MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIS IN

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
by
RONIE VILLAMOR

Encoded by:
VILLAMOR, Mara Mariz M.

1. What is the smallest element of a matter?

a. atom
b. molecule
c. crystal
d. wafer
2. To determine whether a material can support the flow of electricity or not, we
need to examine its
a. atomic structure
b. physical state
c. molecular structure
d. chemical composition
3. Approximate diameter of an atom
a. 10^-10 m
b. 10^-10 m
c. 10^-10 mm
d. 10^-10 m
4. Known as the simplest type of atom
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Helium
d. Nitrogen
5. Approximate diameter of a Hydrogen atom
a. 1.1 x 10^-10 m
b. 1.1 x 10^-10 m
c. 1.1 x 10^-10 mm
d. 1.1 x 10^-10 m
6. What is the charge of an electron?
a. 1.6022 x 10^-19 C
b. 9.1096 x 10^-19 C
c. 1.6022 x 10^-31 C
d. 9.1096 x 10^-31 C
7. Protons are about ____ heavier than electrons
a. 1,800 times
b. Less than thrice
c. Less
d. Twice

8. Approximately, how many electrons that could equal to the mass of a single
proton or neutron?
a. 1,863 electrons
b. 1,683 electrons
c. 1,638 electrons
d. 1,836 electrons
9. If an element has an atomic number of 12, there are how many protons and
electrons?
a. 6 protons and 12 electrons
b. 12 protons and 6 electrons
c. 12 protons and 12 electrons
d. 12 protons and 24 electrons
10. It is composed of a series of energy levels containing the valence electrons
a. conduction band
b. forbidden band
c. sideband
d. valence band
11. Electrons at the conduction band are called
a. free electrons
b. valence electrons
c. deep state electrons
d. shallow state electrons
12. A good conductor has how many valence electrons?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
13. Determine which statement is true?
a. The current carriers in conductors are protons.
b. The current carriers in conductors are valence electrons.
c. Valence and inner electrons are the carriers in conductors.
d. Valence electrons are not the ones that become free electrons.
14. A material that contains an abundance of free carrier is called
a. Insulator
b. Semi-insulator
c. Conductor
d. Semiconductor

15. From the combined energy-gap diagram, which material has the widest gap
between valence band and the conduction band?
a. Conductor
b. Semiconductor
c. Super conductor
d. Insulator
16. A solid, which has no defined crystal structure
a. Crystalline
b. Non-crystalline
c. Amorphous
d. Non-crystalline or Amorphous
17. Ideally, all atoms have the same number of positively charged protons and
negatively charged electrons, and is therefore as
a. Electrically neutral
b. Physically stable
c. Magnetically aligned
d. Technically rigid
18. A positive ion has
a. excess of electrons
b. excess of neutrons
c. lack of electrons
d. lack of protons
19. One Coulomb of charge has how many electrons?
a. 6.24 x 10^18 electrons
b. 6.24 x 10^19 electrons
c. 62.4 x 10^18 electrons
d. 62.4 x 10^19 electrons
20. One ampere is equal to how many electrons per second?
a. 1 x 10^18 electrons/sec.
b. 1 x 10^19 electrons/sec.
c. 6.25 x 10^18 electrons/sec.
d. 6.25 x 10^19 electrons/sec.
21. The greater the diameter of a wire, the ___ is the resistance.
a. greater
b. lesser
c. harder
d. bigger

22. A 100m long wire with a cross-sectional area A=10^-3 m^2 has a resistance of 10
ohms. Determine the resistivity of the wire.
a. 10^-2 ohms-m
b. 10^-3 ohms-m
c. 10^-4 ohms-m
d. 10^-5 ohms-m
23. The science of physical phenomena at very low temperature, approaching
absolute zero is called ___.
a. crytanalysis
b. cybernetics
c. temperature inversion
d. cryogenics
24. A wire has a resistance of 5 ohms at room temperature and a temperature
coefficient =4 x 10^-3 / C, calculate the wire resistance at 75 C.
a. 8.925 ohms
b. 7.925 ohms
c. 6.925 ohms
d. 6.050 ohms
25. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a certain wire is known to be 0.004/
C at zero degree Celsius. What would be the temperature coefficient at room
temperature?
a. 0.00018/C
b. 0.00036/C
c. 0.00180/C
d. 0.00360/C
26. Find the change in coulombs of dielectric that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10
to the 18the power protons.
a. 29 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
b. 14.5 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
c. 14.5 x10 to the 18th Coulombs
d. 29 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
27. What is the law whereby the force of attraction and repulsion between poles is
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
a. Newtons first law
b. Newtons second law
c. Nortons law
d. Coulombs second law

28. Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 are placed inside a sphere, what is the total
charge of the sphere?
a. +5 Coulomb
b. -6 Coulomb
c. +7 Coulomb
d. +6 Coulomb
29. What is true in visualizing electric field lines of force from a charge body?
a. Field lines are continuous curve and they never intersect.
b. The spacing between these lines increases as they get far from the charged
body.
c. The number of field lines is directly proportional to the magnitude of the
electric field.
d. All of the above.
30. Electric lines of force leave and enter the charge surface at what angle?
a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 90
31. Electric flux is a/an ________ quantity.
a. scalar
b. vector
c. absolute
d. relative
32. An electric charge produces a total electric field of 6 Coulombs, calculate the
electric flux density in an area of one square meter (1m2)
a. 1 C/m^2
b. 2 C/m^2
c. 4 C/m^2
d. 6 C/m^2
33. The absolute permittivity of air or free space.
a. 1/36 x 10^-9 F/m
b. 36 x 10^-9 F/m
c. 1/36 x10^-19 F/m
d. 36 x 10^-19 F/m
34. In 1784, who demonstrated that the force between charges is inversely related to
the square of the distance between them?
a. Maxwell
b. Gauss
c. Tesla
d. Coulomb

35. Calculate the electric field intensity 10 cm from a charge Q=5nC.

a. 450 N/C
b. 900 N/C
c. 4.5 x 10^3 N/C
d. 9.0 x 10^3 N/C
36. Calculate the total electric field at the surface of a sphere of radius r=1cm, and
enclosing a net charge of 2C.
a. 0 (zero)
b. 9 x 10^7 N/C
c. 1.8 x 10^8 N/C
d. Infinite
37. A charged body in free spaces produces 10-V potential at a distance 25 cm away.
What will be the potential at 50 cm away?
a. 5.0 Volts
b. 7.5 Volts
c. 10.0 Volts
d. 15.0 Volts
38. Which of the materials below that can be easily magnetized?
a. soft magnetic materials
b. hard magnetic materials
c. low conductive materials
d. high conductive materials
39. Materials with permeability slightly less than that of free space.
a. diamagnetic
b. paramagnetic
c. ferromagnetic
d. antimagnetic
40. The unit of magnetic flux density in SI
a. Gauss
b. Weber
c. Maxwell
d. Tesla
41. A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an area of 5 sq. cm. Results in flux density
of
a. 5,000 Gauss (G)
b. 125,000 G
c. 5,000 Tesla (T)
d. 125,000 T

42. Calculate the flux density in Gauss (G) having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a
perpendicular area of 6 cm.
a. 200 G
b. 2,000 G
c. 7,200 G
d. 72,000 G
43. If the distance between the two magnetic poles is halve, the force between them
a. decreases two times
b. decreases four times
c. increases two times
d. increases four times
44. Unit of permeability
a. Henry/meter (H/m)
b. Farad/meter (F/m)
c. Henry-meter (H-m)
d. Farad-meter (F-m)
45. The unit of permittivity
a. Henry/meter (H/m)
b. Farad/meter (F/m)
c. Henry-meter (H-m)
d. Farad-meter (F-m)
46. One Weber is equivalent to
a. 10^8 Maxwells
b. 10^6 Maxwells
c. 10^4 Maxwells
d. 10^2 Maxwells
47. Permeance is analogous to
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Impedance
d. Elastance
48. The Oersted (Oe) is the same as
a. 1 Gb/cm
b. 1 Gb/m
c. 10 Gb/cm
d. 10 Gb/m

49. The unit of reluctance

a. Gilbert
b. Tesla
c. At/Wb
d. Gauss
50. Determine the ampere-turns when a 10V battery is connected across a solenoid
having 100 turns and a resistance of 5 ohms.
a. 50 At
b. 200 At
c. 100 At
d. 1,000 At
51. If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.3 A of current, calculate the
magnetomotive force in Gilbert.
a. 163.3
b. 16.33
c. 1.633
d. 0.1633
52. If two coils are close enough together for their magnetic fields to interact, a
change in current in one will induce a corresponding voltage in the other. This
condition is known as
a. self-inductance
b. mutual inductance
c. crossfire inductance
d. linked inductance
53. When a conductor is moved through a magnetic field a voltage is always induced.
The amount of voltage is always proportional to
a. The diameter of the conductor used
b. The length of the conductor
c. The distance of the conductor from the field
d. The rate at which the conductor is moved
54. What is meant by back EMF?
a. A voltage that is applied in the reverse direction
b. An EMF that is due to the fly wheel effect
c. An EMF that is generated from the back of an electromagnet
d. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF
55. In electromagnetism, what law determines the amount of induced voltage?
a. Amperes law
b. Lenz law
c. Coulombs law
d. Faradays law

