QC CERTIFICATION QUESTIONS GUIDE

QC CERTIFICATION QUESTIONS
Jul 15, 2014

6,252 views
3 Likes

0 Comments
Share on LinkedIn
Share on Facebook
Share on Twitter
1: You can export the data in a grid as a ______

A. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C. Text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D: Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
2: When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can
notify those responsible for any associated entities.
A. True
B. False
3: A indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.
A. Green flag
B. Pink flag
C. Red flag
D: Blue flag
4: Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability
notifications. You can useflags to remind yourself to follow up on something.
A. Alert Me
B. Follow up
C. Follow Me
D: Follow
5: Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.
A. True
B. False
6: You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.
A. True
B. False
7: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see
your follow up alert.
A. True B. False
8: A .is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A. Personal view
B. My view
C. Favorite view
D: Fav view
9: By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You
can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the..parameter in the Site
Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. FAVORITES_DEPTH
B. FAVORITES-DEPTH
C. FAVORITE_DEPTH
D: FAVORITE_DEPTHS
10: You save favorite views in either a..folder or a.folder. Views in a.folder are accessible to all
users. Views in a..folder are accessible only to the user who created them.
A. Public, private, public, private
B. Root, Base, Root, Base,
C. Locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D: Both B & C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C B A A A C A A
11: You access Quality Center over the _______ via a Web browser.
A. Internet
B. a corporate intranet
C. Mobile Internet
D: Both A & B
12:Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application defects, enabling you
to monitor defects closely from initial detection until resolution.
A. True
B. False
13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D: Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.
14: Each Quality Center project is supported by a _______ that stores project information.
A. Root folder
B. Database
C. Flat File
D: Both B & C
15: Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The_______ determines the
privileges that the user has within a project.
A. QC group
B. User_Account group
C. Account group
D: user group
16: You can import data from _______ to a Quality Center project.
A. Word or Notepad
B. Word or Word pad
C. Word or Excel
D: Word or Power Point
17: You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.
A. True
B. False
18: Quality Center prompts you to install _______ if it is not already installed on your machine.
A. Microsoft Java 2.0
B. Microsoft Visio 13.0
C. Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0
19: Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:
A. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D: Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects
20: When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for
the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.
A. True
B. False
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A B B D C A D B A
21: The ________ can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them
about important maintenance or other issues.
A. Site administer
B. Site Controller
C. Site Analyser
D: Site administrator
22: Quality Center organizes and displays data in ________

A. Grids
B. Trees
C. Folders
D: Both A & B
23: You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear, and by
changing column size.
A. True
B. False
24: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you
define.
A. True
B. False
25: When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced ________ on an
associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or defects.
A. Secondary filter
B. Primary filter
C. Cross filter
D: Second filter
26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________

A. Increasing order
B. Decreasing order
C. Order in which they were added.
D: Order in which they were deleted.

27: You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the Clipboard.
A. True B. False
28: You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ________
A. Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B. Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C. Requirements and Defects modules.
D: Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.
29: If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered
records, or you can search all records in the module
A. True
B. False
30: Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.
A. True
B. False
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D B A C C B A A A
31: QA Manager changes a requirement from a ___________ status to a Reviewed status once it is
approved.
A. Released
B. Tested
C. Not reviewed
D. None of the above
32: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel, or
other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the
appropriate _____________
A. HP Third Party add-in.
B. HP Quality Center add-in.

C. HP Quality Center
D. HP Quality Center License
33: The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a _________ view.
A. Flat
B. Hierarchical
C. Flat-hierarchical
D. Flat non-hierarchical
34: The _________ view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test
coverage status.
A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage Requirements
C. Coverage
D. Coverage Tests
35: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the
shortcut key ___________.
A. F1
B. F9
C. Ctrl + R
D. Alt + R
36: You can use the ____________to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the
Requirements module.
A. Script Edit
B. Scriptor Editor
C. Script Editor D. Script Editing
37: The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your _________
A. Requirements
B. All requirements
C. Some requirements
D. Tedious requirements
38: You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

A. True
B. False
39: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid
using the _________ command.
A. Search
B. Find
C. Search All
D. Find All
40: You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the
___________command.
A. Replace
B. Replace All
C. Find & Replace
D. Replace & Find
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B D A B C A B B A
41: To set a Quick Test Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree,
and choose _________
A. Template Test
B. Template Tree
C. Template Plan
D. Template
42: You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.
A. True
B. False
43: A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is
_________ on your machine.
A. Not activated
B. Not installed
C. Not enabled
D. Not set
44: A ________ link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.
A. Link To Test
B. Move To Test
C. Go To Test
D. Test
45: In the Test Plan module, you create ________ by selecting requirements to link to a test.
A. RTM
B. Requirements coverage
C. Test coverage
D. SRS
46: Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create _______ by selecting tests to link to a
requirement.
A. RTM
B. Requirements coverage
C. Test coverage
D. SRS
47: A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.
A. True
B. False
48: You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this
feature using the __________ parameter in Site Administration
A. ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B. ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C. ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D. None of above
49: Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test.
Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements coverage, it may already exist.
A. True
B. False
50: You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to
the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.
A. True
B. False
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A B C B C B A A A
51: Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.
A. Risk analysis or risk assessment
B. Risk breakdown or risk assessment

C. Risk breakdown or risk review
D. Risk analysis or risk evaluation
52: Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the
following steps
A. Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
53: A __________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels in the
requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.
A. Analysis
B. Assessment
C. Policy
D. Test
54: A _________ requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are
children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.
A. Analysis
B. Assessment
C. Policy
D. Test
55: For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk
Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.
A. Business Probability and Failure Criticality
B. Business Vitality and Failure Probability
C. Business Criticality and Failure Probability

D. Business Criticality and Failure Possibility
56: The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:

A. Critical, Important, Nice to Have
B. Critical, Importance, Nice to Have

C. Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D. None of these
57: The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:

A. High, Standard, Low
B. High, Average, Low
C. High, Medium, Low
D. None of these
58: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels.

