Nupget Ab Shetty 2016

NUPGET( AB shetty ) 2016
1) Functional cusp bevel in tooth preparation provides

a) Structural durability c) Resistance form
b) Retention form d) All of these
Answer A
An integral part of the occlusal reduction is the functional cusp bevel.
A wide bevel on the palatal inclines of the maxillary palatal cusps and the facial
inclines of mandibular facial cusps provides space for an adequate bulk of metal in an
area of heavy occlusal contact, thus provides the structural durability of the
restoration.
On most posterior teeth, the functional cusp bevel is placed at an angle of

approximately 45 degrees to the long axis of the prepared tooth.
Ref Shillingburg HT etal. Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics. 3rd Edition page no.127
2) Correct indication for a lingual plate is

a) When the lingual sulcus id deep
b) When the ridge is not enough to support the teeth
c) When more number of anterior teeth are involved
d) Any of the above can be an indication
Answer B
Indications for lingual plate: (1) when the alveolar lingual sulcus so closely
approximates the lingual gingival crevices that adequate width for a rigid lingual bar
does not exist.
(2)In those instances in which the residual ridges in Class I arch have undergone such
vertical resorption that they will offer only minimal resistance to horizontal rotations
of the denture through its bases.
(3) For using periodontally weakened teeth in group function to furnish support to the
prosthesis and to help resist horizontal (off-vertical) rotation of the distal extension
type of denture.
(4) When the future replacement of one or more incisor teeth will be facilitated by the
addition of retention loops to an existing linguoplate.
Ref McCrackens removable partial prosthodontics; 12th edition page no.52
3) Cavosurface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is

a) Always 90
b) 90 or less than 90
c) 90 or more than 90
d) 120
Answer C
b - Knife-edgefinish linewith a cavosurface angle approaching 180.
c - Chamfer finish line with a cavosurface angle of 130-160. Most commonly used
for metal crowns.
e - Shoulder finish line with a cavosurface angle of 90. Most commonly used for
ceramic crowns.
Ref Smith BGN, Howe LC. Planning and making crowns & bridges. 4thEdition. pg. 54
4) To transfer the axis Orbital plane, we need

a) Arbitrary face bow
b) Kinematic face bow
c) Either arbitrary or kinematic face bow
d) An ear bow only
Answer C
Ear bow is a type of an instrument which is used to measure or obtain the axis orbital plane
using the three reference points.
Once the axis orbital plane is recorded it is transferred to the maxillary cast using either
arbitrary or kinematic facebows.
Ref BoucherTextbook of Complete denture 12th edition. Pg no. 285-7
5) Which one of the following materials is used for taking impression of flabby ridge?
a) Hydrocolloid
b) Impression plaster
c) Putty Silicone
d) Heavy body silicone
Answer B
Flabby/ hypermobile tissue, if localised can be managed and retained using a non
pressure mucostatic impression technique.
Thus impression plaster can be used. If the flabby tissue is excessive and pendulous,
interfering with denture stability, it should be surgically removed.
Ref Winklers Essentials of complete denture prosthodontics. 2nd edition Pg no. 62-3
6) The generally accepted threshold limit value for exposure to mercury vapour for 40
hour work load (Per week ) is
a) 5 milligram
b) 50 milligram
c) 5 microgram / m3
d) 50 microgram / m3
Answer D
The threshold value for workers in the mercury industry is 350 to 500 g per day, depending
on activity level, and is based on an exposure of 40 hr per week.
The minimum level of occupational exposure considered safe is 50 g of mercury per cubic
meter of air per day.
This is actually an average value of instantaneous exposure over a standard work day.
Mercury is volatile at room temperature and has a vapor pressure of 20 mg per cubic meter of
air, about 400 times the maximum level that is considered acceptable.
Ref Anusavice KJ. Phillips Science of dental materials. 11th edn. pg.536-7
7) Mohs hardness value for quartz is

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Answer B
The Mohs scale of mineral hardness is a qualitative ordinal scale that characterizes the
scratch resistance of various minerals through the ability of a harder material to scratch a
softer material.
8) First generation of apex locators were based on the principle of

a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Impedance
d) Multiple frequency
Answer B
First generation apex locators also known as resistance apex locators, measure opposition to
the flow of direct current or resistance. When the tip of the reamer reaches the apex in the
canal, the resistance value is 6.5 kilo-ohms.
RefIngles endodontics Pg. No 519
9) Sonic hand pieces operate at

a) 2 3 KHz
b) 4 5 KHz
c) 6 8 KHz
d) 20 KHz and above
Answer A
Sonic hand pieces operate at 1500-6500 cycles /min. these are used in similar manner to the
ultra-sonic system. The only difference is that sonic system uses water as an irrigant and does
not usually require diamond file for the flare of the preparation.
Ref Cohen Pathways of Pulp expert Pg. No 232

10) The minimum thickness of rubber dam is
a) 0.001 Inches
b) 0.004 Inches
c) 0.006 Inches
d) 0.008 Inches
Answer C
Rubber dam was introduced by barnum in 1863.
The minimum thickness of rubber dam is 0.006 Inches
Ref Textbook of Operative Dentistry Pg. No 171
11) The post diameter should not exceed the root diameter
a) 1/3rd
b) 1/2
c) 1/4th
d) 2/3rd
Answer A
Frequently used and clinically appropriate guideline for post diameter is not to exceed 1/3rd of
root diameter. Each increase beyond 1/3rd causes a 6fold increase in the potential for root
fracture.
Ref Ingles endodontics Pg. No 1451
12) Trephination should be done

a) At the level of root apex
b) At the level of gingival 3rd of the root
c) At or above the level of the mid root
d) Both A &B
Answer C
Trephination is a clinical technique that has been suggested to reduce intra osseous pressure.
Cortical trephination involves making an incision through mucoperiosteal tissues and
perforating through the cortical plate with a rotary instrument.
Apical trephination involves penetration of the apical foramen with a small endodontic file
and enlarging the apical opening to a size No. 20 or No. 25 file to allow drainage from the
periradicular lesion into the canal space.
13) Which one of the following does not commonly survive in a periapical lesion?
a) Actinomyces
b) Steptococcus
c) Porphyromonas
d) Pseudomonas
Answer D
The microorganisms identified in the peri radicular infection of endodontic origin are similar
to bacteria isolated and identified from within the root canal system. Common bacteria
isolated are Fusobacterium nucleatum, Peptosteptococcus, veillonella, Porphyromonas
gingivalis.
14) The first tooth to erupt in the oral cavity at 6months of age is
a) Maxillary Central incisor
b) Maxillary lateral incisor
c) Mandibular Central Incisor
d) Mandibular lateral Incisor
Answer C
Ref essentials of Pedodonticss Pg. No 38
15) The posterior placement of either one or both jaws relative to the face is referred to as
a) Orthognathism
b) Retrognathism
c) Prognathism
d) Protrusion
Answer B
Ref Contemporary orthodontics by proffit 3rd Edition Pg. No 142
16) The removal of only the coronal portion of the pulp for treating both primary and
permanent teeth with carious pulp exposure is known as
a) Pulpotomy
b) Apexification
c) Pulpectomy
d) Extraction
Answer A
Pulpotomy is the most widely used technique in vital pulp therapy for primary and young
permanent teeth with carious pulp exposures.
A pulpotomy is defined as the surgical removal of the entire coronal pulp presumed to be
partially or totally inflamed and quite possibly infected, leaving intact the vital radicular pulp
within the canals
Ref Ingles Endodontics Principles and practise Pg. No 1406
17) X ray was discovered in the year
a) 1854
b) 1885
c) 1895
d) 1865
Answer C
Roentgen discovered X ray in November 1895
In 1896 Frank Harrison taken 1st dental radiograph
Ref Textbook of Oral radiology by Ghom Pg. No 10
18) Reaction to the pulp following ferric sulphate as a pulpotomy agent

a) Superficial necrosis of the pulp
b) Promote pulp healing
c) Bactericidal agent
d) Agglutinates blood proteins and controls haemorrhage
Answer D
Ferric sulfate is used as a formocresol alternative in pulpotomy choices. This material, when
in contact with tissue, forms a ferric ion-protein complex that mechanically occludes
capillaries at the pulpal amputation site.
Ref Ingles Endodontics Principles and practise 5th Edition Pg. No 887
19) According to Stanford Benit intelligence scale, a child with severe degree of mental
disability will range between
a) SB-IV 67-52
b) SB- IV 69-55
c) SB-IV 35 &below
d) SB-IV 39 &below
Answer C
Ref text book of Pedodontics by Shobha Tandon 2 nd edition Pg. No
20) Chemotherapeutic plaque control agent with non-charged phenolic agents is

a) Octenidine
b) Iodine
c) Mucinases
d) Thymol
Answer D;Thymol
21) A Mandibular fracture that extends only through the cortical portion of the bone
without complete fracture of the bone is called as.. fracture
a) Simple
b) Greenstick
c) Compound
d) Comminuted
Answer B
Greenstick: A fracture in which one cortex of the bone is broken, the other cortex being bent.
Ref Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma by Raymond J.Fonseca, 4th edition
22) During an inferior alveolar nerve block injection, the needle passes through the
mucous membrane and buccinator muscle and lies medial side of
a) Masseter muscle
b) Mandibular ramus
c) Lateral Pterygoid muscle
d) Medial pterygoid muscle
Answer B
Ref Handbook of local anesthesia by S.F.Malamed 6th Edition Pg. No 231
23) Local anaesthetics are more effective in tissues that have a pH of?
a) Below 7
b) Above 7
c) Below 4
d) Makes no difference what the pH of the tissue is
Answer B
Most commercially prepared LA agents will have pH between 5.5 to 7
LA is more effective when the tissue pH is above 7
Ref Textbook of local anaesthesia by Stanley Malamed 6th Edition Pg. No 18
24) The most common reason for the removal of impacted 3rd molar
a) Referred pain
b) Recurrent Periocoronitis
c) Chronic Periodontal disease
d) Orthodontic treatment
Answer B
Approximately 25-35% of impacted 3rd molars are extracted because of
Pericoronitis or recurrent Pericoronitis.
Approximately 15% of impacted 3rd molars are extracted because of dental caries.
Ref Petersons Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial surgery 3rdEdition Pg. No 101
25) First Local Anaesthesia to be used clinically was

