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Bank Today Reasoning Book PDF
Bank Today Reasoning Book PDF
com
Reasoning Made
Easy
By Ramandeep Singh
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Index
Chapter 1 Puzzles
Chapter 2 Input Output
Chapter 3 Data Sufficiency
Chapter 4 Sitting Arrangements
Chapter 5 Syllogism
Chapter 6 Blood Directions
Chapter 7 Analogy
Chapter 8 Coded Inequality
Chapter 9 Coding Decoding
Chapter 10 Decision Making
Chapter 11 Direction Sense
Chapter 12 Letter and Number Series
Chapter 13 Logical Arrangement
Chapter 14 Mathematical Operations
Chapter 15 Odd Man Out Series
Chapter 16 Ranking Based problems
Chapter 17 Arithmatic Reasoning
Chapter 18 Classification
Chapter 19 Dice Problem
Chapter 20 Statement and Arguments
Chapter 21 Statement and Assumptions
Chapter 22 Statement and Conclusions
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Chapter-1
Puzzles
Directions (Q. 1-2) Study the following information carefully and answer the
question given below:
1. Which of the following pairs of flats facing south are at the two ends?
a) GD b) GH c) BH
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
2. Which of the following pairs of flats facing North are at the two ends?
a) EA b) EC c) CF
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Directions (Q. 3-4) Study the following information to answer the given
questions:
3. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?
a) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word
b) P is not placed immediately next to A
c) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed
d) P is placed second to the right of E
e) None of correct
Directions (Q. 5-9) Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
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7. How many chemical bottles are placed between chemical A and G (counted
from G clockwise)?
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four e) None of these
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a
group. Which of the folowing does not belong to that group?
a) Violet-Brown b) Black-Green c) Orange-White
d) Yellow-Blue e) Green -Yellow
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Directions (Q. 10-14) Study the following information carefully and answer the
question given below:
Directions (Q. 15-18) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
question given below it.
Six friends Abhishek, Deepak, Mridul, Pritam, Ranjan and Salil married
within a year in the months of February, April, July, September, November and
December and in the cities of Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and
Kolkata but not necessarily following the above order. The brides names were
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Geetika, Jasmine, Hema, Brinda, Ipsita and veena, once again not following any
order. The following are some facts about their weddings.
(i) Mriduls wedding took place in Chennai; however he was not m arried
to Geetika or Veena.
(ii) Abhisheks wedding took place in Ahmedabad and ranjans in Delhi
however neither of them was married to Jasmine or Brinda.
(iii) The wedding in Kolkata took place in February.
(iv) Hemas wedding took place in April, but not in Ahmedabad.
(v) Geetika and Ipsita got married in February and November and in
Chennai and Kolkata but not following the above order.
(vi) Pritam visited Bengaluru and Kolkata only after his marriage in
December.
(vii) Salil was married to Jasmine to September.
17. In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of
a) April b) September c) November
d) December e) July
Directions (Q. 19-23) Read the following information carefully to answer the
given questions.
There are five married couples in a family and there is a child to every
couple. Ages of children are 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9 years. Name of males are M, N, O, P
and Q. Name of children are A, B, C, D and E. Name of females are V, W, X, Y
and Z. Name of Ms child is not C and E and he is not eldest or youngest. Age of
Xs child is 6 years and her husband is one among N, O and Q. Age of D is 3 years
but she is not a child of O. As age is multiple of 3 but she is not a child of M and
V. Ws husband is O or Q. Age of Zs child is 5 years but the name of child is not B
or E. V is wife of O.
Directions (Q. 24-27) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow.
Person who is 30 years old earns highest salary but does not work in department M
and N. E does not work in department P or Q, and his age is not 32. The salary of D
is less than 20,000.
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25. If the name of the person represents its salary then which of the following is
true?
a) A + B = C
b) C + D = B
c) D + E = B
d) A + D = E
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 28-29) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
28. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An
inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from
the given information)
a) People generally lack finances to pay for higher education
b) The rich and wealthy sections of our society are unwilling to spend money on the
education of their children
c) Higher education requires higher amount of money than primary education
d) Now-a-days even the poor and needy desire to educate their children
e) None of these
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Directions (Q. 30-34) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Six executives Akash, Bipasha, Deepak, Jyoti, Kartik and Priya have to
advertise four products, i.e. Soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different
channels i.e. go, one and spice either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only
one channel and advertise only one product. Not more than two executives can
advertise on a channel.
(i) Bipasha and Jyoti both visit the same channel but advertise different product
(ii) Akash who visits Go advertises neither soap nor computers
(iii) Kartik does not advertise chocolates
(iv) No girl advertises soap
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit spice
Directions (Q. 35-40) Study the following information carefully and answer the
following questions.
Sony laptop. HCL laptops are distributed before Acer laptops. HP laptops are
distributed after Dell laptops.
36. Which laptops are distributed just between the days when Lenovo and HP
are distributed?
a) Asus b) Dell c) Sony
d) HCL e) None of these
39. If HCL is related with Tuesday, Sony is related with Wednesday; similarly
Lenovo is related with which day?
a) Thursday b) Friday c) Saturday
d) Sunday e) None of these
Give Answer:
a) Only I follow
b) Only II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
e) Both I and II follows
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I. Government should increase wealth tax and income tax and use that
money for up-liftment of the deprived class
II. Government should introduce schemes like free meals in primary
schools and make primary education compulsory
42. Statement: The police department has come under a cloth with recent
revelations that atleast two senior police officials are suspected to have been
involved in the illegal sale of a large quantity of weapons from the state
police amoury.
Courses of action
I. A through investigation should be ordered by the State Government to
bring out all those who are involved in the illegal sales of arm.
II. State police armoury should be kept under Central Governments
control.
Directions (Q. 43-47) Study the following information and answer the following
questions
43. Which combination represents Es favourite subject and the standard in which
he studies?
a) Civic s and 7th
b) Economics and 5th
c) Civics and 6th
d) History and 7th
e) Economics and 7th
Directions (Q. 48-50) Read the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
49. Which of the following among A, B, E and F may be the reason behind the
school making such announcements before the exam?
a) Only B b) D and E c) Only F
d) Only A e) None of these
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(51-52):
Statement: W>H=I>C=L<E
Directions (Q. 56-60) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
A man has six sons U, V, W, X, Y and Z, who stay in four metro cities.
They work in different companies, viz Infosys, Tech Mahindra, Tata, Nike,
Walmart and Titan but not necessarily in the same order. Z stays in Mumbai and
works with Nike. Those who stay in Kilkata work with Tech Mahindra and
Walmart. One of the two Mumbaikars works with Titan. The one who works with
Infosys lives in Chennai. Z does not live in Chennai. U works with Tata. V works
with Tech Mahindra. Y works with Walmart.
a) XY b) ZX c) VY
d) WU e) None of these
Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the following information carefully and give the
answers.
Sixteen teams have been invited to participate in the ABC Gold Cup cricket
tournament. The tournament is conducted in two stages. In the first stage, the teams
are divided in to two groups. Each group consists of eight teams, with each team
playing every other team in its group exactly once. At the end of the first stage, the
top four teams from each group advance to the second stage while the rest are
eliminated. The second stage comprises of several rounds. A round involves one
match for each team. The winner of a match in a round advances to the next round;
while the loser is eliminated the team that remains undefeated in the second stage is
declared the winner and claims the gold cup.
The tournament rules are such that each match results in a winner and a
loser with no possibility of a tie. In the first stage, a team earns one point for each
win and no points for a loss. At the end of the first stage, teams in each group are
ranked on the basis of total points to determine the qualifiers advancing to the next
stage. Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie- breaking rules so that exactly
four teams from each group advance to the next stage.
62. The minimum number of wins needed for a team in the first stage to
guarantee its advancement to the next stage is:
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7
d) 4 e) None of these
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63. What is the highest number of wins for a team in the first stage in spite of
which it would be eliminated at the end of first stage?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
d) 4 e) None of these
Directions (Q. 66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
The person whose hobby is dancing preferred lemonade to cola while others
preferred cola to lemonade in beverages.
The four friends who took cola were P, the one who is an Engineer, the
person whose favourite colour is Green and t he o ne whose hobby is net
surfing.
S did not take lemonade and his favourite colour is White.
Qs favourite colour is Blue. He did not like lemonade.
Ts hobby is not painting, reading or gardening.
S clicks a picture of his friend who is an Engineer.
The person whose favourite colour is Red likes painting and the person who
is artist like gardening.
S is not a doctor. The person who is a doctor takes cola. The person who is
an Engineer likes Blue colour.
The musicians favourite colour is not yellow. Rs favourite colour is
Green.
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67. Qs hobby is
a) Reading b) Painting c) Gardening
d) Cant say e) None of these
Directions (Q. 71-73) Read the given information carefully and answer the
questioins that follow.
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b) Increasing corruption in India has ended the patriotic feelings among the
Indians
c) Bureaucracy is the hurdle in national integrity
d) The freedom movement of India was not public; it was confined to only
a few individuals.
e) None of these
72. Which of the following will be the effect of lack of patriotism in India?
a) Only I b) Only I and II c) Only III
d) Only III and IV e) Only I, II and IV
73. Which of the following statements are in line with the above passage?
a) The independence of India was very hard-earned.
b) People of India are not respecting the hard-earned freedom of India.
c) Increasing corrcuption in India is c reating anger among the people.
d) Independence day is just like a public holiday where people sit at home
and enjoy
e) All of these
Directions (Q. 74-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
P uses car and lives in Vaishali but he does not go to CSM and Select
Citywalk.
The person going to Shipra Complex uses car and the one going to GIP uses
bus.
T uses the same type of transport as the person from Dwarka.
CSM Complex is chosen by the person who uses bus.
R is neither from Rohini nor from Munirka and he goes to Shipra Complex.
One of the persons who use Metro goes to Sahara Complex.
Q is from Kaushambi and goes to GIP. He does not use the same transport
as S.
U is neither from Indirapuram nor from Munirka.
Select Citywalk and GIP Complex are not visited by the persons who use
car.
The persons from Kaushambi and Rohini are using the same type of
transport.
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Directions (Q. 79-83) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
b) Y-Bengali-Lower
c) X-Kannada-Lower
d) Z- Rajasthani-Middle
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 84-88) Study the given information carefully and answer the
given questions.
87. If all seven plays are held in the alphabetical order of their names starting
on Monday and ending on Sunday, the positions of how many will remain
unchanged as compared to the original schedule?
a) Three b) More than three c) One
d) None e) Two
88. Play F is related to Monday in a certain way based on the given schedule.
Similarly, Play G is related to Thursday. In the same way, Play B is related
to which of the following days?
a) Wednesday b) Friday c) Tuesday
d) Saturday e) Sunday
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Directions (Q. 89-93) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
(i) There are eight books Mathematics, Sanskrit, English, Physics, History,
Geography, Hindi and Biology. (Not necessarily in the same order).
(ii) Geographys book is fourth from the bottom and Sanskrits book is
third from the top.
(iii) There are three books between the books of English and Biology.
(iv) Hind i book is at exact between the books of History and Biology.
(v) The book of Physics is at just below the book of Mathematics.
90. How many books are taken between the books of History and English?
a) Two b) Three c) Four
d) Cannot find e) None of these
93. What is the position of the book of History from the top?
a) Fifth b) Fourth c) Sixth
d) Seventh e) None of these
Directions (Q. 94-96) On the basis of the following information, answer the
questions given below.
(i) Five persons lived in five houses out of six houses P, Q, R, S, T and U.
All houses are in series from North to South. Main gate of each house
was facing west.
(ii) From North, Dhirendras house is the third from Sanjays house
(iii) In North, Manojs house is at as much distance from Vijays house as in
South, Sanjays house is at from Dhirendras house.
(iv) In South, Kunals house is just aftre Vinays house.
Directions (Q. 97-101) these questions are based on the following information.
Study it carefully to answer the questions.
98. Which of the following combinations of shift, person and weekly off is
definitely correct?
a) II, M, Sunday b) III, N, Sunday c) II, P, Sunday
d) I, L, Tuesday e) None of these
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Directions (Q. 103-107): In these questions letters are to be coded by the digits
and symbols as per the scheme and conditions given below. In each question a
group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digits/symbols
numbered a, b, c and d. The serial number of the combination which correctly
represents the letter group is your answer. If none of the combinations is
correct your answer is e) i.e. None of these.
Letters: KETJHIFALUBMORP
Digit/Symbol Code: 37%$4*1986#@25
Conditions
(i) If the first as well as the last letter is a vowel their codes are to be
swapped.
(ii) If the first as well as the last letter is a consonant b oth are to be coded
by $.
(iii) If the first letter is as vowel and the last letter is a consonant, t he vowel
is to be coded by ^ and the consonant is to be added by --.
103. TARIFM
a) $95*1$ b) %95*1@ c)
%95*1%
d) @95*1@ e) None of the above
104. AJTKLU
a) 9$%386 b) $$%38$ c)
^$%38
d) --$%38^ e) None of these
105. ORBETH
a) 5#7%^ b) ^5 #7%-- c)
25#7%4
d) 45#7%2 e) None of the above
106. KEOMPA
--72@^ b) ^72@-- c)
372@9
d) 972@3 e) None of the above
107. IJLTPU
a) *$8%6 b) *$8%* c)
6$8%6
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113. In a certain code, DOWN is written as 5139 and NEAR is written as 9486.
How is RODE written in that code?
a) 6514 b) 6154 c) 9154
d) 3154 e) None of these
115. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first,
the se cond, the fourth and the tenth letters of the word M A J E S T I C A
L, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such
word can be made, give X as the an swer and if mor e than one such word
can be made, give Y is the answer
a) M b) E c) L
d) X e) Y
Directions (Q. 119-122) In each of the questions below are given three
statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
123. Statements: R @ K, K $ F, F * N
Conclusions: I. N R
II. F @ R
III. F R
a) Only I is true
b) Only either II or III is true
c) Only I and either II or III are true
d) Only III is true
e) None of the above
124. Statements: J M, M * K, K % D
Conclusions: I. J D
II. D * M
III. K J
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only I and II are t rue
125. Statements: H * T, T $ B, B R
Conclusions: I. R H
II. B H
III. T * R
a) Only I is true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only I and III are true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of the above
126. Statements: R $ D, D @ N, N F
Conclusions: I. F * D
II. F * R
III. N % R
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I and III are true
c) Only II and III are true
d) All are true
e) None of the above
127. Statements: F $ B, B @ H, H % K
Conclusions: I. B % F
II. K @ F
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III. K $ B
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and III are true
e) None of these
128. Statements: M % D, D * K, K $ N
Conclusions: I. K M
II. N D
III. M N
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and II are true
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 129-133) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
R likes Philospy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes
Football likes English. Ts favourite sport is not badminton or Table Tennis. V does
not like either History or Bilogy. The one whose favourite sport is Basketball does
not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourite sport is Volleball. S likes
Geography. Qs favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and his
favourite sport is not Basketball. Ps favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose
favourite sport is Badminton does not like Biology.
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135. How many meaningful English words can be formed made with the letters
ESTR using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
136. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Cup b) Jug c) Tumbler
d) Plate e) Pitcher
137. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Copper b) Mercury c) Iron
d) Aluminium e) Zinc
139. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 217 b) 143 c) 241
d) 157 e) 181
141. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 12 b) 28 c) 52
d) 68 e) 96
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142. If white means black, black means red, red means blue. blue
means yellow and yellow means grey then which of the following
represents the colour of clear sky?
a) Blue b) Red c) Yellow
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
Directions (Q. 144-148) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
149. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters
MASTE using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
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150. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 78 b) 48 c) 72
d) 54 e) 42
Directions (Q. 151-155) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
Directions (Q. 156-160) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
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157. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the
group. Which of the following will be definitely true?
a) C and J are of same height
b) G is shorter than D
c) G is shorter than H
d) G is taller than A
e) None of the above
158. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when 8 students
are arranged in descending order of height?
a) B b) F c) G
d) B or G e) Cannot be determined
160. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions?
a) (ii) only
b) (ii) and (iii) only
c) (iii) and (iv) only
d) (ii) and (v) only
e) All are necessary to answer the above questions
161. A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A
or E but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with
A. E was n ot t h e last to enter. Which of the following I s definitely true?
a) C entered the class only after D
b) D entered the class only after E
c) B entered the class after A
d) A entered the class after D
e) None of the above
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163. Each consonant in the word BISCUIT is replaced by the next letter in the
English alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the previous letter in the
English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical
order, which of the following will be the 3rd from the left end after the
rearrangement?
a) C b) D c) H
d) T e) None of these
164. In a certain code DONE is written as 5139 and SEAL is written as 8942.
How is LOAD written in that code?
a) 2415 b) 2145 c) 2945
d) 2182 e) None of these
165. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 215 b) 143 c) 247
d) 91 e) 65
166. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Gold b) Nickel c) Platinum
d) Tungsten e) Diamond
168. How many meaningful English words can b e made with the letter RBAE
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
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170. Mohan correctly remembers that his fathers birthday is before 20 th January
but after 16th January whereas his sister correctly remembers that their
fathers birthday is after 18th January but before 23rd January. On which
date in January is definitely their fathers birthday?
a) 18th b) 19th c) 20th
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
172. If the positions of 2nd and 3rd digits within each number are interchanged,
which of the following will be the sum of the first and 2nd digits of the 3rd
highest number?
a) 16 b) 10 c) 9
d) 15 e) None of these
173. Which of the following are the sum of the first and the third digits of the
second lowest number?
a) 16 b) 10 c) 18
d) 5 e) None of these
174. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are
interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the
highest and the second highest number?
a) 203 b) 133 c) 385
d) 182 e) 144
175. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are
interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and
third digits of the lowest number?
a) 8 b) 11 c) 15
d) 12 e) None of these
Directions (Q. 176-178) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
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Directions (Q. 179-183) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
182. Who among the following did buy Omni watch on Friday?
a) C b) D c) G
d) E e) None of these
e) Sunday-C-Rado
184. Present ages of father and son are in the ratio of 5:1 respectively. Seven
years later this ratio becomes 3:1. What is the sons present age in years?
a) 8 b) 7 c) 6
d) 5 e) None of these
185. From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed
using the letters of the given word: TRADITIONAL
a) NATION b) RADIO c) ANIMAL
d) DIRTY e) None of these
186. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many sheep are left?
a) 9 b) 8 c) 7
d) 10 e) None of these
188. Town A and Town B were 600 km. apart. Joshua left town A for town B
and travelled at an average speed of 65 km/h. At the same time, Menon left
town B for town A. The two of them met 5 hours later. Find Menons
average speed.
a) 55 km/h b) 60 km/h c) 65 km/h
d) 120 km/h e) None of these
190. The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a way that the
consonants a rereplaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and
the vowels are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of
the following will be the 3rd letter from the left end of the new set of letters?
a) B b) M c) O
d) L e) None of these
Directions (Q. 191-195) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below
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and not more three in any department. They are in three different scales viz. I, II and
III with at least two in any one scale.
