MCQs in ANTENNAS

1 HEMT used in the microwave circuit is a

A Low Noise Amplifier
B Detector
C Source
D High Power Amplifier

2 Klystron operates on the principle of

A Velocity Modulation
B Pulse Modulation
C Amplitude Modulation
D Frequency Modulation

3 A cavity resonator can be represented by

A an LC circuit
B a lossy capacitor
C a lossy inductor
D an LCR circuit

4 Ionospheric preparation is not possible for microwaves because

A Microwave will penetrate through the ionospheric layers
B There will be dispersion of microwave energy
C There will be an abrupt scattering in all directions
D Microwaves will be fully absorbed by the ionospheric layers

5 fabrication of microstrip line is_____.

A cladding
B printed circuit technique
C oxidation
D None of these

6 ______ principle does Klystron operates

A Amplitude Modulation
B Pulse Modulation
C Frequency Modulation
D Velocity Modulation

7 ____is the most common antenna to the predetermined radiation pattern.

A array antenna
B helical antenna
C sectrol horn
D None of these

8 _____ devices use a helix?

A Klystron amplifier
B Klystron oscillator
C TWT
D None of these
9 ______ is the main advantage of a microwave.
A Highly directive
B High penetration power
C Moves at the speed of light
D None of these

10 Reflex klystron is used in_____.

A Oscillator
B mixer
C frequency multiplier
D None of these

11 One of the following is used for amplification of microwave energy.

A magnetron
B travelling wave tube
C gunn diode
D None of these

12 ______is depend on the velocity factor of a transmission line.

A relative permittivity of dielectric
B impedance
C temperature
D None of these

13 one of the bands that come under Microwave Band.

A E
B D
C C
D All the above

14 ______is not a microwave tube.

A cathode_ray tube
B magnetron
C travelling_wave tube
D None of these

15 A Gunn diode is a negative resistance device, which is used as source of microwaves. What is the number of
p-n junctions ?
A 0
B 3
C 2
D 1

16 Which is the dominant mode in rectangular waveguides ?

A TE10
B TM11
C TM01
D TE11
17 The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its
A High attenuation
B High sensitivity
C Low distortion
D Low selectivity

18 Which of the following is a circularly polarized antenna ?

A Helical
B Pyramidal
C Horn
D Dipole

19 Which one of the following is a transferred electron device ?

A Gunn DIODE
B TRAPATT diode
C IMPATT diode
D BARITT diode
20 A amplifier has a power gain of 200. What is its gain in dB? (log10 2 = 0.30)
A 23 dB
B 20 dB
C 14 dB
D 17 dB
21. In microwave communication links, what causes intense fading in the 18GHz band ?
A Rain
B Fog
C Dust
D Snow
22 X-band frequencies are in which one of the following ranges?
A 8.0 to 12.0 GHz
B 12.4 to 16.4 GHz
C 3.5 to 5.5 GHz
D 5.5 to 8.0 GHz
23 Which of the following are microwave sources ?
A Magnetron
B TWTA
C klystron
D IMPATT

24 For a parabolic reflector of 5 meter diameter, the far field pattern measurement at 6 GHz should be carried
out a distance of at least
A 2.0 km
B 1.5 km
C 1.0 km
D o.5 km

25 Why is an attenuator used in a TWT ?

A To prevent oscillations
B To prevent saturation
C To help bunching
D To increase gain
26 Which is the most common antenna to obtain a predetermined radiation pattern ?
A Helical antenna
B Corner reflector
C Array antenna
D Sectoral horn
27 In LOS-line of sight propagation systems, to take account of normal refraction, an effective earth radius
factor k is used whose value is
A ½
B 4/3
C 4
D None of these
28 The type of antenna to be used for producing circularly polarized beams is
A helical antenna
B paraboloid
C pyramidal horn
D log-periodic array
29 Which of the following can be used for amplification of microwave energy?
A Travelling wave tube
B Gunn diode
C Magnetron
D None of these
30 The maximum theoretical output circuit efficiency of a double resonator klystron amplifier is
A 58%
B 85%
C 25%
D None of these
31 The pulse frequency is equal to
A Duty cycle/pulse width
B Pulse width x peak power/average power
C The reciprocal of the pulse repetition rate
D All of these
32 The noise produced in a microwave tube due to random nature of emission and electron flow is called
A Shot noise
B Shannon noise
C Johnson noise
D Partition noise
33 If the peak power of pulsed microwave system is 104 W and the average power is 800 W, the the duty cycle
will be
A 8%
B 0.08%
C 80%
D 0.8%
II SET OF QUESTIONS
1. The real part of an antenna’s input impedance is due to:
a. the radiated signal
b. the reflected signal
c. the SWR
d. all of the above