A. Full, Partial, Basic, and Low
B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None

C. Full, Half, Basic, and None
D. Full, Partial, Critical, and None
59: The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the requirement is to
fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirements implementation, without consideration of
the requirements impact on the business.
A. True
B. False
60: The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is to your
business
A. True
B. False
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D A B C A C B B B
61: You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing
process.
A. True
B. False
62: There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:
A. Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B. Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C. Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D. Find all Defects & Find all Text.
63: You can update defects directly in the _____ or in the ______ dialog box.
A. Defects Grid
B. Defects Detail
C. Defects Module
D. Both A & B E: Both B & C
64: You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project
administrator in Project Customization.
A. True
B. False
65: By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit
the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT
66: You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.
A. True
B. False
67: You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed
automatically when the direct links are removed.
A. True
B. False
68: Quality Center reports can be generated from the
A. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B. Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C. Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D. Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.
69: You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or
HTML document. You export data from the
A. Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B. Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D. Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.
70: How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports: are available in Requirements module.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A C D A D A A A C B
71: Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of __________
A. Run Tests Automatically
B. Run Tests Manually

C. Both A and B
D. None of above
72: You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key ______
A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9
73: The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A. Test Set and Select Tests
B. Test Select and Set Tests

C. Set Test and Tests Select
D. None of above
74: In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means
A. The date on which the test was first executed.
B. The date on which the test was last executed
C. The date on which the test was executed
D. The date on which the test will be executed in future
75: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid.
A. True
B. False
76: You can organize test execution by creating _______

A. Test modules
B. Test flows
C. Test beds
D. Test sets
77: While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a _______
A. Test sets tree
B. Test sets flow
C. Test sets grid
D. Test sets rows
78: By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ________
A. Level 0 folder
B. Top folder
C. Highest level folder
D. Root folder
79: You can also use the _________ in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default
Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a test set.
A. Run Events view
B. Run Events Grid

C. Run Events menu
D. Run Eventsmodule
80: You can also drag the test sets between lists.
A. True
B. False
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C D A B A D A D A A
81: You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is available for other
users in the current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury
logo in the project document.
A. True B. False
82: While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is
limited to _________ header levels in the table of contents.
A. Seven
B. Eight
C. Nine
D. Ten
83: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan
module that should appear in the project document.
A. Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B
84: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear
in the project document.
A. Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
B. Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C. Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D. Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
85: You can generate a _________ that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all
the detail included.
A. View project document
B. Preview project document
C. Pre project document
D. None
86: You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel
and analyze the data from within Excel.
A. True
B. False
87: You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.
A. True
B. False
88: Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the
necessary permissions.
A. True
B. False
89: After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you
want to include in the report. You define this data by creating _______ to extract the data.
A. Test Queries
B. Lotus Queries
C. Excel Macros
D. SQL queries
90: To view the database type used for your project database, click the ________ button.
A. Database in use
B. Database Type
C. Get Database
D. Database version
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C D D B A B B D B
91: The Requirements ________ view enables you to display requirements in a flat non-hierarchical view.
Each line in the ________ displays a separate requirement.
A. File, file
B. Hierarchical, hierarchy
C. Grid, Grid
D. Both B & C
92: The _________ Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according
to test __________ Status.
A. Plan
B. Requirement
C. Coverage
D. Task
93: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the
shortcut key ________
A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9
94: The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means

A. The current status of the requirement
B. The previous status of the requirement
C. The coming status of the requirement
D. The fixed status of the requirement
95: You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements
module.
A. True
B. False
96: You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.
A. True
B. False
97: You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need
to edit the text in Word.
A. True
B. False
98: You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the
Requirement Details dialog box.
A. True
B. False
99: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid
using the _________ command.
A. Search
B. Find
C. Look
D. Get
100: You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project
A. True
B. False
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C C D A A A A B B A
101: You can view a list of alerts for a _____________ entity.

A. A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B. A test instance in the Execution Grid
C. None of above
D. Both A. & B.
102: A red flag indicates that the alert is _____________

A. New
B. Old
C. Follow up
D. Urgent
103: A gray flag indicates that the alert __________.

A. New
B. has already been read
C. Follow up
D. Urgent
104: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see
your follow up alert.
A. True
B. False
105: Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a _______ Extension.
A. .jpeg
B. .gif
C. .doc
D. .jpg
106: A __________ is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.
A. Personal View
B. My view
C. Favorite View
D. My QC View
107: You save favorite views in ______

A. Favorite folder
B. Personal folder
C. Both A & B
D. Public & Private folder
108: You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ________ parameter in
the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. favorites
B. favorites_Depth
C. favorites_view
D. favorites_Path
109: The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:

A. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
B. Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D. Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases
110: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

A. Requirements cycle
B. Requirements tree
C. Requirements plan
D. Requirements module
Question No. Correct Answer

101 D
102 A
103 B
104 A
105 D
106 C
107 D
108 B
109 A
110 B
111: You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between projects.
A. True
B. False
112: Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are
not copied.
A. True
B. False
113: Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A. Convert Requirements to Tests
B. Generate a Test from Requirements.
C. Get a test from a requirement
D. Both A & B
E: Both B & C
114: Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability
links to and from a selected requirement. _______ Links indicate requirements that affect a selected
requirement. _________ Links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A. Trace from, Trace to
B. Trace to, Trace from

C. Trace from select, Trace to select
D. Trace to select, Trace from select
115: When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be
seen by all users.
A. True
B. False
116: You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ________ tab. This
tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.
A. Traceability
B. Relationships
C. Req-traceability
D. Traceability-Req
117: The __________ feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on
the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.
A. Level-based quality management
B. Calculate-based quality management
C. Risk-based quality management
D. None of above
118: You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is
composed of its __________
A. Business Criticality & Failure Probability

B. Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C. Priority & Severity
D. None of above
119: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:
A. First, second, third, and fourth

B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C. Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D. Partial, Basic, moderate and Advanced
120: The __________ link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or
exclude explicitly from the analysis.
A. Missing risk assessment
B. Miss assessment
C. Missing assessment
D. Exclude assessment

111 B
112 A
113 D
114 A
115 A
116 B
117 C
118 A
119 B
120 C
the _________ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. EMAIL_FORMAT
B. EMAIL_FORM
C. MAIL_FORMAT
D. QC_MAIL_FORMAT
122: You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of the below
items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.
A. Test coverage.
B. Defect linkage.
C. Risk-based quality management data
D. All of above
E: None of above
123: You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it.
A. True
B. False
124: You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not
delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects linkage.
A.True
B. False
125: There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:
A. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B. Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C. Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D. Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests
126: When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links
indicate the other ________ that the change might affect.
A. Tests
B. Requirements
C. Tests & requirements
D. None
127: The ______ links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement _______ links indicate
requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.
A. Trace from, Trace to
B. Trace to, Trace from

C. From trace, To trace
D. None of above
128: When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be
seen by______
A. Author of the requirement
B. Users authorized by the Author of the requirement

C. All users
D. Administrator
129: while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by
dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid.
A. True
B. False
130: While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you understand the many
associations and dependencies that exist between the ______ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree
structure.
A. Tests
B. Requirements
C. Both
D. None

