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MCQs On

Industrial &
Labour Laws
1. As per the Factories Act, 1948 any engine, 4. As per the Factories Act, 1948 'adolescent'
motor or other appliance which generates or means a person who has completed
otherwise provides power is defined as (A) 18th year but not completed 21st year
(A) Prime mover (B) 15th year but not completed 18th year
(B) Power (C) 16th year but not completed 18th year
(C) Transmission machinery (D) 15th year but not completed 21st year.
(D) Machinery.
5. As per section 16 of the Factories Act,
2. Section 13A of the Payment of Wages 1948 the minimum space to be allocated
Act, 1936 provides that every register and to each worker employed in
record required to be maintained shall be the factory is
preserved for a period of _________ after (A) 12.2 cubic metres
the date of last entry made therein. (B) 13.2 cubic metres
(A) Five years (C) 14.2 cubic metres
(B) Three years (C) (D) 15.2 cubic metres.
Eight years (D)
One year. 6. According to section 3 of the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948 the _______ may review
3. A premises including precincts thereof is at such intervals as it may think fit, such
a 'factory' within the meaning of the intervals __________ years, and revise the
Factories Act, 1948 whereon ______ are minimum rate of wages, if necessary.
working, or were working on any day of (A) Appropriate Government; not
the preceding twelve months and in any exceeding five
part of which a manufacturing process is (B) Central government; exceeding five
being carried on with the aid of power or (C) State government; not exceeding three
is ordinarily so carried on; or whereon (D) Local authority; exceeding three.
________ are working, or were working
on a day of the preceding twelve months, 7. As per section 90 of the Factories Act,
and in any part of which a manufacturing 1948 the State Government may, if it
process is being carried on without the aid considers it expedient to do so, appoint a
of power, or is ordinarily so carried on. competent person to inquire into the causes
(A) 10 or more workers; 20 or more of any accident occurring in a factory or
workers into any case where a disease specified in
(B) 20 or more workers; 10 or more ________ has been, or is suspected to have
workers been contracted in the factory.
(C) 10 or more workers; 100 or more (A) First schedule and second schedule
workers (B) Second schedule and sixth schedule
(D) 15 or more workers; 20 or more (C) Third schedule
workers. (D) Fifth schedule

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8. Under section 40B of the Factories 10. As per section 6 of the Payment of Wages
Act, 1948 in every factory, wherein Act, 1936 all wages shall be paid in current
_______ or more workers are ordinarily coin or currency notes or in both. However,
the employer may, after obtaining the
employed, or wherein, in the opinion of
written authorisation of the employed
the State Government, any manufacturing person, pay him the wages either by
process or operation is carried on, where ____________ or by crediting the wages
process or operation involves any risk of in his ___________.
bodily injury, poisoning or disease, or any (A) Currency notes; post office passbook
other hazard to health, to the persons (B) Cheque; post office passbook
employed in the factory, the occupier shall, (C) Draft; bank account
if so required by the State Government by (D) Cheque; bank account.
notification in the Official Gazette, employ
such number of ___________ as may be 11. As per section 48 of the Factories Act,
specified in that notification. 1948 in every factory wherein more than
____________ women workers are
(A) One thousand; safety officers
ordinarily employed, the facility of suitable
(B) Five hundred; health officers room or rooms should be provided and
(C) Four hundred; welfare officers maintained for the use of children under
(D) Two hundred; inspection officers. the age of ___________ of such women.
(A) 30; six years (B)
9. As per section 53 of the Factories Act, 1948 50; five years
where, as a result of the passing of an order (C) 75; seven years
or the making of a rule under the provisions (D) 100; five years.
of this Act exempting a factory or the
workers therein from the provisions of 12. __________ means any trade or occupation
or any subject field in engineering or
weekly holidays, a worker deprived of any technology or any vocational course which
of the weekly holidays for which provision the Central Government, after consultation
is made, he shall be allowed, within the with the Central Apprenticeship Council,
month in which the holidays were due to may, by notification in the Official Gazette,
specify as a __________ for the purposes
him or within the two months immediately
of Apprentices Act, 1961.
following that month, _________ of equal
(A) Technical trade; technical training
number to the holidays so lost.
(B) Technical trade; apprenticeship
(A) Earned leave training
(B) Restricted holidays (C) Designated trade; apprenticeship
(C) Compensatory holidays training
(D) Accumulated leave. (D) Designated trade; designated trade.

