Ph.

D ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
ACADEMIC YEAR 2015-2016
Q.1 Efflorescence in Cement is Caused due to an excess of
A) alumina B Iron oxide C Silica D alkalis
) ) )
Q.2 To determine the modulus of rupture the size of the specimen used is
A) 150x150x50 B 100x100x700 C 150x150x700 D 150x150x150m
0mm ) mm ) mm ) m
Q.3 The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise
to the surface while placing and compacting, is called
A) segregation B bleeding C bulking D creep
) ) )
Q.4 Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
A) Aggregate B Time of C Grading of D Temperature
cement ratio ) transit ) aggregates )
Q.5 Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about
A) 2% B 4% C 6% D 10%
) ) )
Q.6 For masonry work of solid bricks consistency of the mortar should be
A) 5 to 8cm B 9 to 13cm C 14 to 18cm D 19 to 23cm
) ) )
Q.7 Excess alumina in brick earth makes the brick
A) impermeabl B Brittle and C To lose D To crack and
e ) weak ) cohesion ) warp on drying
Q.8 Which of the following is a measure of particle size range
A) Effective B Uniformity C Coefficient of D Well gradation
size ) coefficient ) curvature )
Q.9 The most efficient traffic signal system is
A) Simultaneou B Alternate C Flexible D Simple
s system ) system ) progressive ) progressive
system system
Q.1 Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is
0 A) 2 to 4 B 4 to 6 C 6 to 8 D 8 to 10
) ) )
Q.1 The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of
1 sewage is
A) Sulphuric B Copper C Lime D Sodium
acid ) sulphate ) ) permanganate
Q.1 Size of the Venturimetre is specified by
2 A) Pipe B Throat C angle D Both (A) and
diameter ) diameter ) ) (B)
Q.1 A valve is suddenly closed in a water main in which the velocity is 1 m/sec and
3 velocity of pressure wave is 981 m/ sec. The inertia head at the valve will be
A) 1m B 10m C 100m D 50m
) ) )
Q.1 In case of foundations on block cotton soils, the most suitable method to
4 increase the bearing capacity of soils is to
A) Increase the B Drain the soil C Compact the D Replace the
depth of ) ) soil ) poor soil
foundation
Q.1 The least count of prismatic compass is
5 A) 10 minutes B 30minutes C 15minutes D 20minutes
) ) )
Q.1 The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
6 A) Height of B Reduced C Height of D Fore sight
instrument ) Levels ) collimatiion )

1
Q.1 Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete
7 structures such as large dams?
A) Ordinary B Low heat C Rapid D Sulphate
Portland ) cement ) hardening ) resisting
Cement cement cement
Q.1 Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in i) better workability ii)
8 better resistance to freezing and thawing iii) lesser workability iv) less
bleeding The correct answer is

A) (i) and (ii) B (i) and (iv) C (ii) and (iii) D (iii) and (iv)
) ) )
Q.1 Red colour is imparked to bricks due to
9 A) Ironoxide B lime C silica D magnesia
) ) )
Q.2 The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
0 A) Single B Double C English bond D Zigzag bond
Flemish ) Flemish bond ) )
bond
Q.2 The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a
1 place is called
A) Azimuth B declination C Local D Magnetic
) ) attraction ) bearing
Q.2 If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back- sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is
2 1.870 m, the R.L. of the forward station is
A) 99.345m B 100.345m C 100.655m D 101.87m
) ) )
Q.2 If a material has identical properties in all directions, it is said to be
3 A) homogeneou B isotropic C elastic D orthotropic
s ) ) )
Q.2 If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be
4 under
A) Tension B compression C shear D torsion
) ) )