56. The effect that describes the ability of a mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire
to recognize rapid switching of magnetization when subjected to a DC magnetic
field
a. Wiegand effect
b. Wertheim effect
c. Wiedemann effect
d. Wall effect
57. _________ is called the magnetic field
a. The force that drives current through a resistor
b. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
c. The force between the plates of charged capacitor
d. A force set up when current flow through a conductor
58. What is the value of a resistor with colors from left: Orange, Blue, Gold and
Silver?
a. 34 ohms 10%
b. 3.6 ohms 10%
c. 3.4 ohms 10%
d. 36 ohms 10%
59. Resistors with high value usually have lower wattage ratings because of
_________.
a. varying current
b. lower current
c. bigger size
d. high current
60. A 33 kilo ohms resistor is connected in series with a parallel combination made
up of a 56 kilo ohm resistor and a 7.8 kilo ohm resistor. What is the total
combined resistance of these three resistors?
a. 63769 ohms
b. 49069 ohms
c. 95800 ohms
d. 39067 ohms
61. If you need a 1.25 kilo ohms resistance and you only have resistors of 5 kilo
ohms, how many of these available resistors you should connect in parallel to get
a 1.25kilo ohms value?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

62. _______ is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

a. A transformer
b. A battery
c. A capacitor
d. An inductor
63. What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?
a. Area of the plates, amount of charge in the plates and the dielectric
constant of the material between the plates
b. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the plates
c. Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric
constant of the material between the plates
d. Area of the plates, voltage of the plates and the dielectric constant of the
material between the plates
64. A parallel plate capacitor has the following values: k=81; d=0.025 inches; A=6
square inches. What is the capacitance of the capacitor?
a. 4.372 picofarad
b. 43.72 picofarad
c. 4372 picofarad
d. 4.372 picofarad
65. If two micro-farad capacitors are connected in series, what will be the total
effective capacitance?
a. 0.125 microfarad
b. 0.0624 microfarad
c. 2.5 microfarad
d. 0.50 microfarad
66. A coil of wire wound, with or without a magnetic core designed to have a higher
self-inductance than a straight wire
a. Inductor
b. Solenoid
c. Toroid
d. Inductive relay
67. Two resistors, 10 ohms and 100 ohms are connected in parallel approximately,
what is the total resistance?
a. 10 ohms
b. 50 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 100 ohms

68. A shunt resistor is used to limit the load current to 0.5 A. If the load resistance is
100 ohms and the original current is 1 amp, what should be the value of the shunt
resistance?
a. 25 ohms
b. 50 ohms
c. 75 ohms
d. 100 ohms
69. Two resistors, R1=100 ohms and R2=200 ohms are connected in parallel. If the
current through R1 is 1 A, what would be the current on R2?
a. 0.125 A
b. 0.25 A
c. 0.35 A
d. 0.50 A
70. A constant voltage source Vs=60 is delivering power to a series combination of
R1=100 ohms, R2=200 ohms and R3=300 ohms. Calculate the voltage drop
across R2.
a. 10 V
b. 20 V
c. 30 V
d. 40 V
71. If 12 V are applied to a circuit that consumes 78 W, what is the current flow
through the circuit?
a. 6.5 A
b. 936 A
c. 0.15 A
d. 9.36 A
72. The power dissipated by a 10 ohms load resistor with a current rating of 5
amperes is ________ if supplied with a 20 volt dc potential
a. 40 W
b. 80 W
c. 160 W
d. 250 W
73. The power in a circuit consisting of two equal resistors in series is known to be 10
watts. If the two resistors are connected in parallel, what would be the circuit
power dissipation?
a. 2.5 watts
b. 5 watts
c. 20 watts
d. 40 watts

74. How many nodes are needed to completely analyze a circuit according to
Kirchoffs current law?
a. Two
b. All nodes in the circuit
c. One less than the total number of nodes in the circuit
d. One
75. In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all the voltages and voltage drops is equal to zero
a. Superposition theorem
b. Nortons law
c. Kirchoffs first law
d. Kirchoffs second law
76. Theorem used to simplify complex circuits wherein, the simplified circuit
contains an equivalent open circuit resistance and open circuit voltage
a. Nortons
b. Thevenins
c. Maxwells
d. Kirchoffs
77. A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has parameters Rth=10 ohms and Vth=20V.
if this is converted to Nortons equivalent circuit, Rn and In would be
a. 10 ohms and 2 A
b. 10 ohms and 4 A
c. 0.10 ohms and 2 A
d. 0.10 ohms and 4 A
78. Rn and In of a Nortons equivalent circuit are known to be 100 ohms and 10 A
respectively. If a 400 ohms load is connected, it will have a load current of
a. 1 A
b. 2 A
c. 3 A
d. 4 A
79. In a network, what do we call a reference point chosen such that more branches in
a circuit met.
a. node
b. junction
c. ground
d. mesh
80. The return point in a circuit, where all voltage measurements are referred
a. node
b. junction
c. ground
d. loop

81. Three 100 ohms resistors are connected in tee-form (T) network and is set up
between a 100 V supply and a load resistor Rl. If maximum power transfer is
desired, what should be the resistance of the load resistor Rl?
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 125 ohms
d. 150 ohms
82. Three resistors, R1=60 ohms, R2=80 ohms and R3=100 ohms are connected in
delta. If the network is to be transformed into star, what would be the value of the
resistor opposite to R2?
a. 25.0 ohms
b. 33.3 ohms
c. 45.0 ohms
d. 56.7 ohms
83. An alternating voltage of sine-wave form has a maximum voltage of 311 V. what
is its value at 225?
a. 110 V
b. 220 V
c. -220 V
d. -110 V
84. If an alternating voltage has a magnitude of 10 V at 30, what is its maximum
voltage?
a. 20 V
b. 30 V
c. 40 V
d. 50 V
85. What is the frequency of an alternating current, if it reaches 90 within 4.167 ms?
a. 20 Hz
b. 30 Hz
c. 50 Hz
d. 60 Hz
86. At what angle does an alternating voltage of cosine-wave form reaches its
negative peak?
a. 45
b. 90
c. 135
d. 180

87. When comparing rms voltages and average voltages, which of the following
statement is true, assuming sine waves?
a. Either the rms voltage or the average voltage might be larger
b. The rms voltage is always greater than the average voltage
c. There will always be a very large difference between the rms voltage and
the average voltage
d. The average voltage is always greater than the rms
88. What do you mean by root-mean-squared (rms) voltage?
a. It is the average value
b. It is the effective value
c. It is the value that causes the same heating effect as a dc-voltage
d. B or C
89. In a purely inductive circuit the current
a. Leads the voltage by 45
b. Leads the voltage by 90
c. Lags the voltage by 90
d. Lags the voltage by 45
90. A resistive and a capacitive load of equal magnitude is connected in series,
determine the phase difference between the voltage and the current.
a. Current leads the voltage by 45
b. Current lags the voltage by 45
c. Current leads the voltage by 90
d. Current lags the voltage by 90
91. The reactance of a 25 mH coil at 500 Hz is which of the following?
a. 785 ohms
b. 785,000 ohms
c. 13 ohms
d. 0.0013 ohms
92. A 220-volt, 60 Hz source is driving a series RL circuit. Determine the current in
the circuit if R=100 ohms and XL= 100 ohms.
a. 1.10 A(lagging)
b. 1.55 A(lagging)
c. 2.20 A(lagging)
d. 4.40 A(lagging)
93. What will be the current equation in a series RC network if supplied with
v=Vmsin120t source? The circuit has a power factor pf=0.5.
a. i = Imax sin(120t + 60)
b. i = Imax sin(120t - 60)
c. i = Imax sin(120t + 30)
d. i = Imax sin(120t - 30)

94. What is the power factor (pf) of a series RL circuit having R=50 ohms and XL=20
ohms?
a. 0.63
b. 0.71
c. 0.81
d. 0.93
95. What will happen when the power factor of a circuit is increased?
a. Reactive power increases
b. Active power increases
c. Both active and reactive powers increases
d. Both active and reactive powers decrease
96. A 6-ohms resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 8 ohms. If
the supply voltage is 200 V, what is the circuit current magnitude?
a. 14.28 A
b. 20 A
c. 25 A
d. 33.33 A
97. The apparent power of a series RC network is given to be 4000 W. If R=6 ohms
and XC=8 ohms, calculate the true power of the network.
a. 1200 W
b. 2400 W
c. 3200 W
d. 4000 W
98. A series RC circuit has an apparent power of 4000 W. If R=6 ohms and XC=8
ohms, determine the reactive power.
a. 1200 W
b. 2400 W
c. 3200 W
d. 4500 W
99. What is the total impedance of a series circuit consisting of R=6 ohms, XC=8
ohms and XL=16 ohms?
a. 10 ohms
b. 14 ohms
c. 24.73 ohms
d. 30 ohms
100. What is the significance of connecting loads in parallel?
a. It makes power consumption less
b. It provides greater efficiency
c. It increases the safety factor
d. It allows independent operations of loads

101.
The name of pure semiconductor material that has equal number of
electrons and holes
a. n-type
b. pure type
c. intrinsic
d. p-type
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is an example of a compound semiconductor?