a) Cocaine
b) Procaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Lignocaine
Answer A
The naturally occurring alkaloid Cocaine derived from a shrub (Erythroxylan
coca) was first used in clinical practice.
Cocaine was first isolated by Niemann in 1860.
Ref Principles and practice of Pharmacology 5th Edition Pg. No 149
26) Congo red staining is a characteristic of

a) Amyloidosis
b) Pemphigus
c) Syphilis
d) Tuberculosis
Answer A
An abnormal proteinaceous substance that is deposited between cells in tissues and organs of
the body in a variety of clinical disorders is referred to as an amyloid.
Using routine stains, it is seen as intercellular pink translucent material by light microscopy.
Ref Shafers Textbook of oral pathology 7th edition Pg. No 627
27) During the removal of sub mandibular gland all of the following may be injured on
the medial aspect except
a) Hypoglossal
b) Mylohyoid
c) Glossopharyngeal
d) Facial
Answer C
Ref Surgical anatomy of head and neck by Sicher and Dubrill
28) All of the following structures are present in the pterygomandibular space Except
a) Nerve to Mylohyoid
b) Chorda tympani nerve
c) Long buccal nerve
d) Nerve to medial pterygoid
Answer C
Contents of Pterygomandibular space:Lingual nerve, mandibular nerve, inferior alveolar or

mandibular artery. Mylohyoid nerve and vessels.
Ref Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Dr. Neelima Anil Malik Pg. No 696
29) Plasma cells are predominantly seen in lesion of gingivitis

a) Initial
b) Early
c) Established
d) Advanced
Answer C
Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 355
30) Which calcium channel blocker can cause excessive growth of gingival tissue
a) Cyclosporine
b) Nifedipine
c) Phenytoin
d) Corticosteroid
Answer B
The first drug-induced gingival enlargements reported were those produced by phenytoin
(Dilantin) used in treatment of all forms of epilepsy.
Calcium channel blockers are drugs developed for the treatment of cardiovascular conditions
such as hypertension, angina pectoris etc
Nifedipine one of the most commonly used calcium channel blocker induces Gingival
enlargement in 20% of the cases.
31) Technique of choice for anterior periodontal surgery when spacing is present
a) Papilla preservation flap
b) Modified Widman flap
c) Sulcular incision flaps
d) Surgery contraindicated
Answer A
The techniques used for regenerative purposes are the papilla preservation flap and the flap
using only crevicular or pocket incisions, to retain the maximum amount of gingival tissue,
including the papilla, for graft or membrane coverage.
Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 926 & 945
32) Gingival crevicular fluid is not increased by
a) Smoking
b) Tooth Brushing
c) Gingival Massage
d) Trauma from occlusion
Answer D
33) Electronic device for measuring GCF volume is

a) Periotron
b) Periotemp
c) Periocheck
d) Periodontometer
Answer A
34) In the implant bone interface when the bone is in intimate but not ultra-structural
contact with implant the condition is known as
a) Osseointegration
b) Fibroosseous integration
c) Functional Ankylosis
d) Microinterlock
Answer A
Osseo integration is defined as a direct functional and structural connection between living
bone and the surface of a load carrying implant.
It is also termed as functional ankylosis.
Ref Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry 5th Edition Pg. No 99
35) Vincents angina is of

a) Viral etiology
b) Fungal etiology
c) Fusospirochaetal infection
d) Chlamydial infection
Answer C
Vincent's angina is a fusospirochetal infection of the oropharynx and throat, as distinguished

from NUG, which affects the marginal gingiva.
In Vincent's angina, there is a painful membranous ulceration of the throat, with edema and
hyperemic patches breaking down to form ulcers covered with pseudomembranous material.
The process may extend to the larynx and middle ear.

36) Sved bite plane provides..anchorage
a) Simple
b) Reciprocal
c) Stationary
d) Intermaxillary
Answer CAnswer B please check this bit sir
Reciprocal anchorage is also called as multiple anchorage. This is an anchorage situation

where more than one resistance unit is employed.
In sved type bite plates-instead of a labial bow, the acrylic plate is constructed in such a way
that it covers the labio Incisal aspect of maxillary incisors,and also prevents the flaring of
maxillary incisors.
Ref Orthodontic prep manual by sridhar prem kumar 2nd Edition Pg. No 298
37) If the centre of rotation is at the tip of apex, the orthodontic movement which result is
a) Uncontrolled tipping
b) Controlled tipping
c) Torqueing
d) Pure rotation
Answer B
Centre of rotation is any point around which rotations occurs when the tooth is being moved,
It differs for each tooth movement
Uncontrolled tipping-between centre of resistance and apex

Controlled tipping- at the root apex
Bodily movement-at infinity
Root movement-at Incisal edge
Rotation no net force acts at Cres
38) Genetic factors manifesting their influence on the morphogenesis of a particular bone
in an indirect way by intermediary action on associated structures are called
.factors
a) Intrinsic genetic
b) Environmental
c) Epigenetic
d) Fibroblast growth
Answer C
The major difference in theories is the location at which genetic control is expressed
Indirect genetic control, whatever its source is called epigenetic
Ref Contemporary orthodontics by William R Proffit 5th edition Pg. No 40&41
39) The S N plane in cephalometric analysis represents one of the

a) Vertical planes
b) Horizontal planes
c) Growth axis
d) Soft tissue measurement
Answer B
Based on the orientation of lines /planes they are classified as horizontal or vertical
S-N plane is a cranial line drawn between sella which is center of sella turcica and nasion
which is anterior point of fronto nasal suture. It represents the anterior cranial base
Ref Orthodontics art and science-S.I.BHALAJI 3rd edition Pg. No 148

40) Tongue to lower lip apposition is common in
a) Mature swallowing pattern
b) Oral breathing habit
c) Tongue thrust habit
d) Infantile swallowing pattern
Answer D
The tongue lies over the lower gum pads and protrudes between the nipple and lower lip,
The characteristics as outlined by moyers are:
Jaws are apart and tongue is placed between upper and lower gum pads. Mandible is
stabilised by contraction of muscles of 7th cranial nerve and the interposed tongue
As the child begins to eat solid food, there is a distinct change in swallowing pattern,the
tongue is contained in the dental arch and mandible is no longer protruded. This heralds the
onset of mature swallow.

41) The active component of an appliance should preferably have
a) High load deflection rate
b) Low load deflexion rate
c) Small range of action
d) High tensile strength
Answer B
Load deflection rate denotes the force produced per unit activation. Active components of the
appliance should have low load deflection rate which implies light continuous forces.
42) Fixed orthodontic should ideally produce. Force

a) An intermittent
b) Heavy continuous
c) Light continuous
d) Heavy interrupted
Answer C
It is an active orthodontic force that decreased little in magnitude between appointment

periods.
In fixed orthodontic treatment wires are highly flexible and activation is done at a relatively
low force level.
43) The kloehn effect is observed with appliance

a) Cervical pull head gear
b) High pull headgear
c) Frankels appliance
d) Twin block appliance
Answer A
Cervical pull headgear is also known as kloehns headgear as DR.J.KLOEHN first described it
in 1947
Effects are usually: to erupt upper molars, to move the upper jaw distally, steepen the
occlusal plane and expansion of arch
44) All of the following are types of candidiasis except

a) Oral thrush
b) Angular cheilitis
c) Median rhomboid glossitis
d) Geographic tongue
Answer D
Geographic tongue also known as benign migratory glossitis.

The aetiology of benign migratory glossitis is unknown; seem to become more prominent
during conditions of psychological stress and patients with psoriasis
Ref ShafersTextbook of oral pathology 7th edition Pg.no 31
45) X ray cause radiation damage primarily by their property of

a) Penetration
b) Absorption
c) Fluorescence
d) Excitation
Answer D
Gamma rays, X-rays, and the higher ultraviolet part of the electromagnetic spectrum are
ionizing. Ionizing radiation is invisible and not directly detectable by human senses. They
cause damage to cells primarily by excitation.
46) Congenital hypothyroidism causes

a) Acromegaly
b) Cretinism
c) Gigantism
d) Myxoedema
Answer B
Cretinism is caused by extreme hypothyroidism during fetal life, infancy, or childhood. This
condition is characterized especially by failure of body growth and by mental retardation.
It results from congenital lack of a thyroid gland (congenital cretinism)
Ref Guyton Textbook of Medial Physiology 11th Edition Pg. No 942
47) Trench Mouth was the term used during world war 1 to describe
a) Lichen planus
b) Coated tongue
c) Pemphigus
d) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
Answer D
Clinical Features of NUG are interdental gingival necrosis, pain, and bleeding; variable
features include lymphadenopathy, fever, and malaise.
The tissue necrosis results in an appearance often described as "punched-out" papillae.
Microbiologic studies indicate that predominant species associated with NUG include P.
intermedia, Fusobacterium spp., and spirochetal microorganisms.
48) Which year was cone beam CT developed

a) 1982
b) 1993
c) 1978
d) 1985
Answer A
In 1972 first CT was developed by Hounsfield.