Q.25 Shear stress on principal planes is

A Zero B) maximum C) minimum D Negative
) )
Q.26 The state of pure shear stress is produced by
A Equal B) Equal tension C) Equal D Un equal
) tension and in two compression ) tension in
compression directions at in two two
in mutual right angles directions at directions at
perpendicul right angles right angles.
ar directions
Q.27 Maximum bending moment in a beam occurs where
A Deflection is B) Shear force is C) Shear force is D Shear force
) zero maximum minimum ) changes sign
Q.28 Rate of change of bending moment is equal to
A Shear force B) deflection C) slope D Rate of
) ) loading
Q.29 The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a fixed ended beam
occurs
A At a support B) Always at the C) Under the D Always at the
) midspan load only ) free end.
Q.30 A flitched beam consists of a wooden joist 150 mm wide and 300 mm deep
strengthened by steel plates 10 mm thick and 300 mm deep one on either side
of the joist. If modulus of elasticity of steel is 20 times that of wood, then the
width of equivalent wooden section will be
A 150mm B) 350mm C) 500mm D 550mm

2
 ) )
Q.31 If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam is 15mm
and the slope of the deflection curve at the free end is 0.02 radian, then the
length of the beam is
A 0.8m B) 1.0m C) 1.2m D 1.5m
) )
Q.32 If the length of a simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load at the
centre is doubled, the defection at the centre will become
A Two times B) Four times C) Eight times D Sixteen times
) )
Q.33 Buckling load for a given column depends upon
A Length of B) Least lateral C) Both length D Radius of
) column only dimension only and least ) gyration
lateral
dimension
Q.34 Euler's formula for a mild steel long column hinged at both ends is not valid for
slenderness ratio
A Greater than B) Less than 80 C) Greater than D Greater than
) 80 180 ) 120
Q.35 Slenderness ratio of a 5 m long column hinged at both ends and having a
circular cross-section with diameter 160 mm is
A 31.25 B) 62.5 C) 100 D 125
) )
Q.36 The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium of a
plane structure is
A 1 B) 2 C) 3 D 6
) )
Q.37 Degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed plane frame having 15
members, 3 reaction components and 14 joints is
A 2 B) 3 C) 6 D 8
) )
Q.38 If in a pin-jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the frame is
,where r is reaction components ,m is the number of members and j is number
of joints
A Stable and B) Stable and C) unstable D Stable
) determinate indeterminate )
Q.39 In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the
members meeting at any joint is always
A Zero B) Less than 1 C) 1 D Greater than
) ) 1
Q.40 In the slope deflection equations, the deformations are considered to be caused
by i) bending moment ii) shear force iii) axial force .The correct answer is
A Only (i) B) (i) and (ii) C) (ii) and (iii) D (i), (ii) and
) ) (iii)

Q.41 The three moments equation is applicable only when

A Beam is B) No settlement C) No hinges D The spans
) prismatic of supports within the ) are equal
span
Q.42 The Castigliano's second theorem can be used to compute deflections
A Statically B) For any type of C) At the point D Beams and
) determinate structures under the ) frames only
structures load only
Q.43 Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives in the actual beam
A Slope B) curvature C) deflection D Bending
) ) moment
Q.44 For a two-hinged arch, if one of the supports settles down vertically, then the
horizontal thrust

3
 A increased B) Decreased C) No change D Zero
) )
Q.45 The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply
supported girder
A At centre of B) Under a wheel C) Never occurs D At quarter
) span load under wheel ) span.
load
Q.46 When a uniformly distributed load, longer than the span of the girder, moves
from left to right, then the maximum bending moment at mid-section of span
occurs when the uniformly distributed load occupies
A Less than B) Whole of left C) More than D Whole span
) the left half half span the left half )
span span
Q.47 Which of the following is not the displacement method?
A Equilibrium B) Column C) Moment D Kanis
) method analogy distribution ) method
method method
Q.48 In the displacement method of structural analysis, the basic unknowns are
A Displacemen B) Force C) Displacement D Bending
) ts s and forces ) moment.
Q.49 Degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given by
A 2j-r B) j-2r C) 3j-r D 2j+r
) )
Q.50 The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam a
A Roller B) Hinges support C) Fixed support D Free end
) support )
Q.51 The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of
A 2 to 3.5 B) 3.5 to 5.0 C) 5.0 to 7.0 D 6.0 to 8.5
) )
Q.52 For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
A Parabolic B) rectangular C) Parabolic D Triangular
) with )
rectangle
Q.53 If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical
neutral axis, then the beam is called
A Balanced B) Under- C) Over D Steel beam
) section reinforced reinforced )
section section
Q.54 Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-
2000 is
A M15 B) M20 C) M25 D M30
) )
Q.55 According to IS : 456-2000, the column or the strut is the member whose
effective length is greater than
A Least lateral B) 2 times the C) 3 times the D 4 times the
) dimension least lateral least lateral ) least lateral
dimension dimension dimension
Q.56 According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
A Less than 12 B) Less than 18 C) Between 18 D More than 24
) and 24 )
Q.57 Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 -
2000 is
A 20m B) 30m C) 45m D 60m
) )
Q.58 In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should
not be less than
A 100mm B) 150mm C) 200mm D 250mm
) )
Q.59 The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column is