Gallium Arsenide (GaAs)
Gallium Phosphide (GaP)
Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs)
All of the above

103.
Germanium has an atomic number of 32 and atomic weight of
approximately 72 amu. How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there?
a. 32,32,40
b. 32,32,104
c. 40,32,32
d. 40,32,104
104.
The atomic weight of a silicon atom is approximately 28 amu. How may
electrons, protons and neutrons does the atom consist?
a. 14,42,14
b. 14,14,42
c. 42,14,14
d. 14,14,14
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A semiconductor that is free from impurities

intrinsic semiconductor
extrinsic semiconductor
compensated semiconductor
elemental semiconductor

a.
b.
c.
d.

Example of acceptor impurities

pentavalent impurities
trivalent impurities
tetravalent impurities
hexavalent impurities

a.
b.
c.
d.

Commonly used as donor impurities

Antimony (Sb)
Arsenic (As)
Phosphorus (P)
All of the above

106.

107.

108.
What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and
acceptor impurities?
a. double doped semiconductor
b. compensated semiconductor
c. compound semiconductor
d. diffused semiconductor
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Semiconductor whose electron and hole concentrations are equal

extrinsic semiconductor
intrinsic semiconductor
compensated semiconductor
doped semiconductor

110.
Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to
the conduction band for a doped semiconductor?
a. 0 eV
b. 0.05 eV
c. 1.0 eV
d. 5.0 eV
111.
The electrical resistance of a semiconductor material will _______ as the
temperature increases
a. increase
b. increase exponentially
c. decrease
d. not change
112.
At room temperature, in a perfect silicon crystal, the equilibrium
concentration of thermally generated electrons in the conduction band is about
a. 1.5 x 10^5 per cubic cm
b. 1.5 x 10^10 per cubic cm
c. 1.5 x 10^15 per cubic cm
d. 1.5 x 10^20 per cubic cm
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is the basis in operation of semiconductor photoconductors?

EHP generation
EHP degeneration
EHP optical degeneration
EHP optical generation

114.
Typical range of power dissipation for a semiconductor to be considered
as low power or small signal
a. less than 1 watt
b. 5< P <10 watts
c. 10< P <20 watts
d. 20 watts above

115.
What is formed when n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought
together?
a. pn junction
b. semiconductor junction
c. energy band gap
d. semiconductor diode
116.
PN junction acts as a one way valve for electrons because
______________
a. the circuit in which the diode is used, only attempts to pump electrons in
one diode
b. electrons tend to follow the direction of the hole
c. there is a little mechanical switch inside a diode
d. when electrons are pump from p to n, free electrons and holes are
force apart leaving no way for electrons to cross the junction
117.
An external voltage applied to a junction reduces its barrier and aid current
to flow through the junction
a. reverse bias
b. external bias
c. junction bias
d. forward bias
118.
Unidirectional conduction in two-electrodes in any device other than a
diode, such that rectification between the grid and cathode of a triode, or
asymmetrical conduction between the collector and base of a transistor is called
a. rectification
b. diode action
c. dipping
d. clamping
119.
Depletion region is an area in a semiconductor device where there are no
charge carriers exist. This will be always near the junction of n-type and p-type
materials. What causes this junction to be depleted by charge carriers?
a. Due to the recombination of holes and electrons at the junction
b. Due to the cancellation of positively charge protons and negatively charge
electrons
c. Due to the annihilation of charge carriers
d. Due to the combination of positively charge holes and negatively
charge electrons

120.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A junction diode is said to be forward-biased if

Anode is supplied more positive than the cathode
Anode is supplied more negative than the cathode
A voltage greater than threshold is applied, with cathode less positive
than anode
A voltage greater than threshold is applied, with cathode less negative than
anode

121.
The minimum voltage required before a diode can totally conduct in a
forward direction
a. triggering voltage
b. breakdown voltage
c. saturation voltage
d. threshold voltage
122.
As the operating temperature of as reverse-biased diode is increase, its
leakage or reverse saturation current will
a. increase
b. increase exponentially
c. decrease
d. decrease exponentially
123.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The breakdown voltage of junction diode will _____

increase as operating temperature rises
increase exponentially as operating temperature rises
decrease as operating temperature rises
not change as operating temperature rises

124.
Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it
operates at 100C
a. 0.113 V
b. 0.188 V
c. 0.215 V
d. 0.513 V
125.
A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at room
temperature. If the operating temperature is raised by 50C, what is now the
reverse saturation current?
a. 105.56 nA
b. 287.73 nA
c. 827.89 nA
d. 1.66 A

126.
In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance
between terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of
the junction is called
a. diffusion capacitance
b. transition capacitance
c. depletion-region capacitance
d. diode capacitance
127.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What capacitance is significant when the diode is forward biased?

diffusion capacitance or storage capacitance
transition capacitance
depletion-region capacitance
stray capacitance

128.
A diode that is especially designed to operate as a voltage-variable
capacitor. It utilizes the junction capacitance of a semiconductor diode.
a. varactor
b. varicap
c. varistor
d. A and B are correct
129.
A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room
temperature and a linear derating factor of 5.0 mW/C. How much power the
diode can handle if operated at 50C?
a. 625 mW
b. 505 mW
c. 495 mW
d. 375 mW
130.
A semiconductor device especially fabricated to utilize the avalanche or
zener breakdown region. This is normally operated in the reverse-region and its
application mostly for voltage reference or regulation.
a. varactor diode
b. zener diode
c. shockley diode
d. schottky barrier diode
131.
Refers to a special type of diode which is capable of both amplification
and oscillation
a. junction diode
b. tunnel diode
c. point contact diode
d. zener diode

132.
a.
b.
c.
d.
133.
diode
a.
b.
c.
d.

A rectifying metal-semiconductor junction

schottky barrier diode
surface barrier diode
hot-carrier or hot-electron diode
All of the above are correct
Another name of a three-layer diode. This is also considered as an ac
shockley diode
thyrector
thyristor
diac

134.
When the p-n junction of a semiconductor diode is inserted with intrinsic
material, the diode becomes a
a. backward diode
b. read diode
c. shockley diode
d. PiN diode
135.
A diode that is especially processed so that its high-current flow takes
place when the junction is reversed-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode.
a. esaki diode
b. read diode
c. zener diode
d. backward diode
136.
Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes,
capacitance of the junction and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor
diode
a. diode impedance
b. diode ac resistance
c. diode reactance
d. diode ac parameter
137.
The appearance of RF current oscillations in a dc-biased slab of n-type
gallium arsenide in a 3.3kV electric field
a. Gunn effect
b. Hall effect
c. Zener effect
d. Avalanche

138.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Quiescent or Q-point is dependent on

the supply voltage
the load resistance
the type of diode
All of the above

139.
A germanium diode is connected to a load resistance of 1.5 kilo ohms and
is supplied with 12 V such that the diode will be forward biased. What is the
voltage across the diode?
a. approximately 12 v
b. approximately 0.7 v
c. approximately 0.3 v
d. lack of data and cant be solved]
140.
What is the drop across the diode when it is connected in series to a
resistor of 1.8 kilo ohms and a supply voltage of 50 V. the supply voltage causes
the diode to be reverse biased
a. 50 V
b. 0.7 V
c. 0.3 V
d. cant be solved, lack of data
141.
Two germanium diodes are connected in series and have a load resistance
of 10 kilo ohms and a forward supply voltage of 5 V. Calculate the voltage across
the load resistor.
a. 4.7 V
b. 4.4 V
c. 0.6 V
d. 0.3 V
142.
A silicon diode is in parallel with a germanium diode and is connected to a
load resistor having a value of 20 kilo ohms and a forward supply voltage of 10
V. What is the approximate voltage across the silicon diode?
a. 10 V
b. 1.0 V
c. 0.7 V
d. 0.3 V
143.
What is the output voltage across a load resistor if it is paralleled with a
forward biased silicon diode? The resistor network is supplied with 10 V.
a. 0.7 V
b. 9.3 V
c. 10 V
d. cant be solved, lack of data

144.
A network with a diode and a capacitor that is used to shift the dc-level of
the input signal
a. clipper
b. clamper
c. shifter
d. level inverter
145.
A chopper, employing an alternately biased diode as the switching
element
a. diode chopper
b. active chopper
c. junction chopper
d. All are correct
146.
A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used in a circuit with a supply
voltage of 5 V. What should be the value of the resistor needed by the LED to
operate normally?
a. 25 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 25 kilo ohms
d. 250 kilo ohms
147.
from
a.
b.
c.
d.

The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when used in electronic circuit is

collector to base
base to collector
emitter to collector
base to emitter

148.
A three terminal, three layer semiconductor device that has the ability to
multiply charge carriers. This device was first introduced at Bell Laboratories, by
Brattain and Bardeen in 1947 and which opens a completely new direction of
interest and development in the field of electronic.
a. triode
b. triac
c. SCR
d. transistor
149.
In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction formed by alloying a suitable
material such as indium with the semiconductor
a. alloy junction
b. diffused junction
c. depletion junction
d. storage junction

150.
At forward-biased junction of PNP transistor, majority carriers flow
heavily
a. from p- to the n-type material
b. from n- to p-type material
c. from p- to p-type material
d. A and B above

a.
b.
c.
d.