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13. The payment of wages of certain classes of 17. The term _________ means work in respect
employed persons is regulated by the of which the skill, effort and responsibility
(A) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 required are the same, when performed
(B) Minimum Wages Act, 1948 under similar working conditions, by a man
(C) Payment of Wages Act, 1936 or a woman and the differences, if any,
(D) Employees' Compensation Act, 1923. between the skill, effort and responsibility
required of a man and those required of a
14. Section 5 of the Payment of Wages Act, woman are not of practical importance in
1936 specifies that the wages of every relation to the terms and conditions of
person employed upon or in any railway employment; is defined under the _____ .
factory or industrial or other establishment (A) Same work; Maternity Benefit
upon or in which less than one thousand Act, 1961
persons are employed, shall be paid before (B) Same work or work of a similar
the expiry of the ______________ day. The nature; Equal Remuneration Act,
wages of every person employed upon or 1976
in any other railway factory or industrial or (C) Standing work; Equal Remuneration
other establishment shall be paid before the Act, 1976
expiry of the ______________ day, after (D) Occupation; The Child Labour
the last day of the wage-period in respect (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
of which the wages are payable. 1986.
(A) Seventh; seventh
(B) Fifth; seventh 18. Certain benefits are provided to employees
(C) Seventh; tenth in case of sickness, maternity and
(D) Eighth; tenth. employment injury and provisions for
certain other matters in relation thereto have
15. The 'occupier' of a factory under the been detailed under
Factories Act, 1948 is required to appoint (A) The Factories Act, 1948
a Welfare Officer where number of workers (B) The Employees' State Insurance
employed are Act, 1948
(A) 200 (B)
(C) The Employees' Compensation
300 (C) 400
Act, 1923
(D) 500 or more.
(D) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
Section 17 of the Minimum Wages Act,
19. Which of the following is not a 'dependent'
16. 1948 provides that where an employee is
as per section 2(6A) of the Employees' State
engaged in work on piece work basis for
Insurance Act, 1948
which minimum time rate and not a
minimum piece rate has been fixed, wages (A) A widowed daughter-in-law
shall be paid at (B) A minor child of a pre-deceased son
(A) Minimum piece rate (C) A minor child of a pre-deceased
(B) Over-time rate daughter where no parent of the child
(C) Minimum time rate is alive
(D) Normal rate. (D) A paternal grandparent, if parent of
the insured person is alive.

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20. According to section 40 of the Employees' 23. According to section 10 of the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965 every employer shall be
State Insurance Act, 1948 it is incumbent
bound to pay to every employee in respect
upon the principal employer to pay both of any accounting year a minimum bonus
the employer's contributions and the which shall be _________ of the salary or
employee's contribution in respect of every wage earned by the employee during the
accounting year or __________, whichever
employee whether directly employed by is higher, whether or not the employer has
him or by or through any allocable surplus in the accounting year.
(A) Insurable employment (A) 8.33%; `100
(B) Insured person (B) 8.33%; `1,000
(C) Immediate employer (C) 20%; `100
(D) 20%; `1,000.
(D) Seasonal factory.

24. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947


21. The Employees' State Insurance _________ means the temporary closing
Corporation to function efficiently has of a place of employment or suspension
been provided with two wings namely
of work or the refusal by __________ to
(A) Benefit Committee and Corporation continue to employ any number of persons
Committee so employed.
(B) Corporation Committee and Medical (A) Lay-off; an employer
Benefit Council
(B) Lock out; an employer
(C) Workers Committee and Standing
(C) Strike; Government
Committee
(D) Retrenchment; an employer.
(D) Standing Committee and Medical
Benefit Council.
25. Every employee shall be entitled to be paid
by his employer in an accounting year,
22. As per the Employees' Pension Scheme, bonus, in accordance with the provisions
1995 members on attaining the age of
of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
________ and having rendered a minimum
provided he has worked in the establishment
of ________ of contributory service qualify in that year for not less than
for pension from superannuation fund.
(A) 45 Working days
(A) Fifty-eight years; 15 years
(B) 30 Working days
(B) Fifty-eight years; 10 years
(C) 180 Working days
(C) Sixty years; 15 years
(D) 270 Working days.
(D) Sixty years; 10 years.

