BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering PDF

Model Question Paper ANS
E&TC
Radiation and Microwave Techniques
B.E. (E&TC)
TEST MCQS
1) . Which of the following parameters is not a primary parameter? b

a) Resistance
b) Attenuation constant
c) Capacitance
d) Conductance
2) The input impedance of a quarter wave line 50 ohm and load impedance of 20 d
ohm is
a) 50
b) 20
c) 1000
d) 125
3) For a matched line, the input impedance will be equal to b
a) Load impedance
b) Characteristic impedance
c) Output impedance
d) Zero
4) The reflection coefficient lies in the range of a
a) 0 < τ < 1
b) -1 < τ < 1
c) 1 < τ < ∞
d) 0 < τ < ∞
5) The maximum impedance of a transmission line 50 ohm and the standing b
wave ratio of 2.5 is
a) 20
b) 125
c) 200
d) 75
6) The average power in an electromagnetic wave is given by b
a) propagation constant
b) pointing vector
c) phase constant
d) attenuation constant
7) The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is normally chosen to be c
a) 50
b) 75
c) 50 or 75
d) 100
8) Identify the material which is not present in a transmission line setup. d

a) waveguides
b) cavity resonator
c) antenna
d) oscillator
9) The reflection coefficient of a wave with transmission coefficient 0.35 is b
1 P.T.O.
a) 1.35
b) 0.65
c) 0.35
d) 0.7
10) The reflection coefficient of a short circuit transmission line is -1. State a
True/False.
a) True
b) False
11) Standing waves occurs due to b
a) Impedance match
b) Impedance mismatch
c) Reflection
d) Transmission
12) Standing wave ratio is defined as the a
a) Ratio of voltage maxima to voltage minima
b) Ratio of current maxima to current minima
c) Product of voltage maxima and voltage minima
d) Product of current maxima and current minima
13) Given that the reflection coefficient is 0.6. Find the SWR. b
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
14) The maxima and minima voltage of the standing wave are 6 and 2 b
respectively. The standing wave ratio is
a) 2 b) 3
c) 1/2 d) 4
15) The range of the standing wave ratio is c

a) 0 < S < 1
b) -1 < S < 1
c) 1 < S < ∞
d) 0 < S < ∞
16) For matched line, the standing wave ratio will be d
a) 0
b) ∞
c) -1
d) 1
17) The standing wave ratio of short circuited and open circuited lines will be d
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) ∞
18) The Smith chart consists of the c
a) Constant R and variable X circles
b) Variable R and constant X circles
2
c) Constant R and constant X circles
d) Variable R and variable X circles
19) The circles in the Smith chart pass through which point? d
a) (0,1)
b) (0,-1)
c) (-1,0)
d) (1,0)
20) Moving towards the clockwise direction in the Smith chart implies moving a
a) Towards generator
b) Towards load
c) Towards stub
d) Towards waveguide
21) The best stub selection for the transmission line will be d
a) Series open
b) Series short
c) Shunt open
d) Shunt short
22) The phenomenon employed in the waveguide operation is c
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Total internal reflection
d) Adsorption
23) The dominant mode in waveguide is the mode which has b
a) Highest frequency
b) Highest wavelength
c) Lowest phase constant
d) Highest attenuation
24) The modes are calculated from which parameter? d
a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) V number
25) The circular waveguides use which function in the frequency calculation? c
a) Laplace function
b) Schottky function
c) Bessel function
d) Transfer function
26) The scattering parameters are used to indicate the c
a) Permittivity and permeability
b) Electric and magnetic field intensities
c) Reflection and transmission coefficients
d) Frequency and wavelength
27) Which of the following two parameter models cannot be used to represent a a
transmission line?
a) H parameter model
b) T parameter model
c) ABCD parameter model
3 P.T.O.
d) S parameter model
28) For the matched line, the parameters S12 and S21 are b
a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) ∞
29) The waveguides are materials with characteristics of a
a) Low bulk resistivity
b) High bulk resistivity
c) High conductivity
d) Low conductivity
30) The parameters S11 and S22 indicate the transmission coefficients. State a
true/false.
a) True
b) False
31) The waveguides increase the transmission of the electromagnetic waves. a
State true/false.
a) True
b) False
32) The waveguide is employed in the transmission lines, when operated at the d
range of
a) Hz
b) KHz
c) MHz
d) GHz
33) In rectangular waveguides, the dimensions a and b represent the b
a) Broad wall dimensions
b) Broad wall and side wall dimension respectively
c) Side wall and broad wall dimension respectively
d) Side wall dimensions
34) The cut off frequency for a waveguide to operate is d
a) 3 MHz
b) 3 GHz
c) 6 MHz
d) 6 GHz
35) In transverse electric waves, which of the following is true? c
a) E is parallel to H
b) E is parallel to wave direction
c) E is transverse to wave direction
d) H is transverse to wave direction
36) The dominant mode in rectangular waveguide is b
a) TE01
b) TE10
c) TM01
d) TM10
37) The mode which has the highest wavelength is called a
a) Dominant mode
4
b) Evanescent mode
c) Generate mode
d) Degenerate mode
38) The propagation constant for a lossless transmission line will be d
a) Real
b) Complex
c) Real and equal to phase constant
d) Complex and equal to phase constant
39) Which of the following parameter is non zero for a lossless line? d
a) Attenuation
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) Phase constant
40) The phase and group velocities does not depend on which of the following? d
a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) Attenuation constant
41) The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a type beam a
amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
d) None of the mentioned
42) is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a b
reflector electrode after the cavity.
a) Backward wave oscillator
b) Reflex klystron
c) Travelling wave tube
d) Magnetrons
43) A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is: b
a) Low power gain
b) Low bandwidth
c) High source power
d) Design complexity
44) Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about a
80%.
a) True
b) False
45) Klystron amplifiers have high noise output as compared to crossed field b
amplifiers.
a) True
b) False
46) . A PIN diode consists of number of semiconductor layers. a
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
5 P.T.O.
d) One
47) The material out of which PIN diode is made is: a
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) GaAs
48) The behavior of a PIN diode is entirely different from normal diodes at all b
frequency of operation.
a) True
b) False
49) GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because: d
a) GaAs is cost effective
b) It less temperature sensitive
c) it has low conduction band electrons
d) less forbidden energy gap
50) GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. Gunn diode is: a
a) bulk device
b) sliced device
c) made of different type of semiconductor layers
d) none of the mentioned
51) . The modes of operation of a Gunn diode are illustrated in a plot of voltage b
applied to the Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of Gunn diode.
a) true
b) false
52) The mode of operation in which the Gunn diode is not stable is: a
a) Gunn oscillation mode
b) limited space charge accumulation mode
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode
53) In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity a
formed by a short circuit termination at one end
a) true
b) false
54) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to a
an IMPATT diode, it results in:
a) avalanche multiplication
b) break down of depletion region
c) high reverse saturation current
55) To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning, a constant bias source is used to a
maintain at safe limit.
a) average current
b) average voltage
c) average bias voltage
d) average resistance
56) The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is: c
a) two
6
b) three
c) four
57) Expression for the characteristic impedance of a transmission line(λ/4) used a
for impedance matching is:
a) Z1=√(ZₒR)L
b) Z1=√(Zₒ/R)L
c) Z1=√(Zₒ+R)L
58) If there is no standing wave on a transmission line, then the value of SWR is: a
a) 1
b) 0
c) Infinity
d) Insufficient data
59) When a λ/4 transmission line is used for impedance matching, then which of a
the following is valid?
a) Standing waves are present on the λ/4 transmission line
b) No standing waves on the λ/4 transmission line
c) Standing waves are not present both on the feed line and the matching λ/4
line
d) Standing waves are present on both the feed line and the matching λ/4 line
60) The lowest mode of TE mode propagation in a circular waveguide is: c
a) TE10 mode
b) TE00 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) TE11 mode
****************
7 P.T.O.
Model Question Paper
Subject :-Radiation and Microwave Techniques
Branch:- B.E. (E&TC)
Sem:- VIII
(MCQs)
1) Voltage reflection coefficient can be defined as:

a) ratio of amplitude of reflected voltage wave to the transmitted voltage wave
b) ratio of amplitude of reflected voltage to the incident voltage wave
c) ratio of load impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
Answer: b
2) When a transmission line is exited by a source, total power supplied is delivered to the
load.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3) Flow of power in transmission line takes place through:

a) Electric field and magnetic field
b) Voltage and current
c) Voltage
d) Electric field
Answer: a
4) If a transmission line of a characteristics impedance 50 Ω is terminated with a load

impedance of 100 Ω, then the reflection co efficient is:
a) 0.3334
b) 0.6667
c) 1.6
d) 1.333
Answer: a
5) If a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is to be matched to a load of

100Ω, then the characteristic impedance of the ƛ/4 transmission line to be used is:
a) 75 Ω
b) 50 Ω
c) 100 Ω
d) 70.71 Ω
Answer: d
6) If there is no standing wave on a transmission line, then the value of SWR is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinity
Answer: b
7) If a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is terminated with a load

impedance of 150 Ω , then VSWR is:
a) 0.75
b) 0.5
c) 2
Answer: a
8) Smith chart is based on the polar plot of:

a) Reactance
b) Voltage
c) Current
d) Voltage reflection co-efficient
Answer: d
9) To get an admittance chart from an impedance chart:

a) Smith chart has to be rotated by 90⁰
b) Smith chart has to be rotated by 180⁰
c) Admittance chart cannot be obtained from the impedance chart anyway.
Answer: b
10) Propagation constant γ is given by:

a) α+jβ
b) α-jβ
c) α/jβ
d) α.jβ
Answer: a
11) The key difference between circuit theory and transmission line theory is:
a) circuit elements
b) voltage
c) current
d) electrical size
Answer: d
12) Transmission line is a _________ parameter network.

a) lumped
b) distributed
c) active
Answer: b
13) _________ and __________ contribute to the impedance of a transmission line in the
lumped element representation.
a) resistor, inductor
b) resistor, capacitor
c) capacitor, inductor
d) transistor, capacitor
Answer: a
14) Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:

a) impedance Z of a transmission line
b) impedance which is a constant at any point on the transmission line
c) reciprocal of admittance of a transmission line
Answer: b
15) The major advantage of single stub tuning over other impedance matching
techniques is:
a) Lumped elements are avoided
b) It can be fabricated as a part of transmission line media
c) It involves two adjustable parameters
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
16) Shunt stubs are preferred for:

a) Strip and microstrip lines
b) Coplanar waveguides
c) Circular waveguide
d) Circulators
Answer: a
17) In shunt stub matching, the key parameter used for matching is:
a) Admittance of the line at a point
b) Admittance of the load
c) Impedance of the stub
d) Impedance of the load
Answer: a
18) For co-axial lines and waveguides, ________ is more preferred.

a) Open circuited stub
b) Short circuited stub
c) Slotted section
d) Co-axial lines cannot be impedance matched
Answer: b
19) The major advantage of double stub tuning is:

a) it uses 2 tuning stubs in fixed positions
b) it involves 2 stubs
c) length of the stub is variable
Answer: a
20) In a double stub tuner circuit, the load is of _______ length from the first stub.
a) fixed length
b) arbitrary length
c) depends on the load impedance to be matched
d) depends on the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
Answer: b
21) Maxwell’s equation for electromagnetic waves in a waveguide is:

a) ∇×E = -jωµ(vector H)
b) ∇×E =-jωμ(vector E)
c) ∇×H=-jωμ(vector H)
d) ∇×H=jωμ(vector H)
Answer: a
22) The modes of wave propagation that a rectangular waveguide can support are:
a) TEM, TE, modes
b) TEM,TM, TE modes
c) TEM, TM modes
d) TE,TM modes
Answer: d
23) In TM mode, if the direction of wave propagation is in ‘z’ direction, then:

a) HZ=0
b) EZ=0
c) EY=0
d) HY=0
Answer: a
24) TEₒₒ mode for a rectangular waveguide:

a) Exists
b) Exists but defined only under special cases
c) Does not exist
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: c
25) The lowest mode of TE mode propagation in a circular waveguide is:

a) TE10 mode
b) TE00 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) TE11 mode
Answer: c
26) S parameters are expressed as a ratio of:

a) Voltage and current
b) Impedance at different ports
c) Indecent and the reflected voltage waves
Answer: c
27) Ferrite isolators are ____ port microwave devices.

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Answer: a
28) Directional coupler for waveguide are characterized by

a) Insertion loss
b) coupling specification
c) Directivity
d) All of the above
Answer: d
29) A “circulator” is a device that:

a) Rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b) Allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c) Separates signals among various ports
d) Prevents microwaves from being “trapped” in a waveguide
Answer: c
30) The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:

a) TWT
b) Klystron
c) Magnetron
d) YIG
Answer: c
31) Power dividers and couplers are ______ microwave components used for power
division or power combining.
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Linear
d) Non linear
Answer: a
32) T- junction is an example for:

a) 2 port network
b) 3 port network
c) 4 port network
Answer: b
33) If a device is passive and contains no anisotropic elements, then the device
is_______ network.
a) Reciprocal
b) Non reciprocal
c) Lossless
d) Lossy
Answer: a
34) If all the ports of a microwave network are matched, then the diagonal elements of the
S matrix of the network is zero.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
35) If a microwave network is lossless, then S matrix of the microwave network is:
a) Zero Matrix
b) Symmetric
c) Identity matrix
d) Unitary
Answer: d
36) A lossless reciprocal 3 port network can be matched at all the three ports.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
37) The material out of which PIN diode is made is:

a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) GaAs
Answer: a
38) The junction resistance and capacitance of the intrinsic region in a PIN diode are
connected______ in the equivalent circuit of PIN diode.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Connected across package capacitance
Answer: b
39) The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
Answer: b
40) GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:

Answer: d
41) A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.

a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) One
Answer: a
42) The width of depletion region of a varactor diode ________with increase in reverse
bias voltage.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
Answer: a
43) In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed
by a short circuit termination at one end
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
44) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode, it results in:
a) break down of depletion region
b) avalanche multiplication
c) high reverse saturation current
Answer: b
45) Micro strip can be fabricated using:

a) Photo lithographic process
b) Electrochemical process
c) Mechanical methods
Answer: a
46) ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a
b) Reflex klystron
d) Magnetrons
Answer: b
47) Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
48) Klystrons operates on the principal of
a) Amplitude Modulation
b) Frequency Modulation
c) Pulse Modulation
d) Velocity Modulation
Answer: d
49) Which of the following can be used for amplification of microwave energy?
a) Magnetron
b) Reflex Klystron
c) Traveling Wave Tube
d) Gunn Diode
Answer:- c
50) In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j is connected across a negative resistance

device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
51) When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the threshold electric
field, the current in the material:
a) increases linearly
b) decreases linearly
c) increases exponentially
d) decreases exponentially
Answer: a
52) The muticavity Klystron is

a) Is not suitable for pulsed operation
b) is not good low level amplifier because of noise
c)has a higher repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transit time
d) needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation
Answer :b
53) The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to

a) prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
b) reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
c) ensure broadband operation
d) reduce the noise figure
Answer: b
54) A cavity resonator can be represented by
a) an LC circuit
b) an LCR circuit
c) a lossy inductor
d) a lossy capacitor
Answer: a
55) Ionospheric preparation is not possible for microwaves because

a) Microwaves will be fully absorbed by the ionospheric layers
b) There will be an abrupt scattering in all directions
c) Microwave will penetrate through the ionospheric layers
d) There will be dispersion of microwave energy
Answer: c
56) Which of the following is not possible in a circular wave guide ?

a) TE10
b) TE01
c) TE11
d) TE12
Answer: a
57) The maximum theoretical output circuit efficiency of a double resonator klystron
amplifier is
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 58%
d) 85%
Answer: c
58) The substrate of an MMIC must be a _____________ to accommodate the

fabrication of all the type of devices.
a) Semiconductor
b) Insulator
c) Partial conductors
d) Metals operable at high frequencies
Answer: a
59) For the capacitors used in MMICs, the insulating dielectric films used are:
a) Air
b) SiO
c) Titanium
d) GaAs
Answer: b
60) Processing in MMICs is done by __________

a) Ion implantation
b) Net list generation
c) Floor planning
Answer: a
SUBJECT: Radiation and Microwave Techniques
BRANCH :E&TC
CLASS:BE
SEMESTER:VIII
Q1. Which of the following parameters is not a primary parameter?

a) Resistance
c) Capacitance
d) Conductance
Answer: b
Q2. The lines having R, L, C distributed along the circuit are called
a) Lumped
b) Distributed
c) Parallel
d) Paired
Answer: b
Q3. Which primary parameter is uniformly distributed along the length of the conductor?
a) G
b) C
c) L
d) R
Answer: d
Q4. Which of the following parameters does not exist in the transmission line equation?
a) R
b) Zo
c) ZL
d) Propagation constant
Answer: a
Q5. The best transmission length for effective transmission of power is
a) L = λ/4
b) L = λ/8
c) L = λ/2
d) L = ∞
Answer: b
Q6. The condition for a quarter wave transformer is
a) Zo2 = Zin ZL
b) Zo = Zin ZL
c) ZL2 = Zin Zo
d) Zo = Zin
Answer: a
Q7.Find the characteristic impedance of a quarter wave with input and load impedances given by
50 and 25 respectively.
a) 50
b) 25
c) 75
d) 35.35
Answer: d
Q8. The reflection coefficient of a perfectly matched transmission line is
a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) ∞
Answer: c
Q9. The purpose of the transmission line equation is to
a) Find primary parameters
b) Find secondary parameters
c) Find the reflection cofficient
d) Impedance matching
Answer: d
Q10. The quarter wave transformer can be considered as a
a) Impedance inverter
b) Impedance doubler
c) Impedance tripler
d) Impedance quadrupler
Answer: a
Q11. Which transmission line is called as one to one transformer?
a) L = λ
b) L = λ/2
c) L = λ/4
d) L = λ/8
Answer: b
Q12. The reflection coefficient of a wave with transmission coefficient 0.35 is
a) 1.35
b) 0.65
c) 0.35
d) 0.7
Answer: b
Q 13. Calculate the transmission coefficient, when the incident and transmitted amplitudes are
10 and 7 respectively.
a) 17
b) 3
c) 10/7
d) 0.7
Answer: d
Q 14. The reflection coefficient of a transmission line having characteristic and load impedances
as 50 and 30 ohm respectively is
a) 1/4
b) 1/8
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
Answer: a
Q 15. The reflection coefficient of a short circuit transmission line is -1. State True/False.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q 16.The major disadvantage of single stub tuning is:
a) it requires a variable length of line between the load and the stub
b) it involves 2 variable parameters
c) complex calculation
Answer: a
Q 17.In a double stub tuner circuit, the load is of _______ length from the first stub.
a) fixed length
b) arbitrary length
c) depends on the load impedance to be matched
d) depends on the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
Answer: b
Q 18. The major advantage of double stub tuning is:
a) it uses 2 tuning stubs in fixed positions
b) it involves 2 stubs
c) length of the stub is variable
Answer: a
Q 19. Double stub tuners are fabricated in coaxial line are connected in shunt with the main co-
axial line.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Q 20 When a transmission line has a load impedance same as that of the characteristic
impedance, the line is said to be
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Polarized
d) Matched
Answer: d
Q 21. The modes of propagation supported by a rectangular wave guide is:

a) TM, TEM, TE modes
b) TM, TE
c) TM, TEM
d) TE, TEM
Answer: b
Q 22 A hollow rectangular waveguide cannot propagate TEM waves because:
a) Of the existence of only one conductor
b) Of the losses caused
c) It is dependent on the type of the material used
Answer: a
Q23. Dominant mode is defined as:
a) Mode with the lowest cut off frequency
b) Mode with the highest cut off frequency
c) Any TEM mode is called a dominant mode
Answer: a
Q 24 TEₒₒ mode for a rectangular waveguide:
a) Exists
b) Exists but defined only under special cases
c) Does not exist
Answer: c
Q 25 The lowest mode of TM wave propagation is:
a) TM10 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TM11 mode
d) TM12 mode
Answer: c
Q 26 Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because
a. they depend on straight-line propagation which applies to microwaves only
b. losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies
c. there are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies
d. they would be too bulky at lower frequencies
Answer: Option d
Q 27. A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to the two-
hole coupler
a. because it is more efficient
b. to increase coupling of the signal
c. to reduce spurious mode generation
d. to increase the bandwidth of the system

Answer: Option D
Q 28. A PIN diode is
a. a metal semiconductor point-contact diode
b. a microwave mixer diode
c. often used as a microwave detector
d. suitable for use as a microwave switch
Answer: Option D
Q 29. A duplexer is used
a. to couple two different antennas to a transmitter without mutual interference
b. to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or retransmission without mutual interference
c. to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
d. to increase the speed of the pulses in pulses in pulsed radar
Answer: Option B
Q 30 In a waveguide, which of the following condition is true always?
a) phase velocity = c
b) group velocity = c
c) phase velocity > c
d) phase velocity < c
Answer: c
Q 31. The product of the phase and the group velocities is given by the
a) Speed of light
b) Speed of light/2
c) 2 x Speed of light
d) (speed of light)/4
Answer: d
Q 32. The phase and group velocities does not depend on which of the following?
a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) Attenuation constant
Answer: d
Q 33The distance between two successive points in a waveguide is the
a) Guided wavelength
b) 2 x guided wavelength
c) Guided wavelength/2
d) (guided wavelength)/4
Answer: c
Q 34 Indicate which of the following cannot be followed by the word “waveguide”:
a. Elliptical
b. Flexible
c. Coaxial
d. Ridged
Answer: Option C
Q 35 For some applications, circular waveguides may be preferred to rectangular ones because
of
a. the smaller cross
b. lower attenuation section needed at any frequency
c. freedom from spurious modes
d. rotation of polarization
Answer: Option B
Q 36. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a. is greater than of free space
b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength
c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. is directly proportional to the group velocity
Answer: Option A
Q 37. For TE1ₒ mode, if the waveguide is filled with air and the broader dimension of the
waveguide is 2 cm, then the cutoff frequency is:
a) 5 MHz
b) 7.5 MHz
c) 7.5 GHz
d) 5 GHz
Answer: c
Q 38.For dominant mode propagation in TE mode, if the rectangular waveguide has a broader
dimension of 31.14 mm , then the cutoff wave number:
a) 100
b) 500
c) 50
d) 1000
Answer: a
Q39.A magic-tee is nothing but:
a.A modification of E-plane tee
b.A modification of H-plane tee
c.A combination of E-plane and H-plane tee
d.Two E-plane tees connected in parallel
Answer: c
Q40 . A TEE connector used with waveguides is:

a. H-plane TEE
b. E-plan
c. "magic" TEE
d.all the above
Answer: d
Q 41 Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories depending on the type of:
a) Electron beam field interaction
b) Amplification method
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods
Answer: a
Q 42.The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a _________ type beam amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
Answer: a
Q 43.A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is:
a) Low power gain
b) Low bandwidth
Answer: b
Q 44.A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field. This is
the
a. reflex klystron
b. coaxial magnetron
c. traveling-wave magnetron
d. CFA
Answer: Option D
Q 45.One of the following is unlikely to be used as a pulsed device. It is the
a. multicavity klystron
b. BWO
c. CFA
d. TWT
Answer: Option B
Q 46. The multicavity klystron
a. is not a good low-level amplifier because of noise
b. has a higher repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transit time
c. is not suitable for pulsed operation
d. needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation
Answer: Option A
Q 47. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier, because it
a. is more efficient
b. has a greater bandwidth
c. has a higher number of modes
d. produces a higher output power
Answer: Option B
Q 48. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
a. prevent mode jumping
b. prevent cathode back-heating
c. ensure bunching
d. improve the phase-focusing effect
Answer: Option A
Q 49. The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to
a. prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
b. reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
c. ensure broadband operation
d. reduce the noise figure
Answer: Option B
Q 50. The attenuator is used in the traveling-wave tube to
a. help bunching
b. prevent oscillations
c. prevent saturation
d. increase gain
Answer: Option B
Q 51. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter output tube
because it is
a. capable of a longer duty cycle
b. a more efficient bandwidth
c. more broadband
d. less noisy
Answer: Option A
Q52 . The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to
a. help focusing
b. provide attenuation
c. improve bunching
d. increase gain
Answer: Option B
Q 53. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:
Answer: d
Q 54The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made of:
a) molybdenum
b) GaAs
c) gold
d) copper
Answer: a
Q 55The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs is:
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer: c
Q 56. A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) One
Answer: a
Q 57The junction resistance and capacitance of the intrinsic region in a PIN diode are
connected______ in the equivalent circuit of PIN diode.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Connected across package capacitance
Answer: b
Q 58. The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
Answer: b
Q 59. Microstrip line can support a pure TEM wave.
a) True
b) False
c) Microstrip supports only TM mode
d) Microstrip supports only TE mode
Answer: b
Q 60. The effective dielectric constant ∈r for a microstrip line:
a) Varies with frequency
b) Independent of frequency
c) It is a constant for a certain material
d) Depends on the material used to make microstrip
Answer: b
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Technology
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. With reference to transmission lines, the normalised load impedance is

determined by
A. the product of load resistance and the characteristic impedance of the line
B. dividing the load resistance by characteristic impedance of the line
C. dividing the resistance value by 100
D. none of the above
Ans.: B
Q2. The arcs of circles on smith chart represent
A. normalised resistance or conductance
B. different values of SWR
C. normalised reactance or susceptance
Ans.: C
Q3. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is
A. directly proportional to its length
B. inversely proportional to its length
C. independent of its length
Ans.: C
Q4. Short circuited stubs are preferred over open circuited stubs because the
later
A. have a tendency to radiate
B. are very difficult to design
C. cannot be placed at a convenient point
Ans.: A
Q5. Standing wave ratio (SWR) equal to unity implies that
A. the transmission line is open circuited
B. the transmission line is short circuited
C. the transmission line's characteristic impedance equals load impedance
Ans.: C
Q6. Smith chart can be used to determine
A. SWR for any given transmission line-load mismatch
B. magnitude and angle of reflection co-efficient
C. the length of short circuited transmission line section of known

characteristic impedance to provide the desired input impedance
D. all of the above
Ans.: D
A. Resistance
B. Attenuation constant
C. Capacitance
D. Conductance
Ans.: B
Q8. If the load impedance matches the characteristic impedance of the line,
there are ...... standing waves
A. more
B. less
C. no
D. 10
Ans.: C
Q9. The ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage on the
transmission line is termed as
A. Reflection coefficient
B. Standing wave ratio
C. loss
D. Standing waves
Ans.: A
A. Impedance inverter
B. Impedance doubler
C. Impedance tripler
D. Impedance quadrupler
Ans.: A
Q11. One of the following statements is wrong...

A. When a given transmission line is terminated in its characteristic impedance,
its input impedance is always equal to the characteristic impedance
irrespective of the length of the line in terms of wavelength
B. When a transmission line is terminated in an impedance other than the

characteristic impedance, its input impedance varies with length for a given
signal frequency or with frequency for a given length
C. The characteristic impedance of a lossless line is resistive
D. The propagation velocity on the transmission line is inversely proportional

to the permittivity of the dielectric used
Ans.: D
Q12. 50 feet transmission line is terminated in a load impedance of (50 + j

100), The normalised load impedance is
A. (1 + j 2)
B. (2500 + j 5000)
C. (0.5 +j)
Ans.: A
Q13. Velocity factor of a transmission lines is 0.8 Electromagnetic waves

travel down this line with a velocity of
A. 3 x 108 m/s
B. 3.75 m/s
C. 2.4 x 108 m/s
Ans.: C
Q14.Find the receiving impedance of a transmission line (in ohm) having a

voltage of 24V and a conduction current of 1.2A is
A. 25.2
B. 22.8
C. 28.8
D. 20
Ans.: D
Q15. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with impedance and

admittance of 16 and 9 respectively is
A. 25
B. 1.33
C. 7
D. 0.75
Ans.: B
Q16. Input impedance of a shorted lossless line of length π/4 is
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. Zo
Ans.: C
Q17. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260V, while the
maximum voltage is 390V. The SWR is
A. 0.67
B. 1.2
C. 1
D. 1.5
Ans.: D
Q18. The reflection coefficient on a transmission line is 1/3, what is the SWR
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Ans.: C
Q19. Determine the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which

has a capacitance of 30 pF/m and an inductance of 75 nH/m
A. 5 ohm
B. 50 ohm
C. 500 ohm
D. 5000 ohm
Ans.: B
Q20.The wavelength of a line with a phase constant of 3.14 units is
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0.5
D. 3.14
Ans.: A
Q21. For air filled rectangular waveguide operating on 9.2 GHz, if internal
cross section area is 2.3 cm x 1 cm, what will be the phase velocity of wave -
A. 4.3 × 108 m/s
B. 8.4 × 108 m/s

C. 2.1 × 1010 m/s
D. 6.7 × 106 m/s
Ans.: A
Q22. Input applied to two-hole directional coupler is 1mW. If the coupling

factor and directivity is 15dB and 30dB, the power output from port 3 and 2
will be
A. 0.32 mW, 0.000032 mW
B. 0.032 mW, 0.97 mW
C. 0.048 mW, 0.82mW
D. 0.97 mW, 0.32 mW
Ans.: B
Q23. The dominant mode for rectangular waveguide is
A. TE11
B. TM11
C. TE10
D. TM10
Ans.: C
Q24. Following waveguide component not easily adjustable for tuning
A. stub
B. iris
C. screw
D. plunger
Ans.: B
Q25. What is the wavelength of a wave in a waveguide?

A. greater than in free space
B. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength
C. inversely proportional to the phase velocity
D. inversely proportional to the group velocity
Ans.: A
Q26. What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide?
A. the highest frequency the waveguide operates
B. the lowest frequency the waveguide operates
C. the same as the operating frequency
D. the only frequency the waveguide operates
Ans.: B
Q27. For reduction in cross sectional dimension, waveguide to use is
A. ridged
B. circular
C. rectangular
D. flexible
Ans.: A
Q28.Out of following list, is not directional coupler
A. bathe hole
B. two hole
C. rate race
D. magic hole
Ans.: D
Q29. The condition which will satisfy the dimensions of the waveguide is
A. a = b
B. a>b
C. a<b
D. ab=0
Ans.: B
Q30. Materials generally preferred for wave guides are
A. Brass and aluminium
B. Cast iron and steel
C. Non-metallic solids including plastics
D. All of the above
Ans.: A
Q31. A characteristic impedance of the guide operating at 4 GHz having

dimensions a = 3cm and b = 1.5 cm with μ = 1 and ε = 2.25 is
A. 377 ohm
B. 327 ohm
C. 227 ohm
D. 127 ohm
Ans.: C
Q32. An air-filled rectangular waveguide of inside dimension a = 80mm, and

b = 4 cm, operates in dominant mode. What will be the guided wavelength at
3.75GHz?
A. 9.2 cm
B. 3.2 cm
C. 0.6 m
D. 12 cm
Ans.: A
Q33. Related with ferrite material which statement/s is/are TRUE
A. For ferrite, propagation constants for different modes of polarization of

wave are different
B. Ferrite material provides nonreciprocal Faraday rotation
C. Both are incorrect
D. Both are correct
Ans.: D
Q34. When electromagnetic wave travel along with a waveguide in which

there is a discontinuity due to some lossy material filled in a small length and
the other end is terminated with matched load, the discontinuity will cause-
A. progressive waves throughout the line
B. standing waves on the generator side and progressive wave on the matched
load side
C. progressive waves on the generator side and standing wave on the matched
load side
D. standing waves throughout the line
Ans.: D
Q35. If guided wavelength of air-filled waveguide operating on dominant

mode is 4 cm. If operating freq is 9 GHz, the dimensions a and b of
rectangular waveguide will be respectively -
A. 3 cm, 1.5 cm
B. 3.2 cm, 2 cm
C. 8 cm, 4 cm
D. none of above
Ans.: A
Q36.In directional coupler if P1 is input power, P2 is power output of direct

port. P3 is that of coupled port and P4 is the power of isolated port, then
insertion loss can be expressed as
A. 10 log((p1+p2+p3)/P4)dB
B. 10 log((p1+p2+p4)/P3)dB
C. 10 log((p3+p4+p1)/P2)dB
D. 10 log((p2+p3+p4)/P1)dB
Ans.: D
Q37. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 60mV in an experiment. The loss in

decibel is
A. -40 dB
B. -46 dB
C. -44.43 dB
D. -60 dB
Ans.: C
Q38. The cut off frequency of the rectangular waveguide operating with
dominant mode a and b as 2.5 cm and 1 cm respectively is
A. 4.5 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 5.5 GHz
D. 6 GHz
Ans.: D
Q39. The broad wall dimension of a rectangular waveguide with cut off
frequency of 7.5 GHz is
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm
Ans.: B
Q40. A dominant mode waveguide, not terminated in its characteristic

impedance, is excited with 10GHz signal. If "d" is the distance between two
successive minima of the standing wave in the guide, then
A. d = 1.5 cm
B. d is less than 1.5 cm
C. d is greater than 1.5 cm
D. d = 3 cm
Ans.: A
Q41.Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories depending on the

type of
A. Electron beam field interaction
B. Amplification method
C. Power gain achieved
D. Construction methods
Ans.: A
Q42. Following type of tube is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as
on oscillator by using a reflector electrode after the cavity.
A. Backward wave oscillator

B. Reflex klystron
C. Travelling wave tube
D. Magnetrons
Ans.: B
Q43. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is
A. Low power gain
B. Low bandwidth
C. High source power
D. Design complexity
Ans.: B
A44. A PIN diode consists of........number of semiconductor layers.
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Ans.: A
Q45. The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Insufficient data
Ans.: B
Q46. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because

A. GaAs is cost effective
B. It less temperature sensitive
C. it has low conduction band electrons
D. less forbidden energy gap
Ans.: D
Q47. When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the
threshold electric field, the current in the material
A. increases linearly
B. decreases linearly
C. increases exponentially
D. decreases exponentially
Ans.: A
Q48. When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons
absorb more energy from the field and become
A. hot electrons
B. cold electrons
C. emission electrons
D. none of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q49. The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs Gunn diode is
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Ans.: C
Q50. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is

applied to an IMPATT diode, it results in
A. avalanche multiplication
B. break down of depletion region
C. high reverse saturation current
Ans.: A
Q51. The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is:
A. two
B. three
C. four
Ans.: C
Q52. The cavity resonator
A. is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit
B. in a reflect klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate
C. produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size.
D. has a low Q factor for narrow operation.
Ans.: A
Q53. A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of
A. The absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream
B. The effect of an external magnetic field
C. The energy contained the cavity resonators

D. The energy liberated form the collector
Ans.: A
Q54. The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can

generate is not limited by the
A. Electron transit time
B. Distributed lead inductance
C. Inter-electrode capacitance
D. Degree of emission from the cathode
Ans.: D
Q55. As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space
A. Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the

output cavity
B. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the

output cavity
C. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the

output cavity
D. Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the

output cavity.
Ans.: B
Q56. The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly

determined by
A. The flux density of the external magnet
B. The ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density
C. The number of the cavity resonators
D. The dimension of each cavity resonator

Ans.: D
Q57. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron

cavity are of opposite polarity, the operation is in the
A. π mode
B. π/2 mode
C. 2π mode
D. π/4 mode
Ans.: A
Q58. The Gunn diode oscillator
A. Is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of

kilowatt
B. Generates frequencies which are below 100 MHz
C. Operates over a positive resistance characteristic
D. Depends on the formation of charge domain
Ans.: D
Q59. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If

the reflector voltage is made slightly less negative, the
A. Oscillation will cease
B. Output power would increase
C. The frequency will decrease
D. Bunching would occur earlier in time
Ans.: C
Q60. Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator?
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
Ans.: B
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Technique [188113/238113]
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The networks in which R,L and C are individually concentrated or lumped at
discreet point in the circuit are called
A lumped
B distributed
C parallel
D paired
Ans.: A
Q2. Leakage resistance in transmission line is referred to as
A resistance
B radiation
C conductance
D polarization
Ans.: C
Q3. The characterstic impedance of a transmission line depends upon
A shape of the conductor
B surface treatment of the conductor
C conductivity of the material
D geometrical configuration of conductors
Ans: D
Q4. In order to reduce skin effect at ultra high frequencies,
A conductors are painted

B conductors are anodized
C copper rodes with silver plating are used
D copper lubes with silver plating are used
Ans: D
Q5. Which of the following are constants of transmission lines
A resistance
B inductance
C capacitance
D all of the above
Ans: D
Q6. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is
terminated in
A a short circuit
B an open circuit
C a complex impedance
D pure reactance
Ans: C
Q7. Major advantage of a quarter wave transformer is
A proper matching
B high gain
C broader band width
D none of the above
Ans: C
Q8. The reactances associated with the transmission line due to discontinuities:
A can be ignored
B have to be matched
C discontinuities do no exist
D none of the above
Ans: C
Q9. If a load of 10Ω has to be matched to a transmission line of characteristic

impedance of 50Ω, then the characteristic impedance of the matching section of the
transmission line is:
A 50 Ω
B 10 Ω
C 22.36 Ω
D 100 Ω
Ans: C
Q10. The wave impedance of air for a wave propagating in it is
A 377 Ω
B 345 Ω
C insufficient data
D none of the above
Ans: A
Q11. A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure reactance of -

jZ0 value. VSWR is
A 10
B 2
C 1
D infinity
Ans: D
Q12. A rectangular air – filled waveguide has a cross section of 4 × 10 The

minimum frequency which can propagation in the waveguide is
A 1.5 GHz
B 2.5 GHz
C 2.0 GHz
D 3.0 GHz
Ans: A
Q13. Indicate which one of the following modes do not exist in a rectangularresonant
cavity
A TE110
B TM110
C TE011
D MT111
Ans: A
Q14. The phase velocity of waves propagation in hollow metal waveguide is
A Greater than velocity of light in free space
B Less than velocity of light in free space
C Equal to velocity of light in free space
D Equal to group velocity
Ans: C
Q15. The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is TE10 because this mode has
A No attenuation
B No cut off
C No magnetic field component
D The highest cut off wavelength
Ans: D
Q16. The phase velocity for the TE10 mode in an air filled rectangular waveguide is
A Less than c
B Greater than c
C Equal to c
D none of the above
Ans: C
Q17. The phase velocity of an electrometric wave propagating in a hollow metallic
rectangular waveguide in the TE10 mode is
A Equal to its group velocity
D Greater than velocity of light in free space
Ans: C
Q18. The modes of rectangular waveguide are denoted by TEmn / TMmn where m and
n are Eigen numbers along the larger and smaller dimensions ofthe waveguide
respectively. Which one of the following statement is true.
A The TM10 mode of waveguide does not exist
B The TE10 mode of waveguide does not exist
C The TM10 and TE10 modes both exist and have same cut off frequency.
D The TM11 and TE11 modes both exist and have same cut off frequency.
Ans: A
Q19. . Consider an air filled rectangular waveguide with a cross – section of5 cm × 3 cm.
For this waveguide, the cut off frequency (in MHz) of TE21mode is
A 7.81 GHz
B 9.01 GHz
C 11.2 GHz
D 6.89 GHz
Ans: A
Q20. The cut off frequency of waveguide depends upon
A The dimensions of the waveguide.
B The dielectric property of the medium in the waveguide.
C The characteristic impedance of the waveguide