Phrases not pointing in and pointing in simply means

npn and pnp
pnp and npn
npn only
pnp only

a.
b.
c.
d.

The formal name of c

Common-collector reverse-current amplification factor
Common-collector forward-current amplification factor
Common-emitter forward-current amplification factor
Common-emitter reverse-current amplification factor

151.

152.

153.
At base-emitter junction, using an ohmmeter, if the positive (+) lead is
connected to the base and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a low resistance
reading would indicate
a. npn transistor
b. pnp transistor
c. germanium transistor
d. silicon transistor
154.
a.
b.
c.
d.

For an on transistor, the voltage VBE should be in the neighborhood of

0.3 V
0.55 V
0.7 V
1.7 V

155.
Among the three characteristics of a transistor amplifier, which region is
normally employed for linear (undistorted) amplifiers?
a. active region
b. cutoff region
c. saturation region
d. capital region
156.
If the base-emitter junction is reversed biased and the base-collector
junction is forward biased, the transistor will be at what region of operation?
a. active region
b. cutoff region
c. saturation region
d. breakdown region

157.
What region the transistor should be operating to have minimum distortion
at the output signal?
a. active region
b. cutoff region
c. saturation region
d. None of the above
158.
Solve for the base current if the collector current is 600 mA and the
current gain is 20.
a. 30 mA
b. 3 mA
c. 12 mA
d. 1.2 mA
159.
A transistor with =100 is connected as common base; was found to have
a leakage current ICBQ=1 A. if the transistor is configured as common emitter,
what is the approximate value of its ICEO?
a. 0.01 A
b. 1.0 A
c. 100 A
d. 10 mA
160.
The current gain of a transistor decreases as the operating frequency
increases. As the operating frequency is increased continuously, a point occurs
where the current gain becomes unity. This point, is best described by what
transistor parameter?
a. unity gain frequency
b. 0 dB frequency
c. cutoff frequency
d. unity gain bandwidth product or unity current gain bandwidth
product
161.
When the base is common to both the input and output sides of the
configuration and is usually the terminal closest to, or at ground potential, it is
called what?
a. common-emitter terminology
b. common-collector terminology
c. common-base terminology
d. All of these
162.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the transistor configuration has the highest input resistance?

common base
common emitter
common collector
common transistor

163.
One of the following amplifier characteristic refers to that of a commonbase (C-B) as compared to common-emitter (C-E) and common-collector (C-C)
amplifiers
a. has larger current gain
b. has lower input resistance
c. has higher input resistance
d. has larger voltage gain
164.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Most frequently used transistor configuration for pnp and npn

common-base
common-collector
common-emitter
A and C above

165.
Common-collector has the lowest power gain and a voltage gain of
approximately one. In contrast to this, what configuration has the highest power
gain?
a. common-base
b. common-collector
c. common-emitter
d. emitter-follower
166.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Considered as the basic FET or the simplest form of FET

JFET
MOS-FET
IGFET
VMOS-FET

167.
Junction field effect transistor or JFET has three terminals which
corresponds to the E-B-C of the BJT
a. D-S-G
b. D-G-S
c. S-G-D
d. S-D-G
168.
A BJT is a current-controlled current-source device while JFET is a
_______ device
a. current-controlled voltage-source
b. voltage-controlled voltage-source
c. voltage-controlled current-source
d. voltage-controlled transconductance-source

169.
For a normal operation of an n-channel JFET, d\how do you bias the gatesource junction?
a. positive-negative respectively
b. negative-positive respectively
c. forward-biased
d. Any of the above
170.
The current that flows into channel of a JFET when the gate-source
voltage is zero
a. drain-source saturation current
b. drain-source cutoff current
c. drain-source leakage current
d. drain-source pinch-off current
171.
In FET, the conduction path of the output is controlled by the electric field
as its name implies. How does an electric field in FET established?
a. By the charges present at the gate due to the reverse-biased junction
b. By the application of reverse-biased between the gate and drain
c. By the charges produced due to the applied potential between drain and
source VDS
d. By the charges present at each terminal due to the applied potential
172.
An n-channel JFET has a drain-source saturation current IDSS=10 mA and
a gate-source pinch-off voltage Vp=-4 V. if the applied reverse gate-source
voltage VGS=2 V, calculate the drain current ID.
a. 2.5 mA
b. 5.0 mA
c. 10.0 mA
d. 22.5 mA
173.
Base from Shockleys equation of a JFET, what is the drain current when
the applied voltage VGS is exactly equal to the pinch-off voltage Vp?
a. IDSS
b. maximum
c. minimum
d. zero
174.
In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will be
constructed and is formed from a silicon base
a. substrate
b. slab
c. source
d. base

175.
What type of MOSFET whose channel is originally thick but narrows as
the proper gate bias is applied?
a. enhancement
b. depletion
c. transverse
d. All of the above
176.
To switch off the depletion type MOSFET, the channel should be
depleted. Depletion of the channel is done by applying enough voltage across the
gate-source terminal. What do you call this voltage?
a. pinch-off voltage
b. trigger voltage
c. holding voltage
d. threshold voltage
177.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The substrate used in a p-channel IGFET enhancement type

n-type material
n+-type material
p-type material
p+-type material

a.
b.
c.
d.

The base material of a MOSFET which extends as an additional terminal

source (S)
channel (C)
drain (D)
substrate (SS)

178.

179.
Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel MOSFET enhancement
type. If the gate-source voltage VGS=-8 V, threshold voltage VT=-4 and a constant
k=-0.3 mA/V^2
a. 1.2 mS
b. 2.4 mS
c. 3.6 mS
d. 7.2 mS
180.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which FET operates as close as BJT in terms of switching?

JFET
MOSFET depletion type
MOSFET enhancement type
IGFET

181.
A monolithic semiconductor-amplifying device in which a highimpedance GATE electrode controls the flow of current carriers through a thin bar
of semiconductor called the CHANNEL Ohmic connections made to the ends of
the channel constitute SOURCE and DRAIN electrodes
a. BJT
b. UJT
c. FET
d. UPT
182.
A junction field effect transistor has a drain saturation current of 10 mA
and a pinch-off voltage of -4 V. calculate the maximum transconductance
a. 2.5 mS
b. 5.0 mS
c. 25.0 mS
d. 50.0 mS
183.
What do you call an amplifier which has an output current flowing during
the whole input current cycle?
a. Class AB amplifier
b. Class B amplifier
c. Class A amplifier
d. Class C amplifier
184.
a.
b.
c.
d.

If a transistor amplifier provides a 360 output signal, it is classified as

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D

a.
b.
c.
d.

An amplifier that delivers an output signal of 180 only

Class A
Class B
Class AB
Class D

185.

186.
A full 360 sine-wave signal is applied as an input to an unknown class of
amplifier, if the output delivers only a pulse of less than 180, of what class does
this amplifier belongs?
a. Class AB
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

187.
A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%, but this can be
increased if the output is coupled with a transformer. Up to how much is its
efficiency will reach due to coupling?
a. 36.5%
b. 50%
c. 68.5%
d. 78.5%
188.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Transistorized class C power amplifiers will usually have an efficiency of

25%
33%
50%
78.5%

189.
For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is mostly used. How efficient is
a class D amplifier?
a. About 25% efficient
b. Less efficient than class B
c. More efficient than class A but less efficient than class B
d. Its efficiency reaches over 90%
190.
An amplifier of class AB means its output signal is between the output of
class B and A, such that it varies from 180 (class B) to 360 (class A). How about
its efficiency?
a. Efficiency of class AB is in between the efficiency of class A and B,
that is from 25%-78.5%
b. It is always as efficient as class A (25%)
c. It is always as efficient as class B (78.5%)
d. The efficiency of class AB is the average of the efficiencies of both class
A and class B (25%+78.5%)/2=51.75%
191.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier positioned?

at saturation region
at active region
at cutoff region
below cutoff region

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which amplifiers can be used for linear amplification?

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class A or B

192.