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26. Under section 2(4) of the Payment of 28. Section 6B of the Employees' Provident
Bonus Act, 1965 'allocable surplus' means Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,
(a) in relation to an employer, being a 1952 empowers the Central Government
to frame a Scheme for the purpose of
company (other than a banking company)
providing life insurance benefit to the
which has not made the arrangements
employees of any establishment or class of
prescribed under the Income-tax Act, 1961 establishments to which the Act applies,
for the declaration and payment within known as the
India, of the dividends payable out of its (A) Employees' Contribution Scheme
profits in accordance with the provisions (B) Employees' Retirement Scheme
of section 194 of that Act, ________ of the (C) Employees' Deposit-Linked Insurance
available surplus in an accounting year; Scheme
(D) Employees' Pension Scheme.
(b) in any other case ________ of such
available surplus.
29. Under section 29 of the Employees'
(A) 67%; 50% (B) State Insurance Act, 1948 Employees'
60%; 67% (C) State Insurance Corporation is empowered
50%; 60% (D) to :
(i) acquire and hold property, both
67%; 60%. movable and immovable
(ii) invest any money and reinvest or
27. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 applies realise such investment
to (a) every factory; and (b) every other (iii) raise loans and discharge loans
Select the correct answer from the options
establishment in which __________ persons
given below
are employed on any day during an (A) (i) only
accounting year. The appropriate (B) (i) and (ii) only (C)
Government may, by notification in the (ii) and (iii) only (D)
Official Gazette specify any establishment (i), (ii) and (iii).
or class of establishment (including an
establishment being a factory within the 30. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
meaning of sub-clause (ii) of clause (m) of where the services of an employee have
been terminated for any act which
Section 2 of the Factories Act, 1948)
constitutes an offence involving moral
employing such number of persons as may
turpitude, provided that such offence is
be specified in the notification; so, however, committed by him in the course of his
that the number of persons so specified shall employment, the gratuity payable to the
in no case be less than ____________ . employee may be
(A) Ten or more; twenty (A) Only partially forfeited
(B) Wholly or partially forfeited
(B) Twenty or more; ten
(C) Only wholly forfeited
(C) Twenty or less than twenty; two (D) Withheld and distributed to other
(D) Less than twenty; twenty. employees.

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31. As per section 13 of the Payment of 34. As per section 19 of the Maternity Benefit
Gratuity Act, 1972 no gratuity payable under Act, 1961 __________ of the provisions
of this Act and the rules made thereunder
this Act and no gratuity payable to an
in the language or languages of the locality
employee employed in any establishment, shall be exhibited in a conspicuous place
factory, mine, oilfield, plantation, port, by the employer in every part of the
railway company or shop exempted under establishment in which women are
section 5 of the Act, shall be liable to employed.
(A) A book
attachment in execution of any decree
(B) A register
or order of any
(C) An abstract (D)
(A) Civil, revenue or criminal court A copy.
(B) Civil court only
(C) Revenue court only 35. To make an employer liable under the
Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 it is
(D) Revenue or criminal court only. necessary that the injury caused to an
employee by an accident, must
arise
32. As per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the
(A) Out of employment only
method used to fix minimum wages in (B) In the course of employment only
respect of scheduled employment is (C) Out of employment and in the course
called of employment
(A) Employment method (D) During termination of employment.
(B) Appropriate method
36. Section 21 of the Contract Labour
(C) Committee and notification method (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(D) Wage method. provides that a _____________ shall be
responsible for payment of wages to each
worker employed by him as contract labour
33. As per the Employees' Compensation and such wages shall be paid before the
Act, 1923 in the case of permanent total expiry of such period as may be prescribed
and every principal employer shall nominate
disablement and death resulting from an
a representative duly authorised by him to
injury, the minimum amount of be present at the time of disbursement of
compensation payable to an employee wages by the contractor and it shall be the
is duty of such representative to ________
the amount paid as wages in such manner
(A) `90,000 and `1,00,000 respectively as may be prescribed.
(B) `1,00,000 and `1,40,000 respectively (A) Principal employer; grant
(C) `1,20,000 and `1,30,000 respectively (B) Contractor; deduct
(C) Contractor; certify
(D) `1,40,000 and `1,20,000 respectively.
(D) Principal employer; authorise.