CBCT was demonstrated in 1983.
The technology of CBCT transferred to dentistry in 1995.
Ref CBCT A clinicians guideline to 3D imaging Pg. No 2
49) Which of the following is an anti fibrinolytic drug?
a) E amino caproic acid
b) Thrombin
c) Factor VIII
d) Cryoprecipitate
Answer A
These are drugs which inhibit plasminogen activation and dissolution of clot. It is an
analogue of the amino acid lysine: combines with the lysine binding sites of plasminogen and
plasmin so that the latter is not able to bind to fibrin and lyse it.
Ref Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6th Edition Pg. No 608
50) Beaten metal appearance in a skull radiograph is due to
a) Trauma
b) Metastatic malignancy
c) Endocrine abnormality
d) Cranial suture synostosis
Answer D
The earliest radiographic signs of cranial suture synostosis are sclerosis and overlapping
edges. Premature fusion of the cranial base leads to diminished facial growth.
Multiple radiolucencies appearing as depressions (so-called digital impressions)of the inner
surface of the cranial vault, which results in a beaten-metal appearance.
Ref White & Pharoah Oral Radiology 5th edition Pg. No 641
51) Atlanto occipital joint is the following variety of synovial joint

a) Pivot
b) Ellipsoid
c) Hinge
d) Plane
Answer B
Ref Human Anatomy by BD Chaurasia 4th edition Pg. No 204
52) Tenons capsule is the facial sheath covering

a) Palatine tonsil
b) Eye ball
c) Parotid gland
d) Thyroid gland
Answer B
Tenons capsule forms thin, loose membranous sheath around the eyeball, extending from
optic nerve to sclerocorneal junction or limbus. Eyeball can freely move within the sheath.
53) Congenital torticollis results from excessive stretching of the muscle during difficult
labour
a) Trapezius
b) Scalenus anterior
c) Sternoceidomastoid
d) Sternohyoid
Answer C
Congential Torticollis or wry neck is due to birth injury
54) Myopia is corrected by

a) Biconvex
b) Biconcave
c) Cylindrical
d) Plain
Answer B
In myopia, the globe is too long, and light rays come to a focal point in front of the retina.
Near objects can be seen clearly, but distant objects require a diverging lens in front of the
eye.
Ref Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition Pg. No 162
55) The fight or flight response is the term used to describe activation of
thenervous system
a) Parasympathetic
b) Sympathetic
c) Somatic
d) Central
Answer B
The sympathetic system is strongly activated in many emotional states. For instance, in the
state of rage, which is elicited to a great extent by stimulating the hypothalamus, signals are
transmitted downward through the reticular formation of the brain stem and into the spinal
cord to cause massive sympathetic discharge; most aforementioned sympathetic events ensue
immediately.
This is called the sympathetic alarm reaction. It is also called the fight or flightreaction
Ref Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical physiology 11th Edition Pg. No 758
56) The lipoprotein required to transport cholesterol from peripheral tissue to the liver is
a) Chylomicron
b) High density lipoprotein
c) Low density lipoprotein
d) Very low density lipoprotein
Answer B
The primary function of the lipoproteins is to transport their lipid components in the blood.
The very low density lipoproteins transport triglycerides synthesized in the liver mainly to the
adipose tissue, whereas the other lipoproteins are especially important in the different stages
of phospholipid and cholesterol transport from the liver to the peripheral tissues or from the
periphery back to the liver.
57) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Heat resistant DNA polymerase is used in polymerase chain reaction
b) Alkaline phosphatase is a marker of Osteoblastic activity
c) Methotrexate acts by non- competitive inhibition
d) Troponin 1 is a specific marker of myocardial infraction
Answer C
Methotrexate is a disease modifying anti rheumatic drug, frequently prescribed as initial
therapy in RA. The mechanism of methotrexate is irreversible inhibition of dihydrofolate
reductase (DHFR), preventing the formation of reduced folate metabolites and inhibiting the
de novo synthesis of purines.
58) Tha aminoacyl tRNA which initiates translation in eukaryotes is

a) Methionyl tRNA
b) Formyl methionyl tRNA
c) Tyrosinyl tRNA
d) Alanyl tRNA
Answer A
Ref Molecular Pathology Pg. No 52
59) High copper dental amalgam alloys contain.copper

a) 13-30%
b) 3-10%
c) 33-43%
d) 1-2%
Answer A
Compared with traditional low-copper amalgams, high-copper amalgams have become the
materials of choice because of their improved mechanical properties, corrosion
characteristics, better marginal integrity, and improved performance in clinical trials. Two
different types of high-copper alloy powders are available. The first is an admixed alloy
powder, and the second is a single-composition alloy powder. Both types contain more than 6
wt% copper. The total copper content in admixed alloys ranges from approximately 3 wt% to
20 wt%. 'I he copper content in various single-composition alloys ranges from 13 wt% to 30
wt%.
Ref Anusavice KJ. Phillips Science of dental materials. 11th edition. Pg. No504-7
60) The mixing of spherical silver copper eutectic particles and lathe cut silver-tin
particles in ration of 1:2 leads to
a) Disperse alloy
b) Tytin
c) Admix alloy
d) Low copper alloy
Answer C
In 1963, Innes and Youdelis added spherical silver-copper eutectic alloy (71.3 wt% Ag and
28.1 wt% Cu) particles to lathe-cut low-copper amalgam alloy particles. This was the first
major change in the composition of alloys for dental amalgam since Black's formulation was
introduced in the late 1800s. These alloys are often called admixed alloys because the final
powder is a mixture of at least two kinds of particles. Admixed alloy powders usually contain
30 wt% to 55 wt% spherical high-copper powder. The total copper content in admixed alloys
ranges from approximately 3 wt% to 20 wt%.
Ref Anusavice KJ. Phillips Science of dental materials. 11th edition. pg.505
61) As a rule of thumb, it is not safe to store a stone cast in air at a temperature higher
than
a) 25C
b) 35C
c) 45C
d) 55C
Answer D
The safest method for soaking the cast is to place it in a water bath made for the purpose, in
which plaster debris is allowed to remain constantly on the bottom of the container to provide
a saturated solution of calcium sulfate. Storage of either set plaster or stone at room
temperature produces no significant dimensional change. However, if the storage temperature
is raised to between 130c and 110c, shrinkage occurs as the water of crystallization is
removed and the dihydrate reverts to the hemihydrite. The contraction of plaster at high
temperature is greater- than that of the stone, and it also loses strength. Such contractions
may occur during storage in air above room temperature such as when a stone cast is dried. It
is not safe to store or heat a stone cast in air at a temperature higher than 55 C (130 F).
Ref Anusavice KJ. Phillips Science of dental materials. 11th edition. pg.278
62) The catalyst paste in addition to silicone impression material containssalts

a) Silver
b) Tin
c) Palladium
d) Platinum
Answer D
The accelerator (catalyst) and the base paste of addition silicone contain a dimethylsiloxane
polymer with vinyl terminal groups, plus filler. The accelerator also contains a platinum
catalyst of the so-called Karstedt type, which is a complex compound consisting of platinum
and 1,3-divinyltetramethyldisiloxane.
Ref Sakaguchi RL, Powers JM. Craigs Restorative dental materials. 13th Edition. page.288
63) Following are true for gum dammer in dental waxes except
a) It is a synthetic resin
b) It is a natural resin
c) It improves smoothness
d) Resists cracking and flaking
Answer A
Gum dammar or Dammar resin is a natural resin added to paraffin to improve its smoothness
in molding and to render it more resistant to cracking and flaking. It also increases the
toughness of the wax and enhances the smoothness and lusture of surface.
Ref Anusavice KJ. Phillips Science of dental materials. 11th Edition. Pg. No 286
64) Osteosarcoma arises from ..part of bone

a) Diaphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Epiphysis
d) None of these
Answer B
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary cancer of bone, followed by chondrosarcoma and
Ewing sarcoma. Osteosarcomas occur during adolescence, and about half of them arise in the
metaphysis around the knee, either in the distal femur or proximal tibia.
Ref Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of disease 7th Edition Pg. No 1292&1293
65) The adhesion molecules are all Except

a) Selectins
b) Integrins
c) Inter cell adhesion molecules
d) Leucotrine B4
Answer D
The adhesion receptors involved belong to four molecular familiesthe selectins, the
immunoglobulin superfamily,the integrins, and mucin-like glycoproteins.
Ref Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of disease 7th Edition Pg. No 54
66) Subacute bacterial endocarditis is produced by

a) Viridans streptococci
b) Enterococcus
c) Group A Streptococcus
d) Group B Streptococcus
Answer A
Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria of spherical to ovoid shape that characteristically

form chains when grown in liquid media. Many of the streptococci associated with human
infection produce a zone of complete hemolysis around the bacterial colony when cultured on
blood agar, a pattern known as hemolysis.
67) The enrichment medium used for salmonella and shigellae is
a) Alkaline peptone water
b) Glucose broth
c) Robertsons cooked meat medium
d) Selenite F broth
Answer D
The enrichment medium used for salmonella and shigellae is Selenite F broth or tetrathionate
broth. salmonella and shigellae were achieved by incubating feces for 12-18hrs.
Ref Ananthanarayana and Panikers Textbook of Microbiology 7th Edition
68) Which colour plastic bag is used for microbiology and biotechnology waste
a) Yellow
b) Red
c) Black
d) Blue
Answer B
Ref Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Dr. Neelima Anil Malik pg 117
69) Sharpeys fibres are seen in

a) Enamel
b) Dentin
c) Cementum
d) Pulp
Answer C
The most important elements of the periodontal ligament are the principal fibres. Terminal
portions of the principal fibres that insert into cementum and bone are termed Sharpey's
fibres.
70) Temporomandibular joint is a
a) Fibrous joint
b) Synovial joint
c) Planar joint
d) Sutural joint
Answer B
71) The only indication for ethosuximide is
a) Myoclonic seizure
b) Absence seizure
c) Atonic seizure
d) Febrile convulsion
Answer B
Ref Goodman & Gilmans Manual of Pharmacology and therapeutics Pg. No 320
72) Astringents used in dentistry include the following Except
a) Tannic acid
b) Zinc chloride
c) Magnesium sulphate
d) Ferric chloride
Answer C
Vegetable Astringents Metallic Astringents Others
Tannic Acid Alumunium salts Alcohol (Not used as
astringent in oral cavity)
Catechu: Astringent action Zinc salts
due to tannic acid
Ferric chloride
Silver nitrate &Copper
sulphate
Ref Pharmacology for Dentistry 2nd Edition Pg.No369
73) Example of non- benzodiazepine hypnotic is

a) Lorazepam
b) Zolpidem
c) Triazolam
d) Chlordiazepoxide
Answer B
There are six non benzodiazepine hypnotics available in USA
1) Eszopiclone
2) Zaleplon
3) Zolpidem
4) Zolpidem Extended release
5) Orally dis integrated Zolpidem
6) trans orally absorbable Zolpidem
Ref Pharmacology for dental students Pg. No 149
74) Which of this is not produced by the kidneys?
a) 1,25- dihydroxy vitamin D
b) Renin
c) Vasopressin
d) Erythropoietin
Answer C
Vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone, is even more powerful than angiotensin II asa
vasoconstrictor making it one of the bodysmost potent vascular constrictor substances.
It is formed in nerve cells in the hypothalamus of the brain but is then transported downward
by nerve axons to the posterior pituitary gland, where it is finally secreted into the blood.
75) The microbial organism implicated in the aetiology of duodenal ulcer disease is
a) Camphylobacter jejunii
b) Ankylostoma duodenale
c) Helicobacter pylori
d) Chlostridium difficile
Answer C
Many ulcer patients have been found to have chronic infection of the terminal portions of the
gastric mucosa and initial portions of the duodenal mucosa, infection most often caused by
the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
76) The degree of immune suppression in HIV positive patient is best indicated by
a) CD4 cell count
b) Viral load estimation
c) P24 antigen detection
d) Western blot test
Answer A

77) The most common congenital heart disease
a) Atrial septal defect
b) Ventricular septal defect
c) Pulmonary stenosis
d) Patent ductus arteriosis
Answer B
The most common congenital cardiac lesion associated with cyanosis in the adult is the
combination of ventricular septal defect and pulmonary outflow tract obstruction (tetralogy
ofFallot). The more severe the obstruction, the greater the degree of right-to-left shunting and
resultant cyanosis.