D The transverse and axial components of the fields
Ans: A & B
Q21. A rectangular metal wave guide filled with a dielectric material of relative
permittivity = 4 has the inside dimensions3.0 × 1.2 .The cut off frequency for
the dominant mode is
A 2.5 GHz
B 10 GHz
C 5 GHz
D 12.5 GHz
Ans: A
Q22. An air – filled rectangular waveguide has inner dimensions of 3 ×2 . The

wave impedance of the TE20 mode of propagation in the waveguide at a frequency of 30
GHz is (free space impedance 0 =377 Ω)
A 308 Ω
B 400 Ω
C 355 Ω
D 461 Ω
Ans: B
Q23. When an electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
A they travel along a broader walls of the guide
B they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
C they travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
D they travel along all four walls of the waveguide
Ans: B
Q24. The main difference between the operation of transmission lines and waveguides is
that
A the latter are not distributed, like transmission lines
B the former can use stubs and quarter-wave transformers, unlike the latter
C terms such as impedance matching and standing-wave ratio cannot be applied to
waveguides
D transmission lines use the principal mode of propagation, and therefore do not suffer
from low-frequency cut-off.
Ans: D
Q25. Which of the following waveguides tuning components is not easily adjustable?
A screw
B stub
C iris
D plunger
Ans: C
Q26. A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to
the two-hole couple
A because it is more efficient
B to increase coupling of signal
C to reduce spurious mode generation
D to increase the bandwidth of the system
Ans: C
Q27. A ferrite is
A a nonconductive with magnetic properties
B an intermetallic compound with particularly good conductivity
C an insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields
D a microwave semiconductor invented by Faraday
Ans: A
Q28. A PIN diode is
A a metal semiconductor point-contact diode
B a microwave mixer diode
C suitable for use as a microwave switch

D often used as a microwave detector
Ans: C
Q29. A duplexer is used
A to couple two different antennas to a transmitter without mutual interference
B to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or retransmission without mutual
interference
C to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
D to increase the speed of the pulses in pulses in pulsed radar
Ans: B
Q30. A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field.
This is the
A reflex klystron
B coaxial magnetron
C travelling wave magnetron
D CFA
Ans: B
Q31. Indicate the false statement. Transit time in microwave tubes will be reduced if
A the electrodes are brought closer together
B a higher anode current is used
C multiple or coaxial leads are used
D the anode voltage is made larger
Ans: C
Q32. The multicavity klystron
A is not a good low-level amplifier because of noise
B has a higher repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transit time
C is not suitable for pulsed operation
D needs a long transit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation
Ans: A
Q33. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
A prevent mode jumping
B prevent cathode back heating
C ensure bunching
D improve the phase focusing effect
Ans: A
Q35. The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to
A prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
B reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
C ensure broadband operationreduce the noise figure
D none ofthe above.
Ans: B
Q36. The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter output
tube because it is
A capable of a longer duty cycle
B a more efficient bandwidth
C more broadband
D less noisy
Ans: A
Q37. A magnetron whose oscillating frequency is electronically adjustable over a wide

range is called a
A coaxial magnetron
B dither-tuned magnetron
C frequency agile magnetron
D VTM
Ans: D
Q38. A disadvantage of microstrip compared with strip line is that micro strip
A does not readily lend itself to printed circuit techniques
B is more likely to radiate
C is bulkier
D is more expensive and complex to manufacture
Ans: A
Q39. For best low-level noise performance in the X-band, an amplifier should use
A a bipolar transistor
B a Gunn diode
C a step-recovery diode
D an IMPATT diode
Ans: C
Q40. Considering a coaxial transmission line, maximum voltage on the line divided by
the minimum voltage equals the
A Characteristic impedance
B ISWR
C VSWR
D Inductive reactance
Ans: C
Q41. In a transmission line, if the SWR or maximum current to a minimum current

ratio of 2:1, the ratio of the maximum voltage to the minimum voltage is
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Ans: D
Q42. The load is properly matched with the transmission line if the standing wave ratio
is equal to
A 50
B 10
C 5
D 1
Ans: D
Q43. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
A multimeter
B spectrum analyzer
C reflectometer
D oscilloscope
Ans: C
Q44. Reflections on a transmission line can occur when
A Impedance of the source and load are matched
B Impedance of the source and the load are mismatched
C Resonance conditions are obtained
D Power transfer between source and load is maximum
Ans: B
Q45. A measure of the mismatched between line and load impedance is called as
A reflection coefficient
B standing wave ratio
C loss
D standing waves
Ans: B
Q46. Power density is basically termed as power per unit are
A reflected
B radiated
C diffracted
D refracted
Ans: B
Q47. Parabolic and lens antennas are extensively used for
A short waves
B micro waves
C medium frequency waves
D all of the above
Ans: B
Q48. The television receiver antennas are usually
A parabolic dish type
B helical antennas
C dipoles
D none of the above
Ans: C
Q49. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of
A paraboloid surfaces
B polystyrene
C dielectric media having large refractive index
D glass of low refractive index
Ans: B
Q50. An antenna is a device
A that converts electromagnetic energy into RF signal
B that converts RF signal into electromagnetic energy
C that converts guided electromagnetic waves into free space electromagnetic waves
and vice versa
D none of the above
Ans: C
Q51. One of the following antenna types is best excited from a waveguide
A horn antenna
B helical antenna
C biconical antenna
D log periodic antenna
Ans: A
Q52. The parabolic and lens antennas are used extensively at
A SW
B MW
C microwaves
D al of the above
Ans: C
Q53. Micro strip can be fabricated using:
A photolithographic process
B electrochemical process
C mechanical methods
D none of the above
Ans: A
Q54. slotted antenna is used for
A UHF
B VHF
C none of the above
D both UHF and VHF
Ans: D
Q55. The radar in which both transmission and reception is done using the same
antenna are called:
A monostatic
B bistatic
C dipole radar
D monopole radar
Ans: A
Q56. Pulse radar operating at 10GHz frequency has an antenna with a gain of 28 dB
and a transmitted power of 2kW. If it is desired to detect a target of cross section 12m2,
and the minimum detectable signal is -90 dBm, the maximum range of the radar is:
A 2348 m
B 8114 m
C 1256 m
D 4563 m
Ans: A
Q57. __________ system obtains information about a target by transmitting a signal

and receiving the echo from the target.
A radar
B sonar
C radiometer
D none of the above
Ans: A
Q58. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
A beam area
B effective area
C aperture area
D beam efficiency
Ans: A
Q59. Which one of the following device behaviour is governed by bulk effect?
A IMPATT diode
B Gunn diode
C Tunnel diode
D PIN diode
Ans: B
Q60. In a MTI radar, the quartz delay line is used to
A Match the phase of COHO and output oscillator
B Match the phase of COHO and STALO
C match the signal with echo
D subtract a complete scan from previous scan
Ans: D
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communication (188112/238112)

Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication/ Electronics and Communication Engg.
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1 A television (TV) transmission is an example of which type of transmission?
a) Simplex
b) Half duplex
c) Full duplex
d) None of the above
Ans: a
Q2 INTELSAT stands?
a) International Telecommunications Satellite
b) India Telecommunications Satellite
c) Inter Telecommunications Satellite
Ans: a
Q3 Kepler’s first law states?
a) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
b) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
c) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an sphere
Ans: a
Q4 For an elliptical orbit?
a) 1<e< 0
b) e=0
c) e=1
Ans: a
Q5 Kepler’s second law states?
a) If t2-t1=t4-t3, then A12=A34.
b) If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
c) If t2/t1=t4/t3, then A12=A34.
Ans: a
Q6 Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?
a) 42.241Km
b) 42.241m
c) 4.241Km
d) 2.241Km
Ans: a
Q7 Apogee?
a) The point farthest from earth
b) The point nearest from earth
c) The point smallest from earth
Ans: a
Q8 Perigee?
b) The point longest from earth
c) The point closest approach to earth
Ans: c
Q9 Ascending node?
a) The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
Ans: a
Q10 Argument of perigee?
a) The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at the earth’s
center, in the direction of satellite motion.
Ans: a
Q11 True anomaly?
a) The true anomaly is the angle from perigee to the satellite position, measured at the earth’s
center.
Ans: a
Q12 The down link frequency in the C band transponder is
(A) 6 GHz
(B) 4 GHz
(C) 14 GHz
(D) 11 GHz
Ans: b
Q13 The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
(A) Effective Isotropic Radiated power
(B) Bandwidth.
(C) Free space path losses
(D) All of them
Ans: d
Q14 What is application of satellite systems?
a) whether forecasting
b) Terrestrial communication
c) point to point communication
Ans: a
Q15 Mention the different services of satellite systems.
a) Broadcasting satellite services
b) Signal transmission
c) Information transmission
Ans: a
Q16 Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
(a) Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north & south Polar
Regions.
b) Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west Polar Regions
c) Either (a) & (b)
Ans: a
Q17 Mention the apogee height.
(a) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
(b) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
(c) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q18 Mention the perigee height.
(a) rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
(b) ) rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
(c) ) rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q19 Mention the Julian dates.
(a) JD = JD010 + day number + Utday
(a) JD = JD010 + Utday
(a) JD = JD010 + day number
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q20 What is sideral time?
(a) Sideral time is time measured relative to the fixed stars. It will be seen that one complete
rotation sideral time relative to the sun .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the
sun.
(b) Sideral time is time measured relative to the variable stars. It will be seen that one
complete rotation sideral time relative to the sun .This is because the earth moves in its orbit
around the sun.
(c) Sideral time is time measured relative to the fixed stars. It will be seen that one complete
rotation sideral time relative to the moon .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around
the moon.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q21 What is meant by azimuth angle?
(a) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & the plane
passing through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(b) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane & the plane
passing through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(c) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & center of
earth.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q22 What is an polar antenna?
(a) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
(b) An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
(c) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q23 What is meant by transponder?
(a) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the connecting link between
the satellite’s transmit & receive antennas is referred to as the transponder.
(b) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the power supply is referred
to as the transponder.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q24 What is meant by frequency reuse?
(a) The carrier with opposite senses of polarization may overlap in frequency this technique is
known as frequency reuse.
(b) The carrier with same senses of depolarization may overlap in frequency this technique is
known as frequency reuse.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q25 Define S/N ratio.
(a) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to
noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is sometimes referred to as the post detector.
(b) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to
noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is sometimes referred to as the post detector.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q26 What is noise weighting?
(a) Improve the post detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.
(b) Improve the pre detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise weighting.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q27 Geo stationery satellites, once placed in their correct orbit, remain correctly positioned
until the lifetime of their equipment expires.
a) True
b) False
c) a & b
d) None
Ans: a
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q29 Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on
(a). geostationary satellites
(b). MEO
(c). LEO
(d) None of these
Ans: a
Q30 Atmospheric drag has effect on
(a). geostationary satellites
(b). MEO
(c). LEO satellites below about 1000 km.
(d) None of these
Ans: c
Q31 The drag is greatest at the perigee?
(a) Because the drag is greatest at the perigee, the drag acts to reduce the velocity at this
point, with the result that the satellite does not reach the same apogee height on successive
revolutions.
(b) Because the drag is greatest at the perigee, the drag acts to increase the velocity at this
point, with the result that the satellite does reach the same apogee height on successive
revolutions.
(c). LEO satellites.
(d) None of these
Ans: a
Q32 The earth is not perfectly spherical?
(a). The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the
poles
(b). The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the
poles
(d) None of these
Ans: a
Q33 Conditions are required for an orbit to be geostationary:
(a) The satellite must travel eastward at the same rotational speed as the earth.
(b). The orbit must be circular.
(c). The inclination of the orbit must be zero.
(d). all of these
Ans: d
Q34 Is a loss of power of a satellite down link signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
a) Atmospheric loss
b) Radiation loss
c) RFI
d) Path loss
Ans: d
Q35 The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is
a) 17.34°
b) 51.4°
c) 120°
d) 60°
Ans: a
Q36 A geostationary satellite is one which
a) hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth.
b) travels around the Earth in 24 hours.
c) remains stationary above the Earth.
d) appears stationary to everybody on Earth
Ans: d
Q37 Assuming a minimum angle of elevation of 5°, a geosynchronous satellite remains in
line-of-sight for __________ percentage of Earth's surface.
a) 35
b) 100
c) 25
d) 0
Ans: c
Q38 In selecting a satellite system, the First determining factor is its.
a) EIRP
b) Antenna Size
c) Antenna Gain
d) Coverage A Sea
Ans: d
Q39 A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to,
a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) maximise antenna gain
c) minimise free-space losses
d) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming signal
Ans: d
Q40 Geosynchronous satellites are always launched in the equatorial plane because it is the
only plane,
a) 24-hour orbit
b) zero-gravity environs
c) global communication
d) stationary satellite
Ans: c
Q41 What is an TWTA?
(a) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to the trans
tube & its power supplies.
(b) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to the trans
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q42 Define S/N ratio.
(a) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to noise
power at the receiver output.This ratio is sometimes referred to as the post detector.
(b) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of signal power to noise
power at the receiver input. This ratio is sometimes referred to as the post detector.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q44 What is an EIRP?
(a) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the
antenna gain & the power fed to the antenna input.
(b) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the
antenna gain & the power fed from the antenna output.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q45 Write the equations of losses for clear sky conditions.
(a) Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)+(AML)+(AA)+(PL)
(b) Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)
(c) Losses=(FSL+(AML)+(AA)+(PL)
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q46 What is an noise power spectral density?
(a) N0 = PN/BN=KTN joules
(b) N0 = BN/PN
(c) N0 = BN/PN =KTNB0 joules
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q47 What are the types of antenna losses?
(a) sky noise
(b) Antenna losses
(c) sky noise , Antenna losses
(d) all of these
Ans: d
Q48 Define sky noise.
(a) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which is present throught out universe &
which appears to originate from matter in any form ,at finite temperature.
(b) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which is present throught out universe &
which appears to originate to matter in any form , at infinite temperature.
(c) It is a term used to describe the microwave radiation which appears to originate from matter from
any form , at infinite temperature.
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q49 Write the equation of system noise factor.
(a) TS =Tant+ Te1+ (L-1)T0/G1+L(F-1)T0/G1
(b) TS =Tant+ Te1+(L-1)T0/G1
(c) TS =Tant+ L(F-1)T0/G1
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q50 A satellite downlink at 12GHZ operates with a transmit power of 6w & an antenna gain of
48.2db. Calculate the EIRP in dBw.
(a) 56dBw
(b) 16dBw
(c) 56dB
(d) None of above
Ans: a
Q51 Write the equations of C/N ratio.
(a). C/N0=(EIRP)+(G/T)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
(b). C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
(c) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dB.
(d) None of these
Ans: a
Q52 [EIRP] is
(a) [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dBW
(b). [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dB
(c). The inclination of the orbit must be zero.
(d). none of these
Ans: a
Q53 [FSL]=?
(a) [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log f
(b) [FSL] = 20 log r+20 log f
(c) [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log (wavelength)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q54 [PR]=?
(a) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]-[FSL]
(b) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]
(c) [PR]=[EIRP]+[ FSL]
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q55 The losses for clear-sky conditions are
(a) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
(b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
(c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q56 The Link-Power Budget Equation?
(a) [PR] =[EIRP] +[GR] -[LOSSES]
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q57 For a satellite circuit the individual link carrier-to-noise spectral density ratios are: uplink 100
dBHz; downlink 87 dBHz. Calculate the combined (C/N0) ratio.
(a) 86.79 dBHz
(b) 86.79 dB
(c) 6.79 dBHz
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q58 The space segment will obviously include the satellites, but it also includes the ground facilities
needed to keep the satellites operational, these being referred to:
(a) As the tracking, telemetry, and command (TT&C) facilities.
(b) The earth station is receiving the signal and the satellite is transmitting it.
(c) signal transmission
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q59 The uplink?
(a) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is transmitting the signal and
the satellite is receiving it.
(b) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is receiving the signal and the
satellite is transmitting it.
(d) none of these
Ans: a
Q60 =
a. = + − − − −
b. = + − − −
c. = + − − −
d. None of these
Ans: a
SUBJECT: SATELLITE COMUNICATION
BRANCH :E&TC
CLASS:BE
SEMESTER:VIII
Q.1 A television (TV) transmission is an example of which type of transmission?

a) Simplex
b) Half duplex
c) Full duplex
ANS A
Q.2.INTELSAT stands?
a)International Telecommunications Satellite
b)India Telecommunications Satellite
c)Inter Telecommunications Satellite
ANS A
Q.3.Kepler’s first law states?
a)The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
ANS A
Q.4 Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?
a) 42.241Km
b) 42.241m
c) 4.241Km
d) 2.241Km
ANS B
Q.5. Apogee?
b) The point nearest from earth
ANS A
Q.6 Perigee?
ANS A
Q.7. Ascending node?
a) The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to
north
ANS B
Q.8.Argument of perigee?
a) The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at
the earth’s center, in the direction of satellite motion.
ANS C
Q.9. True anomaly?
a) The true anomaly is the angle from perigee to the satellite position, measured
at the earth’s center.
ANS B
Q.10. The down link frequency in the C band transponder is
(A) 6 GHz
(B) 4 GHz
(C) 14 GHz
(D) 11 GHz
ANS B
Q.11. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
(B) Bandwidth.
(D) All of them
ANS D
Q.12. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
(A) TDMA
(B)FDMA
(C)Both (A)and (B)
(D)Packet Access
ANS B
Q.13.What is application of satellite systems?
a) whether forecasting
b) Terrestrial communication
c) point to point communication
ANS A
Q.14. Mention the different services of satellite systems.
a)Broadcasting satellite services
b) Signal transmission
c) Information transmission
ANS A
Q.15. Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
(a) Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north & south Polar
Regions.
b) Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west Polar Regions
c) Either (a) & (b)
ANS A
Q.16. Mention the apogee height.
(a) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
(b) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
(c) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
(d) None of above
ANS A
Q.17. Mention the perigee height.

(a) rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
(b) rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
(c) rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
(d) None of above
ANS B
Q.18. Irregular gravitational force around the earth due to non-uniform mass distribution.
Earth’s magnetic field these effect is called as
a) Circular Perturbations
b) Eleptical Perturbations
c) Orbital Perturbations
ANS B
Q.19..Self-Generated Torques And Pressures Caused By Rf Radiation From The Antenna

These Effect Is Called As.
a) Circular Perturbations
b) Eleptical Perturbations
c) Orbital Perturbations
d) Non d) None of the above
ANS B
20. For a satellite circuit the carrier-to-noise ratios are uplink 23 dB, downlink 20 dB,
intermodulation 24 dB. Calculate the overall carrier- to-noise ratio in decibels.
a) 17.2dBHz
b) 86.79 dB
c) 6.79 dBHz
d)none of the above
ANS C
21) What is an polar antenna?
(a) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
(b) An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
(c) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
(d) None of above
Ans a
22) What is declination?
a)The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings.
b) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must be confused with the
magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings
c) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the
electric declination used in correcting compass readings.
d) None of above
Ans a
23)Define the terms in Eclipse.
(a) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result
that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to reach the satellite solar cells.
(b) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result
that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight success to reach the satellite solar
cells.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans a
24) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods………….
(a) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about four weeks & the maximum daily
eclipse duration is about 1.20hours.
(b) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about one weeks & the maximum daily
eclipse duration is about 12 hours.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans a
25) What is meant by transponder?
(a) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the connecting link between
the satellite’s transmit & receive antennas is referred to as the transponder.
(b) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the power supply is referred
to as the transponder.
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
Ans a
26) A satellite transponder receives a ___ beam width to ___ the amount of energy received.
In the downlink direction a ___ beam width is used to provide an adequately sized ___. a)
narrow; maximize; wide; footprint b) narrow; minimize wide; footprint c) wide; maximize;
wide; footprint d) none of these
Ans a
27) A satellite earth station has
a) Receiving facilites only
b) Transmitting only
c) A and C
d) A , c and attenuating
Ans c
28) The transponder forms one of the main sections of the payload, the other being:
(a) The antenna subsystems.
(b) The earth station is receiving the signal and the satellite is transmitting it.
(d) none of these
Ans a
29) The payload refers to:
A) The payload refers to the equipment used to pro-vide the service for which the satellite has
been launched.
B) Satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld
terminals.
C) data communications
D) none of the above
Ans A
30) During eclipse, power is provided by two nickel-cadmium (Ni-Cd) long-life batteries,
which will deliver _______. (a) 800 W (b) 830 W (c) 880 W (d) None of these
Ans b
31) A satellite may carry ______ transponders.
(a) 32
(b) 41
(c) 24
(d) None of these
Ans a
32) A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
Answer : b
33) The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is ………..
a. 17.34°
b. 51.4°
c. 120°
d. 60°
Answer : a
34)The main disadvantages of the offset feed are that a stronger mechanical support is
required to maintain the reflector shape and because of the asymmetry, the cross-polarization
with a linear polarized feed is worse compared with the centre fed antenna.
1 true
2 false
ans true
35) Parabolic reflectors are widely used in satellite communications systems to enhance the
gain of antennas
1 true
2 false
Ans true
36)What is an OMT?
(a) The polarization seperation takes place in a device known as an ortho-coupler or
orthogonal
mode transducer.
(b) The polarization combiner takes place in a device known as an ortho-coupler or
orthogonal mode
transducer.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans a
37)What is an TWTA?
(a) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to
the
trans tube & its power supplies.
(b) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to
the trans tube
& its power supplies.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
Ans a
38) Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Horn antenna
c) Yagi antenna
d) Chicken-mash a
Ans b
39. The Link-Power Budget Equation?

(d) none of the
Ans a
40) Primary source of power for satellite is
a) lead acid battery
b) nickel-cadmium battery
c) solar cells
d) regulated power supply
Ans C
41) The uplink?
(a) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is transmitting the
signal and the satellite is receiving it.
(b) The uplink of a satellite circuit is the one in which the earth station is receiving the signal
and the satellite is transmitting it.
(d) none of these
Ans a
42. 41. For a satellite circuit the individual link carrier-to-noise spectral density ratios are:
uplink 100 dBHz; downlink 87 dBHz. Calculate the combined (C/N0) ratio.
a)86.79 dBHz
b)89.79 dBHz
c)6.79 dBHz
d)none of these
43.The Telemetry, Tracking and Command (TT&C) Systems of a spacecraft provides the
most vital telecommunication link between a satellite and ground station.
1 true
2false
Ans True
44. Sun transit outage is an interruption in or distortion of geostationary satellite signals

caused by interference from solar radiation
1 true
2false
Ans True
45) The cross polar discrimination is defined as a ratio of the copolar component of the
specified polarization compared to the orthogonal cross-polar component over the sector or
beamwidth angle.
1 true
2false
Ans True
46. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its design altitude?
a) Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
Answer b
47. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth.

a) True
b) False
Ans a
48. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle?
a) Position can be easily determined
b) Consume less fuel
c) Most efficient geometry
d) Better coverage on earth
Ansa
49. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
Ansb
50. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?

a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
Ans c
51. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from
earth.
a) True
b) False
Ans b
52. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
Ans c
53. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a given
meridian of earth longitude is called as _____________
a) synodic period
b) Lapsed time
c) Time period
d) Sidereal period
Ans a
54. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit?
a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
Ans a
55. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
a) Angle of inclination
b) Angle of elevation
c) Apogee angle
d) LOS angle
Ans b
56. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be
the best?
a) Circular orbit
b) Elliptical orbit
c) Geosynchronous orbit
d) Triangular orbit
Ans c
57. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40
Ans d
58. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called?
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
Ans b
59. What is the primary use of communication satellites?

a) Telephone service
b) Surveillance
c) Research
d) GPS
Ans:a
60. What type of satellite TV service uses compressed data transmission to beam signals
directly to every home?
a) Direct broadcast satellite
b) Mobile satellite service
c) Broadcasting satellite service
d) Fixed satellite service
Ans:a
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communications(SMC)
Branch:Electronics & Telecommunications
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
Q1. INTELSAT stands?
A. International Telecommunications Satellite

B. India Telecommunications Satellite
C. Inter Telecommunications Satellite
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q2.Kepler’s first law states?
A. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.

B. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
C. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be sphere
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q3. Kepler’s second law states?
A. If t2-t1=t4-t3, then A12=A34.

B. If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
C. If t2/t1=t4/t3, then A12=A34.
D. D. None of above
Ans. A
Q4. Calculate the radius of a circular orbit for which the period is 1 day?
A. 42.241Km
B. 42.241m
C. 4.241Km
D. 2.241Km
Ans.A
Q5. Apogee?
A. The point farthest from earth

B. The point nearest from earth
C. The point smallest from earth
D. D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q6.Perigee?

B. The point longest from earth
C. The point closest approach to earth
Ans. C
Q7. Ascending node?
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from
south to north
C.The point closest approach to earth
Ans. A
Q8. The down link frequency in the C band transponder is
A. 6 GHz
B. 4 GH
C. 14 GHz
D. 11 GHz
Ans.B
Q9. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
A. Effective Isotropic Radiated power
B. Bandwidth.
C. Free space path losses
D. All of them
Ans.D
Q10. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both
D. CDMA
Ans. A
Q11. What is application of satellite systems?
A. whether forecastingB
B. Terrestrial communication
C. point to point communication
Ans. A
12. Mention the different services of satellite systems
A. Broadcasting satellite service

B. Signal transmission
C. Information transmission
Ans. A
Q. 13 Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
A. Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the
north & south Polar Regions.
B. Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east &
west Polar Regions
C. Either (a) & (b)
Ans. A
Q14. Mention the apogee height.
A. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
B. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
C. ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
D. None of above
Ans.A
Q15. Mention the perigee height.
A. rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
B. rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
C. rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q.16 Define Universal time.
A. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks.
B. It is the time used for all private time keeping purposes & it is the time
C. It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
reference which is not broadcast by the national bureau of standards
as a standard for setting clocks.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q17.Define Universal time day.

A. UTday=1/24(hours+minutes/60+seconds/3600)
B. UTday=1/24(hours+minutes+seconds/3600)
C. UTday=1/24(hours+minutes/6+seconds/360)
Ans. A
Q18.Primary component of uplink section of satellite is
A. transformer
B. transistor
C. earth station transmitter
D. power station transmitter
Ans. A
Q. 19. Sound signals in TV are
A. amplitude modulate
B. dc modulated
C. frequency modulated
D. a and c
Ans. C
Q. 20 Video signals in TV are
A. Amplitude modulated
B. de-modulated
C. Frequency modulated
D. None of these
Ans. C
Q21. The main advantage of satelliite comminication is
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliabilit
D. High band width
Ans. C
Q22. A communication satellite is a repeater between
A.one transmitting and one receiving station
B.one transmitting and many receiving station
C. many transmitting and one receiving station
D. many transmitting and many receiving station
Ans. D
Q23. The angle subtended by earth at a geostationary communication

satellite is nearly
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C
Q24.In analog technique of modulation in satellite, the most commonly

employed system is
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
Q25. Transmission bandwidth for satellite system least depends on
A. Modulation method
B. Overall costs
C. Available technology
D. Ionospheric characteristics
Ans. D
Q26. A certain sound has 1000 times more eneergy then another sound. The
number of times it would sound stronger to a listener will be
A. 1000
B. 100
C. 30
D. 3
Ans. C
Q27. Shannon’s law relates
A. Antenna gain to bandwidth

B. Frequency to antenna gain
C. Antenna gain to transmission losses
D. Information carring capacity to S/N ratio
Ans. D
Q28. A synchronous satellite orbits the earth once in
A. 24 hoursB
B. 12 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 1 hours
Ans. A
Q29. The velocity of a geostationary satellite is nearly
A. 1255 km/hr
B. 6757 km/hr
C. 9422 km/hr
D. 12644 km/hr
Ans. C
Q30.Geostationary satellites are located at a height of
A. 3600 km from earth’s surface

B. 36000 km from earth’s surface
C. 360,000 km from earth’s surfac
D. 3600,000 km from earth’s surface
Ans. B
Q31.Geostationary satellite follow
A. Circular path
B. Elliptical path
C. Inclined path
Ans. B
Q32. Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic

satellite in …….orbit
A. Polar, inclined orbit

B. Polar, equatorial
C. Equatorial, polar
D. Inclined , polar
Ans. C
Q33. Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?
A. Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
Ans. B
Q34. Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as
A. COMA
B. DOMSA
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
Q35.A satellite earth station has

A. Receiving facilites only
B. Transmitting only
C. A and C
D. A , c and attenuating
Ans. C
Q36.Satellite recieves signal from
A. Microwave repeater stations

B. TV relay station
C. Appropriate earth station
D. All of above
Ans. C
Q. 37 The main advantage of satelliite comminication is
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliability
D. High band width
Ans. C
A. one transmitting and one receiving station

B. one transmitting and many receiving station
Ans. D

satellite is nearly
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C

employed system is
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
Q41. Which is the most commanly employed modulation technique in the

commercial communication satellite syatem?
A. FM
B. Digital modulation
C. Analoge modulation
D. All of above
Ans. C
Q42. Define diplexer.
A. The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as

diplexer
B. The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as
diplexer
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q. 43 What is an OMT?
A. The polarization seperation takes place in a device known as an ortho-

coupler or orthogona mode transducer.
B. The polarization combiner takes place in a device known as an ortho-
coupler or orthogonal mode transducer.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q44.What is an polarization interleaving?
A. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized

left hand circular & right hand circular to reduce interference to
acceptable levels. This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
B. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized
left hand flat & right hand elliptical to reduce interference to
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q45. What is an SCPC?
A. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36MHz) may be occupied

by a no. of single
B. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36mhz) may be occupied
by a no. of double carriers,
C. each associated with its own voice circuit.
D. Either a or b.
Ans. A
Q46. Define S/N ratio.
A. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is
sometimes referred to as the post detector.
B. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q47. What is noise weighting?

A. Improve the post detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise
weighting.
B. Improve the pre detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise
weighting.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q48. Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic

satellite in …….orbit

D. Inclined , polar
Ans. C
Q49.Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?
A.Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
Ans. B
A. COMAT
B. DOMSAT
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
C. A and C
D. A , C and attenuating
Ans. C
Q52. Satellite recieves signal from

B. TV relay station
Ans. C
Q53. A 20 meter antenna give a certain up-link gain at 5 GHz. For getting the
same gain at 25 GHz ate antenna size required will be
A. 100
B. 80 m
C. 20 m
D. 4m
Ans. D
Q54.Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Horn antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Chicken-mash antenna
Ans. B
Q55. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
A. Satellite surface area
B. Bandwidth
D. Effective isotropically radiated power
Ans. A
Q56. In a communication satellite, the telephone channels are assembled in
A. AM
B. FM
C. TDM
D. FDM
Ans. D
Q57. A satellite transponder receives a ___ beam width to ___ the amount of
energy received. In the downlink direction a ___ beam width is used to
provide an adequately sized ___.
A. narrow; maximize; wide; footprint
B. narrow; minimize wide; footprint
C. wide; maximize; wide; footprint
D. none of these
Ans. B
Q58. An offset focus receiving antenna has the advantage that the LNB/C is
so mounted as to not block any of the incoming radio waves.
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. A
Q59. Geostationery satellites, once placed in their correct orbit, remain

correctly positioned until the lifetime of their equipment expires.
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. B
Q60. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on
A. geostationary satellites
B. MEO
C. LEO
D. None of these
Ans.A
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communications(SMC)
Class:BE
Semester:VIII

Ans. A
A. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.

B. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
C. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be sphere
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q3. Kepler’s second law states?

B. If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
C. If t2/t1=t4/t3, then A12=A34.
D. D. None of above
Ans. A
A. 42.241Km
B. 42.241m
C. 4.241Km
D. 2.241Km
Ans.A
Q5. Apogee?

B. The point nearest from earth
C. The point smallest from earth
D. D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q6.Perigee?

Ans. C
Q7. Ascending node?
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from
south to north
Ans. A
A. 6 GHz
B. 4 GH
C. 14 GHz
D. 11 GHz
Ans.B
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.D
Q10. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both
D. CDMA
Ans. A
Q11. What is application of satellite systems?
A. whether forecastingB
B. Terrestrial communication
C. point to point communication
Ans. A
12. Mention the different services of satellite systems
A. Broadcasting satellite service

B. Signal transmission
C. Information transmission
Ans. A
Q. 13 Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
A. Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the
north & south Polar Regions.
B. Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east &
west Polar Regions
C. Either (a) & (b)
Ans. A
A. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
B. ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rp
C. ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra-R
D. None of above
Ans.A
A. rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
B. rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
C. rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q.16 Define Universal time.
reference which is not broadcast by the national bureau of standards
as a standard for setting clocks.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q17.Define Universal time day.

A. UTday=1/24(hours+minutes/60+seconds/3600)
B. UTday=1/24(hours+minutes+seconds/3600)
C. UTday=1/24(hours+minutes/6+seconds/360)
Ans. A
Q18.Primary component of uplink section of satellite is
A. transformer
B. transistor
C. earth station transmitter
D. power station transmitter
Ans. A
Q. 19. Sound signals in TV are
A. amplitude modulate
B. dc modulated
C. frequency modulated
D. a and c
Ans. C
Q. 20 Video signals in TV are
A. Amplitude modulated
B. de-modulated
C. Frequency modulated
D. None of these
Ans. C
Q21. The main advantage of satelliite comminication is
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliabilit
D. High band width
Ans. C
A.one transmitting and one receiving station
Ans. D

satellite is nearly
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C

employed system is
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
Q25. Transmission bandwidth for satellite system least depends on
A. Modulation method
B. Overall costs
C. Available technology
D. Ionospheric characteristics
Ans. D
Q26. A certain sound has 1000 times more eneergy then another sound. The
number of times it would sound stronger to a listener will be
A. 1000
B. 100
C. 30
D. 3
Ans. C
Q27. Shannon’s law relates
A. Antenna gain to bandwidth

B. Frequency to antenna gain
C. Antenna gain to transmission losses
D. Information carring capacity to S/N ratio
Ans. D
A. 24 hoursB
B. 12 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 1 hours
Ans. A
Q29. The velocity of a geostationary satellite is nearly
A. 1255 km/hr
B. 6757 km/hr
C. 9422 km/hr
D. 12644 km/hr
Ans. C
Q30.Geostationary satellites are located at a height of
A. 3600 km from earth’s surface

B. 36000 km from earth’s surface
C. 360,000 km from earth’s surfac
D. 3600,000 km from earth’s surface
Ans. B
Q31.Geostationary satellite follow
A. Circular path
B. Elliptical path
C. Inclined path
Ans. B
Q32. Geostationary satellite are generally put in… .... orbit and domestic
satellite in ...... orbit

D. Inclined , polar
Ans. C
Q33. Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?
A. Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
Ans. B
A. COMA
B. DOMSA
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C

C. A and C
D. A , c and attenuating
Ans. C
Q36.Satellite recieves signal from

B. TV relay station
D. All of above
Ans. C
Q. 37 The main advantage of satelliite comminication is
A. Low cost
B. Low distortion
C. High reliability
D. High band width
Ans. C
A. one transmitting and one receiving station

Ans. D

satellite is nearly
A. 66.5
B. 47.34
C. 17.34
D. 7.34
Ans. C

employed system is
A. AM
B. FM
C. PAM
D. PWM
Ans. B
Q41. Which is the most commanly employed modulation technique in the

commercial communication satellite syatem?
A. FM
B. Digital modulation
C. Analoge modulation
D. All of above
Ans. C
Q42. Define diplexer.
A. The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as

diplexer
B. The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as
diplexer
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q. 43 What is an OMT?
A. The polarization seperation takes place in a device known as an ortho-

coupler or orthogona mode transducer.
B. The polarization combiner takes place in a device known as an ortho-
coupler or orthogonal mode transducer.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q44.What is an polarization interleaving?
A. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized

left hand circular & right hand circular to reduce interference to
B. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized
left hand flat & right hand elliptical to reduce interference to
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q45. What is an SCPC?
A. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36MHz) may be occupied

by a no. of single
B. In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36mhz) may be occupied
by a no. of double carriers,
C. each associated with its own voice circuit.
D. Either a or b.
Ans. A
Q46. Define S/N ratio.
A. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is
B. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio
of signal power to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q47. What is noise weighting?