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 given by
A 0.15% to 2% B) 0.8% to 4% C) 0.8% to 6% D 1% to 4%
) )
Q.60 Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m?
A L-shaped B) T-shaped C) counterfort D Cantilever
) )
Q.61 A beam curved in plan is designed for
A Bending B) Bending C) Bending D Shear and
) moment and moment and moment, ) torsion
shear torsion shear and
torsion

Q.62 Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as

a) gross diameter of bolt b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm c)
nominal diameter + 2.0 mm d) nominal diameter of bolt
A Gross B) Nominal C) Nominal D Nominal
) diameter of diameter diameter ) diameter of
bolt +1.5mm +2.0 bolt
Q.63 As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country
has been divided into
A 3 zones B) 4 zones C) 5 zones D 6 zones
) )
Q.64 The number of seismic zones as per IS 1893-2002 in which the country has
been divided are
A 3 B) 4 C) 5 D 6
) )
Q.65 A floating body is said to be in a state of stable equilibrium
A When B) When the C) When the D When its
) metacentric metacentre is metacentre is ) centre of
height is above the below the gravity is
zero centre of centre of below its
gravity gravity centre of
buoyancy
Q.66 Stream lines and path lines always coincide in case of
A Steady flow B) Laminar flow C) Uniform flow D Turbulent
) ) flow
Q.67 Equation of continuity is based on the principle of conservation of
A Mass B) Energy C) Momentum D Velocity
) )
Q.68 The pitot tube is used to measure
A Velocity at B) Stagnation C) Static D Dynamic
) stagnation pressure pressure ) pressure
point
Q.69 The velocity distribution for laminar flow through a circular tube
A Is constant B) Varies linearly C) Varies D Maximum at
) over the from zero at parabolically ) the centre.
cross- walls to with
section maximum at maximum at
centre centre
Q.70 Which of the following has highest coefficient of discharge?
A Sharp edged B) Venturimeter C) Bordas D Cipoletti weir
) orifice mouthpiece )
running full
Q.71 The suitable method of forecasting population for a young and rapidly
increasing city is
A Arithmetical B) Geometrical C) Incremental D Graphical
) increase increase increase ) method
method method method
Q.72 Which of the following is water disinfectant method?

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 A Oxidation B) Aeration C) Sedimentatio D Chlorination
) n )
Q.73 Turbidity is measured on
A Standard B) Standard C) Standard D Platinum
) silica scale cobalt scale platinum ) cobalt scale
scale
Q.74 The design period for a water supply project is taken as
A 10 years B) 10-15 years C) 15-20 years D 20-30 years
) )
Q.75 The self-cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
A Less than B) 1 to 1.2m/s C) 1.5 to 2.0m/s D 3.0 to 3.5m/s
) 1.0m/s )
Q.76 The specific gravity of sewage is
A Slightly less B) Zero C) Equal to 1 D
Slightly
) than 1 )
greater than
1
Q.77 The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken
A Equal to dry B) 2 x DWF C) 3xDWF D 6xDWF
) weather )
flow (DWF)
Q.78 Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of
A theodolite B) compass C) Plane table D Sight rails
) ) and bonding
rocks
Q.79 The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical
oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
A TOD>BOD> B) TOD>COD>B C) BOD>COD> D COD>BOD>
) COD OD TOD ) TOD

Q.80 Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?