78) Strong indication for renal replacement therapy in acute kidney disease include all of
these, Except
a) Heperkalemia
b) Pericarditis
c) Encephalopathy
d) Elevated creatinine
Answer D
79) Surgery of the varicose veins is not attempted in presence of

a) Deep vein thrombosis
b) Multiple incompetent perforator
c) Varicose veins with leg ulcer
d) Sapheno femoral incompetence
Answer A
Varicose veins are tortuous, dilated prominent superficial veins in the lower limb, often in the
anatomical distribution of the long and short saphenous veins.
Only 10-15% has symptoms or complications.
Ref Textbook of Clinical Surgery Pg. No 522
80) The parotid duct is known as

a) Whartons duct
b) Stensonss duct
c) Satorini duct
d) Bartholins duct
Answer B
Ref Burkets Oral Medicine 12th Edition Pg. No 233
81) Polyglactin is .type of suture material
a) Natural absorbable
b) Synthetic absorbable
c) Natural non absorbable
d) Synhetic no absorbable
Answer B
Vicryl (Polyglactin) is a synthetic absorbable suture. Polyglactin 910 is a copolymer of

glycoline and lactide.
It is disintegrated by hydrolysis.
Ref Surgical Endodontics Pg. No 282
82) In class III haemorrhagic shock, the percentage of the blood volume lost is
a) 5-10
b) 10-15
c) 15-25
d) 30-40
Answer D
Class -1 Blood loss < 750 ml upto 15%
Class-II Blood Loss 750- 1500 ml 15-30%
Class-III Blood loss 1500-2000 ml 30-40%
Class-IV Blood loss >2000 ml >40%
Ref DC Dutta's Textbook of Obstetrics Pg. No703
83) In papillary carcinoma of thyroid, the aim of post thyroidectomy treatment is to keep
TSH levels
a) Below the normal range
b) In the normal range
c) Above the normal range
d) None of these
Answer A
Ref Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics 12th Edition Pg. No 1156
84) Hair on end appearance is seen in

a) Iron deficiency anaemia
b) Sickle cell anaemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Megaloblastic anaemia
Answer C
Thalassemia also called as Cooleys anemia, Mediterranean anemia, erythroblastic anemia.

The skeletal changes in thalassemia are most striking; A frequent finding in rib has been
referred to as the rib-within-a-rib appearance and is noted particularly in the middle and
anterior portions of the ribs. In the skull, there is extreme thickening of the diploe (medulla),
the inner and outer plates (cortices) become poorly defined, and the trabeculae between the
plates become elongated, producing a bristle like crew-cut or hair-on-end appearance of the
surface of the skull
85) Oral pigmentations are seen in .disease
a) Darriers
b) Addisons
c) Pagets
d) Bowens
Answer B
Addison s disease
Usual Location: Any area of the mouth but mostly buccal mucosa
Clinical Features: Blotches or spots of bluish-black to dark-brown pigmentation occurring
early in the disease, accompanied by diffuse pigmentation of skin; other symptoms of adrenal
insufficiency
Treatment: Condition controlled by steroid replacement
86) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by
a) Bacterial infection
b) Varicella zoster virus
c) HIV
d) Epstein- barr virus
Answer D
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is the cause of heterophile-positive infectious mononucleosis (IM),

which is characterized by fever,sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis.
Ref Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition Pg. No 343& 1046
87) Chemical mumps is synonymous with

a) Epidemic parotitis
b) Iodine mumps
c) Nutritional mumps
d) Nonspecific mumps
Answer B
88) Parulis is an inflammatory enlargement seen in

a) End of sinus tract
b) Extraction socket
c) Due to irritation from calculus or overhanging restoration
d) None of these
Answer A
It is a small inflammatory hyperplastic type of lesion that develops on the alveolar mucosa at
the oral terminal of a draining sinus. Maxillary labial and buccal mucosa are commonly
affected.
Ref Textbook of Oral Medicine by Ghom Pg. No 305
89) Robinsons classification of ameloblastoma does not include.ameloblastoma

a) Multricentric
b) Non- functional
c) Anatomically benign
d) Clinically persistant
Answer A
The term ameloblastoma as applied to this particular tumor was suggested by

Churchill.Ameloblastoma, which arises from odontogenic epithelium and shows no
ectomesenchymal differentiation.
90) Venous malformation involving the leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is a salient
feature of
a) Rendu- osler-weber disease
b) Maffucis syndrome
c) Angi osteohypertrophy syndrome
d) Sturge weber syndrome
Answer D
Sturge-Weber syndrome is characterized by venous angiomatous masses in the

leptomeninges over the cortex and by ipsilateral port-wine nevi of the face. It is often
associated with mental retardation, seizures, hemiplegia, and radio opacities in the skull.
91) The concept of multifactorial causation of disease was first mooted by
a) Pettenkofer
b) Galen
c) Mcmohan
d) Louis pasteur
Answer A
92) In case control studies, interviewers bias can be eliminated by

a) Matching
b) Randomization
c) Double blinding
d) None of these
Answer C
Ref Mannual of Community Dentistry Pg. No 81
93) Bitots spots in young children usually indicatedeficiency

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
Answer A
First, there is dryness of the conjunctivae (xerosis) as the normal lacrimal and mucus
secreting epithelium is replaced by keratinized epithelium. This is followed by the build-up of
keratin debris in small opaque plaques The eye examination yields conjunctival pallor of
anemia, pericorneal and corneal opacities of severe vitamin A deficiency. (Bitot Spots)
94) The dentist act was passed by the Indian parliament on
a) 29th March, 1948
b) 29th March, 1949
c) 29th April, 1949
d) 29th April, 1950
Answer A
The IDA was formed in the year 1949 soon after the dentist act 1948 was passed by Indian
parliament .
Ref A Textbook of Public Health Dentistry Pg. No 253

95) Prevalence rate is increased by
a) High case- fatality rate from the disease
b) In migration of healthy people
c) Longer duration of the disease
d) Improved cure rate of cases
Answer C
Prevalence is the measure of the existence of a particular condition that is it measures the
probability of people having a disease at a given point of time.
Ref A Textbook of Public Health Dentistry Pg. No 11
96) The enzyme most sensitive to fluoride during acid formation is

a) Enolase
b) Reductase
c) Galactase
d) Sucrose
Answer A
Fluoride inhibits enolase by producing a magnesium flourophosphate which displaces

magnesium from the enzyme surface and forms an inactive complex with the enolase.
Ref Flouride in Preventive dentistry theory and clinical Pg. No 61

97) Which of the following wells tap water below the first impervious layer?
a) Shallow well
b) Deep well
c) Tag well
d) Tug well
Answer B
In villages and cities water is obtained through wells, which may be shallow (water above
the first impervious layer), Deep wells(Below the first impervious layer),and tube wells run
mechanically or electrically.
Ref Textbook of public health medicine Pg. No 338
98) A process where most of the fluoride is buried within the mineral crystallites during
period of crystal growth is
a) Mineralization
b) Accretion
c) Inward diffusion
d) Remineralization
Answer B
Ref Preventive materials pg. No 271
99) The total surface area of the teeth to be replaced must be equal to or less than the
total root surface area of the abutment teeth what is this law called and was given
by whom?
a) Antes law given by Ante
b) Antes law given by Johnston
c) Johnstons law given by Johnston
d) Johnstons law given by Ante
Answer B
Ref Contemporary fixed Prosthodontics 5th edition Pg. No 81
100) Ananterior FPD is contraindicated when
a) Abutment teeth are non- carious
b) An abutment teeth is inclined in 15
c) There is considerable resorption of residual ridge
d) Crowns of the abutment teeth are long
Answer C
Ref Contemporary fixed Prosthodontics 5th edition Pg. No 51
101) Which of the following pontic design is used in immediately extracted teeth?
a) Ovate
b) Ridge lap
c) Conical
d) Saddle
Answer A
Ref Studvents art and Science of Operative Dentistry Pg. No 145
102) To replace a missing canine the best pontic design is
a) Modified ridge lap
b) Ridge lap
c) Ovate
d) Sanitary
Answer A
The modified ridge lap pontic combines the best features of the hygienic and saddle pontic
designs, combining esthetics with easy cleaning. The modified ridge lap design is the most
common pontic form used in areas of the mouth that are visible during function (maxillary
and mandibular anterior teeth and maxillary premolars and first molars).
Ref Rosenstiel. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 4th edition. Pg. No 627-8
103) A correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates

a) Vacuum in the posterior part of the palate
b) Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
c) Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
d) A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity
Answer C
The primary purpose of the posterior palatal seal is the retention of the maxillary denture. The
correctly placed posterior palatal seal will not impinge upon the non-displaceable tissues of
the hard palate, nor will it limit the muscular movements of the soft palate.
It will, however, create a partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture. This partial vacuum
is activated only when horizontal/ tipping forces are directed against the denture base.
Ref Sheldon Wiklers Essentials of Complete Denture Prosthodontics. 2ndEdition Pg. No 107-8
104) The most common trigger factor for bruxism is

a) TMJ dysfunction
b) Pericoronitis
c) Discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric relation
d) Acute periodontal disease
Answer C
The causes of bruxism are difficult to determine. It is stated that bruxism is performed on a
subconscious reflex controlled level and is due to occlusal discrepancy and emotional
response.
105) The pontic design of choice in the appearance zone of maxillary and
mandibular bridge is
a) Hygienic
b) Modified ridge lap
c) Saddle
d) Conica
Answer B
The modified ridge lap pontic combines the best features of the hygienic and saddle pontic
designs,combining esthetics with easy cleaning. The modified ridge lap design is the most
common pontic form used in areas of the mouth that are visible during function (maxillary
and mandibular anterior teeth and maxillary premolars and first molars).
Ref RosenstielsContemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 4thEdition Pg.No 627-8
106) In self threading pins for complex amalgam restorations