121 C
122 E
123 A
124 B
125 A
126 B
127 A
128 C
129 B
130 B
131: The requirements _________ is a graphical representation of your requirements specification,
displaying the hierarchical relationship between different requirements.
A. Graph
B. Plan
C. Path
D. Tree
132: For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of __________ in the requirements tree.
A. Detailed requirements
B. Detailed specifications
C. Detailed plans
D. Detailed sub-requirements
133: Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant attachments.
A. True
B. False
134: After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When
analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement _________ shows the other
requirements that the change might affect.
A. Equality
B. Link-ability
C. Traceability
D. Cross-links
135: QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases
module.
A. True
B. False
136: The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The
tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create _______
A. Linkages
B. Linked-requirements
C. Requirements plan
D. Coverage
137: QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed status to
a _______ Status once it is approved.
A. Passed
B. Reviewed
C. Partially reviewed
D. Both B & C
138: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ________
A. Microsoft Word
B. Excel
C. Other third-party requirement management tools
D. All of above
139: In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has
A. Attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

B. Attachments, linked defects, alerts
C. Attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D. Linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
140: To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose __________ and enter
the requirement ID.
A. Requirements > Find Requirement
B. Requirements > Go to Requirement
C. Requirements > Get Requirement
D. Requirements > Display Requirement
131 D
132 A
133 B
134 C
135 A
136 D
137 B
138 D
139 A
140 B
141: During Requirement Risks calculation, the ________ displays the requirements for which you did
not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis
A. Missing assessment link
B. Missing assessment field

C. Missing assessment value
D. Missing assessment relation
142: A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ________ in the testing
process.
A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At the point
D. At the middle
143: Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.
A. Design Test Steps
B. Design Tests
C. Automate Tests
D. Define Testing Policy Settings
144: You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key
________
A. F7
B. F9
C. F12
D. F11
145: To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ________ and enter the test ID
A. Test > Go to Test
B. Test > find Test

C. Test > search Test
D. Test > link Test
146: In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of
the fields in the Test Grid
A. True,
B. False
147: You can use the ________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.
A. Text editor
B. Script editor
C. Scriptor editor
D. Scripts editor
148: The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide
your application according to ________
A. Functionality
B. Requirements
C. Tst plans
D. Test modules
149: During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan
tree ________
A. At the beginning
B. At the end
C. At any time
D. In the middle
150: Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ________
A. IDs
B. Requirements
C. Permissions
D. Passwords

141 A
142 C
143 D
144 B
145 A
146 A
147 B
148 A
149 C
150 C
151: You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in the ________
A. Requirements module
B. Releases module
C. Plan Tests module
D. Either B or C
152: Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.
A. True
B. False
153: A release represents a _________ in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution
at the same time.
A. Group of releases
B. Group of changes
C. Group of defects
D. Group of requests
154: After defining the release, a QA manager defines _________ A _________ is a set of Development and
quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.
A. Cycles, cycle
B. Tries, Try
C. Priorities, Priority
D. Files, File
155: After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the _________ in the
Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.
A. Plans
B. Groups of plans
C. Upcoming modules
D. Requirements
156: After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each ________ folder in
the Test Lab module to a cycle.
A. Test sets
B. Test set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set
157: A __________ is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific
test goals.
A. Test sets
B. Test set
C. Tests set
D. Testing set
158: A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing
process.
A. True
B. False
159: While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them
to the appropriate __________
A. Release and cycle
B. Cycle and release

C. Defect and cycle
D. Cycle and defect

160: The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by analyzing the
releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.
A. True
B. False

151 B
152 A
153 B
154 A
155 D
156 B
157 B
158 A
159 A
160 B
161: Test management with Quality Center involves _______ Phases.
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
162: The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:
A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B. Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C. Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests
163: By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and user group, you
control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the project.
A. True
B. False
164: The _______ determines the privileges that the user has within a project.
A. User ID
B. User Name
C. User group
D. User SID
165: You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.
A. True
B. False
166: Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET _______ if it is not already installed on
your machine.
A. Framework 2.0
B. Framework 1.0
C. Framework 3.0
D. Framework 4.0
167: When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in
which you were last working.
A. True
B. False
168: The can change and override a user _______s properties or password.
A. Global Administrator
B. Site Administrator
C. Administrator
D. QC Administrator
169: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you
define. How many filters can you define?
A. Single item as a filter
B. Two items as a filter

C. Multiple items as filter
D. Five items as filter
170: In the test plan tree, you can define the _______ filter for associated test sets as Open. This
ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.
A. Double
B. Twice
C. Cross
D. Multiple

161 B
162 A
163 A
164 C
165 A
166 A
167 A
168 B
169 C
170 C
171: You can view the test results from the ___________
A. Test Instance dialog box.
B. Test Properties dialog box

C. Test Instance Properties dialog box
D. None
172: The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:
A. Linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance

B. Only linked defects for a test instance
C. Linked defects and history for a test instance
D. Linked defects and test results for a test instance
173: Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.
A. True
B. False
174: In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an
automated test instance using the __________ view.
A. Automated
B. Details
C. Run Events
D. Both A & C
175: You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the ________
button on the sidebar.
A. Track Defects
B. Open Defects
C. Defects
D. Log Defects
176: To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose _________
A. Defects > Defect
B. Defects > Move To Defect

C. Defects > Set Defect
D. Defects > Go To Defect
177: Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.
A. True
B. False
178: You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.
A. True
B. False
179: You can use the _________ to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects
Grid.
A. Scripting Editor
B. Notepad Editor
C. QC Editor
D. Script Editor
180: You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other
defects.
A. True
B. False

171 C
172 A
173 A
174 C
175 C
176 D
177 A
178 B
179 D
180 A
181: Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test.
A. True
B. False
182: In the Requirements module, you can use the _________ view to examine the status of your
requirements.
A. Coverage Analysis
B. Coverage Breakdown
C. Requirements Status
D. Coverage Status
183: By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types:
A. Functional, Testing, and Defined.
B. Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C. Functional, System, and Undefined.
D. Functional, Review, and Undefined.
184: You can create design steps for __________

A. Manual tests
B. Automated tests
C. SRS
D. Both A and B
185: To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ________ to the called test and to the
tests that call it.
A. Input Values
B. Output Values
C. Parameters
D. None of above
186: You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add parameters.
Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.
A. True
B. False
187: If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you are prompted to do so
when you call this test from another test, when you add your test to a test set, or when you run your
test.
A. True
B. False
188: You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use _________ to
access the first step.
A. ALT+LEFT
B. ALT+RIGHT
C. ALT+HOME
D. ALT+ UP
189: While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.
A. A test that is created by Winrunner
B. A test that is executed by Winrunner
C. A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D. None of above
190: To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP
Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.
A. True
B. False

181 B
182 A
183 B
184 D
185 C
186 A
187 A
188 C
189 B
190 B
191: Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the __________.
A. Requirements module
B. Test Plan module