A Sludge B) Sedimentation C) Activated D Trickling
) digestion tank sludge ) filters
tank treatment
Q.81 According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
A 4.75 to B) 2.0 to C) 0.425 to D 0.075 to
) 2.0mm 0.425mm 0.075mm ) 0.002mm

Q.82 Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on

A Particle size B) Plasticity C) Both particle D Gradation of
) composition characteristics size ) soil
composition
and plasticity
characteristic
s
Q.83 Quick sand is a
A Type of sand B) Flow condition C) Flow DFlow
) occurring in condition )condition
cohesive soils occurring in occurring in
cohesion less both
soils cohesive and
cohesionless
soils
Q.84 Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of
permeability of clayey soil?
A Constant B) Falling head C) Horizontal D Both
) head method permeability ) constant and
method test falling head
method.
Q.85 The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits

6
 A Parallel to B) Parallel to C) Is same in D Less than
) stratification stratification is both ) zero
is always always less directions
greater than than that
that perpendicular
perpendicul to stratification
ar to
stratification
Q.86 The slope of isochrones at any point at a given time indicates the rate of
change of
A Effective B) Effective stress C) Pore water D Pore water
) stress with with depth pressure with ) pressure
time depth with time
Q.87 The most accurate method for the determination of water content in the
laboratory is
A Sand bath B) Oven drying C) Pycnometer D Calcium
) method method method ) carbide
method
Q.88 Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
A Dysentery B) Cholera C) Typhoid D Malaria
) )
Q.89 The best sewer material to resist hydrogen sulphide corrosion is
A RCC B) Brick masonry C) Glazed stone D Asbestos
) ware ) cement
Q.90 If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per
capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population equivalent of town is
A 1000 B) 4000 C) 100000 D 400000
) )
Q.91 The maximum width of a vehicle as recommended by IRC is
A 1.85m B) 2.44m C) 3.81m D 4.72m
) )
Q.92 Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is
A 1.0 B) 2.0 C) 0.5 D 10
) )
Q.93 If is a dorry abrasion test the loss in weight 21 gms, then the coefficient of
hardness is
A 9.5 B) 13 C) 17 D 21
) )
Q.94 Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen?
A 30/40 B) 60/70 C) 80/100 D 100/120
) )
Q.95 Bitumen of grade 80/100 means
A Its B) Its penetration C) Its D Its
) penetration value is 10mm penetration ) penetration
value is value is 8 to value is 8 to
8mm 10mm 10cm
Q.96 The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
A 1:1 B) 1.5:1 C) 2:1 D 1:2
) )
Q.97 Time and progress chart of a construction is also known as
A Crash B) PERT C) CPM D Bar chart
) )
Q.98 Critical path in CPM
A Is always B) Is always C) May be D May be
) longest shortest longest ) shortest
Q.99 Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
A Drag line B) Hoe C) Clam shell D Dipper
) ) shovel
Q.10 For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable

7
0 estimates are 5, 17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is
A 8 days B) 9 days C) 10 days D 15 days
) )
Q.101. According to the relevant IS code, the weight of the timber is to be reckoned at a
moisture content
(A) ZERO (B) 4% (C) 8% (D) 12%
Q.102. A good brick should not absorb water by weight more than
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 25% (D) 30%