a) Pin hole is smaller than diameter of pin
b) Pin hole is larger than diameter
c) Pinhole is equivalent to diameter of pin
d) None of these
Answer A
Pin retained amalgam restorations using self-threading pins originally were
described by going in 1966.
The diameter of the prepared pin hole is 0.0015- 0.004 inch smaller than the
diameter of pin.
A general guide for pin hole depth is 2mm
Ref Sturdvents art and science of Operative Dentistry Pg. No 391
107) Diameter D16 in mms of number 6 file is

a) 0.34
b) 0.36
c) 0.38
d) 0.40
Answer C
Diameter of the instrument is hundredth of a millimetre at the tip. D16 shall be 32/100 is 0.32
mm
108) Shape memory of nitinol is due to
a) Face centred cubic structure
b) Body centred cubic structure
c) Austenitic crystalline structure of alloy which gets transformed into martensitic
structure
d) Martensitic structure of alloy getting transformed into austenitic structure under
stress
Answer C
The unique shape memory of nitinol is due to diffusionless phase transformation
between a parent austenite phase and martensite phase.
Ref medical device materials Pg. No 178
109) In microsurgery the ideal bevel given during apicectomy is

a) 0-10
b) 45
c) 30
d) 35
Answer A
Ref Practical advanced Periodontal Surgery Pg. No 388
110) Gingivally the depth of class V cavity is

a) 0.5 1 mm
b) 0.75- 1 mm
c) 1-1.25 mm
d) 2-3 mm
Answer B
Ref Textbook of Operative Dentistry Pg. No 181
111) Rake angle is positive
a) If rake face is trailing radial line
b) If rake face is inline with radial line
c) If rake face is before radial line
d) None of these
Answer A
Ref Textbook of Dental Materials Pg. No 205
112) Which of these instruments is used for locating the canal orifices
a) Rotating bur
b) Gates glidden drill
c) DG 16 explorer
d) H file
Answer C
Ref Cohens Pathways of Pulp expert Pg. No 163
Ref Text book of endodontics by nishagarg Pg. No 279
113) Chromosomal disorder caused by presence of an extra copy of chromosome
21, also known as trisomy 21 is
a) Fragile X syndrome
b) Autism
c) Downs Syndrome
d) Cerebral palsy
Answer C
Children with trisomy 21(Downs syndrome) have an increased risk for childhood acute
lymphoblastic leukemia as well as acute myeloid leukemia. Severe periodontal disease occurs
with Downs syndrome.
114) The organism implicated as one of the major and most virulent of the caries
producing organism is
a) Streptococcus mutans
b) Candida albicans
c) Spirochetes
d) Fusobacterium
Answer A
S. mutans: A Streptococcus that prevailed in many human carious lesions and first isolated
in 1924 by Clarke was termed Streptococcus mutans. Cariogenic strains of S. mutans contain
a lysogenic bacteriophage which has not been isolated from non-cariogenic strains.
115) The restorative material with the advantage of fluoride release is
a) Amalgam
b) Zinc oxide eugenol
c) Glass ionomer cement
d) Composite
Answer C
Preparations of glass ionomer are available in various shades that can be used for anterior
restorations. The use of GIC for anterior restorations is limited to Class III and Class V
Preparations. The Fluoride release from GIC has been shown to inhibit development of
Secondary caries.
Ref Textbook of Paediatric dentistry 5th Edition. No 300
116) Which of the following can be used to minimize radiation exposure in patients
and dental personnel while taking X-rays?
a) Mouth mask
b) Head cap
c) Lead apron
d) Disposable gloves
Answer C
Ref Dental Radiographs Principles and techniques Pg. No 50
117) Food and nutrition board of institute of medicine recognized an intake of
calcium per day during adolescence should be
a) 1000mg
b) 2000mg
c) 1300mg
d) 3000mg
Answer C
The usual rate of dietary calcium intake is about 1000 mg/day, with about 900 mg/day of
calcium excreted in the faeces.
118) Self-mutilation habit by children may be due to..syndrome

a) Papillon- lefever
b) Downs
c) Lesch- Nyham
d) Ehler danlos
Answer C
Lesch nyham syndrome is a rare inborn syndrome that occurs due to mutation in the gene
coding for the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HPRT)on the X
chromosome.
Ref handbook of neurodevelopment in children 2nd edition Pg. No 445

119) Von Recklinhausens disease is a benign fibroma caused by
a) NF1 gene
b) NF2 gene
c) NF11 gene
d) No gene is responsible
Answer A
Von Recklinghausens neurofibromatosis, an inherited autosomal dominant condition in

which there is also a tendency to develop sarcoma. Neurofibromatosis evolves as a
consequence of a mutation in the NF1 gene.

120) An indication for prophylactic platelet transfusion before tooth extraction if
the platelet count per microliter of blood is
a) 50,000 -150,000
b) 20,000-50,000
c) 10,000-20,000
d) Less than 10,000
Answer D
Prophylactic platelet transfusion before tooth extraction if the platelet count per microliter of
blood is less than 10,000.It is advisable to elevate the platelet levels to the range of 50,000 to
1,00,000 cells per cu mm to provide continued protection.
121) Which surgical blade is universally used for oral surgical procedures
a) No.11 bade
b) No.12 blade
c) No.10 blade
d) No.15 blade
Answer D
Ref Atlas of Oral and Maxillo facial Surgery Pg. No 615
122) The unpleasant sensation of difficulty in breathing is called

a) Hypercapnea
b) Dyspnea
c) Hypocapnea
d) Apnea
Answer B
Immediate and extreme shortness of breath dyspnea or Air hunger.It is defined as mental
anguish associated with inabilityto ventilate enough to satisfy the demand for air. Acommon
synonym is air hunger.
123) The most severe tissue reaction is seen with which type of suture material?
a) Plain catgut
b) Chromic catgut
c) Polyglycolic acid
d) Polygalactin 910
Answer A
Gut soaked in chromic salts will usually have delayed absorption time and reduction in tissue
reactivity compared with untreated catgut.
Ref Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, SM Balaji
124) The common site for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhoea is

a) Ethmoid sinus
b) Frontal sinus
c) Petrons
d) Tegmen tympani
Answer A
CSF rhinorrhoea is mostly associated with the fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid
bone. Fracture of cribriform plate is commonly associated with anosmia and can be typically
identified on the high resolution CT scan.
125) Sphenomandibular ligament is derived bycartilage
a) Meckels
b) Reicherts
c) Martins
d) Davids
Answer A
Derivatives of meckels cartilage the incus and malleus of the inner ear
Sphenomandibular Ligament
Ref Tencates Oral Histology Pg. No 51
126) Beri-beri is caused by deficiency of

a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B2
d) VitaminB8
Answer A
Thiamine deficiency (beriberi) causes decreased utilization of pyruvic acid and some amino
acids by the tissues, but increased utilization of fats. Thus, thiamine is specifically needed for
the final metabolism of carbohydrates and many amino acids.
127) The biomechanics of alveolar process fractures during fracture at the angle of
mandible is
a) Compressive force
b) Tension force
c) Torsional force
d) Twisting force
Answer B
Ref Textbook of Oral and Maxillo facial surgery by Neelima malik 2nd editionPg. No 347
128) After curettage how long does it take for re-epithelisation of sulcus to occur
a) 2-7 days
b) 4-5 weeks
c) 1-3 days
d) 1-2 weeks
Answer A
One of the first methods used in attempts to obtain new attachment was scaling and root
planing combined with soft tissue curettage. Curettage is done for the removal of the pocket
epithelium and the soft tissue lining the pocket wall.
Ref Lindhe Clinical Periodontology 5th Edition Pg. No 550 &819
129) Which of the following is an allograft?
a) Calf bone
b) Kiel bone
c) DFDBA
d) Anargonic bone
Answer C
Allogeneic grafts (allografts) were utilized in attempts to stimulate bone formation in

intrabony defects. The types of allogeneic grafts used are frozen iliac cancellous bone and
marrow, mineralized freezedried bone allogeneic grafts (FDBA), and decalcifi ed freeze-
dried alogeneic bone grafts (DFDBA).
Ref Lindhe Clinical Periodontology 5th Edition Pg. No 554
130) Chlorhexidine gluconate is used as a mouth wash in a concentration of

a) 0.2%
b) 20%
c) 2.0%
d) 0.02%
Answer A
Chlorhexidine is available in three forms, the digluconate, acetate, and hydrochloride salts.
The fi rst defi nitive study on chlorhexidine was performed by Loe and Schiott. Available in
2 concentrations 0.2% and 0.12%.
131) In bass method, the bristles of tooth brush are placed at an angle of .. to
tooth surface
a) 90
b) 60
c) 45
d) 75
Answer C
Place the head of a soft brush parallel with the occlusal plane, with the brush head covering
three to four teeth, beginning at the most distal tooth in the arch. Place the bristles at the
gingival margin, establishing an angle of 45 degrees to the long axis of the teeth. Exert gentle
vibratory pressure, using short backand- forth motions without dislodging the tips of the
bristles.
132) The use of DNA probe is
a) Assess the pocket depth
b) Check the bleeding
c) Detect specific micro organisms
d) Detect furcation involvement
Answer C
A DNA sequence labelled with a radioactive element used to identify the position of a segme
nt with thecomplementary sequence by binding to it. DNA probes can also be used to identify
the presence of complementarysequences in a mix of fragments.
133) Wonder pak is a

a) Non eugenol pack
b) Zinc oxide eugenol pack
c) Coe pack
d) Coe ack with antibiotics
Answer B
Packs that are based on the reaction of zinc oxide and eugenol include the Wonder Pak,
which was developed by Ward in 1923.
Eugenol in this type of pack may induce an allergic reaction that produces reddening of the
area and burning pain in some patients
134) Arestin is a commercial name of a drug delivery system for

a) Doxycycline
b) Tetracycline
c) Minocycline
d) Metranidazole
Answer C
Minocycline microspheres(1 mg Arestin; Orapharma, Johnson & Johnson) have been used as
a controlled-release device agent in Local drug delivery system.
Three locally delivered, controlled-release antimicrobial products are currently available for
dental use in the United States, a chlorhexidine-containing chip (PerioChip), a doxycycline
gel (Atridox), and minocycline microspheres (Arestin).
Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 12th Edition Pg. No e98
135) Following are the various groups of genetic abnormalities that result in
significant periodontal breakdown Except
a) Neutropenia
b) Downs syndrome
c) Ehler danlos syndrome
d) Hyperphosphatasia
Answer D
Also called as Juvenile pagets associated with elevated serum phosphatase . young age in
onset , severe disfigurement, generalised and symmetric distribution of bone lesion.
Ref Textbook of Pathology Pg. No 176