A. Improve the post detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise
weighting.
B. Improve the pre detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise
weighting.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q48. Geostationary satellite are generally put in… .... orbit and domestic
satellite in ...... orbit

D. Inclined , polar
Ans. C
Q49.Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?
A.Equatorial region
B. Polar region
C. A and C
Ans. B
A. COMAT
B. DOMSAT
C. INTELSAT
D. EARSAT
Ans. C
C. A and C
D. A , C and attenuating
Ans. C
Q52. Satellite recieves signal from

B. TV relay station
Ans. C
Q53. A 20 meter antenna give a certain up-link gain at 5 GHz. For getting the
same gain at 25 GHz ate antenna size required will be
A. 100
B. 80 m
C. 20 m
D. 4m
Ans. D
Q54.Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Horn antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Chicken-mash antenna
Ans. B
A. Satellite surface area
B. Bandwidth
D. Effective isotropically radiated power
Ans. A
Q56. In a communication satellite, the telephone channels are assembled in
A. AM
B. FM
C. TDM
D. FDM
Ans. D
Q57. A satellite transponder receives a _ beam width to the amount of

energy received. In the downlink direction a beam width is used to
provide an adequately sized .
A. narrow; maximize; wide; footprint
B. narrow; minimize wide; footprint
C. wide; maximize; wide; footprint
D. none of these
Ans. B
Q58. An offset focus receiving antenna has the advantage that the LNB/C is
so mounted as to not block any of the incoming radio waves.
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. A
Q59. Geostationery satellites, once placed in their correct orbit, remain

correctly positioned until the lifetime of their equipment expires.
A. true
B. false
C. equal
D. none of these
Ans. B
Q60. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on
A. geostationary satellites
B. MEO
C. LEO
D. None of these
Ans.A
60 MCQs of each subject in the above format.
Subject :- Satellite & Mobile Communication
Branch:- B.E. (E&Tc)
Sem:- VIII
1. Kepler’s first law states?

a) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
ANS a
2. The eccentricity e is given by?
a) = +
b) = −
c) = +
d) = −
ANS d
3. Kepler’s second law states?

a) If t2-t1=t4-t3, then A12=A34.
b) If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
c) If t2/t1=t4/t3, then A12=A34.
ANS a
4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Prograde
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
ANS b
5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?
a) Retrograde
b) Apogee
c) Prograde
d) Perigee
ANS d
6. What is Apogee?
b) The point smallest from earth
c) The point nearest from earth
ANS c
7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
ANS c
8. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following a geostationary orbit?

a) 180°
b) 90°
c) 45°
d) 0°
ANS d
9. The velocity of a geostationary satellite is nearly

a) 1255 km/hr
b) 6757 km/hr
c) 9422 km/hr
d) 12644 km/hr
ANS c
10. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
a) Ku
b) X
c) Cd
d) MF
ANS d
11. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
ANS b
12. The international space station is in a “372 x 381 km orbit”, what is the eccentricity of the
orbit? Consider Ra=6378.1363km
a) 6.7
b) 0.067
c) 0.0067
d) 0.00067
ANS d
13. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on

a) geostationary satellites
b) MEO
c) LEO
d) None of these
ANS a
14. In which of the orbit the satellite passes over any given point of the planet's surface at the
same local mean solar time
a) Geostationary orbit
b) Geosynchronous orbit
c) Sun synchronous orbit
ANS c
15. The point on the surface of the Earth directly below the satellite.
a) Satellite point
c) Apogee
d) Perigee
ANS b
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
ANS b
17. What is true anomaly?

a) The point closest approach to earth
c) The angle from perigee to the satellite position, measured at the earth’s center.
ANS c
18. Conditions are required for an orbit to be geostationary:

a) The satellite must travel eastward at the same rotational speed as the earth.
b) The orbit must be circular.
c) The inclination of the orbit must be zero.
d) all of these
ANS d
19. The angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and the orbital plane of the satellite
measured counterclockwise is called______.
a) Angle of elevation
b) Angle of azimuth
c) Angle of inclination
d) Angle of tetrahedron
ANS c
20. When the satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the north and south polar regions, the
type of orbit is called ____.
a) Geosynchronous satellite
b) Polar orbit
c) Synchronous orbit
d) Equatorial orbit
ANS b
21. The line joining the ascending and descending node is called ____.
a) Line of apside
b) Line of sight
c) Line of nodes
d) None of these
ANS c
22. Which of the satellite experience highest atmospheric drag

a) GEO
b) MEO
c) LEO
d) All of them
ANS c
23. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Economically viable
d) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
ANS d
24. Condition required for an orbit to be geostationary:

a) The satellite must travel eastward at the same rotational speed as the earth.
b) The orbit must be circular.
c) The inclination of the orbit must be zero.
d) All of them must be satisfied
ANS d
25. For a circular orbit, the semi-major axis, denoting the radius of geostationary orbit is
given by
µ
a) =
µ
b) =
µ
c) =
µ
d) =
ANS a
26. The azimuth angles and the angle of elevation is collectively known as ____.
a) Antennas keep angles
b) Antennas see angles
c) Antennas look angles
d) Antennas satellite angles
ANS c
27. What is meant by azimuth angle?

a) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane &
center of earth.
b) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane &
the plane passing through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
c) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane & the
plane passing through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
d) None of above
ANS b
28. The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of
a) Sky noise
b) Antenna and feeder noise
c) Parametric amplifier noise
d) All of the above
ANS d
29. The minimum acceptable angle of elevation

a) 6 degrees
b) 4 degrees
c) 5 degrees
d) 7 degrees
ANS c
30. Define the terms in Eclipse.

a) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with
the result that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to
reach the satellite solar cells.
b) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with
the result that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight success to
reach the satellite solar cells.
c) a&b
d) None of above
ANS a
31. The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods………….

a) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about four weeks & the
maximum daily eclipse duration is about 1.20hours.
b) The eclipse effect is noticeable for periods of about one week & the maximum
daily eclipse duration is about 12 hours.
c) a&b
d) None of above
ANS a
32. the equatorial plane is tilted at an angle of _______° to the ecliptic plane
a) 22.4°
b) 23.4°
c) 24.3°
d) 25.3°
ANS b
33. What is the maximum sun outage time

a) 8min
b) 9 min
c) 10 min
d) 11min
ANS c
34. What determines the farthest satellite away that can be seen looking east or west of the
earth station’s longitude
a) Radio horizon
b) Optical horizon
c) Terrestrial limits
d) Limits of visibility
ANS d
35. The atmospheric absorption loss varies with frequency. At what frequency the first peak
of absorption loss is observed?
a) 21.3 GHz
b) 22.3 GHz
c) 23.3 GHz
d) 24.3 GHz
ANS b
36. For a parabolic antenna of 3 m diameter transmitting wave with wavelength of 5cm the
far field zone begins at approximately
a) 360 m.
b) 340m
c) 320m
d) 300m
ANS a
37. Define guard time.

a) It is necessary to between bursts to prevent the bursts from overlapping.
b) the guard time will vary from burst to burst depending on the accuracy with
which the various bursts can be positioned within each frame.
c) a&b
ANS c
38. When orthogonal elliptical polarization occurs?

a) When a wave has the same sense of rotation but different value of axial ratio.
b) When a wave has the same value of axial ratio but opposite sense of rotation.
c) In both a and b cases
ANS b
39. cross-polarization discrimination in decibels is calculated as_____where copolar

component, having magnitude E11, and a cross-polar component, having magnitude E12
a) = 20 log
b) = 20 log
c) = 10 log
d) = 40 log
ANS a
40. The cross-polarization discrimination in decibels associated with rain is given

as_____where U and V are empirically determined coefficients and A is the rain
attenuation
a) = # − $ log %
b) = % − # log $
c) = # − % log $
ANS c
41. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______

a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer
ANS c
42. Define diplexer.

a) The transmit & receives signals are combined in a device known as diplexer
b) The transmit& receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer.
c) Both a and b.
d) None of above
ANS b
43. What happens when the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line?
a) No transmission occurs
b) No reception occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum
ANS d
44. Impedance of half wave dipole is

a) 72Ω
b) 73Ω
c) 74 Ω
d) 75 Ω
ANS b
45. A satellite downlink at 12GHZ operates with a transmit power of 6w & an antenna gain
of 48.2db. Calculate the EIRP in dBw.
a) 56dBw
b) 16dBw
c) 56dB
d) None of above
ANS a
46. Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Horn antenna
c) Yagi antenna
d) Chicken-mash antenna
ANS b
47. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
a) Satellite surface area
b) Bandwidth
c) Free space path losses
d) Effective isotropically radiated power
ANS c
48. The range between a ground station & a satellite is 42000km. Calculate the free space
loss a frequency of 6GHZ.
a) 2.4db.
b) 20.4db.
c) 200.4db.
d) None of above
ANS c
49. The process of manoeuvring a satellite within a preassigned window is called

a) Satellite keeping
b) Station controlling
c) Station keeping
d) Satellite controlling
ANS c
50. Write the equations of C/N ratio.

a) C/N0=(EIRP)+(G/T)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
b) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
c) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dB.
d) None of these
ANS c
51. The losses for clear-sky conditions are
a) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
b) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
c) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
d) None of these
ANS c
52. What is preamble?

a) Certain time slots at the beginning of each burst are used to carry timing
&synchronizing information. These time slots collectively are referred to as
preamble.
b) Certain time slots at the beginning of two burst are used to carry timing &
synchronizing information. These time slots collectively are referred to as
preamble.
c) a&b
d) None of above
ANS a
53. In analog technique of modulation in satellite, the most commonly employed system is
a) AM
b) FM
c) PAM
d) PWM
ANS b
54. The frequencies for direct broadcast satellites vary from region to region throughout the
world, although these are generally in the_____________.
a) Ka band
b) Ku band
c) C-band
ANS b
55. What is noise weighting?

a) Improve the post detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise
weighting.
b) Improve the pre detection signal to noise ratio is referred to as noise
weighting.
c) Both a or b.
d) None of above
ANS a
56. Calculate the gain of a 3-m paraboloidal antenna operating at a frequency of 12 GHz.
Assume an aperture efficiency of 0.55.
a) 49.8dB
b) 50.8dB
c) 48.9dB
d) 51.8dB
ANS c
57. A satellite link operating at 14 GHz has receiver feeder losses of 1.5 dB and a free-space
loss of 207 dB. The atmospheric absorption loss is 0.5 dB, and the antenna pointing loss
is 0.5 dB. Depolarization losses may be neglected. Calculate the total link loss for clear-
sky conditions
a) 205.9dB
b) 209.5 dB
c) 208.5 dB
d) 207.8 dB
ANS b
58. What is an noise power spectral density?

a) &' = ( = *+, -'
) (
b) &' = ) = *+,
(
(
./(
c) &' = )(
ANS b
59. FM is preferred for satellite communication because

a) It give high modulation index
b) Low bandwidth is essentially requirement
c) Satellite channel has large bandwidth and severe noise
ANS c
60. What is saturation flux density?

a) The flux density required at the transmitting antenna to produce saturation of
the TWTA
b) The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of the
TWTA
c) Both a and b
ANS b
Subject: Satellite and Mobile Communication
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. Satellite communication takes place at which frequencies
A. 100 GHz
B. 10 GHz
C. 30 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz
Ans.: B
Q2. One of the advantages of Satellite communication is
A. Communication is not delayed
B. Communication has no geographical barrier
C. As communicating user increases cost is also increases
D. None of above
Ans.: B
Q3. INTELSAT stands for:
D. All of above
Ans.: A
Q4. Kepler’s first law states that
a. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
b. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be a sphere.
c. The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
d. None of above
Ans.: C
Q5. Kepler’s second law states that
B. If t2+t1 = t4+t3, then A12=A34.
C. If t2/t1=t4/t3, then A12=A34
D. All above are correct statements
Ans.:A
Q6. Apogee means
A. The point nearest from earth
B. The point smallest from earth
C. The point farthest from earth
D. None of above
Ans.: C
Q7. Perigee means
B. The point closest approach to earth
C. The point longest from earth
D. None of above
Ans.: C
Q8. Ascending node means
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south
tonorth
D. No such Terminology
Ans.: A
Q9. Mention the different services of satellite systems
A. Direct Broadcast Satellite Services
B. Fixed Satellite Services
C. Broadcasts Satellite Services
D. All above
Ans.: D
Q10. What is application of satellite systems
A. point to point communication
B. None of above
C. Terrestrial communication
D. Whether forecasting
Ans.: D
Q11. Define Universal time
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard
for setting clocks
reference which is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard
for setting clocks.
reference which is not broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a
standard for setting clocks
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q12. What is meant by the azimuth angle?
A. It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane

& the plane passing through the earth station,the satellite &center of earth
B. It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane &

the plane passing through the earth station,the satellite &center of earth.
C. It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane

&center of earth
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q13. Define descending node.
A. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from north to
south.
D. No such Terminology
Ans.: A
Q14. State True or False Polar orbiting satellites orbit the earth in such a way
as to cover the north and south polar regions.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
Q15. The advantage of geostationary orbit.
A. There is no necessity for tracking antennas to find the satellite positions.
B. There is necessity for tracking antennas to find the satellite positions
C. It covers whole earth for communication.
D. All above
Ans.: A
Q16. Earth curves approximately 5 meters downward for every ---------- along
its horizon
A. 5000 meters
B. 6000 meters
C. 9000 meters
D. 8000 meters
Ans.: D
Q17. In the absence of gravity, a satellite would move in a --------- tangent to

the Earth.
A. straight line path
B. Tangent path
C. Random line path
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q18. An orbit in which satellite moves in the same direction as theEarth‟s
rotation is called as
A. Retrograde orbit
B. Prograde orbit
C. Circular orbit
D. Elliptical orbit
Ans.: B
Q19. An orbit in which satellite moves in the opposite direction as the Earth’s
rotation is called as
A. Retrograde orbit
B. Prograde orbit
C. Circular orbit
D. Elliptical orbit
Ans.: A
Q20. The impact of this drag is maximum at the point of
A. Perigee
B. Apogee
C. Mean anomaly
D. Ascending node
Ans.: A
Q 21. What is polarization interleaving?
A. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized left
hand circular & right hand circular to reduce interference to acceptable
levels. This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
B. Overlap occurs between channels, but these are alternating polarized left
hand flat & right hand elliptical to reduce interference to acceptable levels.
This is referred to as polarization interleaving.
C. Either A or B.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A
Q 22. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.: D
Q 23. What happens when a vertical or horizontal polarized antenna receives

a circular polarized wave?
A. Gain increases
B. Signal strength increases
C. Signal strength reduces
D. Cannot receive circular polarized waves
Ans.: C
Q 24. Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
A. Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north &
south Polar Regions.
B. Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west
Polar Regions
C. Either (A) & (B)
Ans.: A
Q 25. What is declination?
A. The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be
confused with the magnetic declination used in correcting compass

readings.
B. The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must be

confused
with the magnetic declination used in correcting compass readings.
C. The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be
confused with the electric declination used in correcting compass readings.

D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q 26. The main characteristic of thermal noise is that
A. It has a flat frequency spectrum.
B. It has a slot frequency spectrum
C. It has a thick frequency spectrum
D. None of these
Ans.: A
Q 27. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.
A. GEO
B.MEO
C. LEO
Ans.: B
Q 28. What do you call of a satellite used to provide satellite services within a
single country?
A. Orbital satellite
B. Geostationary satellite
C. Nonsynchronous satellite
D. Domestic satellite or domsat
Ans.: D
Q 29. A satellite cross-link means
A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these
Ans.: C
Q 30. What happens if a satellite is launched vertically and released at its

Designaltitude?
A. Continue to orbit the earth
B. Fall back
C. Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
D. Stays where it was released
Ans.: B
Q 31. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from earth transmitter
to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
Ans.: A
Q 32.A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s

station is ……….
A. Uplink
B. Downlink
C. Terrestrial
D. Earthbound
Ans.: B
Q 33. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..

A. Circularpolarization
B. Maneuverability
C. Beam width
D. Gain
Ans.: A
Q 34. What band does VSAT first operate?

A. L-band
B. X-band
C. C-band
C. Ku-band
Ans.: C
Q 35. A geosynchronous satellite

A. has the same period a that of the Earth
B. has a circular orbit
C. rotates in the equatorial plane
D. has all of the above
Ans.: D
Q 36. Geosynchronous satellites are always launched in the equatorial plane

because it is the only plane which provides
A. 24-hour orbit
B. stationary satellite
C. global communication
D. zero-gravity environs
Ans.: C
Q 37. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz
Ans.: C
Q 38. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that
are far away from earth.
a) True
b) False
Ans.: B
Q 39.The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the
satellite and the line between the earth station’s antenna and the
earth’s horizon is called as ___________
A. Angle of inclination
B. Angle of elevation
C. Apogee angle
D. LOS angle
Ans.: B
Q 40.When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?

A. Retrograde
B. Posigrade
C. Perigee
D. Apogee
Ans.: C
B. Bandwidth.
D. All of them
Ans.: D
Q42. What is an EIRP?
A. It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be

completed from the antenna gain & the power fed to the antenna input.
B. It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be

completed from the antenna gain & the power fed from the antenna output.
C. Either a or b.
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q43. Write the equations of losses for clear sky conditions.
A. Losses=[FSL]+[RFL]+[AML]+[AA]+[PL]
B. Losses= [FSL]+[RFL]
C. Losses= [FSL] +[AML]+[AA]+[PL]
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q44. What are the types of antenna losses?
A. sky noise
B. Antenna losses
C. Sky noise, Antenna losses

D. All of these
Ans.: D
Q45. What is an antenna loss?
A. It is added to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise

temperature is in the sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these
sources.
B. It is added to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise

temperature is in the divider of the equivalent noise temperature of all these
sources.
C. It is added to noise received as radiation is in the sum of the equivalent

noise temperature of all these sources.
D. None of above
Ans.: A
46. Define saturation flux density.
A. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of

TWTA is termed the saturation flux density.
B. The flux density required at the transmitting antenna to produce saturation

of TWTA is termed the saturation flux density.
C.Both A & B
D. None of above
Ans.: A
47. What is an Intermodulation noise?
A. Intermodulation distortion in high power amplifier can result in signal

products which appear as noise & in fact is referred to as Intermodulation
noise.
B. Intermodulation distortion in LNA can result in signal products which appear

as noise & in fact is referred to as Intermodulation noise.
C. Intermodulation distortion in LNA & HPA can result in signal products which
appear as noise & in fact is referred to as Intermodulation noise.
D. None of above
Ans.: A
49. Define S/N ratio.
A. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of
signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is sometimes
referred to as the post detector.
B. The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of
signal power to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is sometimes
referred to as the post detector.
C Either a or b.
D None of above
Ans.: A
Q50. Write the equations of C/N ratio.
A. C/N0= [EIRP] + [G/T] – LOSSES – [K] dBHz.
B. C/N0= [EIRP] - LOSSES - [K] dBHz.
C. C/N0= [EIRP] - LOSSES- [K] dB.
D. None of these
Ans.: A
Q51. Power Flux Density is
A. Total power radiated when the antenna is excited by a current or voltage of

known intensity
B. Total power radiated when the antenna is excited by a power of known

intensity
C. Total power radiated when the antenna is excited by an inductor of known
intensity
D. None of Above
Ans.: A
Q52. Radiation efficiency which is the ratio of
A. Total power to the radiated power
B. Power Radiated to the Total Power
C. Power Radiated to the Absorbed Power
D. All are correct
Ans.: B
Q53. A straight conductor excited by a voltage from a transmission line or a

waveguide is called as
A. Dipole Antennas
B. Aperture Antennas
C. Reflector Antennas
D. Both B and C
Ans.: A
Q54. The Reciprocity Theorem states that if
A. Current I is induced in an Antenna B which is working on receiving mode,

this current is applied by the EMF at the terminals of the antenna A that is
working on the transmitting mode. Now if the same EMF is applied to the
terminals of B, then it will induce the same current at the terminals of A
B. Current I is induced in an Antenna B which is working on receiving mode,

working on the receiving mode. Now if the same EMF is applied to the
C. Current I is induced in an Antenna B which is working on transmitting mode,
working on the transmitting mode. Now if the same EMF is applied to the
D. None of above
Ans.: A
Q55. Isotropic radiator means r
A. radiating energy equally in desired directions.
B. radiating energy equally in all directions.
C. radiating energy equally in a described direction
D. None of above
Ans.: B
Q56. The most common aperture antenna is Horn Antenna and Reflector
Antenna
A. Horn Antenna
B. Reflector Antenna
C. Both A and B
D. only A
Ans.: C
Q57. The two main types of double-reflector antennas used in satellite

communication are:
A. Cassegrain Antenna
B. Gregorian Antenna
C. both A and B
D. only A
Ans.: C
Q58. The CATV system employs a single_________, with separate feeds

available for each sense of polarization.
A. Outdoor unit
B. Indoor unit
C. TV unit
D. None of these
Ans.: A
Q59. The IDU must be able to receive any of the 32 transponders, although
only _____ of these will be available for a single polarization.
A. 16
B. 8
C. 24
D. None of these
Ans.: A
Q60. What is the polarization of a discone antenna?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Spiral
Ans.: A
Class: BE
Semester:VIII

A) International Telecommunications Satellite
B) India Telecommunications Satellite
C) Inter Telecommunications Satellite
D) None of the above
Ans.: International Telecommunications Satellite

A) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
B) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
C) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an sphere
Ans.: The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
Q3. Apogeemeans?
A) The point farthest from earth
B) The point nearest from earth
C) The point smallest from earth
Ans.:The point farthest from earth
Q4. Choose correct option for Ascending node?

A) The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
B) The point longest from earth
C) The point closest approach to earth
Ans.:The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
Q5. Perigee means?

Ans.:The point closest approach to earth
Q6. Choose correct option for Argument of perigee?

A) The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at the earth’s center, in
the direction of satellite motion.
Ans.:The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at the earth’s
center, in the direction of satellite motion.
Q7.What is frequency (in GHZ) for ku band?
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 12-18GHZ
Q8. What is frequency (in GHZ) for V band?
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 40-75GHZ
Q9. What is frequency (in GHZ) for S band?
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 2-4GHZ
Q10. What is frequency (in GHZ) for X band?
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 8-12GHZ
Ans.: 8-12GHZ
Q11. What is frequency (in GHZ) for k band?
A) 40-75GHZ
B) 2-4GHZ
C) 12-18GHZ
D) 18-27GHZ
Ans.: 18-27GHZ
Q12.For an elliptical orbit?

A) 0 < e< 1.
B) e= 0
C) e =1
Ans.:0 < e< 1.

Q13. For a circular orbit?
A) 0 < e< 1.
B) e= 0
C) e =1
Ans.:e=0
Q14 Which of the following is a/the orbital parameters?
A) Eccentricity (e)
B) Semi-major axis (a)
C) Time of perigee (tp)
D) All of the above
Ans.:All of the above
Q15 Which of the following is not a orbital parameters?
A) Eccentricity (e)
D) polarity
Ans.:polarity
A) Argument of perigee (w)
B) Inclination (i)
D) All of the above
Q17 Which of the following is not a orbital parameters?
A) Eccentricity (e)
D) sputnik
Ans.:sputnik
A) GPS
B) GSM
C) polarity
Ans.:none of the above
Q19. What is frequency (in GHZ) for L band?
A) 40-75 GHZ
B) 2-4 GHZ
C) 12-18 GHZ
D) 1-2 GHZ
Ans.: 1-2 GHZ
Q20. What is frequency (in GHZ) for UHF band?
A) 40-75 GHZ
B) 2-4 GHZ
C) 0.3-1.0GHZ
D) 8-12 GHZ
Ans.: 0.3-1.0GHZ

A) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
B) ) ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-rP
C) ra = a(1+e), Ha = ra -R
D) None of above
Ans.:ra = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra

A) rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
B) rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-rA
C) rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D) None of above
Ans.:rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
Q23. Which of the following is antenna look angle?
A) Apogee.
B) Perigee
C) Azimuth
D) None of these
Ans.:Azimuth
Q24. Which of the following are antenna look angles?
A) Apogee.
B) Perigee
C) Elevation
D) None of these
Ans.: Elevation
Q25 Effect of Sun-transit outage is?
A) completely blanks out the signals from the satellite

B) Receive signal properly from satellite
C) Bothe A & B
D) None of these
Ans.:completely blanks out the signals from the satellite
Q26 Absorption losses are called?
A) Rain attenuation
B) Ionospheric losses
C) Atmospheric Absorption
D) None of these
Ans.:Atmospheric Absorption
Q27 Ionosphere layer is situated ----- km to --- km above the surface of Earth
A) 90-400 km
B) 400-800 km
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Ans.:90-400km
Q28 What is Scintillation?
A) Variation in amplitude and phase, polarization, angle of arrival of radio

waves
B) Amplification
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Ans.: Variation in amplitude and phase, polarization, angle of arrival of radio

waves
Q29Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on

A) geostationary satellites
B). MEO
C). LEO
D) None of these
Ans.:geostationary satellites
Q30Atmospheric drag has effect on

A). geostationary satellites
B). MEO
C). LEO satellites below about 1000 km.
D) None of these
Ans.:LEO satellites below about 1000 km.
Q31 An oblate spheroid is
A). The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles,
a shape described as an oblate spheroid
B). The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the poles, a
shape described as an oblate spheroid
C). LEO satellites.
D) None of these
Ans.:The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening at the
poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid
Q32 . [EIRP] is
A) [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dBW
B). [EIRP] = [PS]+[G]dB
C). The inclination of the orbit must be zero.
D). none of these
Ans.:[EIRP] = [PS]+[G]Dbw
Q33 [FSL]=?
A) [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log f
B) [FSL] = 20 log r+20 log f
C) [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log (wavelength)
D) none of these
Ans.:[FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log f
Q34 [PR]=?
A) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]-[FSL]
B) [PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]
C) [PR]=[EIRP]+[ FSL]
D) none of these
Ans.:[PR]=[EIRP]+[GR]-[FSL]
Q35 The Link-Power Budget Equation?

A) [PR] =[EIRP] +[GR] -[LOSSES]
B) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
C) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
D) none of these
Ans.:[PR] =[EIRP] +[GR] -[LOSSES]
Q36 The losses for clear-sky conditions are

A) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
B) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
C) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
D) none of these
Ans.:[LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
Q37 A key parameter in link-budget calculations is

A) the equivalent isotropic radiated power
B) FSL
C) AA
D) None of these
Ans.: the equivalent isotropic radiated power
Q38 conditions are required for an orbit to be geostationary:

A) The satellite must travel eastward at the same rotational speed as the earth.
B). The orbit must be circular.
C). The inclination of the orbit must be zero.
D). all of these
Ans.: all of these
Q39 The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on
A) Satellite surface area
B) Bandwidth
C) Free space path losses
D) Effective isotropically radiated power
Ans.:Satellite surface area
Q40 The main advantage of satelliitecomminication is

A) Low cost
B) Low distortion
C) High reliability
D) High band width
Ans.:High reliability
Q41 A communication satellite is a repeater between
A) one transmitting and one receiving station
B) one transmitting and many receiving station
C) many transmitting and one receiving station
D) many transmitting and many receiving station
Ans.:many transmitting and many receiving station
Q42 Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as
A) COMAT
B) DOMSAT
C) INTELSAT
D) EARSAT
Ans.:INTELSAT
Q43 A satellite earth station has
A) Receiving facilities only
B) Transmitting only
C) A and C
D) A , c and attenuating
Ans.:A and C
Q44Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic satellite in …….orbit
A) Polar, inclined orbit
B) Polar, equatorial
C) Equatorial, polar
D) Inclined , polar
Ans.:Equatorial, polar
Q45 Which area is least effectively covered by geostationary satellites?

A) Equatorial region
B) Polar region
C) A and C
Ans.:Polar region
Q46 Geostationary satellites are located at a height of

A) 3600 km from earth’s surface
B) 36000 km from earth’s surface
C) 360,000 km from earth’s surface
D) 3600,000 km from earth’s surface
Ans.:36000 km from earth’s surface
Q47 Geostationary satellite follow

A) Circular path
B) Elliptical path
C) Inclined path
D) none of these
Ans.:Elliptical path
Q48 In the C band and, more especially, the Ku band, rainfall is the most significant cause of:
A) Signal fading.
B) Signal spreading
C) Attenuation
D) none of these.
Ans.:Signal fading
Q49 The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around
the Earth, is determined by _________ law.
A) Kepler's
B) Newton's
C) Ohm's
Ans.:Kepler's
Q50 The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________.
A) path
B) effect
C) footprint
Ans.:footprint
Q51 AMLstandsfor?
A) Amplitude modulation limiter
B) Amplified modulated LAN
C) Antenna mis-alignment loss
D) None of these
Ans.: Antenna mis-alignment loss
Q52RFLstandsfor?
A) Receiver Feeder Loss

B) Receiver frequency loss
C) Receiver for loss
D) None of these
Ans.: Receiver Feeder Loss
Q53AAstandsfor?
A) Amplitude Amplifier
B) Amplifier Amplitude
C) Atmospheric Absorption
D) None of these
Ans.:Atmospheric Absorption
Q54FSLstandsfor?
A) Free State loss

B) Free space loss
C) Free Space Spreading Loss
D) None of these
Ans.:Free Space Spreading Loss
Q55TT &C stands for
A) Telemetry track command

B) Telemetry tracing command
C) Telemetry tracking and command system
D) None of these
Ans.:Telemetry tracking and command system
Q56Which of the following is antenna mount
A) Azimuth mount
B) Elevation mount
C) X-Y mount
D) None of these
Ans.:X-Y mount
Q57Which of the following is not antenna mount
A) Azimuth-Elevation mount
B) Azimuth mount
C) X-Y mount
D) None of these
Ans.:Azimuth mount
Q58In the maximum performance some dominating factors related to the design are
A) Weight of the satellite
B) DC power generated on board
C) Frequency band allocation for satellite communication
D) All of the above
Q59Technically the ration frequency range of satellite communication is determined by
A) All of the below

B) Absorption, scattering and refraction effects in the atmosphere.
C) Galactic noise and thermal noise because of the atmosphere.
D) Appropriate satellite antenna gain.
Ans.:All of the below
Q60DBS services stands as________.

A) Direct broadcast satellite
B) Distance broadcast satellite
C) Distributed broadcast satellite
D) None of these
Ans.:Direct broadcast satellite

Branch: Electronics and telecommunication Engineering

Class: BE
Semester:VIII
1) International ………..union (ITU) C
A) Telephone B)Telex C)Telecommunication D)Telematicx

2) To facilate frequency planning the world is divided in to ……regions C
A)1 B)2 C) 3 D) 4
3) In Fixed satellite services provides link for ……….network. D
A)Mobile B) Internet C)Data D) Telephone

4) Broadcasting satellite services are known as ……… A
A) DTH B) SSB C)DSB D) Cable Network
5) Frequency band used for satellite communication are VHF, L, C & D
……. Bands.
A) UHF B) S C) V D) Ku
6) Polar orbits satellite cover the ………regions D
A) Europe B) America C)Asia D) N&S Poles

7) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an……. D
A) circle B) Parabola C) Hyperbola D) Ellipse

8) For …….time intervals a satellite will sweep out equal areas in its D
orbital plane focused at the barycentre..
A) Unequal B) even C) odd D) Equal
9) The …..of the periodic time of the orbit is proportional to the ……. Of A
the mean distance between the two bodies.
A) square, cube B) cube, square C) square ,square D) cube, cube
1 P.T.O.
10) Apogee means ……. distance from earth… A
A) farthest B) closest C) tangent D) other

11) The line joining the perigee and apogee through the centre of the earth B
is called……..
A) line of nodes B) lines of apsides C) ascending nodes D) descending
nodes
12) The angle between the orbital plane and the earth’s equatorial plane is A
called…….
A) Inclination B) Apogee C)Perigee D) True anomaly
13) The GEO satellites are placed ……kms above the surface of the earth. D
A) 500-1500 B)10000 C) 400 D) 37786

14) In GEO satellite their footprints is covering almost…….of the earth. B
A)1/2 B)1/3 C) 1/4 D) 1/5

15) In MEO satellites the delay increases about ………ms. B
A) 5-10 B) 70-80 C) No Delay D) 120-150

16) Polar orbiting satellites are placed between ……..Km. B
A) 500-600 B) 800-900 C) 5000-6000 D) 35000-36000

17) INTELSAT is ………type satellite. C
A) LEO B) MEO C) GEO D) Polar orbit

18) Meteorological satellites services often used to perform ….services. D
A)Land mobile B) Direct broadcasting C) cable companies D) search

& rescue
19) C band frequency allocation to satellite used for D
A) mobile B) Navigation C) DBS D) Fixed satellite services

20) Atmospheric drag has an effect on ………..of satellite. C
A) weight B) colour C) Velocity D) Size
2
21) The look angles for the earth station antenna are ….and elevation A
angles.
A) Azimuth B) Right C) Tangent D) Normal
22) Polar mount antenna pointing accurately……..satellites. A
A) One B) Two C) Three D) None

23) The East and West limits of …….are visible from any given Earth C
Station.
A) LEO B) MEO C) GEO D) Polar
24) During the eclipses period ………of the satellites become non B
functional.
A) speed B) solar cells C) antennas D) Engine
25) Sun transit outage is ….. of GEO satellite signal. A
A) Distortion B) Amplification C) Gain D) Attenuate

26) Sun outages occur around the time of the ……… D
A) winter B) Summer C) Rainy D) Equinoxes

27) A Transfer orbit between the initial lower orbit and destination orbit C
is known as…………..orbit.
A) polar B) Sun synchronous C) Hohmann-Transfer D) Prograde
28) Satellite in……….. orbit must all occupy a single ring above Equator C
A) LEO B) MEO C)GEO D) Polar
29) Radio propagation is the behaviour of ……..when they are A
transmitted from Earth to satellite or vice versa
A)Radio Waves B)Light C)Air D)Vapour
30) Weather related losses are called……. B
A) Atmospheric absorption B)Atmospheric attenuation C)Distortion
D)Refraction
3 P.T.O.
31) Ionosphere is the layer situated between ……Km above surface of B
the Earth
A) 0 to 90 B) 90 to 400 C) 400 to 600 D)above 600
32) To calculate absorption loss D
[AA]=[AA]90…….θ
A) sin B) cos C) Tan D) Coses
33) A fading phenomenon , which causes the radio waves to focus and D
defocus because of the difference in the atmospheric refraction index is
seen is called …………
A) Refraction B) Absorption C) Diffraction D) Scintillation
34) Electromagnetic waves are absorbed in the atmosphere Two compound A
are responsible one is water and other is ……..
A)Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Hydrogen D) Nitrogen
35) The signals are distributed over a wide area is known as ……. C
A) Refraction B) Absorption C) Dispersion D) Diffraction
36) The rate at which the rainwater would be accumulated in a rain guage in A
the area is called rain rate. ……..is the function of rain rate.
A)rain attenuation B)absorption C)Rain Depolarization
D) Ice Depolarization
37) In ionosphere travelling ionosphere disturbances generated due to A
charged
A) Electronics B) Protons C) Neutrons D) photons
38) When horizontal and vertical dipoles are mounted close to each other at A
right angles they produce a …….. polarized wave.
A) circularly B)Squarely C)Triangularly D) Hexagonally
39) To calculate the effect of depolarization two measures are used one is A
cross polarization discrimination and second is ………
A) polarization isolation B)vertical polarization C) Horizontal
Polarization D) Polarization vector
4
40) A geostationary earth orbiting satellite transmitting ………. Polarized C
wave
A) Horizontal B) Vertical C) Linear D) Non linear
41) …….is used to radiate electromagnetic energy efficiently and in desired A
direction.
A) Antenna B) solar cell C) Satellite D) Others
42) ……….reflector is a good example of reflectors at microwave A
frequencies.
A) Parabolic B) Hyperbolic C) Elliptical D) other
43) ……….is an example of aperture antenna. A
A) Horn B)Parabolic C) Dipole D) Yagi uda

44) ………..is one of the most common antenna consisting a straight C
conductor .
A) Horn B) Parabola C) Dipole D) Yagi-uda
45) A grouping of similar or different antennas from an ………..antenna D
A) Horn B) Parabola C) Dipole D) Array
46) …….. antennas can be use at home to capture signals of world A
radios or local television channel.
A) Loop B) Horn C) Dipole D) Parabola
47) ……… pattern shows that the gain of an antenna varies with A
direction
A) Radiation B) Direction C) Lobe D) Beamwidth
48) ….loss is due to the spreading of signal in space. B
A) Feeder B) Free space transmission C) Antenna misalignment

D) fixed atmosphere
5 P.T.O.
49) ……….loss is due to the connection between the satellite receiver A
antennas improper.
A)Feeder B) Free space Transmission C) Antenna D) Ionosphere
50) The gases present in atmosphere absorb the signals ,this kind of loss is C
known as
A) feeder B) Antenna C) Fixed Atmospheric D) ionosphere
51) EIRP stands for equivalent ……Radiated Power. A
A) isotropic B)Ionospheric C) Internal D) Other

52) A satellite link operating at 14 GHz has receiver feeder loss of 1.5 dB, A
free space loss of 207dB, Atmosphere loss of 0.5dB and Antenna loss
of 0.5 dB. Calculate the total link loss for clear sky condition.
A) 209.5 dB B) 2009.5 dB C) 20.09 dB D) 223.5 dB
53) The ……. Of a satellite circuit is where the earth station is transmitting B
the data to the space craft and the space craft receiving it.
A) downlink B) uplink C) carrier to noise D) noise power
54) A measure of a performance of a satellite link is considered as a ratio A
of……….. power at receiver input.
A) carrier to noise B) noise to carrier C) signal to noise
D) noise to signal
55) ……….antennas are designed to cover the large areas on earth. C
A) parabolic B) Helical C) Horn D) loop

56) ……..are used to increase the gain of antennas. D
A) Dipole B) Director C) Loop D) Parabolic Reflector

57) In Cassegrain antennas the secondary reflector is a……… A
A) Convex B) Ellipsoid C) Hyperboloid D) Paraboloid

58) Pyramidal horn antennas are designed for ……..polarization. C
A) Horizontal B) vertical C) Linear D) non linear
6
59) ……..defines the theoretical concept of an ideal antenna. A
A) Isotropic radiator B) Antenna gain C) Radiation Pattern

D) power flux Density
60) …….calculate the phenomenon of a communication link . A
A) Power flux Density B) Isotropic radiator C) Antenna gain D)

Coordinate system
Mr. Abhay Baliram Nehete
Department of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering
J. T. Mahajan College of Engineering, Faizpur
**********
7 P.T.O.
Subject: Satellite & Mobile Communication
Branch: E & TC
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

A) International Telecommunications Satellite
B) India Telecommunications Satellite
C) Inter Telecommunications Satellite
Ans: A
A) 42.241Km
B) 42.241m
C) 4.241Km
D) 2.241Km
Ans: A
Q3. Apogee?
Ans: A
Q4. Ascending node?

A) The point closest approach to earth
B) The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
C) The point longest from earth
Ans: B

A) 6 GHz
B) 4 GHz
C) 14 GHz
D) 11 GHz
Ans: B
Q6. Mention the different services of satellite systems.

A) Information transmission
B) Signal transmission
C) Broadcasting satellite services
Ans: C
Q.7 Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.
A) Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west Polar Regions
B) Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north & south Polar Regions.
C) Either (a) & (b)
Ans: B

A) rp = a(1+e), Hp =R-rp
B ) rp = a(1+e), Ha =R-ra
C ) rp = a(1+e), Ha = rp-R
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q9. Define Universal time day.

A) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/6+seconds/360)
B) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes+seconds/3600)
C) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/60+seconds/3600)
D) None of above
Ans: C
Q10. What is sideral time?

A) Sideral time is time measured relative to the fixed stars. It will be seen that one complete rotation
sideral time relative to the sun .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the sun.
B) Sideral time is time measured relative to the variable stars. It will be seen that one complete rotation
sideral time relative to the sun .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the sun.
C) Sideral time is time measured relative to the fixed stars. It will be seen that one complete rotation
sideral time relative to the moon .This is because the earth moves in its orbit around the moon.
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q11. Mention the Julian dates.
A) JD = JD010 + Utday
B) JD = JD010 + day number + Utday
C) JD = JD010 + day number
D) None of above
Ans: B
Q12. What is meant by transponder?

A) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the power supply is referred to as the
transponder.
B) In a communication satellite, the equipment which provides the connecting link between the satellite’s
transmit & receive antennas is referred to as the transponder.
C) a & b
D) None of above
Ans: B
Q13. The optimum working frequency for satellite systems lies between
A) 20 MHz and 100 MHz
B) 100 GHz and 200 GHz
C) 20 GHz and 100 GHz
D) 2 GHz and 12 GHz
Ans: D
Q14. Geostationary satellites are located at a height of

A) 3600 km from earth’s surface
B) 3600,000 km from earth’s surface
C) 360,000 km from earth’s surface
D) 36000 km from earth’s surface
Ans: D
Q15. Geostationary satellite are generally put in……..orbit and domestic satellite in …….orbit
A) Polar, inclined orbit
B) Polar, equatorial
C) Equatorial, polar
D) Inclined, polar
Ans: C
Q16. Geostationary satellite follow

A) Circular path
B) Elliptical path
C) Inclined path
D) Cycloidal path
Ans: B
Q.17.A geostationary satellite is one which
A) hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth

B) travels around the Earth in 24 hours
C) remains stationary above the Earth
D) appears stationary to everybody on Earth
Ans: D
Q18. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital
plane, focused at the barycenter.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Ans: C
Q19. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body
of solar systems.
a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
d. none of the above
Ans: A
Q20. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
Ans: D
Q21.What is meant by azimuth angle?

(a) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & the plane passing
through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(b) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane & the plane passing through
the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(c) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & center of earth.
(d) None of above
Ans: A
Q22. What is an polar antenna?

A) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar mount antenna.
B) An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar mount antenna.
C) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar mount antenna.
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q23. What is declination?

A) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the electric
declination used in correcting compass readings.
B) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must be confused with the magnetic
C) The angle of tilt is often referred to as the declination which must not be confused with the magnetic
D) None of above
Ans: C
Q24. Define the terms in Eclipse.

A) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result that earth’ s
shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to reach the satellite solar cells.
B) During equinox periods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with the result that earth’ s
shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight success to reach the satellite solar cells.
C) a & b
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q25. What is meant by spot beam antenna?

A) A beam generated by a communication satellite antenna of sufficient size that the angular spread of
sufficient size that the angular spread of the energy in the beam is very small with the result that a region
that is only a few hundred km in diameter is illuminated on earth.
B) A beam generated by a communication satellite antenna of sufficient size that the angular spread of
sufficient size that the angular spread of the energy in the beam is very slarge with the result that a region
that is only a few hundred mm in diameter is illuminated on earth.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q26.Define diplexer.
A) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer
B) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans: B
Q27. What is an TWTA?

A) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to the trans
B) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to the trans tube
& its power supplies.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q28. Define input backoff.

A) In order to reduce the inter-modulation distortion, the operating point of the TWT must be shifted
closer to the linear portion of the curve, the reduction in output power being referred to as i/p back-off.
B) In order to reduce the intermodulation distortion, the operating point of the TWT must be shifted
closer to the linear portion of the curve, the reduction in input power being referred to as i/p backoff.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans: B
Q29. What is an EIRP?

A) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the antenna
gain & the power fed to the antenna input.
B) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the antenna
gain & the power fed from the antenna output.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q30. Write the equations of losses for clear sky conditions.

A) Losses=(FSL+(AML)+(AA)+(PL)
B) Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)
C) Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)+(AML)+(AA)+(PL)
D) None of above
Ans: C
Q31.What is an noise power spectral density?

A) N0 = BN/PN =KTNB0 joules
B) N0 = BN/PN
C) N0 = PN/BN=KTN joules
D) None of above
Ans: C
Q32. What are the types of antenna losses?
A) sky noise
B) Antenna losses
C) sky noise , Antenna losses
D) all of these
Ans: D
Q33. Define saturation flux density.

A) The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is termed the
saturation flux density.
B) The flux density required at the transmitting antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is termed the
saturation flux density.
C) a&b
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q34.The range between a ground station & a satellite is 42000km. Calculate the free space loss a
frequency of 6GHZ.
A) 20.4db.
B) 200.4db.
C) 2.4db.
D) None of above
Ans: B
Q35. Write the equations of C/N ratio.

A)C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dB.
B) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
C) C/N0=(EIRP)+(G/T)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
D) None of these
Ans: C
Q36. Primary component of uplink section of satellite is

A) transformer
B) transistor
C) earth station transmitter
D) power station transmitter
Ans: C
Q37. An antenna can be made more directional by
A) Increseing its diameter
B) Increaseing frequency of transmission
C) Either of (a) or (b) above

Ans: C
Q38. The frequency band used by most satellites is
A) UHF
B) VHF
C) EHF
D) SHF
Ans: D
Q39. The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of
A) Sky noise
B) Antenna and feeder noise
C) Parametric amplifier noise
D) All of the above

Ans: D

A) 24 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 1 hours
Ans: A
Q41. Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
A) Dipole antenna
B) Horn antenna
C) Yagi antenna
D) Chicken-mash antenna
Ans: B
A) Effective isotropically radiated power
B) Bandwidth
D) Satellite surface area
Ans: D
Q43.A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station.

A) Uplink
B) Downlink
C) Terrestrial
D) Earthbound
Ans: B
Q44. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
known as ……….
A) Electric flux density
B) Magnetic flux density
C) Saturation flux density
D) Photon flux density
Ans: C
Q45. In communication satellites, the up-link normally operates at a higher frequency than the down-
link because it
A) gives a narrow beam shining into space
B) results in lesser signal attenuation
C) gives better beam-shaping
D) is easier to polarize a high frequency beam
Ans: A
Q46. Satellite position has an/a ___________ angle with respect to the horizon.
A) Azimuth
B) Depression
C) Elevation
D) Critical
Ans: C
Q47.The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon

A) Effective Isotropic Radiated power
B) Bandwidth.
D) All of them
Ans: D
Q48.What is a polar antenna?

A) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar mount antenna.
B) A double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar mount antenna.
C) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar mount antenna.
D) None of above
Ans: A
Q49.Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of ________
A) Ex
B) Ey
C) Both Ex & Ey & in phase
D) Both Ex & Ey & out of phase
Ans: D
Q50.Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area
A) Reflected
B) Refracted
C) Radiated
D) Diffracted
Ans: C
Q51. The HPAs in most satellites are

A) TWTs
B) Vacuum tubes
C) Klystrons
D) Magnetrons
Ans: A
Q52. The azimuth angles and the angle of elevation is collectively known as
A) Antennas look angles
B) Antennas see angles
C) Antennas keep angles
D) Antennas satellite angles
Ans: A
Q53. The minimum acceptable angle of elevation
A) 6 degrees
B) 4 degrees
C) 5 degrees
D) 7 degrees
Ans: C
Q54. It is the horizontal angular distance from a reference direction either the southern or northern
most point of the horizon.
A) Angle of elevation
B) Latitude
C) Longitude
D) Azimuth
Ans: D
Q55. Determines the farthest satellite away that can be seen looking east or west of the earth station’s
longitude
A) Radio horizon
B) Optical horizon
C) Terrestrial limits
D) Limits of visibility
Ans: D
B) Bandwidth

Ans: A
Q57. In the C band and, more especially, the Ku band, rainfall is the most significant cause of:
A) Attenuation
B) Signal spreading
C) Signal fading
D) none of these.
Ans: C
Q58.A satellite may carry ______ transponders.

A) 32
B) 41
C) 24
D) None of these
Ans: A
Q59. When the satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the equator, usually in circular pattern. This
type of orbit is called ____.
A) Polar orbit
B) Synchronous orbit
C) Geosynchronous satellite
D) Equatorial orbit
Ans: D
Q 60. A communication satellite is a repeater between

A) one transmitting and one receiving station
B) one transmitting and many receiving station
C) many transmitting and one receiving station
D) many transmitting and many receiving station
Ans: D
Subject: Telematics
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q.1) SPC stands for (b)
a) Standard program control

b) Stored program control
c) Switching program control
d) Stable program control
Q.2) Telegraph was invented by (c)
a) Edward Jenner
b) Alexander Graham Beli
c) Samuel Morse
d) Marcony
Q.3) A local telephone network is an example of a …………….network. (b)
a) Packet-switched
b) Circuit-switched
c) Message-switched
Q.4) Grade of Service (GOS) is measured from ……… point of view. (d)
a) Switched b) Standard
c) Selected d) Subscriber
Q.5) Two types of space division electronic switching system using SPC are : (c)
a) Mechanical and electronics

b) Mechanical and chemical
c) Electromechanical and electronics
d) Electronics and chemical
Q.6) Communication betweena computer and a keyboard involves ……… (a)
transmission.
a) Simplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Automatic
Q.7) In Electronics Switching Centre (ESC) , the transmission rate of X.25 protocol is …….9.6
Kbps. (c)
a)Less than b) Equal to
c) Greater than d) None of the above
Q.8) BHCA is stands for (b)
a) Busy Hour Central Attempt

b) Busy Hour Call Attempt
c) Busy Hard Central Attempt
d) Busy Holding Call Attempt
Q.9)The enhanced service offered by SPC are classified into ……. Categories. (a)
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 5
Q.10)Which topology requires a central controller or hub? (b)
a) Mesh b) Star
c) Bus d) Ring
Q.11) Distributed SPC has separate small processors called ….? (a)
a)Regional b) Carrier
c) Functional d) Directed
Q.12)The electronics switching is based on the ………. Stored in the memory, hence it is
known as stored program control. (a)
a) Program b) Device
c) Speed d) Measurement
Q.13) ………….is referred as call congestion. (c)
a) Blocking probability
b) Centralized SPC
c) GOS
d) Traffic Usages
Q.14) Blocking probability is always …… value. (a)
a) Non-zero b) Standard
c) Zero d) None of the above
Q.15) The ratio of number of successful calls to the number of call attempts is known……(c)
a) Call Block Rate (CBR)

b) Busy Hour Call Rate (BHCR)
c) Call Completion Rate (CCR)
Q.16)A circuit-switched Network is made of a set of switches connected by physical (a)
a) Links b) Media
c) Nodes d) Lines
Q.17) What is the hardware ,used to established connection as an electrical path between
inlet and outlet pair in switching system, known as ? (c)
a) Switching Matrix
b) Switching Network
c) Both a and b
Q.18) In folded type of network,…………… (b)
a) Input lines are folded back to output lines

b) Output lines are folded back to input lines
c) Input lines are folded back to themselves
d) Output lines are folded back to themselves
Q.19) Which type of connection takes place between an incoming trunk and an outgoing
trunk? (d )
a) Local call
b) Outgoing call
c) Incoming call d)Transit call
Q.20) An exchange servers 2000 subscribers. The average BHCA is 1000 and CCR is 60%.
Calculate BHCR? (b)
a) 5 b) 7
c) 6 d) 3
Q.21)What is the full form of WLAN? (b)
a) Wide Local Area Network

b) Wireless Local Area Network
c) Wireless Local Access Network
d) Wireless Local Area Node
Q.22)What is the nominal range of Bluetooth? (b)
a) 1 km b) 10 m
c) 1 m d)10 km
Q.23) Which of the following is the drawback for cordless telephones? (b)
a) Wireless technology b)Limited coverage area

c) Mobile d) security
Q.24) In which frequency range do the cordless phones mostly work? (a)
a) 43-50 MHz
b) 88-108 MHz
c) 540-1600 KHz
d) 200-540 KHz
Q.25) Paging system uses which mode of transmission? (b)
a) Full duplex
b) Simplex
c) Half duplex
d) Duplex
Q.26) What is the paging access number? (c)
a) An email id
b) A username
c) A toll free telephone number
d) A registration number
Q.27)Which of the following is an example of local wireless system? (b)
a) GSM
b) Cordless telephone system
c) UMTS
d) EDGE
Q.28) What is the responsibility of MSC in cellular telephone system ? (b)
a) Connection of mobile to base stations

b) Connection of mobile to PSTN
c) Connection of base station to PSTN
d) Connection of base station to MSC
Q.29) Which of the following is not a standard of WLAN? (d)
a) HIPER-LAN
b) HIPERLAN/2
c) IEEE 802.11b
d) AMPS
Q.30) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is …..(c)
a) MSC
b) Roamer
c) Handoff
d) Forward channel
Q.31)Which one is not a TDMA standard of second generation networks? (c)
a) GSM
b) IS-136
c) AMPS
d) PDC
Q.32)Which of the following is not a characteristic of cellular telephone system? (C)
a) Accommodate a large number of users

b) Large geographic area
c) Large frequency spectrum
d) Limited frequency spectrum
Q.33) What is the shape of the cell present in the cellular system? (d)
a) Circular b) Square
c) Triangular d) Hexagonal
Q.34) A wireless local loop (WLL) system uses …… technology. (a)
a) Radio b) Personal
c) Artificial d) Cellular
Q.35) LMDS stands for : (d)
a) Local Management Distribution Service

b) Land Management Distribution Service
c) Local Multipoint Directed Service
d) Local Multipoint Distribution Service
Q.36) Which of the following standard committee specifies Bluetooth and other Personal
Area Networks (PAN)? (b)
a) IEEE 802.11b
b) IEEE 802.15
c) IEEE 802.11g
d) IEEE 802.16
Q.37) Which type of handoff used in CDMA? (a)
a) Soft handoff
b) Hard handoff
c) Soft & hard hand off
Q.38) The type of access used in GSM technology is (a)
a) FDMA/TDMA b) CDMA
c) OFDMA d) None of the above
Q.39) The uplink frequency of P-GSM system is (c)
a) 1850-1910 MHz
b) 1710-1785 MHz
c) 890-915 Mhz
Q.40) The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ………. Types of frames. (d)
a) four b) five
c) six d) none of the above
Q.41) In frequency reuse ,some interference may occur due to common use of same channel is
called…..(b)
a) Channel interference
b) Cochannel interference
c) Call termination
d) Fixed network
Q.42) The process of subdividing a original cell into smaller cell ,is called….(c)
a) Cordless telephone syetem

b) Cell duration
c) Cell splitting
d) Fixed cell
Q.43) There are two kinds of cell splitting : (a)
a) Permanent and Dynamic

b) Virtual and non-virtual
c) Primary and secondary
d) Linear and non-linear
Q.44) The system divide radio spectrum into time slots , is called……. (a)
a) TDMA b) FDMA
c) CDMA d) LMDS
Q.45) Which of the following measures spectrum efficiency of a wireless system? (b)
a) Channel capacity
b) Radio capacity
c) Spectral capacity
d) Carrier capacity
Q.46) The SI unit for bandwidth is? (a)
a) Hz b) Watt
c) KHz d) KW
Q.47) Bandwidth is the difference of ………… frequencies. (a)
a) Half power
b) Full power
c) Double power
d) wattless
Q.48) The modulation technique used for mobile communication systems during world war
II was (b)
a) Amplitude modulation
b) Frequency modulation
c) ASK
d) FSK
Q.49) World’s first cellular system was developed by (a)
a) Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)

b) Bellcore and Motorola
c) AT&T Bell Laboratories
d) Qualcomm
Q.50) 2G standards support (c)
a) Limited internet browsing

b) Short messaging service
c) Both a & b
Q.51) Commonly used mode for 3G network is (d)
a) TDMA
b) FDMA
c) TDD
d) FDD
Q.52) ……… introduced frequency modulation for mobile communication systems in
1935.(a)
a) Edwin Armstrong
b) Albert Einstein
c) Galileo Galilei
d) David Bohm
Q.53) DECT stands for(c)
a) Digital European Cellular Telex

b) Digitized Emergency Cellular Telephone
c) Digital European Cordless Telephone
d) Digital European Cellular Telephone
Q.54) The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is(a)
a) 5 MHz
b) 2 MHz
c) 500 KHz
d) 100 KHz
Q.55) Centre excited hexagonal cells use(b)
a) Sectored directional antennas

b) Omni directional antennas
c) Yagi uda antennas
Q.56) What is the condition for handoff? (a)
a) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation

b) A mobile remains in the same cells while in conversation
c) A mobile moves to different cell when idle
d) A mobile remains in the same cell and is idle
Q.57) The time over which a call can be maintained within a cell without handoff is
called…….. (c)
a) Run time
b) Peak time
c) Dwell time
d) Cell time
Q.58) Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns ……..channels to …….users.(a)
a) Individual ,individual
b) Many , individual
c) Individual ,many
d) Many ,many
Q.59) What is the time duration of a bit if data is transmitted at 270.833 kbps in the
channel? (c)
a) 270.833 s
b) 3 us
c) 3.692 us
d) 3.692 s
Q.60) All users in CDMA systems uses …………….. carrier frequency. (d0
a) Different
b) Two
c) Ten
d) d)Same
Subject: Satellite & Mobile Communication
Branch: Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q. 1. INTELSAT stands?
A)International Telecommunications Satellite

B)India Telecommunications Satellite
C)Inter Telecommunications Satellite
Ans.: A
Q. 2. Kepler’s first law states -----
A)The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.

B) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
C) The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an spher
Ans.: A
Q.3 Apogee is ------

Ans.: A
Q. 4. Perigee is -----
A)The point farthest from earth
Ans.: C
Q.5 True anomaly is----

A) The true anomaly is the angle from perigee to the satellite position, measured
Ans.: A
Q.6 The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon-----
A) Effective Isotropic Radiated power
B) Bandwidth.
D) All of them
Ans.: D
Q.7 What is application of satellite systems?
A)whether forecasting
B) Terrestrial communication
C) point to point communication
Ans.: A
Q.8 Define Universal time day.
A) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/60+seconds/3600)
B) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes+seconds/3600)
C) UT day =1/24(hours+minutes/6+seconds/360)
Ans.: A
Q.9 Define diplexer.
A)The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer.
B) The transmit & receives signals are separated in a device known as diplexer
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Ans.: A
Q.10 Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
A) More bandwidth
B) More spectrum space
C) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
D) Economically viable
Ans.: C
Q.11 Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
A) MF
B) Ku
C) X
D) C
Ans.: A
Q.12 Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
A) Spatial isolation
B) Frequency reuse
C) Multiplexing
D) Modulation
Ans.: B
Q.13 What kind of battery used by older satellites ?

A) Lithium
B) Leclanche
C) Hydrogen
D) Magnesium
Answer : C
Q.14 A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
A) Uplink
B) Downlink
C) Terrestrial
D) Earthbound
Answer : B
Q.15 A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..

A) Circular polarization
B) Maneuverability
C) Beamwidth
D) Gain
Answer : A
Q.16 VSAT was made available in ……..

A) 1979
B) 1981
C) 1983
D) 1977
Answer : A
Q.17 A geosynchronous satellite -----
A) has the same period a that of the Earth
B) has a circular orbit
C) rotates in the equatorial plane
D) has all of the above
Answer : D
Q. 18 Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of …………….

A) space multiplexing
B) time multiplexing
C) frequency multiplexing
Answer : C
Q. 19 The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ………. ratio.

A) C/N
B) S/N
C) G/T
D) EIRP
Answer :A
Q.20 Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the----

A) moon
B) sun
C) earth
D) all of the above
Answer : D
Q.21 A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:
A) backdown
B) backoff
C) power-down
D) EIRP drop
Answer: B
Q.22 VSAT stands for:
A) video satellite
B) video signal antenna terminal
C) very small antenna terminal
D) very small aperture terminal
Answer: D
Q.23 LEO stands for:
A) long elliptic orbit
B) low-earth orbit
C) lateral earth orbit
D) longitudinal earth orbit
Answer: B
Q.24How does troposphere affect the satellite signals?

A) Reduces velocity
B) Reflects the signals
C) Refracts the signal
D) Bit inversion occurs
Answer: A
Q.25 Which of the following makes the existence of ionosphere possible?
A) Rotation of the Earth

B) Ultraviolet radiation from sun
C) Solar flares
D) Radiation from distant stars
Answer: B
Q.26 What happens to the satellite signals as the density of the ionosphere is high?
A) Velocity increases
B) Velocity decreases
C) Signal strength increases
D) Frequency reduces
Answer: A
Q.27 ---------- detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A) Horn antenna
B) LNA
C) Satellite receiver
D) Satellite dish
Answer: B
Q.28 The down link frequency in the C band transponder is -----

A) 6 GHz
B) 4 GHz
C) 14 GHz
D) 11 GHz
Answer: B
Q.29 The uplink frequency for sat com is -----
A) 6 GHz
B) 4 GHz
C) 14 GHz
D) 11 GHz
Answer: A
Q.30 . What is an EIRP?
A) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from

the antenna gain & the power fed to the antenna input.
B) It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from
the antenna gain & the power fed from the antenna output.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Answer: A
Q.31 What are the types of antenna losses?

A) sky noise
B) Antenna losses
C) sky noise , Antenna losses
D) all of these
Answer: D
Q.32 . Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on -----

B). MEO
C). LEO
D) None of these
Answer: A
Q.33 . Write the equations of C/N ratio.
A). C/N0=(EIRP)+(G/T)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.

B). C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dBHz.
C) C/N0=(EIRP)-LOSSES-(K) dB.
D) None of these
Answer: A
Q.34. The signal to noise ratio for a satellite signal least depends on-----
B) Bandwidth
Answer: A
Q.35A satellite may carry -------- transponders.
A) 41
B) 32
C) 24
D) None of these
Answer: B
Q.36The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is------
A) 100 miles
B) 6800 miles
C) 22,300 miles
D) 35,860 miles
Answer: C
Q.37 The main function of a communications satellite is as-------
A) Repeater
B) Reflector
C) Beacon
D) Observation platform
Answer: A
Q.38 Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
A) 30 to 300 MHz
B) 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C) 3 to 30 GHz
D) Above 300 GHz
Answer: C
Q.39 The main power sources for a satellite are-----
A) Batteries
B) Solar cells
C) Fuel cells
D) Thermoelectric generators
Answer: B
Q.40 The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the------
A) Perigee
B) Apex
C) Zenith
D) Apogee
Answer: D
Q.41 How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?
A) Frequency reuse
B) Multiplexing
C) Mixing
D) They can’t
Answer: A
Q.42 What is a cell in cellular system?
A) A group of cells
B) A group of subscribers
C) A small geographical area
D) A large group of mobile systems
Answer: A
Q.43 What is frequency reuse?
A) Process of selecting and allocating channels

B) Process of selection of mobile users
C) Process of selecting frequency of mobile equipment
D) Process of selection of number of cells
Answer: A
Q.44. Which is not the leap year?
A) 1987
B)1988
C)2000
D) None of these
Answer: A
Q.45 A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of-------
A) Circular polarization
B) Maneuverability
C) Beamwidth
D) Gain
Answer: A
Q.46 Satellite engine uses--------
A) Jet propulsion
B) Ion propulsion system
C) Liquid fue
D)None of these
Answer: B
Q.47 A satellite cross-link means------
A) Earth-to-satellite link
B) Satellite-to-earth link
C) Satellite-to-satellite link
D None of these
Answer: C
Q. 48---------- is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular
pattern.
A) Geosynchronous satellite
B) Nonsynchronous satellite
C) Prograde satellite
D Retrograde satellite
Answer: B
Q.49 ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be
an ellipse
A)Newton’s 1st law

B) kepler’s first law
C) kepler’s second law
D) kepler’s third law
Answer : B
Q.50 India’s Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) to be ready in 1991 is designed to launch
1000 kg spacecraft into --------- orbit.
A) geostationary
B) equatorial
C) polar
D) sun-synchronous polar
Answer : D
Q. 51 Low-orbit satellites are not used for communications because they-------

A) produce sonic booms
B) do not provide 24 hour/ day contact to the users on Earth
C) heat up and melt
D) none
Answer : C
Q.52 What is an polar antenna?
A) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
B) An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
C) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
D) None of above
Answer : A
Q.53 Transmission bandwidth for satellite system least depends on-------
A) Modulation method
B) Overall costs
C) Available technology
D) Ionospheric characteristics
Answer : D
Q.54 Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on --------

B). MEO
C). LEO
D) None of these
Answer : A
Q. 55 ---------occurs where multiple carriers pass through any device with nonlinear
characteristics .
A) Modulation
B)Demodulation
C) Intermodulation
D None of these
Answer : C
Q.56 What is an polar antenna?
A) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
B)An double actuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
C) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a elliptical arc ie known as polar
mount antenna.
D) None of above
Answer : A
Q. 57 What is an TWTA?
A) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final output power required to
the trans tube & its power supplies.
B) The TWTAS are widely used in transponder to provide the final input power required to
the trans tube & its power supplies.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Answer : A
Q. 58 What is SCPC?
A) In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36MHz) may be occupied by a no. of single
carriers, each associated with its own voice circuit.
B) In a thin route circuit, a transponder channel (36mhz) may be occupied by a no. of double
carriers, each associated with its own voice circuit.
C) Either a or b.
D) None of above
Answer : A
Q. 59 With reference to satellite communication, the anti-jamming technique preferred is-----
A) key leverage
B) Frequency hopping
C) Once-only key
D) Frequency-spectrum modulation
Answer : B
Q. 60 The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of-------
A) Sky noise
B) Antenna and feeder noise
C) Parametric amplifier noise
D) All of the above
Answer : D
Model Question paper
Subject: -Telecommunication Network Management
Branch:- E&TC Engineering
Class: -BE
Semester:-VIII
Q1.Accounting management could include the use of---------------
A) Individual host
B) Administrative segments
C) External traffic
D) All of the above.
Ans.: D
Q 2)OSI model is ______________
A)Most Complex
B)Object oriented
C)Deals with all seven layers

D)All of the above.
Ans.:D
Q 3 )The Performance management is closely related to-----------
A)Risk Management
B)Fault Management
C)Security Management
D)Configuration Management
Ans.:B
Q 4)The structure or format of data is called ___________
A) Syntax
B) Semantics
C) Struct
D) Formatting
Ans.:A
Q 5) OSIstands for __________

A) open system interconnection
B) operating system interface
C) optical service implementation
D) open service Internet
Ans.:A
Q6)Number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________

A) 5
B) 7
C) 6
D) 10
Ans.:B
Q7)A network management system can be divided into ___________

A) three categories
B) five broad categories
C) eight broad categories
D) ten broad categories
Ans.:B
Q 8)In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection
to the _________
A) IP Server
B) Domain
C) Network
D) Data
Ans.:C
Q 9)MIB stands for

A)Management Information Board
B)Management information bytes
C)Management Information bit
D)Management Information base
Ans.:D
Q 10)To create collection of named object their type their relationship to each other in an
entity to be managed, we use---------
A) SMI
B) MIB
C) SNMP
D)CMISE
Ans.:B
Q11) Following are the network management models

A)OSI
B)TMN
C)Internet
D) All of these
Ans.:D
Q12)To define packets to be sent from manager to agent and vice versa the term is used
name ---------
A)SNMP
B)SMTP
C)HTTP
D)URL
Ans.:A
Q13)Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of

_________
A) Documents
B) Components
C) Servers
D) Entities
Ans.:D
Q14)MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by __________

A) SMTP
B) UDP
C) SNMP
D) TCP/IP
Ans.:C
Q15) Configuration Management can be divide into two sub system Reorganization and ------
A) Documentation
B) Accounting
C) Performance
D) Security
Ans A
Q16)SNMP standard can be ______________

A) Easy to implement
B) Difficult to implement
C) Cannot be implement
D) Widely used standard
Ans.:A
Q17)In ASN.1{ } is used for

A) Start and End of tag
B)Start and End of List
C) Start and End of Subtype
D)None of the above
Ans.:B
Q18)In BER encoding TLV means _______

A) Type,length value
B) Time,length value
C) Title,length value
D) None of these
Ans.:A
Q19)In TMN, Functional architecture consist of _____ number of functions.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Ans.:D
Q20)In TLV encoding structure 01 is used for __

A) Universal Class
B)Application Class
C) Private
D)Context Specific
Ans.:B
Q21)In codebook correlation model_____ capture alarm events
A)correlator
B)tracker
C)monitors
D)configuration
Ans.:C
Q22)In Communication model agent send ___________.

A) Request
B) Responses
C) Traps
D) B& C
Ans.:D
Q24) SMI &MIB are related to
A) Organisation Model
B) Information Model
C) Communication Model
Ans.:B
Q25)Ping Command stands for ----------------

A) Packet Internet Gap
B)Packet Internal Gap
C)Packet Internet Grip
D)None of the above
Ans.:D
Q26)Term CMIP stands for-------------------

A) Common Management Internet Protocol
B)Common Management Internal Protocol
C) Common Management Interface Protocol
Ans.:D
Q27)M-GET Service of CMIS is _______ Service.

A)Confirmed
B)Unconfirmed
C)May be Confirmed or unconfirmed
D)None of these
Ans.:A
Q28) CMISE is _____________.
A)Common Management Internet Service Element
B)Common Management Information Service Element
C)Common Management Internal Service Element
D)None of these
Ans.:B
Q29)In security management, masquerade means change of ------------

A) Originating Address
B)Destination Address
C)Source& Destination Address
D)None of these
Ans.:A
Q30) Finite state machine model is ________ system.

A)Active
B)Passive
C)Web agent
D)None of these
Ans.:B
Q31) TMN architecture is-------

A) Addresses Network
B) Service
C) Business management
D) all of the above
Ans.:D
Q32) NM components are-------

A) Manager
B)Agent
C)Managed object
D) All of the above
Ans.:D
Q33) Two Tier organization model consists of------

A) UMO
B) MO
C) Manager
D) All of the above
Ans.:D
Q34)In Three Tier organization model consists of------
A) MIB
B) MIS
C) MIP
Ans.:D
Q35) Organization Model of MoM consists of--------
A) UMO
B) MO
C) MDB
D) B&C
Ans.:D
Q36) MIB is ---------
A) Actual Database
B)Wrong Database
C) Non virtual database
Ans.:D
Q37) Information base consists of --------
A) Information about objects

B) Agent information
C) Manager information
D) User information
Ans.:A
Q38)ASN.1 consists of ------- syntax

A)1
B)3
C)2
D)4
Ans : C
Q39)ASN.1 is group of --------
A)Number
B)Assignments
C)Alphabets
D)Character
Ans : B
Q 40)In ASN.1 keywords are ----- convention

A) All texts
B) All Nos.
C) All Uppercase Letters
D) Initial Lowercase Letters
Ans: C
Q41)MIB modules are occasionally updated to

A) Add new functionality
B)Remove ambiguities
C)To fix defects
D)All of the above
Ans: D
Q 42)The _______ data types are atomic data types.
A)Structured
B)Simple
C)Both
D)Non structured
Ans : B
Q43)_______ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode object and values.
A)MIB
B)BER
C)SMI
D)SNMP
Ans: C
Q 44)Which layer provides the services to user?

A)Application layer
B)Session layer
C)Presentation layer
D)Physical layer
Ans.:A
Q 45)CMIP models management information in terms of managed objects and allows
A)Both modification and performing actions on managed objects
B)Only modification action on managed objects
C)Only performing action on managed objects
D)None of the above
Ans.:A
Q 46)Application layer is implemented in ____________

A) End system
B)NIC
C)Ethernet
D)Packet transport
Ans.:A
Q 47)Standards adopted for emerging technologies are_____________

A)Web-based enterprise management
B)Java based management
C)Both of above.
D)None of these.
Ans.:C
Q48)Rule-based reasoning is also known as_______
A)Rule based expert system

B)Blackboard system
C) Both a & b
D) None of these
Ans :C
Q49) Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

A)network layer
B)physical layer
C) Data link layer
D) transport layer
Ans :B
Q50)The MIB is used by________

A) Client
B) Management
C) Client and management
Ans :B
Q 51) CMIS stands for ----------
A) Central Management Information Service
B) Client Management Information Service
C) Cumulative Management Information Service
Ans : D
Q52) CMISE isthe Exchange of information service element between------

A) Two Manager & Agent
B) One Manager & two Agent
C) Two Agent & One Manager
D) Two Manager & Four Agent
Ans: A
Q 53) Discovery in a Network is --------------

A) Node Discovery
B) Network Discovery
C) Network Topology Discovery
D) All of The above
Ans : D
Q 54) Inventory Management is used in ------

A) Configuration Management
B) Performance Management
C) Fault Management
D) Accounting Management
Ans :A
Q 55) Fault Management is-------

A) Failure of Network Components
B) Loss of Connectivity
C) Fault Location & Resolution
D) All of the Above
Ans: D
Q56) In Performance Management Following tools are used--------

A) Protocol Analyzer
B) RMON
C) MTRG
D) All of the above
Ans :D
Q 57)No. of Event Correlation Techniques are---------------
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Ans : D
Q58) Working Memory containing ------------

A) Topological information
B) State Information
C) Both A & B
Ans :C
Q 59)ASN .1 is formal language developed by_____________

A) CCITT
B) CCITT and OSI
C) OSI
D)IEEE
Ans :B
Q60) The major parameters which have impact on network is___________
A)Power utilized by system

B)Transmission range
C)Bandwidth
D)All of above
Ans C
SUBJECT: Telecommunication Network Management
BRANCH :E&TC
CLASS:BE
SEMESTER:VIII
1)A MIB object has access defined as read-only in its MIB definition. What, among the
following, is the right SNMP access level that should be specified in the SNMP community,
so that the manager can write into the object?
1.Read-write
2.Write only
3.Manager cannot write
4.Read-only
ANS 2
2)SMI stands for

1.Syntax of management information
2.Structure of management information
3.Syntax of managed information
4.Structure of managed information
Ans 2
3) )Which SNMP message can be used for doing a MIB walk?
1.SNMP traps
2.SNMP get next
3.SNMP get
4.SNMP get-bulk
Ans 1
4) Defines the terms agent & manager
1.CMIP
2.Communication model
3.Organization The model that model
4.SNMP
Ans 2
5) Which MIB represents interface related statistics information?
1.UDP MIB
2.Interfaces MIB
3.IP MIB
4.TCP MIB
Ans 1
6)The OSI NM Model that deals with user oriented requirements of network management is
the _________ model
1.Functional
2.Organization
3.Communication
4.Information
Ans 1
7)The model that specifies the relationship between network element, agent, and manager is
a) Information Model b) Organization Model c) Communication Model d) Centralized Model
ANS b
8)For SNMP, defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode objects and values.
a) MIB b) BER c) SMI d) none of the above
Ans C
9) The layer of the OSI model can use the trailer of the frame for error detection.
a) physical b) data link c) transport d) presentation
Ans b
10) Traffic monitoring tools include
a) host and dig tools b) netstat and arp. c) traceroute d) None of the above
Ans d
11) The OBJECT-TYPE macro is used to define
a) manager b) managed object c) service d) None of the above
Ans b
12) In Telecommunication management Network (TMN) system, the role of the manager is
to issue commands and requests to the agent. These commands and requests are known as
a) notifications b) feedbacks c) operations d) Acknowledgements
Ans C
13) In TMN terminology, the switching systems, circuits, terminals, etc., which comprise a
telecommunications network, are known as
a) Operations support systems (OSS) b) Network Elements (NEs) c) Mediation devices

(MDs) d) Q Adapter (QA)
Ans b
14) UPnP stands for
a) Uniform Plug and Play b) Universal Plug and Play c) Unidirectional Plug and Play d)
Unintended Plug and Play
Ans b
15) SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted over the
network.
A) MIB
B) ANS.1
C) BER
Ans C
16) . We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks need variable declarations. In network management this is handled by _________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
Ans B
17) We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both
tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by ___________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
Ans C
18) Which is a manager duty?
A) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent.
B) Store the value of an object defined in an agent.
C) a and b
Ans C
19) To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier
based on a _______ structure.
A) linear
B) tree
C) graph
Ans C
20) INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and Object Identifier are _______ definitions used by
SMI.
A) MIB
B) SNMP
C) ASN.1
Ans C
21) SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and _________.
A) name; data type; size
B) name; size; encoding method
C) name; data type; encoding method
Ans C
22) SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________.
A) sequence; atomic
B) sequence; sequence of
C) a sequence of; array
Ans B
23) To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds some new
definitions.
A) AMS.1
B) ASN.1
C) ASN.2
ANS B
24) ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and
showing how to encode objects and values.
A) MIB
B) BER
C) SMI
Ans C
25) The Performance management is closely related to
a)Risk Management b)Fault Management c)Security Management d)Configuration

Management
ANS b
26) Configuration Management can be devide into two sub system Recognization and
a)Documentation b) Accounting c) Performance d)Security
Ans a
27) Based on predefine policy of network management, controlling access to the network is
the task of
a)Performance Management b)Fault Management c)Security Management d)Configuration

Management
Ans C
28) The control of users, access to network resourses through charges are the main
responsibilities of
a)Configuration Management b)Risk Management c)Security Management d)Accounting

Management
Ans d
29) The structure or format of data is called ___________

a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
Ans A
30) The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________

a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
ANS b
31) OSI stands for __________

a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) open service Internet
Ans a
32) Following are the network management models
a)OSI b)TMN c)Internet d) All of these
Ans d
33) To create collection of named object their type their relationship to each other in an entity
to be managed, we use
a) SMI b) MIB c) SNMP d)CMISE
Ans d
34) To define packets to be sent from manager to agent and vice versa the term is used name
a)SNMP b)SMTP c)HTTP D)URL
Ans a
35) MIB stands for
a)Management Information Board b)Management information bytes c)Management

Information bit d)Managemt Information base
Ans d
36) Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of
_________
a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities
Ans b
37) In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection
to the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
Ans C
38) MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by __________

a) SMTP
b) UDP
c) SNMP
d) TCP/IP
Ans C
39) A network management system can be divided into ___________

a) three categories
b) five broad categories
c) eight broad categories
d) ten broad categories
Ans b
40)from following which is not the network management model
a)Informatinal Model
b)Organizational Model
c)Fundamental Model
d)Communication Model
Ans C
41) This is not tree in Network Management

a) Inheritance Tree
b) Containment Tree
c) Registration Tree
d)None of these
Ans D
42)ASN.1 is the
1) Only syntax
2)Language
3)Data base
4)None of these
Ans 2
43) What is the full form of BER , used in management modules
a)Basic Encoding Rules
b)Basic error rules
c)Basic encription rules
d)None of these
Ans a
44) What is the full form of PDU
a)Predefine data Unit
b) protocol data unit
C)Predicted data Unit
D) None of these
Ans b
45) The fundamental function of the-------------is the exchange of management information

between two manager & agent entities
a) SMI b) MIB c) SNMP d)CMISE
And d
46)_____________ selects objects to be operated upon within the managed object
containment tree
A) Scoping
B)Filtering
c)MIB
D)All of these
47)What is the full form of CMIP
a)Communication Management Information Protocol
b)Common Management Information Protocol
C)Common Managed Information Protocol
d) Communication Managed Information Protocol
Ans B
48) Which is not a CMIP Protocol service elements :