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37. The rate of employees' and employers 40. Section 16 of the Contract Labour
contributions in the Employees' State (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
Insurance Scheme is requires that in every establishment to
(A) 4.75% and 1.75% respectively which this Act applies, wherein contract
labour numbering 100 or more is ordinarily
(B) 1.65% and 5.61% respectively
employed by a contractor and the
(C) 1.75% and 4.75% respectively employment of the contract labour is likely
(D) 5.75% and 1.25% respectively. to continue for such period as may be
prescribed, the contractor for the use of such
38. Under section 2(oo) of the Industrial contract labour shall provide and maintain
Disputes Act, 1947 termination of the one or more
services of a workman by the employer for (A) Guard rooms
any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a (B) Creches (C)
punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary Canteens (D)
action, but not including voluntary Gyms.
retirement; or super-annuation; or non-
renewal of contract of employment; or 41. Section 11 of the Maternity Benefit Act,
termination of service on the ground of 1961 provides that every woman
continued ill-health is known as delivered of a child who returns to duty
(A) Settlement after such delivery shall, in addition to the
interval for rest allowed to her, be allowed
(B) Retirement
in the course of her daily work ________
(C) Suspension
break(s) of the prescribed duration for
(D) Retrenchment. nursing the child until the child attains the
age of ________.
39. As per section 10B of the Employees' (A) One; ten months
Compensation Act, 1923 ________ means (B) Two; fifteen months
an injury which involves, or in all (C) Two; twenty months
probability will involve, the permanent loss (D) Four; fifteen months.
of the use of, or permanent injury to, any
limb, or the permanent loss of or injury to
42. Injury resulting in absolute deafness to an
the sight or hearing, or the fracture of any
employee due to accident under the
limb, or the enforced absence of the
Employees' Compensation Act, 1923 is
injured person from work for a period
treated as
exceeding _____________.
(A) Serious bodily injury; twenty days (A) Permanent partial disablement
(B) Bodily injury; twenty-five days (B) Permanent total disablement
(C) Injury; three days (C) Temporary partial disablement
(D) Fatal accident; one day. (D) Temporary total disablement.

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43. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 inter alia, 46. Under section 7 of the Child Labour
applies to every shop or establishment (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 the
within the meaning of any law for the time period of work on each day shall be so
being in force in relation to shops and fixed that no period shall exceed
establishments in a State, in which ____________ and no child shall work for
___________ persons are employed, or more than ____________ before he has
were employed, on any day of the had an interval for rest for at least one hour.
preceding ___________ . (A) 8 hours; 8 hours (B)
(A) Ten or more; twelve months 5 hours; 5 hours (C) 3
(B) Twenty or more; six months hours; 3 hours (D) 4
(C) Ten or more; two years hours; 4 hours.
(D) Less than ten; twelve months.
47. As per section 12 of the Child Labour
44. Section 10 of the Industrial Employment (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946 states that every railway administration, every port
standing orders finally certified under the
authority and every occupier shall cause to
Act shall not, except on agreement between
be displayed in a conspicuous and
the employer and the workmen or a trade
accessible place at every station on its
union or other representative body of the
workmen be liable to modification until the railway or within the limits of a port or at
expiry of ____________ from the date on the place of work, as the case may be, a
which the standing orders or the last notice in the local language and in the
modifications thereof came into operation. ______________ containing an abstract
(A) Three months of _____________.
(B) Six months (A) Regional language; sections 3 and 14
(C) Nine months (B) Hindi language; sections 4 and 15
(D) Twelve months. (C) English language; sections 5 and 16
(D) English language; sections 3 and 14.
45. As per schedule to the Child Labour
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, bidi 48. Under the Industrial Employment
making and aggarbatti manufacturing are (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 the function
treated as of a certifying officer or the appellate
(A) Occupations set forth in Part-A of the authority is to adjudicate upon the
Schedule _____________ of the provisions of the
(B) Processes set forth in Part-B of the standing orders.
Schedule (A) Fairness or reasonableness
(C) Occupations set forth in Part-B of the (B) Legality
Schedule (C) Absoluteness
(D) Processes set forth in Part-A of the (D) Clarity.
Schedule.