Both the employees in Operations departments are in Scale II. D works in
Sales department and belongs to Scale I. A works in Finance departments and does
not belong to Scale I. Two employees in Sales departments belong to one scale. F
works with only H in one of the departments. C works with E in one of the
departments. B does not work with either C or A in the same department. G does
not belong to Scale III. E does not belong to Scale I.
Answers:
1. Option A
2. Option C
3. Option E
4. Option C
5. Option A
6. Option A
7. Option B
8. Option E
9. Option B
10. Option C
11. Option D
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12. Option A
13. Option D
14. Option C
15. Option C
16. Option C
17. Option D
18. Option A
19. Option A
20. Option C
21. Option B
22. Option D
23. Option A
24. Option E
25. Option E
26. Option D
27. Option C
28. Option C
29. Option B
30. Option C
31. Option A
32. Option D
33. Option A
34. Option B
35. Option C
36. Option B
37. Option A
38. Option E
39. Option C
40. Option B
41. Option E
42. Option A
43. Option C
44. Option A
45. Option A
46. Option C
47. Option B
48. Option C
49. Option D
50. Option A
51 Option A
52. Option B
53. Option D
54. Option E
55. Option C
56. Option B
57. Option C
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58. Option B
59. Option B
60. Option D
61. Option C
62. Option A
63. Option A
64. Option C
65. Option C
66. Option B
67. Option A
68. Option C
69. Option A
70. Option A
71. Option B
72. Option D
73. Option E
74. Option A
75. Option B
76. Option B
77. Option D
78. Option A
79. Option A
80. Option C
81. Option B
82. Option D
83. Option C
84. Option D
85. Option A
86. Option E
87. Option E
88. Option C
89. Option A
90. Option E
91. Option C
92. Option B
93. Option C
94. Option A
95. Option C
96. Option C
97. Option E
98. Option D
99. Option C
10. Option B
101. Option A
102. Option D
103. Option A
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104. Option E
105. Option B
106. Option C
107. Option D
108. Option A
109. Option E
110. Option D
111. Option B
112. Option C
113. Option B
114. Option A
115. Option E
116. Option D
117. Option C
118. Option A
119. Optoin D
120. Option C
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121. Option D
122. Option E
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123. Option C
R= K, K F, F < N
R=KF<N
N > R, F > R, F = R
So, either II or III and I are true.
124. Option A
J > M, M < K, K D
J> M < K D
The relations cannot made between J and D, D and M and K and J. So none
is true.
125. Option E
H < T, T B, B > R
H < T B > R or B > H
Only II is true.
126. Option B
R D, D = N, N > F
RD=N>F
F < D and N R
Only I and III are true.
127. Option A
F B, B = H, H K
FB =H K
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Only I is true.
128. Option B
M D, D < K, K N
MD<KN
Only II is true.
Student P Q R S T V W
Sports Cricket Badmint Hocke Basket Footbal Table Volleyba
on y ball l Tennis ll
Subject Bilogy History Philos Geogra English Physic Chemistr
ophy phy s y
129. Option D
130. Option A
131. Option E
132. Option D
133. Option B
134. Option D
135. Option B
136. Option D
137. Option B
138. Option A
As, F + 6 L Similarly P + 6 V
I+ 6 O S + 6 Y
139. Option A
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140. Option C
As gram is related to mass in the same way ` centimetre is related to
length.
141. Option B
28 is divisible by 7.
142. Option C
Colour of clear sky is blue and according to question, blue means yellow so
the colour of clear sky will be yellow.
143. Option A
M O D E L
5 1 3 # 2
D E A R
3 # % 8
L O A D
2 1 % 3
144. Option C
145. Option E
146. Option A
147. Option E
148. Option D
149. Option E
Meaningful words = MATES, STEAM, TAMES and TEAMS
150. Option A
Except 78, if subtract 1 all other give a prime number.
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Q VII History
R VI English
S IV Mathematics
T VIII Hindi
V X Science
W IX Sanskrit
151. Option B
152. Option A
153. Option C
154. Option E
155. Option D
156. Option E
All are true.
157. Option B
A>D > B > F>G >C >E >H
158. Option A
A>D>B>F>G>C>E>H
159. Option B
G, C, E and H is smaller than F.
160. Option E
All statements are necessary.
161. Option D
162. Option D
163. Option C
B I S C U I T
According to question,
C H T D T H U
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According to alphabet,
C D H H T T U
rd
So, H is 3 from left.
164. Option B
D O N E
5 1 3 9
S E A L
8 9 4 2
So, L O A D
2 1 4 5
165. Option A
166. Option E
167. Option E
168. Option C
Meaningful words are BEAR, BARE
169. Option C
HGFEDCBA, GFEDCBA, GFEDCB, FEDCB
Next letter series = F
170. Option B
According to Mohan, birthday may be 17, 18 or 19th January. According to
Mohans sister, birthday may be at 19, 20, 21 or 22th Jan. So common day
= 19 Jan.
171. Option A
20 R 5 W 12 M 3 P 4 = ?
? = 20 5 + 12 3 4
? = 4 + 12 12 = 4
172. Option A
832 823
719 791
654 645
967 976
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481 418
3rd largest number is 791 and the sum of their first and second digit = 7 + 9
= 16
173. Option B
Second smallest number is 654. So, the sum of the first and the third digit is
6 + 4 = 10
174. Option E
After interchanging first and second digit of number.
832 382
719 179
654 564
967 697
481 841
Highest number = 841
Second highest number = 697
Difference between them = 841 697 = 144
175. Option D
Interchanging the first and third digit of number
832 238
719 917
654 456
967 769
481 184
Smallest number = 184
So, the sum of second and third digit = 8 + 4 = 12
176. Option D
F is not the most experienced. So, B is the most experienced.
Now, B > F > D > A > E > C
177. Option A
F has less experience than only B.
178. Option C
E is more experienced than only C.
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179. Option D
A bought Seiko watch on Monday.
180. Option A
D bought Fast Track watch on Saturday.
181. Option B
E bought Casio watch on Wednesday.
182. Option C
G bought Omni watch on Friday.
183. Option E
The combination Sunday-C-Rado is correct.
184. Option B
Suppose the present age of son be x years
Therefore, the present age o f father would b e 5x years
According to question,
5x + 7 / x + 7 = 3/1
5x + 7 = 3x + 21
5x 3x = 21 7
2x = 14
X=7
185. Option B
There is only one N in the given word. Therefore, the word NATION
cannot be formed. There is no M letter in the given word. Therefore, the
word ANIMAL cannot be formed. There is no Y letter in the given word.
Therefore, the word DIRTY cannot be formed.
186. Option A
There are 17 sheep. All but nine died. It means 9 sheep are left.
187. Option D
1+3=4
4 2 = 2
2+1=3
3 1 = 2
2+3=5
188. Option A
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189. Option B
190. Option B
191. Option D
192. Option C
193. Option B
H belongs to scale II
194. Option C
G belongs to Scale I
195. Option C
C belongs to scale III
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Chapter-2
Input-Output
Directions (Q. 1-5) A word can and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
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Directions (Q. 6-11) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and
numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
6. Step IV of an input is 62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49. What will be the
input definitely?
a) sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
b) sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
c) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
7. Which of the following will be the t hird step for input jockey firm 36 43
growth chart 22 45?
a) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
b) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
c) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
d) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
e) None of these
8. Step II of an input is 53 window 42 50 door lock key 36. How many more
steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
a) Three b) Four c) Five
d) Six e) None of these
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9. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is 85 journey train 36 54
daily 28 mansion?
a) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
b) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
c) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
d) There is no such step
e) None of these
10. Which step will bed the last step for an I nput whose second step is 63 Sour 18
56 grapes healthy 32 rise?
a) IV b) V c) VIII
d) VII e) None of these
11. Which word/number will be sixth from right in step fifth whose second step is
63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise?
a) Rise b) 56 c) Sour
d) 32 e) 18
Directions (Q. 12-16) Read the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: Rail 43 27 Book Coach 56 Ticket waiting confirm 62 35 72 sleeper 16
(All the numbers are two digit numbers)
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13. Which of the following step represents the maximum gap between Ticket
and 35?
a) Step 2 b) Step 3 c) Step 4
d) Step 5 e) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-23) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
Now, a set of words and letters is given below. As per the rules followed in above
steps, answer the questions based on it.
Input: 81 who sit 19 32 not but ink flow 51 27 van 68 92
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19. Which step is 92 81 68 51 32 27 who 19 van but flow ink not sit?
a) Step IV b) Step V c) Step III
d) Step VI e) None of these
20. Which is third element to the right from the sixth element from the right
end in Step II?
a) 32 b) van c) 27
d) floe e) 25
21. How many elements are there between who and van in Step IV?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 4
d) 0 e) 1
23. In Step II, if not is related 92, 51 is related to 68, van is related to
sit, in the same way flow is related to which element?
a) 81 b) who c) 19
d) 32 e) 23
Directions (Q. 24-28) Study the given information and answer the following
questions.
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Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended
arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps
for the given input.
Input 32 proud girl beautiful 48 55 97 rich family 61 72 17 nice life
24. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?
a) Five b) Six c) Seven
d) Eight e) Nine
25. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?
a) Beautiful b) Life c) 61
d) Nice e) 17
27. What is the position of nice from the left end in the final step?
a) 5th b) 6th c) 7th
th th
d) 8 e) 9
Directions (Q. 29-33) Study the given information and answer the following
questions.
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Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained. As per the rules followed inj the given steps, find out the appropriate steps
for the given input.
29. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?
a) Five b) Six c) Seven
d) Eight e) None of these
30. Which of the following is the fourth element from the left end of Step VI?
a) cute b) melody c) 71
d) oliver e) None of these
31. What is the position of melody from the left end in the final step?
a) Sixth b) Seventh c) First
d) Fifth e) Ninth
Directions (Q. 34-38) Study the following information to answer the given
questions.
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Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above
steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the
following input.
35. How many steps will be required to get the final output?
a) Five b) Six c) Seven
d) Four e) None of these
36. Which word/number would be the fifth from the right in Step V?
a) Madrid b) United c) 89
d) Liverpoor e) None of these
Directions (Q. 39-43) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and
numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below:
Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI I is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
39. Step IV of an input is 62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49. What willl
be the input definitely?
a) sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
b) sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
c) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
40. Which of the following will be the third step for input:
jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45 ?
a) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
b) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
c) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
d) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
e) None of these
41. Step II of an input is 53 wi ndow 42 50 door lock key 36. How many
more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
a) Three b) Four c) Five
d) Six e) None of these
42. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is 85 journey train
36 54 daily 28 mansion?
a) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
b) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
c) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
d) There is no such step
e) None of these
43. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is 63 sour
18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise?
a) IV b) V c) VIII
d) VII e) None of these
Directions (Q. 44-49) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Directions (Q. 50-54) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
And Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the
above steps, find out in each of the following question the appropriate step for the
given input.
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Directions (Q. 55-60) A word and number aran gement machine when given an
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule
in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
55. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39. How many more
steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
a) Three b) Four c) Two
d) Five e) None of these
Directions (Q. 61-66) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the abov steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
a) VI b) VII c) VIII
d) IX e) None of these
Directions (Q. 67-71) Given an input line the machine rearranges them step by
step as per the illustration given below.
Step VII is the last step and the arrangement in Step VII is the final arrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
67. If the third step of an input is 14 but 26 not just 63 fundamental 47, which
of the following is definitely the input?
a) 26 14 but not just 63 fundamental 47
b) 63 26 but 14 not just 63 fundamental 47
c) fundamental 26 but not just 63 47
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of the above
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68. First step of an input is 34 fire dress well 63 43 prime 52. Which step is
the last but one?
a) IV b) III c) VI
d) VII e) V
69. What will be the fourth step for the following input?
Input: just in time for 36 48 14 59
a) 14 for 36 in just time 48 59
b) 14 for 36 just in time 48 59
c) 14 for 36 in 48 just time 59
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of the above
70. If the second step of an input is 23 fine 49 sixty rely 38 56 next, how
many more steps will be r equired t o complete the arrangement?
a) 2 b) 5 c) 6
d) 4 e) None of these
Answers:
1. Option C
2. Option E
3. Option A
4. Option B
5. Option D
6. Option D
7. Option A
8. Option B
9. Option C
10. Option E
11. Option B
12. Option B
13. Option B
14. Option B
15. Option A
16. Option D
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17. Option C
18. Option C
19. Option C
20. Option B
21. Option A
22. Option A
23. Option D
24. Option C
25. Option D
26. Option C
27. Option A
28. Option B
29. Option C
30. Option E
31. Option C
32. Option C
33. Option B
34. Option B
35. Option B
36. Option B
37. Option C
38. Option C
39. Option D
40. Option A
41. Option B
42. Option C
43. Option E
44. Option C
45. Option E
46. Option C
47. Option E
48. Option B
49. Option E
50. Option D
51. Option D
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52. Option D
53. Option A
54. Option C
55. Option B
56. Option C
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57. Option D
58. Option D
59. Option B
60. Option D
61. Option D
62. Option A
63. Option E
64. Option D
65. Option D
66. Option A
67. Option D
68. Option C
69. Option A
70. Option D
71. Option C
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Chapter - 3
Data Sufficiency
Directions (Q. 1-3) Each of the questions below consists of a question and three
statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are suficient to answer the question.
Give Answer:
1. How many daughters does W have?
I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. Ms father T is husband of W
III. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.
a) Only I and II
b) Only I and III
c) Only II and III
d) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
e) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question
a) Only III
b) Only II and III
c) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
d) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
e) None of these
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Give answer:
a) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly from the statement of facts
given.
b) If the inference is probably true through not definitely true in the light of
the facts given.
c) If the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether
the inference is likely to be true or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light
of the facts given.
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from
the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
7. Share of services sector in Indias GDP has crossed the half way mark in early
2000.
8. In early minutes, the share of services sector in GDP for low per capita income
group of countries is about 40%
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Directions (Q. 9-13) below are given a passage followed by several possible
inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have
to examine each in ference separately in the context of the passage and decide
upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Give answer:
a) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly follows from the
statements of facts given.
b) If the inference is probably true thuogh not definitely true in the light of
the facts given.
c) If the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you can not say whether
the inference is likely to be true or false.
d) If the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light
of the facts given.
e) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the
facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shws groundwater levels in northern India
depleting by as much as a foot per year, over the past decade, is a matter of concern.
The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and
veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor
monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India, calls series of
glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, theres far too much reliance on
groundwater. For another, out water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely
inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs
like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like
paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.
10. Wheat cultivation in India requires comparatively more water than paddy.
11. Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
12. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
13. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus
preserve balance.
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arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor
importance or m ay be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Directions (Q. 14-18) Each of the questions below consists of a question and
two statements numb ered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give answer:
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
c) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question.
d) If the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
e) If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
15. On which day of a week Lalita did her reservation for the journey?
I. The husband of Lalita correctly remembers that she has done
reservation after Monday but before Sunday. However, it is almost
certain that she did not make her reservation on Wednesday.
II. The daughter of Lalita correctly remembers that h er mother has
done her reservation after Tuesday but before Saturday. Since her
mother was busy on Thursday so she did not make her reservation
on Thursday.
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18. Who amongst Ronak, Sanjay, Anish and Rohan is the tallest?
I. Ronak is as tall as Sanjay.
II. Anish is taller than Rohan.
Answers:
1. Option C
2. Option C
3. Option E
4. Option A
5. Option B
6. Option D
7. Option A
It is true as given in second line of the passage In 1990, Indias share of
services at 40% of GDP ____
8. Option D
9. Option D
10. Option B
11. Option A
12. Option E
13. Option E
14. Option C
15. Option E
From Statement I
Lalita made her reservation on either Tuesday, Thursday, Friday or
Saturday.
From Statement II
Lalita made her reservation on Wednesday or Friday.
From both the statements Lalita made her reservation on Friday.
16. Option B
17. Option B
From statement I
A is the sister of D. There is no information about N.
From statement II
D is the mother of R.
R is the son of N.
So, N is husband of D.