Q.103. The modulus of elasticity of high tensile steel is

(A) smaller than that of mild steel (B) equal to that of mild steel (C) larger
than that of mild steel (D) equal to that of aluminium
Q.104. Modulus of elasticity of M 25 concrete as determined by formula of IS: 456-2000
is
(A) 1,24,500 MPa (B) 90,125 MPa (C) 25,000 MPa (D) 16,667 MPa
Q.105. The crushing strength of a good building stone should be at least
(A) 50 MPa (B) 100 MPa (C) 150 MPa (D) 200 MPa
Q.106. Consider the following oxides:
1. Al2O3 2. CaO 3. SiO2
The correct sequence in increasing order of their percentage in an ordinary Portland
cement is
(A) 2, 1, 3 (B) 1, 3, 2 (C) 3, 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3
Q.107. An arrangement for temporarily supporting a structure from beneath for safety,
is known as
(A) Jacking (B) underpinning (C) supporting (D) hauling
Q.108. Match List-I (Apparatus) with List-II (purpose) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Le chatelier 1. Workability of concrete
B. Vicat needle with annular collar 2. Soundness of cement
C. Vee Bee 3. Tensile strength of cement
D. Briquettes test machine 4. Final setting time of cement
Codes:
A B C D
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 2 3 1 4
Q.109. One of the main demerits in using the lime is that it
(A) Is not durable (B) does not set quickly (C) swells (D) is plastic
Q, 110. The quick- setting cement has an initial setting time of about
(A) 50 min. (B) 40 min. (C) 15 min. (D) 5min.
Q.111. which one of the following would contain water with the maximum amount of
turbidity
(A) Lakes (B) Oceans (C) Rivers (D) Wells
Q.112. which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Check valve: to check water flow in all directions (B) Sluice valve: to control
flow of water through pipelines(C) Air valve: to release the accumulated air (D)
Scour valve: to remove silt in a pipeline
Q.113. Uniform coefficient of filter sand is given by
(A) D50/D5 (B) D50/D10 (C) D60/D5 (D) D60/D10
Q.114. The following data pertain to a sewage sample:
Initial DO = 10mg/L; Final DO = 2mg/L; Dilution to 1%; The BOD of the given sewage
sample is
(A) 8 mg/L (B) 10 mg/L (C) 100 mg/L (D) 800 mg/L
Q.115. The various treatment processes in a water treatment plant are listed below:
1. Filtration
2. Chlorination

8
 3. Sedimentation
4. Coagulation
5. Flocculation
The correct sequence of processes in water treatment is
(A) 1,2,3,4,5 (B) 4,5,3,1,2 (C) 2,3,1,5,4 (D) 1,2,5,3,4
Q.116. Which one of the following methods can be employed for plastic and rubber
waste disposal?
(A) Composting (B) Incineration (C) Sanitary Landfill (D) Pyrolysis
Q.117. A commonly used hand pump is the
(A)centrifugal pump (B) reciprocating pump (C) rotary pump (D) axial
flow pump
Q.118. For fish habitat in a river, the minimum dissolved oxygen required is
(A) 2 mg/L (B) 4 mg/L (C) 8 mg/L (D) 10 mg/L
Q.119. Which of the following cations imparts pseudo-hardness to water?
(A)calcium only (B) magnesium only (C) calcium and magnesium (D)
sodium
Q.120. Chlorides from water are removed by
(A) Lime soda process (B) reverse osmosis (C)cation exchange process (D)
chemical coagulation

Q.121. A combined sewer is one, which transports domestic sewage and

(A)storm water (B) industrial wastes (C) overhead flow (D) industrial
wastes and storm water

Q.122. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

i) Piezometric head - sum of datum head and pressure head
ii) Dynamic head - sum of datum head and velocity head

iii) Stagnation head - sum of pressure head and velocity head

iv) Total head - sum of piezometric head and dynamic head
select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)i, ii and iii (B) i, iii and iv (C) i, ii and iv (D) ii, iii and iv
Q.123. At a hydraulic jump, the depths at the two sides are 0.4m and 1.4m. The head
loss in the jump is nearly
(A) 1.0m (B) 0.9m (C) 0.7m (D) 0.45m
Q.124. Which of the following fluids can be classified as non-Newtonian?
(1) Kerosene oil
(2) Diesel oil
(3) Human blood
(4) Tooth paste
(5) Water
Select the correct answer using the codes

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 2 and 5 (D) 1 and 5

Q.125. A pelton turbine is
(A) High head turbine (B) a radial flow (C) low specific speed turbine (D) high
head and low specific speed turbine
Q.126. Newtons law of viscosity for a fluid element,
(A) proportional to angular deformation (B) proportional to rate of angular
deformation (C) inversely proportional to angular deformation (D) inversely
proportional to rate of angular deformation
Q.127. At room temperature, the dynamic and kinematic viscosity of water
(A) are both greater than that of air (B)are both less than that of air (C) are
respectively greater than and less than that of air (D) are respectively less than
and greater than that of air
Q.128. At a hydraulic jump, the depth at the two sides are 0.4m and 1.4m. the head loss
or energy loss in the jump is nearly
(A) 1.0m (B) 0.9m (C) 1.7m (D) 0.45m