193.
What do you call an amplifier that is biased to class C but modulates over
the same portion of the curve as if it were biased to class B?
a. Class S
b. Class D
c. Class AB
d. Class BC
194.
Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive
cycle and the other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both output signals
are then coupled by a transformer to the load.
a. transformer-coupled push-pull amplifier
b. complementary-symmetry amplifier
c. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier
d. transformer-coupled class a amplifier
195.
A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The
circuit configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry
a. transformer-coupled push-pull amplifier
b. complementary-symmetry amplifier
c. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier
d. feed-back pair amplifier
196.
A nonlinear distortion in which the output consists of undesired harmonic
frequencies of the input signal
a. amplitude distortion
b. frequency distortion
c. cross-over distortion
d. harmonic distortion
197.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is

the sum
the average of each
the product
100% the sum

198.
A direct-coupled two-stage transistor configuration wherein the outputn of
the first transistor is directly coupled and amplified by the second transistor. This
configuration gives a very high current gain
a. cascade configuration
b. cascode configuration
c. darlington configuration
d. feed-back pair

199.
Famous transistor amplifier configuration designed to eliminate the so
called Miller effect
a. cascode amplifier
b. darlington amplifier
c. differential amplifier
d. complementary-symmetry
200.
An amplifier basically constructed from two transistors and whose output
is proportional to the difference between the voltages applied to its two inputs
a. differential amplifier
b. cascode amplifier
c. complementary amplifier
d. quasi-complementary amplifier
201.
An amplifier having high-direct current stability and high immunity to
oscillation, this is actually used to perform analog-computer functions such as
summing and integrating
a. operational amplifier (op-amp)
b. parametric amplifier (par-amp)
c. instrumentation amplifier
d. DC-amplifier
202.
One of the most versatile and widely used electronic device in linear
applications
a. SCR
b. FET
c. UJT
d. Op-amp
203.
It is very high-gain differential amplifier with very high input impedance
and very low output impedance
a. par-amp
b. op-amp
c. differential amplifier
d. complementary amplifier
204.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What are the possible applications of operational amplifiers (op-amps)?

ac and dc-amplifiers
oscillators and signal conditioning
voltage-level detectors and comparators
all of the above

205.
a.
b.
c.
d.

An operational amplifier must have at least how many usable terminals?

3 terminals
5 terminals
8 terminals
14 terminals

a.
b.
c.
d.

The circuit at the input stage of operational amplifiers

differential amplifier
cascaded amplifier
current mirror
complementary amplifier

206.

207.
An amplifier whose output is proportional to the difference between the
voltages applied to its two inputs
a. differential amplifier
b. differencing
c. delta amplifier
d. cascode-amp
208.
a.
b.
c.
d.
209.

A good op-amp has a

very high input resistance
very low input resistance
very high output resistance
very low CMRR

d.

How does the input of an op-amp make high?

By using super beta transistor at the input differential stage
By using FETs at the input differential stage
By connecting a very high resistance in series with the input differential
stage
A and B above

a.
b.
c.
d.

What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps?

Differential amplifier
Cascade amplifier
Complementary amplifier
Darlington stage amplifier

a.
b.
c.
d.

Why do most op-amps use a common-collector at the output stage?

To have a higher output power
To have a better frequency response
To have a low harmonic distortion
To have a very low output resistance

a.
b.
c.

210.

211.

212.
Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar power supply, however, we
can also use single polarity supply by
a. generating a reference voltage above ground
b. floating the negative supply terminal (v-) of the op-amp
c. simply connecting the negative supply terminal (v-) of the op-amp to
ground
d. isolating the negative supply terminal (v-) by a capacitor
213.
Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the inverting (-) and noninverting (+) inputs. What is the significance of its name?
a. If a sine-wave is applied to the inverting (-) input, the output will be
inverted or shifted by 180, while if applied to the non-inverting (+) there
will be no phase shift at the output
b. If pulses are applied to the inverting (-) input, the positive pulse becomes
negative at the output and vice versa, while if applied to the non-inverting
(+) there will be no reversal of the pulse at the output
c. In dc-amplifier applications, increasing input at the inverting (-) terminal
causes the output to decrease and vice versa, while at the non-inverting (+)
input, the output magnitude goes with the input.
d. All of these are correct
214.
input?
a.
b.
c.
d.

What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if operated in common mode

differential gain
common gain
double-ended gain
rejection gain

215.
When one input of the op-amp is connected to ground and the other is to
the signal source, its operation is called
a. single-ended output
b. double-ended output
c. single-ended input
d. double-ended input
216.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The ratio of the differential gain and common gain of an op-amp

Differential-common mode ratio
Common-mode ratio
Differential-mode rejection ratio
Common-mode rejection ratio

217.
Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and
a differential-mode gain of 100,000
a. 1000 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 80 dB
d. 40 dB
218.
The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage
of 1.5 mV and 1.0 mV respectively. If the op-amp has a common-mode voltage
gain of 10 and a differential-mode gain of 10,000, what is its output voltage?
a. 5.0 V
b. 5.0125 mV
c. 5.0125 V
d. 25.0125 V
219.
The A741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90 dB and a differential-mode voltage
amplification of 200,000. What is the op-amps common-mode voltage gain?
a. 31,622.778
b. 632.40
c. 6.324
d. 0.158
220.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally

input bias current
input offset current
input threshold current
input holding current

221.
Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small
input current called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a
slight difference. What do you call this difference?
a. Differential input current
b. Differential bias
c. Input offset difference
d. Input offset current
222.
The reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs
in op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This
unsymmetrical condition also produces a difference in input voltage called what?
a. Drift voltage
b. Differential voltage
c. Input offset voltage
d. Input threshold voltage

223.
Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input
signal, however, in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage
is known as
a. Minimum output voltage
b. Pinch-off voltage
c. Output offset voltage
d. Saturation voltage
224.
Calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using op-amp
with an input offset current of 10 nA. The circuit is having an input resistance of
10 kilo ohms and a feedback resistance of 100 kilo ohms
a. 0.1 mV
b. 1.0 mV
c. 10.0 mV
d. 100.0 mV
225.
An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100 kilo ohms
and input resistor of 10 kilo ohms. If the op=amps input offset voltage is 2.0 mV,
approximate the amplifier output offset voltage due to this input offset voltage
a. 10 mV
b. 11 mV
c. 20 mV
d. 22 mV
226.
The output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current
and voltage. If 1 mV is due to the input offset current and 22 mV due to the input
offset voltage, what is the total output offset voltage of the op-amp?
a. 11.5 mV
b. 22 mV
c. 23 mV
d. 45 mV
227.

What is the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits?

a. A resistor used to reduce the undesired output offset voltage due to the
input offset current
b. A resistor connected between the non-inverting terminal and ground
c. A resistor used to balance both input bias currents and therefore eliminates
the input offset current
d. All of these

228.
What is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the
op-amp has no feedback element?
a. Causes the output to be always at cutoff
b. Causes the output to saturate towards positive
c. Causes the output to saturate towards negative
d. Causes the output to saturate either towards positive or negative

229.
What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of
an op-amp?
a. By reducing the value of the feedback resistor
b. By increasing the value of the input resistor
c. By a capacitor-compensation technique
d. By properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals
230.
The frequency at which the open-loop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its
value at very low frequency
a. Threshold frequency
b. Break frequency
c. Minimum frequency
d. Operating frequency
231.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency

Cutoff
Roll-off
Diminishing factor
Reduction step

232.
A reduction of op-amps voltage gain by a factor of two each time the
frequency doubles
a. 2 dB/octave
b. 2 dB/decade
c. 6 dB/octave
d. 6 dB/decade
233.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The low and high cutoff frequencies of an amplifier is also called

Corner frequencies
0.707 frequencies
3-dB frequencies
All of these are correct

234.
An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3 s, calculate
its unity-gain bandwidth
a. 0.857 MHz
b. 1.0 MHz
c. 1.167 MHz
d. 2.334 MHz
235.
Rise time is defined as the time required for the output voltage to rise from
____ to _____ of its final value
a. 0% - 100%
b. 1% - 99%
c. 5% - 95%
d. 10% - 90%

236.
What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp
having a specified slew rate of 0.5 V/sec? The maximum output voltage desired
is 5 V
a. 16 kHz
b. 32 kHz
c. 100 kHz
d. 1 MHz
237.
When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the output voltage would be
+VSAT if
a. V+ > Vb. V- > V+
c. V- = V+
d. V- and V+ are both zero
238.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The feedback element of a differentiator constructed from op-amp is

a resistor
an inductor
a capacitor
an RC network

a.
b.
c.
d.

The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage follower

Unity
Rf/Ri
1 + Rf/Ri
Depends on the type of an op-amp

239.

240.
A unity-gain summing amplifier has three input, V1=1.0 mV, V2=1.5 mV
and V3=2.5 mV, calculate the total output voltage
a. 2.5 mV
b. 3.5 mV
c. 4.0 mV
d. 5.0 mV
241.
In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with
a very small capacitance, what is its purpose?
a. To prevent oscillation
b. To improve stability
c. To minimize high frequency noise
d. To compensate for high frequency loss

242.
Approximate the noise-gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if its has
five inputs
a. Unity (1)
b. Two (2)
c. Four (4)
d. Six(6)
243.
a.
b.
c.
d.
244.
amps
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor?

The higher its value, the wider is its bandwidth
The lower its value, the wider is its bandwidth
The higher its value, the faster its slew rate
A and C above
Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op3 30 nF
30 300 nF
0.3 3.0 F
3.0 30 F

245.
Op-amps designed to operate at high slew rate, about 2000 V/sec and at
high frequencies, more than 50 MHz
a. General purpose op-amps
b. High power op-amps
c. High-stability op-amps
d. High-frequency, high-slew rate op-amps
246.
The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be
classified as a low-input offset voltage op-amp
a. 0.2 mV
b. 2.0 mV
c. 2.5 mV
d. 5.0 mV
247.
The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP and the
SMT. Which of these corresponds to TO-99?
a. Metal can
b. 8-pin DIP
c. SMT
d. All of the above
248.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as

TO-99
TO-91
TO-116
TO-220

249.
a.
b.
c.
d.