18. Option D
From statement I
Ronak = Sanjay
From statement II
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Chapter - 4
Sitting Arrangements
Directions (Q. 1-5) Study the following information to answer the given
questions.
5. Who among the following pairs may not be seated adjacent to each other?
a) AH b) DC c) EB
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Directions (Q. 6-11) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in
Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in
Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The
person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who
works for Operations Department.
7. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales
Department?
a) Immediate right b) Third to the left c) Second to the right
d) Second to the left e) Fourth to the right
9. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who
works for HR Department?
a) B
b) The person who works for Marketing Department
c) The person who works for Operations Department
d) D
e) G
10. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for
Marketing and Investment Banking departments when counted for the left
hand side of the person working for Marketing Department?
a) F and G b) E and C c) C and B
d) F and D e) B and D
11. How many people sit between the person who workds for Operations
Department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four e) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-16) Read the following information carefully to answer the
given questions.
Eight persons from different banks viz., Bank of India, Punjab National
Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Dena Bank,
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Union Bank of India and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows
containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between
adjacent persons. The names of these persons are A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Each
members seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the
information given above does not necessarily represents the order of seating as in
the final arrangement)
A faces north and seated second to the left of the person, who is from
Punjab National Bank. The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce is
opposite to one who is second to the left of H.
The person from Bank of Baroda is not near to H and F and not at the end
of the row. The person from Canara Bank is opposite to the person who is
from Dena Bank.
The person from Bank of India is not at the end of the row but left of the
person who is from Canara Bank.
D is immediately right of the person who is from Bank of Maharashtra. The
person from Canara Bank faces north while D faces south and opposite to
B.
The person from Union Bank of India is not opposite to E. The person from Canara
Bank is opposite to C.
13. Who is seated between G and the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
a) The person from Bank of Baroda
b) H
c) F
d) E
e) The person from Dena Bank
14. Who amongst the following sit at extrememe end of the row?
a) A and the person from Bank of Maharashtra
b) The person from Punjab National Bank and Union Bank of India
c) The person from Dena Bank and E
d) The person from Union Bank of India and C
e) G and B
15. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Baroda?
a) The person from Bank of India
b) F
c) A
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17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given
seating arrangement and thus form a group, which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
a) Canara Bank
b) C
c) Union Bank of India
d) Oriental Bank of Commerce
e) Bank of Maharashtra
Directions (Q. 20-26) Study the following information carefully to answer the
questions that follows.
21. Which of the following pairs has the person facing the same direction?
a) E, A b) G, H c) A, G
d) H, D e) B, D
23. Who is sitting third from the eastern end of the arrangement?
a) E b) G c) B
d) C e) None of these
Directions (Q. 27-31) Study the following information and answer the question
given below.
29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given
arrangement and hence from a group. Which of the following does not
belong to that group?
a) Chartered Accountant
b) M Doctor
c) J Engineer
d) Financial Analyst L
e) Lawyer - K
Directions (Q. 32-36) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:-
D, E, F, H and I are seated in a circle facing the centre. A, B and C are also
seated in the same circle but two of them are not facing the centre. F is second to the
left of C. E is third to the right of A. B is third to left of D, who is immediate
neighbor of H and I. C is second to the right of D and third to the right of B.
36. Which of the following is/are the possible position(s) of I with respect to A?
a) Fourth to the right
b) Second to the left
c) Fourth to the left
d) Only a and c
e) All of the above
Directions (Q. 37-41) Study the following information and answer the questions
that follow:
No two students of the same group are sitting adjacent to each other except
those of group III. Students from group IV are sitting opposite each other.
D is neither in Dayanand nor in Aryabhatt house.
The student from Dhruv house is sitting on the immediate right of the
students from Dayanand house.
C, who is in Vashistha house, is in group I. She is sitting on the immediate
right of F, who is in group III.
F is not in Aryabhatt house and she has also participated in other sports.
B from Vyas house is neither in group IV nor in group I or II.
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40. The student from which house is sitting opposite the Vashistha house
participant?
a) Dayanand b) Shankracharya c) Maharishi
d) Cant say e) None of these
Directions (Q. 42-46) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questioins that follow.
Twelve friends are sitting in two squares. One square is inside another. P,
Q, R, S, T and V are in the outer square facing inward. A, B, C, D, E and F are
sitting in the inner square facing outward. They all are s itting in such a way that in
each square four persons are sitting in the middle of the sides and two persons are
sitting on diagonally opposite corners. Each friend in the inner square is facing
another friend of the outer square. There are exactly two persons sitting between P
and T. E si ts second to the left of A. R is on the immediate left of the one who is f
aci ng A. Neither E nor A faces either T or P. S is facing F and Q is not opposite R
in the outer square. T is not sitting adjacent to S. B is not facing P. Between B and
D there are as many persons as between R and V.
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a) V b) Q c) T
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
45. Four of the five are alike in a certain manner. Select the one which is not
similar to the other four.
a) R, E b) A, S c) D, T
d) F, Q e) C, E
Directions (Q. 47-51) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
e) None of these
Directions (Q. 52-56) Study the given information carefully and answer the
given questiions.
53. Four of the following are based on ab ove arrangement and so form a group.
Which one does not belong to the group?
a) GE b) DC c) AF
d) AB e) CE
54. Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting to the immediate
right of H?
a) A b) B c) E
d) C e) G
56. How many people are sitting between H and A when counted from the right
side of H?
a) Three b) None c) More than three
d) One e) Two
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(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting along the circle facing the centre.
(ii) T is 2nd to t he left of P.
(iii) R is 3rd to the right of U who is the immediate left of V.
(iv) Q is between P and S.
58. Which of the following pairs has its second member sitting to the
immediate left of first member?
a) VT b) PQ c) SU
d) UV e) None of these
61. Which of the following pairs has members sitting adjacent to each other?
a) PS b) QU c) UT
d) TR e) None of these
Directions (Q. 62-66) Study the following information and answer the questions
which follow.
63. Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate
left of the second person?
a) LO b) MK c) QN
d) LN e) None of these
66. Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other
two?
a) NQL b) PMK c) MOP
d) POK e) None of these
Directions (Q. 67-72) Study the follow ing information carefully and answer
the questions given below.
67. If E and F interchange their places, who will be second to the right of B?
a) F b) C c) D
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
68. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate
left of the first person?
a) BC b) HE c) FA
d) GD e) None of these
72. In a row of 45 boys facing South, T is 8th to the right of H, who is 10th from
the right end. H is 14th to the left of R. What is Rs position from the left
end?
a) 21st b) 23rd c) 24th
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
Directions (Q. 73-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
75. If R and B interchange their positions, who will be 2nd to the left of M?
a) B b) H c) P
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
78. In a row of 40 children, Q is 14th from the left end and there are 16 children
between Q and M. What is Ms position from the right end of the row?
a) 11th b) 10th c) 30th
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
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Directions (Q. 79-83) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Directions (Q. 84-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
84. Which of the following combinations represents the first and the second to
the left of B respectively?
a) MD b) DH c) AM
d) AR e) DM
d) R e) Data inadequate
88. In which of the following combinations 3rd person is 2nd to the left of 2nd
person?
a) BAR b) DBM c) TPH
d) PMH e) None of these
Directions (Q. 89-93) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
10 people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in
such a way that there is an eaual distance between adjacent people. In row-1, Q, R,
S, T and U are seated and all of them are facing north. In Row-2, L, M, N, O and P
are seated and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given sitting
arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
S is sitting 2nd to the left of Q. Q is not sitting at any of the ends of the line.
There are two persons between P and L. The person who faces T is to the
immediately left of M. M is sitting at the extreme right end. Q is an immediate
neighbour of U. The person who faces U is an immediate neighbour of both P and
N.
91. Who among the following is sitting at the extreme right end of the Row-1?
a) Q b) U c) S
d) R e) Cannot be detrmined
93. Who among the following is not seated at any extreme end of Row-1 and
Row-2?
a) P b) S c) M
d) R e) O
Directions (Q. 94-98) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
94. Who amongst the following are not facing towards the centre?
a) E, F and I b) F, G and J c) H, K and L
d) G, I and J e) None of these
97. How many persons are sitting between H and K if we move clockwise
starting from H?
a) Three b) Four c) Five
d) Two e) One
98. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the given sitting
arrangement?
a) L is sitting exactly between G and I
b) H is sitting 3rd to the right of K
c) F and I are sitting just opposite to each other
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Directions (Q. 99-103) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions.
101. Four of the following are alike I n a certain way based on their positions in
the sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
a) AE b) HF c) BD
d) GE e) CH
Directions (Q. 104-108) Study the following carefully and answer the questions.
105. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in
the sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
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a) CH b) BA c) FE
d) DG e) AC
Ashwini, Priya, Sudha, Rani, Meeta, Geeta and Mukta are sitting around a
circle facing the centre. Ashwini is third to the left of Mukta and to the immediate
right o f Rani. Priya is second to the left of Geeta who is not an immediate
neighbour of Meeta.
111. Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the
immediate left of second person?
a) Rani-Meeta b) Ashwini-Geeta c) Sudha-Priya
d) Geeta-Sudha e) None of these
112. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other
two?
a) Meeta-Ashwini-Geeta
b) Sudha-Rani-Geeta
c) Mukta-Priya-Rani
d) Mukta-Priya-Sudha
e) None of these
113. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani with respect to
Mukta?
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116. Which of the following pairs of persons has first person sitting to the right
of the second person?
a) CB b) AE c) FG
d) HA e) DB
Answers:
1. Option D
2. Option E
3. Option A
4. Option B
5. Option B
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6. Option A
7. Option D
8. Option D
9. Option B
10. Option C
11. Option A
12. Option B
13. Option A
14. Option D
15. Option A
16. Option B
17. Option E
18. Option A
19. Option B
20. Option C
21. Option E
22. Option E
23. Option C
24. Option B
25. Option B
26. Option A
27. Option B
28. Option D
29. Option C
30. Option B
31. Option A
32. Option A
33. Option E
34. Option D
35. Option B
36. Option E
37. Option B
38. Option D
39. Option C
40. Option B
41. Option D
42. Option C
43. Option A
44. Option C
45. Option E
46. Option A
47. Option B
48. Option A
49. Option C
50. Option B
51. Option D
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52. Option D
53. Option B
54. Option C
55. Option B
56. Option C
57. Option C
58. Option E
59. Option B
60. Option A
61. Option D
62. Option E
63. Option D
64. Option A
65. Option C
66. Option B
67. Option E
68. Option D
69. Option C
70. Option A
71. Option B
72. Option E
73. Option B
74. Option D
75. Option E
76. Option A
77. Option C
78. Option A
79. Option D
80. Option E
81. Option B
82. Option C
83. Option A
84. Option E
85. Option D
86. Option A
87. Option C
88. Option B
89. Option C
90. Option A
91. Option D
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92. Option B
93. Option E
94. Option C
95. Option D
E is facing t owards the centre. G is 2nd to the right or 5th to the left of E.
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96. Option A
97. Option B
98. Option E
99. Option B
100. Option C
101. Option A
102. Option B
103. Option D
104. Option D
105. Option E
106. Option E
107. Option C
108. Option B
109. Option C
110. Option E
111. Option D
112. Option B
113. Option E
114. Option A
115. Option B
116. Option E
117. Option C
118. Option D
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Chapter - 5
Syllogisms
Directions (Q. 1-5) In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance withcommonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either conclusion I or II follows
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
e) If both conclusions I and II follow
Directions (Q. 6-11) In each question below are four statements followed by
four conc lusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the four given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and than decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then
decide which of the answers a, b, c, d and e is correct answer.
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No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
All brushes are paints.
Directions (Q. 12-16) In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
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Directions (Q. 17-28) In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at vari ance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Directions (Q. 29-34) In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by four conclusions number I, II, III and IV. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be of variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) All follow
Answers:
1. Option A
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2. Option E
3. Option C
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4. Option D
5. Option B
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6. Option C
7. Option B
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8. Option D
All follows
9. Option C
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10. Option A
11. Option B
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12. Option D
13. Option B
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Only I follows.
14. Option A
None follows
15. Option E
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16. Option E
17. Option C
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18. Option D
19. Option C
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20. Option A
21. Option D
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22. Option D
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23. Option B
Only I follows.
24. Option C
25. Option B
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Only II follows
26. Option D
27. Option E
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28. Option A
None follows
29. Option E
30. Option B
31. Option D
32. Option C
33. Option B
34. Option A
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Chapter - 6
Blood Relations
1. R is sister of M who is brother of H. D is mother of K who is brother of M.
How is R related to D?
a) Sister b) Daughter c) Mother
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
Directions (Q. 5-6) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
5. How L is related to S?
a) Nephew b) Brother c) Grandson
d) Great Grandson e) None of these
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Directions (Q. 8-10) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
A B means A is wife of B
A + B means A is brother of B
A B means A is daughter of B
A B means A is son of B
8. How is Q related to P if P R T Q?
a) Granddaughter
b) Mother-in-law/Father-in-law
c) Grandmother
d) Grandmother/Grandfather
e) None of the above
9. How is R related to Q, if P Q + R T?
a) Brother/Sister b) Niece c) Sister
d) Nephew/Niece e) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15) Read the information carefully and answer the following
questions.
If A + B means A is the father of B.
If A B means A is the sister of B.
If A $ B means A is the wife of B.
If A % B means A is the mother of B.
If A B means A is t he son of B.
11. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that J is the
brother of T in the expression?
JP%H?T%L
a) x b) c) $
d) Either or x e) Either + or
12. Which among the given expressions indicate that M is the daughter of D?
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a) L % R $ D + T M
b) L + R $ D + M T
c) L % R % D + T M
d) D + L $ R + M T
e) L $ D R % M T
14. Which among the following expressions is true, if Y is the son of X is definitely
false?
a) W % L T Y X
b) W + L T Y X
c) X + L T Y W
d) W $ X + L + Y + T
e) W % X + T Y L
15. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that T is the sister-
in-law of Q I n the expression?
R%TP?Q+V
a) b) % c)
d) $ e) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
There are eight family members- I, J, K, L, M, N, P and Q. J has only two
children K and L. I is mother of K, who is sister of L. N is son of L. Q is brother of
N. M is mother of Q. P is granddaughter of I.
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Directions (Q. 21-23) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow.
If A B means A is father of B.
If A + B means A is wife of B.
If A B means A is daughter of B.
If A B means A is son of B.
22. What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the
nephew of T in the expression Q ? R S T?
a) + b) c)
d) e) Either or
23. Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in
the equation:
A B C + D E?
a) C is mother of A
b) E is wife of B
c) D is brother of A
d) E is mother-in-law of C
e) None is true
Directions (Q. 24-26) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions below.
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Directions (Q. 27-32) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions which follow:
Answers:
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1. Option B
2. Option A
3. Option A
Woman = daughter of Nirmals wifes grandfathers only child = daughter
of Nirmals wifes father = Nirmals wife
4. Option A
5. Option C
A is daughter of S. L is son of A. So, L is grandson of S.
6. Option E
7. Option C
8. Option D
9. Option E
10. Option B
11. Option A
12. Option B
13. Option B
14. Option D
15. Option D
16. Option B
17. Option B
18. Option E
19. Option C
20. Option C
21. Option A
22. Option B
23. Option E
24. Option B
25. Option A
26. Option D
27. Option A
28. Option E
29. Option D
30. Option B
31. Option E
32. Option C
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Chapter 7
Analogy
6. 13 : 169 : : ?
a) 12 : 140 b) 3 : 6 c) 11 : 111
d) 9 : 81 e) None of these
7. 23 : 29 : : 41 : ?
a) 43 b) 45 c) 47
d) 49 e) None of these
8. 6 : 10 : : 9 : ?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15
d) 18 e) None of these
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Answers:
1. Option D
Forest is the habitat of Lion. Similarly, water body is the habitat of fish.
2. Option B
The causative organism of polio is virus. Similarly, the causative organism
of anthrax is bacteria.
3. Option B
4. Option B
From the jumbled letters NIIOLUSL, we can form the meaningful word
ILLUSION. Similarly, we can form VERTEBRA from the jumbled letters
TBERVARE.
5. Option B
R U S T
9 6 8 7
Similarly,
T S U R
7 8 6 9
6. Option D
The relation is x : x square
13 13 = 169
Similarly,
9 9 = 81
7. Option A
Two consecutive prime numbers are given:
23 29
Similarly,
41 43
8. Option C
23=6
2 5 = 10
Similarly,
33=9
3 5 = 15
9. Option C
Tributary is a part of river. Similarly, branch is a part of tree and is analogus
to tributary in the case of river.
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Chapter - 8
Coded Inequality
Directions (Q. 1-5) In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and *
are used with the following meanings as illustrated below.
P Q means P is not greater than Q.
P % Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P * Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I is true.
b) If only conclusion II is true.
c) If either conclusion I or II is true.
d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
e) If both conclusions I and II are true.
1. Statements: K @ V, V N, N % F
Conclusions: I. F @ V
II. K @ N
2. Statements: H W, W $ M, M @ B
Conclusions: I. B * H
II. M % H
3. Statements: D % B, B * T, T $ M
Conclusions: I. T D
II. M D
4. Statements: M * T, T @ K, K N
Conclusions: I. N * T
II. N * M
5. Statements: R $ J, J % D, D * F
Conclusions: I. D $ R
II. D @ R
In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are
followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. Assuming that the given statements
are true, find out which conclusion (s) is/are definitely true.