2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:

a. a Marconi antenna
b. a Hertz antenna
c. a Yagi antenna
d. none of the above

3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:

a. one wavelength
b. one half-wavelength
c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength
4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:
a. standing wave pattern around the antenna
b. SWR along the feed cable
c. radiation resistance of the antenna
d. I2R loss of the antenna
5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is
strongest:
a. in one direction
b. in two directions
c. in all directions
d. depends on the number of elements
6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:
a. directivity
b. selectivity
c. active antenna
d. resonance
7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:
a. 0 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 10 dB
d. infinite

8. An antenna’s beamwidth is measured:

a. from +90° to –90°
b. from front to back
c. between half-power points
d. between the minor side-lobes

9. ERP stands for:

a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern
b. Effective Radiation Pattern
c. Equivalent Radiated Power
d. Effective Radiated Power
10. “Ground Effects” refers to the effects on an antenna’s radiation pattern caused by:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground

11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:

a. mounted vertically
b. mounted horizontally
c. at least one half-wavelength long
d. at least one wavelength long
12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:
a. dipole
b. folded dipole
c. ferrite “loop-stick”
d. none of the above

13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
a. gamma rays
b. Faraday Rotation
c. helical rotation
d. the distance traveled
14. A nonresonant antenna:
a. will not transmit
b. will not receive
c. will cause SWR on the feed cable
d. all of the above

15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be:

a. resistive
b. inductive
c. capacitive
d. infinite

16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:

a. a shorted stub
b. a loading coil
c. an LC network
d. all of the above

17. As the length of a “long-wire” antenna is increased:

a. the number of lobes increases
b. the number of nodes decreases
c. efficiency decreases
d. none of the above

18. Arrays can be:

a. phased
b. driven
c. parasitic
d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a:
a. Marconi
b. Yagi
c. Log-Periodic Dipole
d. stacked array

20. LPDA stands for:

a. Low-Power Dipole Array
b. Low-Power Directed Array
c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
d. Log Power Dipole Array
21. The radiated beam from a parabolic “dish” transmitting antenna is:
a. collimated
b. phased
c. dispersed
d. none of the above
22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
a. center
b. edges
c. focus
d. horn

23. Antennas are often tested in:

a. an echo chamber
b. an anechoic chamber
c. a vacuum chamber
d. an RF reflective chamber

24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:

a. a slotted line
b. a dipole
c. an EIRP meter
d. a field-strength meter
III SET OF QUESTIONS

1) What is the wavelength of Super high frequency (SHF) especially used in Radar & satellite
communication?
a. 1 m – 10 m
b. 1 cm – 10 cm
c. 10 cm – 1 m
d. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
2. Which among the following is an application of high frequency?
a. SONAR
b. Subsurface communication
c. Radio navigation
d. Facsimile

3) Wave front is basically a locus of points acquiring similar _______

a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. Wave equation

4) In which kind of waveform is the phase velocity defined?

a. Sinusoidal
b. Rectangular
c. Square
d. Triangular
5) Which among the following is/are not present in free space?
a. Solid bodies
b. Ionized particles
c. Interference of normal radiation & radio wave propagation
d. All of the above
6. Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area
a. Reflected
b. Refracted
c. Radiated
d. Diffracted

7) If the path difference of two waves with single source traveling by different paths to arrive at the same
point, is λ/2, what would be the phase difference between them?
a. β x (λ/2)
b. β / (λ/2)
c. β + (λ/2)
d. β - (λ/2)

8. The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time varying electromagnetic field?
a. Electric field intensity
b. Magnetic field intensity
c. Current density
d. Power density

9. According to Webster's dictionary, what is an antenna?

a. Impedance matching device
b. Sensor of electromagnetic waves
c. Transducer between guided wave & free space wave
d. Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves

10. Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire antenna?
a. For a charge with no motion
b. For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight & infinite wire
c. For a charge oscillating in time motion
d. All of the above

11. In a non-isotropic directional antenna, which radiating lobe axis makes an angle of 180° w.r.t. major beam
of an antenna?
a. Minor lobe
b. Side lobe
c. Back lobe
d. None of the above