C. Test Lab module
D. Defects module
E: Both A & C
F: All of Above
192: Requirements - Summary Graph
A. Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during a period of time.
B. Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C. Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D. Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.
193: By default, the graph appears as a
A. Pie chart,
B. Bar chart
C. Pareto chart
D. Both A & B
194: You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.
A. True
B. False
195: You can determine how information appears in the graph using the _________
A. Graph toolbar.
B. Graph settings
C. Graph menu
D. Both A & C
196: The ________ graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical representation of data
related to test plans and test sets.
A. Live Value
B. Live Analysis
C. Live Analytics
D. Both A & C
197: You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a _________ folder.
A. Test subject
B. Test set
C. Test category
D. Both A & B
198: The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.
A. True
B. False
199: The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document
containing a projects requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.
A. True
B. False
200: The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality
Center project.
A. True
B. False

191 F
192 C
193 B
194 A
195 A
196 B
197 D
198 A
199 A
200 A
201: In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the
Assigned requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are_______ throughout the
release.
A. Run
B. Covered
C. Passed
D. Assigned
202: The _________ helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number of defects submitted over
the course of a release or cycle.
A. Details tab
B. Attachments tab
C. Progress tab
D. Quality tab
203: The defects are categorized by _______ in terms of how they impact system operation.
A. Priority
B. Severity
204: You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in the releases tree.
A. True
B. False
205: The Releases root folder can also be moved.

A. True
B. False
206: You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.
A. True
B. False
207: Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns the associated requirements, test
set folders, and defects.
A. True
B. False
208: You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in the releases tree by dragging
it.
A. True
B. False
209: After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue the application testing
process by specifying ________
A. Requirements
B. Releases
C. Plan Tests
D. Either B or A
210: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a requirements _________
A. Graph
B. Tree
C. Path
D. Plan

201 B
202 D
203 B
204 A
205 B
206 A
207 B
208 A
209 A
210 B
211: By default, records appear in Quality Center in the
A. Increasing Order
B. Decreasing Order
C. Order in which they were added
D. None of these
212: You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed.
A. True
B. False
213: You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.
A. True
B. False
214: You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings: with another user by pasting
them to an e-mail or a text file.
A. True
B. False
215: When you use text search, the search ignores
A. Articles (a, an, the)
B. Coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or)

C. Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then)
D. All of above
216: You can export the data in a grid as a

A. Text files,
B. Microsoft Excel worksheet,
C. Microsoft Word document
D. HTML document.
E. All of above
217: The __________. alerting functions available in Quality Center

A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Five
218: The alerting functions in Quality Center are:

A. Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B. Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C. Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D. Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
219: You can create traceability links between __________ in the Requirements module.
A. Requirements
B. Test Cases
C. Tests
D. Defects
220: You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating __________in the Test
Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.
A. Linked Tests
B. Linked Defects
C. Linked Errors
D. Linked Data

211 C
212 A
213 A
214 B
215 D
216 E
217 C
218 A
219 A
220 B
221: The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control
the way your tests are executed.
A. True
B. False
222: In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test
A. Is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.

B. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C. Is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D. None
223: You can delete a _______ execution condition(s) connected to a test.
A. Single
B. Two
C. Three
D. All
224: When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is selected
A. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execute GriD.

B. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in then Executing GriD.
C. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GriD.
D. Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the Execution GrinD.
225: You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.
A. True
B. False
226: If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.
A. True
B. False
227: You can run tests automatically on __________
A. Your machine
B. Remote Hosts
C. Both A & B
D. None
228: To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner
dialog box instance for each test set.
A. Auto Runner
B. Automate Runner
C. Automatic Runner
D. Manual Runner
229: When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run
in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.
A. True
B. False
230: You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic
Runner dialog box before you executed the test.
A. True
B. False

221 A
222 A
223 D
224 C
225 B
226 A
227 C
228 C
229 A
230 B
231: What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
232: Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?

A. Test cases
B. Repository
C. Load test
D. Defects
233: What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
234: What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
235: Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
236: When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested.
When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps?
(Select two.)
A. Specify all actual results
B. Use parameters in the step names
C. Specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. Use the numbering system for the step names
E. Use consistent terminology throughout the test
237: Where can you link tests to requirements?

A. From the Test Lab module
B. From the Requirements module
C. On the test details page (Test Plan)
D. On the attachments page (Test Plan)
238: When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. Values are assigned from within the calling test
B. Values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. Values are assigned during test design or execution
D. Values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
239: What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. Make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. Select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. Select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
D. Select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
240: How is a test configured as a template test?

A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test

231 D
232 B
233 C, E
234 B, C
235 D
236 C, E
237 B
238 C
239 C
240 C
241: What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test Script tab?
A. There is a test script
B. There is not a test script
C. There is a manual test case
D. The test script has changed
242: While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that contained some tests
that you need. Can you recover the tests?
A. No, once a test is deleted, it is gone
B. Yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. Yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. No, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
243: When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests are accurate and
traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
A. Simple
B. Consistent
C. Repeatable
D. Convertible
E. Automation
F. Appropriate
244: What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
A. batch-test
B. vugen-test
C. lr-scenario
D. system-test
E. interface-test
F. wr-automated test
245: In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a template test?
A. Yes, only template tests are reusable
B. No, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. Yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. No, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
246: What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?

A. All the tests in the Test Plan
B. All the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. All the requirements linked to the specified test
D. All the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
247: How can you create a test plan tree?

A. Convert releases to tests
B. Define test folders and tests manually
C. Save automated tests in Quality Center
D. Define test names for each test needed
248: Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?

A. No, values are assigned at run time
B. Yes, if the called test is a template test
C. No, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. Yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters
249: When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use parameters?
A. Enables the report to be saved
B. Enables the user to name the report
C. Enables the report to be used across projects
D. Enables the report to be used for different purposes
250: Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. Defects data
B. Test set data
C. Test plan data
D. Releases data
E. Test Instance data
F. Requirements data

241 A
242 C
243 B,F
244 C,D,F
245 D
246 D
247 B
248 D
249 D
250 A,C,F
251: Once the Word macro is installed on your computer, what Quality Center toolbars will Word
display?
A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common
252: When a predefined report is saved, what is the file extension?

A. txt
B. xls
C. html
D. doc
253: Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
254: How is data defined for use in an Excel report?

A. With an SQL query
B. With an XML query
C. With ETL data extraction
D. With a WebDataScraper
255: On the General page of the Excel Report Generator window, what name is displayed, by default,
in the designer field?
A. The project manager
B. The site administrator
C. The user currently logged in
D. The user who created the report
256: Which menu allows you to generate a predefined report?