6. Statements: M D , D * K, K @ R, R * F
Conclusions: I. F K
II. D * F
III. M R
IV. D * R
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only IV is true
7. Statements: B % K, K $ T, T * F, H F
Conclusions: I. B $ T
II. T B
III. H K
IV. F B
a) Only either I or II is true
b) Only III is true
c) Only IV is true
d) Only III and IV are true
e) Only either I or II and III and IV are true
8. Statements: W * B, B @ F, F R, R $ M
Conclusions: I. W * F
II. M * B
III. R * B
IV. M * W
a) Only I and IV are true
b) Only II and III are true
c) Only I and III are true
d) Only II and IV are true
e) None of the above
9. Statements: E @ K, K $ T, T N, B % N
Conclusions: I. T % E
II. K N
III. B * T
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IV. B * E
a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only II, III and IV are true
c) Only I, III and IV are true
d) All are true
e) None of the above
10. Statements: Z $ B, B % M, M F, F @ R
Conclusions: I. Z * M
II. F * B
III. R * M
IV. M @ Z
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I, III and IV are true
c) Only III and IV are true
d) Only either I or IV and III are true
e) None of the above
11. Statements: H @ T, T $ N, F N, B % F
Conclusions: I. F @ H
II. F T
III. B * T
IV. B % H
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only II and IV are true
e) Only II and III are true
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely
true and give your answer accordingly.
12. Statements: D % F, F @ H, H * N
Conclusions: I. N @ F
II. D % N
III. H % D
a) None is true
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b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only I and II are true
13. Statements: B ^ D, D % T, T * M
Conclusions: I. B @ T
II. M @ D
III. B @ M
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of these
14. Statements: K # W, M @ W, R ^ M
Conclusions: I. K % M
II. W % R
III. R @ K
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I and III are true
c) Only II and III are true
d) All I, II and III are true
e) None of the above
15. Statements: M @ K, K ^ T, T # J
Conclusions: I. J # K
II. M @ J
III. J % K
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only either I or III is true
e) Only either I or III and II are true
16. Statements: R * N, N % B, B # T
Conclusions: I. B @ R
II. T @ N
III. R % T
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I and III are true
c) Only II and III are true
d) All I, II and III are true
e) None of the above
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Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true:
17. Statements: F % T, T @ J, J * W
Conclusions: I. J @ F
II. J * F
III. W $ T
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only either I or II is true
e) Only either I or II and III are true
18. Statements: R * D, D K, K $ M
Conclusions: I. M * R
II. K $ R
III. D * M
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
19. Statements: Z F, F $ M, M % K
Conclusions: I. K * F
II. Z * M
III. K * Z
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of the above
20. Statements: H @ B, B R, A $ R
Conclusions: I. B * A
II. R % H
III. A $ H
a) Only I and II are true
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21. Statements: M $ J, J * T, K T
Conclusions: I. K * J
II. M $ T
III. M $ K
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true.
22. Statements: M @ T, T $ R, R J
Conclusions: I. J # M
II. R # M
III. J * T
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and II are true
e) None of the above
23. Statements: D B, B # H, H * F
Conclusions: I. F @ B
II. F @ D
III. H @ D
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only I and II are true
e) All are true
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24. Statements: H * M, M @ T, T $ K
Conclusions: I. K # M
II. T # H
III. H @ K
a) Only I is true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only II and III are true
d) Only I and III are true
e) All are true
25. Statements: N $ A, A # J , J D
Conclusions: I. N @ J
II. A D
III. D @ A
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only III is true
d) Only II and III are true
e) None of the above
26. Statements: R * T, T @ M, M $ K
Conclusions: I. K @ R
II. M # R
III. K # T
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only II and III are true
c) Only I and III are true
d) All are true
e) None of the above
27. Statements: F # W, W $ M, M R
Conclusions: I. R $ W
II. F # R
III. W * R
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 28-31) Read each statement carefully and answer the following
questions.
28. Which of the following expressions will be true, if the expression R > O = A >
S < T is definitely true?
a) O > T b) S < R c) T > A
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d) S = O e) None of these
29. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the
given expression in order to make the expressions P > A as well as T < L
definitely true?
a) b) > c) <
d) e) None of these
30. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the
same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such
a manner that makes the expression A < P definitely false?
__ __ < __ > __
a) L, N, P, A b) L, A, P, N c) A, L, P, N
d) N, A, P, L e) P, N, A, L
31. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces
respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given
expression in such a manner that makes t he expression F > N and U > D
definitely false?
F __ O __ U __ N __ D
a) <, <, >, = b) <, =, =, > c) <, =, =, <
d) , =, =, e) >, >, =, <
Answers:
1. Option B
K@VK <V
VN V N
N % F N F
K <V N F
Conclusions: I. F @ V F < V (F)
II . K @ N K < N (T)
Only II is true.
2. Optoin E
H W H W
W$ MW= M
M @ BM < B
H W= M < B
Conclusions: I. B * H B > H (T)
II. M % H M H (T)
So, both I and II are true.
3. Option D
D%BD B
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B *T B>T
T$MT=M
DB > T=M
Conclusions: I. T D T D (F)
II. M D M D (F)
Neither I nor II is true.
4. Option A
M*TM>T
T@KT<K
KNKN
M>T<KN
Conclusions: I. N * T N > T (T)
II. N * M N > M (F)
Only I is true.
5. Option C
R$JR=J
J%DJD
D*FD>F
R=JD>F
Conclusions: I. D $ R D = R
II. D @ R D < R
Either I or II is true.
6. Option A
MDM<D
D*KD>K
K@RKR
R*FR>F
Conclusions : I. F K F < K (False)
II. D * F D > F (False)
III. M R M < R (False)
IV. D * R D > R (False)
None is true.
7. Option E
B%KBK
K$TK=T
T*FT>F
HFH<F
So, B K = T > F > H
Conclusions: I. B $ T B = T
II. T B T < B
III. H K H < K (True)
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8. Option B
W*BW>B
B@FB F
FRF<R
R$MR=M
So, W > B F < R = M
Conclusions: I. W * F W > F (False)
II. M * B M > B (True)
III. R * B R > B (True)
IV. M * W M > W (False)
So, Only II and III are true.
9. Option C
E@KEK
K$TK=T
TNT<N
B%NBN
Conclusions: I. T % E T E (True)
II. K N K < N (False)
III. B * T B > T (True)
IV. B * E B > E (True)
Only I, III and IV are true.
10. Option C
Z$BZ=B
B%MBM
MFFR
F@RFR
Conclusions: I. Z * M Z > M (False)
II. F * B F > B (False)
III. R * M R > M (True)
IV. M @ Z M Z (True)
Only III and IV are true.
11. Option C
H@THT
T$NT=N
FNF<N
B%FBF
So, H T = N > F B
Conclusions: I. F @ H F H (False)
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12. Option A
13. Option B
14. Option D
15. Option E
16. Option D
17. Option E
F%TFT
T@JT=J
J*WJ>W
From all the statements together,
FT=J>W
Conclusions: I. J @ F J = F
II. J * F J > F
III. W $ T W < T
J is either greater than or equal to F. So either I or II and III are true.
18. Option C
R*DR>D
DKDK
K$MK<M
From all the statements together,
R> D K < M
Conclusions: I. M * R M > R (False)
II. K $ R K < R (True)
III. D * M D > M (False)
So, only II is true.
19. Option A
ZFZF
F$MF<M
M%KMK
From all the statements together,
ZF<MK
Conclusions: I. K * F K > F (True)
II. Z * M Z > M (False)
III. K * Z K > Z (False)
So, only I is true.
20. Option D
H@BH=B
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BRBR
A$RA<R
From all the three statements together,
H=BR>A
Conclusions: I. B * A B > A (True)
II. R % H R H (True)
III. A $ H A < H (True)
So, all I, II and III are true.
21. Option A
M$JM<J
J*TJ>T
KTKT
From all the three statements together,
M<J<TK
Conclusions: I. K * J K > J (False)
II. M $ T M < T (False)
III. M $ K M < K (False)
None is true.
22. Option B
23. Option E
24. Option E
25. Option C
26. Option B
27. Option A
28. Option B
29. Option B
30. Option E
31. Option C
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Chapter 9
Coding Decoding
Directions (Q. 1-3) Study the information given below carefully to answer the
following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as lop eop aop fop
means Traders are above laws
fop cop bop gop means Developers were above profitable
aop bop uop qop means Developers stopped following traders
cop jop eop uop means Following maps were laws
Directions (Q. 4-8) Study the information and answer the following questions.
In a certain code language.
Economics is not money is writen as ka la ho ga
Demand and supply economies is written as mo ta pa ka
Money makes only part is written as zi la ne ki
Demand makes supply economics is written as zi mo ka ta
6. What may be the possible code for demand only more in the given code
language?
a) xi ne mo b) mo zi ne c) ki ne mo
d) mo zi ki e) xi ka ta
7. What may be the possible code for work and money in the given code
language?
a) pa ga la b) pa la lu c) mo la pa
d) tu la ga e) pa la ne
Directions (Q. 9-13) Study the following information and answer the given
questions.
In a certain code language driving is not easy is written as jo ro ho go,
rough and tough driving is written as no sa jo da, looks easy but dangerous is
written as ai ro to po and is rough tough dangerous driving is written as ho jo no
ai da
10. What is the code for tough in the given code language?
a) no b) da c) sa
d) Either sa or da e) Either no or da
11. What may be the possible code for rough but nice?
a) po bi no b) no po ai c) no to po
d) no to ai e) ta jo bi
12. What may be the possible code for easy and solved in the given code
language?
a) sa go ro b) sa ro cu c) no ro su
d) cu ro go e) sa ro to
13. What is the code for dangerous in the given code language?
a) no b) sa c) to
d) ai e) ho
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Directions (Q. 14-18) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions.
15. Which of the following is the code for brand enhance version?
a) do qo co b) so qo co c) do ro co
d) Cant say e) None of these
Directions (Q. 19-22) Study the following information to answer the given
questions.
In a certain code, ze lo ka gi is a code for must save some money, fe ka
so ni is a code for he made good money, ni lo da so is a code for he must be
good and we so ze da is a code for be good save grace.
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Directions (Q. 23-27) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c, and d. You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letter, mark e) i.e., None of these as your answer.
Letter RATKFQEPJIMUDH
Digit/Symbol Code 3@2194%58$67@
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as *.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded
as the code for the last letter.
23. DPEHQA
a) 7%#4@ b) @%#47 c) 7%#47
d) @%#4@ e) None of these
24. KEMRDF
a) *$379 b) 1$379 c) 1$37*
d) *$37* e) None of these
25. AHDUQK
a) 1#764@ b) 1#7641 c) *#764*
d) @#764@ e) None of these
26. IDQJPT
a) 8745%2 b) 2745%8 c) *745%*
d) 2745%2 e) None of these
27. UDKFME
a) *719$ b) 6719$ c) *719$*
d) 719#$6 e) None of these
28. If white means black, black means red, red means blue. blue
means yellow and yellow means grey then which of the following
represents the colour of clear sky?
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Directions (Q. 30-34) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c and d. You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, give e) i.e. None of these as the answer.
Letters: M D R P A T W E I F H U K Z
Digit/Symbold Code: 5 6 # 7 8 1 @ $ 2 % 3 4 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a coinsonant and the last letter is a vowel, their
codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as *.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to
be coded as the code for the consonant.
30. TUKDIP
a) 14627 b) 14621 c) 74621
d) 16427 e) None of these
31. EFDMKA
a) $%6548 b) $%654$ c) *%654*
d) 8%6548 e) None of these
32. APWTUH
a) *7@1 * b) 87@13 c) 37@@5
d) 87@18 e) None of the above
33. MARTWE
a) 58#1@$ b) 58#1@5 c) $8#1@5
d) $8#1@$ e) None of these
34. HEMKZI
a) 2$5493 b) 3$5492 c) 3$5493
d) 2$5492 e) None of these
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Directions (Q. 38-43) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c, and d. You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letter,
based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark
the number of thatcombination as your answer. If none of the combination
correctly represents the group of letter, mark e) i.e. None of these as your
answer.
Letter: RDAEJMKTBUIPWHF
Digit/Symbol Code: 4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % 7@ 3 9 #
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to
be coded as ^.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded
as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant their codes
are to be interchanged.
38. HIFMJU
a) 7#1*9 b) 97#1*9 c) 7#1*
d) ^7#1*^ e) None of these
39. AKTRBW
a) 3264%5 b) 3264%3 c) 324%65
d) 5264%3 e) None of these
40. EBPDRI
a) 7%@847 b) 7%@84$ c) $%@847
d) $%8@47 e) None of these
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41. BKAJIM
a) %25*71 b) 125*7% c) %25*7%
d) 15*271 e) None of these
42. UKPDMA
a) 52@815 b) 2@815 c) 2@81
d) @2815 e) None of these
43. METUFB
a) %$6#1 b) 1$6#1 c) %$6#%
d) 1$6#% e) None of these
Directions (Q. 44-48) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c and d. You have to
find out whi ch of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following conditions and the sub-conditions and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of letters, mark e) i.e. None of these as your answer.
Letter: A M P R D H J T W E I KN F U
Digit/Symbol: 3 % 4 9 1 @ 2 5 6 * 7 8 $ ^
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first as well as last letters are consonants, both are to be
coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to
be coded as #.
44. APIWKN
a) 34*73 b) #4*7# c) 84*78
d) 84*73 e) None of these
45. HPEIUM
a) @46*^% b) %46*^ c) @46*^@
d) #46*^# e) None of these
46. RDEMKH
a) @16%79 b) 916%7@ c) @16%7@
d) 916%79 e) None of these
47. FWHRKE
a) 6@976 b) 6$ @97 c) 6@97$
d) $@976 e) None of these
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48. IDAPRU
a) *1349^ b) ^*1349 c) ^1349*
d) ^1349^ e) None of these
52. In a certain code language over and above is written as da pa ta and old
and beautiful is written as sa na pa. How is over written in that code
language?
a) da b) ta c) na
d) da or ta e) None of these
Directions (Q. 53-57) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
53. Which of the following may represent exercise regularly good for health?
a) Ja m o re dk az
b) fu ja re tu dk
c) ka se mo na dk
d) ka re az tu se
e) na se tu az dk
a) tu se b) ka tu c) ka az
d) fu tu e) na ka
57. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the
following?
1. Earth
2. Jupiter
3. Venus
4. Mars
5. Mercury
a) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 b) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 c) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
d) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 e) None of these
58. If NEWS is written as WENS then how MATE will be written in this
code?
a) TAME b) META c) EATM
d) AMET e) None of these
Directions (Q. 60-65) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c and d. you have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following digits/symbols coding system and the condition those
follow and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the
combinations correctly represents the group of letters mark e) i.e. None of
these as the answer.
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to
be coded as the code for the vowel.
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(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded
as the code for the last letter.
60. MKJIDE
a) 9%1#7$ b) $%1#79 c) 91%#7$
d) $%17#9 e) None of these
61. INQBWU
a) #@8*3 b) 3@8*# c) #8@*3
d) 3#@8* e) None of these
62. KFBPAW
a) *265% b) % 265% c) *265*
d) %265* e) None of these
63. EFDJTP
a) 62714$ b) $27146 c) $27416
d) $2714$ e) None of these
64. NWANUD
a) @*5@37 b) 7*5@3@ c) @5*@37
d) @*5@3@ e) None of these
65. APFTQI
a) #62485 b ) #6248# c) 562485
d) 56248# e) None of these
66. In a certain code if LOUD is written as JQSF then which of the following
English words shall b e coded as PKQG?
a) RISE b) ROPE c) ROAD
d) RICE e) ROLE
Directions (Q. 67-72) In each question below is given a group of letters followed
by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered a, b, c, d, you have to find
out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based
on the following letter coding system and mark the number of that
combination as the answer. If none of the digits/symbols combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, mark e) i.e., None of these as the
answer.
Letter: DLEGZKRUBWFHIAP
Digit/Symbol: 4 8 $ 1 # 5 7 2 6 % * 3 9 @
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last is a consonant, both are to be
coded as the code of the consonant.
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(ii) If both first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as ^.
(iii) If first letter is a consonant and last is a vowel, the codes for first and
last letters are to be interchanged.
67. ABWUPF
a) %26@% b) %26@9 c) 926@%
d) %269@ e) None of these
68. BFIDWE
a) 2%346$ b) %3426$ c) $%3426
d) $2%634 e) None of these
69. WKGLBA
a) 951862 b) 651829 c) 651892
d) 951826 e) None of these
70. ZEFHIR
a) #$%*37 b) ^$%*3^ c) 7$%*3#
d) #%$*37 e) None of these
71. ELBGPU
a) $821@ b) 821@$ c) $821@
d) $812@ e) None of these
72. UHRKLZ
a) *758 b) *758# c) #*758#
d) #*758 e) None of these
73. In a certain code, LAWN is written as JCUP. How will SLIT be coded in
that code?
a) QNGV b) QJGV c) ONVG
d) NJGV e) NJVG
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Letters G A K E S P Q B U R I T
F M L
Digit/Symbol 9 % 2 $ * 7 @ 8 1 6 5 4 # 3
Code
Conditions:
i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, both are to be coded as
the code for the vowel.
ii) If the first letter is consonant and the last a vowel, the codes for the first and
the last letters are to be interchanged.
iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonant both are to be coded as ^
iv) If more than two vowels are there in the group of letters, all vowels are to
coded as --
76. BSQEGU
a) 5@67% b) ^@67%^ c) @67%
d) 5@67% e) None of these
77. MGSELI
a) *%@71# b) *%@17# c) #%@71*
d) %#@17* e) None of these
78. IPKUSR
a) #8$@# b) 48$@# c) #8$@4
d) #8$4@ e) None of these
79. TEFSUM
a) ^79@^ b) 379@* c) *79@3
d) ^79@^ e) None of these
80. KAGFUB
a) $2%95 b) 52%9$ c) $2%95
d) ^2%9^ e) None of these
81. AQMMTE
a) 76*32 b) 6--*3-- c) 26*32
d) 26*23 e) None of these
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82. In a certain code JUST is written as #@%$ and LATE is written as ^$*.
