MITRC REFRESHER COURSE ANSWER KEY Radiowave

Propagation & Antenna

1. __________ is the amount of voltage induced in a wave by an

electromagnetic wave 15. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what
a. Receive voltage is the polarization of the TEM wave?
b. Magnetic induction a. Circular
c. Field strength b. Horizontal
d. Power density c. Vertical
d. Elliptical
2. An electromagnetic wave consists of _____
a. Both electric and magnetic fields 16. A changing magnetic field gives rise to
b. An electric field only a. Sound field
c. A magnetic field only b. Magnetic field
d. Non-magnetic field only c. Electric field
d. Nothing in particular
3. What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere?
a. F1 17. The index of refraction of a material medium
b. F2 a. Is greater than 1
c. E b. Is less than 1
d. D c. Is equal to 1
d. May be any of the above
4. Who profounded electromagnetic radiation theory?
a. Sir Edward Appleton 18. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following
b. James Clerk Maxwell can happen to them
c. Christian Huygens a. Absorption
d. Sir Isaac Newton b. Attenuation
c. Refraction
5. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of d. Reflection
a. Ground waves
b. Sky waves 19. Groundwave communications is most effective in what frequency range?
c. Surface waves a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
d. Space waves b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
6. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they __________ d. Above 300 MHz
a. Pass into a medium of different dielectric constants
b. Are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation 20. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency
c. Encounter a perfectly conducting surface range?
d. Pass through a small slot in a conducting plane a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
7. What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere c. 30 to 300 MHz
a. F2 d. Above 300 MHz
b. F1
c. D 21. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft. high. The receiving antenna is
d. E 200 ft. high. The minimum transmission distance is
a. 20 mi
8. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be b. 33.2 mi
returned to earth? c. 38.7 mi
a. MUF d. 53.2 mi
b. Skip frequency
c. Critical frequency 22. States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance from its
d. Gyro frequency source
a. Principal or Reciprocity
9. What is the unit of electric field strength? b. Inverse Square Law
a. Volts per square meter c. Huygens Principle
b. Volt per square cm d. Faradays Law
c. Volts per meter
d. Millivolt per watt 23. What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere?
a. Sun spot
10. Velocity of a radiowave in free space b. Cosmic rays
a. 186,000 miles per sec c. Galactic disturbance
b. 300 x 106 meters per sec d. Ultraviolet radiation
c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec
d. All of the above 24. Which layer does not disappear at night?
a. D
11. Refers to the direction of the electric field vector in space b. E
a. Polarization c. F1
b. Directivity d. F2
c. Radiation
d. ERP 25. The shortest distance measured along the earths surface that a skywave
is returned to earth
12. A TEM wave whose polarization rotates a. MUF
a. Vertically polarized b. Quarter-Wavelength
b. Omnidirectional c. Skip distance
c. Horizontally polarized d. Skip zone
d. Circularly polarized
26. What do you call the gigantic emissions of hydrogen from the sun?
13. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 W transmitter a. Solar flares
power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and b. SIDs
10 dB feedline antenna gain? c. Kennely-Heaviside
a. 2000 W d. Sun spots
b. 126 W
c. 317 W 27. Two directional antennas are pointed so that their beams intersect in the
d. 260 W troposphere
a. Skywave
14. In a vacuum the speed of an electromagnetic wave b. Surface wave
a. Depends on its constant c. Microwave
b. Depends on its wavelength d. Troposcatter
c. Depends on its electric and magnetic fields
d. Is a universal constant 28. Super refraction

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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE Radiowave
Propagation & Antenna

a. Ducting b. Angle of elevation

b. Troposcatter c. Right angle
c. Skywave d. Beamwidth
d. Space wave
43. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna
29. Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths tower design?
a. Space diversity a. 300 kph
b. Frequency diversity b. 100 kph
c. Hybrid diversity c. 200 kph
d. Polarization diversity d. 250 kph

30. Two or more receivers are used using a single antenna 44. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna
a. Space diversity a. Helical antenna
b. Frequency diversity b. Rhombic antenna
c. Hybrid diversity c. Notch antenna
d. Polarization diversity d. Cassegrain antenna

31. Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary 45. What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna?
spherical wavefront a. Omnidirectional
a. Snells law b. Bidirectional
b. Huygens principle c. Unidirectional
c. Rayleighs principle d. Hemispherical
d. De Morgans theorem
46. An antenna with unity gain
32. Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere? a. Rhombic
a. Stratosphere b. Half-wave dipole
b. Troposphere c. Isotropic
c. Ionosphere d. Whip
d. Ozone layer
47. An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long
33. Which ionosphere layer has an average height of 225 km at night? a. Hertzian dipole
a. D layer b. Loop antenna
b. E layer c. Marconi antenna
c. F1 layer d. Elementary doublet
d. F2 layer
48. What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have?
34. In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally a. 3
polarized antennas used? b. 5
a. VHF, UHF c. 4
b. VLF, LF d. 6
c. SH, EHF
d. MF, HF 49. Which of the following improves antenna directivity?
35. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna? a. Driven element
a. 1.64 dB b. Reflector element
b. 2.15 dB c. Director element
c. 1.76 dB d. Parasitic element
d. 1.55 dB
50. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a
36. _____ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity northernly direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction?
a. Phase angle a. 25000 dB
b. Antenna gain b. 10 dB
c. Beamwidth c. 100 dB
d. Bandwidth d. 20 dB