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49. Section 10A of the Industrial Employment 51. The violation of section 3 of the Child
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946 provides that Labour (Prohibition and Regulation)
where any workman is suspended by the Act, 1986 shall be punishable with
employer pending investigation or inquiry imprisonment for a term not less than
into complaints or charges of misconduct _________ but which may extend to one
against him, the employer shall pay to such year or with fine which shall not be less
a workman the subsistence allowance at than ten thousand rupees but which may
the rate of ___________ of the wages which extend to ____________ or with both.
the workman was entitled to immediately (A) One month; ten thousand rupees
preceding the date of such suspension, for (B) Three months; twenty thousand
the first ninety days of suspension; and at
rupees
the rate of _________ of such wages for
(C) Six months; twenty-five thousand
the remaining period of suspension if the
rupees
delay in the completion of disciplinary
(D) Nine months; fifty thousand rupees.
proceedings against such workman is not
directly attributable to the conduct of such
52. The text of the 'standing orders' as
workman.
finally certified under Industrial
(A) 50%; 90% (B)
Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
75%; 50% (C)
shall be prominently posted by the employer
50%; 75% (D)
in ____________ and in the language
90%; 75%.
understood by the majority of his workmen
on _____________ to be maintained for
50. Under section 13A of the Industrial the purpose at or near the entrance through
Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 which the majority of the workmen enter
if any question arises as to the application the industrial establishment and in all
or interpretation of a standing order departments thereof where the workmen are
certified under this Act, any employer or employed.
workman or a trade union or other (A) Hindi; special board
representative body of the workmen may (B) English; black board
refer the question to any one of the _______ (C) Urdu; sizable board
constituted under the ___________, and (D) English; special board.
specified for the disposal of such proceeding
by the appropriate Government by 53. Under the Apprentices Act, 1961 any
notification in the Official Gazette. disagreement or dispute between an
(A) Authority; Industrial Employment employer and an apprentice arising out of
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946. the contract of apprenticeship shall be
(B) Tribunal; Industrial Employment referred for decision to the
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946 (A) Apprenticeship Director
(C) Courts; Industrial Employment (B) Apprenticeship Adviser
(Standing Orders) Act, 1946 (C) Apprenticeship Committee
(D) Labour Courts; Industrial Disputes (D) Apprenticeship Tribunal.
Act, 1947.

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54. The preamble of the Industrial Disputes 57. Under of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Act, 1947 states that it is an Act to make unfair labour practices on the part of
provision for the ________ and ________ employers and trade unions of employers
of industrial disputes and for certain other are specified in
purposes.
(A) Second schedule
(A) Investigation; settlement
(B) Third schedule
(B) Inquiry; arbitration
(C) Investigation; safety (C) Fourth schedule
(D) Inquiry; welfare. (D) Fifth schedule.

55. Under section 3 of the Industrial Disputes 58. The Supreme Court carried out an in-depth
Act, 1947 the appropriate Government may study of the definition of the term 'industry'
by general or special order require the in a comprehensive manner and laid down
employer to constitute in the prescribed the tests to determine whether an activity is
manner _______________ in industrial covered by the definition of 'industry' or
establishments, where _________ or more
not. Also referred to as the triple test, it
workmen are employed or have been
was laid down in the case of
employed on any working day in the
preceding 12 months and such Committee (A) Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea
will be comprised of the representatives of Estate v. Dimakuchi Tea Estate
employers and workmen engaged in the (B) Hospital Employees Union v.
establishment. Christian Medical College
(A) An Appropriate Committee; 300 (C) Bangalore Water Supply and
(B) An Employer's Committee; 200 Sewerage Board v. A Rajappa
(C) A Works Committee; 100 (D) Corporation of City of Nagpur v.
(D) A Government Committee; 500. Employee.

56. As per the Trade Unions Act, 1926 a


registered trade union of workmen shall at 59. As per the Labour Laws (Exemption
all times continue to have not less than from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining
____________ or ___________ of the Registers by Certain Establishments)
workmen, whichever is less, subject to a Act, 1988 employer of very small
minimum of seven, engaged or employed establishment is required to furnish a core
in an establishment or industry with
return in
which it is connected, as its members.
(A) 7%; 70 (A) Form A
(B) 10%; 100 (C) (B) Form B
10%; 120 (C) Form C
(D) 15%; 100. (D) Form D.