How is TASTE written in that code?
a) *^%$* b) $^%$* c) $^%*$
d) $%^%* e) None of these
83. If Blue is called Green, Green is called Orange, Orange is called Yellow,
Yellow is called Black, Black is called Red and Red is called White. What
is the colour of turmeric?
a) Orange b) Green c) White
d) Black e) None of these
84. In a certain code ROSE is wrtitten as #43$ and FIRST is written as 5*#37.
How is STORE written in that code?
a) 473$# b) 473#$ c) 374#$
d) 347#$ e) None of these
86. If yellow is called red, red is called blue, blue is called white,
white is called black, black is called green and green is called
violet, what is the colour of clear sky?
a) Green b) Violet c) Yellow
d) Red e) None of these
87. In a certain code, STAR is written as 5$*2 and TORE is written as $32@.
How is OATS written in that code?
a) 3*5$ b) 3*$5 c) 3$*5
d) 35*$ e) None of these
88. In a certain code language, food is good is written as ho na ta, eat food
regularly is written as sa ta la and keep good health is written as da na
ja. How is eat written in that code language?
a) sa b) la c) sa or la
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
Answers:
1. Option B
2. Option A
3. Option B
4. Option E
5. Option E
6. Option A
7. Option B
8. Option D
9. Option D
10. Option E
11. Option A
12. Option B
13. Option D
14. Option A
15. Option B
16. Option C
17. Option D
18. Option A
19. Option C
20. Option E
21. Option A
22. Option D
23. Option B
D P E H Q A
@ % # 4 7
24. Option E
K E M R D F
9 $ 3 7 9
Condition (iii) follows
25. Option E
A H D U Q K
@ # 7 6 4 1
No condition follows.
26. Option A
I D Q J P T
8 7 4 5 % 2
No condition follows.
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27. Option C
U D K F M E
* 7 1 9 $ *
Condition (ii) follows
28. Option C
Colour of clear sky is blue and according to question, blue means yellow so
the colour of clear sky will be yellow.
29. Option A
M O D E L
5 1 3 # 2
D E A R
3 # % 8
L O A D
2 1 % 3
30. Option A
T U K D I P
1 4 6 2 7
Condition (i) follows.
31. Option C
E F D M K A
* % 6 5 4 *
Condition (ii) follows.
32. Option E
A P W T U H
3 7 @ 1 3
Condition (iii) follows.
33. Option C
M A R T W E
$ 8 # 1 @ 5
Condition (i) follows.
34. Option A
H E M K Z I
2 $ 5 4 9 3
Condition (i) follows.
35. Option C
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S A F E R
5 @ 3 # 2
R I D E
2 % #
F E D S
3 # % 5
36. Option C
37. Option C
Bring the white board ka na di pa (i)
White and black board na di sa ra (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
White board = na di
Put the code of white board in equation (i)
Bring the = ka or pa
38. Option D
H I F M J U
^ 7 # 1 * ^
Condition (i) follows.
39. Option A
A K T R B W
3 2 6 4 % 5
Condition (iii) follows.
40. Option C
E B P D R I
$ % @ 8 4 7
No condition follows.
41. Option E
B K A J I M
1 2 5 * 7 1
Condition (ii) follows.
42. Option B
U K P D M A
2 @ 8 1 5
43. Option C
M E T U F B
% $ 6 # %
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44. Option B
A P I W K N
# 4 * 7 #
Condition (iii) follows.
45. Option E
H P E I U M
% 4 6 * ^ %
Condition (ii) follows.
46. Option C
R D E M K H
@ 1 6 % 7 @
Condition (ii) follows.
47. Option C
F W H R K E
6 @ 9 7 $
Condition (i) follows.
48. Option A
I D A P R U
* 1 3 4 9 ^
49. Option E
50. Option A
1 2 3 4 4 1 3 2
D E A N N D A E
And 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 2
R O A D D R A O
So, 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 2
S O M E E S M O
51. Option B
T R A I N
3 9 * 7 %
And M E A L
4 $ * @
So, I T E M
7 3 $ 4
52. Option D
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53. Option C
Exercise ka
Regularly dk
Good mo or fu
For na
Health se
54. Option E
The code for life may be mo or fu.
55. Option B
Must tu
Exercise ka
56. Optoin B
Except the months of April and June, all other months have 31 days each.
57. Option B
58. Option A
1 2 3 4 3 2 1 4
N E W S W E N S
Similarly,
1 2 3 4 3 2 1 4
M A T E T A M E
59. Option C
REASON 5
Number of letters 1
BELIEVED 8 1 = 7
Similarly,
GOVERNMENT 10 1 = 9
60. Option B
61. Option A
62. Option C
63. Option D
64. Option E
65. Option D
66. Option C
67. Option A
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68. Option E
69. Option D
70. Option B
71. Option A
72. Option C
73. Option A
74. Option C
75. Option B
76. Option E
77. Option C
78. Option D
79. Option A
80. Option D
81. Option B
82. Option B
83. Option D
84. Option C
85. Option D
86. Option E
87. Option B
88. Option C
89. Option D
90. Option A
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Chapter 10
Decision Making
Directions (Q. 1-5) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
However, in the case of a candidate who fulfils all the criteria except
(a) (ii) Above, but has secured 90% aggregate marks, he/she should be referred
to the Principal.
(b) (iii) Above, but pays at least Rs.40000 he/she should be referred to the
Chairman, Admission.
Based on the above criteria and information provided below, make a decision in
each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data given are not enough to take
a decision mark your answer as data I nadequate. These cases are given to you as
on 01.05.2014. Give answer
1. Nisha Malhotra has secured aggregate 80% marks I n XII Std. exam in
science stream. She can pay Rs.40,000 at the time of admission. She has
secured 86% average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
2. Arindam Ghosh was born on 25 August 1995. He can pay Rs.60,000 at the
time of admission. He has secured 80% aggregate marks in XII Std. exam
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in science stream and also 85% average marks in Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
3. Arun Khanna has secured 90% aggregate marks in XII Std. exam in science
stream and he can also pay Rs.50,000 at the time of admission. He was born
on Feb. 20, 1996. He has secured 89% average marks in Physics, Chemistry
and Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
4. Kiran Thapar was born on July 15, 1994. He can pay Rs.40,000 at the time
of admission. He has secured 79% average in Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics. He has secured 86% aggregate marks in XII Std. exam in
science stream.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
5. Vimal Upadhyaya was born on September 20, 1996. He has secured 78%
aggregate marks in XII Std. exam in science stream. He can pay Rs.42,000
at the time of admission. He has secured 88% marks in Physics, Chemistry
and Mathematics.
a) If the case is to be referred to the Principal
b) If the student is to be admitted
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
d) If the student is not to be admitted
e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Admission.
Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
In each question below is given details of one candidate. You have to take one of
the following courses of action based on the information provided and the
conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark your answer accordingly. You
are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All
these cases are given to you as on 01.03.2009.
Give answer:
a) If the candidate is not to be selected.
b) If the candidate is to be selected.
c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision.
d) If the case is to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.
e) If the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.
6. Suresh Mehta has secured 58% marks in Graduation. He was born on 19th May
1975. He has secured 50% marks in the selection process. He h as been working
for the past seven years in the Marketing devision of an organization after
completing his Post Graduation with 62% marks.
7. Sudha Gopalan has secured 50% marks in both selection process and
Graduation. She has been working for the past six years in the marketing
division of an organization after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in
Marketing with 70% marks. She was born on 14th October 1978.
8. Divya Kohli has been working for the past five years in Marketing Division of
an organization after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing with
65% marks. She has secured 55% marks in Graduation and 50% marks in the
selection process. She was born on 02nd April 1979.
9. Navin Marathe was born on 08th April 1975. He has secured 60% marks in both
Graduation and Post Graduate Degree in Marketing. He has been working for
the past six years in the Marketing division of an organization after completing
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10. Varun Malhotra was born on 03rd July 1976. He has been working as Deputy
Marketing Manager in an organization for the past three years after completing
his Post Graduate Degree in Marketing with 65% marks. He secured 55%
marks in both Graduation and selection process.
Directions (Q. 11-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of
the following courses of action based on the information provided and the
conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of
action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information
provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.06.2009.
Give answer:
a) If the candidate is to be selected.
b) If the candidate is not to be selected.
c) If the information provided is inadequate to take a decision.
d) If the case is to be referred to the Director-Personnel.
e) If the case is to be referred to the President-Personnel.
11. Meena Srivastava was born on 06th March 1978. She has been working as
Deputy Personnel Manager in an organization for the past four years after
completing her Post Graduate Diploma in HR with 68% marks. She has
secured 50% marks in both graduation and selection process.
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12. Ketan Desai was born on 05th January 1979. He has been working for the past
five years in the personnel department of an organisation after completing his
Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel Management with 64 % marks. He has
secured 40% marks in the selection process and 52% marks in Graduation.
13. Anant Joshi has been working in the Personnel Department of an organisation
for the past six years. He was born on 07th November 1977. He has secured
60% marks in post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management. He has also
secured 55% marks in both Graduation and selection process.
14. Mohan Bajpai was born on 10th April 1975. He has secured 55% marks in
Graduation and 65% marks in Post Graduate Diploma in Personnel
Management. He has been working in the HR Department of an organisation
for the past six years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma.
15. Gopal Sharma has been working for the past five years in the HR Department of
an organisation after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in HR with 62%
marks. He has secured 50% marks in both Graduate and selection process. He
was born on 29th May 1974.
16. Arun Vohra has secured 55% marks in Graduation. He has been working in the
Personnel Department of an organisation for the past eleven years after
completing his post Graduate Degree in Personnel Management with 65%
marks. He has secured 50% marks in the selection process. He was born on 12th
August 1972.
17. Asha Dhar has secured 52% marks in Graduation and 62% marks in Post
Graduate Degree in Personnel Management. She has also secured 48% marks in
the selection process. She has been working for the past seven years in the
Personnel Department of an organisation after completing her Post Graduate
Degree. She was born on 08th June 1974.
18. Sudha Ghosal was born on 20th October 1976. She has been working as Deputy
Personnel Manager for the past four years in an organisation after completing
her Post Graduate Degree in HR with 67% marks. She has secured 60% marks
in Graduation and 45% marks in the selection process.
19. Amit Saxena was born on 25th July 1973. He has been working in the Personnel
Department of an organisation for the past eleven years after completing his
Post Graduate Diploma in HR with 70% marks. He has secured 60% ma rks in
both Graduation and selection process.
20. Navin Das was born on 14th April 1978. He has been working in the Personnel
Department of an organisation for the past six years after completing his Post
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Graduate Diploma in HR with 65% marks. He has secured 45% marks in both
Graduation and selection process.
Directions (Q. 21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of
the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the
conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of
action as your answer. You are not to assume anything else other than the
information provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as on
01.09.2009.
Give answer:
(a) If the candidate is to be selected
(b) If the candidate is not to be selected
(c) If the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems
(d) If the case is to be referred to GM-Systems
(e) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
21. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He has secured 65% marks in BE-IT
in the year 1999. Since then he is working in the systems department of an
organization. He has secured 50% marks in both written examination and
selection interview.
22. Navin Prakash has secured 62% marks in 65% marks in BE-Computer Science.
He has been working in the systems department of an organization since July
1999 after completion of BE. He was born on 4 April 1974. He has secured
55% marks in selection interview and 45% marks in the written examination.
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23. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization
for the past 7 years after completing her B.E. in IT with 70% marks. She has
secured 45% marks in selection interview and 55% marks in the written
examination. She was born on 12th November 1978.
24. Ashok Malhotra was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56% marks I n
both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58% marks in
BE-IT and 72% marks in ME-IT. He has been working in the systems
department of an organization for the past 11 years after copleting ME-IT.
25. Geema DSouza was born on 15th December 1972. She has secured 60% marks
in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as
Deputy Systems Manager for the last 6 years in an organization after
completing her BE-Electronics with 75% marks.
Directions (Q. 26-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one
of the following courses of action in each case based on the information
provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the
number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume
anything other the information provided in each case. All t he cases are given
to you as on 01.05.2008.
Give answer:
a) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
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26. Abhinav Chaturvedi is a Commerce graduate with 60% marks. He has been
working in the Accounts Department of an organization for the past four years
after completing his Post Graduation in Commerce with 55% marks. He was
born on 08th July 1980. He has secured 45% marks in the selection process.
27. Vaibhav Sinha was born on 12th April 1979. He has been working as Assistant
Accounts Manager in an organization for the past five years after completing
his post Graduation in Commerce with 40% marks. He has secured 55% marks
in both the selection process and Graduation in Commerce.
28. Seema Bhasin has secured 60% marks in Graduation in Commerce and 55%
marks in post Graduation in Commerce. She has secured 55% marks in the
selection process. She was born on 20th August 1978. She has also successfully
completed her CA. She does not have any work experience.
29. Nirmala Sawant was born on 04th July 1981. She has been working in the
Accounts department in an organization after completing her post graduation
Commerce with 65% marks. She has secured 50% marks in the selection
process.
30. Ashok Pradhan was born on 03rd May 1979. He has secured 42% marks in the
selection process. He has been working in the Accounts Department of an
organization for the past four years after completing his post Graduation in
Commerce with 62% marks. He has secured 54% marks in his Graduation in
Commerce.
31. Prabir Mazumdar has secured 58% marks in his Graduation in Commerce and
53% marks in post Graduation in Commerce. He has been working as Assistant
Accounts Manager in an organization for the past four years after completing
his post Graduation. He has secured 44% marks in the selection process. He
was born on 14th November 1977.
32. Neha Dev was born on 08th February 1976. She has been working in the
Accounts Department of an organization for the past three years after
completing her post Graduation in Commerce with 53% marks. She has secured
57% marks in Graduation in Commerce. She appeared in selection process.
33. Sudha Goswami was born on 19th October 1982. She has been working as
Assistant Accounts Manager in an organization for the past five years after
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completing her Graduation in Commerce with 60% marks. She has secured
50% marks in the selection process.
34. Francis Dcosta has secured 60% marks in both graduation and Post Graduation
in Commerce. He has successfully completed ICWA after his Graduation. He
has been working in the Account Department of an organization for last one
year.
35. Prathama Sengupta has secured 55% marks in Post Graduation in Commerce
and 45% marks in the selection process. She was born on 11th April 1981. She
has been working in the Accounts Department of an organization for the past
four years after completing her Post Graduation. She has secured 50% marks in
Graduation in Commerce.
Answers:
1. Option C
2. Option B
3. Option B
4. Option D
5. Option E
6. Option C
Suresh Mehtas condition (iii) is not given so data is insufficient to take
decision.
7. Option D
Sudha Gopalan fulfils condition (b) instead of condition (ii) so, her case is
to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.
8. Option A
Divya Kohli does not fulfil condition (i) so, she is not to be selected.
9. Option B
Navin Marathe fulfils all conditions so, he is to be selected.
10. Option E
Varun Malhotra fulfils condition (a) instead of (iv) so, his case is to be
referred to GM-Marketing.
11. Option E
Meena Srivastava fulfils conditions (b) instead of condition (iv) so, her case
is to be referred to the President-Personnel.
12. Option B
Ketan Desai does not fulfil condition (v) so, he is not to be selected.
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13. Option C
Post qualification work of Anant Joshi is not cleared (which is least 5
years) so, data is insufficient.
14. Option C
Marks of selection process (i.e. 45%) is not cleared so, data is Insufficient.
15. Option B
Gopal Sharma is overaged.
16. Option D
Arun Vohra fulfils condition (a) instead of (iii) so, his case is to be referred
to the Director-Personnel.
17. Option A
Asha Dhar fulfils all conditions so, she is to be selected.
18. Option E
Sudha Ghosal fulfils condition (b) instead of (iv) so, her case is to be
referred to President-Personnel.
19. Option D
Amit Saxena fulfils condition (a) instead of (iii) so, his case is to be referred
to the Director-Personnel.
20. Option B
Navin Das does not fulfil condition (i) so, he is not to be selected.
21. Option E
Sameers working experience is not cleared in years. So, data is
insufficient.
23. Option B
Neeta Pathak does not fulfil condition (iv) so, she is not to be selected.
24. Optoin C
Ashok Malhotra fulfils condition (a) so, his case is to be referred to DGM-
systems.
25. Option D
Geema DSouza fulfils condition (b) so, her case is to be referred to GM-
systems.
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26. Option E
27. Option B
28. Option C
29. Option A
30. Option D
31. Option E
32. Option D
33. Option B
34. Option C
35. Option D
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Chapter 11
Direction Sense
1. P walked 20 m towards North, took a left turn and walked 10 m, then took a
right turn and walked 20 m, again took a right turn and walked 10 m. How
far is he from his starting point?
a) 50 m b) 60 m c) 40 m
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
2. Kunal walked 10 m, towards the East, turned right and walked another 15
m. He then turns left and walks 3 m. He finally takes a left turn after
walking 6 m. Which direction is he facing now?
a) East b) North c) West
d) South e) South-West
4. Ram walks 12 kms to the North, then 10 kms. To West, 12 kms. to South.
How far is Ram from the starting point?
a) 9 kms. b) 13 kms. c) 8 kms.
d) 10 kms. e) None of these
5. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishals shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction
was Udai facing?
a) East b) West c) North
d) South e) None of these
6. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First
car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns
left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back to
reach the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break down the other
car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance
between two cars at this point?
a) 65 km b) 75 km c) 80 km
d) 85 km e) None of these
7. The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs
along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat.