1. m-CREATE
2. M-DELETE
3. M-ACTION
4. M-GO
Ans 4
49) In TNM terminology,the switching system,circuits,terminals etc which comprise a
telecommunication network ,are known as_______________
1)OSS
2)NEs
3)MDs
4)Q Adapter
Ans 2
50) Most TNM functions blocks can function as both managers and agents
1)True
2)False
3) Can’t say
Ans 1
51)Detection and isolatiopn of problem causing failure in the network is_____________
1)Security Management
2)Fault Management
3)Performane Manaement
4)Network manaement
Ans 2
52) The monitoring and Management of performance parameters of network and the network
components is_____________
2)Fault Management
4)Network manaement
Ans 3
53) Operation,Administration maintenance and provising of network and services is________
2)Fault Management
4)Network manaement
ANS 4
54)____________ allows a network manager to track ,which devices are on the managed
network and the hardware,and software configurations of these devices.
2)Fault Management
4)Configuration Management
Ans 4
55)_______ is designed to manage the telecommunications network and is oriented towards
the needs for telecommunication service provided.
1)Telecommunication Management Network
2) OSI Model
3)IEEE Standard
4) None of above
56)ICMP Stands for
1)Internet control message protocol
2)Information Control protocol
3)Internet carrier message protocol
4)Information carrier message protocol
ANS 1
57)_______________allows the network manager to specify ,log and control uses and device
accss to network resourses.
2)Fault Management
4)Accounting Management
Ans 4
58)Two major network management standards are Internet and OSI standard
1)True
2)false
3)Can’t say
Ans 1
59)A network consist of network components and their interconnections
1)True
2)false
3)Can’t say
Ans 1
60)The application function are divided into _______ categories
1)3
2)4
3)5
4)6
Ans 3
Subject: Telecom Network management (188153/238153)

Branch: Electronics and telecommunication Engineering
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
1) CMIP stands for common management ……….protocol. A
A)Information B) Internet C)Interconnection D International)
2) CMIS stands for common management ……….service. A
A)Information B)Internet C)Interconnection D) International
3) TNM stands for …………..management Network. B
A)Telecom B) Telecommunication C) Telephone D) Telematics
4) OSI stands for open system…….. C
5) ISO stands for …………standards organizations. D
6) WBEM stands for web-based …………management. D
A) External B)Easy C)Emerging D)Enterprise
7) SNMP stands for …..network management protocol. B
A) Simplex B)Simple C)standard D)Structure
8) ITU-T stands for International ……..Union – Telecommunication. A
A)Telecommunication B)Telecom C)Telephone D) Telematics
9) OSI network management consists of four models which are A
organization, information, functional , …………
A)Communication B)Management C)Telecom D) Information
1 P.T.O.
10) SMI stands for …….of Management Information. C
A) Simple B)Standard C) Structure D) subject
11) The managed elements have a management process running in them A
called an ………
A) Agent B) Information C) Alarm D) Objects
12) MoM stands for ………..of manager. B
A) Management B) Manager C) Message D) Monitor
13) The organization model describes the ……of network management A
and their relationship.
A) Components B) Nature C) Objects D) Information
14) An information model is connected with the structure and the storage C
of………..
A) Data B) Instruction C) Information D) Book
15) ISBN stands for International Standard ………..Number. A
A) Book B) Binary C) Base C) Bridges
16) MDB stands for management …………. A
A)Data Base B)Data Binary C) Double Base D)Double Binary
17) BER stands for Basic……..Rules. B
A) Error B) Encoding C) Element D) Enterprise
18) The ASN.1 syntax containing the management information is encoding C
using BER defined for………
A)Text Data B) bit oriented data C) Transfer syntax D) Length
2
19) The ………micro is used to define information about an OBJECT A
IDENTIFIER assignment.
A) OBJECT-IDENTITY B) STATUS C) Description D)Value
notation
20) The functional model is the component of an …….model address user B
oriented application.
A) ISO B)OSI C) Accounting D) Encoding
21) ………management in network management is normally used in the A
context of discovering network topology mapping the network and
setting up the configuration permanents in management agents and
management system.
A) Configuration B) Inventory C) Fault D) Performance
22) In the telephone industry network provisioning also called B
……provisioning.
A) Design B) Circuit C)Telephone D) Inventory
23) An efficient ….system is an essential part of the inventory C
management system.
A)Data B) Circuit C) Database D)Component
24) Network management is based on knowledge of network……… C
A) Criteria B) Technology C) Topology D) Database
25) …… in a network is associated with failure of network component A
and subsequent loss of connectivity,
A) Fault B) Problem C)Trouble D)Ping
26) ………is accomplished using either a polling scheme or by the A
generation of traps
A) Fault Detection B) fault Correction C) Fault Location
D)Isolation Technique
3 P.T.O.
27) ………using a simple approach would be to detect all the network C
component that have failed.
A) Fault Detection B)Fault correction C) Fault location
D)isolation Technique
28) One of the advantages of traps is that ….detection is accomplished A
faster with less traffic overhead.
A) Failure B)Error C) code D) Message
29) The ideal solution to locating and isolation the fault is to have an C
…………. solution.
A) Image Processing B) Signal Processing C)Artificial
Intelligence D) Neural Network
30) The …….as a system tool to measure traffic monitoring on Ethernet A
LANs
A)Protocol Analyzer B) Spectrum analyzer C) CRO D)DSO
31) When a centralized NMS receives a trap or a notification it is A
called…………….
A) receiving an event B) event correlation technique C) rule
based reasoning D) model based reasoning
32) It is important that the management systems correlates all event and B
isolates the root causes of the problem .The techniques used for
accomplishing this are called ………………..
A) Receiving on event b) Event correlation technique
c) case based reasoning d) code book
33) Rule based reasoning (RBR) is the earliest form of A
…………………… technique.
A) correlation b) correction c) detection d) production
4
34) Model-based reasoning is built on an …………… model associated C
with each managed object
A) attributes B) behaviours C) object – oriented D) router
35) ………………. Overcomes many of the deficiencies of Rule based A
Reasoning
A) case – based reasoning B) model – based Reasoning C)code book
D)finite state machine model
36) ……management is both a technical and an administrative issue in D
information management.
A) Configuration B) Performance C) Accounting D)security
37) The …….security subsystem is the user based security model. A
A)SNMPV3 B) RFC2196 C) NIST1994 D)NCSC
38) The main purpose of a ……is to protect a network from external B
attacks.
A)antivirus B) Firewall C)Gateway D) Filters
39) …….management is defined as the process of identifying services and A
characteristics associated with them, negotiating of SLA, deplaying
agents, to monitor &contro the performance of network, produce
service level report.
A) Performance B) security C) service Level D) Accounting
40) ......management is defined as the process of identifying services and C
characteristics associated with them. Negotiating as SLA ,deplaying
agents to monitor & control the performance at network , produce
service level report.
A)Performance B) Security C) Service level
D)Accounting
41) The model of ......is split into two aspects command interface to the D
managed resources and asynchronous reports from managed resources.
A) NMF B) ISO C) OSI D)CMISE
5 P.T.O.
42) The managed objects and their properties form a repository referred to A
as.............
A) MIB B) CMISE C)NMF D)ISO
43) .........provide the service fog report an occurrence of a event to another D
open system.
A)M-SET B) M-GET C) M-ACTION D)M-EVENT-
REPORT
44) ..........provide modifying attributes values of managed objects. A
A) M-SET B) M-GET C) M-ACTION D)M-DELETE
45) ..............Retrieve attributes end their values from managed objects. B
A) M-SET B) M-GET C) M-ACTION D) M-CREATE
46) .........is the request operation is not one of the CMIS defined services. A
A) Unrecognized operation B) No such event type C)
Processing failure D)No such attributes
47) ...........event type is not defined for the managed objects class referred B
in the request.
A) Invalid operator B) no such event type C) Processing failure
D)no such attributes
48) .........an error has occupied when processing the request. C
A) Invalid failure B) No such event type C) Processing failure
D)No such attributes
49) The managed object class definition is the part of the..........model. A
A) Information B) ISO C)OSI D) TCP/IP
50) Object ........techniques is called OMT. B
A) Management B) Modelling C)Methodology D) Manager
51) Object ..........group is called OMG. A
A) Management B)Modelling C) Methodology D)Manager
6
52) ......model defines the scheme for information visible across an A
interface the managing & managed system.
A) management information B) CMISE C) Network
D)Organization
53) .........model is an abstraction of the resources and their properties for B
the purpose of management
54) .......was defined in terms of relationship between the components of a A
system.
A) Schema B) CMISE C) Management Information D) TMN
55) ROSE is defined as remote ..........service element. B
A) Oriented B) Operations C) Objects D) Open
56) Exchanging the management information using the a fore mentioned C
services is defined as.......
A) ROSE B) CMIS C)CMIP D) ASN.1
57) ...........Define the parameters for transferring management information A
A) M-XXX B) N-XXX C) ACSE D)CMIS
58) The basic services are grouped together in to a functional unit is called D
as.........
A) Cancel get B) filter C) Extended service D) Kernel
59) Linked identifier parameter may be used. This allows several replies C
be sent for a single request.
A) cancel get B)Kernel C)Multiple reply
D) Multiple object selection
60) The request/reply paradigm of ROSE is defined using four protocol A
data unit these are Invoke, Reply,........, Reject
A) Respond B) Send C) Receive D)Acknowledge
7 P.T.O.
**********
8
Subject: - VLSl Design
Branch: - Electronics
Class: - BE
Semester: - VII
1. VLSI technology uses ________ to form integrated circuit.

a) transistors
b) switches
c) diodes
d) buffers
Answer: a. transistors
2. What is the design flow of VLSI system?

i. architecture design
ii. market requirement
iii. logic design
iv. HDL coding
a) ii-i-iii-iv
b) iv-i-iii-ii
c) iii-ii-i-iv
d) i-ii-iii-iv
Answer: a. ii-i-iii-iv
3. Which is the high level representation of VLSI design?

a) problem statement
b) logic design
c) HDL program
d) functional design
Answer: a. problem statement
4. Physical and electrical specification is given in ____________

a) architectural design
b) logic design
c) system design
d) functional design
Answer: d. functional design
5. The utilization of CAD tools for drawing timing waveform diagram and transforming it
into a network of logic gates is known as ________.
a. Waveform Editor
b. Waveform Estimator
c. Waveform Simulator
d. Waveform Evaluator
Answer: a. Waveform Editor
6. Which among the following is a process of transforming design entry information of the
circuit into a set of logic equations?
a. Simulation
b. Optimization
c. Synthesis
d. Verification
Answer: c. Synthesis
7. Among the VHDL features, which language statements are executed at the same time in
parallel flow?
a. Concurrent
b. Sequential
c. Net-list
d. Test-bench
ANSWER: a. Concurrent
8. In Net-list language, the net-list is generated _______synthesizing VHDL code.

a. Before
b. At the time of (during)
c. After
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c. After
9. In VHDL, which object/s is/are used to connect entities together for the model
formation?
a. Constant
b. Variable
c. Signal
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Signal
10. Which type of simulation mode is used to check the timing performance of a design?
a. Behavioural
b. Switch-level
c. Transistor-level
d. Gate-level
ANSWER: d. Gate-level
11. Which among the following is an output generated by synthesis process?

a. Attributes & Library
b. RTL VHDL description
c. Circuit constraints
d. Gate-level net list
ANSWER: d. Gate-level net list
12. Which type of digital systems exhibit the necessity for the existence of at least one
feedback path from output to input?
a. Combinational System
b. Sequential system
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: b. Sequential system
13. In logic synthesis, ________ is an EDIF that gives the description of logic cells & their
interconnections.
a. Netlist
b. Checklist
c. Shitlist
d. Dualist
ANSWER: a. Netlist
14. Which among the following is pre-defined in the standard package as one-dimensional
array type comprising each element of BIT type?
a. Bit type
b. Bit_vector type
c. Boolean type
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b. Bit_vector type
15. In composite data type of VHDL, the record type comprises the elements of
_______data types.
a. Same
b. Different
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: b. Different
16. In floor planning, placement and routing are __________ tools.

a. Front end
b. Back end
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: b. Back end
17. What does modeling type refer to?

a) Type of ports in entity block of VHDL code
b) Type of description statements in architecture block of VHDL code
c) Type of data objects
d) Type of Signals
ANSWER: b. Type of description statements in architecture block of VHDL code
18. Which of the following is not a type of VHDL modeling?

a) Behavioral modeling
b) Dataflow modeling
c) Structural modeling
d) Component modeling
ANSWER: d. Component modeling
19. In behavioral modeling, what do descriptive statements describe?

a) How the system performs on given input values
b) How the design is to be implemented
c) Netlist
d) Concurrent execution
ANSWER: a. How the system performs on given input values
20. Which of the following statement is used in structural modeling?
a) portmap()
b) process()
c) if-else
d) case
ANSWER: a. portmap()
21. What is the basic unit of behavioral description?

a) Structure
b) Sequence
c) Process
d) Dataflow
ANSWER: c. Process
22. Which of the following modeling style follows the sequential processing of instructions?
a) Dataflow modeling
b) Behavior modeling
c) Structural modeling
d) Component modeling
ANSWER: b. Behavior modeling
23. __________ modeling uses logic gates and basic blocks to describe the functionality of
system.
a) Behavioral
b) Structural
c) Dataflow
d) Component
ANSWER: c. Dataflow
24. Component instantiation is the part of __________ modeling.

a) Behavior
b) Component
c) Dataflow
d) Structural
ANSWER: d. Structural
25. Refer to the code given below, which type of modeling is used to describe the system?
ARCHITECTURE and_1 OF and_gate IS
begin
process(a, b, y)
begin
IF(a = ‘1’ and b = ‘1’) THEN
y <= ‘1’;
ELSE y <=’0’;
end IF;
END process;
END and_1;
a) Structural
b) Component
c) Dataflow
d) Behavioral
ANSWER: d. Behavioral
26. Ports are known as _________ to the component.

a) Structure
b) Behavior
c) Function
d) Interface
ANSWER: d. Interface
27. What is the use of a function called port map()?

a) Component declaration
b) Defining identifiers
c) Component instantiation
d) Defining inputs and outputs
ANSWER: c. Component instantiation
28. SIGNED and UNSIGNED data types are defined in which package?
a) std_logic_1164 package
b) std_logic package
c) std_logic_arith package
d) standard package
ANSWER: c. std_logic_arith package
29. Which of the following is only predefined physical literal in VHDL?

a) VOLTAGE
b) TIME
c) CURRENT
d) DISTANCE
ANSWER: b. TIME
30. RECORD in VHDL is similar to________ in C.
a) Array
b) File
c) Structure
d) Pointer
ANSWER: c. Structure
31. Access types are similar to _________ in traditional programming languages.

a) Pointers
b) Arrays
c) Structures
d) Files
ANSWER: a. Pointers
32. The statements in between the keyword BEGIN and END are called _______
a) Concurrent statements
b) Netlist
c) Declaration statement
d) Entity function
ANSWER: a. Concurrent statements
33. Which of the following can’t be declared in the declaration part of the architecture?
a) Signals
b) Subprograms
c) Components
d) Libraries
ANSWER: d. Libraries
34. Which of the following statements execute faster?

a) Sequential statements
b) Concurrent statements
c) Declaration statements
d) Loop statements
ANSWER: b. Concurrent statements
35. Which of the following is not defined by the entity?

a) Direction of any signal
b) Names of signal
c) Different ports
d) Behavior of the signals
ANSWER: d. Behavior of the signals
36. Which of the following can be the name of an entity?
a) NAND
b) Nand_gate
c) Nand gate
d) AND
ANSWER: b. Nand_gate
37. Which of the following mode of the signal is bidirectional?

a) IN
b) OUT
c) INOUT
d) BUFFER
ANSWER: c. INOUT
38. On which side of assignment operator, we can use the IN type signal?
a) Left
b) Right
c) Both
d) Can’t be used
ANSWER: b. Right
39. What is the difference between OUT and BUFFER?

a) BUFFER can’t be used inside the entity for reading the value and OUT can be
b) BUFFER can only be read whereas OUT can only be assigned a value
c) BUFFER can be read as well as assigned a value but OUT can only be assigned
d) Both are same
ANSWER: c. BUFFER can be read as well as assigned a value but OUT can only be
assigned
40. Complete description of the circuit to be designed is given in _________

a) Architecture
b) Entity
c) Library
d) Configurations
ANSWER: a. Architecture
41. In VHDL, Bus is a type of ________

a) Signal
b) Constant
c) Variable
d) Driver
ANSWER: a. Signal
42. Predefined data for an VHDL object is called ________
a) Generic
b) Constant
c) Attribute
d) Library
ANSWER: c. Attribute
43. Which of the following describes the structure of VHDL code correctly?
a) Library Declaration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration; Configurations
b) Entity Declaration; Configuration; Library Declaration; Architecture Declaration
c) Configuration; Library Declaration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration
d) Library Declaration; Configuration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration
ANSWER: a. Library Declaration; Entity Declaration; Architecture Declaration;
Configurations
44. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Package is a collection of Libraries
b) Library is a collection of Packages
c) Entity is a collection of Packages
d) Architecture is a collection of Entities
ANSWER: b. Library is a collection of Packages
45. Which of the following is used at the end of a statement?

a) ; (Semicolon)
b) — ( double hyphen)
c) _ (underscore)
d) No sign is used at the end of statement
ANSWER: a. ; (Semicolon)
46. VHDL is based on which of the following programming languages?

a) ADA programming language
b) C
c) Assembly
d) PHP
ANSWER: a. ADA programming language
47. What is the advantage of using VHDL instead of any other HDL?
a) Week typing
b) Based on ADA
c) Portability
d) Easy to code
ANSWER: c. Portability
48. Which of the following is a characteristic of Verilog HDL?
a) Strongly typed language
b) Case sensitive
c) Better library
d) Not portable
ANSWER: b. Case sensitive
49. Which of the following is not a back end EDA tool?

a) Floor planning tools
b) Placement tools
c) Routing tools
d) Simulators
ANSWER: d. Simulators
50. Procedures are invoked as _________
a) Statements
b) Expressions
c) Values
d) Assignments
ANSWER: a. Statements
51. Which of the following could be the objects in the parameter list of a procedure?
a) CONSTANTS, VARIABLES
b) VARIABLES, SIGNALS
c) CONSTANTS, SIGNALS
d) CONSTANT, SIGNALS, VARIABLES
ANSWER: d. CONSTANT, SIGNALS, VARIABLES
52. A procedure can’t contain a _______ statement.

a) WAIT
b) IF
c) RETURN
d) CASE
ANSWER: c. RETURN
53. Which of the following is true about both functions and procedures?
a) WAIT statement can’t be used
b) When declared in a package, both require package body
c) SIGNALs can’t be declared
d) RETURN is used in both
ANSWER: b. when declared in a package, both require package body
54. A procedure is called concurrently. It will execute when ________
a) Any of its parameters change
b) Any of its OUT parameters change
c) Any of its IN parameters change
d) Any of its IN or INOUT parameter change
ANSWER: d. Any of its IN or INOUT parameter change
55. Which of the following is used to extract information of non-array types?

a) Vector type
b) Scalar type
c) Non vector type
d) Array type
ANSWER: d. Scalar type
56. In a given combinational circuit, the concurrent statements are used with selected
assignments using WHEN and ELSE keyword. What is the other alternative to implement
the same?
a) WITH-SELECT
b) WITH-SELECT-WHEN
c) IF-ELSE
d) CASE
ANSWER: b. WITH-SELECT-WHEN
57. A 4 to 16 decoder can be used as a code converter. What will be the inputs and outputs
of the converter respectively?
a) Binary, Octal
b) Octal, Binary
c) Hexadecimal, Binary
d) Binary, Hexadecimal
ANSWER: c. Hexadecimal, Binary
58. In designing a 2 to 1 demultiplexer with input d, output y and select line s, which of the
following is a correct process statement?
a) PROCESS(d)
b) PROCESS(d(0), d(1), s)
c) PROCESS(d(0), d(1))
d) PROCESS(d, s, y)
ANSWER: a. PROCESS (d)
59. In the implementation of following function by using NAND keyword only, can be done
in _____ operations. X = A'B + AB'
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
ANSWER: c. 4
60. The maximum number of parameters in port map() function while implementing logic
function using gates only, is equal to ____________
a) Number of inputs
b) Number of outputs
c) Number of inputs + number of outputs
d) Infinite
ANSWER: c. Number of inputs + number of outputs.
Subject: - Wireless Communication
Branch: - Electronics and Telecommunication
Class: - BE
Semester: - VIII
1. What is the full form of WLAN?

a) Wide Local Area Network
b) Wireless Local Area Network
c) Wireless Land Access Network
d) Wireless Local Area Node
Answer: b) Wireless Local Area Network
2. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and physical layer specifications
for implementing WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15
Answer: c) IEEE 802.11
3. Which of the following is the 802.11 High Rate Standard?

a) IEEE 802.15
b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) IEEE 802.11g
d) IEEE 802.11b
Answer: d) IEEE 802.11b
4. HIPER-LAN stands for ____________

a) High Precision Radio Local Area Network
b) High Performance Radio Local Area Network
c) High Precision Radio Land Area Network
d) Huge Performance Radio Link Access Node
Answer: b) High Performance Radio Local Area Network
5. What is WISP?
a) Wideband Internet Service Protocol
b) Wireless Internet Service Provider
c) Wireless Instantaneous Source Provider
d) Wideband Internet Source Protocol
Answer: b) Wireless Internet Service Provider
6. Which of the following is not an open standard?
a) Bluetooth
b) WWW
c) HTML
d) VPN
Answer: d) VPN
7. What is the nominal range of Bluetooth?

a) 1 Km
b) 10 m
c) 1 m
d) 10 Km
Answer: b) 10 m
8. Which of the following scheme is used by Bluetooth?

a) Frequency hopping TDD scheme
b) Frequency hopping FDD scheme
c) DSSS TDD scheme
d) DSSS FDD scheme
Answer: a) Frequency hopping TDD scheme
9. WAN stands for __________

a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) Web access network
Answer: b) Wide area network
10. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________

a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) Control
Answer: a) Topology
11. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
Answer: b) WAN
12. Sampling theorem is used for converting
a) Continuous time signal to discrete
b) Discrete to continuous time signal
c) Continuous time signal to discrete & vice versa
Answer: c) Continuous time signal to discrete & vice versa
13. Why neighbouring stations are assigned different group of channels in cellular system?
a) To minimize interference
b) To minimize area
c) To maximize throughput
d) To maximize capacity of each cell
Answer: a) To minimize interference
14. What is a cell in cellular system?

a) A group of cells
b) A group of subscribers
c) A small geographical area
d) A large group of mobile systems
Answer: a) A group of cells
15. What is frequency reuse?
a) Process of selecting and allocating channels
b) Process of selection of mobile users
c) Process of selecting frequency of mobile equipment
d) Process of selection of number of cells
Answer: a) Process of selecting and allocating channels
16. Which of the following is a universally adopted shape of cell?

a) Square
b) Circle
c) Triangle
d) Hexagon
Answer: d) Hexagon
17. Actual radio coverage of a cell is called __________

a) Fingerprint
b) Footprint
c) Imprint
d) Matrix
Answer: b) Footprint
18. What is the main reason to adopt hexagon shape in comparison to square and triangle?
a) Largest area
b) Simple design
c) Small area
d) Single directional
Answer: a) Largest area
19. What is a cluster in a cellular system?

a) Group of frequencies
b) Group of cells
c) Group of subscribers
d) Group of mobile systems
Answer: b) Group of cells
20. Capacity of a cellular system is directly proportional to __________

a) Number of cells
b) Number of times a cluster is replicated
c) Number of Base stations
d) Number of users
Answer: b) Number of times a cluster is replicated
21. What happen to a call in fixed channel strategy, if all the channels in a cell are occupied?
a) Queued
b) Cross talk
c) Blocked
d) Delayed
Answer: c) Blocked
22. What is a borrowing strategy in fixed channel assignments?

a) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cell
b) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cluster
c) Borrowing channels from same cell
d) Borrowing channels from other base station in same cell
Answer: a) Borrowing channels from neighbouring cell
23. In dynamic channel assignment strategy, base station requests channel from ____________
a) MSC
b) Neighbouring cell
c) Neighbouring cluster
d) Neighbouring base station
Answer: a) MSC
24. What is the drawback of dynamic channel assignment?

a) Decrease channel utilization
b) Increase probability of blocked call
c) Cross talk
d) Increase storage and computational load on system
Answer: d) Increase storage and computational load on system
25. What is the condition for handoff?

a) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation
b) A mobile remains in the same cell while in conversation
c) A mobile moves to different cell when idle
d) A mobile remains in the same cell and is idle
Answer: a) A mobile moves into a different cell while in conversation
26. The time over which a call can be maintained within a cell without handoff is called _________
a) Run time
b) Peak time
c) Dwell time
d) Cell time
Answer: c) Dwell time
27. MAHO stands for ______
a) MSC assisted handoff
b) Mobile assisted handoff
c) Machine assisted handoff
d) Man assisted handoff
Answer: b) Mobile assisted handoff
28. What is the condition for intersystem interference?

a) Mobile moves from one cell to another cell
b) Mobile remains in the same cell
c) Mobile moves from one cellular system to another cellular system
d) Mobile remains in the same cluster
Answer: c) Mobile moves from one cellular system to another cellular system
29. What is the disadvantage of guard channel?

a) Efficient utilization of spectrum
b) Cross talk
c) Near far effect
d) Reduce total carried traffic
Answer: d) Reduce total carried traffic
30. Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced termination of a call
due to lack of available channels?
a) Queuing
b) Guard channel
c) Cell dragging
d) Near far effect
Answer: a) Queuing
31. Cell dragging is a problem occur due to __________

a) Pedestrian users
b) Stationary users
c) High speed mobile systems
d) Base stations having same frequency
Answer: a) Pedestrian users
32. Soft handoff is also known as _________

a) MAHO
b) Hand over
c) Break before make
d) Make before break
Answer: d) Make before break
33. What are co-channel cells?
a) Cells having different base stations
b) Cells using different frequency
c) Cells using adjacent frequency
d) Cells using same frequency
Answer: d) Cells using same frequency
34. Co-channel interference is a function of _________
a) Radius of cell
b) Transmitted power
c) Received power
d) Frequency of mobile use
Answer: a) Radius of cell
35. What is a frequency reuse factor for N number of cells in a system?

a) N
b) N2
c) 2*N
d) 1/N
Answer: d) 1/N
36. Multiple access schemes are used to allow ________ mobile users to share simultaneously a finite
amount of radio spectrum.
a) Many
b) One
c) Two
d) Ten-Fifteen
Answer: a) Many
37. The technique that makes possible the task of listening and talking in communication system is called
________
a) Simplexing
b) Duplexing
c) Modulating
d) Multiple access technique
Answer: b) Duplexing
38. Frequency division duplexing provides ________ distinct bands of frequencies for _________ user.
a) Two, two
b) One, two
c) Two, one
d) Two, many
Answer: c) Two, one
39. Time division duplexing uses ________ to provide both a forward and reverse link.
a) Frequency
b) Time
c) Time and frequency
d) Cell spacing
Answer: b) Time
40. In wideband systems, the transmission bandwidth of a single channel _________ coherence
bandwidth of the channel.
a) Equal to
b) Not related to
c) Larger than
d) Smaller than
Answer: c) Larger than
41. Pseudorandom signal ________ predicted.

a) Can be
b) Cannot be
c) maybe
Answer: a) Can be
42. The properties used for pseudorandom sequence are

a) Balance
b) Run
c) Correlation
Answer: d) All of the mentioned
43. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PN sequence?

a) Nearly equal number of 0s and1s
b) Low correlation between shifted version of sequence
c) Non deterministic
d) Low cross-correlation between any two sequences
Answer: c) Non deterministic
44. Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______

a) Signal
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) Amplitude
Answer: b) Frequency
45. What is the set of possible carrier frequencies in FH-SS?
a) Hopset
b) Hop
c) Chips
d) Symbols
Answer: a) Hopset
46. DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a PN sequence.
a) Adding
b) Subtracting
c) Multiplying
d) Dividing
Answer: c) Multiplying
47. The period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed _____ symbols.
a) 2m
b) m
c) 2m
d) 2m-1
Answer: d) 2m-1
48. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA) assigns ______ channels to _______ users.
a) Individual, individual
b) Many, individual
c) Individual, many
d) Many, many
Answer: a) Individual, individual
49. The FDMA channel carries ____________ phone circuit at a time.

a) Ten
b) Two
c) One
d) Several
Answer: c) One
50. The bandwidth of FDMA channel is ______

a) Wide
b) Narrow
c) Large
d) Zero
Answer: b) Narrow
51. Which of the following is not true for FDMA systems as compared to TDMA systems?
a) Low complexity
b) Lower cell site system cost
c) Tight RF filtering
d) Narrow bandwidth
Answer: b) Lower cell site system cost
52. Preamble contains __________

a) Address
b) Data
c) Guard bits
d) Trail bits
Answer: a) Address
53. Because of _______ transmissions in TDMA, the handoff process is __________

a) Continuous, complex
b) Continuous, simple
c) Discontinuous, complex
d) Discontinuous, simple
Answer: d) Discontinuous, simple
54. ___________ of TDMA system is a measure of the percentage of transmitted data that contains
information as opposed to providing overhead for the access scheme.
a) Efficiency
b) Figure of merit
c) Signal to noise ratio
d) Mean
Answer: a) Efficiency
55. PN sequence converts _______ signal to ______ signal.

a) Narrowband, wideband
b) Wideband, narrowband
c) Unmodulated, modulated
d) Low frequency, high frequency
Answer: a) Narrowband, wideband
56. If the rate of change of the carrier frequency is greater than the symbol rate, then the system is
referred as ___________
a) Fast frequency hopping system
b) Slow frequency hopping system
c) Time division frequency hopping system
d) Code division multiple access system
Answer: a) Fast frequency hopping system
57. In CDMA, symbol duration is ___________ than channel delay spread.
a) Equal
b) Greater
c) Slightly greater
d) Much less
Answer: d) Much less
58. All users in CDMA system uses __________ carrier frequency.

a) Different
b) Two
c) Ten
d) Same
Answer: d) Same
59. In wideband systems, the transmission bandwidth of a single channel _________ coherence bandwidth
of the channel.
a) Equal to
b) Not related to
c) Larger than
d) Smaller than
Answer: c) Larger than
60. __________ is based on FDMA/FDD.

a) GSM
b) W-CDMA
c) Cordless telephone
d) AMPS
Answer: d) AMPS
Model Question Paper A
N
Course:-BE (Electronics) Semester:-8 th S
Subject:-Wireless Communication (Paper Code)

1) Wireless communication is started in B
(A) 1869 (B) 1895 (C) 1879 (D) 1885
2) Term that is used for stationary or mobile wireless station and also have optional D
central base station is called
A. Point to point.
B. Multi point.
C. Network point.
D. Access point.
3) The early FM push-to-talk telephone systems were used in B
a. Simplex mode
b. Half duplex mode
c. Full duplex mode
4) Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and physical C
layer specifications for implementing WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15
5) WPAN is also known as ______ A
(A) Bluetooth
(B) WiFi
(C) Zigbee
(D) None of above
6) IEEE 802.15.4 is _______ C
(A) WLAN
(B) WMAN
(C) Low rate WPAN (LR-WPAN)
(D) Bluetooth
7) Which of the following WLAN standard has been named Wi-Fi? C
a) IEEE 802.6
b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) DSSS IEEE 802.11b
d) IEEE 802.11g
8) In a wireless communication, base station is connected to central hub called B
_______
a) PSTN
b) MSC
c) CO
d) PBX
1 P.T.O.
9) WMAN has standard __________ B
(A) IEEE 802.11
(B) IEEE 802.16
(C) IEEE 802.15
(D) None of above
10) WLAN has a range of ____ . C
(A) 1 meter
(B) 10 meter
(C) 100 meter
(D) none of above
11) Which of the following is/are the main part(s) of basic cellular system. D
A) A mobile Unit
B) A cell Site
C) A mobile Telephone Switching Office
D) All of the above
12) Fading of the received radio signals in a mobile communication environment B

occurs because of .....
A) Direct propagation
B) Multipath Propagation
C) Bi-path Propagation
13) State whether True of False. B

i) The cells or subdivisions of a geographical area are always hexagonal.
ii) A land to Mobile call originates through the Telephone exchange.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True
14) Spectrum Efficiency of a cellular network is D

a. The traffic carried by whole network
b. The traffic carried per cell divided by the bandwidth of the system and the area
of a cell
c. Expressed in Erlang /MHz /km2
d. Both b and c
15) The advantage of using frequency reuse is D
a. Increased capacity
b. Limited spectrum is required
c. Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d. All of the above
16) The strategies acquired for channel assignment are D
a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a and b
2
17) The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is D
a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
18) Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because D
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
19) In a fixed channel assignment strategy, if all the assigned channels are occupied, B
the call
a. Gets transferred to another cell
b. Gets blocked
c. Is kept on waiting
d. All of the above
20) The techniques used to improve the capacity of cellular systems are D
a. Splitting
b. Sectoring
c. Coverage zone approach
d. All of the above
21) In .............. Frequency Spectrum is divided into smaller spectra and is allocated C
to each user.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) FGMA
22) 5. In ................ multiple access is achieved by allocating different time slots for A
the different users.
A) TDMA
B) CDMA
C) FDMA
D) FGMA
23) 6. State whether True of False. C
i) In GSM only TDMA is used.
ii) There is zero inter-channel interference in CDMA.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True
24) Cable television is an example of B

a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. CDMA
d. SDMA
3 P.T.O.
25) FDMA demand assignment uses A
1. Single channel per carrier
2. Multi channel per carrier
3. Single transmission in one time slot
4. Multi transmission in one time slot
a. 1 and 2 are correct

b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. All four are correct
26) In TDMA, the user occupies the whole bandwidth during transmission A
a. True
b. False
27) PN sequence at the decoder acts as a locally generated carrier at the receiver A
and decodes the signal using
a. Correlator
b. Adder
c. Frequency divider
d. PLL
28) CDMA is advantageous over other Spread Spectrum techniques for D
1. The privacy due to unique codes
2. It rejects narrow band interference
3. Resistance to multi path fading
4. Its ability to frequency reuse
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the four are correct
29) The troubles that OFDM faces over other spread spectrum techniques are C
1. Sensitivity to Doppler shift
2. Frequency synchronization problems
3. Time synchronization problems
4. Low efficiency due to guard intervals

30) SDMA technique employs D
a. Smart antenna technology
b. Use of spatial locations of mobile units within the cell
c. More battery consumption
d. Both a and b are correct
31) Following medium of wired communication uses light pulses for transmission. D
(A) Twisted pair (B) Coaxial cable
(C) Optical fibre cable (D) None of these
4
32) Coax cables are highly resistant to _______ due to the shielding, B
(A) EM Energy (B) noise
(C) current (D) none of these
33) Advantage of wired system over wireless communication system is _______ A
(A) higher immunity to outside interference and noise
(B) higher immunity to inner noise
(C) lower immunity to inner interference
(D) None of these
34) Which mode is used for installing networks in wireless communication device C
characteristics?
(A) Fixed and wired (B) Mobile and wired
(C) Fixed and wired (D) Mobile and wireless
35) Fading of the received radio signals in a mobile communication environment B
occurs because of .....
A) Direct propagation
B) Multipath Propagation
C) Bi-path Propagation
36) WLANs use high power levels and generally require a license for spectrum use. B
(True or False)
a) True
b) False
37) Wireless LANs implement security measures in the B

A. System Layers.
B. Data Link Layers.
C. Sub Layers.
D. Multi Layers.
38) 12. Specifications for a wireless LAN are called D
A. Standard 802.3z.
B. Standard 802.3u.
C. Project 802.3.
D. IEEE 802.11.
39) 13. In wireless LAN, there are many hidden stations so we cannot detect the B
A. Frames.
B. Collision.
C. Signal.
D. Data.
40) World’s first cellular system was developed by A
a. Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)
b. Bellcore and Motorola
c. AT&T Bell Laboratories
d. Qualcomm
5 P.T.O.
41) ..................... are typically characterized by very small cells, especially in densely C
populated areas.
A) 2G system.
B) 3G system.
C) 2.5G system.
D) 3.5G system.
42) The technique for separate but parallel signalling channel is called ________ A
a) Common channel signalling
b) Forward channel signalling
c) Reverse channel signalling
d) Separate channel signalling
43) The 2G cellular network uses D

a. TDMA/FDD
b. CDMA/FDD
c. Digital modulation formats
d. All of the above
44) The interference between the neighboring base stations is avoided by A
a. Assigning different group of channels
b. Using transmitters with different power level
c. Using different antennas
d. All of the above
45) Radio capacity may be increased in cellular concept by B
(A) Increase in radio spectrum
(B) Increasing the number of base stations & reusing the channels
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
46) In a fixed channel assignment strategy D
a. Each cell is assigned a predetermined set of frequencies
b. The call is served by unused channels of the cell
c. The call gets blocked if all the channels of the cell are occupied
d. All of the above
47) Trunking in a cellular network refers to C
a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above
48) Co-channel reuse ratio depends upon D
a. Radius of the cell
b. Distance between the centers of the co channel cells
c. Frequency allocation of nearest cells
d. Both a and b
49) The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is C
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
6
50) In a dynamic channel assignment strategy, D
a. Voice channels are not permanently assigned
b. The serving base station requests for a channel from MSC
c. MSC allocates the channel according to the predetermined algorithm
d. All of the above
51) Which type of handoff used in CDMA? A
a) Soft handoff
b) Hard handoff
c) Soft & hard handoff
52) FDMA is the division of C

a. Time
b. Phase
c. Spectrum
d. Amplitude
53) In FDMA, C
1. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
2. Demand assignment is possible
3. Fixed assignment is possible
4. It is vulnerable to timing problems

54) The advantages of FDMA over TDMA includes B
1. Division is simpler
2. Propagation delays are eliminated
3. Cheaper filters with less complicated logic functions
4. Linearity

c. 1 and 4 are correct
55) TDMA is a multiple access technique that has A
a. Different users in different time slots
b. Each user is assigned unique frequency slots
c. Each user is assigned a unique code sequence
d. Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique
7 P.T.O.
56) CDMA is C
1. Spread spectrum technology
2. Using same communication medium
3. Every user stays at a certain narrowband channel at a specific time period
4. Each user has unique PN code

