d) 1200 cps
48. The capacitance of a capacitor depends directly up on
a) plate area & inversely upon the distance between the
plates
b) plate area & distance between plates
c) separation & thickness of the plates
d) plate area & inversely up on dielectric material
49. If electrolyte from a Lead acid battery is spilled, it is
neutralized by
a) sodium bicarbonate & water
b) ammonia
c) Vinegar
d) both a) & b)
50. If a wire is connected to a constant voltage supply and at
the same time the length and radius is doubled the result
would be
a) electrostatic field across the wire would become double
b) electrostatic field would become half
c) heat produced by the wire will remain same
d) ATA

c) transistor
d) both a) & c)
53. Calculate the power when voltage=28v & resistance
=10
a) 284W
b) 784W
c) 78.4W
d) 7.84W
54. When a new NiCad battery is installed, its cell seal is
opened and electrolyte is poured and to ensure full charge
a) no charging is required
b) charging required and is given in boost-up
c) as in b) & suddenly installed in A/C service
d) as in b) and after 10 hrs. the electrolyte level is checked,
than installed
55.The given figure indicates
a) X-NOR gate
b) X-OR gate
c) C-MOS NOR gate
d) NOR gate
56. Convert (11.75) in to binary form
a) 1101.01
b) 1011.11
c) 1100.11
d) 1010.11
57. A computer can solve only the following type of problem
a) simplex
b) complex
c) which can be broken in to a number of logical steps
d) arithmetic calculations
58. The processing speed of a computer is expressed as
a) MHz
b) KHz
c) RAM capacity
d) frequency
59. A modern digital computer stores the data and
instructions in
a) alpha numeric form
b) decimal form
c) hexa decimal form
d) binary form
60. Lift and drag of an aerofoil depends on
a) shape of wing, wing area and angle of attack
b) forward velocity of aircraft
c) density of air
d) ATA
61. In steady and level flight, if the angle of attack increases
a) lift increases
b) drag increases
c) lift increases & drag decreses
d) lift and drag both decreases

51. If in a circuit the resistance is R and reactance is r

than impedance Z is expressed as
a) Z = R+r
b) Z = R+ r
c) 1/Z=1/R+1/r
d) Z2 = R2 + r2

62. High lift devices such as flaps and slats are used
a) to increase the speed of aircraft
b) to decrease the the take-off and landing run
c) as in b) & used in high speed operation
d) as in b) & also to reduce the fuel consumption

52. Ohms law does not hold true for

a) gas diode
b) mercury column

63. The device which is mounted on the opposite surface of

the wing and is operated along with aileron for lateral
control

a) balance panel
b) balance tab
c) spoiler
d) spring tab

c) filtration system for particles of size 5 to 10 but not

air-conditioned
d) filtration system for particles of size 20 to 25 but not
air-conditioned

64. Angle of attack is defined as

a) angle between the chord line & the longitudinal axis of
A/C
b) acute horizontal angle between the plane of symmetry of
A/C & direction of relative wind
c) angle between the chord line & the direction of relative
wind
d) both a) & c)

73. In ATA-100 specification the codes for hydraulic,

pneumatic, fire protection system and engine indicating
system are
a) 29,26,39,77
b) 29,36,26,77
c) 36,26,29,79
d) 29,71,36,27
74. MTCS
a) ATA-22 represents communication
b) ATA-54 represents pylons
c) ATA-34 represents lights

65. In straight and level flight, the dynamic pressure acting

on the tip of the nose of A/C is
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) NOTA
66. In relation to jacking of light aircraft, mark the correct
statement
a) both main wheels are raised together
b) nose or tail wheel is unlocked to permit free rotation
c) wheels are raised at least 6 from the ground
d) ATA
67. In relation to towing of an A/C which of the following is
correct
a) tail wheel A/C are generally towed from backward
b) nose wheel A/C are generally towed from backward
c) tail wheel of A/C must be in locked position
d) A/C with steerable nose-wheel the locking scissors are set
6 to fall swivel position before towing
68.Some manufacturers of large A/C provide a jacking point
in the landing gear strut for the accommodation of a small
hydraulic jack for the purpose of
a) jack up the complete aircraft
b) service the oleo-strut in-situ when the A/C is on jacks
c) jack up one wheel of A/C to change tyre, bearings or
service brake unit
d) both b) & c)

75. Fatigue over a man is caused due to

a) long hours of work
b) emotional stress
c) noise
d) ATA
76. Static discharge wicks is mentioned in which chapter of
maintenance manual
a) chapter number 22
b) chapter number 23
c) chapter number 24
d) chapter number 25
77. The working of piston engine is based on
a) boyles law
b) brayton cycle
c) charles law
d) both a) & c)
78. The mechanical efficiency of piston depends up on
a) throttle setting
b) mean effective pressure
c) fuel used and engine speed (rpm)
d) ATA