How much total distance is covered by the cat?
a) 10 b) 14 c) 38
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d) 48 e) None of these
10. One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow
of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?
a) East b) South c) West
d) Data is inadequate e) None of these
11. Rohit walked 25 m towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20
m. He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right
and walked 15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in
which direction?
a) 35 m East b) 35 m North c) 30 m West
d) 45 m East e) None of these
12. Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He
again turns left and walks 20 km. Finally he moves 20 km after turning to
the left. How far is he from his starting position?
a) 20 km b) 30 km c) 50 km
d) 60 km e) None of these
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q,
R, S, T and U.
(ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
(iv) R next to U gets a South facing flat and T gets North facing flat.
13. If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that
of U?
a) P b) Q c) R
d) T e) None of these
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15. The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each
other?
a) QP b) QR c) PT
d) TS e) None of these
17. Starting from a point, Raju walked 12 m North, he turned right and walked
10 km, he again turned right and walked 12 m, then he turned left and
walked 5 m. How far is he now and in which direction from the starting
point?
a) 27 m towards East
b) 5 m towards East
c) 10 m towards West
d) 15 m towards East
e) None of these
18. Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6
km straight, then turned right and travelled 4 km straiht. How far is he from
the starting point?
a) 8 km b) 10 km c) 12 km
d) 18 km e) None of these
19. From point P, Akshay starts walking towards East. After walking 30 m, he
turns to his right and walks 10 m. He then turns to his right and walks for
30 m. He again turns to his right and walks 30 m. How far is he from point
P and in which direction?
a) Point P itself b) 10 m, North c) 20 m,
West
d) 20 m, North e) None of these
20. Facing towards South, Ram started walking and turned left after walking 30
m, he walked 25 m and turned left and walked 30 m. How far is he from his
starting position and in which direction?
a) At the starting point only
b) 25 m, West
c) 25 m, East
d) 30 m, East
e) None of these
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21. The town of Paranda is located on Gree lake. The town of Akram is West of
Paranda. Tokhada is East of Akram but West of Paranda. Kokran is East of
Bopri but West of Tokhada and Akram. If they are all in the same district,
which town is the farthest West?
a) Paranda b) Kokran c) Akram
d) Tokhada e) Bopri
23. A man is facing West. He turns 45 in the clockwise direction and then
another 180 in the same direction and then 270 in the anticlockwise
direction. Find which direction he is facing now?
a) South-West b) West c) South
d) East-South e) None of these
24. A dog runs 20 metre towards East and turns Right, runs 10 metre and turns
to right, runs 9 metre and again turns to left, runs 5 metre and then turns to
left, runs 12 metre and finally turns to left and runs 6 metre. Now which
direction dog is facing?
a) East b) North c) West
d) South e) None of these
25. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 06:00 p.m. hour
hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 09:15
p.m.?
a) South-East b) South c) North
d) West e) None of these
27. A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right and
went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30 m he reached to his
uncles house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his
North and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting
point?
a) 80 m b) 100 m c) 140 m
d) 260 m e) None of these
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28. Ravi wants to go to the University. He starts from his home which is in the
East and comes to a crossing. The road to the left ends in a theatre, straight
ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?
a) North b) South c) East
d) West e) None of these
29. A river flows West to East and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-
circle round a hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction
in the river finally flowing?
a) West b) East c) North
d) South e) None of these
30. You go North, turn right, then right again and then go the left. In which
direction are you now?
a) North b) South c) East
d) West e) None of these
Answers:
1. Option C
2. Option B
3. Option D
4. Option D
5. Option C
6. Option A
Required distance = DF
= 150 (25 + 25 + 35)
= 150 85 = 65 km
7. Option C
Required distance = 8 + 6 + 8 + 6 + 8 + 6
= 28 + 100
= 28 + 10 = 38 m
8. Option B
X will face in the end towards South.
9. Option B
S is in the South-East of Q.
10. Option B
Sun rises in the East in the morning. Since the shadow of Suresh falls to his
right. So, he is facing South.
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11. Option A
Required distance = AE
= 20 + 15 = 35 m towards East
12. Option A
Required distance = 40 20 = 20 km
13. Option C
Flat R will be next to U
14. Option C
URP flat combination get South facing flats.
15. Option A
QP is diagonally opposite to each other.
17. Option D
18. Option B
19. Option D
20. Option C
21. Option E
22. Option D
23. Option A
The man firstly faces the direction OA. On moving 45 clockwise, he faces
the direction OB.
Now, again he moved 180 clockwise, now, he will be facing OC. From
here he moved 270 anticlockwise, Finally he is facing OD, which is South-
West.
24. Option B
25. Option D
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26. Option A
M is in the East of K.
27. Option B
28. Option A
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Starting from his house in the East, Ravi moves westwards. Then the
theatre, which is to the left, will be in the South. The hospital, which is
straight ahead, will be to the West. So, the University will be to the North.
29. Option B
30. Option C
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Chapter 12
2. If in the word EQUALITY, the positions of first and the fifth letters are
interchanged; similarly the positions of the second and the sixth letters are
interchanged and so on. Which letter will be third from the right end?
a) Q b) U c) I
d) T e) None of these
3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters AERT,
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) Four
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFRESHING each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the
English alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
5. If in the number 38564927 first all the even digits are arranged in ascending
order and then all the odd digits are arranged in ascending order, which
digit will be fourth from the right end?
a) 5 b) 3 c) 6
d) 4 e) None of these
6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BOARDING each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
7. How many such digits are there in the number 284371 each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when they are arranged in
descending order?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
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8. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters only
once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ONDE
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
10. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUMPING each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
11. How many such digits are there in the number 6837941 each of which is as
far away from the beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged
in descending order within the number?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
13. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAPLER each of
which has as m any letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
14. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
d) K e) None of these
16. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of
which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits
are arranged in ascending order within the number?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
17. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are
interchanged. Similarly the positions of 3rd and 4th digits are interchanged
and so on till the position of 7th and 8th digits. Which of the following will
be 3rd to the right of three after the rearrangement?
a) 9 b) 7 c) 8
d) 2 e) None of these
18. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MRTA
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
19. The positions of the first and the fifth digit in the number 53216894 are
interchanged. Similarly, the position of the second and the sixth digit are in
terchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from t he
right end after the rearrangement?
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1
d) 9 e) None of these
20. The positions of how many digits in the number 53147926 will remain
unchanged after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending
order?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
21. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word HOARDINGS each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
22. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DISCREDIT each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
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23. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with 3rd, 4th, 6th
and 8th letters of the word SINGLETON, which of the following will be 3rd
letter of that word? If no such word can be made, g ive X as the answer
and I f more than one such word can be made, give Y as the answer.
a) N b) O c) E
d) X e) Y
25. How many such digits are there in the number 764528 each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged
in descending order within the number?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
26. What should come next in the letter series given below?
ABABCABCDABCDEABCDEFABCDEFGABC
a) D b) E c) F
d) H e) None of these
27. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EPRY
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
Directions (Q. 28-34) In each of the following questions, a series is given with
one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.
d) 45 e) None of these
35. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LTSO
using each letter only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
36. How many such digits are there in the number 928416375 each of which is
as far away from th e beginning in the number as when the digits are
arranged in descending order within the number?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
Directions (Q. 38-43) Study the number series given below and answer the
questions which follow.
6 78998797789787696897798976887
38. How many such numbers are there in the given series each of which when
subtracted from the following number has a difference of 2?
a) Three b) Four c) Five
d) Nine e) None of these
39. Which of the following nu mbers is obtained when 18th number from the
left of the number series is added to 19th from the right?
a) 15 b) 20 c) 10
d) 17 e) None of these
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40. How many nines are there in the given series each of which is immediately
preceded by an odd number?
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four e) More than four
41. How many such even numbers are there in the given series each of which is
immediately followed by an even number?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
42. How many such odd numbers are there in the given series each of which is
immediately preceded by an even number?
a) Five b) Seven c) Nine
d) Eleven e) None of these
43. How many such sevens are there in the given series each of which is
immediately preceded by 9 and also immediately followed by 8?
a) None b) One c) Two
d) Three e) More than three
Answers:
1. Option A
2. Option A
3. Option C
4. Option D
5. Option B
6. OptionC
7. Option D
8. Option C
9. Option C
DONE and NODE
10. Option C
J U M P I N G
10 21 13 16 9 14 7
11. Option C
Number 6 8 3 7 9 4 1
Decreasing Order 9 8 7 6 4 3 1
There will be no change in the place of 8 and 1.
12. Option B
Series are increasing as follows:
P PO PON PONM PONML PONMLK
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13. Option C
S T A P L E R
S T and S P
14. Option C
O B J E C T I V E
Two pairs formed IO, TV
15. Option B
T O L E R A N T
According to question,
S P K F Q B M S
Alphabetically,
B F K M P Q S S
th
So, P is 4 from the right.
16. Option C
8 4 2 9 5 1 6
In increasing order
1 2 4 5 6 8 9
17. Option A
Number: 8 5 3 4 1 2 7
9
Arrangement: 5 8 4 3 2 1 9 7
18. Option C
The meaningful words are: MART, TRAM
19. Option B
Number: 5 3 2 1 6 8 9 4
After interchanging the digits
6 8 9 4 5 3 2
20. Option B
Number: 5 3 1 4 7 9
2 6
In decreasing order: 9 7 6 5 4
21. Option E
22. Option E
D I S C R E D I T
So, CE, DI, DE, EI are pairs of letters.
23. Option A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
S I N G L E T O N
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7 6 4 5 2 8
8 7 6 5 4 2
26. Option A
27. Option C
32. Option B
4+3=7
7 + 4 + 3 = 14
14 + 3 + 7 = 24
24 + 7 + 10 = 41
41 + 10 + 17 = 68
33. Option A
5 3 + 1 = 16
16 3 + 3 = 51
51 3 + 5 = 158
158 3 + 7 = 481
34. Option A
CBA ABC
Reverse order
ABCD DCBA
ABCDE EDCBA
35. Option D
36. Option C
37. Option B
38. Option E
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39. Option A
40. Option C
41. Option D
42. Option C
43. Option B
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Chapter 13
Logical Arrangement
1. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the
following?
(i) Earth
(ii) Jupiter
(iii) Venus
(iv) Mars
(v) Mercury
a) v, iii, i, ii, iv b) v, iii, iv, i, ii c) v, iii, i, iv, ii
d) v, iii, ii, iv, i e) None of these
2. (i) Key (ii) Door (iii) Lock (iv) Room (v) Switch on
a) v, i, ii, iv, iii b) iv, ii, i, v, iii c) i, ii, iii, v, iv
d) i, iii, ii, iv, v e) None of these
3. (i) Windows (ii) Walls (iii) Floor (iv) Foundation (v) Roof (vi) Room
a) iv, v, iii, ii, i, vi
b) iv, iii, v, vi, ii, i
c) iv, ii, i, v, iii, vi
d) iv, i, v, vi, ii, iii
e) None of these
5. (i) Site (ii) Plan (iii) Rent (iv) Money (v) Building
a) iv, i, ii, v, iii b) iii, iv, ii, v, i c) ii, iii, v, i, iv
d) i, ii, iii, v, iv e) None of these
6. (i) Cut (ii) Put on (iii) Mark (iv) Measure (v) Tailor
a) iv, iii, i, v, ii b) iii, i, v, iv, ii c) ii, iv, iii, i, v
d) i, iii, ii, iv, v e) None of these
7. (i) Mother (ii) Child (iii) Milk (iv) Cry (v) Smile
a) i, v, ii, iv, iii b) ii, iv, i, iii, v c) ii, iv, iii, i, v
d) iii, ii, i, v, iv e) None of these
8. (i) Word (ii) Paragraph (iii) Sentence (iv) Letters (v) Phrase
a) iv, i, v, ii, iii b) iv, i, iii, v, ii c) iv, ii, v, i, iii
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9. (i) Caste (ii) Family (iii) Newly married couple (iv) Clan (v) species
a) ii, iii, i, iv, v b) iii, iv, v, i, ii c) iii, ii, i, iv, v
d) iv, v, iii, ii, i e) None of these
10. (i) Elephant (ii) Cat (iii) Mosquito (iv) Tiger (v) Whale
a) v, iii, i, ii, iv b) iii, ii, iv, i, v c) i, iii, v, iv, ii
d) ii, v, i, iv, iii e) None of these
11. (i) Protect (ii) Pressure (iii) Relief (iv) Rain (v) Flood
a) ii, iv, iii, i, v b) ii, iv, v, i, iii c) ii, v, iv, i, iii
d) iii, ii, iv, v, i e) None of these
12. (i) Rainbow (ii) Rain (iii) Sun (iv) Happy (v) Child
a) iv, ii, iii, v, i b) ii, iii, i, v, iv c) iv, v, i, ii, iii
d) ii, i, iv, v, iii e) None of these
13. (i) Patients (ii) Diagnosis (iii) Bill (iv) Doctor (v) Treatment
a) i, iv, iii, ii, v b) i, iv, ii, v, iii c) i, iv, ii, iii, v
d) i, ii, iii, iv, v e) None of these
14. (i) Table (ii) Tree (iii) Wood (iv) Seed (v) Plant
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) iv, v, iii, ii, i c) I, iii, ii, iv, v
d) iv, v, ii, iii, i e) None of these
15. (i) Doctor (ii) Fever (iii) Prescribe (iv) Diagnose (v) Medicine
a) ii, iv, iii, v, i b) i, iv, iii, ii, v c) ii, i, iii, iv, v
d) ii, i, iv, iii, v e) None of these
16. (i) Index (ii) Contents (iii) Title (iv) Chapters (v) Introduction
a) iii, ii, v, i, iv b) ii, iii, iv, v, i c) iii, ii, v, iv, i
d) v, I, iv, ii, iii e) None of these
17. (i) Book (ii) Pulp (iii) Timber (iv) Jungle (v) Pape
a) iii, ii, v, i, iv b) iv, iii, ii, v, i c) ii, v, i, iv, iii
d) v, iv, iii, i, ii e) None of these
18. (i) College (ii) Child (iii) Salary (iv) School (v) Employment
a) iv, i, iii, v, ii b) i, ii, iv, iii, v c) ii, iv, i, v, iii
d) v, iii, ii, i, iv e) None of these
19. (i) Study (ii) Job (iii) Examination (iv) Earn (v) Apply
a) i, iii, v, ii, iv b) i, iii, ii, v, iv c) i, ii, iii, iv, v
d) i, iii, v, iv, ii e) None of these
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20. (i) Frog (ii) Eagle (iii) Grasshopper (iv) Snake (v) Grass
a) v, iii, i, iv, ii b) i, iii, v, ii, iv c) v, iii, iv, ii, i
d) iii, iv, ii, v, i e) None of these
Answers:
1. Option B
2. Option D
3. Option C
4. Option C
5. Option D
6. Option A
7. Option C
8. Option D
9. Option C
10. Option B
11. Option B
12. Option B
13. Option B
14. Option D
15. Option D
16. Option C
17. Option B
18. Option C
19. Option A
20. Option A
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Chapter 14
Mathematical Operations
1. If Q means +, T means , R means and K means then
2 4 R 4 Q 8 K 6 T 10 = ?
a) 48 b) 24 c) 44
d) 2/3 e) None of these
4. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation
correct?
(6 + 3) + (4 7) = 29
a) + and b) and + c) and +
d) and e) None of these
6. 9 5 4 3 2 = ?
a) 2 b) 9 c) 3
d) 3 e) None of these
11. When multiplying in binary the decimal values 13 11, what is the third
partial product?
a) 100000 b) 100001 c) 0000
d) 1011 e) None of these
Answers:
1. Option C
2. Option E
28 12 + 4 6 4 = ?
? = 28 + 12 4 6 4
? = 28 + 12/4 6 4
? = 28 + 3 24
?= 7
3. Option B
? = 42 24 + 6 4 3
= 42 24 6 + 4 3
= 42 24/6 + 12
= 42 4 + 12 = 50
4. Option C
(6 + 3) + (4 7) = 29
(6 3) + (4 + 7) = 29
18 + 11 = 29
5. Option A
28 7 + 2 2 = 0
28 7 2 2 = 0
28 28 = 0
6. Option E
9 5 4 3 2 = 9 5 4 3/2 = 19/2
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7. Option B
8. Option C
9. Option B
10. Option A
11. Option A
12. Option C
20 + 8 8 4 2 = 20 + 8 2 2 = 20 + 8 4 = 24
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Chapter 15
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) 23 b) 29 c) 37
d) 39 e) 31
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
a) Yellow b) Blue c) Pink
d) Green e) Red
4. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Table b) Chair c) Bench
d) Desk e) Wood
5. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that d oes not belong to that group?
a) 27 b) 64 c) 125
d) 216 e) 384
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 35 b) 80 c) 45
d) 60 e) 75
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the o ne that does not belong to that group?
a) Sweet b) Cake c) Pastry
d) Bread e) Biscuit
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 39 b) 27 c) 48
d) 42 e) 24
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9. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) VT b) MK c) DB
d) KH e) XV
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 187 b) 323 c) 119
d) 221 e) 289
Directions (Q. 11-19) In each of the following questions, select the one which is
different from the other three responses.