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60. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 63. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
which of the following matter does not which of the following matter does not
fall within the jurisdiction of Industrial fall within the jurisdiction of Labour
Tribunals Courts

(A) Classification by grades (A) Hours of work and rest intervals

(B) Rationalisation (B) The application and interpretation of


(C) Leave with wages and holidays standing orders
(C) Withdrawal of any customary
(D) Illegality or otherwise of a strike or
concession or privilege
lock-out.
(D) The propriety or legality of an order
passed by an employer under
61. As per section 2(g) of the Minimum Wages
standing orders.
Act, 1948 'scheduled employment' means
an employment specified in the schedule
or any process or branch of work forming 64. __________ means any dispute between
part of such employment. The schedule is employers and workmen, or between
divided into two parts namely, Part I and workmen and workmen, or between
Part II. Part II relates to employments employers and employers, which is
in connected with the employment or non-
(A) Industry employment, or the terms of employment
(B) Agriculture or the conditions of labour, of any person,
(C) Local authority and 'workmen' means all persons employed
(D) Mines. in trade or industry whether or not in the
employment of the employer with whom
the trade dispute arises as defined under
62. As per section 22 of the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 no person employed in the _____________ .
a public utility service shall go on strike in (A) Trade dispute; Industrial Disputes
breach of contract without giving to the Act, 1947
employer a notice of strike, within _______
before striking or within fourteen days of (B) Industrial dispute; Industrial Disputes
giving such notice. Act, 1947
(A) Three weeks (C) Trade dispute; Trade Union Act, 1926
(B) Six weeks
(D) Company dispute; Companies
(C) Eight weeks (D)
Act, 1956.
Five weeks.

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65. As per section 27 of the Trade Unions 68. Under section 2(g) of the Employment
Act, 1926 when a registered trade union is Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of
dissolved, notice of the dissolution Vacancies) Act, 1959 'establishment in
signed by seven members and by the private sector' means an establishment
____________ of the trade union shall be which is not an establishment in public
sent to the Registrar, within ___________ sector and where ordinarily __________
of the dissolution. or more persons are employed to work for
(A) Manager; one month remuneration.
(B) Director; twenty-one days (A) Ten
(C) Managing Director; twenty-one clear (B) Twenty-five
days (C) Fifty
(D) Secretary; fourteen days. (D) One hundred.

66. In terms of the Labour Laws (Exemption 69. As per the Apprentices Act, 1961 a person
from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining shall not be qualified for being engaged as
Registers by Certain Establishments) an apprentice to undergo apprenticeship
Act, 1988 'small establishment' means an training in any designated trade, if such
establishment in which not less than person is not less than
_____________ and not more nineteen (A) 14 years of age and satisfies
persons are employed or were employed prescribed standards of education and
on any day of the preceding twelve months physical fitness
and 'very small establishment' means an (B) 16 years of age and satisfies
establishment in which not more than prescribed standards of education
____________ persons are employed or (C) 18 years of age and satisfies
were employed on any day of the preceding prescribed standards of physical
twelve months. fitness
(A) Ten; fifteen (D) 21 years of age and satisfies
(B) Ten; twenty prescribed standards of education and
(C) Ten; nine physical fitness.
(D) Twenty; nine.
70. Under the Apprentices Act, 1961 every
67. The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory apprentice undergoing apprenticeship
Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 training in a designated trade in an
applies in relation to vacancies in any establishment shall be ______________
employment and not a worker and the provisions of any
(A) In domestic services law with respect to labour shall ________
(B) To do unskilled office work to or in relation to such apprentice.
(C) Where the period of employment is (A) Employee of the establishment; apply
less than three months (B) Trainee; apply
(D) In an establishment in public sector. (C) Trainee; not apply
(D) Employee of the establishment; not
apply.