57) Advantages of using OFDM include D
1. Avoids complex equalizers
2. Low symbol rate and guard interval
3. Avoids ISI
4. Multiple users at same frequency

58) The increased capacity of SDMA is due to D
a. Focused signal transmitted into narrow transmission beams
b. Smart antennas pointing towards mobile stations
c. Use of different frequencies at same time slot
d. Both a and b are correct
59) Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses A
a. DPSK
b. FSK
c. ASK
d. QPSK
60) Spread spectrum modulation involves D
1. PN sequence for modulation
2. Large bandwidth
3. Multiple users

c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. All the three are correct
**********
8
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Techniques (188113/238113)
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. The unit of attenuation constant is

A. Decibel
B. Bel
C. Neper
D. No unit
Ans: C
Q2 For co-axial lines and waveguides, ________ is more preferred.
A. Open circuited stub
B. Short circuited stub
C. Slotted section
D. Co-axial lines cannot be impedance matched
Ans: B
Q3 When a transmission line has a load impedance same as that of the characteristic
impedance, the line is said to be
A. Parallel
B. Perpendicular
C. Polarized
D. Matched
Ans: D
Q4 Given that the reflection coefficient is 0.6. Find the SWR.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Ans: B
1 P.T.O.
Q5 The major disadvantage of single stub tuning is:
A. it requires a variable length of line between the load and the stub
B. it involves 2 variable parameters
C. complex calculation
Ans: A
Q6 Major advantage of a quarter wave transformer is:
A. It gives proper matching
B. It gives high gain
C. Broader bandwidth
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: C
Q7 In a waveguide, which of the following condition is true always?
A. phase velocity = c
B. group velocity = c
C. phase velocity > c
D. phase velocity < c
Ans: C
Q8 The lines having R, L, C distributed along the circuit are called
A. Lumped
B. Distributed
C. Parallel
D. Paired
Ans: B
Q9 Find the characteristic impedance expression in terms of the inductance and
capacitance parameters.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
Ans: B
Q10 For a matched line, the input impedance will be equal to
A. Load impedance
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Output impedance
D. Zero
Ans: B
Q11 In shunt stub matching, the key parameter used for matching is:
A. Admittance of the line at a point
B. Admittance of the load
C. Impedance of the stub
D. Impedance of the load
Ans: A
Q12 If a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is to be matched to a load of
100Ω, then the characteristic impedance of the λ/4 transmission line to be used is:
A. 50 Ω
B. 100 Ω
C. 70.71 Ω
D. 75 Ω
Ans: C
Q13 To get an admittance chart from an impedance chart:
A. Smith chart has to be rotated by 90⁰
B. Smith chart has to be rotated by 180⁰
C. Admittance chart cannot be obtained from the impedance chart anyway.
Ans: B
Q14 The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is
infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
3 P.T.O.
D. Short circuit impedance
Ans: C
Q15 The characteristic impedance of a quarter wave transformer with load and input
impedances given by 30 and 75 respectively is
A. 47.43
B. 37.34
C. 73.23
D. 67.45
Ans: A
Q16 The reflection coefficient lies in the range of
A. 0 < τ < 1
B. -1 < τ < 1
C. 1 < τ < ∞
D. 0 < τ < ∞
Ans: A
Q17 The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with impedance and admittance
of 16 and 9 respectively is
A. 25
B. 1.33
C. 7
D. 0.75
Ans: B
Q18 Normalized impedance of 0.3+j0.4 lies in the:
A. Upper half of the impedance smith chart
B. Lower half of the impedance smith chart
C. Horizontal line of the chart
Ans: A
Q19 Standing waves occurs due to
A. Impedance match
B. Impedance mismatch
4
C. Reflection
D. Transmission
Ans: B
Q20 Smith chart is based on the polar plot of:
A. Reactance
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. Voltage reflection co-efficient
Ans: D
Q21 For any mode of propagation in a rectangular waveguide, propagation occurs:
A. Above the cut off frequency
B. Below the cut off frequency
C. Only at the cut-off frequency
D. Depends on the dimension of the waveguide
Ans: A
Q22 In case of TEmn and TMmn, the letter m indicates
A. Number of half wave variations in the narrower dimension
B. Number of half wave variations in the broader dimension
C. Number of full wave variations in the narrower dimension
D. Number of full wave variations in the broader dimension
Ans: B
Q23 A hollow rectangular waveguide cannot propagate TEM waves because:
A. Of the existence of only one conductor
B. Of the losses caused
C. It is dependent on the type of the material used
Ans: A
Q24 In case of TM wave
A. There is no component of electric field in the direction of propagation
B. There is no component of magnetic field in the direction of propagation
C. None of the mentioned
5 P.T.O.
Ans: B
Q25 The scattering parameters are used to indicate the
A. Permittivity and permeability
B. Electric and magnetic field intensities
C. Reflection and transmission coefficients
D. Frequency and wavelength
Ans: C
Q26 The distance between two successive points in a waveguide is the
A. Guided wavelength
B. 2 x guided wavelength
C. Guided wavelength/2
D. (guided wavelength)/4
Ans: C
Q27 Power dividers and couplers are ______ microwave components used for power
division or power combining.
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Linear
D. Non linear
Ans: A
Q28 An isolator is a ___ port device
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: B
Q29 The phase and group velocity does not depend on which of the following?
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Phase constant
D. Attenuation constant
6
Ans: D
Q30 A circulator is a 3 port network that allows energy flow in clockwise direction only.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Q31 A rectangular waveguide has dimensions 1 × 0.5 . Its cut off frequency is
A. 5 GHz
B. 10 GHz
C. 15 GHz
D. 20 GHz
Ans: C
Q32 A circulator device can also used as an isolator with a few modifications.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q33 In case of a waveguide the signal propagation is by
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Electric and magnetic fields
D. Air pressure
Ans: C
Q34 Two modes with same cut off frequency are said to be
A. Generate modes
B. Dominant modes
C. Degenerate modes
D. Regenerate modes
Ans: C
Q35 The waveguide is employed in the transmission lines, when operated at the range of
A. Hz
B. KHz
C. MHz
7 P.T.O.
D. GHz
Ans: D
Q36 The phase velocity refers to a group of waves and the group velocity refers to a single
wave.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Q37 If all the ports of a microwave network are matched, then the diagonal elements of
the S matrix of the network are zero.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q38 The dominant mode in the TM waves is
A. TM01
B. TM10
C. TM20
D. TM11
Ans: D
Q39 In rectangular waveguides, the dimensions a and b represent the
A. Broad wall dimensions
B. Broad wall and side wall dimension respectively
C. Side wall and broad wall dimension respectively
D. Side wall dimensions
Ans: B
Q40 Bethe hole directional coupler has _____ number of holes for coupling power from
main waveguide to auxiliary waveguide.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: A
8
Q41 ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a
A. Backward wave oscillator
B. Reflex klystron
C. Travelling wave tube
D. Magnetrons
Ans: B
Q42 In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is
parallel to the electric field.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
Q43 Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator?
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
Ans: B
Q44 The material out of which PIN diode is made is:
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. GaAs
Ans: A
Q45 A reflex klystron is used as:
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Mixer
D. Frequency multiplier
Ans: B
Q46 For amplification of microwave energy which of the following is used
9 P.T.O.
A. Magnetron
B. Reflex Klystron
C. Travelling Wave Tube
D. Gunn Diode
Ans: C
Q47 The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a _________ type beam amplifier.
A. Linear beam
B. Crossed field
C. Parallel field
Ans: A
Q48 Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with
A. Coax
B. Parallel wires
C. Twisted pair
D. PCBs
Ans: D
Q49 The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined by
Ans: D
Q50 What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a travelling wave
tube?
A. To accelerate the electron
B. To velocity modulate the electron beam
C. To keep the electrons from spreading out
D. To slow down the signal on the helix
Ans: C
Q51 For amplification of microwave energy which of the following is used?
10
A. Travelling wave tube
B. Magnetron
C. Reflex klystron
D. Gunn diode
Ans: A
Q52 When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an
B. break down of depletion region
Ans: A
Q53 A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Ans: A
Q54 A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of
A. The absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream
B. The effect of an external magnetic field
C. The energy contained the cavity resonators
D. The energy liberated from the collector
Ans: A
Q55 ______is not a microwave tube.
A. Cathode ray tube
B. magnetron
C. travelling wave tube
Ans: A
Q56 Reflex klystron oscillator is essentially a low power device
11 P.T.O.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q57 _____ devices use a helix?
A. TWT
B. Klystron oscillator
C. Klystron amplifier
Ans: A
Q58 Skin effect is more pronounced at high frequencies
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Q59 The maximum theoretical output circuit efficiency of a double resonator klystron
amplifier is
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 58%
D. 56%
Ans: C
Q60 Which of the following devices uses a slow wave structure?
A. Klystron two cavity amplifier
B. Klystron multi cavity amplifier
C. Reflex klystron oscillator
D. TWT
Ans: D
**********
12
Subject:- Antenna and Wave Propagation

Branch:- Electronics and Telecommunication
Class :- BE
Semester:- VIII
1. The basic requirements of transmitting antennas are:

a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
c) Large signal to noise ratio
d) Lone of the mentioned
Ans:- a
2. _________ is a device that converts electrons to photons or vice-versa.
a) Antenna
b) Electron gun
c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
Ans:- a
3. The basic equation of radiation that is applied to any antenna irrespective
of the type of the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
Ans:- a
4. When the separation between two lines that carry the TEM wave
approaches λ the wave tends to be radiated.
a) True
b) False
Ans:- a
5. The number of patterns radiation pattern required to specify the
characteristic are :
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
Ans:- a
6. The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points is
called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
Ans:- a
7. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area
d) Beam efficiency
Ans:- a
8. Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation
intensity.
a) True
b) False
Ans:- a
9. As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the antenna:

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Depends on the type of the antenna
Ans:- a
10. If an antenna radiates over half a sphere, directivity of the antenna is:
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
Ans:- a
11. The number N of radio transmitters or point sources of radiation
distributed uniformly over the sky which an antenna can resolve is given by:
a) 4π/ ΩA
b) 2π/ ΩA
c) π/ ΩA
Ans:- a
12. Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is
numerically equal to:
a) Gain of the antenna
b) Directivity
c) Beam efficiency
d) Beam area
Ans:- b
13. Effective aperture is a parameter of the antenna that gives the physical
aperture of the antenna.
a) True
b) False
Ans:- b
14. Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is
given by the relation:
a) λ2/ ΩA
b) ΩA / λ2
c) λ2× ΩA
d) No such relationship exists
Ans:- a
15.________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to
the incident electric field.
a) Effective height
b) Gain
c) Directivity
d) Loss
Ans:- a
16. The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and
operating wavelength is given by:
a) 4πAe/λ2
b) 2πAe/λ2
c) πAe/λ2
Ans:- a
17. The members of the antenna family which are made of wires of certain
value in terms of operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
Ans:-c
18. The antenna in which location of the feed determines the direction of the
lobe are:
a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Horn antenna
Ans:-a
19. Based on the size of the loops, loop antennas are classified as small and
large loops. This is the only classification of loop antenna.
a) True
b) False
Ans:-b
20. Antenna that does not belong to the horn antenna family among the
following are:
a) Pyramidal horn
b) Conical horn
c) bi-conical horn
Ans:-d
21. Patch antennas are the antennas of small size and are made of:
a) Strip line
b) Microstrip lines
c) Coaxial cables
d) Rectangular waveguide
Ans:-b
22. Reflector antennas are widely used to modify radiation patterns of
radiating elements.
a) True
b) False
Ans:-a
23. The pattern of the reflector in a reflector antenna is called:
a) Primary pattern
b) Secondary pattern
c) Reflector pattern
Ans:-b
24. High directivity required in RADAR communication is satisfied using
this type of antennas:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Antenna arrays
c) Slot antennas
d) Patch antennas
Ans:- b
25. Antennas that radiate energy only in a specified are called anisotropic
antennas.
a) True
b) False
Ans:-a
26. The expression for pointing vector of an isotropic point source at a
distance ‘r’ from the source is given by:
a) P/ 4πR2
b) P/4π
c) P/ 4πR
d) P×4πR2
Ans:-a
27. A source has a cosine power pattern that is bidirectional. Given that the
directivity of a unidirectional source with cosine power pattern has a
directivity of 4, then the directivity of the unidirectional source is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Ans:-b
28. Self impedance of an antenna is basically __________
a. Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas
b. Its impedance by taking into consideration the consequences of other
antennas
c. Both a and b
Ans:-a
29. In radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves
generated by transmitting antenna?
a. Spherical
b. Plane
c. Triangular
d. Square
Ans:-a
30. What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?
a. Radiator
b. Converter
c. Sensor
d. Inverter
Ans:-c
31. What is the direction of varying orientation of polarized surface wave
at the earth surface in a wave tilt mechanism?
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Diagonal
d. Opposite
Ans:-b
32. For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is
the __________
a. Attenuation
b. Phase velocity
c. Propagation constant
d. Tilt angle
Ans:-a
33. When an electromagnetic wave travels from transmitter to receiver,
which factor/s affect/s the propagation level?
a. Curvature of earth
b. Roughness of earth
c. Magnetic field of earth
d. All of the above
Ans:-d
34. Which kind of polarization is provided by helical antennas?
a. Plane
b. Elliptical
c. Circular
d. All of the above
Ans:-c
35. Why are beverage antennas not used as transmitting antenna?
a. Low radiation resistance
b. Low radiation efficiency
c. Both a and b
Ans:-c
36. Which among the following is not a disadvantage of rhombic antenna?
a. Requirement of large space
b. Reduced transmission efficiency
c. Maximum radiated power along main axis
d. Wastage of power in terminating resistor
Ans:-c
37. Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle
of two legs of one wire?
a. Apex angle
b. Tilt angle
c. Both a and b
Ans:-b
38. If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be
the operating region of an array?
a. Transmission line region
b. Active region
c. Reflective region
d. All of the above
Ans:-c
39. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many
shape patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
Ans:-c
40. What would happen if the rms value of induced emf in loop acquires an
angle θ = 90°?
a. Wave is incident in direction of plane of the loop with induced maximum
voltage
b. Wave is incident normal to plane of the loop with no induced voltage
c. Wave is incident in opposite direction of plane of the loop with minimum
voltage
Ans:-b
41. For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component
must be used by the loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that
frequency?
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Resistor
d. Gyrator
Ans:-a
42. What is the nature of current distribution over the small dipoles?
a. Spherical
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. Square
Ans:-c
43. Which term is regarded as an inductive field as it is predictable from
Biot Savart law & considered to be of prime importance at near field or the
distance close to current element?
a. 1/ r
b. 1/ r2
c. 1/ r3
d. 1/ r4
Ans:-b
44. Dipole antenna is symmetrical in nature where the two ends are at
equal potentials with respect to _____point
a. Initial
b. Eventual
c. Mid
Ans:-c
45. The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its
____
a. Source
b. Distance of point from the source (R)
c. Both a and b
Ans:-b
46. Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________
a. Point angle
b. Linear angle
c. Plane angle
d. Solid angle
Ans:-d
47. Which conversion mechanism is performed by parabolic reflector
antenna?
a. Plane to spherical wave
b. Spherical to plane wave
c. Both a and b
Ans:-b
48. Which antennas are renowned as patch antennas especially adopted for
space craft applications?
a. Aperture
b. Microstrip
c. Array
d. Lens
Ans:-b
49. Which type of wire antennas are also known as dipoles?
a. Linear
b. Loop
c. Helical
d. All of the above
Ans:-a
50. Which mechanism/s is/are likely to occur in mid-frequency operation
corresponding to ionospheric region?
a. Only Reflection
b. Only Refraction
c. Partial reflection & refraction
Ans:-c
51. According to Snell's law in optics, if a ray travels from dense media to
rarer media, what would be its direction w.r.t the normal?
a. Towards
b. Away
c. Across
d. Beside
Ans:-b
52. By which name/s is an ionospheric propagation, also known as?
a. Sea wave propagation
b. Ground wave propagation
c. Sky wave propagation
d. All of the above
Ans:-c
53. After which phenomenon/phenomena do the waves arrive at the
receiving antenna in ionospheric propagation?
a. Reflection or Scattering
b. Refraction
c. Defraction
d. All of the above
Ans:-a
54. Which type of ground wave travels over the earth surface by acquiring
direct path through air from transmitting to receiving antennas?
a. Surface wave
b. Space wave
c. Both a & b
Ans:-b
55. Which mode of propagation is adopted in HF antennas?
a. Ionospheric
b. Ground wave
c. Tropospheric
d. All of the above
Ans:-a
56. Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary
endfire array?
a. α < βd
b. α > βd
c. α = ±βd
d. α ≠ ±βd
Ans:-c
57. In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar
_______excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Current
d. Voltage
Ans:-a
58. What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?
a. Spherical
b. Dough-nut
c. Elliptical
d. Hyperbolic
Ans:- a
59. If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its
radiation resistance?
a. 22.22 ohm
b. 27.77 ohm
c. 33.33 ohm
d. 39.77 ohm
Ans:- b
60. Which among the following elucidate the generation of electromagnetic

waves?
a. Ampere's law
b. Faraday's law
c. Gauss's law
d. Both a&b
Ans:- d
A
N
Model Question paper
S
Radiation & Microwave Techniques
1) Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines? D

A. Inductance &Capacitance
B. Resistance
C. Conductance
D. All of the above
2) Which of the following is a microwave frequency? D

A. 1.7 MHz
B. 750 MHz
C. 0.98 GHz
D. 22 GHz
3) The main benefit of using microwaves is D

A. Lower-cost equipment
B. Simpler equipment
C. Greater transmission distances
D. More spectrum space for signals
1 P.T.O.
4) Which of the following is not a common microwave application? C
A. Radar
B. Mobile radio
C. Telephone
D. Satellite communications
5) Which primary constant of transmission line is exhibits its dependency of value A

on the cross-sectional area of conductors
A. Resistance (R)
B. Inductance (I)
C. Conductance (G)
D. Capacitance (C)
6) The skin effect cause B

A. Portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and core of the
conductor carries more current
B. Portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and the core
of the conductor carries less current
C. Current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
7) The constant x-circles of Smith chart becomes smaller due to increase in the value D
of 'x' from
A. 0 to π
B. 0 to 2π
C. 0 to π /2
D. 0 to ∞
2
8) If the quarter line is short-circuited, then it acts as _______ B
A. Conductor
B. Insulator
C. Semiconductor
D. Power regulator
9) In case of single stub matching technique, if the normalized admittance at a point C

on a transmission line to be matched is 1+j0.47. Then the normalized susceptance
of the stub used for shunt stub matching is:
A. 1Ω
B. 0.47 Ω
C. -0.47 Ω
D. -1 Ω
10) The major disadvantage of single stub tuning is: A

A. it requires a variable length of line between the load and the stub
B. it involves 2 variable parameters
C. complex calculation
11) A 50 ohm lossless line connects a matched signal of 100 kHz to a load of 100 ohm.D
What is the position of first Vmin and Vmax.
A. First Vmin is located at the load and first Vmax is located at 100m
away from load.
B. First Vmax is located at the load and first Vmin is located at 100m
away from load.
C. First Vmin is located at the load and first Vmax is located at 750m
away from load.
D. First Vmax is located at the load and first Vmin is located at 750m
away from load.
3 P.T.O.
12) Transmission line is a _________ parameter network. B
A. Lumped
B. Distributed
C. Active
13) For a lossless transmission line the value of α is: A
A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
14) After what wavelength does the nature of graph get reversed for the input B
impedance of open-circuited line
A. λ/2
B. λ/4
C. λ/8
D. λ/16
15) What is the phase variation range for reflection coefficient in the transmission C
lines?
A. 0° to 90°
B. 90° to 150°
C. 0° to 180°
D. 90° to 360°
16) According to Smith diagram, where should be the position of reflection coefficient A
value for a unity circle with unity radius?
A. On or inside the circle

B. Outside the circle
C. Both a and b
4
17) A transmission line having characteristic impedance of 50 Ω is terminated in load C
impedance of 250+j300 Ω. What is the value of normalized load impedance:
A. 1+j
B. 1-j
C. 5+6j
D. 5-6j
18) What is the magnitude of current or voltage at the nodes of a line? A

A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Infinite
19) For a transmission line with propagation constant γ = 0.650 + j 2.55, what will be C
the value of phase velocity for 1 kHz frequency?
A. 1.18 x 103 km/sec

B. 1.50 x 103 km/sec
C. 2.46 x 103 km/sec
D. 4.58 x 103 km/sec
20) If the inductance and capacitance of a loss less transmission line are 45 mH/m B
and10 µF/m, the characteristic impedance of the transmission line is:
A. 50Ω
B. 67.08Ω
C. 100Ω
5 P.T.O.
21) How does the short-circuited line behave for the first λ/4 distance if input A
impedance is purely reactive?
A. As an inductance
B. As a resistance
C. As a capacitance
D. As a conductance
22) What would be the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) for a line with reflection C
coefficient equal to 0.49?
A. 0.01
B. 2.12
C. 2.921
D. 3.545
23) The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is C
infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Short circuit impedance
24) What is the magnitude of current or voltage at the nodes of a line? C
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Infinite
6
25) In case of a waveguide the signal propagation is by C
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. Electric and magnetic fields
D. Air pressure
26) A rectangular waveguide does not allow _________ to propagate A

A. TEM wave
B. TM wave
C. TE wave
D. TE and TM waves
27) When the electric field of the signal is perpendicular to the direction propagation C
through waveguide, the mode is said to be
A. Vertical polarization
B. Transverse electromagnetic
C. Transverse electric
D. Transverse magnetic
28) A waveguide is a B
A. Low pass filter
B. High pass filter
C. Band pass filter
D. Band stop filter
7 P.T.O.
29) The co-axial cable belongs to A
A. TEM mode of transmissionlines
B. Quasi-TEMmode of transmissionlines
C. NonTEM mode of transm ission lines
D. None of these.
30) In case of two hole directional coupler the separation between the two holes is B
equal to:
A. λg
B. λg/2
C. λg/3
D. λg/4
31) When the freespace wavelength equal to the cut-of wavelength D

A. The group velocity equal to phase velocity
B. Phase velocity becomes zero
C. Group velocity becomes zero
D. Group velocity becomes infinite.
32) The Transmission system using two ground planes D

A. Micro strip lines
B. Elliptical waveguide
C. Parallel wire line
D. Strip line
33) When an electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide B
A. they travel along a broader walls of the guide
B. they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
C. they travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
D. they travel along all four walls of the waveguide
8
34) An advantage of strip line over waveguide is its B
A. Small bulk
B. Greater bandwidth
C. High power handling capacity
D. Greater compatibility with solid state devices
35) When an electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide B
E. they travel along a broader walls of the guide
F. they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
G. they travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
H. they travel along all four walls of the waveguide
36) Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because D

A. they depend on straight-line propagation which applies to microwaves only
B. losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies
C. there are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower
frequencies
D. they would be too bulky at lower frequencies
37) Ferrite isolators are ____ port microwave devices. A

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
38) A circulator is a device that: C

A. Rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
B. Allows a signal to pass in one direction only
C. Separates signals among various ports
D. Prevents microwaves from being “trapped” in a waveguide
9 P.T.O.
39) in TM mode, if the direction of wave propagation is in ‘z’ direction, then: A
A. HZ=0
B. EZ=0
C. EY=0
D. HY=0
40) hen electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wavelength D
along the wall is
A. the same as in free space

B. the same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall
C. shortened because of Doppler effect
D. greater than in the actual direction of propagation
41) When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, three appears an extra electric B
component, in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
A. transverse-electric
B. transverse-magnetic
C. longitudinal
D. transverse-electromagnetic
42) In microstrip line has dielectric material most commonly used is A

A. Silicon
B. Rubber
C. Plastic
D. Bakelite
10
43) A signal propagation in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change D
between the two further walls, and no component of the electric field in the
direction of propagation. The mode is
A. TE1,1
B. TE1,0
C. TM2,2
D. TE2,0
44) The phase velocity (Vp) and group velocity(Vg) are related as A
A. Vp. Vg=C2
B. Vp./Vg.=C
C. Vg./Vp =C
D. Non of above
45) For amplification of microwave energy which of the following is used C
A. Magnetron
B. Reflex Klystron
C. Travelling Wave Tube
D. Gunn Diode
11 P.T.O.
46) The principle on which Klystron work B
A. Amplitude Modulation
B. Velocity Modulation
C. Frequency Modulation
D. Pulse Modulation
47) The resonant frequency of a cavity resonator depends upon C

A. The mode of operation
B. Its electrical dimensions
C. Its physical dimensions
D. The capacitor which tunes it
48) Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator? B

A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
49) At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube? A
A. At the cathode end of the helix
B. At the collector
C. At the collector end of the helix
D. At the control grid of the electron gun
12
50) Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a D
A. Waveguide match
B. Cavity match
C. Direct coax-helix match
D. All of the above
51) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an B
A. break down of depletion region

B. avalanche multiplication
52) A high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a B

A. traveling-wave tube
B. magnetron
C. reflex klystron
D. Gunn diode
53) As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space B
A. Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
B. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the
output cavity
C. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
D. Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity.
13 P.T.O.
54) The kinetic energy of the beam remains unchanged in the interaction between an
electron beam and an RF wave in a
C
(A) Multi cavity klystron
(B) Crossed field amplifier
(C) Travelling wave tube
(D) Step recovery diode
55) The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined D
by
56) If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of A
opposite polarity, the operation is in the
A. π mode
B. π/2 mode
C. 2π mode
D. π/4 mode
14
57) The Gunn diode oscillator D
A. Is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatt
B. Generates frequencies which are below 100 MHz
C. Operates over a positive resistance characteristic
D. Depends on the formation of charge domain
58) Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of B
A. 300 to 3000 MHz
B. 3000 to 30000 MHz
C. 30 to 30000 MHz
D. 10 to 10000 MHz
59) The main frequency determining element of a klystron is C

A. The repeller voltage
B. The accelerating voltage
C. Its resonant cavity
D. Its mode of operation
15 P.T.O.
60) Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator? B
A. Thyratron
B. Magnetron
C. Klystron
D. Reflex-klystron
61) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown, voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode ,its results in
A
(A) Avalanche multiplication
(B) Breakdown of depletion layer
(C) High reverse saturation current
62) To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning , a constant bias source is used to A
maintain at the safe limit
(A) Average current
(B) Average Voltage
(C) Average Bias voltage
(D) Average resistance
**********
16
Subject: Embedded System
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
1 Which parameter/s is/are included in ‘Time to market’ design metric of embedded system?
(A) Time to prototype
(B) Time to refine
(C) Time to produce in bulk
(D) All of above
Ans D
2 Which microcontroller are adopted for designing medium scale embedded system
(A) 8- bit
(B) 16-bit to 32-bit
(C) 64-bit
(D) All of above
Ans B
3 What are essential constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
(A) Ability to fit on a single chip
(B) Low power consumption
(C) Fast data processing
(D) All of above
Ans D
4 Data transfer rate for CAN is

(A) 3M bits/s
(B) 5M bits/s
(C) 1M bits/s
(D) 2M bits/s
Ans C
5 Zigbee uses
(A) FHSS
(B) DSSS
(C) TDMA
(D) CDMA
Ans B
6 A communication protocol specifies (i) the ways of communication of signals on the bus
(ii) ways of arbitration when several devices need to communicate through the bus or the
ways of polling from the devices need of the bus at an instance (iii) memory requirement
during communication (iv) minimum rate of data transfer during communication (v) interrupt
service mechanism
(A) i, ii, iii and iv
(B) i, iii, iv and v
(C) i and ii
(D) i, ii and iii
Ans C
7 For a product being manufactured, the non-recurring cost is X, and the unit cost of the
product is Y. If we manufacture N units of the product, what will be the per-unit cost?
(A) (X + N.Y) / N
(B) X + Y
(C) X + N.Y
(D) None of these.
Ans A
8 Consider the typical triangle-shaped revenue model. Suppose that a product is supposed to
enter the market at time 0, with the peak revenue of S units at time W, and the product life is
2W. However, the launch of the product gets delayed by a time D. For W = 13 weeks, and D
= 1 week, what will be the percentage revenue loss due to the delayed launch of the product?
(A) 15.1 %
(B) 11.2 %
(C) 8.7 %
(D) None of these.
Ans B
9 A system might be connected to a number of other devices and systems. (i) A bus consists
of a common set of lines to connect multiple devices, hardware units and systems (ii) A bus is
used for communication between two of these at any given instance. (iii) A bus is used for
communication between all of these at the same instance (iv) A bus may be serial bus or
parallel bus to transfer one bit or multiple data bits at an instance, respectively.
(A) i, ii and iv correct
(B) iii correct
(C) iii and iv correct
(D) all are correct.
Ans A
10 Steps for embedded system development are steps

(i) A compiler generates an object file.
(ii) The object file is linked with library functions using linker.
(iii) After re-allocation of addresses a locator sends the codes to device programmer for
burning as ROM image in embedded system ROM.
(iv) After re-allocation of addresses a loader loads the codes to device programmer for
(v) After re- allocation of addresses a loader loads the codes in RAM. Chooses correct steps
(A) i, ii and iv
(B) i, iii, iv and v
(C) i, ii and iii
(D) i , ii and v.
Ans C
11 What are t, d, m, I stands for in ARM 7 TDMI?

(A) Timer, Debug, Multiplex, ICE
(B) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
(C) Timer, Debug, Modulation, IS
(D) Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
Ans B
12 Which among the following data processing instructions does not use the barrel shifter?
(A) ADD R2, R5, R4
(B) MOV R5, R4, LSL #2
(C) MOV r5, R4, LSR #2
(D) MOV r5, R4, ROR #2
Ans A
13 If three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would be the speed of
execution?
(A) Higher
(B) Moderate
(C) Lower
(D) Unpredictable
Ans A
14 Which type of non-privileged processor mode is entered due to raising of high priority of
an interrupt?
(A) User mode
(B) Fast Interrupt Mode (FIQ)
(C) Interrupt Mode (IRQ)
(D) Supervisor Mode (SVC)
Ans B
15 The average time for a particular task is constrained as well as is the number of instances
when some maximum time is exceeded, the stated approach is known as
(A) Hard real-time systems
(B) Real-data constraints
(C) Real-time constraints
(D) Soft real-time systems
Ans C
16 Embedded systems applications typically involve processing information as

(A) Block level
(B) logical volumes
(C) Distance
(D) signals.
Ans D
17 Which of the following ARM instructions can be used to load a byte into a register?
(A) LDR
(B) LDRB
(C) LDRSH
(D) LDRBYTE
Ans B
18 If register r2, r5,r8 contains (decimal) numbers 3,7 and 8 respectively, the value of r10
after execution of the following instruction will be: ADD r10,r8,r5,LSL r2
(A) 56
(B) 60
(C) 64
(D) None of these
Ans C
19 An instruction that is used to move data from an ARM Register to a Status Register
(CPSR or SPSR) is called
(A) MRC
(B) MRS
(C) MSR
(D) MCS
Ans C
20 The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines are called as

(A) Copied-registers
(B) Banked registers
(C) EXtra registers
(D) Extential registers
Ans B
21 The multi-layer architecture acts as a crossbar switch between ----- in a AMBA 3

AHB
(A) Master and slave
(B) Master and master
(C) Slave and slave
Ans A
22 Instruction used to Test equality of two 32-bit values in ARM7 is called

(A) TEQ
(B) TST
(C) EOR
Ans B
23 The ARM processors don’t support Byte addressability.

(A) True
(B) False
Ans B
24 ADC and DAC in LPC2148 are of ---- bits

(A) 2 bits
(B) 11 bits
(C) 5bits
(D) 10 bits
Ans D
25 The initial routine is often referred to as

(A) Initial program
(B) Bootstrap program
(C) Final program
(D) Initial embedded program
Ans B
26 Main advantage of the PWM is that

(A) Power loss in the switching devices is very high
(B) Power loss in the switching devices is very low
(C) No power loss in switching devices
Ans B
27 Evaluate the following statements and select the appropriate answer given from the
choices below. I. Von Neumann Architecture shares common memory for Data and
Instructions II. Harvard Architecture has separate physical memories for Data and
Instructions
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Both I and II are true
(D) None of them is true
Ans C
28 Consider a four bit ALU which does four bit arithmetic. When the following four bit
numbers are added, what is the status of NZCV flags? 1101 + 1011
(A) NZCV = 0111
(B) NZCV = 1000
(C) NZCV = 1001
(D) NZCV = 1010
Ans D
29 When the processor is executing simple data processing instructions, the pipeline enables
one instruction to be completed every clock cycle, this is also called as
(A) Throughput
(B) Latency
(C) Execution
Ans A
30 Instruction used to multiply R5 contents by R4 and to store the result into R6 is called .
(A) MUL R6, R5, LSL #2
(B) MUL R6, R5, R4
(C) MUL R6, R5, LSR #2
Ans B
31 If the initial register contents of R0, R1 and R2 were R0= 0x0000000 R1= 0x02040608
R2= 0x10305070 Assume
R0 is the result register, after one of the operations below was performed on R1 and R2,
which has been modified to R0 = 0x12345678 What was the operation performed on the
contents of R2 and R1?
(A) AND
(B) ORR
(C) BIC
(D) MUL
Ans B
32 Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) Power consumption and performance can be simultaneously improved.
(B) NRE cost and performance can be simultaneously improved.
(C) Improving performance increases the power consumption.
(D) None of these.
Ans C
33 An embedded system has RAM memory

(A) for storing the variables during program run, stack and input or output buffers, for
example, for speech or image
(B) for storing all the instructions and data
(C) for storing the programs from external secondary memory
(D) for fetching instructions and data into cache(s).
Ans A
34 The amount of power used during operation. This is extremely important, especially for
battery powered portable devices. A common metric used to compare the power requirements
of portable devices is
(A) MW/MIPS (Mega watts per MIPS)

(B) mW/MIPS (milliwatts per MIPS)
(C) W/MIPS ( watts per MIPS)
(D) µW/MIPS (micro watts per MIPS)
Ans A
35 The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode, MOVE[Rn]+Rm is
(A) EA = [Rn]
(B) EA = [Rn + Rm]
(C) EA = [Rn] + Rm
(D) EA = [Rm] + Rn
Ans A
36 What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?

(A) 110 MIPS
(B) 150 MIPS
(C) 125 MIPS
(D) 130 MIPS
Ans D
37 Abort mode generally enters when
(A) an attempt access memory fails

(B) low priority interrupt is raised
(C) ARM processor is on rest
(D) undefined instructions are to be handled
Ans A
38 Stack is a form of
(A) Last In First Out (LIFO)
(B) First In First Out (FIFO)
(C) Both a and b
Ans A
39 In DAC 0808, which among the following is configured as a reference in addition to R-2R
ladder and current switches?
(A) Voltage amplifier
(B) Current amplifier
(C) Transconductance amplifier
(D) Transresistance amplifier
Ans B
40 LPC 2148 operates in

(A) ARM Mode
(B) THUMB Mode
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None
Ans C
41 Which microcontroller are adopted for designing medium scale embedded system
(A) 8- bit
(B) 16-bit to 32-bit
(C) 64-bit
(D) All of above
Ans B
42 Which bit size of timer register bit determines the slowest frequency?
(A) counter size
(B) pre-scalar value
(C) counter
(D) timer
Ans A
43 Which of the following is an example for on-board interface in the embedded system
context?
(A) I2C
(B) Bluetooth
(C) SPI
(D) A and C
Ans D
44 Data transfer rate for CAN is
(A) 3M bits/s
(B) 5M bits/s
(C) 1M bits/s
(D) 2M bits/s
Ans C
45 Which are the processors based on RISC?

(A) ARM7TDMI
(B) 80386
(C) MC68030
(D) MC68020
Ans A
46 Bluetooth devices communicate at bandwidths

(A) Fixed
(B) Static
(C) High
(D) Low
Ans D
47 ZigBee is an IEEE
(A)802.15.1
(B) 802.15.2
(C) 802.15.4
(D) 802.15.3
Ans C
48 An embedded system has RAM memory

(A) for storing the variables during program run, stack and input or output buffers, for
example, for speech or image
(B) for storing all the instructions and data
(C) for storing the programs from external secondary memory
(D) for fetching instructions and data into cache(s).
Ans A
49 ARM stands for

(A) Advanced Rate Machines
(B) Advanced RISC Machines
(C) Artificial Running Machines
(D) Aviary Running Machines
Ans B
50 In DAC 0808, which among the following is configured as a reference in addition to R-2R
ladder and current switches?
(A) Voltage amplifier
(B) Current amplifier
(C) Transconductance amplifier
(D) Transresistance amplifier
Ans B
51 In thumb mode instructions are of

(A) 8 bit
(B) 20 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 64 bits
Ans C
52 How do Direct Addressing Mode instructions compare with respect to the Indirect
Addressing Mode instructions?
(A) Faster
(B) Slower
(C) No difference
Ans A
53 Which of the following statements are true

I. In Little endian mode it is easier to determine a sign of the number
II. Little endian mode is easier for addition and multiplication of multi-precision numbers
III. Big endian mode is easier to divide two numbers
IV. Big endian mode is easier to compare two numbers
(A) I & II are true
(B) III & IV are true
(C) I & III are true and II and IV are false
(D) I & II are false and III and IV are true
Ans D
54 Which functional unit of ARM family architecture is responsible for upgrading the
address register contents before the core reads or writes the next register value from memory
location?
(A) Data bus
(B) Barrel Shifter
(C) Incrementer
(D) Instruction Decoder
Ans C
55 Abort mode generally enters when

(A) an attempt access memory fails
(B) low priority interrupt is raised
(C) ARM processor is on rest
(D) undefined instructions are to be handled
Ans A
56 If the register r5 contains the hexadecimal number AA55AA55 the hexadecimal value of
the number stored in register r2 after executing the following instruction will be: MVN r2, r5
(A) AA55AA55
(B) FFFFFFFF
(C) 55AA55AA
(D) 00AA00AA
Ans C
57 Steps for embedded system development are steps

(i) A compiler generates an object file.
(ii) The object file is linked with library functions using linker.
(iii) After re-allocation of addresses a locator sends the codes to device programmer for
(iv) After re-allocation of addresses a loader loads the codes to device programmer for
(v) After re- allocation of addresses a loader loads the codes in RAM.
Chooses correct steps
(A) i, ii and iv
(B) i, iii, iv and vi
(C) Steps i, ii and iii
(D) i , ii and vi.
Ans C
58 Which of the following types of analog-to-digital converter has the fastest conversion
speed?
(A) Successive-approximation type
(B) Counter-type
(C) Flash-type
(D) Tracking-type
Ans C
59 What are the advantages of conditional execution feature in ARM?