136) Functional jaw orthopaedics is used for the purpose of
a) Growth modification
b) Orthopaedic corrections in cleft lip and palate patients
c) Orthognathic surgery
d) Distraction osteogenesis
Answer A- Growth modification
137) Within a few days of fitting twin block appliance, the patient experiences pain
when retracting mandible, this response is called as,
a) Mandibular response
b) Coronoid response
c) Pterygoid response
d) Buccinator mechanism
Answer C- Pterygoid response
This produces 'chipmunk' facies.
138) Facial symmetry in transverse plane may be best diagnosed by using

a) Lateral cephalogram
b) Frontal cephalogram
c) Orthopantomogram
d) Winters view radiograph
Answer B- Frontal cephalogram
Ref Orthodontics Diagnosis and Management of Mal occlusion Pg. No 159
139) Growth of the cranial base is primarily the result of

a) Intra- membranous growth
b) Cartilaginous growth
c) Sutural growth
d) Combination of all these
Answer B
Cranial base grows by cartilaginous growth in the synchondroses which later gets calcified.
In cartilaginous growth, direction of growth is not unidirectional like bone, linear growth
takes place allowing lengthening of bone as in cranial base.
Ref Orthodontic prep manual by sridhar prem kumar 2nd Edition Pg. No 37&38
140) All are known teratogens affecting dento- facial development except
a) Aspirin
b) Rubella virus
c) Dilantin
d) Amoxicillin
Answer D
Chemical and Other agents capable of producing embryologic defects if given at a
critical time are called Teratogens.
Ref Contemporary orthodontics by proffit 3rd Edition Pg. No 114

141) Forward growth of maxilla may be inhibited using . Appliance
a) Face mask
b) Cervical pull head gear
c) Chincup
d) Activator
Answer B
These headgears move the maxilla and maxillary dentition in a distal direction as they
produce an interior and distal force thus inhibiting the forward growth.
Ref Orthodontics art and science-S.I.BHALAJI 3rd edition Pg. No 367&368
142) Condylar cartilage is an example for

a) Primary cartilage
b) Secondary cartilage
c) Tertiary cartilage
d) None of these
Answer B
Secondary cartilage has no intercellular matrix.Affected by external influences which will

stimulate growth of cartilage, as in case of condylar cartilage this developed as a
mesenchymal condensation lateral to the meckels cartilage.
Ref Orthodontic prep manual by sridhar prem kumar 2nd Edition Pg. No 31&46
143) Chicken pox is caused by virus

a) Herpes simplex
b) Varicella Zoster
c) Epstein barr
d) Cytomegalo virus
Answer B
Two conditionschickenpox and shinglesare caused by varicella zoster virus. Acute

infection with VZV causes chickenpox; reactivation of latent VZV causes shingles (also
called herpes zoster).
Chickenpox is mild in children but more severe in adults and in immune compromised
patients. Shinglesis a source of morbidity in elderly and immunosuppressed persons.
144) A viral infection causing bilateral parotid gland enlargement is
a) Measles
b) Rubella
c) Herpangina
d) Mumps
Answer D
Mumps is an acute, systemic, communicable viral infection whose most distinctive feature is
swelling of one or both parotid glands. Etiologic agent is Mumps virus a type of
paramyxovirus. Mumps virus is transmitted by droplet nuclei, saliva and fomites.
145) The two standard focal source to skin distances in intra oral radiography are
a) 8&16 inches
b) 4&8 inches
c) 6&12 inches
d) 2&4 inches
Answer A
The two standard focal source to skin distance in intra oral radiography one 20cm (8 inches)
and the other 41 cm (!6 inches)
Ref Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation Pg. No 34
146) Which of the following is a feature of acromegaly

a) Macroglossia
b) Micrognathia
c) Hypoglycaemia
d) Crowded teeth
Answer A
GH hypersecretion results in acromegaly. Common presentation of acromegaly includes Acral bony
overgrowth results in frontal bossing, increased hand and foot size, mandibular enlargement with
prognathism, and widened space between the lower incisor teeth.
Other commonly encountered clinical features include hyperhidrosis, deep and hollow-sounding
voice, oily skin, arthropathy, kyphosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, proximal muscle weakness and
fatigue, acanthosis nigricans, and skin tags. Generalized visceromegaly occurs, including
cardiomegaly, macroglossia, and thyroid gland enlargement.
147) Munros abscess is seen in

a) lichen planus
b) Scurvy
c) Psoriasis
d) Measles
Answer C
Intraepithelial microabscesses (Monros abscesses) are a common feature of Psoriasis. The

microscopic appearance of psoriasis is characterized by uniform parakeratosis, absence of the
stratum granulosum and elongation and clubbing of the rete pegs
148) Mach band effect is seen due to

a) Density difference between enamel and dentin
b) Caries of dentino enamel junction
c) Density difference between dentin and cementum
d) Root caries
Answer A
A Narrower shadow is apparent radio graphically on the images of sound teeth below or
sometimes above the occlusal enamel. This is an Optical illusion which is called Mach band
effect. Ernst Mach first described in 1865.
Ref Textbook of Oral Radiology Pg. No 485

149) A painfull swelling less than 2 cm in size, responsive to salicylates is
a) Osteoma
b) Osteochondroma
c) Osteiod osteoma
d) Osteoblastoma
Answer C
Osteoid osteoma is a benign osteoblastic tumor that Bergstrand first described in 1930. They
are usually smaller than 1.5-2 cm and characterized by an osteoid-rich nidus in a highly
loose, vascular connective tissue.
Fifty per cent of cases involve the femur or tibia, where they commonly arise in the cortex
and less frequently within the medullary cavity.
150) Radio- graphically, uniform thickening of the periodontal membrane,

especially in the posterior teeth is seen in
a) Hyper parathyroidism
b) Systemic sclerosis
c) Hyperthroidism
d) Diabetes mellitus
Answer B
Systemic sclerosis is a disease characterized by the ultimate induration of the skin and
fixation of the epidermis to the deeper subcutaneous tissues.
Radiographic Features:Extreme widening of the periodontal ligament, two to four times

normal thickness, has been reported originally by Stafne and Austin as characteristic of
scleroderma. Bone resorption of the angle of the mandibular ramus, usually bilaterally is also
a characteristic of scleroderma.
151) The nucleus related to ciliary ganglion is
a) Superior salivatory
b) Inferior salivatory
c) Lacrimatory
d) Edinger- westphal
Answer D
Autonomic Nerves to the Eyes: The eye is innervated by both parasympathetic and
sympathetic nerve fibers. The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers arise in the Edinger-
Westphal nucleus (the visceral nucleus portion of the third cranial nerve) and then pass in the
third nerve to the ciliary ganglion,which lies immediately behind the eye.
152) Following muscles are inserted into the modiolus Except

a) Zygomaticus major
b) Levator anguli oris
c) Levator labii superioris
d) Depressor anguli oris
Answer C
Modiolus is a fibromuscular body situated lateral to the angle of mouth. Muscles inserted into
modiolus are Orbicularis oris , Buccinator, Zygomaticus major, Levator anguli oris,
Depressor anguli oris.
Ref Textbook of anatomy by A.K.Datta
153) Cryptorchidism means

a) Ovulation
b) Hypogonadism
c) Hyper function of testis
d) Undescended testis
Answer D
Cryptorchidism occurs when there is incomplete descent of the testis from the abdominal
cavity into the scrotum.
About 3% of full-term and 30% of premature male infants have at least one cryptorchid testis
at birth, but descent is usually complete by the first few weeks of life.
Cryptorchidism is associated with increased risk of malignancy and infertility.
154) Heart rate increases during inspiration, this phenomenon is called as

a) Mareys law
b) Cushing reflex
c) Sinus arrhythmia
d) Bainbridge reflex
Answer C
In the respiratory type of sinus arrhythmia, which results mainly from spillover of signals
from the medullary respiratory centre into the adjacent vasomotor centre during inspiratory
and expiratory cycles of respiration.
The spillover signals cause alternate increase and decrease in the number of impulses
transmitted through the sympathetic and vagus nerves to the heart.
Cushing reflex (bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations)
155) The receptors for knee jerk reflex is

a) Muscle spindle
b) Patellar tendon
c) Golgi tendon organ
d) Touch receptor
Answer A
Clinically, a method used to determine the sensitivity of the stretch reflexes is to elicit the
knee jerk and other muscle jerks.
The knee jerk can be elicited by simply striking the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer; this
instantaneously stretches the quadriceps muscle and excites a dynamic stretch reflex that
causes the lower leg to jerk forward.
156) Which of the following nucleotide acts as second messenger

a) Adenosine triphosphate
b) Guanosine diphosphate
c) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate
d) Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate
Answer C
Ref Essential Medical Biochemistry Pg. No 517
157) Which of the following is rich in eicosapentanoic acid

a) Coconut oil
b) Ground nut oil
c) Adipose tissue fat
d) Fish oil
Answer D
Fish oil contains a wide range of fatty acids from C14 to C26. They are rich source of
eicosapentanoic acid and docosahexanoic acid.
158) In heat cure acrylic resin, benzoyl peroxide is an

a) Cross linking agent
b) Inhibitor
c) Initiator
d) Retarder
Answer C
Most poly(methy1 methacrylate) resin systems include powder and liquid components. The
powder consists of prepolymerized spheres of poly(methy1 methacrylate) and a small amount
of benzoyl peroxide. The benzoyl peroxide is responsible for starting the polymerization
process and is termed the initiator.
Ref Anusavice KJ. Phillips Science of dental materials. 11th edition. Pg. No 722-3
159) To make dustless alginate following is added