9
Q.129. The liquid limit and plastic limit of sample are 65% and 29%. The percentage of
soil fraction with grain size finer than 0.002mm is 24. The activity ratio of the soil
sample is ?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D)2.0
Q.130. A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 10% and specific gravity of soil as 2.7. The
porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is?
(A)21.2%(B) 27%(C) 73% (D)78.8%
Q.131. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above the A line when plotted on a
plasticity chart. The group symbol of the soil as per IS soil classification is
(A) CH (B) CI (C) CL (D) MI
Q.132. The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
(A)moisture content only (B) amount of compaction energy only (C) both
moisture content and amount of compaction energy (D) density of materials
Q.133. Minimum center to center spacing of friction piles of diameter D as per BIS
code is?
(A) 1.5D (B) 2D (C) 2.5D (D) 3D
Q.134. Which one of the following tests cannot be done without undisturbed sampling?
(A)shear strength of sand (B) shear strength of clay (C) compaction
parameter (D) liquid limit
Q.135. The consistency of a saturated cohesive soil is affected by
(A) Water content (B) density index (C) particle size distribution (D)
coefficient of permeability
Q.136. primary compression is mainly due to expulsion
(A)air (B) water (C) both air and water (D) liquid
Q.137. Sheep-foot rollers are recommended for compacting
(A)granular soils (B) cohesive soils (C) hard rock (D) any type of soil
Q.138. Lacustrine soils are soils
(A)transported by rivers and streams (B) transported by glaciers (C)
deposited in sea beds (D) deposited in lake beds
Q.139. Which of the following formations does not contain any groundwater?
(A)aquifer (B)aquifuge (C)aquitard (D)aquiclude

Q.140. Inconsistency of rainfall data can be checked by which one of the following?
(A) Normal ratio method (B) Mass curve method (C) Double-mass
curve method (D) Depth duration frequency curve
Q.141. Lysimeter is an instrument used to measure
(A)evaporation (B) infiltration (C) evapotranspiration (D) transpiration
Q.142. The water year in India may be taken as
(A)from June to May (B) from January to December (C) from April to March
(D) from October to September
Q.143. Hydrograph is
(A)zero effective precipitation (B) plot between discharge in stream and time (C)
plot between duration and runoff (D) plot between rainfall and time
Q.144. As per Indian standards the number of rain gauges that could be installed in a
plane area of 1000Km2 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.145. Which of the following is a non recording type rain gauge
(A)tipping bucket type (B) weighing bucket type (C)symons rain gauge
(D) natural siphons type
Q.146. Transpiration is a process
(A) confined to night time only (B) confined to day-light hours only(C) occurs
both day and night time (D) confined to rainy season
Q.147. Minimum grade of concrete for water tanks is
(A) M 15 (B) M 20 (C) M 25 (D) M30
Q.148. The partial safety factor to be used in limit state of deflection for strength of
concrete is
(A) 1.2 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.8
Q.149. in coastal region minimum grade of concrete for R.C.C. IS