(A) It helps reduce the number of branch instructions
(B) It increases the number of instructions required.
(C) It help to reduce code density.
(D) All of theses
Ans A
60 A system might be connected to a number of other devices and systems.

(i) A bus consists of a common set of lines to connect multiple devices, hardware units and
systems
(ii) A bus is used for communication between two of these at any given instance.
(iii) A bus is used for communication between all of these at the same instance
(iv) A bus may be serial bus or parallel bus to transfer one bit or multiple data bits at an
instance, respectively.
(A) i, ii and iv correct
(B) iii correct
(C) iii and iv correct
(D) all are correct.
Ans A
Elective-II
Digital Image Processing (188142/238142)
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication / E&C engineering.
Q1. A continuous image is digitised at _______ points.
A random
B vertex
C contour
D sampling
Ans.: D
Q2. What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.?
A Sampling
B Interpolation
C Filters
D None of the Mentioned
Ans.: B
Q3. Quantitatively, spatial resolution cannot be represented in which of the

following ways
A line pairs
B pixels
C dots
D none of the Mentioned
Ans.: D
Q4. The most familiar single sensor used for Image Acquisition is
A Microdensitometer
B Photodiode
C CMOS
Ans.: B
Q5 The difference is intensity between the highest and the lowest intensity
levels in an image is ___________
A Noise
B Saturation
C Contrast
D Brightness
Ans.: C
Q6. The spatial coordinates of a digital image (x,y) are proportional to:
A Position
B Brightness
C Contrast
D Noise
Ans.: B
Q7. Among the following image processing techniques which is fast, precise
and flexible.
A Optical
B Digital
C Electronic
D Photographic
Ans.: B
Q8. An image is considered to be a function of a(x,y), where a represents:
A Height of image
B Width of image
C Amplitude of image
D Resolution of image
Ans.: C
Q9. What is pixel?
A Pixel is the elements of a digital image
B Pixel is the elements of an analog image
C Pixel is the cluster of a digital image
D Pixel is the cluster of an analog image
Ans.: A
Q10. The range of values spanned by the gray scale is called:
A Dynamic range
B Band range
C Peak range
D Resolution range
Ans.: A
Q11. Which is a colour attribute that describes a pure colour?
A Saturation
B Hue
C Brightness
D Intensity
Ans.: B
Q12. Which means the assigning meaning to a recognized object.
A Interpretation
B Recognition
C Acquisition
D Segmentation
Ans.: A
Q13. What is the expanded form of JPEG?
A Joint Photographic Expansion Group
B Joint Photographic Experts Group
C Joint Photographs Expansion Group
D Joint Photographic Expanded Group
Ans.: B
Q14. The principal factor to determine the spatial resolution of an image is

_______
A Quantization
B Sampling
C Contrast
D Dynamic range
Ans.: B
Q15. How aliasing does corrupt the sampled image?
A By introducing additional frequency components to the sampled function

B By removing some frequency components from the sampled function
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q16. How can one reduce the aliasing effect on an image?
A By reducing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the image
B By increasing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the

image
C By reducing the high-frequency components of image by clarifying the image
D By increasing the high-frequency components of image by clarifying the

image
Ans.: A
Q17. For pixels p(x, y), q(s, t), the city-block distance between p and q is
defined as:
A D(p, q) = [(x – s)2 + (y – t)2]1/2
B D(p, q) = |x – s| + |y – t|
C D(p, q) = max (|x – s| + |y – t|)
Ans.: B
Q18. The domain that refers to image plane itself and the domain that refers
to Fourier transform of an image is/are :
A Spatial domain in both
B Frequency domain in both
C Spatial domain and Frequency domain respectively
D Frequency domain and Spatial domain respectively

Ans.:
Q19. Using gray-level transformation, the basic function Logarithmic deals with
which of the following transformation?
A Log and inverse-log transformations
B Negative and identity transformations
C nth and nth root transformations
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q20. If r be the gray-level of image before processing and s after processing

then which expression defines the negative transformation, for the gray-level
in the range [0, L-1]?
As=L–1–r
B s = crᵞ, c and ᵞ are positive constants
C s = c log (1 + r), c is a constant and r ≥ 0
D none of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q21. Which of the following transformations expands the value of dark pixels
while the higher-level values are being compressed?
A Log transformations
B Inverse-log transformations
C Negative transformations
Ans.: A
Q22. What is gamma correction?
A A process to remove power-law transformation response phenomena

B A process to remove log transformation response phenomena
C A process to correct log transformation response phenomena
D A process to correct power-law transformation response phenomena
Ans.: D
Q23. What is the sum of all components of a normalized histogram?
A 1
B -1
C 0
Ans.: A
Q24. Smoothing filter is used for which of the following work(s)?
A Blurring
B Noise reduction
Ans.: C
Q25. Which of the following filter(s) results in a value as average of pixels in

the
neighborhood of filter mask.
A Smoothing linear spatial filter

B Averaging filter
C Lowpass filter
Ans.: D
Q26. A spatial averaging filter having all the coefficients equal is termed
_________
A A box filter
B A weighted average filter
C A standard average filter
D A median filter
Ans.: A
Q27. An image contains noise having appearance as black and white dots
superimposed on the image. Which of the following noise(s) has the same
appearance?
A Salt-and-pepper noise
B Gaussian noise
Ans.: C
Q28. Which filter(s) used to find the brightest point in the image?
A Median filter
B Max filter
C Mean filter
Ans.: B
Q29. In linear spatial filtering, what is the pixel of the image under mask
corresponding to the mask coefficient w (1, -1), assuming a 3*3 mask?
A f (x, -y)
B f (x + 1, y)
C f (x, y – 1)
D f (x + 1, y – 1)
Ans.: D
Q30. The function of filters in Image sharpening in frequency domain is to

perform reverse operation of which of the following Low pass filter?
A Gaussian Lowpass filter

B Butterworth Lowpass filter
C Ideal Lowpass filter
Ans.: C
Q31. Which of the following statement(s) is true for the given fact that
“Applying High pass filters has an effect on the background of the output
image”?
A The average background intensity increases to near white of black and white
B The average background intensity reduces to near black
C The average background intensity changes to a value average
Ans.: B
Q32. Of the following, _________ has the maximum frequency.
A UV Rays
B Gamma Rays
C Microwaves
D Radio Waves
Ans.: B
Q33. How is radiance measured?
A lumens
B watts
C armstrong
D hertz
Ans.: B
Q34. Which of the following is used for chest and dental scans?
A Hard X-Rays
B Soft X-Rays
C Radio waves
D Infrared Rays
Ans.: B
Q35. Wavelength and frequency are related as : (c = speed of light)
A c = wavelength / frequency
B frequency = wavelength / c
C wavelength = c * frequency
D c = wavelength * frequency
Ans.: C
Q36. Which of the following is/are more commercially successful image

enhancement method in mask mode radiography, an area under medical
imaging?
A Addition
B Subtraction
C Multiplication
D Division
Ans.: B
Q37. A First derivative in image processing is implemented using which of the

following given operator(s)?
A Magnitude of Gradient vector
B The Laplacian
Ans.: A
Q38. Compressed image can be recovered back by
A image enhancement
B image decompression
C image contrast
D image equalization
Ans.: B
Q39. Coding redundancy works on
A pixels
B matrix
C intensity
D coordinates
Ans.: C
Q40. Every run length pair introduce new
A pixels
B matrix
C frames
D intensity
Ans.: D
Q41. Logic operations between two or more images are performed on pixel-
by-pixel basis, except for one that is performed on a single image. Which one
A AND
B OR
C NOT
Ans.: C
Q42. How many bit RGB color image is represented by full-color image?
A 32-bit RGB color image

B 24-bit RGB color image
C 16-bit RGB color image
D 8-bit RGB color image
Ans.: B
Q43. Which file types use Lossless compression?
A JPEG
B GIF
C BMP
D PNG
Ans.: B,D
Q44. Makes the file smaller by deleting parts of the file permanently (forever)
A Lossy Compression
B Lossless Compression
Ans.: A
Q45. What would you use compression for?
A Making an image file smaller

B Modifying an image
Ans.: A
Q46. Which of these is an advantage for Lossy compression?
A The file size becomes significantly (much) smaller

B The file size does not become much smaller than 50%
C none of the above
Ans.: A
Q47. For line detection we use mask that is
A Gaussian
B laplacian
C ideal
D butterworth
Ans.: B
Q48. A typical Fourier Spectrum with spectrum value ranging from 0 to 106,
which of the following transformation is better to apply.
A nonzero
B zero
C positive
D negative
Ans.: B
Q49. For edge detection we observes
A intensity transition
B shape transition
C color transition
D sign transition
Ans.: D
Q50. Thresholding is the example of
A discontinuity
B similarity
C continuity
D recognition
Ans.: A
Q51. Imaging in geological exploration, industry and medicine uses
A audio
B sound
C sunlight
D ultraviolet
Ans.: B
Q52. Which waves can penetrate through clouds
A ultrasonic
B radar
C visible and infrared
D Infrared
Ans.: B
Q53. Imaging system produces
A high resolution image

B voltage signal
C digitized image
D analog signal
Ans.: C
Q54. The digitization process i.e. the digital image has M rows and N columns,
requires decisions about values for M, N, and for the number, L, of gray levels
allowed for each pixel. The value M and N have to be:
A M and N have to be positive integer

B M and N have to be negative integer
C M have to be negative and N have to be positive integer
D M have to be positive and N have to be negative integer
Ans.: A
Q55. After digitization process a digital image with M rows and N columns
have to be positive and for the number, L, max gray levels i.e. an integer
power of 2 for each pixel. Then, the number b, of bits required to store a
digitized image is:
A b=M*N*k
B b=M*N*L
C b=M*L*k
D b=L*N*k
Ans.: A
Q56. In _______ image we notice that the components of histogram are

concentrated on the low side on intensity scale.
A bright
B dark
C colourful
D All of the Mentioned
Ans.: B
Q57. Histogram Equalization is mainly used for ________________
A Image enhancement
B Blurring
C Contrast adjustment
Ans.: A
Q58. Which type of Histogram Processing is suited for minute detailed

enhancements?
A Intensive
B Local
C Global
D Random
Ans.: A
Q59. Which type of Histogram Processing is suited for minute detailed

enhancements?
A Intensive
B Local
C Global
D Random
Ans.: B
Q60. The characteristics of the low pass filter h(x, y) is/are_________
A Has a dominant component at origin
B Has concentric, circular components about the centre component
Ans.: C
Subject :Digital Image Processing
Branch: E&TC
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
1)Intensity levels in 8-bit image are
A)128
B)255
C)256
D)512
Ans:C
2) In image accentuating a specific range is called
A) Slicing
B) Color Slicing
C) Enhancing
D) Cutting
Ans:B
3) A type of Image is called as VHRR image. What is the definition of VHRR image?
A) Very High Range Resolution image
B) Very High Resolution Range image
C) Very High Resolution Radiometer image
D) Very High Range Radiometer Image
Ans:C
4) Low pass filtering can be applied in following areas
A) The field of machine perception, with application of character recognition
B) In field of printing and publishing industry
C)In field of processing satellite and aerial images
D)All of the mentioned
Ans:D
5)Black Color is represented by

A) 0
B)255
C)256
D)1
Ans:A
6) The Image sharpening in frequency domain can be achieved by which of the following method(s)?
A) Attenuating the high frequency components
B) Attenuating the low-frequency components
C) All of the mentioned
D) None of the mentioned
Ans:B
7) The function of filters in Image sharpening in frequency domain is to perform reverse operation of
which of the following Lowpass filter?
A) Gaussian Lowpass filter
B) Butterworth Lowpass filter
C) Ideal Lowpass filter
D) None
Ans:C
8) The edges and other abrupt changes in gray-level of an image are associated with_________
A) High frequency components
B) Low frequency components
C) Edges with high frequency and other abrupt changes in gray-level with low frequency components
D) Edges with low frequency and other abrupt changes in gray-level with high frequency components
Ans:A
9)Gradient computation equation is
A) |Gx|+|Gy|
B) |Gx|-|Gy|
C) |Gx|/|Gy|
D) |Gx|x|Gy|
Ans:A
10) Which of the following statement(s) is true for the given fact that “Applying Highpass filters has an
effect on the background of the output image”?
A) The average background intensity increases to near white
B) The average background intensity reduces to near black
C) The average background intensity changes to a value average of black and white
D) All of the mentioned
Ans:B
11)Gaussian noise is referred to as
A) Red Noise
B) White Noise
C) Black Noise
D) Normal Noise
Ans:D
12)Convolution in spatial domain is multiplication in
A) Frequency
B) Time
C) Spatial
D) Plane
Ans:A
13) In medicine radio waves are used in
A) MRI
B) surgery
C) CT scan
D) Injections
Ans:A
14 Which one is not the process of image processing
A) high level
B) low level
C) last level
D) Mid level
Ans:C
15) Filters that replaces pixel value with medians of intensity levels is
A) Arithematic mean Filter
B) Geometric mean Filter
C) Median Filter
D) Sequence Mean Filter
Ans:C
16)The spatial coordinates of a digital image (x,y) are proportional to
A) Position
B) Brightness
C) Contrast
D) Saturation
Ans:B
17)Among the following image processing techniques which is fast, precise and flexible
A) Optical
B) Digital
C) Electronic
D) Photographic
Ans:B
18)An image is considered to be a function of a(x,y), where a represents
A) Height of image
B) Width of image
C) Amplitude of image
D) Resolution of image
Ans:C
19)The range of values spanned by the gray scale is called
A) Dynamic range
B) Band range
C) Peak range
D) Resolution range
Ans:A
20) Which is a colour attribute that describes a pure colour?
A) Saturation
B) Hue
C) Brightness
D) Intensity
Ans:B
21) Which one is not the area of digital image processing
A) law enforcement
B) lithography
C) medicine
D) voice calling
Ans:D
22)Which means the assigning meaning to a recognized object
A) Interpretation
B) Recognition
C) Acquisition
D) Segmentation
Ans:A
23)A typical size comparable in quality to monochromatic TV image is of size
A) 256 X 256
B) 512 X 512
C) 1920 X 1080
D) 1080 X 1080
Ans:B
24)The number of gray values are integer powers of
A) 4
B)2
C)8
D)1
Ans:B
25)What is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?
A) Image restoration
B) Image enhancement
C) Image acquisition
D) Segmentation
Ans:C
26)In which step of processing, the images are subdivided successively into smaller regions?
A) Image enhancement
B) Image acquisition
C) Segmentation
D) wavelet
Ans:D
27)What is the next step in image processing after compression?
A) Wavelets
B) Representation and description
C) Segmentation
D) Morphological processing
Ans:D
28) What is the step that is performed before color image processing in image processing?
A) Wavelets and multi resolution processing
B) Image enhancement
C) Image acquisition
D) Image restoration
Ans:D
29)How many number of steps are involved in image processing?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 12
Ans:A
30)What is the expanded form of JPEG?
A) Joint Photographic Expansion Group
B) Joint Photographic Experts Group
C) Joint Photographic Expanded Group
D) Joint Photographs Expansion Group
Ans:B
31)Which of the following step deals with tools for extracting image components those are useful in
the representation and description of shape?
A) Representation & description
B) Segmentation
C) Compression
D) Morphological processing
Ans:D
32)In which step of the processing, assigning a label (e.g., “vehicle”) to an object based on its
descriptors is done?
A) Object recognition
B) Morphological processing
C) Representation & description
D) Segmentation
Ans:A
33)What role does the segmentation play in image processing?
A) Deals with extracting attributes that result in some quantitative information of interest
B) Deals with techniques for reducing the storage required saving an image, or the bandwidth
required transmitting it
C) Deals with property in which images are subdivided successively into smaller regions
D) Deals with partitioning an image into its constituent parts or objects
Ans:D
34)What is the correct sequence of steps in image processing?
A) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Image restoration->Color image processing-

>Compression->Wavelets and multi resolution processing->Morphological processing-
>Segmentation->Representation & description->Object recognition
B) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Image restoration->Color image processing->Wavelets

and multi resolution processing->Compression->Morphological processing->Segmentation-
>Representation & description->Object recognition
C) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Color image processing->Image restoration->Wavelets

and multi resolution processing->Compression->Morphological processing->Segmentation-
>Representation & description->Object recognition
D) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Image restoration->Color image processing->Wavelets

and multi resolution processing->Compression->Morphological processing->Representation &
description->Segmentation->Object recognition
Ans:B
35) A structured light illumination technique was used for lens deformation
A) lens deformation
B) inverse filtering
C) lens enhancement
D)lens error
Ans:A
36) Tomography is the algorithm that uses images
A) edges
B) slices
C) boundaries
D) illumination
Ans:B
37) Major use of gamma rays imaging includes
A) Radars
B) astronomical observations
C) industry
D) lithography
Ans:B
38) Angiography uses what technique
A) Image addition
B) Image Multiplication
C) Image division
D) None
Ans:B
39)What is the sum of the coefficient of the mask defined using HPF?
A) 1
B) -1
C) 0
D) None of the mentioned
Ans:C
40)Which is not an example of image processing
A ) thumb prints
B) paper currency
C)mp3
D)lisence plate detection
Ans:C
41) An image is a two dimensional function where x and y are
A) spatial coordinates
B) frequency coordinates
C)time coordinates
D) real coordinates
Ans:A
42) Lithography uses
A) ultraviolet
B) x-rays
C)gamma
D) visible rays
Ans:A
43) Image subtraction is used for
A)color enhancement
B) Frequency enhancement
C)Spatial enhancement
D)Detection
Ans:D
44) Sensor strip mounted in a ring configuration is used in
A) microscopy
B) medical
C) industry
D) radar
Ans:B
45)1024 x 1024 image has resolution of
A) 1048576
B) 1148576
C) 1248576
D) 1348576
Ans:A
46)The lens is made up of concentric layers of
A) strong cells
B) inner cells
C) fibrous cells
D) outer cells
Ans:C
47)Radio wave band encompasses
A) audio
B) AM
C) FM
D) Both b and c
Ans:D
48)L = 23 would have
A) 2 levels
B) 4levels
C) 8 levels
D) 16 levels
Ans:C
49)Digital images are displayed as a discrete set if
A) values
B) numbers
C) frequencies
D) intensities
Ans:D
50)In MxN, M is no of
A) intensity levels
B) colors
C) rows
D) columns
Ans:C
51) Each element of the matrix is called
A) dots
B) coordinate
C) pixels
D) value
Ans:C
52)Imaging system produces
A) high resolution image
B) low resolution image
C) digitized image
D) analog signal
Ans:C
53)Digitizing the coordinate values is called
A) radiance
B) variance
C) sampling
D) quantization
Ans:C
54) The smallest element of an image is called
A) pel
B) dot
C) resolution
D) digits
Ans:A
55)Types of imaging sensors are

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Ans:B
56)E = hv in this expression, h is called
A) speed of light
B) light constant
C) plank's constant
D) acceleration constant
Ans:C
57)DPI stands for
A) dots per image
B) dots per inches
C) dots per intensity
D) diameter per inches
Ans:B
58)No of bits to store image is denoted by the formula
A) b = NxK
B) b = MxN
C) b = MxNxK
D) b = MxK
Ans: C
59) MRI in imaging stands for
A) magnetic resonance imaging
B) magnetic resistance imaging
C) magnetic resonance intensity
D) major resonance imaging
Ans:A
60)Digitizing the amplitude values is called

A) radiance
B) illuminance
C) sampling
D) quantization
Ans:D
Subject: Digital Image Processing Branch:E&TC
Class:BE Semester:VIII
1. What is the third step in digital image processing?
(A) Image Restoration
(B) Segmentation
(C) Image Enhancement
(D) Colour Image Processing
Ans: a
2. Digitizing the coordinate values of a continuous image is called
(A) Compression
(B) Quantization
(C) Sampling
(D) Segmentation
Ans: c
3. _____ is the total amount of energy that flows from light source.
(A) Radiance
(B) Darkness
(C) Brightness
(D) Luminance
Ans: a
4.Lossy compression is useful in

(A) Military imaging
(B) Space imaging
(C) Medical imaging
(D) Television broad casting
Ans: d
5. A continuous image is digitised at _______ points.

a) random
b) vertex
c) contour
d) sampling
Ans: d
6.The transition between continuous values of the image function and its digital equivalent is
called ______________
a) Quantisation
b) Sampling
c) Rasterisation
d) None of the Mentioned
Ans:a
7. Images quantised with insufficient brightness levels will lead to the occurrence of
____________
a) Pixillation
b) Blurring
c) False Contours
d)none of the above
Ans:c
8.The smallest discernible change in intensity level is called ____________
a) Intensity Resolution
b) Contour
c) Saturation
d) Contrast
Ans:a
9. What is the tool used in tasks such as zooming, shrinking, rotating, etc.?
a) Sampling
b) Interpolation
c) Filters
d)none of the above
Ans:b
10. The type of Interpolation where for each new location the intensity of the immediate pixel
is assigned is ___________
a) bicubic interpolation
b) cubic interpolation
c) bilinear interpolation
d) nearest neighbour interpolation
Ans:d
11. The type of Interpolation where the intensity of the FOUR neighbouring pixels is used to
obtain intensity a new location is called __________
a) Cubic interpolation
b) nearest neighbour interpolation
c) bilinear interpolation
d) bicubic interpolation
Ans: b
12. Dynamic range of imaging system is a ratio where the upper limit is determined by
a)Saturation
b) Noise
c) Brightness
d) Contrast
Ans:a
13. For Dynamic range ratio the lower limit is determined by

a) Saturation
b) Brightness
c) Noise
d) Contrast
Ans:c
14. Quantitatively, spatial resolution cannot be represented in which of the following ways
a) line pairs
b) pixels
c) dots
d) none of the Mentioned
Ans:d
15.A geometry consisting of in-line arrangement of sensors for image acquisition

a) A photodiode
b) Sensor strips
c) Sensor arrays
d) CMOS
Ans:b
16. The process of using known data to estimate values at unknown locations is called
a) Acquisition
b) Interpolation
c) Pixelation
Ans:b
17. What is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?

a) Image restoration
b) Image enhancement
c) Image acquisition
d) Segmentation
Ans:c
18. In which step of processing, the images are subdivided successively into smaller regions?
a) Image enhancement
b) Image acquisition
c) Segmentation
d) Wavelets
Ans:c
19. How many number of steps are involved in image processing?

a) 10
b) 9
c) 11
d) 12
Ans:a
20. What is the expanded form of JPEG?

a) Joint Photographic Expansion Group
b) Joint Photographic Experts Group
c) Joint Photographs Expansion Group
d) Joint Photographic Expanded Group
Ans:b
21.The principal factor to determine the spatial resolution of an image is _______
a) Quantization
b) Sampling
c) Contrast
d) Dynamic range
Ans:b
22. What causes the effect, imperceptible set of very fine ridge like structures in areas of
smooth gray levels?
a) Caused by the use of an insufficient number of gray levels in smooth areas of a digital
image
b) Caused by the use of huge number of gray levels in smooth areas of a digital image
c) All of the mentioned
Ans:a
23. What is the name of the effect caused by the use of an insufficient number of gray levels
in smooth areas of a digital image?
a) Dynamic range
b) Ridging
c) Graininess
d) False contouring
Ans:d
24. Using rough rule of thumb, and assuming powers of 2 for convenience, what image size
are about the smallest images that can be expected to be reasonably free of objectionable
sampling checkerboards and false contouring?
a) 512*512pixels and 16 gray levels
b) 256*256pixels and 64 gray levels
c) 64*64pixels and 16 gray levels
d) 32*32pixels and 32 gray levels
Ans:b
25. What does a shift up and right in the curves of isopreference curve simply means? Verify
in terms of N (number of pixels) and k (L=2k, L is the gray level) values.
a) Smaller values for N and k, implies a better picture quality
b) Larger values for N and k, implies low picture quality
c) Larger values for N and k, implies better picture quality
d) Smaller values for N and k, implies low picture quality
Ans:c
26. How does the curves behave to the detail in the image in isopreference curve?
a) Curves tend to become more vertical as the detail in the image decreases
b) Curves tend to become less vertical as the detail in the image increases
c) Curves tend to become less vertical as the detail in the image decreases
d) Curves tend to become more vertical as the detail in the image increases
Ans:d
27. For an image with a large amount of detail, if the value of N (number of pixels) is fixed
then what is the gray level dependency in the perceived quality of this type of image?
a) Totally independent of the number of gray levels used
b) Nearly independent of the number of gray levels used
c) Highly dependent of the number of gray levels used
Ans:b
28. What is a band-limited function?

a) A function of limited duration whose highest frequency is finite
b) A function of limited duration whose highest frequency is infinite
Ans:a
29. For a band-limited function, which Theorem says that “if the function is sampled at a rate
equal to or greater than twice its highest frequency, the original function can be recovered
from its samples”?
a) Band-limitation theorem
b) Aliasing frequency theorem
c) Shannon sampling theorem
Ans:c
30. What is the name of the phenomenon that corrupts the sampled image, and how does it
happen?
a) Shannon sampling, if the band-limited functions are undersampled
b) Shannon sampling, if the band-limited functions are oversampled
c) Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are undersampled
d) Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are oversampled
Ans:c
31. How aliasing does corrupts the sampled image?

a) By introducing additional frequency components to the sampled function
b) By removing some frequency components from the sampled function
Ans:a
32. How can one reduce the aliasing effect on an image?

a) By reducing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the image
b) By increasing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the image
c) By reducing the high-frequency components of image by clarifying the image
d) By increasing the high-frequency components of image by clarifying the image
Ans:a
33If h(rk) = nk, rk the kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is a histogram in gray
level range [0, L – 1]. Then how can we normalize a histogram?
a) If each value of histogram is added by total number of pixels in image, say n, p(rk)=nk+n
b) If each value of histogram is subtracted by total number of pixels in image, say n, p(rk)=nk-
n
c) If each value of histogram is multiplied by total number of pixels in image, say n,
p(rk)=nk * n
d) If each value of histogram is divided by total number of pixels in image, say n, p(rk)=nk / n
Ans:d
34. What is the sum of all components of a normalized histogram?

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
Ans:a
35. A low contrast image will have what kind of histogram when, the histogram, h(rk) = nk,
rk the kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is plotted nk versus rk?
a) The histogram that are concentrated on the dark side of gray scale
b) The histogram whose component are biased toward high side of gray scale
c) The histogram that is narrow and centered toward the middle of gray scale
d) The histogram that covers wide range of gray scale and the distribution of pixel is
approximately uniform
Ans:c
36. A bright image will have what kind of histogram, when the histogram, h(rk) = nk, rk the
kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is plotted nk versus rk?
a) The histogram that are concentrated on the dark side of gray scale
b) The histogram whose component are biased toward high side of gray scale
c) The histogram that is narrow and centered toward the middle of gray scale
d) The histogram that covers wide range of gray scale and the distribution of pixel is
approximately uniform
Ans:b
37. A high contrast image and a dark image will have what kind of histogram respectively,
when the histogram, h(rk) = nk, rk the kthgray level and nk total pixels with gray level rk, is
plotted nk versus rk?
The histogram that are concentrated on the dark side of gray scale.
The histogram whose component are biased toward high side of gray scale.
The histogram that is narrow and centered toward the middle of gray scale.
The histogram that covers wide range of gray scale and the distribution of pixel is
approximately uniform.
a) I) And II) respectively
b) III) And II) respectively
c) II) And IV) respectively
d) IV) And I) respectively
Ans:d
38. The transformation s = T(r) producing a gray level s for each pixel value r of input image.
Then, if the T(r) is single valued in interval 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, what does it signifies?
a) It guarantees the existence of inverse transformation
b) It is needed to restrict producing of some inverted gray levels in output
c) It guarantees that the output gray level and the input gray level will be in same range
Ans:a
Then, if the T(r) is monotonically increasing in interval 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, what does it signifies?
Ans:b
Then, if the T(r) is satisfying 0 ≤ T(r) ≤ 1 in interval 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, what does it signifies?
Ans:c
41. What is the full form for PDF, a fundamental descriptor of random variables i.e. gray
values in an image?
a) Pixel distribution function
b) Portable document format
c) Pel deriving function
d) Probability density function
Ans:d
42. What is the full form of CDF?

a) Cumulative density function
b) Contour derived function
c) Cumulative distribution function
Ans:c
43. For the transformation T(r) = [∫0r pr(w) dw], r is gray value of input image, pr(r) is PDF of
random variable r and w is a dummy variable. If, the PDF are always positive and that the
function under integral gives the area under the function, the transformation is said to be
__________
a) Single valued
b) Monotonically increasing
Ans:c
44. The transformation T (rk) = ∑k(j=0) nj /n, k = 0, 1, 2, …, L-1, where L is max gray value
possible and r-k is the kthgray level, is called _______
a) Histogram linearization
b) Histogram equalization
Ans:c
45. If the histogram of same images, with different contrast, are different, then what is the
relation between the histogram equalized images?
a) They look visually very different from one another
b) They look visually very similar to one another
c) They look visually different from one another just like the input images
Ans:b
46.In 4-neighbours of a pixel p, how far are each of the neighbours located from p?
a) one pixel apart
b) four pixels apart
c) alternating pixels
Ans:a
47. If S is a subset of pixels, pixels p and q are said to be ____________ if there exists a path
between them consisting of pixels entirely in S.
a) continuous
b) ambiguous
c) connected
Ans:c
48. If R is a subset of pixels, we call R a _________ of the image if R is a connected set.

a) Disjoint
b) Region
c) Closed
d) Adjacent
Ans:b
49. Two regions are said to be ___________ if their union forms a connected set.
a) Adjacent
b) Disjoint
c) Closed
Ans:a
50. If an image contains K disjoint regions, what does the union of all the regions represent?
a) Background
b) Foreground
c) Outer Border
d) Inner Border
Ans:b
51. For a region R, the set of points that are adjacent to the complement of R is called as
________
a) Boundary
b) Border
c) Contour
d) All of the Mentioned
Ans:d
52. The distance between pixels p and q, the pixels have a distance less than or equal to some
value of radius r centred at (x,y) is called :
a) Euclidean distance
b) City-Block distance
c) Chessboard distance
Ans:a
value of radius r, form a diamond centred at (x,y) is called :
b) Chessboard distance
c) City-Block distance
Ans:c
value of radius r, form a square centred at (x,y) is called :
b) Chessboard distance
c) City-Block distance
Ans:b
55. Which of the following is NOT is not a type of Adjacency?

a) 4-Adjacency
b) 8-Adjacency
c) m-Adjacency
Ans:d
56. What is accepting or rejecting certain frequency components called as?

a) Filtering
b) Eliminating
c) Slicing
Ans:a
57. A filter that passes low frequencies is _____________

a) Band pass filter
b) High pass filter
c) Low pass filter
Ans:c
58. What is the process of moving a filter mask over the image and computing the sum of
products at each location called as?
a) Convolution
b) Correlation
c) Linear spatial filtering
d) Non linear spatial filtering
Ans:b
59. The standard deviation controls ___________ of the bell (2-D Gaussian function of bell
shape).
a) Size
b) Curve
c) Tightness
Ans:c
60. What is required to generate an M X N linear spatial filter?

a) MN mask coefficients
b) M+N coordinates
c) MN spatial coefficients
Ans:a
Subject: - Digital Signal Processing
Class: - BE
Semester: - VII
1. If x (n) is a discrete-time signal, then the value of x (n) at non integer value of ‘n’ is?
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Not defined
Answer: d) Not defined
1. The discrete time function defined as u(n)=n for n≥0;u(n)=0 for n<0 is an _____________
a) Unit sample signal
b) Unit step signal
c) Unit ramp signal
Answer: c) Unit ramp signal
2. The signal given by the equation ∑∞n=−∞|x(n)|2 is known as __________

a) Energy signal
b) Power signal
c) Work done signal
Answer: a) Energy signal
3. x(n)*δ(n-k)=?
a) x(n)
b) x(k)
c) x(k)*δ(n-k)
d) x(k)*δ(k)
Answer: c) x(k)*δ(n-k)
4. A real valued signal x(n) is called as anti-symmetric if ___________

a) x(n)=x(-n)
b) x(n)=-x(-n)
c) x(n)=-x(n)
Answer: b) x(n)=-x(-n)
5. The odd part of a signal x(t) is?
a) x(t)+x(-t)
b) x(t)-x(-t)
c) (1/2)*(x(t)+x(-t))
d) (1/2)*(x(t)-x(-t))
Answer: d) (1/2)*(x(t)-x(-t))
6. The function given by the equation x(n)=1, for n=0; x(n)=0, for n≠0 is a _____________
a) Step function
b) Ramp function
c) Triangular function
d) Impulse function
Answer: d) Impulse function
7. Which of the following is the process of ‘aliasing’?

a) Peaks overlapping
b) Phase overlapping
c) Amplitude overlapping
d) Spectral overlapping
Answer: d) Spectral overlapping
8. Find the Nyquist rate and Nyquist interval for the signal f (t) = [(sin500πt) / πt].
a) 500 Hz, 2 sec
b) 500 Hz, 2 msec
c) 2 Hz, 500 sec
d) 2 Hz, 500 msec
Answer: b) 500 Hz, 2 msec
9. The sampling frequency of a signal is Fs = 2000 samples per second. Find its Nyquist interval.
a) 0.5 sec
b) 5 msec
c) 5 sec
d) 0.5 msec
Answer: d) 0.5 msec
10.Autocorrelation is a _______ function.

a) Real and even
b) Real and odd
c) Complex and even
d) Complex and odd
Answer: a) Real and even
11. Autocorrelation function of periodic signal is equal to _______
a) Energy of the signal
b) Power of the signal
c) Its area in frequency domain
Answer: b) Power of the signal
12.Autocorrelation is maximum at _______

a) Unity
b) Origin
c) Infinite point
Answer: b) Origin
13.Autocorrelation is a function which matches

a) Two same signals
b) Two different signal
c) One signal with its delayed version
Answer: c) One signal with its delayed version
14.Cross correlation is a function which matches

a) Two same signals
b) Two different signal
c) One signal with its delayed version
Answer: b) Two different signal
15.The convolution of a discrete signal with itself is _________

a) Squaring the signal
b) Doubling the signal
c) Adding two signals
d) is not possible
Answer: a) Squaring the signal
16.The unit step response of an L.T.I. system is the convolution of a step signal and it’s ________
a) Impulse response
b) Ramp response
c) Parabolic response
d) Time response
Answer: a) Impulse response
17. The system described by the input-output equation y(n)=nx(n)+bx3(n) is a __________
a) Static system
b) Dynamic system
c) Identical system
Answer: a) Static system
18.If the output of the system of the system at any ‘n’ depends only the present or the past values
of the inputs then the system is said to be __________
a) Linear
b) Non-Linear
c) Causal
d) Non-causal
Answer: c) Causal
19. If a system do not have a bounded output for bounded input, then the system is said to be
__________
a) Causal
b) Non-causal
c) Stable
d) Non-stable
Answer: d) Non-stable
20.What is the set of all values of z for which X(z) attains a finite value?
a) Radius of convergence
b) Radius of divergence
c) Feasible solution
Answer: a) Radius of convergence
21.What is the z-transform of the following finite duration signal?
a) 2 + 4z + 5z2 + 7z3 + z4
b) 2 + 4z + 5z2 + 7z3 + z5
c) 2 + 4z-1 + 5z-2 + 7z-3 + z-5
d) 2z2 + 4z + 5 +7z-1 + z-3
Answer: d) 2z2 + 4z + 5 +7z-1 + z-3
22. What is the ROC of the signal x(n)=δ(n-k), k>0?
a) z=0
b) z=∞
c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
d) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
Answer: c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
23. What is the ROC of the z-transform of the signal x(n)= anu(n)+bnu(-n-1)?
a) |a|<|z|<|b|
b) |a|>|z|>|b|
c) |a|>|z|<|b|
d) |a|<|z|>|b|
Answer: a) |a|<|z|<|b|
24. What is the ROC of z-transform of finite duration anti-causal sequence?

a) z=0
b) z=∞
c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
d) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
Answer: d) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
25. The z-transform of a sequence x(n) which is given as X(z)=∑∞n=−∞x(n)z−n is known as

_____________
a) Uni-lateral Z-transform
b) Bi-lateral Z-transform
c) Tri-lateral Z-transform
Answer: b) Bi-lateral Z-transform
26. If X(z) is the z-transform of the signal x(n) then what is the z-transform of anx(n)?
a) X(az)
b) X(az-1)
c) X(a-1z)
Answer: c) X(a-1z)
27. If x(n) is causal, then limz→∞ X(z)=?
a) x(-1)
b) x(1)
c) x(0)
Answer: c) x(0)
28. What is the z-transform of the signal x(n)=δ(n-n0)?

a) zno
b) z-no
c) zn-n0
d) zn+n0
Answer: b) z-no
29. What are the values of z for which the value of X(z)=0?
a) Poles
b) Zeros
c) Solutions
Answer: b) Zeros
30. The z-transform of a signal x(n) whose definition is given by X(z)=∑∞ is known as
_____________
a) Unilateral z-transform
b) Bilateral z-transform
c) Rational z-transform
Answer: a) Unilateral z-transform
31. For what kind of signals one sided z-transform is unique?

a) All signals
b) Anti-causal signal
c) Causal signal
Answer: c) Causal signal
32. If all the poles of H(z) are outside the unit circle, then the system is said to be _____________
a) Only causal
b) Only BIBO stable
c) BIBO stable and causal
Answer: d) None of the mentioned
33. If all the poles of H(z) are inside the unit circle, then the system is said to be ____________
a) Only causal
b) Only BIBO stable
c) BIBO stable and causal
Answer: c) BIBO stable and causal
34. If the ROC of the system function is the exterior of a circle of radius r < ∞, including the point z
= ∞, then the system is said to be ___________
a) Stable
b) Causal
c) Anti causal
Answer: b) Causal
35. If all the poles have small magnitudes, then the rate of decay of signal is __________
a) Slow
b) Constant
c) Rapid
Answer: c) Rapid
36. If one or more poles are located near the unit circle, then the rate of decay of signal is
_________
a) Slow
b) Constant
c) Rapid
Answer: a) Slow
37. A linear time invariant system is said to be BIBO stable if and only if the ROC of the system
function _____________
a) Includes unit circle
b) Excludes unit circle
c) Is an unit circle
Answer: a) Includes unit circle
38. If x(n) and X(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X(k+N)=?
a) X(-k)
b) -X(k)
c) X(k)
Answer: c) X(k)
39. If x(n) and X(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then x(n+N)=x(n).
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
40. If X1(k) and X2(k) are the N-point DFTs of X1(n) and x2(n) respectively, then what is the N-point
DFT of x(n)=ax1(n)+bx2(n)?
a) X1(ak)+X2(bk)
b) aX1(k)+bX2(k)
c) eakX1(k)+ebkX2(k)
Answer: b) aX1(k)+bX2(k)
41. If x(n) is a real sequence and X(k) is its N-point DFT, then which of the following is true?
a) X(N-k)=X(-k)
b) X(N-k)=X*(k)
c) X(-k)=X*(k)
42. What is the circular convolution of the sequences X1(n)={2,1,2,1} and x2(n)={1,2,3,4}?
a) {14,14,16,16}
b) {16,16,14,14}
c) {2,3,6,4}
d) {14,16,14,16}
Answer: d) {14,16,14,16}
43. If X(k) is the N-point DFT of a sequence x(n), then what is the DFT of x*(n)?
a) X(N-k)
b) X*(k)
c) X*(N-k)
Answer: c) X*(N-k)
44. If W4100=Wx200, then what is the value of x?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
Answer: c) 8
45. Which of the following is true regarding the number of computations required to compute an
N-point DFT?
a) N2 complex multiplications and N(N-1) complex additions
b) N2 complex additions and N(N-1) complex multiplications
c) N2 complex multiplications and N(N+1) complex additions
d) N2 complex additions and N(N+1) complex multiplications
Answer: a) N2 complex multiplications and N(N-1) complex additions
46. WNk+N/2=?
a) WNk
b) -WNk
c) WN-k
Answer: b) -WNk
47. How many complex multiplications are required to compute X(k)?

a) N(N+1)
b) N(N-1)/2
c) N2/2
d) N(N+1)/2
Answer: d) N(N+1)/2
48. For a decimation-in-time FFT algorithm, which of the following is true?
a) Both input and output are in order
b) Both input and output are shuffled
c) Input is shuffled and output is in order
d) Input is in order and output is shuffled
Answer: c) Input is shuffled and output is in order
49. For a decimation-in-Frequency FFT algorithm, which of the following is true?

a) Both input and output are in order
b) Both input and output are shuffled
c) Input is shuffled and output is in order
d) Input is in order and output is shuffled
Answer: c) Input is in order and output is shuffled
50. How many complex multiplications are need to be performed for each FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) Nlog2N
c) (N/2)log2N
Answer: c) (N/2)log2N
51. How many complex additions are required to be performed in linear filtering of a sequence
using FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) 2Nlog2N
c) (N/2)log2N
d) Nlog2N
Answer: b) 2Nlog2N
52. The circular convolution of two sequences in time domain is equivalent to

a) Multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
b) Summation of DFTs of two sequences
c) Difference of DFTs of two sequences
d) Square of multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
Answer: a) Multiplication of DFTs of two sequences
53. Circular shift of an N point is equivalent to

a) Circular shift of its periodic extension and its vice versa
b) Linear shift of its periodic extension and its vice versa
c) Circular shift of its aperiodic extension and its vice versa
d) Linear shift of its aperiodic extension and its vice versa
Answer: b). Linear shift of its periodic extension and its vice versa
54. The basic properties of DFT includes
1) Linearity
2) Periodicity
3) Circular symmetry
4) Summation
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) All the four are correct.
Answer: a). 1, 2 and 3 are correct
55. Frequency selectivity characteristics of DFT refers to

a) Ability to resolve different frequency components from input signal
b) Ability to translate into frequency domain
c) Ability to convert into discrete signal
d) None of the above.
Answer: a) Ability to resolve different frequency components from input signal
56. Which of the following parameters are required to calculate the correlation between the
signals x(n) and y(n)?
a) Time delay
b) Attenuation factor
c) Noise signal
57. Which of the following relation is true?

a) rxy(l)= rxy(-l)
b) rxy(l)= ryx(l)
c) rxy(l)= ryx(-l)
Answer: c) rxy(l)= ryx(-l)
58. The following butterfly diagram is used in the computation of __________
a) Decimation-in-time FFT
b) Decimation-in-frequency FFT
Answer: a) Decimation-in-time FFT
59. The following butterfly diagram is used in the computation of __________
a) Decimation-in-time FFT
b) Decimation-in-frequency FFT
Answer: b) Decimation-in-frequency FFT
Subject:- Embedded System
Branch:- Electronics
Class:- BE
Semester :- VIII
Q1. Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a sequential program into
finite-state machine and register transfers while designing an embedded system?
A.System
B. Behaviour
C.RT
D. Logic
Ans:- B
Q.2. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
A.Ability to fit on a single chip B. Low power consumption C. Fast data processing for real-time
operations D. All of the above
Ans:- D
Q.3. What is meant by CAN
A. Controlled Area Network B. Controlled Application Net C.Controlled Access Net D. Controlled
Advanced Network
Ans:- A
Q.4. How is the nature of instruction size in CISC processors?
A.Fixed B. Variable C. both a and b D. None of above.
Ans:- B
Q.5. What is RISC?
A.Reduced Instruction Set for computers B. Risk Instruction Set for computers C. Rapid Instruction Set
for computers D. Return Instruction Set for computers
Ans:- A
Q.6. What is ARM ?