13. a) 63 b) 69 c) 65
d) 66 e) None of these
16. a) D b) G c) H
d) J e) None of these
19. a) Square
b) Equilateral Triangle
c) Rhombus
d) Right Angle Triangle
20. Four of the following five are alike in a cretain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 21 b) 35 c) 42
d) 56 e) 49
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21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Table b) Desk c) Wardrobe
d) Computer e) Chair
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is one that does not belong to that group?
a) Orange b) Apple c) Guava
d) Papaya e) Mango
Answers:
1. Option E
2. Option D
3. Option C
4. Option E
5. Option E
6. Option C
Apart from 45, sum of both digits of every number will be an even number
but 45 = 4 + 5 = 9 which is an odd number.
7. Option A
Altitude means the height above sea l evel. Except altitude, all other words
imply human nature and mental status.
12. Option C
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13. Option D
14. Option B
The number 91 is a product of two prime numbers. 13 7 = 91
15. Option B
Except in the number pair 194-12, in all other number pairs the first number
is completely divisible by the second number.
187/11 = 17; 195/13 = 15; 224/14 = 16
But, 194/12 = 16.166
16. Option B
D position number 4
H position number 8
J position number 10
G position number 7 (An odd number)
17. Option B
18. Option C
19. Option D
Except in the case of right angle triangle, in all other geometrical figures, all
the sides are equal.
20. Option E
The number of 49 is a perfect square of a natural number.
21. Option D
Computer is a mechanical device. All others are wooden items.
22. Option A
Orange is citrus fruit.
23. Optoin B
Except the months of April and June, all other months have 31 days each.
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Chapter 16
1. In a row of 35 children, M is 15th from the right end and there are 10
children between M and R. What is Rs position from the left end of the
row?
a) 15th b) 5th c) 30th
d) Data inadequate e) None of the above
4. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from behind
and Mamta is just in the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the
queue. What position does Mamta occupy from the front?
a) 20th b) 19th c) 18th
th
d) 17 e) None of these
5. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting 14th from the left and Q is 7th
from the right. If there are four boys between P and Q. How many boys are
there in the row?
a) 25 b) 23 c) 21
d) 19 e) None of these
6. Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunita that Aligarh was more than 10
kilometers but less than 15 kilometers from there. Sunita knew that it was
more than 12 but less than 14 kilometers from there. If both of them were
correct, which of the following could be the distance of Aligarh from the
platform?
a) 11 km b) 12 km c) 13 km
d) 14 km e) 15 km
7. The train for Lucknow leaves every two and a half hours from New Delhi
Railway Station. An announcement was made at the station that the train for
Lucknow had left 40 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 18.00 hrs.
At what time was the announcement made?
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8. How many 6s are there in the following series of numbers which are
preceded by 7 but not immediately followed by 9?
6795697687678694677695763
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four e) None of these
9. How many 7s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 9
and followed by 6?
7897653428972459297647
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4
d) 5 e) None of these
10. How many 6s are there in the following number sequence which are
immediately preceded by 9 but not immediately followed by 4?
5 6 4 3 2 9 6 3 1 6 4 9 6 4 21 5 9 6 7 2 1 4 7 4 9 6 4 2
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four e) More than four
11. 51473985726315863852243496
How many odd numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately
preceded and also immediately followed by an even number?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
d) 4 e) More than 4
Answers:
1. Option D
2. Option D
K>B>W>F>J
So, W is the third heaviest.
3. Option E
J >L> H>D>F
H is 3rd to reach.
4. Option C
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5. Option A
6. Option C
7. Option E
8. Option C
9. Option A
10. Option B
11. Option D
12. Option C
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Chapter 17
Arithmatic Reasoning
1. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was
the total of their ages three years ago?
a) 71 years b) 72 years c) 74 years
d) 77 years e) None of these
5. If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how
many days?
a) 1 day b) 4 days c) 40 days
d) 100 days e) None of these
7. Today is Varuns birthday. One year, from today he will be twice as old as
he was 12 years ago. How old is Varun today?
a) 20 years b) 22 years c) 25
years
d) 27 years e) None of these
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8. When Rahul was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his
mother was 25 years older than his sister. If Rahuls brother is 6 years
oldern than him and his mother is 3 years younger than his father, how old
was Rahuls sister when he was born?
a) 7 years b) 10 years c) 14
years
d) 19 years e) None of these
9. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with
a) Nil b) 8 c) 9
d) 17 e) None of these
10. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having
366 pages is
a) 732 b) 990 c) 1098
d) 1305 e) None of these
11. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48
sums in all, how did he solve correctly?
a) 12 b) 16 c) 18
d) 24 e) None of these
12. A father tells his son, I was of your present age when you were born. If
the father is 36 now, how old was the boy five years back?
a) 13 b) 15 c) 17
d) 20 e) None of these
13. Find the number which when added to itself 13 times, gives 112
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9
d) 11 e) None of these
14. At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands
with each other once. How many handshakes will there be altogether?
a) 20 b) 45 c) 55
d) 90 e) None of these
16. A placed three sheets with two carbons to get two extra copies of the
original. Then he decided to get more carbon copies and folded the paper in
such a way that the upper half of the sheets were on top of the lower half.
Then he typed. How many carbon copies did he get?
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a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
d) 4 e) None of these
17. Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of
equal size. Each of the small pieces is 20 grams in weight. If she has seven
pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy was the original cake?
a) 240 gm b) 220 gm c) 225 gm
d) 250 gm e) None of these
18. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one
of the following numbers cannot represent the total number of children in
the class?
a) 48 b) 44 c) 42
d) 40 e) None of these
19. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read
none of these two. How many of them read French and English both?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4
d) 5 e) None of these
20. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut
each roll of equal length into 10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a
minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24 minutes?
a) 30 rolls b) 58 rolls c) 120
rolls
d) 150 rolls e) None of these
21. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. By counting heads they are 80. The
number of their legs is 200. How many peacocks are there?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 40
d) 60 e) None of these
22. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on
each side of the square. How many poles did he need altogether?
a) 54 b) 84 c) 104
d) 108 e) None of these
24. A man has Rs.480 in the denominations of one rupee notes, five rupee notes
and ten rupee notes. The number of each denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has?
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a) 45 b) 75 c) 90
d) 120 e) None of these
25. A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins.
How many years older is C and D?
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9
d) 12 e) None of these
Answers:
2. Let x and y be the tens and units digits respectively of the numeral
denoting the womans age
Then, womans age = (10x + y) years, husbands age = (10y + x) years
Therefore (10y + x) (10x + y) = (1/11) (10y + x + 10x + y)
(9y 9x) = (1/11) (11y + 11x) = (x + y)
10x = 8y
x = 4/5y
Clearly, y should be a single digit multiple of 5, which is 5.
Hence, womans age = 10x + y = 45 years
x = 25
8. When Rahul was born, his brothers age = 6 years, his fathers age = 6 + 32
years = 38 years, his mothers age = 38 3 = 35 years, his sisters age = 35
25 = 10 years
9. All but nine died means All except nine died i.e. 9 sheep remained alive.
11. Suppose the boy got x sums right and 2x sums wrong.
Then, x + 2x = 48
3x = 48
x = 16
15. Out of every 16 persons, there is one captain, so, number of captains
1200/16 = 75
16. Since the number of carbons is 2, only two copies can be obtained.
17. Seven pieces consist of 6 smaller equal pieces and one half cake piece.
Weight of each small piece = 20 gm
So, total weight of the cake = 2 (20 6) = 240 gm
19. Option B
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20. Option C
21. Option D
22. Option C
23. Option A
24. Option C
25. Option B
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Chapter 18
Classification
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of the following questions, five words have been given
out of which four are alike in some manne, while 5th one is different. Choose the
word which is different from the rest.
Directions (Q. 6-10): Out of the five figures marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), four
are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four.
Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
d) 4 e) 5
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the following questions, five words have been
given out of which four are alike in some manner, while 5th one is different. Choose
the word which is different from the rest.
Directions (Q. 16-20): Out of the five figures marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5), four
are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four.
Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
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Answers:
1. Option A
2. Option D
3. Option B
4. Option D
5. Option C
6. Option A
7. Option E
8. Option D
9. Option B
10. Option B
11. Option E
12. Option B
13. Option D
14. Option C
15. Option B
16. Option D
17. Option C
18. Option C
19. Option D
20. Option C
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Chapter 19
Dice Problem
1. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol *
a) @ b) $ c) 8
d) + e) None of these
2. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When number 1 on the top.
What number will be at the bottom?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 2
d) 6 e) None of these
3. From the four positions of a dice given below, find the colour which is
opposite to yellow?
a) Violet b) Red c) Rose
d) Blue e) None of these
4. From the positions of a cube are shown below, which letter will be on the
face opposite to face with A?
a) D b) B c) C
d) F e) None of these
5. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 6
d) 2/3 e) None of these
a) 4 b) 1 c) 2
d) 3 e) None of these
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7. When the digit 5 is on the bottom then which number will be on its upper
surface?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4
d) 6 e) None of these
8. Observe the dots on the dice (one to six dots) in the following figures. How
many dots are contained on the face opposite to the containing four dots?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5
d) 6 e) None of these
9. Four usual dice are thrown on the ground. The total of number on the top
faces of these four dice is 13 as the top faces showed 4, 3, 1 and 5
respectively. What is the total of the faces touching the ground?
a) 12 b) 13 c) 15
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
11. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol C?
a) D b) E c) B or D
d) F e) None of these
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a) 54 b) 55 c) 50
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
13. If there are five dots at the bottom, then how many dots will be on its upper
surface?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
d) 4 e) None of these
14. Two positions of dice are shown below. What will be on the top when B
is at bottom?
a) F b) D c) A
d) E e) None of these
15. Two positions of dice are shown below. What number will appear on the
opposite to the face containing 5?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 1
d) 6 e) None of these
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16. Two positions of a cube with surfaces are shown below. When the surface
D touch the bottom, what surface will be on top?
a) D b) A c) B
d) F e) None of these
17. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When C is at the bottom then
what is on top?
a) A b) B c) C
d) D e) None of these
18. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with alphabet d?
a) a b) g c) c
d) f e) None of these
19. Two positions of a cube are shown below. When the surface D touch the
bottom, what surface will be on the top?
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a) B b) C c) E
d) Cant be determined e) None of these
20. How many dot/dots will appear on the face opposite to the face with Four
Dots?
Answers:
1. Option C
The symbols of the adjacent faces to the face with symbol * are @, -, + and
$. Hence the required symbol is 8.
2. Option B
According to the rule (2) when one is at the top, then 5 will be at the
bottom.
3. Option A
The colours adjacent to yellow are orange, blue, red and rose. Hence violet
will be opposite to yellow.
4. Option A
The letters of the adjacent faces to the face with letter A, are B, F, C and E.
Hence D is the letter of the face opposite to the face with letters (A).
5. Option A
Here the common faces with number 3, are in same positions. Hence 6 is
opposite to 2 and 5 is opposite to 1. Therefore 4 is opposite to 3.
6. Option B
As the numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 are adjacent to 6. Hence the number on the
face opposite to 6 is 1.
7. Option A
According to the rule No.3, common faces with number 2 are in same
positions. Hence when the digit 5 is on the bottom then 1 will on the upper
surface.
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8. Option A
9. Option C
In a usual dice, the sum of the numbers on any two opposite faces is always
7. Thus, 1 is opposite 6, 2 is opposite 5 and 3 is opposite 4. Consequently,
when 4, 3, 1 and 5 are the numbers on the top faces, then 3, 4, 6 and 2
respectively are the numbers on the face touching the ground. The total of
these numbers = 3 + 4 + 6 + 2 = 15
10. Option B
If 1 is opposite to 5 and 2 is opposite to 3, then 4 definitely lies opposite to
6. Therefore, 2 cannot lie opposite to any of the two numbers 4 or 6.
Hence, 2 necessarily lies adjacent to both 4 and 6.
11. Option D
12. Option E
13. Option A
14. Option B
15. Option B
16. Option B
17. Option E
18. Option C
19. Option E
20. Option A
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Chapter 20
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
3. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its
energy requirements?
Arguments:
I. Yes, most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.
II. No, harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India
lacks in.
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Directions (Q. 6-10): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
Directions (Q. 11-15): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a wweak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
12. Statement: Should there be a maximum limit for the number of ministers
in the Central Government?
Arguments:
I. No, the political party in power should have the freedom to decide
the number of ministers to be appointed.
II. Yes, the number of ministers should be restricted to a certain
percentage of the total number of seats in the Parliament to avoid
unncessary expenditure.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
Directions (Q. 16-20): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
16. Statement: Should Government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments:
I. Yes, incentives are essential for attracting government servants
there.
II. No, rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than
big cities. So? Why offer extra incentives.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
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19. Statement: Should all the legislators be forced to resign from their
profession?
Arguments:
I. Yes, they will be able to devote more time for the country.
II. No, nobody will contest election.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
Directions (Q. 21-25): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
Directions (Q. 26-30): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer:
a) If only argument I is strong
b) If only argument II is strong
c) If either I or II is strong
d) If neither I nor II is strong
e) If both I and II are strong
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28. Statement: Should higher education be completely stopped for some time?
Arguments:
I. No, it will hamper the countrys future progress.
II. Yes, it will reduce the educated unemployment.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
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Directions (Q. 31-35): Each question given below consists of a statement, followed
by three or four arguments numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of
the arguments is/are strong arguments and which is/are weak arguments and
accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question.
31. Statement: Should people with educational qualification higher than the
optimum requirements be debarred from seking jobs?
Arguments:
I. No, it will further aggrevate the problem of educated
unemployment.
II. Yes, it creates complexes among employees and affects the work
adversely.
III. No, this goes against the basic rights of the individuals.
IV. Yes, this will increase productivity.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
33. Statement: Should all the school teachers be debarred from giving private
tuitions?
Arguments:
I. No, the needy students will be deprived of the expertise of these
teachers.
II. Yes, this is an injustice to the unemployed educated people who
can earn their living by giving tuitions.
III. Yes, only then the quality of teaching in schools will improve.
IV. Yes, now salary of these teachers is reasonable.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
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c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
34. Statement: Should education be made compulsory for all children upto the
age of 14?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will help to eradicate the system of forced employment of
these children.
II. Yes, this is an effective way to make the entire population
educated.
III. No, we do not have adequate infrastructure to educate the entire
population.
IV. Yes, this would increase the standard of living.
a) Only argument I is strong
b) Only argument II is strong
c) Either I or II is strong
d) Neither I nor II is strong
e) Both I and II are strong
Answers:
1. Option A
Clearly, India can export only the surplus and that which can be saved after
fulfilling its own needs, to pay for its imports. Encouragement to export
cannot lead to shortages as it shall provide the resources for imports. So,
only argument I holds.
2. Option A
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3. Option A
4. Option E
The students union formation shall be a step towards giving to students the
basic education in the field of politics. However, it shall create the same
political atmosphere in the campus. Thus, both the arguments hold strong.
5. Option A
India cannot part with a State that is a major foreign exchange earner to it.
So, argument I holds strong. Further, giving away a piece of land
unconditionally and unreasonably is no solution to settle disputes. So,
argument II is vague.
6. Option D
The age of a person is no criterion for judging his mental capabilities and
administrative qualities. So, none of the arguments holds strong.
7. Option C
Opening up of new industries is advantageous in opening more employment
avenues, and disadvantageous in that it adds to the pollution. So, either of
the arguments holds strong.
8. Option A
Pollution at ground level is the most hazardous in the way of being
injurious to human and animal life. So, argument I alone holds.
9. Option A
Before indulging in new development programme it is much necessary to
plan the exact target, policies and their implementation and the allocation of
funds which shows the right direction to work. So, argument I holds strong.
Also, planning ensures full utilization of available resources and funds and
stepwise approach towards the target. So, spending a part of money on it is
no wastage. Thus, argument II is not valid.
10. Option B
I does not provide a strong reason in support of the statement. Also, it is not
possible to analyze the reaally deserving and not deserving. So, argument II
holds strong.
11. Option B
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12. Option B
There should be some norms regarding the number of ministers in the
Government, as more number of ministers would unnecessarily add to the
Government expenditure. So, argument II holds strong. Also, giving liberty
to the party in power could promote extension of unreasonable favour to
some people at the cost of Government funds. So, argument I does not hold.
13. Option D
Foreign films depict the alien culture but this only helps in learning more.
So, argument I does not hold. Also, the reason stated in argument II is not
strong enough in contradicting the ban. So, it also does not hold.
14. Option D
In buying things on installments, a customer has to pay more as the interest
is also included. So, argument I does not hold. Moreover, one who buys an
item on installments maintains his future budget accordingly as he is well
acquainted with when and how much he has to pay, beforehand. So,
argument II is also not valid.
15. Option A
16. Option A
Government jobs in rural areas are underlined with several difficulties. In
lieu of these, extra incentives are needed. So, only argument I holds strong.
17. Option E
If there were less candidates, the voters would find it easy to make a choice.
So, argument I holds. Also, every person satisfying the conditions laid
down by the Constitution must be given an opportunity and should not be
denied the same just to cut down the number of candidates. So, argument II
also holds strong.
18. Option A
The advertisements are/the means to introduce people with the produce and
its advantages. So, arguments I holds strong. But argument II is vague
because advertisements are an investment for better gain and not a wastage.
19. Option A
The legislators should surely not be engaged in any other profession
because only then will they be able to work with devotion. So, argument I
holds. Also, if such a law is enforced, only those people will contest
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elections who are really preparred to work for the country. So, argument II
is vague.