10
 (A) M15 (B) M20 (C) M25 (D) M30
Q.150. Why is the design of a RC section as over reinforced section is undesirable?
(A)it consumes more concrete (B) it undergoes high strains (C) it fails
suddenly (D) its appearance is not good
Q.151. In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load, main reinforcement is provided
(A)above the neutral axis (B) as vertical stirrups (C) as a helical
reinforcement (D) below the neutral axis
Q.152. What is the value of minimum reinforcement (in case of Fe 415) in a slab?
(A) 0.1% (B) 0.12% (C) 0.15% (D) 0.2%
Q.153. Shrinkage in a concrete slab
(A)causes shear cracks (B) causes tension cracks (C) causes compression
cracks(D) does not cause any cracking
Q.154. In the conventional prestressing scheme, the diagonal tension in concrete
(A)increases (B) decreases (C) does not change (D) may increase or decrease
Q.155. By which one of the following methods is an approximate quick solution possible
for frame subjected to transverse loads?
(A)by cantilever or portal method (B) by strain energy method (C) by moment
distribution method (D) by matrix method
Q.156. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic
analysis
(A) Equilibrium condition (B) Yield condition (C) Plastic moment condition
(D) Mechanism condition
Q.157. Which one of the following is correct?
A determinate structure
(A) Cannot be analyzed without the correct knowledge of modulus of
elasticity
(B) Must necessarily have roller support at one of its ends
(C) Requires only statical equilibrium equation for its analysis
(D) Will have zero deflection at its ends
Q.158. The moment-distribution method in structural analysis falls in the category of
(A) Displacement method (B) Force method (C) Flexibility method (D) First order
approximate method
Q.159. Consider the following assumptions:
1. all members have same cross sectional area
2. the bending resistance of all the members is small in compression with
their axial force resistance
3. all the external loads are applied directly or indirectly at the joints
4. all joints are idealized to be frictionless hinges
Which of these are the assumptions made in the force analysis of simple trusses?
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 2,3 and 4 (C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4

Q.160. What is the shape of influence line diagram for the maximum bending moment in
respect of a simply supported beam?
(A)rectangular (B) triangular (C) parabolic (D) circular
Q.161. A statically indeterminate structure is the one which
(A) cannot be analyzed at all (B) can be analyzedusing equations of statics
only (C) can be analyzed using equations of statics and compatibility equations
(D) can be analyzed using equations of compatibility only
Q.162. A suspension bridge with a two-hinged stiffening girder is
(A)statically determinate (B) indeterminate of one degree (C) indeterminate of
two degree
(D)a mechanism

Q.163. If the shear force diagram of a simply supported beam is parabolic, then the load
on the beam is
(A)uniformly distributed load (B) concentrated load at mid span (C)
external moment acting at mid span (D) linearly varying distributed load
Q.164. Resilience is

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 (A)maximum strain energy (B)recoverable strain energy (C) total potential
energy (D) Shear strain energy (Beyond Hooks law)
Q.165. A point load applied at shear center induces
(A)zero shear force (B) zero bending (C) pure twisting (D) pure bending
Q.166. If the youngs modulus E is equal to the bulk modulus K, then what is the
value of the Poissons ratio?
(A)1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/3 (D)
Q.167. Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deform
progressively with time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a
phenomenon called?
(A)fatigue (B) creep (C) creep relaxation (D) fracture
Q.168. The details of the principal stresses at a certain point in a steel member are as
follows:
Major principal stress 1= 180 N/mm2 (Tensile)
Major principal stress 2 is compressive. If the uniaxial yield stress is 240
N/mm2 according to maximum shear stress theory, what would be the value of 2
in N/mm2 at which yielding will commence?
(A) 120 tension (B) 90 tension(C) 80 compression (D) 60 compression
Q.169. Consider the following salient points in a stress-strain curve of a mild steel bar:
1. yield point
2. breaking point
3. yield plateau
4. proportionality limit
5. ultimate point
The correct sequence in which they occur while testing the mild steel bar in
tension from initial zero strain to failure is
(A) 4,1,2,3 and 5 (B) 1,4,3,5 and 2 (C) 4,1,3,5 and 2 (D) 1,4,2,3 and 5
Q.170. The maximum number of unknown forces that can be determined in a concurrent
coplanar force system under equilibrium is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 1
Q.171. What is the angle between principal strain axis and maximum shear strain axis
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 90
Q.172. For the design of a cast iron member, the most appropriate theory of failure is
(A)mohrs theory (B)Rankines theory (C) Maximum stress theory (D)
Maximum shear energy theory
Q.173. In a two-dimensional stress system, the radius of the Mohrs circle represents
(A)maximum normal stress (B) minimum normal stress (C) minimum shear stress
(D) maximum shear stress
Q.174. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are provided in plate girders to
(A)eliminate web buckling (B) eliminate local buckling (C) transfer
concentrated loads (D) prevent excessive deflection
Q.175. In a fillet weld the weakest section is the
(A)smaller side of fillet (B) throat of the fillet (C) side perpendicular to force
(D) side parallel to force
Q.176. In a simply supported beam of span L each end is restrained against torsion,
compression flange being unrestrained. According to IS: 800, the effective length of
the compression flange will be equal to
(A) L (B) 0.85L (C) 0.75L (D) 0.70L
Q.177. A plate used for connecting two or more structural members intersecting each
other is termed as
(A)template (B) base plate (C) gusset plate (D) shoe plate
Q.178. In a situation where torsion is dominant, which one of the following is the
desirable section
(A)angle section (B) channel section (C) I - section (D) box type section