A. Help
B. Tools
C. Analysis
D. Favorites
257: What elements can be linked directly to a requirement in the releases module?
A. A cycle
B. Release tree
C. Cycle details
D. A cycle progress
258: Which module, in Quality Center, starts the testing process?
A. Defects
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
259: What details about a cycle can you define in the details tab? (Select two.)
A. Name
B. End date
C. Attachments
D. Release version
E. Linked test sets
260: What constitutes a release folder?

A. Cycles of the release
B. Test plan for the release
C. Releases of the application
D. Requirements for the release

251 D
252 C
253 C
254 A
255 D
256 C
257 A
258 B
259 A,B
260 C
261: Why do you create a release tree?
A. To define the framework of releases
B. To define the workflow for the project
C. To define the requirements hierarchy
D. To define the test plan for the release
262: How many buttons are available to create a Release Tree?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
263: What types of attachments can be added to a cycle? (Select three.)

A. Snapshot
B. Test plans
C. Clipboard image
D. Release versions
E. System properties
F. Linked requirements
264: Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?

A. Cycle
B. Releases
C. Test Plan
D. Requirements
265: What is the function of the New Release button?

A. Creates a release tree
B. Creates a cycle within a release
C. Creates a release within a release folder
D. Creates a new Release folder in the release tree
266: What is the foundation of the Releases module?

A. The release tree
B. The cycle versions
C. The release cycles
D. The release folders
267: What is an example of an indicator column in the Defect module?

A. Status
B. Priority
C. Attachments
D. Reproducible
268: Where can you find an audit trail of the changes made to a defect?
A. Audit tab in the Defect module
B. Status column in the defect grid
C. History tab in the Defect module
D. Summary column in the defect grid
269: How can you save a filter that you set in the Defect module?
A. Choose Defects>Save
B. Click the Favorites button
C. Click the Save Filter button
D. Choose Favorites>Add to Favorites
270: When defects are exported out of Quality Center, what type of file is created?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .mdb
D. .qcd
261 A
262 B
263 A,C,E
264 D
265 C
266 A
267 C
268 C
269 D
270 A
271: When should you use a private favorite view for defects?
A. Need one more
B. Use for private sessions of Quality Center
C. Use for data on which only you are working
D. Use for data on which your group is working
272: When you log a new defect, how is the Detected By field populated?
A. This field must be filled out as you log the defect
B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged
C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in
D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test
273: Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the Defects Grid?
A. View button
B. Select>View menu
C. Favorites>View menu
D. Select Columns button
274: How many defects can be associated with a requirement?

A. Any requirement can have one defect
B. Any requirement can have multiple defects
C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement
D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement can be associated with
one
275: What is tracked when a defect is assigned a status?

A. The defect's priority
B. The defect's severity
C. The defect's lifecycle
D. The users to whom the defect is assigned
276: How many views are available in the Defects module?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
277: What are some examples of entities that a defect can be associated?
A. Cycle, Release, Test Step, Defect
B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step
C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect
D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result
278: While running a manual test in the Manual Runner, you log a defect against a specific step. Is that
defect automatically linked to any other entities?
A. Yes, indirectly linked to the test instance
B. No, a defect can be linked to only one entity
C. No, all links to other entities must be done separately
D. Yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance
279: From which module or modules can you log a defect?

A. Defect
B. Requirement and Defect
C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect
D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect
280: In the Defect module, what is a fixed column?

A. A column with a section list
B. A column with flexible values
C. A column that is non-scrolling
D. A column with a predetermined width

271 C
272 C
273 D
274 B
275 C
276 A
277 C
278 A
279 D
280 C
281: When searching for Similar Defects, what field or fields in each defect are searched?
A. Name and history
B. Name and description
C. Summary and history
D. Summary and description
282: Which statement best describes the requirements traceability feature?

A. Enables definition of a link between multiple requirements
B. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test
C. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle
D. Enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set
283: When a requirement is assigned to a release, in which cycles is it tested?

A. All of the cycles
B. Only the first cycle
C. Only the last cycle
D. None of the cycles
284: What is the purpose of requirements traceability?

A. To view and establish Test coverage
B. To view cycles that are linked to the requirement
C. To view and establish linkage to other requirements
D. To view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements
285: What are some characteristics of a useful Test Requirement? (Select two.)
A. Vague
B. General
C. Familiar
D. Precise
E. Bounded
F. Ambiguous
286: What does the requirements tree define?

A. Hierarchical relationships between requirements
B. The number of test plans needed for each requirement
C. Identify defects that are associated with each requirement
D. Which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement
287: What feature does Quality Center use to calculate the testing level for each requirement? (Select
two.)
A. Risk analysis
B. Impact analysis
C. Requirement type
D. Failure probability
E. Resource availability
288: What are two steps in risk-based testing? (Select two.)

A. Perform risk analysis
B. Establish testing time
C. Perform impact analysis
D. Establish failure probability
E. Establish development time
F. Establish the number of testers needed
289: If a child requirement is linked to a test, what else is automatically linked to the test?
A. The Release Cycle
B. The Parent Requirement
C. The Functional Requirement
D. The other child requirements
290: What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?

A. The type of parent requirement
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects

281 D
282 A
283 A
284 C
285 D,E
286 A
287 C,E
288 A,D
289 B
290 B
291: What can you do under the RichContent tab in the Requirements module?
A. Add, view and edit RTF content
B. Add, view and edit MS Word content
C. Add, view and edit MS Excel content
D. Add, view and edit MS Access content
E. Add, view and edit SQL statement content
292: What is the Coverage Analysis View used for in the Requirements module?
A. To identify which test sets are associated with the requirement
B. To identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement
C. To identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement
D. To identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement
293: What are some examples of the default Quality Center requirement types? (Select three.)
A. Child
B. Cycle
C. Parent
D. Testing
E. Business
F. Functional
294: What testing levels does Quality Center define for risk-based testing? (Select two.)
A. ALL
B. BASIC
C. NONE
D. UPPER
E. GROUP
F. FUNCTIONAL
295: What additional Quality Center modules may you have access to if installed and/or licensed?
Select all that apply.
A. Reports
B. Releases
C. Dashboard
D. Documents
E. Business components
296: What link do you click on to log on to Quality Center 9.2?

A. Add-Ins Page
B. Quality Center
C. Site Administrator
D. Authenticate User
297: What tools does Quality Center provide for performing test data analysis? (Select two.)
A. Linking
B. Graphs
C. Reports
D. Tracking
E. Traceability
298: What can be accomplished using the Tools Menu of the Common Toolbar? (Select two.)
A. Define a cycle
B. Log a new defect
C. Switch to another project
D. Open the Documentation Library
E. Display the Quality Center version
299: Quality Center 9.2 provides what type of repository for all testing assets?
A. Database
B. File system
C. Web-based
D. Open access
300: Where is the common toolbar located?