37. _____ is the amount of uncertainly in a system of symbols 51. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m
a. Bandwidth a. 88 MHz
b. Enthalpy b. 44 MHz
c. Entropy c. 22 MHz
d. Quantum d. 11 MHz

38. If an antenna has a gain of 30 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter 52. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5%
by longer
a. 10,000 times a. End effect
b. 1000 times b. Flywheel effect
c. 100 times c. Skin effect
d. 1 million times d. Capture effect

39. Which does not use vertical polarization antenna? 53. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal
a. AM Broadcasting a. At 45 degrees to its axis
b. FM Broadcasting b. Parallel to its axis
c. Mobile Communications c. At right angles to its axis
d. Satellite Communications d. at 60 degrees to its axis

40. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane 54. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the effective
with vertical polarization? length can be increased by adding
a. Marconi antenna a. Capacitance in series
b. Discone antenna b. Inductance in series
c. Horn antenna c. Resistance in parallel
d. Helical antenna d. Resistance in series
41. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth
a. Helical antenna 55. Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a
b. Discone antenna transmitter for proper modulation, amplifier operation and frequency
c. Horn antenna accuracy?
d. Parabolic dish antenna a. Elementary
b. Real
42. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna c. Isotropic
a. Azimuth d. Dummy

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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE ANSWER KEY Radiowave
Propagation & Antenna

69. Strong interference from one particular station can be eliminated by the
56. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts. If the antenna use of
has a 2dB power gain, what is the effective radiated power a. Noise limiters
a. 317 watts b. Squelch circuits
b. 158 watts c. Negative feedback
c. 200 watts d. Wave traps in the antenna circuits
d. 400 watts
70. Good grounding is important for
57. If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its a. Horizontal antennas
resonant frequency will b. Broadside array antennas
a. Increase c. Vertical antennas
b. Depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either d. Yagi-Uda antennas
be increased or decreased
c. Will be unchanged 71. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?
d. Decrease a. Biconical
b. Horn
58. It is an array of metallic conductors buried beneath the antenna, which is c. Helical
used to improve the conductivity of the natural earth d. Discone
a. Loading coil
b. ATU 72. Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler
c. Counterpoise a. To make the antenna resistive
d. Earth mat b. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
c. To discriminate against harmonics
59. What is the electrical wavelength of a 500 MHz signal? d. To prevent reradiation of the local oscillator
a. 60 centimeters
b. 6 meters 73. Which antenna is not a wideband?
c. 0.06 meter a. Discone
d. 60 meters b. Folded dipole
c. Helical
60. Actual height of antenna should be at least d. Marconi
a. One wavelength
b. Half wavelength 74. _____ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths
c. Quarter wavelength a. Elementary doublet
d. Three-fourth wavelength b. Log-periodic
c. Long wire
61. Which antenna is not properly terminated? d. Whip
a. Resonant
b. Non-resonant 75. Which antenna does not use the ground?
c. Isotropic a. Marconi
d. Whip b. Yagi
c. Hertz
62. _____ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the d. Rhombic
plane of the array?
a. Broadside array 76. It is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as a
b. End-fire array function of angular direction from the antenna axis
c. Turnstile array a. Antenna pattern
d. Log-periodic array b. Polarization
c. Beamwidth
63. The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiation is d. Sidelobes
a. A figure 8
b. A sphere 77. In a turnstile antenna, the crossed dipoles are excited with voltages
c. A unidirectional cardioid a. In phase with each other
d. A parabola b. 360 out of phase with each other
c. 90 out of phase with each other
64. The purpose of stacking elements on an antenna d. 180 out of phase with each other
a. Sharper directional pattern
b. Increased gain 78. It is described as the MUF factor
c. Improved bandpass a. sec
d. All of these
b. cos
65. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna? c. sin
a. At the ends
b. Threequarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
d. csc
c. Onehalf of the way from the feed point toward the end
d. At the feed point 79. Known as the technique for adding a series inductor at or near the center
of an antenna element in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an
66. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of antenna
a horizontal wire that is hanged between two towers. What is the a. Dipole
frequency of its third harmonic? b. Center loading
a. 727 kHz c. Reflector
b. 6545 kHz d. Loading coil
c. 436 kHz
d. 6.546 kHz 80. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage
exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
67. What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has a. Minimum voltage and minimum current
6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? b. Equal voltage and current
a. 6.0 dB c. Minimum voltage and maximum current
b. 8.1 dB d. Maximum voltage and minimum current
c. 3.9 dB
d. 10.0 dB

68. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam

antenna?
a. wavelength
b. wavelength
c. wavelength
d. 1 wavelength

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MITRC REFRESHER COURSE Radiowave
Propagation & Antenna