For high density ICs involving many op-amps, what packaging is suitable?
Metal can
14-pin DIL
SMT
Flat-pack

a.
b.
c.
d.

Example(s) of surface-mounted technology (SMT) devices

PLCCs
SOICs
LCCCs
All of the above

a.
b.
c.
d.

Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating current or voltage

Damper
Generator
Oscillator
Mixer

250.

251.

252.
What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coil in the tuned
circuit?
a. Pierce
b. Colpitts
c. Hartley
d. Ultraudion
253.
Type of oscillator whose frequency is dependent on the charge and
discharge of the RC networks
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Relaxation oscillator
d. Klystron oscillator
254.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A microwave oscillator
Hartley oscillator
Colpitts oscillator
Relaxation oscillator
Klystron oscillator

255.
A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and
feedback potions by a capacitive voltage divider
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Relaxation oscillator
d. Klystron oscillator

256.
A circuit usually containing two transistors or tubes in an RC-coupled
amplifier, the two active devices switch each other alternately on and off
a. Multivibrator
b. Signal generator
c. Oscillator
d. Thyristor
257.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A multivibrator that generates one output pulse for each input trigger pulse
monostable
astable
bistable
tristable

a.
b.
c.
d.

Monostable multivibrator is also known as

one shot
single shot
direct shot
one shot or single shot

a.
b.
c.
d.

A multivibrator having two stable states

monostable
bistable
astable
unstable

a.
b.
c.
d.

It is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit

monostable multivibrator
bistable multivibrator
astable multivibrator
unstable multivibrator

a.
b.
c.
d.

Flip-flop is actually a _______ multivibrator

monostable
bistable
astable
unstable

a.
b.
c.
d.

Considered as a free-running multivibrator

monostable
bistable
astable
unstable

258.

259.

260.

261.

262.

263.
A secondary cell whose active positive plate consists of nickel hydroxide
and active negative plate material is powdered iron oxide mixed with cadmium.
Its typical output when fully charged is Vo=1.2 V
a. Leclanche cell
b. Dry cell
c. Edison cell
d. Lead-acid cell
264.
a.
b.
c.
d.
265.
testing
a.
b.
c.
d.

If a cell can be charged after it is depleted, it is considered as

A secondary cell
A storage cell
An accumulator
All of the above
The maximum current a cell can deliver through a 0.01 ohm load during
Flash current
Surge current
Ideal current
Full-load current

266.
How long will a battery need to operate a 240 Watts equipment, whose
capacity is 100 Ah and 24 volts rating?
a. 5 hrs
b. 10 hrs
c. 1 hr
d. 0.10 hr
267.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Find the output of a four (4) lead acid cells

3.2 V
8.4 V
5.8 V
12 V

a.
b.
c.
d.

Silver cadmium cell has a nominal open-circuit voltage of

1.05 V
1.5 V
2.1 V
2.2 V

a.
b.
c.
d.

The flat 9-V battery has how many cells in series?

3
4
6
9

268.

269.

270.
A junction between two conductors that exhibits electrical characteristics
under condition of changing temperature
a. Pn junction
b. Photojunction
c. Thermoelectric junction
d. Hydroelectric junction
271.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Electricity that is generated due to heat, as in thermocouple

Thermodynamics
Thermojunction
Electric heater
Thermoelectricity

a.
b.
c.
d.

Electrical machines refer to machines that convert

mechanical to electrical energy
electrical to mechanical energy
electrical energy to one form of electrical energy of another form
all of the above

a.
b.
c.
d.

Electrical machine that converts ac voltage to dc voltage or vice versa

generator
motor
rotary converter
frequency converter

272.

273.

274.
In electrical machines, what do you call the set of conductors wound on
laminated cores of good magnetic permeability?
a. Armature core
b. Armature winding
c. Rotary winding
d. Rotary core
275.

Generally, in dc generators
a. The armature winding is rotated with respect to a stationary magnetic
field produced by electromagnets or permanent magnets
b. The electromagnets or permanent magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated
with respect to the stationary armature winding
c. Current is sent into the armature winding; or the armature winding is
usually placed in a stationary laminated iron core and the rotating element
may or may not be a set of magnet poles, it depends on the type of motor
d. The armature winding is supplied with current; or the armature is placed
inside a set of radially supported magnetic poles

276.
a.
b.

c.
d.

Generally, in ac generators
The armature winding is rotated by a stationary magnetic field produced
by electromagnets or permanent magnets
Current is sent into the armature winding; or the armature winding is
usually placed in a stationary laminated iron core and the rotating element
may or may not be a set of magnet poles, it depends on the type of motor
The electromagnets or permanent magnets (magnetic fields) are
rotated with respect to the stationary armature winding
The armature winding is supplied with current; or the armature is placed
inside a set of radially supported magnetic poles

277.
In a compound generator, which field winding usually, has a lower
resistance?
a. Series field winding
b. Shunt field winding
c. Armature winding
d. Excitation winding
278.
Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in the armature of a 10 pole,
1,200 rpm generator
a. 100
b. 1000
c. 10
d. 0.1
279.
What should be the speed of a 6-pole ac generator in order to have a
frequency of 50 Hz?
a. 100 rpm
b. 500 rpm
c. 1000 rpm
d. 1500 rpm
280.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Synchronous type of ac-motor

Uses a dc-generator to supply dc-excitation to the rotating field
Uses pulsating dc
Uses alternator
Has an ac or dc depending on the type of machine

a.
b.
c.
d.

In dc motors, when does severe arcing happen?

During starting
During rated speed
During speed fluctuation
During shutdown

281.

282.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In dc motors, the emf developed which opposes to the supplied voltage

Residual emf
Induced emf
Coercive emf
Counter emf or back emf

283.
Which dc motors whose speed is greatly affected by a change in load? It
will even run-away if the load is removed
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Cumulatively compounded
d. Differentially compounded
284.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The torque of a dc motor is

Directly proportional to the field strength
Inversely proportional to the field strength
Directly proportional to the armature current
A and C are correct

285.
One advantage of a cumulatively compounded motor is that it does not run
widely at light loads, this feature is due to
a. Shunt winding
b. Brake winding
c. Series winding
d. Clutch winding
286.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which thyristor is commonly used as motor speed control?

Triac
Diac
SCR
SUS

a.
b.
c.
d.

For transformers, zero efficiency happens when it has

No load
1/2 of full load
2/3 of full load
Full load

287.

288.
What are the two parameters in transformers that are the same in both
primary and secondary?
a. Power and voltage
b. Power and current
c. Power and impedance
d. Voltage per turn and ampere-turns

289.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In transformers, the amount of copper used in the primary is

Less than that of the secondary
Greater than that of secondary
Exactly twice that of secondary
Almost equal as that of secondary

290.
Generally, in what application you consider the use of one-type
transformers?
a. Low voltage and low current
b. Low voltage and high current
c. High voltage and low current
d. High voltage and high current
291.
_________ currents are wasteful currents which flows in cores of
transformers and produces heat
a. Residual
b. Eddy
c. Sneak
d. Magnetizing
292.
In transformers, the voltage per turn at the primary is ______ the
secondary
a. less than that of
b. greater than that of
c. a factor of
d. the same as
293.
The ratio of the amount of the magnetic flux linking a secondary coil
compared to the flux generated by the primary coil
a. Coupling factor
b. Mutual coupling
c. Coefficient of coupling
d. Hysteresis factor
294.
Most electronic devices/circuits require dc-voltage to operate. A battery is
a good power source, however, its operating time is limited. The use of the battery
also proves to be expensive. A more practical alternative is to use the household
main supply and since this is an ac-voltage, it must be converted to a dc-voltage.
The circuit that converts this ac-voltage to a dc-voltage is called
a. Rectifier
b. Clamper
c. Filter
d. Regulator

295.
Find direct current voltage from a full-wave rectifier with 120 V peak
rectified voltage
a. 60 V
b. 7.639 V
c. 76.39 V
d. 6.0 V
296.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The dc-voltage of a full wav bridge rectifier

0.318 Vmax
0.45 Vmax
0.636 Vmax
0.90 Vmax

297.
For a power supply with a peak-=to-peak ripple voltage of 5 Vpp,
determine its rms ripple
a. 1.44 Vrms
b. 1.77 Vrms
c. 2.88 Vrms
d. 3.54 Vrms
298.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage?

Capacitor filter
RC-filter
LC-filter
Multi-section LC-filter

a.
b.
c.
d.

A voltage regulator connected in parallel with the load

Series regulator
Parallel regulator
Shunt regulator
Switching regulator

299.