a) Organic glycols
b) Glucose
c) Sodium phosphate
d) Potassium sulphate
Answer A
When powder in the alginate can is fluffed to break loose the particles, fine silica particles
will become airborne from the can when the lid is removed. 'The silica particles in the dust
are of such a size and shape that long-term exposure through inhalation is a possible health
hazard. Manufacturers have introduced a "dustless" alginate in which they have incorporated
glycerine on the alginate powder to agglomerate the particles.
This causes the powder to become denser than in the uncoated state. After tumbling, the
powders no longer have a tendency to release fine particles as evidenced by the reduction in
airborne particles as the canister lid is removed.
Ref Phillips Science of dental materials 11th edition Pg.No 240
160) Localised Shrinkage porosity in heat cure denture base resign is caused by
a) Air inclusion
b) Insufficient material
c) Inadequate pressure during polymerization
d) Inadequate mixing of powder and liquid components
Answer D
Porosity can also result from inadequate mixing of powder and liquid components. If this
occurs, some regions of the resin mass will contain more monomer than others. During
polymerization these regions shrink more than adjacent regions, and the localized shrinkage
tends to produce voids.
The occurrence of such porosity can be minimized by ensuring the greatest possible
homogeneity of the resin. Hence, the use of proper polymer-to-monomer ratios and well-
controlled mixing procedures is essential.
161) Recommended disinfection solution for zinc oxide eugenol impression paste is
a) 4% Gluteraldehyde
b) 2% Gluteraldehyde
c) 2% Chlorine
d) 10% Gluteraldehyde
Answer B
162) The temperature below which a definite reduction in plasticity occur during
cooling of impression compound is called
a) Hysteresis
b) Syneresis
c) Fusion temperature
d) Working Temperature
Answer C
Temperature at which the material looses its hardness or brittleness on heating or forms a
rigid mass upon cooling is referred to as glass transition temperature.
On further heating the material softens to a plastic mass that can be manipulated. This is
called fusion temperature.
163) Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to

a) Xerophthalmia
b) Scurvy
c) Rickets
d) Osteomalacia
Answer B
Ascorbic acid is essential for activating the enzyme prolyl hydroxylase, which promotes the
hydroxylation step in the formation of hydroxyproline, an integral constituent of collagen.
Deficiency of ascorbic acid for 20 to 30 weeks, which occurred frequently, causes scurvy.
One of the most important effects of scurvy is failure ofwounds to heal.
164) Anaphylactic shock is hypersensitivity reaction

a) Type-1
b) Type-2
c) Type-3
d) Type-4
Answer A
Anaphylaxis is an allergic condition in which the cardiac output and arterial pressure often
decrease drastically.
It results primarily from an antigen-antibody reaction that takes place immediately after an
antigen to which the person is sensitive enters the circulation.
165) Specific DNA oncogenic viruses are all Except
a) Herpes Virus
b) Epstein Barr virus
c) Human Papilloma Virus
d) Hepatitis C Virus
Answer D
Ref Essential Pathology for Dental Students Pg. No 260
166) In hepatitis B virus infection, the first marker to appear in blood after infection
is
a) HBV DNA
b) HBe Ag
c) HBc Ag
d) HBs Ag
Answer D
The first marker to appear in blood after infection is HbsAg. It can be detected 1 week to 2
months after exposure. It disappears from the blood during the convalescent phase in patients
who recover rapidly from acute hepatitis.
167) Which of the following dermatophytes can infect hair, skin and nails
a) Microsporum
b) Trichophyton
c) Epidermophyton
d) All of these
Answer C
Dermatophytes are the organisms that are found in specific ecological niches and consume
the structural protein, keratin.
The term tinea refers to a dermatophycosis due to one of the following genera:
Epidermophyton, trichophyton or microsporum.
Ref Textbook of Microbiology Pg. No 653
168) Weils zone is the other name for

a) Odontoblastic zone
b) Cell free zone
c) Cell rich
d) Pulp core
Answer B
Zones of Pulp are

1)Odontoblastic at the pulp periphery
2) Cell free zone of weil
3) Cell rich zone
4) Pulp core
Cell free zone contains plexus of capillaries and small nerve fibre ramifications
Ref Tencates Oral Histology Pg. No 216
169) Origin of Odontoclast is

a) Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
b) Ectoderm
c) Hematopoietic
d) Endoderm
Answer C
The cells responsible for the removal of dental hard tissue are identical to osteoclasts and are
called odontoclasts.
They are multinucleated cells occupying resorption bays on the surface of dental hard tissue
Ref Orbans Oral histology and Embryology 13th edition Pg. No 351
170) Anterior lingual glands are called as
a) Von Ebners gland
b) Glands on blandin and nuhn
c) Glossopalatine
d) Sublingual
Answer B
Glands on blandin and nuhn: They are anterior lingual glands located near the apex of tongue
and are chiefly mucus in nature. They are covered by thin mucus membrane of the inferior
surface of the tongue.
Ref Textbook of Oral radiology by Ghom Pg. No 602
171) Inhaled anticholinergic bronchodilator used in asthmatic bronchitis is

a) Salbutamol
b) Ipraropium bromide
c) Zileuton
d) Ketotifen
Answer B
Anticholinergic agents as bronchodilators : Ipratropium - 2-4 puffs
Tiotropium 1 puff
Major side effects dry mouth , Sinusitis, dyspepsia
Ref Pharmacology principles and application 3rd edition Pg. No 456
172) Desensitizing agent added to dentifrices is

a) Menthol
b) Potassium nitrate
c) Fluorides
d) Salicylates
Answer B
Most commonly used desensitizing agents used in a dentrifices is potassium nitrate and
Strontium chloride: 0-5%
Ref Periodontics Revisited by Shalu bathla Pg. No 274

173) Central cyanosis is caused by all of these conditions, Except
a) Exposure to cold weather
b) Heart failure
c) Severe respiratory disease
d) Right to left cardiac shunts
Answer A
In the central type cyanosis, the SaO2 is reduced or an abnormal hemoglobin derivative is
present, and the mucous membranes and skin are both affected.
Peripheral cyanosis is due to a slowing of blood flow and abnormally great extraction of O2
from normally saturated arterialblood.
It results from vasoconstriction and diminished peripheral blood flow, such as occurs in cold
exposure, shock, congestive failure, and peripheral vascular disease.
174) Antihypertensive of choice in patient with diabetes mellitus

is..blocker
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Calcium channel
d) Angiotensin II receptor
Answer D
ACE Inhibitors should be the first choice, angiotensin IIreceptor blockers being the next
alternative drugs in patients with diabetes mellitus.

175) Recognised cause of thrombocytopenia include all of these except
a) Megaloblastic Anemia
b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
c) Von Willebrand disease
d) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
Answer C

Ref Nathan and Oski Hematology Pg. No 141
176) The cause of type II respiratory failure include all of these except
a) Flail chest disease
b) Sleep apnoea
c) Pulmonary oedema
d) Kyphoscoliosis
Answer C
Type II respiratory failure failure occurs as a result of alveolar hypoventilation and results in
the inability to effectively eliminate carbon dioxide.
Mechanisms by which this occurs are categorized as: (1) impaired central nervous system
(CNS) drive to breathe, (2) impaired strength with failure of neuromuscular function in the
respiratory system, (3) and increased load(s) on the respiratory system.
177) The disease of three Ds diarrhoea , dermatitis, dementia is due to

a) Pyridoxine
b) Niacin
c) Riboflavin
d) Ascorbic acid
Answer B
Niacin deficiency causes pellagra manifested as intense irritation and inflammation of the
mucous membranes of the mouth and other portions of the gastrointestinal tract, resulting in
many digestive abnormalities that can lead to widespread gastrointestinal haemorrhage.
178) Highest concentration of K+ is present in
a) Plasma
b) Isotonic saline
c) Ringer lactate
d) Hypertonic saline
Answer C
According to WHO 1991 Ringer lactate composition (Na+ 130, Cl- 109, K+ 4, lactate 28
mM)
Ref Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by KD Tripathi 6th Edition Pg. No 658

179) Drug used in intralesional injection of keloid is
a) Prednisolone
b) Tramcinalone
c) Androgen
d) Hydrocortisone
Answer B
Keloids are overgrown scar tissues with no tendency for resolution. They occur in wounds,
which heal without any complications. The common sites of occurrence include chest, back
and shoulders. Intralesional Triamcinolone acetonide (TAC) 10 - 40 mg/ml every 2 to 3
weeks followed by the daily application of flurandrenolide tape or curad scar therapy is used
for regression of Keloid.
Ref Cummings Otolaryngology - Head and Neck Surgery Pg. No 305
180) Fegans test is done in

a) TAO
b) Varicose veins
c) Tetany
d) Thyroid
Answer B
Test used in the diagnosis of varicose veins. Varicose veins are dilated, tortuous superficial
veins that result from defective structure and function of the valves of the saphenous veins,
from intrinsic weakness of the vein wall, from high intraluminal pressure, or, rarely, from
arteriovenous fistulas.
181) Ret proto- oncogenes is associated with

a) Medullary thyroid cancer
b) Hirschsprungs disease
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) All of these
Answer D
Ref Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition Pg. No 2123&2124.
182) De Queryains thyroiditis develops from which of the following infection
a) Bacteria
b) Viral
c) Parasitic
d) All of these
Answer B
Subacute thyroiditis is also termed de Quervains thyroiditis, granulomatous thyroiditis, or

viral thyroiditis. It is associated with very low uptake because of follicular cell damage and
TSH suppression. Subacute thyroiditis (infectious/ inflammatory) often experience pain
referred to the face or jaw. Oral andpharyngeal causes may be sought before the tender
thyroid gland andtransient hyperthyroidism are appreciated.
183) When nevus cells are seen in both epithelium and connective tissue, it is
known as
a) Dermal
b) Intra dermal
c) Compound
d) Junctional
Answer C
Junctional nevuswhen nevus cells are limited to the basal cell layer of the epithelium
Compound nevusnevus cells are in the epidermis and dermis
Intradermal nevus (common mole)nests of nevus cells are entirely in the dermis.
184) Fibrous bands on the check mucosa are seen in