12 At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
a. 0° & 180°
b. 90° & 180°
c. 180° & 270°
d. 180° & 360°

13. Which among the following defines the angular distance between two points on each side of major lobe
especially when the radiation drops to zero?
a. Half power beam width (HPBW)
b. First null beam width (FNBW)
c. Side lobe level (SLL)
d. Front to back ratio (FBR)
14. If an observation point is closely located to the source, then the field is termed as________
a. Induced
b. Radiated
c. Reflected
d. Far-field

15. Which auxiliary functions assist in solving the radiation problem by evaluation of E & H using sources
J & M?
a. Scalar potentials
b. Vector potentials
c. Gradient potentials
d. Divergence potentials

16. Which operations are performed by vector potentials (A, F) over the radiated fields (E & H)?
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Differentiation
d. Integration

17. Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation pattern of the dipole/wire
antennas?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Frequency
d. Phase

18. How are the infinitesimal dipoles represented in terms of antenna length and signal wavelength?
a. l ≤ (λ /50)
b. (λ/50 ) < l ≤ (λ /10)
c. l = λ/2
d. None of the above

19. In flared transmission line, the radiation phenomenon increases due to ________ in flaring
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
d. None of the above

20. Which pattern is generated due to plotting of square of amplitude of an electric field?
a. Field Pattern
b. Voltage Pattern
c. Power Pattern
d. All of the above

21. In an electrically small loops, the overall length of the loop is ______ one-tenth of a wavelength.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
d. None of the above

22. On which factor/s do/does the radiation field of a small loop depend?
a. Shape
b. Area
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

23. From the radiation point of view, small loops are _________radiators
a. Poor
b. Good
c. Better
d. Excellent

24. According to the directivity of a small loop, which value of 'θ' contributes to achieve the maximum value of
radiation intensity (Umax)?
a. 0°
b. 90°
c. 180°
d. 270°

25. In which kind of array configuration, the element locations must deviate or adjust to some non-planer surface
like an aircraft or missile?
a. Linear
b. Planer
c. Conformal
d. All of the above

26. What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?

a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic

27. In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar excitation along with similar amplitude
excitation for maximum radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
28. Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary end-fire array?
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd

29. If the tower antenna is not grounded, which method of excitation is/are applicable for
it?
a. Series
b. Shunt
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
 IV SET OF QUESTIONS
11) The type of antenna to be used for producing circularly polarized beams is
a) pyramidal horn
b) log-periodic array
c) paraboloid
d) helical antenna

12) In LOS-line of sight propagation systems, to take account of normal refraction, an effective earth radius factor
k is used whose value is
a) 4/3
b) 4
c) ¾
d) ½

13) Which is the most common antenna to obtain a predetermined radiation pattern ?

a) Array antenna
b) Corner reflector
c) Sectoral horn
d) Helical antenna

14) Why is an attenuator used in a TWT ?

a) To help bunching
b) To prevent oscillations
c) To prevent saturation
d) To increase gain

15) For a parabolic reflector of 5 meter diameter, the far field pattern measurement at 6 GHz should be carried out
a distance of at least
a) o.5 km
b) 1.0 km
c) 1.5 km
d) 2.0 km

16) Which of the following are microwave sources ?

a) klystron
b) Magnetron
c) IMPATT
d) TWTA

17) X-band frequencies are in which one of the following ranges?

a) 3.5 to 5.5 GHz
b) 5.5 to 8.0 GHz
c) 8.0 to 12.0 GHz
d) 12.4 to 16.4 GHz

18) In microwave communication links, what causes intense fading in the 18GHz band ?
a) Snow
b) Rain
c) Fog
d) Dust

19) A amplifier has a power gain of 200. What is its gain in dB? (log10 2 = 0.30)
a) 14 dB
b) 17 dB
c) 20 dB
d) 23 dByou

20) Which of the following modes can exist in a rectangular wave guide ?
a) TM10
b) TE10
c) TM00
d) TM01

21) Which one of the following is a transferred electron device ?

a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) TRAPATT diode
d) Gunn DIODE

22) Which of the following is a circularly polarized antenna ?

a) Horn
b) Dipole
c) Helical
d) Pyramidal

23) The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its
a) Low selectivity
b) Low distortion
c) High attenuation
d) High sensitivity

24) Which is the dominant mode in rectangular waveguides ?

a) TE10
b) TE11
c) TM01
d) TM11

25) A Gunn diode is a negative resistance device, which is used as source of microwaves. What is the number of
p-n junctions ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0

COMPLETION
1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________.
2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________.
3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space.
4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna’s input impedance due to transmitted
radio waves leaving the antenna.
5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ W.
6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ W.
7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________.
8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates.
9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi.
10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole.
11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.
12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB.
13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points.
14. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power.
15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna’s ____________________.
16. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna.
17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization.
18. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole.
19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction.
20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength.
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane.
22. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers.
23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________.
24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element.
25. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array.
26. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________.
27. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.

SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?
3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain does it have compared to a
half-wave dipole?
4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS current
in the antenna?
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?

MCQs in MICROWAVE ENGINEERING

1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:
a. 100 MHz
b. 1 GHz
c. 10 GHz
d. 100 GHz
2. The UHF range is:
a. below the microwave range
b. inside the microwave range
c. above the microwave range
d. same as the microwave range
3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
a. the shape of the waveguide
b. the power level of the signal
c. the point of signal injection
d. none of the above
4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:
a. TE 01
b. TM 01
c. TE 10
d. TM 10

5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:

a. TE01
b. TM01
c. TE11
d. TM11
6. Circular waveguides use TM01 mode because:
a. it is dominant
b. of its circular symmetry
c. it is the only mode possible
d. it is more efficient

7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:

a. is fixed
b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c

8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide:

a. with a magnetic field probe
b. with an electric field probe
c. through a hole in the waveguide
d. all of the above

9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:

a. their insertion loss
b. their coupling specification
c. their directivity
d. all of the above

10. Striplines and microstrips are used to:

a. couple sections of waveguide
b. couple waveguides to antennas
c. couple components on a circuit board
d. none of the above

11. A resonant cavity is a type of:

a. tuned circuit
b. defect in a waveguide
c. antenna
d. none of the above

12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:

a. an H-plane TEE
b. an E-plane TEE
c. a “magic” TEE
d. all of the above
13. TWT stands for:
a. Transverse Wave Transmission
b. Transverse-Wave Tube
c. Traveling-Wave Tube
d. Traveling-Wave Transmission

14. An “isolator” is a device that:

a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide

15. A “circulator” is a device that:

a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from being “trapped” in a waveguide

16. GaAs stands for:

a. gallium arsenide
b. gallium assembly
c. gallium astenite
d. none of the above

17. IMPATT stands for:

a. impact avalanche and transit time
b. induced mobility at transmission time
c. implied power at transmission terminal
d. none of the above

18. YIG stands for:

a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium
c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
d. none of the above
19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:
a. an electric field
b. a magnetic field
c. mechanical pressure
d. an “exciter” signal

20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:

a. TWT
b. klystron
c. magnetron
d. YIG
21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a. TWT
b. klystron
c. magnetron
d. YIG
22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a. TWT
b. klystron
c. magnetron
d. YIG

23. A microwave phased array is often made using:

a. slots
b. Yagis
c. Fresnel lenses
d. all of the above

24. RADAR stands for:

a. radio ranging
b. radio depth and ranging
c. radio detection and ranging
d. remote detection and ranging

25. RADAR uses:

a. pulsed transmission
b. continuous transmission
c. the Doppler effect
d. all of the above

26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:

a. increases with increasing repetition rate
b. decreases with increasing repetition rate
c. decreases with increasing pulse period
d. none of the above

27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:

a. increases with increasing pulse duration
b. decreases with increasing pulse duration
c. is always a tenth of the maximum range
d. none of the above

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse “spreading out” as it travels through a waveguide.

2. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.
3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode.
4. In TE10 mode, the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section.
5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section.
6. In a circular waveguide, ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry.
7. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter.
8. In a waveguide, group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
9. In a waveguide, phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light.
10. In a waveguide, impedance ____________________ as frequency increases.
11. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES.
12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits.
13. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger.
14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________.
15. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes.
16. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes.
17. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it.
18. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane
on the other side.
19. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size.
20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the
target is moving toward the radar antenna.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section
is 5 cm.
2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.
5. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.
7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses.

Also refer

https://pinoybix.org/2020/04/mcq-in-radiation-and-wave-propagation-series.html

http://www.allexamreview.com/2017/06/electronics-important-mcq-pdf-antenna_1.html

http://www.allexamreview.com/2017/06/electronics-important-mcq-pdf-antenna_11.html