300.
A load draws 1 A current from a 10-V regulated power supply. Calculate
the power dissipated by the regulator if it has an input voltage of 16 V.
a. 6 Watts
b. 10 Watts
c. 12 Watts
d. 16 Watts
301.
Three-terminal fixed positive voltage regulators commonly used in
industry
a. 78XX series
b. 79XX series
c. 723 IC regulator
d. 317 regulator

302.
The three-terminal voltage regulator such as the 78XX series has a typical
current rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say 30 amperes, how
will you make modifications from this regulator in order to provide the required
current?
a. By cascading them
b. By the use of a crowbar circuit
c. By connecting them in parallel
d. By the use of external pass transistor
303.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A crowbar circuit is used

To monitor the output current of a power supply and automatically shuts
down the system when an overload occur
To monitor the temperature of a power supply and switches the cooling
fan when a threshold temperature is reached
As voltage reference in regulated power supplies
As an over-voltage protection in power supplies

304.
In switching regulators, what are the semiconductor devices that can be
used as controllable power switches?
a. BJTs and MDs
b. MOSFETs and IGBT
c. GTOs and thyristors
d. All of the above
305.
Active devices used in switching regulators may experience large overcurrents during conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-voltages during turn-off.
These excessive currents and voltages may cause distraction or damage of the
active devices. How do we protect them?
a. By the use of a crowbar circuit
b. By providing a buck-boost circuit
c. by shunting a thyrector
d. by installing a snubber circuit
306.
One of the major concerns in power electronics is to clean-up or shape-up
the utility-voltage (the wall-outlet 220 V/60 Hz) from disturbances such as
overvolt, undervolt, voltage spikes and harmonic distortions. What circuit is used
for this?
a. Power conditioners
b. UPS
c. Power inverters
d. Line scanning

307.
A power supply that continuously provides
undervoltage, overvoltage and even power outages
a. Standby power supply
b. Uninterruptible power supply
c. Power conditioners
d. Regulated power supply

protection

against

308.
The art or process of determining the existence or knowing the magnitude
of something, directly or indirectly in terms of a recognized standard
a. Measurement
b. Testing
c. Recording
d. Evaluating
309.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Precision is also known as

Correctness
Accuracy
Sharpness
Reproducibility

310.
Errors due frictions of the meter movement, incorrect spring tension,
improper calibration or faulty instruments
a. Observational errors
b. Environmental errors
c. Instrument errors
d. Gross errors
311.
Errors in analog meter reading due to your physical position with respect
to the meter scale
a. Parallax error
b. Angular error
c. Linear error
d. Deviation
312.
What do you call the difference between any number within the set of
numbers and the arithmetic mean of that set of numbers?
a. Parallax error
b. Angular error
c. Linear error
d. Deviation
313.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A permanent-magnet moving-coil instrument

Induction instrument
D Arsonval meter movement
Moving-iron instrument
Moving-magnet instrument

314.
What is that device, which depends on the action of a movable permanent
magnet in aligning itself in the resultant field, produced either by a fixed
permanent magnet and an adjacent coil or coils carrying current or by two or more
current-carrying coils whose axes are displaced by a fixed angle?
a. D Arsonval meter movement
b. Induction instrument
c. Moving-magnet instrument
d. Moving-iron instrument
315.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Measurement of high dc-voltages is usually done by using

electrostatic
dynamometer
thermocouple
PMMC

316.
The instrument measures temperatures by electric means, especially
temperatures beyond the range of mercury thermometers
a. Pyrometer
b. Electrostatic instrument
c. Moving-magnet instrument
d. Permanent-magnet moving-coil instrument
317.
Resistance measuring instrument particularly used in determining the
insulation resistance
a. Megaohmmeter
b. Megger
c. Galvanometer
d. A and B are correct
318.
An indicating instrument whose movable coils rotate between two
stationary coils, usually used as wattmeter
a. Induction-type meter
b. Radial-vane instrument
c. Electrodynamometer
d. Concentric-vane instrument
319.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which dynamometer instrument has a uniform scale?

Voltmeter
Ammeter
Ohmmeter
Wattmeter

320.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Error in ammeter reading is due to

Insertion
Loading
Battery aging
Conversion

a.
b.
c.
d.

For the greatest accuracy, what should be the input impedance of a VOM?
1,000 ohms/V
50,000 ohms/V
As large as possible
As small as possible

a.
b.
c.
d.

A meter has a full-scale current of 50 A, what is its sensitivity?

20 kilo ohms/V
20 V/ohm
50 kilo ohms/V
50 A/V

321.

322.

323.
If a meter with full-scale current of 100 A is used as an ac voltmeter with
a half-wave rectification, its ac sensitivity is
a. 10,000 ohms/V
b. 4,500 ohms/V
c. 9,000 ohms/V
d. 100 ohms/V
324.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The zero-adjust control in an analog type ohmmeter used to

Compensate for the differing internal battery voltage
Make sure the pointer is moving correctly
Align the infinity resistance position
Align the zero-voltage position

325.
What do you call of an instrument that depends for its operation on the
reaction between magnetic flux set up by currents in fixed windings and other
currents set up by electromagnetic induction in movable conducting parts?
a. Induction instrument
b. Electrostatic instrument
c. Moving-magnet instrument
d. D Arsonval meter movement
326.
What is the measuring instrument that uses the force of repulsion between
fixed and movable magnetized iron vanes, or the force between a coil and pivoted
vane-shaped piece of soft iron to move the indicating pointer?
a. Pyrometer
b. Vane-type instrument
c. Electrostatic instrument
d. Moving-magnet instrument

327.
Its an electrostatic voltmeter in which an assembly of figure 8-shaped
metal plates rotates between the plates of a stationary assembly when a voltage is
applied between the assemblies. The length of the arc of rotation is proportional to
the electrostatic attraction and thus, to the applied voltage
a. Varmeter
b. Variometer
c. Potentiometer
d. Kelvin voltmeter
328.
This is a method of using a Wheatstone bridge to determine the distance
from the test point to a fault in telephone or telegraph line or cable
a. Mesh
b. Varley loop
c. Batten system
d. Cordonnier system
329.
Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the inductance and Q of an inductor
in terms of resistance, frequency and a standard capacitance
a. Hay bridge
b. Maxwell bridge
c. Slide-wire bridge
d. Wheatstone bridge
330.
A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in which the unknown capacitance
is compared with a standard capacitance. This bridge is frequently employed in
testing electrolytic capacitors to which a dc polarizing voltage is applied during
the measurement. What is this bridge?
a. Hay bridge
b. Maxwell bridge
c. Schering bridge
d. Wheatstone bridge
331.
When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are replaced by inductors, the
bridge becomes
a. Wein-bridge filters
b. Variometer
c. Schering bridge
d. Wein inductance bridge
332.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What are the two most popular RF oscillators?

Wein bridge and Colpitts
Wein bridge and phase-shift
Colpitts and Hartley
Hartley and phase-shift

333.
In RF or microwave system, what instrument is used to measure the
incidental and reflected signals?
a. Oscilloscope
b. Reflectometer
c. Incident-wave meter
d. Spectrum analyzer
334.
A tunable RF instrument, which by means of a sharp dip of an indicating
meter, indicates resonance with an external circuit under test
a. Reflectometer
b. Inclinometer
c. Dip meter
d. Grid-dip meter
335.

When the meter is insufficiently damped, it is considered as

a. Underdamped
b. Overdamped
c. Critically damped
d. Negatively damped

336.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A meter when _____ damped will become insensitive to small signals

Under
Over
Critically
Negatively

337.
One type of circuit control device which may be manual, automatic or
multi-contact
a. Fuse
b. Breaker
c. Switch
d. Relay
338.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Common method(s) of controlling electrical power with reactance

Switching a tapped inductor
Using a saturable reactor
By a matching transformer
A and B above

339.
An electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity
and can withstands overloads better
a. Thyratrons
b. Ignitrons
c. SCR
d. Triac

340.
A semiconductor, electronic switch that has the highest single-device
current rating
a. Thyristor
b. Triac
c. SCR
d. Quadrac
341.
Using electronic devices as switches, what is(are) the general methods of
controlling electrical power?
a. Phase control
b. Zero-voltage switching
c. Static switching
d. All of the above
342.
a.
b.
c.
d.

One of the electronic semiconductor devices known as diac, function as

Four terminal multi-directional switch
Two terminal bi-directional switch
Two terminal unidirectional switch
Three terminal bi-directional switch

343.
General term of electronic devices used to control or trigger large-power
switching devices
a. Thyristor
b. Thyrector
c. Break-over devices
d. Triggering devices
344.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The most popular thyristor used in electrical power controllers

SCR
Triac
SCS
PUT

c.
d.

What is true about SCRs after they are being switched ON?
The anode to cathode continues to conduct even if the gate triggering
voltage is removed
The gate must be provided with the required holding current to continue
its conduction
A small holding voltage at the gate is required for a continuous conduction
B and C above

a.
b.
c.
d.

What is(are) the condition(s) in triggering SCR?

The gate voltage must be equal to or greater than the triggering voltage
The gate current must be equal to or greater than the triggering current
The anode must be positive with respect to the cathode
All of the above

345.
a.
b.

346.

347.
A SCR rated 10 A is used as the controlling switch in a circuit powered by
50 Vdc. When the SCR fires ON, its anode to cathode voltage was observed to be
2 V. calculate the break-back voltage of the SCR
a. 25 Vdc
b. 32 Vdc
c. 41 Vdc
d. 48 Vdc
348.
a.
b.
c.
d.

What is(are) the gate limitation(s) of SCRs and triacs?