A. Lower-left part of the window
B. Upper-left part of the window
C. Upper-right part of the window
D. Lower-right part of the window
291 B
292 B
293 D,E,F
294 B,C
295 C,E
296 B
297 A,B
298 B,C
299 C
300 C
301: Which toolbar contains buttons for frequently used commands in the current Quality Center
module?
A. Module Toolbar
B. Standard Toolbar
C. Common Toolbar
D. Formatting Toolbar
302: How do you make a context-specific shortcut menu appear?

A. Right click on an interface element
B. Double click on the interface element
C. Choose Shortcut from the Help menu
D. Choose Context Menu from the View menu
303: What HP testing tools does Quality Center integrate with? (Select two.)
A. WinRunner
B. Open View
C. Visual API-XP
D. Performance Center
E. Change Control Management
304: How many core modules are in Quality Center 9.2?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
305: In the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module, what does a solid blue line between two tests
indicate?
A. The previous test must pass
B. The previous test must finish
C. The test has undefined parameters
D. The second test is called from within the first
306: When defining execution conditions in a test set, what completion status choice or choices
available?
A. Finish
B. If/then
C. Pass and fail
D. Pass and finish
307: What must the goal of a test set meet?

A. The goal of the test plan
B. The description of the test set
C. The description of the requirement
D. The goal of the associated cycle or cycles
308: Can a test set include both manual and automated tests?
A. No, a test set must be all manual tests
B. No, a test set must be all automated tests
C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test
D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set
309: When developing a test plan, what should the tester be careful about and plan for between tests?
A. Execution time
B. Execution control
C. Automation timing
D. Data dependencies
310: How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts in a test set?
A. Run the test locally
B. Select a host group for the local machine
C. Select multiple hosts for the automated test
D. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set

301 A
302 A
303 A,C
304 C
305 B
306 D
307 D
308 D
309 D
310 D
311: Quality Center provides the framework for test execution. What are the stages of this framework?
A. Import requirements, import tests, run the tests
B. Link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects
C. Develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests
D. Convert the test plans to test sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests
312: What are two elements of the Test Lab module? (Select two.)
A. Linked Cycles
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Execution Results
E. Graph of Selected
F. Linked Requirements
313: What types of tests make up a test set?

A. Smoke and integration
B. Smoke and automated
C. Integration and manual
D. Manual and automated
314: In executing a test, what do you link to a test set?

A. A cycle
B. A defect
C. An LOB
D. A release
315: At what level is a main test set tree folder?

A. Root
B. Main
C. Subject
D. Unattached
316: When a test set folder is linked to a cycle, are all of the test sets in the folder linked to that
cycle?
A. No, only a test set can be linked to a cycle
B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release
C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle
D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in that release
317: What is a test set?

A. A folder of test results
B. A folder of testing cycles
C. A group of tests to achieve a goal
D. A group of tests assigned to a release
318: What choices are available in Test Set Properties if any test fails?
A. Rerun the test up to 5 times
B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing
C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test
D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set
319: While defining a test set, you want to notify your Project Manager if the permission levels on the
testing box are inadequate. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Select inadequate in the permissions field
B. Ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect
C. Check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications
D. Email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set
320: When designing a test, which practice would you consider is most integral in determining test
success?
A. Write test steps in the active voice.
B. Verify the version of the application is working.
C. Validate that the fields indicated in the test exist.
D. Specify the pass and fail conditions and expected results

311 C
312 B,C
313 D
314 A
315 A
316 C
317 C
318 D
319 C
320 D
321: In designing a test, where can you specify parameters. Select two.
A. Call to Test
B. Test Name
C. Step Name
D. Description
E. Expected Result
322: When converting requirements to tests, to what can a requirement be converted?

A. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Test Set
B. A Subject Folder, a Test or a Design Step
C. A Test, a Business Component or a Design Step
D. A Subject Folder, a Business Component or a Design Step
323: At what step in the quality management process would you analyze the impact of changes in
requirements?
A. After test execution
B. After requirements traceability
C. After defects have status "Closed"
D. After new requirements are added
324: To run a test set at a remote location, what setting in Quality Center 9.2 would you configure?
A. Run All
B. Enable Log
C. Run on Host
D. Run All Tests Locally
325: In the Execution Flow tab, which Execution Conditions can be indicated by arrows between tests?
Select two.
A. Failed
B. Passed
C. Finished
D. Not Completed
326: Which tool forces manual tests to run in a specific order?

A. Manual Runner
B. Generate Script
C. Automated Runner
D. Test Set Properties
327: A manual test started but did not complete the test run. Which feature will allow you to proceed
with the test run?
A. Cancel Run
B. Run Manually
C. Repeat Begin Run
D. Continue Manual Run
328: What Execution Conditions are supported in Test Set Execution Flow tab?
A. Done or Failed
B. Done or Passed
C. Passed or Failed
D. Finished or Passed
329: Which steps must you perform when developing a test set tree? Select two.
A. Create test set folders.
B. Schedule execution date and time.
C. Link test sets to releases and cycles.
D. Populate the test set folders with tests.
E. Define test run sequence and conditions.
330: In the Test Lab module, which tab allows you to define a time when Tests will execute?
A. Execution Grid
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Test Set Properties
uestion No. Correct Answer

321 D,E
322 B
323 B
324 C
325 B,C
326 C
327 D
328 D
329 A,D
330 C
331: In the Test Plan Tree, which basic test information is required to create a new test? Select two.
A. Level
B. Priority
C. Template
D. Test Type
E. Test Name
332: Which Test Lab feature displays tests in a diagram for easy sequencing and scheduling?
A. Execution Grid
B. Test Plan Tree
C. Linked Defects
D. Execution Flow
333: A test set could not execute due to remote connectivity issues. The QA manager would like to
receive an email update when the test execution halts. Which notification setting would you select?
A. On Failure
B. Environmental failure
C. Any test in the Automatic Runner with status "Failure"
D. All tests in the Automatic Runner that were run have finished
334: Which action is required in order to execute an automated test in Quality Center 9.2?
A. Have design steps defined
B. Have the tester field defined
C. Set the design status to Ready
D. Be a member of at least one test set
335: In the Test Lab module, to which entity can you assign a Cycle?
A. Run
B. Test Set
C. Test Instance
D. Test Set Folder
336: What options are available to users in the Quality Center Tools menu? Select two.
A. Log out
B. Add users
C. New defects
D. Change projects
E. Change passwords
337: Which module allows you to run tests on an application and analyze results?
A. Test Set
B. Test Lab
C. Test Plan
D. Test Execution
338: Which add-ins allow you to export tests, requirements and defects from a third-party application
to Quality Center? Select two.
A. BPT add-in
B. QTP add-in
C. Excel add-in
D. Word add-in
339: From which menu command would you execute an export of data from Excel to Quality Center?
A. Excel > Data > Export
B. Quality Center > Add-Ins page
C. Excel > Tools > Export to Quality Center
D. Quality Center > Tools > Excel Report Generator
340: What are the key pointers for defining tests?