69. Class-B fire includes

a) fire in wood, paper, cloth etc.,
b) fire of energized electrical equipment
c) fire in any petroleum product
d) fire in a metal like magnesium

79. MTCS
a) turbojet engines require a shorter runway in comparison to
others
b) piston engine is most suitable for higher altitudes
c) turbojet is suitable for higher altitudes but weighs more
than piston engine for same power
d) turbojet engines require a shorter runway length in
comparison to turbojet engines

70. A/C instrument panels are usually shock mounted to

absorb the following vibrations
a) low frequency, low amplitude
b) high frequency, low amplitude
c) low frequency, high amplitude
d) high frequency, high amplitude

80. The ballast used to balance the C.G. of A/C is preferably

a) located as close as possible to the C.G.
b) located as far from the C.G. as possible and minimum
weight
c) permanent ballast
d) temperory ballast

71. In pitot static system, the static pressure is sensed at two

points by placing flat plates on either side of fuselage
a) eliminates position error
b) freedom from ice formation
c) eliminates static and instrument error
d) both a) & b)

81. The mica insulator in some commutator is undercut

approx. (jeppson,4-17)
a) equal to micas thickness
b) less than 0.020
c) not more than 0.020
d) both a) & c)

72. Precision instruments are recalibrated at regular intervals

in room having
a) normal environment but having a temperature control
b) air-conditioned and dust proof room

82. Three phase full wave rectifier in alternator is made up

of (g-2, 4-21)
a) 6 silicon diodes
b) 4silicon diodes
c) 5silicon diodes

d) 3silicon diodes
83. Which unit drops alternator from circuit when an
overvoltage condition exists (jeppson,pg4-22)
a) ACU
b) APU
c) ADU
d) ACC
84. A variable speed motor is a (FAA 9A,pg-449)
a) shunt type
b) reversing motor
c) series type
d) either a) or c)
85. Split field motor is a (FAA 9A,pg-448)
a) variable speed
b) reversing motor
c) constant speed
d) NOTA
86. Series motor used in A/C because (FAA 9A,pg-446)
a) low starting voltage
b) high starting torque
c) low stopping voltage
d) low starting torque
87. AC motor in place of DC motor (FAA 9A,pg-451)
a) less weight
b) no brushes, commutator used
c) low maintenance cost
d) ATA

c) csk bolts
d) ATA
94. Primary control surfaces are (FAA 15A,pg-18)
a) rudder, elevator and aileron
b) trim tab, rudder and elevator
c) rudder, elevator aileron and spoliers
d) NOTA
95. MTCS (FAA 15A,pg-21)
a) aileron balance panels reduces the force to position and
hold ailerons
b) balance panels are made from Al. honeycomb skin
c) wing laps reduces landing speed
d) ATA
96. Speed brakes are (FAA 15A,pg-23)
a) controlled electrically, operated hydraulically
b) controlled hydraulically, operated electrically
c) controlled pneumatically, operated hydraulically
d) NOTA
97. Secondary function of spoiler is (FAA 15A,pg-23)
a) to provide lateral control
b) to be used as speed brakes
c) to provide longitudinal control
d) for aileron drag

88. Series motor is used to operate (FAA 9A,pg-446)

a) L/G and flap operation
b) gyrometer
c) hydraulic motor
d) both a) & c)

98. Wheel well and landing gear is supported by

a) bulkhead
b) spars
c) keel beam
d) longerons
99. Fibre glass is used for its ( C.FOREMAN,PG2-2)
a) light weight
b) resistance to chemicals
c) sonic and buffet resistance
d) ATA

89. Basic shapes out of which all objects are comprised or

made by their combination are (jeppesen 5-18)
a) triangle, circle, cube, cylinder, cone and sphere
b) triangle circleand cone
c) cone, sphere and cylinder
d) NOTA

100.Which is the heaviest composite fiber

(C.FOREMAN,PG2-2)
a) carbon
b) fiberglass
c) Kevlar
d) ceramic

90. When acetone is applied to cellulose acetate plastic is

(FAA 9A,pg-186)
a) gets soften
b) gives pleasant odor
c) leaves white residue
d) NOTA
91. CHEVRON packings are (G2,7-26)
a) one way seal
b) none
c) two way seal
d) can be either
92. In monocoque fuselage construction, the primary load is
taken by (FAA 15A,pg-5)
a) skin
b) longerons
c) bulkhead
d) both b) & c)
93. The wingtip is attached to the wing with 4 (FAA 15A,pg12)
a) close tolerance bolts
b) bolts of diameter