Maximum gate power dissipation
Maximum gate peak-inverse voltage
Maximum gate trigger current and voltage
All of the above

349.
Use of heat sinks, forced air and water cooling are examples of external
cooling in SCRs and other devices. Which of these is the only recommended to be
used for the largest power dissipating device?
a. Metal heat sinks
b. Forced air
c. Water cooling
d. A and B above
350.
In connecting two SCRs in series during OFF state, the voltage source
must be properly shared between them, but due to devices differences there
might be unequal voltages across each SCR. How do we equalize these voltages?
a. By installing a snubber circuit
b. By adding a gat-to-cathode resistor
c. By shunting a capacitor across the anode and cathode of each SCR
d. By using a blocking-equalizing resistor
351.
What is true regarding blocking-equalizing resistors in SCRs connected in
series?
a. Blocking-equalizing resistors are shunted across each SCR
b. The value of these resistors is about 10% of the value of the blocking
resistance of the SCR it is shunted with
c. These resistors increase the leakage current towards the load
d. All of the above
352.
A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of
SCRs in series
a. Snubber circuit
b. Crow bar
c. Clipper
d. Clamper

353.
When a high current is needed, SCRs are connected in parallel. The
problem with paralleled SCRs is when they are not perfectly matched, one will
conduct first before the other and carries the full load current that is for sure
greater than its maximum rating. To avoid this situation, both SCRs should be
turned ON at the same time. How can we do this?
a. By using high triggering gate voltage
b. By using a gate-trigger transformer
c. By using reactors
d. All of the above are possible
354.
How many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it
is operated in a full wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz?
a. 30 times
b. 60 times (HV)
c. 90 times
d. 120 times (FW)
355.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A triac can be triggered ON by the application of a

Positive voltage at the gate with respect to MT1
Negative voltage at the gate with respect to MT1
Positive or negative gate voltage with respect to MT2
All of the above are correct

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC?

Gate, anode1 and anode2
Gate, source and sink
Base, emitter and collector
Emitter, base 1 and base 2

356.

357.
A silicon bilateral switch may be considered as a small power triac and
has three terminals namely
a. Anode 1, anode 2 and gate
b. Main terminal 1, main terminal 2 and gate
c. Anode, cathode and gate
d. Both A and B are acceptable
358.
Silicon unilateral switches (SUSs) generally have a break-over voltage of
8 V, however, this value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode.
How is the diode installed?
a. Across the gate and cathode terminals, with the diodes anode at the gate
b. Anode to anode, cathode to cathode
c. Diodes cathode to SUSs anode and diodes anode to SUSs cathode
d. Diodes cathode to SUSs gate and diodes anode to SUSs cathode

359.
Thyristor whose characteristic curve closely resembles that of SCRs and
SUSs except that its forward break-over voltage (+VBO) is not alterable, for the
device has no gate terminal
a. Diac
b. Thyrector
c. UJT
d. Shockley diode
360.
A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three terminal break-over type
switching device. Its three terminals are called base 1, base 2 and emitter. Though
this is a transistor and has base and emitter terminals, this operates very different
from a BJT and is not used as a linear amplifier. Its applications are for
a. Timers and oscillators
b. Signal generators
c. Triggering control for SCRs and triacs
d. All of the above
361.
A UJT has an internal resistances of RB1=6 kilo ohms and RB2=3 kilo
ohms, what is its interbase resistance?
a. 2 kilo ohms
b. 3 kilo ohms
c. 6 kilo ohms
d. 9 kilo ohms
362.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Why does thyristors with high break-back voltage desirable?

It dissipates less power
It generates less heat
It is more efficient
All of the above

363.
After the squeeze interval, what comes next in an automatic welding
system?
a. Squeeze interval
b. Weld interval
c. Hold interval
d. Standby interval
364.
During welding or weld interval, when a welding current is flowing the
system is said to be at
a. Weld interval
b. Cool subinterval
c. Heat subinterval
d. Hold interval

365.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Industrial circuit or system that is not self-correcting

Open-loop
Closed-loop
System with feed back
Non-servo

a.
b.
c.
d.

In control system, closed-loop means

It has feedback
It is self-correcting
It is self-regulating
All are correct

366.

367.
In closed-loop control system, what do you call the difference in the
measured value and the set value or desired value?
a. Error
b. Differential voltage
c. Potential difference
d. Threshold
368.
is at
a.
b.
c.
d.

In a closed-loop control system, when the error signal is zero, the system
Null
Saturation
Cut-off
Halt

369.
The small error signal or system deviation where the system cannot
correct anymore
a. Threshold
b. Holding
c. Offset
d. Bias
370.
_______ is a mode of control wherein the controller has a continuous
range of possible position, not just two as in bang-bang control
a. On-Off
b. Proportional
c. Proportional plus integral
d. Proportional plus derivative
371.
What is(are) being considered in Proportional plus Integral plus Derivative
(PID) mode of control?
a. Error signal magnitude
b. Error signal period of occurrence
c. Error signal rate of change
d. All are considered

372.
A programmable, multifunction manipulator designed to move materials,
parts, tools or specific devices
a. Industrial robot
b. Android
c. Actuator
d. End effector
373.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The technology for automations

Avionics
Cryogenics
Cryotronics
Robotics

a.
b.
c.
d.

The number of axis a robot is free to move is called

Freedom axis
Degrees of freedom
Movement degrees
Mechanical axis

a.
b.
c.
d.

Actuators used in industrial robots

Electric motors
Fluid motors
Fluid cylinders
All of these are correct

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the actuators that has the greatest force capability?

Electric
Hydraulic fluid
Pneumatic
Magnetic

a.
b.
c.
d.

Actuator that requires the highest initial cost

Electric
Hydraulic fluid
Pneumatic
Magnetic

a.
b.
c.
d.

Robot actuator that has the highest operating cost

Electric
Hydraulic fluid
Pneumatic
Magnetic

374.

375.

376.

377.

378.

379.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The most messy robot actuator

Electric
Hydraulic fluid
Pneumatic
Magnetic

380.
A robot software or program that produces only two position motion for a
given robot axis
a. Positive-stop
b. Point-to-point
c. Continuous path
d. Hard interrupt
381.
A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within
the range but without specific path
a. Positive-stop program
b. Point-to-point program
c. Continuous path program
d. Compound program
382.
A robot [program that has the ability to move a robot to any position
within the range with specific path
a. Positive-stop program
b. Point-to-point program
c. Continuous path program
d. Compound program
383.
a.
b.
c.
d.

When a robot moves on several axis at the same time, it is to have

Intrinsic motion
Extrinsic motion
Compound motion
Universal motion

a.
b.
c.
d.

In robotics, SCARA means

Selective Compliant Articulated Robot Arm
Selective Compliant Assembly Robot Arm
Selective Computer-Actuated Robot Arm
A and B are correct

a.
b.
c.
d.

SCARA robots have how many axis of motion?

2
4
6
8

384.

385.

386.
a.
b.
c.
d.

SCARA robots are designed for what applications?

Machining
Welding
Assembling
Handling heavy tools

a.
b.
c.
d.

Why is SCARA robot attractive in industry?

Because it is relatively cheaper
Because it can carry very heavy loads
Because it has unlimited movement
All of the above

387.

388.
Calculate the voltage regulation of a generator having a no-load voltage of
220 V and a full load voltage of 180 V
a. 18%
b. 22%
c. 28%
d. 32%
389.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Usually used to drive low-speed alternators

Diesel engines
Jet propulsion engines
Steam turbines
Hydraulic turbines

a.
b.
c.
d.

Usually used to drive high-speed alternators

Diesel engines
Pneumatic engines
Steam turbines
Hydraulic turbines

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which statement is true regarding alternators?

High-speed alternators are smaller than low-speed
Low-speed alternators are smaller than high-speed
High-power alternators are smaller than low-power
High-voltage alternators are smaller than low-voltage

a.
b.
c.
d.

For what reasons, why carbon brushes are widely used dc machines?
It is abundant
It is cheap
It has a high voltage drop
It lubricates and polishes the contacts

390.

391.

392.

393.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Alternators have less chance to hunt if driven by

Steam turbines
Hydroturbines
Diesel turbines
Nuclear reactor

a.
b.
c.
d.

In alternators, what is the purpose of the damper winding?

It prevents over speeding
It maintains constant speed
It prevents hunting
It protects overloading

394.

395.
What term applies to the use of two or more generators to supply a
common load?
a. On-line operation
b. Series operation
c. Cascaded operation
d. Parallel operation
396.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In paralleling ac generators, _______ is very important

Voltage level
Current level
Phase angle
Internal resistance

397.
Description used for generators trying to self-adjust its parameters before
paralleling with on line generators
a. Synchronizing
b. Sequencing
c. Jogging
d. Aligning
398.
In changing power from one generator to another, what do you call the
operational sequence wherein the incoming generator is connected first before
removing the existing generator?
a. No Break Power Transfer (NBPT)
b. UPS
c. LIFO
d. Standby Power Transfer
399.
a.
b.
c.
d.

How are alternators rated?

In Watts
In kW
In kVar
In kVA

400.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In electrical power distributions, what insulator is generally used?

Rubber
Wood
Plastic
Porcelain