a) Lichen planus
b) Leukoplakia
c) Oral sub mucosal fibrosis
d) Fibroma
Answer C
OSMF condition was described first by Schwartz (1952).The oral mucosa becomes blanched
and slightly opaque, and white fibrous bands appear. The buccal mucosa and lips are affected
at an early stage; it was thought that the palate and the faucial pillars are the areas involved
first.
185) Dens in dente is most commonly seen in
a) Premolars
b) Para molars
c) Lateral Incisors
d) Canines
Answer C
The dens in dente is a developmental variation which is thought to arise as a result of an

invagination in the surface of tooth crown before calcification has occurred. The permanent
maxillary lateral incisors are the teeth most frequently involved, and in the majority of cases
the dens in dente appears to represent simply an accentuation in the development of the
lingual pit.
Ref Shafers Textbook of oral pathology 7th edition Pg. No 42&43
186) Blue sclera is associated with

a) Amelogenesis imperfect
b) Osteomyelitis
c) Marfans syndrome
d) Fluorosis
Answer C
Marfan syndrome is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of

connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. Ocular findings
include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.
Blue sclera is also be seen in osteopetrosis, fetal rickets, Turner syndrome, Pagets disease,
and Ehlers- Danlos syndrome.
Ref Shafers Textbook of oral pathology 7th edition Pg. No 700-702
187) Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaw, multiple nevi and flax
cerebri calcifications are found in
a) Basal cell nevus syndrome
b) Sturge weber syndrome
c) Horner syndrome
d) Hereditary internal polyposis
Answer A
Basal cell nevus syndrome also called as hereditary cutaneomandibular polyoncosis, Gorlin
and Goltz syndrome. This syndrome, first described by Binkley and Johnson in 1951.
It is caused by mutations in patched (PTCH), a tumor suppressor gene, C/F includes
Odontogenic keratocysts (often multiple), mild mandibular prognathism, rib anomalies (often
bifid), vertebral anomalies and brachymetacarpalism
188) Squamous cell carcinoma with best prognosis is

a) Lip
b) Tongue
c) Palate
d) Floor of the mouth
Answer A
Carcinoma of the lip is generally slow to metastasize treated by either surgical excision or X-
ray radiation.
189) Kveim Slitzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of

a) Tuberculosis
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Leprosy
d) Cat scratch disease
Answer B
The Kveim- Siltzbach skin test, the intradermal injection of a heat-treated suspension of a
sarcoidosis spleen extract which is biopsied 4 to 6 weeks later, yields sarcoidosis-like lesions
in 70 to 80% of individuals with sarcoidosis, with <5% false-positive results.
The Kveim- Siltzbach test is only of historic interest and no longer used in the diagnosis of
sarcoidosis.
RefHarrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition Pg. No 2023
190) Histological clefts in lichen planus are

a) Civatte bodies
b) Wickhams striae
c) Max- joseph spaces
d) Austin pits
Answer C
Histologic Findings of Oral Lichen planus include hyperparakeratosis or

hyperorthokeratosis with thickening of the granular layer, acanthosis with intracellular edema
of the spinous cells in some instances.
Degeneration of the basal keratinocytes and disruption of the anchoring elements of the
epithelial basement membrane and basal keratinocytes weakens the epithelial-connective
tissue interface resulting in histological clefts called Max joseph spaces.

191) Which of the following is a zoonotic viral infection
a) Anthrax
b) Brucellosis
c) Rabies
d) Plague
Answer C
Ref Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition Pg. No 2481&2482
192) A disease usually affecting a large portion of population occurring over a wide
geographic area such as a section of a nation, the entire nation etc is
a) Endemic
b) Epidemic
c) Pandemic
d) Exotic
Answer C
Pandemic An epidemic usually affecting large proportion of the population occurring over
a wide geographic area such as a section of nation, the entire nation, continent or the world.
Ref Textbook of Public health dentistry Pg. No 537
193) The indicator dye used in a Snyder test is

a) Bromocresol green
b) Congo red
c) Bismark brown
d) Basic fuchsia
Answer A
This test developed by Snyder in 1951.Synder test is the qualitative determination of

acidogenic organisms in mouth; it measures the ability of salivary organisms to produce
organic acids from a carbohydrate medium. Glucose- agar media containing an indicator dye
(Bromocresol green) is used for this test.
194) In a standard normal curve, % frequency covered by mean 2 standard

deviation is
a) 68.3
b) 95.4
c) 98.3
d) 99.7
Answer B
Mean 1 SD = 68.27%
Mean 2 SD = 95.4%
Mean 3 SD = 99.73%
Ref Textbook of Preventive and Community Dentistry Pg. No 486
195) Zinc chloride in toothpaste reduces
a) Plaque
b) Caries
c) Calculus
d) Is of no use
Answer C
Anti-calculus agents commonly used are Pyrophosphates, Zinc citrate, Zinc chloride and
Gantrez acid. Zn++ has been one of the most-studied ingredients for the control of oral
malodour also. Zinc chloride was remarkably more effective than a saline rinse (or no
treatment) in reducing the levels of VSCs. It is also used in the treatment of dentinal
hypersensitivity by partially obstructing the dentinal tubules.

Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 12th Edition Pg. No 550, 1149
196) Limitation of freedom of movement of such well persons or domestic

animals exposed to communicable disease for a period of time not longer than the
longest usual incubation period of disease, in such a manner as to prevent effective
contact with those not so exposed is called as
a) Isolation
b) Quarantine
c) Early diagnosis
d) Separation
Answer B
Ref A Textbook of Public health dentistry Pg. No 538
197) An attribute or exposure that is significantly associated with the development
of a disease is
a) Causative factor
b) Risk indicator
c) Risk factor
d) Causative agent
Answer C
A risk factor is defined as any characteristic, behavior, or exposure with an association to a

particular disease.
198) All of the following are different types of bar clasps, Except
a) T clasp
b) C clasp
c) Y clasp
d) I bar
Answer B
Circumferential clasp approaches the retentive undercut from an occlusal direction
Bar clasp approaches the retentive undercut from cervical direction
Different types of bar clasps: 1) T Clasp 2) Modified T Clasp 3) Y Clasp 4) I clasp and I bar
Ref Textbook of Prosthodontics Nallaswamy Pg. No 363

199) Gariot described the Hinge articulator in which year
a) 1805
b) 1800
c) 1795
d) 1900
Answer A
Class -1 - Gariots articulator in 1805
Class-IIA Grittman
Class-IIB Monson
Class-IIC House Articulator
Class-III Hanau-mate
Class-IIIA Hanau Model H
Class- IIIB Trubyte articulator by gysi and Panadent
Class-IVA Kenneth Swanson
Class-IVB- Stimulator
Ref Review of Complete Denture Pg. No 62
200) Lingual bar is used in the conditions where

a) Lingual sulcus is deep
b) Lingual sulcus is shallow
c) When splinting is required of adjacent teeth
d) When abutment teeth have poor bony support
Answer A
Ref Mc Crackens Removable Partial Prosthdontics 13th Edition Pg. No 32

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1) Functional cusp bevel in tooth preparation provides

An integral part of the occlusal reduction is the functional cusp bevel.

On most posterior teeth, the functional cusp bevel is placed at an angle of

2) Correct indication for a lingual plate is

Ref McCrackens removable partial prosthodontics; 12th edition page no.52

3) Cavosurface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is

b - Knife-edgefinish linewith a cavosurface angle approaching 180.

4) To transfer the axis Orbital plane, we need

Ref BoucherTextbook of Complete denture 12th edition. Pg no. 285-7

7) Mohs hardness value for quartz is

8) First generation of apex locators were based on the principle of

RefIngles endodontics Pg. No 519

9) Sonic hand pieces operate at

Ref Cohen Pathways of Pulp expert Pg. No 232

Rubber dam was introduced by barnum in 1863.

The minimum thickness of rubber dam is 0.006 Inches

Ref Textbook of Operative Dentistry Pg. No 171

Ref Ingles endodontics Pg. No 1451

12) Trephination should be done

Ref Ingles endodontics Pg. No 69

Ref essentials of Pedodonticss Pg. No 38

18) Reaction to the pulp following ferric sulphate as a pulpotomy agent

Ref text book of Pedodontics by Shobha Tandon 2 nd edition Pg. No

20) Chemotherapeutic plaque control agent with non-charged phenolic agents is

Ref Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma by Raymond J.Fonseca, 4th edition

Ref Handbook of local anesthesia by S.F.Malamed 6th Edition Pg. No 231

Ref Textbook of local anaesthesia by Stanley Malamed 6th Edition Pg. No 18

25) First Local Anaesthesia to be used clinically was

26) Congo red staining is a characteristic of

Ref Shafers Textbook of oral pathology 7th edition Pg. No 627

Ref Surgical anatomy of head and neck by Sicher and Dubrill

Contents of Pterygomandibular space:Lingual nerve, mandibular nerve, inferior alveolar or

29) Plasma cells are predominantly seen in lesion of gingivitis

Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 355

Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 347

33) Electronic device for measuring GCF volume is

Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 345

35) Vincents angina is of

Vincent's angina is a fusospirochetal infection of the oropharynx and throat, as distinguished

Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 395

Answer CAnswer B please check this bit sir

Reciprocal anchorage is also called as multiple anchorage. This is an anchorage situation

Uncontrolled tipping-between centre of resistance and apex

Indirect genetic control, whatever its source is called epigenetic

Ref Contemporary orthodontics by William R Proffit 5th edition Pg. No 40&41

39) The S N plane in cephalometric analysis represents one of the

Ref Orthodontics art and science-S.I.BHALAJI 3rd edition Pg. No 148

The characteristics as outlined by moyers are:

Ref Orthodontics art and science-S.I.BHALAJI 3rd edition Pg. No 50

42) Fixed orthodontic should ideally produce. Force

It is an active orthodontic force that decreased little in magnitude between appointment

Ref Orthodontics art and science-S.I.BHALAJI 3rd edition Pg. No 201

43) The kloehn effect is observed with appliance

44) All of the following are types of candidiasis except

Geographic tongue also known as benign migratory glossitis.

45) X ray cause radiation damage primarily by their property of

46) Congenital hypothyroidism causes

Ref Carranzas Textbook of Clinical Periodontology 10th Edition Pg. No 39

48) Which year was cone beam CT developed

In 1972 first CT was developed by Hounsfield.

51) Atlanto occipital joint is the following variety of synovial joint

52) Tenons capsule is the facial sheath covering

Ref Human Anatomy by BD Chaurasia 4th edition Pg. No 105