20. Option B
Now a days, computers have entered all walks of life and children need to
be prepared for the same. So, argument II is strong. Argument I holds no
relevance.
21. Option C
Religion binds people togethe through the name of God and human values.
But at the same time it may create differences and ill-will people, So, either
of the arguments holds strong.
22. Option A
A peace loving nation like India can well join an international forum which
seeks to bring different nations on friendly terms with each other. So,
argument I holds strong. Argument II highlights a different aspect. The
internal peoblems of a nation should not debar it from strengthening
international ties. So, argument II is vague.
23. Option B
Imposing ban on fashionable dresses will be a restriction on the pesonal
choice and hence the right to freedom of an individual. So, only argument II
is strong.
24. Option B
An organization like UNO is meant to maintain peace all over and will
always serve to prevent conflicts between countries. So, its role never ends.
So, argument I does not hold. Also, lack of such an organization may in
future lead to increased mutual conflicts and international wars, on account
of lack of a common platform for mutual discussions. So, argument II
holds.
25. Option A
Besides interview, there can be other modes of written examination to judge
candidates motives. So argument II is not strong enough. However, the
interview is a subjective assessment without doubt. So, argument I holds.
26. Option D
Taking care of the parents is a moral duty of the children and cannot be
thrust upon them legally, nor such a compulsion can ensure good care of the
old people, So, none of the arguments holds strong.
27. Option D
The Government has already made provisions for reservation of jobs for the
economically backward sections, which is a must. So, abolishing the
practice of reservation altogether has no meaning. Thus, argument I is
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28. Option A
Higher education is not the cause of unemployment. Infact, it has created
greater job opportunities. So, argument II is vague. Also, higher education
promotes the countrys development. So, argument I holds.
29. Option D
The Public Distribution System is indeed necessary to provide basic
amenities to the economically backward sections of population. So,
argument I is vague. Also, if the objectives, of a system are not fulfilled
because of corruption, then getting rid of the system is no solution. Instead,
efforts should be made to end corruption and extend its benefits to the
people for whom it is meant. So, argument II also does not hold.
30. Option D
India needs to have military force to defend itself against the threat of other
military powers in the World. So, none of the arguments holds strong.
31. Option D
The issue discussed in the statement is nowhere related to increase in
unemployment, as the number of vacancies filled in will remain the same.
Also, in a working place, it is the peformance of the individual that matters
and that makes him more or less wanted, and not his educational
qualifications. So, neither I nor II holds strong. Besides, the needs of a job
are laid down in the desired qualifications for the job. So, recruitment of
more qualified people cannot augment productivity. Thus, IV also does not
hold strong. However, it is the right of an individual to get the post for
which he fulfils the eligibility criteria, whatever be his extra merits. Hence,
argument III holds strong.
32. Option A
The need of today is to put to better use the underutilized human resources.
Computers with better and speedy efficiency can accomplish this. So,
argument I holds, while II does not. Computerization is a much beneficial
project and investment in it is not at all a waste. So, III is not strong.
Further, development in a new field is not a matter of merely following up
other countries. So, IV also does not hold strong.
33. Option E
Only III is strong. The lure of earning private tuitions reduces the efforts
and devotion of the teachers towards the students in schools. So, if tuitions
are banned, students can benefit from their teachers knowledge in the
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school itself. So, argument III holds strong while I does not. However, a
person cannot be barred from earning more just because he already has a
good salary. So, argument IV is vague. Further, the unemployed people
thriving on tuitions can survive with the school teachers holding tuitions
too, if they are capable enough to guide the students well. So, argument II
also does not hold strong.
34. Option D
Todays children are to make up future citizens of the country and so it is
absolutely essential to make them learned, more responsible, more
innovative and self-dependent by imparting them education. So, argument
II holds strong while I and IV do not. Besides, the goal of literacy cannot be
denied for want of infrastructure. So, argument III also does not hold.
35. Option B
Trade unions provide a common platform for the workers to voice their
demands and protests and thus ensure that they are not subdued or
exploited. So, argument II holds strong, while I and III do not, besides, the
idea of imitation of other countries in the implementation of a certain policy
holds no relevance. So, argument IV also does not hold strong.
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Chapter 21
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
5. Statement: If you trouble me, I will slap you. A mother warns her child.
Assumptions:
I. With the warning, the child may stop troubling her.
II. All children are basically naughty.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
a) Both I and II are implicit
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
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10. Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
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Assumptions:
I. Some other books were available onthis topic.
II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
11. Statement: The Government has decided to pay compensation to the tune
of Rs.1 Lakh to the family membes of those who are killed in railway
accidents.
Assumptions:
I. The Government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to
compensation.
II. There may be reduction in incidents of railway accidents in near
future.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
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Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
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18. Statement: The campaign of Keep Your City Clean started by the Civil
Council did not evoke any response from the citizens.
Assumptions:
I. People do not desire to keep their city clean.
II. The Civil Council has failed in its campaign.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
19. Statement: The district administration has issued a circular to all the
farmers under its jurisdiction advising them for not using pesticides
indiscriminately as it may pollute the ground water.
Assumptions:
I. People may stop using ground water if the farmers continue to use
pesticides indiscriminately.
II. Farmers may refrain from using pesticides indiscriminately.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
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20. Statement: The coffee powder of company X is quite better in taste than
the much advertised coffee of company Y.
Assumptions:
I. If your product is not good, your spend more on advertisement.
II. Some people are tempted to buy a product by the advertisement.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
Directions (Q. 21-25): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
22. Statement: Safety and health practices in many Indian companies are well
below the international standards.
Assumptions:
I. International standards of health and safety are ideal and unrealistic.
II. Indian organizations do not consider safety and health management
as their prime social responsibility.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
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24. Statement: The regulatory authority has set up a review committee tofind
out the reasons for unstable stock prices.
Assumptions:
I. The investors may regain confidence in stock market by this
decision.
II. The review committee has the expertise to find out the causes for
volatility in the stock market.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
25. Statement: Please note that the company will provide accommodation to
only outside candidates if selected. A condition in an advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. The local candidates would be having some other arrangement for
their stay.
II. The company plans to select only local candidates.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the
following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
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26. Statement: Many historians have done more harm than good by distorting
truth.
Assumptions:
I. People believe what is reported by the historians.
II. Historians are seldom expected to depict the truth.
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered
I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer:
a) If only assumption I is implicit
b) If only assumption II is implicit
c) If either I or II is implicit
d) If neither I nor II is implicit
e) If both I and II are implicit
27. Statement: As there is a great demand, every person seeking tickets of the
programme will be given five tickets.
Assumptions:
I. The organizers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II. No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
30. Statement: Today I must satisfy myself only by looking at a pink headed
duck in an encyclopaedia.
Assumptions:
I. Pink headed ducks are as good as extinct now.
II. People refer to encyclopaedia to know only about things which do
not exist now.
a) Only assumption I is implicit
b) Only assumption II is implicit
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Neither I nor II is implicit
e) Both I and II are implicit
Answers:
1. Option E
The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as
the statement mentions. So, I is implicit. The statement mentions that the
individuals worth shall be reviewed before confirmation. So, II is also
implicit.
2. Option A
Since the statement talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5, it
means that the child is mentally prepared for the same at this age. So, I is
implicit, But nothing about admission after 6 years of age is mentioned in
the statement. So, II is not implicit.
3. Option B
Assumption I goes against the statement. So, it is not implicit. The
allowance will serve as a reward to the employees and shall provoke them
to come on time. So, II is implicit.
4. Option A
I directly follows from the statement and so is implicit. Also, the statement
is a suggestion and does not tell about a Government policy or its position
of funds. So, II is not implicit.
5. Option A
The mothe warns her child with the expectation that he would stop
troubling her. So, I is implicit. The general nature of children cannot be
derived from the statement. So, II is not implicit.
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6. Option E
Since a surcharge has been levied to fund drought relief programmes, it
follow the Government does not have sufficient money for the same. So, I
is implicit. Besides, the percentage of surcharge must have been decided
after studying the expected inflow in relation to amount of funds required.
So, II is also implicit.
7. Option B
Nothing is mentioned about lather formation by the detergent. So, I is not
implicit. Also, detergents should be used as they clean clothes better and
more easily. So, II is implicit.
8. Option E
The statement lays stress on enforcing attendance. This implies that
children in villages do not attend school regularly. So, I is implicit. Besides,
the statement calls one school for every village a substantial achievement.
So, II is also implicit.
9. Option A
The fact given in I directly follows from the phrase -------- for a better fiscal
management in the statement. So, I is implicit. However, the public
response to the new policy cannot be ascertained. So, II is not implicit.
10. Option A
It follows from the statement that books on this topic were available before
also but they were not lucid. So, I is implicit. But a general comment as II
cannot be made from the given statement. So, II is not implicit.
11. Option A
The amount of compensation must have been decided keeping in mind the
monetary position of the Government. So, I is implicit. However, nothing
can be said about the frequency of railway accidents in future. So, II is not
implicit.
12. Option B
Films are indispensable does not mean that they are the only means of
entertainment. So, I is not implicit. II follows from the statement. So, it is
implicit.
13. Option D
Neither the volume of readership of the Times in areas other than the
Metropolis nor the reason for its huge acclamation is evident from the
statement. So, neither I nor II is implicit.
14. Option E
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The statement makes the first assumption clear though educational value is
not to be ignored. So, I is implicit. That the educational value must not be
ignored also shows that educational value is not realised properly. So, II is
also implicit.
15. Option A
It is because children consider teachers as their model that they are more
influenced by them. So, I is implicit. It is not necessary that the children are
influenced by teachers because they spend much time in school. So, II is not
implicit.
16. Option A
A has advised B the route to Jammu. This means that B wishes to go to
Jammu. So, I is implicit. The statement mentions only As advice to B. So,
II is not implicit.
17. Option A
Since inequality can be reduced, it means that it is not natural but created.
So, I is implicit. Nothing is mentioned about peoples response. So, II is not
implicit.
18. Option E
According to the statement, the campaign did not get any response from
citizens. This means that people are not interested in keeping the city clean
and the campaign has failed. So, both I and II implicit.
19. Option B
The district administration has issued a circular to make the farmers aware
of hazards that indiscriminate use of pesticides poses to ground water and
plead them to refrain from the same. So, II is implicit. However, I cannot be
assumed from the given statement and so it is not implicit.
20. Option B
21. Option B
The statement presents the issue of not reaching airport in time as a
problem. This means that reaching airport in time is necessary. So, I is not
implicit. Besides, it is mentioned that reaching airport in time has become
difficult due to large number of potholes in road X. This implies that road X
is the only possible way. So, II is implicit.
22. Option B
The statement talks about the safety and health practices in Indian
companies being far below international standards. It is clearly a criticism
of Indian organizations not paying considerable attention to these aspects.
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23. Option B
The statement stresses on the fact that though civic governance is the task
of the municipal body, but all the tasks done come ou to be more fruitful if
the general public lends a helping hand in the same. So, only II is implicit.
24. Option E
I mentions the aim for which the step talked about in the statement, has
been undertaken while II mentions the essential requirement for it. So, both
I and II are implicit.
25. Option A
The statement mentions that the company intends to provide
accommodation only to outside candidates. This means that local
candidates would have to arrange accommodation on their own and that the
company may select local as well as outside candidates. Thus, only I is
implicit.
26. Option A
The fact that historians have done harm by distorting truth, means that
people believe what is reported by the historians. So, I is implicit. II does
not follow from the statement and is not implicit.
27. Option D
The organizers are adopting this policy not to reduce the sale but to cope up
with great demand so that everyone can get the ticket. So, I is not implicit.
Also, due to great demand, the maximum number of tickets one person can
get has been reduced to five So, II is also not implicit.
28. Option A
Computer educabe started at the school level only if it is easy. So, I is
implicit. In the statement, nothing is mentioned about the link between jobs
and computer education. So, II is not implicit.
29. Option A
The statement mentions that he will pass if he is intelligent. So, I is implicit.
Further, this means that it is not necessary that he will pass. So, II is not
implicit.
30. Since the narrator talks ofsatisfying himself by just looking at a picture in
encyclopaedia, it means that pink headed ducks are not to be seen alive. So,
I is implicit. But II does not follow from the statement and is not implicit.
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Chapter 22
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either I or II follows
d) If neither I nor II follows and
e) If both I and II follow
1. Statement: In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were
200. Out of these 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions:
I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
e) Both I and II are follow
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5. Statement: Prime age school going children in urban India have now
become avid as well as more regular viewers of television, even in
households without a T.V. As a result, there has been an alarming decline in
the extent of readership of newspapers.
Conclusions:
I. Method of increasing the readership of newspapes should be
devised.
II. A team of experts should be sent to other countries to study the
impact of T.V. on the readership of newspapers.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
Directions (Q. 6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either I or II follows
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Directions (Q. 11-15): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either I or II follows
d) If neither I nor II follows and
e) If both I and II follow
11. Statement: People who speak too much against dowry are those who had
taken it themselves.
Conclusions:
I. It is easier said than done.
II. People have double standards.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
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12. Statement: The national norm is 100 beds per thousand populations but in
this state, 150 beds per thousand are available in the hospitals.
Conclusions:
I. Our national norm is appropriate.
II. The states health system is taking adequate care in this regard.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
13. Statement: Our securities carry market risk. Consult your investment
advisor or agent before investing.
Conclusions:
I. One should not invest in securities.
II. The investment advisor calculates the market risk with certainty.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below is given a statement followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
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logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement.
Give answer:
a) If only conclusion I follows
b) If only conclusion II follows
c) If either I or II follows
d) If neither I nor II follows and
e) If both I and II follow
16. Statement: Any student who does not behave properly while in the school
brings bad name to himself and also for the school.
Conclusions:
I. Such student should be removed from the school.
II. Stricter discipline does not improve behaviour of the students.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Both I and II are follow
18. Statement: Only good singers are invited in the conference. No one
without sweet voice is a good singer.
Conclusions:
I. All invited singers in the conference have sweet voice.
II. Those singers who do not have sweet voice are not invited in the
conference.
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
e) Both I and II are follow
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Answers:
1. Option D
According to the statement, 80% of the total runs were made by spinners.
So, I does not follow. Nothing about the opening batsmen is mentioned in
the statement. So, II also does not follow.
2. Option A
I directly follows from the given statement. Also, it is mentioned that old
ideas are replaced by new ones, as thinking changes with the progressing
time. So, II does not follow.
3. Option E
According to the statement, Government has spoiled financial institutions
by appointing bureacrats as Directors. This means that only those persons
should be appointed as Directors who are experts in finance and are
acquainted with the financial work of the institute. So, both I and II follow.
4. Option B
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The fact given in I is quite contrary to the given statement. So, I does not
follow. II mentions the direct implications of the state discussed in the
statement. Thus, II follows.
5. Option D
The statement concentrates on the increasing viewership of T.V. and does
not stress either on increasing the readership of newspapers or making
studies regarding the same. So, neither I nor II follows.
6. Option D
The manager might have humiliated Sachin not because of his dislike but
on account of certain negligence or mistake on his part. So, I does not
follow. Also, nothing about Sachins rapport with his colleagues can be
reduced from the statement. So, II also does not follow.
7. Option D
The fact that a certain rule has been more welcomed in a certain coutry does
not imply that the problem is more prevalent there. So, I does not follow.
Also, the amendment seeks to discourage only sexual harassment of women
and shall in no way discourage employment of women. So, II also does not
follow.
8. Option D
Neither the citizens response to the decision nor the reason for opposition
by other nations can be deduced from the statement. So, neither I nor II
follows.
9. Option A
According to the statement, even senior cabinet ministers are always ready
to conform to the Prime Ministers views. So, I follows. However, II
contradicts the given statement and so does not follow.
10. Option E
According to the statement, National Aluminium Company has moved
India from a position of shortage in the past to self sufficiency in the
present. This means that previously, India had to import aluminium. So, I
follows. Also, it can be deduced that if production increases at the same
rate, India can export it in future. So, II also follows.
11. Option E
The statement implies that it is easier to say than to do something and what
people say is different from what they do. So, both I and II follow.
12. Option B
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Whether the national norm is appropriate or not cannot be said. So, I does
not follow. However, more numbe of beds per thousand population are
available in the state. So, II follows.
13. Option B
Investment in securities involves risk. This does not mean that one should
not invest in securities. So, I does not follow. Since the statement advises
one to consult investment advisor before investing. So, II follows.
14. Option D
Neither the poor nor the rich, but only the role of money in politics is being
talked about in the statement. So, neither I nor II follows.
15. Option D
The availability of vegetables is not mentioned in the given statement. So, I
does not follow. II is not directly related to the statement and so it also does
not follow.
16. Option D
I cannot be deduced from the statement, Also, nothing about discipline is
mentioned in the statement. So, neither I nor II follows.
17. Option C
It is mentioned in the statement that either the managers should resign by
the next day or their services would be terminated. So, either I or II follows.
18. Option E
The statement asserts that a good singer always has a sweet voice and only
good singers are invited in the conference. This implies that all those
invited in the conference have sweet voice and those who do not have sweet
voice are not invited. So, both I and II follow.
19. Option B
The new scheme intends to develop interest in reading by incorporating the
habit in their routine. So, only II follows while I does not.
20. Option E
The statement mentions that fulfilling the eligibility criteria and submitting
the application before the stipulated date are both essential to avoid
rejection. So, I follows. Also, since it is given that the candidates whose
applications are rejected shall not be called for written test, so II also
follows.
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