A. Economical, Unique, Graphic, Clear, Traceable
B. Generalized, Unique, Reasonable, Graphic, Definite
C. Accurate, Economical, Consistent, Appropriate, Traceable
D. Consistent, Well Written, Generalized, Ambiguous, Appropriate

331 D,E
332 D
333 B
334 D
335 D
336 C,D
337 B
338 C,D
339 C
340 C
341: Which statements about linking defects are true? Select two.
A. Linking defects enables you to link only one entity of any type to one defect.
B. Linking defects enables you to use History to search for defects with no known links.
C. Linking defects enables you to link multiple entities of the same type to the same defect.
D. Linking defects enables you to search defects that are related to specific Quality Center entities.
342: Which entity cannot be associated with a defect?

A. Test
B. Run
C. Cycle
D. Defect
343: What is tracked by the defect's lifecycle in Quality Center?

A. The defects status
B. The defects priority
C. The defects severity
D. The defect's assigned users
344: Which defect status indicates that a defect is ready to be retested?

A. New
B. Fixed
C. Open
D. Reopen
345: A defect has been logged for a test in a test set, which has been removed from the Test Lab
module. Which association remains for the defect?
A. The original test in the Test Plan module
B. The original cycle in the Releases module
C. The original release in the Releases module
D. The original requirement in the Requirements module
346: Which feature allows you to view the order of changes made to a defect?
A. History
B. Details
C. Others
D. Update
347: What types of graphs can be generated in the Test Plan Module under the Live Analysis tab?
Select three.
A. Trend
B. Progress
C. Summary
D. Time Interval
E. Execution Status
348: Which statement is correct about associating defects?

A. Test runs are performed on open and reopened defects.
B. If a requirement has not been met, a defect is not reported for a test run.
C. When a defect is logged for a test instance, it is automatically logged for a test.
D. To remove a defect-test relationship, remove the defect-test instance relationship.
349: What entities can a defect be directly associated with in Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. A cycle
B. Release
C. Test result
D. Attachment
E. Test instance
350: Which command will you use to save your search settings and filter criteria?
A. Group By...
B. View Settings...
C. Save Settings...
D. Add to Favorites...

341 C,D
342 C
343 A
344 B
345 A
346 A
347 A,B,C
348 C
349 C,E
350 D
351: Which statement best describes Quality Center software?
A. It is a Web-based database used to organize and identify configuration items of the testing project.
B. It is a GUI-based functional testing tool used to organize, create, and enhance the testing process.
C. It is a Web-based test management tool used to structure, organize and document phases of the testing project.
D. It is a Web-based application used to govern the entire portfolio of IT projects, applications and opportunities in
real-time.
352: In the test management process within Quality Center, in which phase can traceability links be
added?
A. Track Defects
B. Execute Tests
C. Define Release
D. Define Requirements
E. Develop the Test Plan
353: Which elements of the Release module can be linked directly to a requirement from the
Requirements module? Select two.
A. A cycle
B. Cycle details
C. A release
D. A cycles progress
354: In Quality Center, what is meant by the term "release"?

A. It is a subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles.
B. It is a set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security and performance.
C. It is a group of test cycles that have been completed within a specific time period and all the high priority defects
closed.
D. It is a version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to customers at
the same time.
355: Which statement best describes the Releases folder in the Release module?
A. It is a predefined folder that can be deleted.
B. It is a predefined folder that cannot be deleted.
C. It is a folder that you can add but not delete once it is added.
D. It is a folder that you can add and delete as part of the Release tree.
356: In Quality Center 9.2, what is typically referred to as a version of an application containing a
group of changes that is distributed to customers at the same time?
A. Release
B. Specifications
C. Requirements
D. Line of Business
357: By default, which action can you perform on the predefined RELEASES folder?
A. You can delete or rename according to your requirement and add releases to it.
B. You can only rename according to your requirement; you cannot delete or add to it.
C. You can rename according to your requirement and add releases to it; you cannot delete it.
D. You can only add releases to it; you cannot delete or rename according to your requirement.
358: Which statement is correct about tying a requirement to a cycle in Quality Center, and releasing
it?
A. The requirement is automatically tied to the release
B. You are manually tying the requirement to the release
C. You have to manually link the requirement to each cycle to release it
D. The requirement is automatically tied to all the cycles within the release
359: Which statement is true about releases in Quality Center 9.2?

A. Releases have one-to-one correspondence with a testing cycle.
B. An alpha release can occur with seventy-five percent release cycle progress.
C. A release's start and end date must encompass all cycles within that release.
D. The release process begins by approving the requirements in the Requirements module.
360: What is the sequence of command used to copy a cycle?
A. Right click on the Cycle name and select Repeat cycle
B. Right click on the Release name and select Copy cycle
C. Right click on the Cycle name and select Duplicate cycle
D. Right click on the Release name and select Recreate cycle

351 C
352 D
353 A,C
354 D
355 B
356 A
357 C
358 D
359 C
360 C
361: What are the default requirement types within Quality Center 9.2?
A. System, Group, Testing, Functional, Unknown, and User
B. Business, Folder, Functional, Group, Testing, and Undefined
C. Functional, Business, Group, Undefined, System, and Internal
D. Functional, System, Undefined, Testing, Folder, and Unknown
362: Which are some of the advantages of defining test requirements clearly and correctly at the
beginning of a project? Select three.
A. It helps prevent scope creep.
B. It aids development and testing.
C. It is used as code-base definition.
D. It sets clear expectations between teams.
E. It reduces planning for the infrastructure architecture. .
363: After defining a manual test, which component do you use to add the step details of the test?
A. Detail Editor
B. Script Editor
C. Design Test Editor
D. Design Step Editor
364: Which reports come pre-configured in the Requirements module? Select three.
A. Traced from Requirements
B. Standard Requirements Report
C. Requirements with Linked Bugs
D. Requirements with Pass Status
E. Requirements with Coverage Tests
365: Which statement best describes a requirement?