Q179. The maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel is limited to

(A) 6t (B) 10t(C) 32t(D) 16t
Q.180. The hot driven rivets are

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 (A) power driven cold rivets (B) hand driven shop rivets (C) field rivets (D) power
driven field rivets
Q.181. The percentage of carbon in standard structural steel is
(A) 0.23% (B) 0.6% (C) 0.5% (D) 1.5%
Q.182. Surveys which are carried out to show natural features of country such as rivers,
hills etc., is
(A)cadastral surveys (B) engineering surveys (C) topographical survey (D)
route survey
Q.183. The basic principle of surveying is working from
(A)part to whole (B) whole to part (C) lower to higher level (D) higher to
lower level
Q.184. Thedesending order of precision among the following types of survey is
1. chain 2. Compass 3. Theodolite 4. Micro optic theodolite
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 3,4,2,1 (C) 4,3,2,1 (D) 4,3,1,2
Q.185. Which of the following conditions requires geodetic surveying
(A)horizontal curve ranging (B) vertical curve ranging (C) survey of a country
(D) reconnaissance survey
Q.186. In surveying operations, the word reciprocal can be associated with
1. ranging 2. Leveling 3. contouring
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1,2 and 3
Q.187. Which of the following sights will be applicable for a change point
(A)back sight (B) intermediate sight (C) fore sight (D) back sight and fore
sight
Q.188. What is the angle between two plane mirrors of an optical square
(A) 30(B) 60 (C) 45 (D) 90
Q.189. for locating an inaccessible point with help of only a plane table, one should use
(A)traversing (B) resection (C) radiation (D) intersection
Q.190. Theory of errors and adjustments deals with minimizing the effect of
(A)instrumental errors (B) mistakes (C) systematic errors (D) personal and
accidental errors
Q.191. Turning the telescope in the vertical plane about the horizontal axis is called
(A)transiting (B) plunging (C) swinging (D) both (A) and (B)
Q.192. Which set of traffic studies is needed for functional design as well as for
highway capacity design?
(A)origin and destination studies (B) parking and accident studies (C) speed
and volume studies (D) axle load studies
Q.193. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete
pavement will the combined stresses due to traffic wheel load and temperature
have to be critically checked during design?
(A)corner(B) corner and interior (C) corner and edge (D) corner, edge and
interior
Q.194. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?
(A) CBR method (B) group index method (C)westergaards method
(D)MeLeods method
Q.195. a railway yard in which wagons are received, sorted and dispatch of trains are
formed is called
(A)good yard (B) station yard (C) marshalling yard (D) shunting yard
Q.196. Which one of the following is taken into consideration for computing traffic
capacity per lane of the highway
(A)passenger cars and light vehicles (B) trucks and buses (C) two -
wheelers (D) equivalent of passenger cars
Q.197. In cement concrete pavements, tie bars are installed in
(A)expansion joints (B) contraction joints(C) warping joints (D) longitudinal
joints
Q.198. A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by principles of buoyancy. Such a
chamber is called
(A)dry dock (B) wet dock (C) floating dock (D) refuge dock
Q.199. Which one of the following is useful in functional evaluation of pavement
(A) P C U (B) P S I (C) P I E V (D) Benkelman beam

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Q.200. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a
highway material
(A)stability(B) ease of compaction (C) good drainage (D) bitumen adhesion

BEST OF LUCK

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