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71.
Which one of the following Articles of the 74. It shall be the duty of every citizen of India
Constitution of India prohibits the State (i) to abide by the Constitution and respect
from discriminating against any citizen on its ideals and institutions, the National Flag
grounds of religion, race, cast, sex, place and the National Anthem; (ii) to cherish
of birth or any of them and follow the noble ideals which inspired
(A) Article 15(1) our national struggle for freedom; (iii) to
(B) Article 15(4) uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
(C) Article 16 (D) and integrity of India; (iv) to defend the
Article 19. country and render national service when
72. called upon to do so.
Articles 123 and 213 of the Constitution of All of the above mentioned are :
India have conferred the legislative power (i) Fundamental Rights (ii)
to promulgate Ordinance on the Fundamental Duties
(A) Chief Justice of India and Election (iii) Directive Principles of State Policy
Commissioner of India respectively (iv) State Principles
(B) Governor of the State and President Select the correct answer from the options
of India respectively given below
(C) President of India and Governor of (A) (ii) only
the State respectively (B) (i) and (ii) only
(D) Chief Justice of India and (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Chief Justice of every High Court (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
respectively.
75. Every High Court shall have power,
73.
The definition of the 'State' as given under throughout the territories in relation to
Article 12 of the Constitution of India which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to
includes which of the following : any person or authority, including in
(i) The Government and Parliament of appropriate cases, any Government, within
India only those territories, directions, orders or writs.
(ii) The Government and the Legislature Which of the following writs may be issued
of each State only by the High Court : (i)
(iii) All local or other authorities within Habeas corpus
India and under the control of the (ii) Mandamus (iii)
Government of India only Prohibition
Select the correct answer from the options (iv) Quo warranto and certiorari
given below Select the correct answer from the options
(A) (i) only given below
(B) (i) and (ii) only (C) (A) (i) only
(ii) and (iii) only (D) (B) (i) and (ii) only
(i), (ii) and (iii). (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

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The State must endeavour to secure living 79. In the interpretation of statutes, where
76. there are general words following particular
wage and good standard of life to all types
of workers and make provision for securing and specific words, the general words
the right to work and public assistance in following particular and specific words must
case of unemployment, old age. These be confined to things of the same kind as
provisions are contained in the Constitution those specified, unless there is a clear
of India under manifestation of a contrary purpose. Such
(A) Fundamental Rights rule of interpretation is called

(B) Fundamental Duties (A) Rule of ejusdem generis

(C) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Rule of literal construction


(D) Social measures. (C) Rule of reasonable construction
(D) Doctrine of cy pres.
According to Article 21A of the
77. Constitution of India, the State shall provide
80. If there is any appearance of inconsistency
free and compulsory education to all between the schedule and a specific
children of the age of six to fourteen years provision in an enactment, the ________
in such manner as the State may, by law, shall prevail.
determine. This right is known as Right to (A) Schedule
Education and was introduced by the
(B) Regulation (C)
Constitution in 2002 as
Enactment
(A) Eighty-seventh Amendment
(D) Circular.
(B) Eighty-sixth Amendment
(C) Ninety-sixth Amendment
(D) Ninety-seventh Amendment. 81. The legal maxim 'actus curiae neminem
gravabit' means

Executive legislation, judicial legislation, (A) Act of the Court shall prejudice no
78. municipal legislation and autonomous one
legislation are treated as (B) An act does not make a man guilty
(A) Main legislation unless there be guilty intention
(B) Subordinate legislation (C) The very act is punishable and no
(C) Para legislation proof of damage is required
(D) Primary legislation. (D) For the particular end or case at hand.