A. A requirement links the defects found in the application.
B. A requirement provides the timeline of the testing process.
C. A requirement maps the coverage of tests to be performed.
D. A requirement details what needs to be tested in an application.
366: Which sub-tabs does the Requirements Traceability tab contain?

A. Relationships and Impact Analysis
B. Relationships and Traceability Links
C. Impact Analysis and Traceability Links
D. Traceability Relationships and Analysis
367: In relationships between modules in Quality Center 9.2, which statement is true?
A. You are not required to use the Release module in order to use the Requirements Module.
B. You must use the Test Lab module in order to establish linkage between a defect and a requirement.
C. If you want defects linked to test runs, you must log them via the Test Lab module at test execution time.
D. You are required to set up testing requirements in the Requirements Module before you can use the Test Plan
module.
368: When tying a requirement to a cycle, to what else is it automatically tied?

A. To the release of the cycle
B. To other cycles within the release
C. To other requirements within the cycle
D. To other requirements within the release
369: Which command is used to create an automated test from an existing manual test?
A. Generate Test
B. Automate Test
C. Generate Script
D. Automate Script
370: What does the Direct Cover Status field represent?

A. Has the requirement been linked to a test set, and if so, what tests are included?
B. Has the requirement been linked to a cycle, and if so, what is the status of the cycle?
C. Has the requirement been linked to a defect, and if so, what is the status of the defect?
D. Has the requirement been linked to a test, and if so, what is the status of the test's execution?

361 B
362 A,B,D
363 D
364 B,C,E
365 D
366 A
367 A
368 A
369 C
370 D
371: What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?
A. The type of parent requirement
B. The execution status of linked tests
C. The component of the application covered
D. Whether the requirement has any linked defects
372: Which command would you use to modify report settings of Analysis reports?
A. Generate Report
B. Add to Favorites
C. Save Report Settings
D. Configure Report and Sub-reports
373: Using the Excel add-in, what type of data can be exported to Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. Tests
B. Test set
C. Defects
D. Releases
E. Test instance
F. Requirements
374: Which standard graph is specific to the Requirements module?

A. Tabular
B. Standard Requirements
C. Requirements Summary
D. Requirements Coverage
375: When you generate an Excel report, what is an advantage of using parameters?
A. It enables the report to be saved.
B. It enables the user to name the report.
C. It enables the report to be used across projects.
D. It enables the report to be used for different purposes.
376: In the Test Plan module, which tab has the option of converting a Manual test to an Automated
test?
A. Details
B. Test Script
C. Design Steps
D. Req Coverage
377: Which tool will you use to generate a comprehensive report of your project documentation?
A. Live Analysis
B. Microsoft Word
C. Document Generator
D. Excel Report Generator
378: Which predefined graphs are available in the Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
modules?
A. Age and summary
B. Trend and progress
C. Summary and progress
D. Requirements, coverage and age
379: Which Quality Center option enables you to generate graphs?

A. Help menu
B. Tools menu
C. Analysis menu
D. Common menu
380: Once the Microsoft Word add-in is installed on your computer, what Quality Center toolbars will
Word display?
A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common

371 B
372 D
373 A,C,F
374 D
375 D
376 C
377 C
378 C
379 C
380 D
381: If the QA manager would like to know how the testing process is going with respect to a release
cycle, which graph would best serve the requirement?
A. Trend graph
B. Progress graph
C. Summary graph
D. Live Coverage graph
382: If the QA manager would like to see an overview of status of the tests within folder in the Test
Plan Tree, which graph would you generate?
A. Live Analysis
B. Defect Age Graph
C. Coverage Analysis
D. Test Plan Summary
383: Which standard graph is specific to the Defects module?

A. History graph
B. Defects Age graph
C. Defects Coverage graph
D. Fixed or Rejected Defects graph
384: When a predefined report is saved, what are the file extensions allowed? Select two.
A. .txt
B. .xls
C. .html
D. .doc
385: What are template tests?

A. Test designs that contain steps and parameters that are generally reusable across different tests
B. Small automation units taking the form of QTP reusable Actions which accept input from the tester via
parameters
C. Tests, where key fields like Description, Tester, and Status have been pre-set, and can be copied and pasted to
form the basis of new tests
D. Pre-configured Design Steps views that let testers add new columns beyond just the standard Step, Actual
Result, and Expected Result columns
386: Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?

A. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
B. Cycles, Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration
A. M_FORMAT
B. MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C. MAIL_FORM
D. MAIL_FORMAT
388: You use the _________ pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan
module that should appear in the project document.
A. Subject Tree
B. Subject Tests
C. Subject plans
D. Both A & B
389: Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the
following steps
A. Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D. Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
390: You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ________ parameter in
the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.
A. Favorites
B. Favorites_Depth
C. Favorites_view
D. Favorites_Path

381 B
382 A
383 B
384 A,C
385 A
386 C
387 A
388 D
389 D
390 D
Written by
Akhil
Follow Reddy Technologies(13600+)

QC CERTIFICATION QUESTIONS GUIDE

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

QC CERTIFICATION QUESTIONS GUIDE

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

QC CERTIFICATION QUESTIONS

Jul 15, 2014

1: You can export the data in a grid as a ______

13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

D: Word or Power Point

D: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

22: Quality Center organizes and displays data in ________

26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________

D: Order in which they were deleted.

D. None of the above

B. HP Quality Center add-in.

D. HP Quality Center License

C. Script Editor D. Script Editing

38: You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

C. Find & Replace

D. Replace & Find

B. Risk breakdown or risk assessment

D. Risk analysis or risk evaluation

B. Business Vitality and Failure Probability

C. Business Criticality and Failure Probability

56: The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:

B. Critical, Importance, Nice to Have

57: The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:

58: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels.

B. Full, Partial, Basic, and None

D. Full, Partial, Critical, and None

D. Both A & B E: Both B & C

B. Run Tests Manually

73: The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

B. Test Select and Set Tests

76: You can organize test execution by creating _______

B. Test sets flow

C. Test sets grid

D. Test sets rows

C. Highest level folder

B. Run Events Grid

D. Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs

94: The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means

101: You can view a list of alerts for a _____________ entity.

102: A red flag indicates that the alert is _____________

103: A gray flag indicates that the alert __________.

B. has already been read

107: You save favorite views in ______

D. Public & Private folder

109: The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:

110: Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

Question No. Correct Answer

113: Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A. Trace from, Trace to

B. Trace to, Trace from

D. Trace to select, Trace from select

A. Business Criticality & Failure Probability

119: Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:

A. First, second, third, and fourth

A. Missing risk assessment

Question No. Correct Answer

B. Trace to, Trace from

A. Author of the requirement

B. Users authorized by the Author of the requirement

Question No. Correct Answer

A. Attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

B. Missing assessment field