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The legal maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' 85. Under section 3 of the Indian Evidence
82.
means Act, 1872 'evidence' means and includes
(A) Precedent all statements which the Court permits or
requires to be made before it by witnesses,
(B) Of utmost good faith
in relation to matters of fact under inquiry.
(C) Damage suffered by consent gives no
Such statements are called
cause of action
(A) Oral evidence
(D) Where there is a right there is remedy.
(B) Personal evidence
(C) Circumstantial evidence
In certain cases it is lawful to redress one's (D) Factual evidence.
83. injuries by means of self help without
recourse to the court. Self defence,
86. ___________ means harm, loss or damage
prevention of trespass, re-entry on land, in respect of money, comfort, health, etc.
abatement of nuisance are remedies whereas _________ means infringement of
available to the plaintiff for self help. These a right conferred by law on the plaintiff.
remedies are called
(A) Damnum, injuria
(A) Judicial remedies (B) Injuria, damnum
(B) Extra-judicial remedies (C) Legal remedy, mens rea
(C) Non-judicial remedies (D) Mens rea, injury.
(D) Self help.
87. Section 39 of the ________ provides that
when, to prevent the breach of an
The period of limitation in terms of
84. obligation, it is necessary to compel the
sections 2(j) and 3 of the Limitation Act,
performance of certain acts which the Court
1963 to file a suit is ___________ for the
is capable of enforcing, the Court may in
balance due on a mutual, open and current
its discretion grant an injunction to prevent
account, where there have been reciprocal
the breach complained of and also to compel
demands between the parties.
performance of the requisite acts.
(A) Three years
(A) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(B) Two years (C)
(B) Specific Relief Act, 1963
One year (C) Limitation Act, 1963
(D) Six months. (D) Indian Contract Act, 1872.
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A decree through which the right as to 92. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure,
88. any property or the legal character of a 1973 ___________ means a case in which,
person is judicially ascertained is known a police officer may, in accordance with
as the ______________ or under any other
(A) De jure law for the time being in force, arrest
(B) Dissent property
without warrant.
(C) De facto
(A) Cognizable case; first schedule
(D) Declaratory decree.
(B) Non-cognizable case; second
schedule
89. "Interpretation or construction is the process
by which the Courts seek to ascertain the (C) Cognizable case; second schedule
meaning of the legislature through the (D) Non-cognizable case; first schedule.
medium of the authoritative forms in which
it is expressed". The above statement is 93. As per section 29 of the Code of
given by Criminal Procedure, 1973 the Court of a
(A) Salmond (B) Chief Judicial Magistrate is empowered
Maxwell (C) to pass
Crawford
(A) Sentence of death
(D) Lone Fuller.
(B) Sentence of life imprisonment
(C) Any sentence authorised by law
90. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
a person against whom a decree has been except a sentence of death or
passed or an order capable of execution imprisonment of life or imprisonment
has been made, is called for a term exceeding seven years
(A) Lender (D) Sentence of death and life
(B) Judgement debtor imprisonment.
(C) Legal representative of the debtor
(D) Creditor. 94. As per section 29 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 the Court of a Magistrate
91. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, of the First Class is authorised to pass a
1908 deals with the sentence of
(A) Judgement debtor (A) Imprisonment up to 3 years
(B) Sub-judicata (B) Imprisonment up to 5 years
(C) Stay of Suit (D) (C) Imprisonment up to 7 years
Res judicata. (D) Imprisonment up to 10 years.

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In which of the following categories of public authority. The burden of proving that
95. cases, a police officer may arrest a person the denial of information was justified lies
without an order from a Magistrate and on the
without a warrant : (A) Central Information Commission
(i) Who is reasonably suspected of being (B) First Appellate Authority
a deserter from any of the Armed (C) Public Information Officer
Forces of the Union (D) State Information Commission.
(ii) Who has been proclaimed as an
offender either under the Code of 98. The Right to Information Act, 2005
Criminal Procedurs, 1973 or by order exempts certain categories of information
of the State Government from disclosure. These categories of
(iii) Who being a released convict, information have been provided under
commits a breach of any rule, relating (A) Section 6 of the RTI Act, 2005
to notification of residence or change (B) Section 7 of the RTI Act, 2005
(C) Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005
of or absence from residence
(D) Section 19 of the RTI Act, 2005.
Select the correct answer from the options
given below
99. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005
(A) (i) only
on failing to provide information, Public
(B) (i) and (ii) only (C)
Information Officer will be liable for a
(ii) and (iii) only (D)
fine of
(i), (ii) and (iii).
(A) `250 per day upto a maximum of
` 25,000
In some torts, the defendant is held liable
96. (B) `200 per day upto a maximum of
even though the harm caused to the plaintiff
` 50,000
is without intention or negligence on the
(C) `500 per day upto a maximum of
part of the defendant. Thus, the defendant
` 75,000
is held liable without fault. This is based (D) `250 per day upto a maximum of
on the rule of strict liability which was first ` 1,00,000.
laid down in the case of
(A) Rylands vs. Fletcher 100. Where life or liberty of a person is involved,
(B) Read vs. Lyons the information shall be provided under the
(C) Nicholas vs. Marshal Right to Information Act, 2005 by the
(D) Lyods vs. Grace. (A) Central Information Commission
within 30 days
97. The Right to Information Act, 2005 (B) First Appellate Authority within 48
provides for setting out the practical regime hours
of right to information for citizens to secure (C) Public Information Officer within 48
access to information held by public hours
authorities in order to promote transparency (D) Chief Information Commission within
and accountability in the working of every 30 days.

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