A.Application Reduced Machine B. Android Reduced Machine C. Advanced RISC Machine D. Applied
Reduced Machine
Ans:- C
Q.7. What is the sequence of 3 stage Pipeline.
A.fetch, decode , execute B. decode, execute, fetch C. execute, decode, fetch D. fetch, execute, decode
Ans:- A
Q.8. Bluetooth used for exchanging data over ________ distance.
A.long distance B. long and short distance C. short distance D. None of above
Ans:- C
Q.9 An IC has …………….. size
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small
Ans:- C
Q.10. ICs are generally made of ………………
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
Ans:- A
Q.11. ……………… ICs are the most commonly used
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
Ans:- B
Q.12. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC
A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
D. Large inductors and transformers
Ans:- D
Q.13. The active components in an IC are ………….

A. Resistors
B. Capacitors
C. Transistors and diodes
Ans:- C
Q.14. ICs are used in ……………
A. Linear devices only

B. Digital devices only
C. Both linear and digital devices
Ans. C
Q.15. What is CISC
A.Complex Instruction Set for computers B. Compare Instruction Set for computers C. Computer
Instruction Set for computers D. Connected Instruction Set for computers
Ans:- A
Q.16. ARM processors where basically designed for .

A. Main frame systems B. Distributed systems C. Mobile systems D. Supercomputers
Ans:- C
Q.17. The ARM processors doesn’t support Byte address ability?

A.True B.False
Ans:- B
Q.18. The address space in ARM is .
A. 2^24 B. 2^64 C. 2^16 D. 2^32
Ans:- D
Q.19. The address system supported by ARM systems is/are .

A. Little Endian B. Big Endian C. X-Little Endian D. Both a and b
Ans:- D
Q.20 In ARM, PC is implemented using .

A. Caches B. Heaps C .General purpose register D. Stack
Ans:- C
Q.21 The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines are called as .
A. Copied-registers B. Banked registers C. Extra registers D.Extensile registers
Ans:- B
Q.22 The banked registers are used for,
A. Switching between supervisor and interrupt mode
B. Extended storing
C. Same as other general purpose registers
D. Both a and c
Ans:- A
Q.23 Each instruction in ARM machines is encoded into Word.

A.2byte
B. 3byte
C. 4byte
D. 8 byte
Ans:- C
Q.24 All instructions in ARM are conditionally executed.

A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
Q.25 The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents of Rn is .
A. Pre-indexed mode
B. Pre-indexed with write back mode
C. Post-indexed mode
Ans:- C
Q.26 The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode, MOVE[Rn]+Rm is
.
A.EA =[Rn]
B.EA = [Rn +Rm]
C.EA = [Rn] +Rm
D.EA = [Rm] + Rn
Ans:-A
Q.27 RTOS means
A. Real Time Operating System
B. Real Time oscillator System
Ans:- A
Q.28 What is the instruction set used by ARM7?
A. 16-bit instruction set
B. 32-bit instruction set
C. 64-bit instruction set
D. 8-bit instruction set
Ans:-A
Q.29 What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?
A. 110 MIPS
B.150 MIPS
C.125 MIPS
D.130 MIPS
Ans:- D
Q.30 How many instructions pipelining is used in ARM7EJ-S?
A. 3-Stage
B. 4-Stage
C.5-Stage
D. 2-stage
Ans:- C
Q.31 What are the profiles for ARM architecture?
A. A,R
B. A,M
C. A,R,M
D. R,M
Ans:- C
Q.32 What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz and 2 MHz
respectively?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Ans:- B
Q.33 How do the variations in an average value get affected by PWM period?
A. Longer the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
B. Shorter the PWM period, faster will be the variation in an average value
C. Shorter the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
D. Longer the PWM period, slower will be the variation in an average value
Ans:- B
Q.34 What does PLL stand for?

A. Phased Locked Loop
B. Phase Line in Line
C. Phase Loop Locked
Ans:- A
Q.35 What does RTC stand for?
A. Real Time Clock
B. Real Time count
Ans:- A
Q.36 What does USB stand for?
A. UNIVERSAL SERIAL BUS
B. UNIVERSAL STANDARD BUS
Ans:- A
Q.37 What does WDT stand for?
A. Watchdog Timer
B. Wacth detection timer
Ans:- A
Q.38. Typical conversion speed of ADC is _______________
A. Less than 1µs
B. Less than 100 µs
C. Less than 500 µs
D. Greater than 1000 µs
Ans:- B
Q.39 Which of the following type output is provided by ADC?
A. Serial type
B. Parallel type
C. Both serial and parallel type
Ans:- C
Q.40 DS12887 is a ____________
A. Timer IC
B. Serial communication IC
C. RTC IC
D. Motor
Ans:- C
Q.41. What are T, D, M, I stands for in ARM7TDMI?
A Timer, Debug, Multiplex, ICE
B Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
C Timer, Debug, Modulation, IS
D Thumb, Debug, Mutual, ICE
Ans:-B
Q.42 ARM7 has an in-built debugging device?
A True
B False
Ans:- A
Q.43 What is the processor used by ARM7?
A 8-bit CISC
B 8-bit RISC
C 32-bit CISC
D 32-bit RISC
Ans:- D
Q.44 LPC 2148 pro development board has _________ on chip memory.
A 500k
B 625k
C 512k
D 425k
Ans:- C
Q.45 In LPC 2148 we require separate programmer?

A True
B False
Ans:- B
Q.46. Does LPC2148 have in system programming or in application programming?
A True
B False
Ans:- A
Q.47 Who is the founder of LPC2148 board?
A Intel
B Atmel
C Motorola
D Philips
Ans:- D
Q.48 Single 10-bit DAC provides variable _________ output.
A Digital
B Analog
C Analog and digital
D Neither analog nor digita
lAns:- B
Q.49. What is the program counter value when the board turns on?
A 0x00000
B 0xFFFFF
C Where the previous program ends
D At the location where we write the code
Ans:- A
Q.50 LPC2148 provides real time debugging with the on chip real monitor software.
A True
B False
Ans:- A
Q.51 The USB controller provides high speed interface to laptop/PC with a speed of ________
A On-chip USB with 12Mb/s
B On-chip USB with 15Mb/s
C Peripheral USB with 12Mb/s
D Peripheral USB with 15Mb/s
Ans:- A
Q.52. Which is the first company who defined RISC architecture?
A. Intel
B IBM
C Motorola
D MIPS
Ans. B
Q.53 The time taken to respond to an interrupt is known as

A interrupt delay
B interrupt time
C interrupt latency
D interrupt function
Ans. C
Q.54 Which interrupts are generated by the on-chip peripherals?

A internal
B external
C software
D hardware
ANS. A
Q.55 Which of the following helps in the generation of waveforms?

A timer
B inputs
C outputs
D memory
ANS. A
Q.56 Which bit size determines the maximum value of the counter-derived period?
A counter size
B pre-scalar value
C bit size
D byte size
ANS. A
Q.57 Which is the most basic non-volatile memory?

A Flash memory
B PROM
C EPROM
D ROM
ANS.D
Q.58 Which parameter/s is/are included in 'Time to market' design metric of an embedded system?
A Time to prototype
B Time to refine
c. Time to produce in bulk
d. All of the above
ANS.D
Q.59 What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC Processors?
A Hardwired
B Microprogrammed
C Both a and b
D None of the above
Ans. A
Q.60 How many supervisor registers are associated with the exception mode?
A2
B3
C4
D5
Ans. A
Que Model Question Paper
DEPRATMENT OF E&TC
Embedded
System
B.E.(E&TC)
TEST MCQS
1 Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a
sequential program into finite-state machine and register transfers while
designing an embedded system?
A. System
B. Behaviour
C.RT
D. Logic
2 Which parameter/s is/are included in 'Time to market' design metric of an

embedded system?
A. Time to prototype
B. Time to refine
C. Time to produce in bulk
D. All of the above
3 An IC has .................... size
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small
4 What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an
embedded system?
A. Ability to fit on a single chip
B. Low power consumption
C. Fast data processing for real-time operations
D. All of the above
5 ICs are generally made of ………………
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
6 ……………… ICs are the most commonly used
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
7 ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC

A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
8 The active components in an IC are ………….
A. Resistors
B. Capacitors
9 ICs are used in ……………

10 Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?
A. Diode
B. Transistor
C. FET
D. Capacitor
11 In which design all circuitry and all interconnections are designed?

A. full custom design
B. semi-custom design
C. gate array design
D. transistor design
12 Which design contains only the interconnections designed?

13 VLSI technology uses to form integrated circuit

A. transistors
B. switches
C. diodes
D. buffers
14 Medium scale integration has

A. ten logic gates
B. fifty logic gates
C. hundred logic gates
D. thousands logic gates
15 The design flow of VLSI system is

1. architecture design 2. market requirement 3. logic design 4. HDL coding
A. 2-1-3-4
B. 4-1-3-2
C. 3-2-1-4
D. 1-2-3-4
16 The inputs in the PLD is given through

A. NAND gates
B. OR gates
C. NOR gates
D. AND gates
17 Outputs of the AND gate in PLD is known as

A. Input lines
B. Output lines
C. Strobe lines
D. Control lines
18 The complex programmable logic device contains several PLD blocks and
A. A language compiler
B. AND/OR arrays
C. Global interconnection matrix
D. Field-programmable switches
19 The full form of VLSI is

A. Very Long Single Integration
B. Very Least Scale Integration
C. Very Large Scale Integration
D. Very Long Scale Integration
20 Applications of PLAs are

A. Registered PALs
B. Configurable PALs
C. PAL programming
D. All of the Mentioned
21
ARM stands for .
A. Advanced Rate Machines
B. Advanced RISC Machines
C. Artificial Running Machines
D. Aviary Running Machines
22 The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation with,

A. Low cost and low power consumption
B. Higher degree of multi-tasking
C. Lower error orglitches
D. Efficient memory management
23 ARM processors where basically designed for .

A. Main frame systems
B. Distributed systems
C. Mobilesystems
D. Supercomputers
24 The ARM processors doesn't support Byte address ability?
A. True
B. False
25 The address space in ARM is .
A. 2^24
B. 2^64
C. 2^16
D. 2^32
26 The address system supported by ARM systems is/are .
A. Little Endian
B. Big Endian
C. X-Little Endian
D. Both a and b
27 Memory can be accessed in ARM systems by instructions.

i) Store
ii) MOVE
iii) Load
iv) arithmetic
v) logical.
A.i,ii,iii
B.i,ii
C.i,iv,v
D. iii,iv,v
28 RISC stands for .
A. Restricted Instruction Sequencing Computer
B. Restricted Instruction Sequential Compiler
C. Reduced Instruction Set Computer
D. Reduced Induction Set Computer
29 In ARM, PC is implemented using .

A. Caches
B. Heaps
C .General purpose register
D. Stack
30 The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines are called as .
A. Copied-registers
B. Banked registers
C. Extra registers
D. Extensile registers
31 The banked registers are used for,

B. Extended storing
D. Both a and c
32 Each instruction in ARM machines is encoded into Word.

A.2byte
B. 3byte
C. 4byte
D. 8 byte
33 All instructions in ARM are conditionally executed.
A. True
B. False
34 The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents of Rn is
A. Pre-indexed mode
35 The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode,

MOVE[Rn]+Rm is
.
A.EA =[Rn]
B.EA = [Rn +Rm]
C.EA = [Rn] +Rm
D.EA = [Rm] + Rn
36 What is the instruction set used by ARM7?
37 What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?

A. 110 MIPS
B.150 MIPS
C.125 MIPS
D.130 MIPS
38 Which among the following data processing instructions does not use the barrel
shifter?
A ADD R2,R5, R4
B. MOVR5, R4, LSL #2
C. MOVr5, R4, LSR #2
D. MOVr5, R4, ROR #2
39 How many instructions pipelining is used in ARM7EJ-S?
A. 3-Stage
B. 4-Stage
C.5-Stage
D. 2-stage
40 What are the profiles for ARM architecture?
A. A,R
B. A,M
C. A,R,M
D. R,M
41 What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz
and 2 MHz respectively?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
42 How do the variations in an average value get affected by PWM period?
43 What does UART stand for?
A. universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
B. unique asynchronous receiver transmitter
C. universal address receiver transmitter
D. unique address receiver transmitter
44 How is data detected in a UART?

A. counter
B. timer
C. clock
D. first bit
45 Which of the signal is set to one, if no data is transmitted?

A. READY
B. START
C. STOP
D. TXD
46 What rate can define the timing in the UART?

A. bit rate
B. baud rate
C. speed rate
D. voltage rate
47 What does the availability of LCD in 16 x 2 typical value indicate ?

A. 16 lines per character with 2 such lines
B. 16 characters per line with 2 such lines
C. 16 pixels per line with 2 such sets
D. 16 lines per pixel with two such sets
48 Which control line/s act/s as an initiator by apprising LCD about the inception of
data transmission by the microcontroller?
A. Enable (EN)
B. Register Select (RS)
C. Read/Write (RW)
D. All of the above
49 The display operations in LCD are undertaken on EN line with

A. 0 to 1 transitions
B. 1 to 0 transitions
C. both a & b
50 When can a LCD display the text form of data ?

A. only when RS line is high
B. only when RW line is high
C. only when RS line is low
D. only when RW line is low
51 How much delay is necessarily provided after the power-on-reset condition in
order to overcome the predicaments related to valid power supply levels assigned
to microcontroller and LCD ?
A. 10 ms
B. 12 ms
C. 15 ms
D. 25 ms
52 A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of material
with salient poles.
A. Paramagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
C. Diamagnetic
D. Non-magnetic
53 In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is
A. 15º
B. 30º
C.45º
D.60º
54 A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm
has a pulse rate of- pps.
A. 4000
B. 8000
C.6000
D.10,000
55 The rotor of a stepper motor has no
A. Windings
B. Commutator
D. Brushes
D. All of the mentioned
56 A stepper motor may be considered as a converter.
A. Dc to dc
B. Ac to ac
C. Dc to ac
D. Digital-to-analogue
57 Typical conversion speed of ADC is

A. Less than 1µs
58 Which of the following type output is provided by ADC?

A. Serial type
B. Parallel type
59 How many bytes of the ROM are there for the general purpose applications?
A.9
B. 114
C.128
60 DS12887 is a
A. Timer IC
C. RTC IC
D. Motor
Subject : Embedded System Design
Branch: Electronics Engineering
Class : B.E.
Semester: VIII
==========================================================
Q1:What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an
embedded system?
D. All of the above
Answer:D
Q2:……………… ICs are the most commonly used
A. Thin films
B. Monolithic
C. Hybrid
Answer: B
Q3:……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC
A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
Answer: D
Q4:The active components in an IC are ………….
A. Resistors
B.Capacitors
Answer:C
Q5:An IC has …………….. size

A. Very large
B. Large
C. Extremely small
Answer: C
Q6:ICs are used in ……………

Answer: C
Q7:Which parameter/s is/are included in 'Time to market' design metric of an embedded

system?
B. Time to refine
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q8:Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?
A. Diode
B. Transistor
C. FET
D. Capacitor
Answer: D
Q9:ICs are generally made of ………………
A. Silicon
B. Germanium
C. Copper
Answer: A
Q10:Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a sequential

program into finite-state machine and register transfers while designing an embedded system?
A.System
B. Behaviour
C.RT
D. Logic
Answer: B
Q11:VLSI technology uses ________ to form integrated circuit

A. transistors
B. switches
C. diodes
D. buffers
Answer: A
Q12:Medium scale integration has

A. ten logic gates
B. fifty logic gates
C. hundred logic gates
D.thousands logic gates
Answer: C
Q13:The design flow of VLSI system is

1. architecture design 2. market requirement 3. logic design 4. HDL coding
A. 2-1-3-4
B. 4-1-3-2
C. 3-2-1-4
D. 1-2-3-4
Answer:A
Q14:The inputs in the PLD is given through ____________

A. NAND gates
B. OR gates
C. NOR gates
D. AND gates
Answer:D
Q15:Applications of PLAs are _____________

A. Registered PALs
B. Configurable PALs
C. PAL programming
D. All of the Mentioned
Answer: D
Q16: Outputs of the AND gate in PLD is known as ____________

A. Input lines
B. Output lines
C. Strobe lines
D. Control lines
Answer: B
Q17:Which design contains only the interconnections designed?

Answer: C
Q18:The full form of VLSI is ____________

A. Very Long Single Integration
B. Very Least Scale Integration
C. Very Large Scale Integration
D. Very Long Scale Integration
Answer: C
Q19:In which design all circuitry and all interconnections are designed?
Answer:A
Q20:The complex programmable logic device contains several PLD blocks and __________
A. A language compiler
B. AND/OR arrays
C. Global interconnection matrix
D. Field-programmable switches
Answer:C
Q21:Memory can be accessed in ARM systems by instructions.

i) Store
ii) MOVE
iii) Load
iv) arithmetic
v) logical.
A.i,ii,iii
B.i,ii
C.i,iv,v
D. iii,iv,v
Answer: B
Q22:RISC stands for .

D. Reduced Induction Set Computer
Answer: C
Q23:ARM stands for .

A. Advanced Rate Machines
B. Advanced RISC Machines
C. Artificial Running Machines
D. Aviary Running Machines
Answer: B
Q24:The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines arecalledas .

A. Copied-registers
B. Banked registers
C. Extra registers
D. Extensile registers
Answer: B
Q25:The ARM processors doesn’t support Byte address ability?

A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Q26:In ARM, PC is implemented using .

A. Caches
B. Heaps
C .General purpose register
D.Stack
Answer:C
Q27:The address system supported by ARM systems is/are .

A. Little Endian
B. Big Endian
C. X-Little Endian
D. Both a and b
Answer: D
Q28:ARM processors where basically designed for .

B. Distributedsystems
C. Mobilesystems
D. Supercomputers
Answer: C
Q29:The address space in ARM is .

A. 2^24
B. 2^64
C. 2^16
D. 2^32
Answer: D
Q30:The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operationwith,

A. Low cost and low power consumption
B. Higher degree of multi-tasking
C. Lower error orglitches
D. Efficient memory management
Answer: A
Q31:Which among the following data processing instructions does not use the barrel shifter?
A ADD R2,R5, R4
B. MOVR5, R4, LSL #2
C. MOVr5, R4, LSR #2
D. MOVr5, R4, ROR #2
Answer: A
Q32:What are the profiles for ARM architecture?

A. A,R
B. A,M
C. A,R,M
D. R,M
Answer: C
Q33:What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?

A. 110 MIPS
B.150 MIPS
C.125 MIPS
D.130 MIPS
Answer: D
Q34:How many instructions pipelining is used in ARM7EJ-S?

A. 3-Stage
B. 4-Stage
C.5-Stage
D. 2-stage
Answer: C
Q35:The banked registers are used for,

B. Extended storing
D. Both a and c
Answer: A
Q36:The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents ofRnis .
A. Pre-indexed mode
Answer: C
Q37:The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode, MOVE[Rn]+Rmis

.
A.EA =[Rn]
B.EA = [Rn +Rm]
C.EA = [Rn] +Rm
D.EA = [Rm] + Rn
Answer: A
Q38:What is the instruction set used by ARM7?

Answer: A
Q39:Each instruction in ARM machines is encoded into Word.

A.2byte
B. 3byte
C. 4byte
D. 8 byte
Answer: C
Q40:All instructions in ARM are conditionally executed.

A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Q41:When can a LCD display the text form of data ?

A. only when RS line is high
B. only when RW line is high
C. only when RS line is low
D. only when RW line is low
Answer: A
Q42:What does the availability of LCD in 16 x 2 typical value indicate ?

A. 16 lines per character with 2 such lines
B. 16 characters per line with 2 such lines
C. 16 pixels per line with 2 such sets
D. 16 lines per pixel with two such sets
Answer: B
Q43:The display operations in LCD are undertaken on EN line with ______

A. 0 to 1 transitions
B. 1 to 0 transitions
C. both a & b
Answer: B
Q44:Which control line/s act/s as an initiator by apprising LCD about the inception of data
transmission by the microcontroller?
A. Enable (EN)
B. Register Select (RS)
C. Read/Write (RW)
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Q45:How is data detected in a UART?

A. counter
B. timer
C. clock
D. first bit
Answer: C
Q46:What rate can define the timing in the UART?

A. bit rate
B. baud rate
C. speed rate
D. voltage rate
Answer: B
Q47:What would be the resolution value if oscillator and PWM frequencies are 16MHz and 2
MHz respectively?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B
Q48:Which of the signal is set to one, if no data is transmitted?

A. READY
B. START
C. STOP
D. TXD
Answer: D
Q49:What does UART stand for?

A. universal asynchronous receiver transmitter
B. unique asynchronous receiver transmitter
C. universal address receiver transmitter
D. unique address receiver transmitter
Answer: A
Q50:How do the variations in an average value get affected by PWM period?
Answer: B
Q51:How many bytes of the ROM are there for the general purpose applications?
A.9
B. 114
C.128
Answer: B
Q52:A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter.

A. Dc to dc
B. Ac to ac
C. Dc to ac
D. Digital-to-analogue
Answer: D
Q53:DS12887 is a ____________
A. Timer IC
C. RTC IC
D. Motor
Answer: C
Q54:Typical conversion speed of ADC is _______________

A. Less than 1µs
Answer: B
Q55:In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is

A. 15º
B. 30º
C.45º
D.60º
Answer: C
Q56:The rotor of a stepper motor has no

A. Windings
B. Commutator
D. Brushes
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: D
Q57:A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a pulse
rate of- pps.
A. 4000
B. 8000
C.6000
D.10,000
Answer: C
Q58:How much delay is necessarily provided after the power-on-reset condition in order to
overcome the predicaments related to valid power supply levels assigned to microcontroller and
LCD ?
A. 10 ms
B. 12 ms
C. 15 ms
D. 25 ms
Answer: C
Q59:Which of the following type output is provided by ADC?

A. Serial type
B. Parallel type
Answer: C
Q60:A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________ material with

salient poles.
A. Paramagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
C. Diamagnetic
D. Non-magnetic
Answer: B
Subject : Embedded System
Branch: E & TC
Class : B.E.
Semister : VIII
1) Which parameter/s is/are included in ‘Time to market’ design metric of embedded

system?
1) Time to prototype
2) Time to refine
3) Time to produce in bulk
4) All of above
Ans:4
2) In Von Neumann architecture, which among the following handles all the
operations of system that are inside and outside the processor?
1) Input unit
2) Output unit
3) Control unit
4) Memory unit
Ans:3
3) In C PU what kind of instruction to be executed is held by an instruction Register

(IR)?
1) Current (present)
2) Previous
3) Next
4) All of above
Ans:1
1 P.T.O.
4) Which microcontroller are adopted for designing medium scale embedded system
1) 8- bit
2) 16-bit to 32-bit
3) 64-bit
4) All of above
Ans:2
5) What type of memory is suitable for medium volume production?

1) Umbrella
2) OTP
3) ROM
4) RAM
Ans:2
6) How an embedded system communicate with the outside world?

1) Peripherals
2) Memory
3) Input
4) Output
Ans: 1
7) What are essential constraint/s r elated to the design metrics of an embedded system?
1)Ability to fit on a single chip
2) Low power consumption
3) Fast data processing
4) All of above
Ans:4
2
8) Bluetooth is the wireless technology for ______
1) LAN
2) PAN (Personal area N/W)
3) MAN
4) WAN
Ans:2
9) Data transfer rate for CAN is______

1) 3M bits/s
2) 5M bits/s
3) 1M bits/s
4) 2M bits/s
Ans:3
10) Zigbee uses_____

1) FHSS
2) DSSS
3) TDMA
4) CDMA
Ans:2
11) Which type of non-privileged mode is entered due to raising of high priority of an
interrupt?
1) User mode
2) Fast interrupt mode (FIQ)
3) Interrupt mode (IRQ)
4) Supervisor mode (SVC)
Ans:2
3 P.T.O.
12) In the process of pipelining which instructions are fetched from the memory by the
ARM processor during the execution of current instruction?
1) Previous
2) Present
3) Next
4) All of above
Ans:3
13) Abort mode generally enters when ______

1) An attempt access memory fails
2) Low priority interrupt is raised
3) ARM processor is on rest
4) Undefined instructions are to handled
Ans:1
14) How is the nature of instruction size in CISC processor?

1) Fixed
2) Variable
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of above
Ans:2
15) What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC processor?
1) Hardwired
2) Microprogrammed
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:1
4
16) Initialization code is also known as
1) Binary code
2) Boot code
3) Decimal code
4) Mirror code
Ans:2
17) If three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would be the speed
of execution?
1) Higher
2) Moderate
3) Lower
4) Unpredictable
Ans:1
18) The device that raises an interrupt to processor is______

1) DMA controller
2) Microcontroller
3) Interrupt controller
4) DSP3
Ans:3
19) Operating system is___

1) Hardware
2) Software
3) Processor
4) Controller
Ans:2
20) ARM is _____ RISC processor

1) 8 bit 2)16 bit 3) 32 bit 4)128 bit
Ans:3
5 P.T.O.
21) In DAC 0808, which among the following is configured as a reference in addition
to R-2R ladder and current switches?
1) Voltage amplifier
2) Current amplifier
3) Transconductance amplifier
4) Transresistance amplifier
Ans:2
22) What is the size range of alphanumeric LCDs?

1) 1 to 8 characters
Ans:2
23) What are t,d,m,I stands for in ARM7tdmI?

1) Timer debug multiplex ICE
2) Thumb debug multiplier ICE
3) Timer debug multiplex ICE
4) Thumb debug multiplex IS
Ans:2
24) LPC2148 is ___ pin IC

1) 256 2) 32 3) 64 4) 512
Ans:3
25) In thumb mode instructions are of____

1) 8 bit
2) 20 bits
3) 16 bits
4) 64 bits
Ans:3
6
26) ADC and DAC in LPC2148 are of ___ bits
1) 2 bits
2) 11 bits
3) 5bits
4) 10 bits
Ans:4
27) LPC2148 operates in

1) ARM Mode
2) THUMB Mode
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:3
28) LPC2148 architecture based on ____ principles

1) CISC
2) RISC
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:2
29) LPC2148 has on chip ____ memory

1) Flash program memory
2) RAM
3) SRAM
4) All of above
Ans:4
7 P.T.O.
30) The initial routine is often referred to as
1) Initial program
2) Bootstrap program
3) Final program
4) Initial embedded program
Ans:2
31) ARM full form is

1) Asynchronous machine
2) Advance RISC machine
3) 1 & 2 both
4) None
Ans:2
32) Embedded system is combination of

1) Hardware and Hardware
2) Hardware and Software
3) Software and Software
4) None
Ans:2
33) Which is wireless interface

1) SPI
2) CAN
3) ZIGBEE
4) I2C
Ans:3
8
34) CISC full form is
1) Communication instruction set computer
2) Complex instruction set computer
3) 1 and 2 both
4) None
Ans:2
35) Embedded system uses

1) µc
2) µp
3) DSPs
4) All of above
Ans:4
36) ISR stands for

1) Intermediate service routine
2) Interrupt service routine
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:2
37) Zigbee supports upto

1) 70m
2) 50m
3) 100m
4) 10m
Ans:1
9 P.T.O.
38) ALU performs
1) Arithmetic operations
2) Logical operations
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:3
39) Date and time in real time system is updated by

1) RTC
2) RTS
3) ISR
4) CPU
Ans:1
40) BIST is
1) Best in self test
2) Build in safe test
3) Build in self test
4) None
Ans: 3
41) Number of hopping frequencies in Bluetooth

1) 20
2) 30
3) 88
4) 79
Ans:4
10
42) Embidded system is
1) Single functioned
2) Double functioned
3) Multiple functioned
4) None
Ans:1
43) RTOs stands for

1) Real time oriented system
2) Real time operated system
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans: 2
44) LED is
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Multipurpose device
4) All above
Ans:2
45) OS software is in
1) RAM
2) ROM
3) Secondary memory
4) Primary memory
Ans:2
11 P.T.O.
46) What is heart of ES
1) Memory
2) CPU
3) I/P Device
4) O/P Device
Ans:2
47) CPU is made up of

1) Execution unit
2) Control unit
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None
Ans:3
48) GPOS full form is

1) General purpose I/O
2) General purpose operating system
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:2
49) Bluetooth supports upto __________ range

1) 10m to 100m
2) 20m to 200m
3) 30m to300m
4) 40m to 400m
Ans:1
12
50) WDT is
1) Watch Delay Timer
2) Watch Dog Timer
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:2
51) Physical layer of Bluetooth has --- sub layers

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Ans:3
52) Communication latency of Zigbee is

1) 30ms
2) 40ms
3) 100ms
4) 50ms
Ans:1
53) How many modes of operations of ARM processor

1) 4
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
Ans:3
13 P.T.O.
54) RISC stands for
1) Random instruction set computer
2) Reduced instruction set computer
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:2
55) Data transfer rate in Bluetooth is in the form of ____

1) Word
2) Packets
3) Analog signal
4) None
Ans: 2
56) JTAG is
1) Joint test access group
2) Joint terms associative group
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:1
57) In Bluetooth physical layer communicates at carrier frequency

1) 5 M Hz
2) 10 KHz
3) 2.4 GHz
4) 100 Hz
Ans:3
14
58) Registers of ARM are
1) 8 bit
2) 16 bit
3) 64 bit
4) 32 bit
Ans:4
59) Which buses ARM processor uses

1) AHB
2) APB
3) ASB
4) All
Ans:4
60) FPGA is
1) Field programable gate array
2) Financial programme grow array
3) Both above
4) None
Ans:1
**********
15 P.T.O.
Subject:Embedded System
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
Q1. 1. Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the
hardware components?
A. platform based design
B. memory design
C. peripheral design
D. input design
Ans. A
Q2. Which of the following is the design in which both the hardware and
software are considered during the design?
A. platform based design

B. memory based design
C. C. software/hardware codesign
D. D. peripheral design
Ans. C
Q3. What does API stand for?
A. address programming interface

B. B. application programming interface
C. C. accessing peripheral through interface
D. D. address programming interface
Ans. B
Q4.Which activity is concerned with identifying the task at the final embedded
systems?
A. high-level transformation
B. compilation
C. C. scheduling
D. task-level concurrency management
Ans.D
Q5. In which design activity, the loops are interchangeable?
A. compilation
B. scheduling
C. high-level transformation
D. hardware/software partitioning
Ans. C
Q6. Which design activity helps in the transformation of the floating point
arithmetic to fixed point arithmetic?
A. high-level transformation
B. scheduling
C. compilation
D. D. task-level concurrency management
Ans. A
Q7. Which design activity is in charge of mapping operations to hardware?
A. scheduling
B. high-level transformation
C. hardware/software partitioning
D. compilation
Ans. C
Q8. Which of the following is approximated during hardware/software

partitioning, during task-level concurrency management?
A. scheduling
B. compilation
C. task-level concurrency management
D. high-level transformation
Ans. A
Q9. Which of the following is a process of analyzing the set of possible designs?
A. design space exploration

B. scheduling
C. compilation
D. hardware/software partitioning
Ans. A
Q10. Which of the following is a meet-in-the-middle approach?
A. peripheral based design

B. platform based design
C. memory based design
D. processor design
Ans. B
Q11.. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of
an embedded system?

D. All of the above
Ans. D
Q12. Which abstraction level undergo the compilation process by converting a

sequential program into finite-state machine and register transfers while
designing an embedded system?
A. System
B. Behaviour
C. RT
D. Logic
Ans. B
Q13. Which characteristics of an embedded system exhibit the responsiveness

to the assortments or variations in system's environment by computing specific
results for real-time applications without any kind of postponement ?
A. Single-functioned Characteristic
B. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
C. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q14.. Which one of the following are header files?
A. proc()
B. truct()
C. files
D. #include
Ans. D
Q15.The standard C compiler used for the UNIX systems…
A. cc
B. sc
C. simulator
D. compiler
Ans.A
Q16. Which type of non-privileged processor mode is entered due to the

raising of the high priority of an interrupt?
A. Supervisor Mode (SVC)

B. Interrupt Mode (IRQ)
C. Fast Interrupt Mode (FIQ)
D. User mode
Ans. C
Q17. Where the Abort mode generally enters when _______?
A. undefined instructions are to be handled
B. ARM processor is on rest
C. low priority interrupt is raised
D. an attempt access memory fails.
Ans. D
Q18. Which one of the following is also called a loader?
A. linker
B. locater
C. compiler
D. assembler
Ans. A
Q19. Mention that which one of the following gives the final control to the
programmer..?
A. linker
B. compiler
C. locater
D. simulator
Ans. A
Q20. Which assembler option is used to turn off long or short address
optimization?
A. -m
B. -o
C. -n
D. -V
Ans. B
Q21.Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the hardware
components…?
A. peripheral design
B. input design
C. platform-based design
D. memory design
Ans. C
Q22. Embedded systems applications typically involve processing information

as ________
A. Distance
B. Signals
C. Block level
D. Logical volumes
Ans. A
Q23.The following is the design in which both the hardware and software are
considered during the design.
A. software/hardware codesign
B. peripheral design
C. platform-based design
D. memory based design
Ans. A
Q24. API stands for __________?
A. accessing peripheral through an interface
B. address programming interface
C. address programming interface
D. application programming interface
Ans. C
Q25. The loops are interchangeable, in which design activity…?
A. hardware/software partitioning
B. high-level transformation
C. scheduling
D. compilation
Ans. B
Q26.Which of the following are header files?
A. #include
B. file
C. struct()
D. proc()
Ans. A
Q27. Which is the standard C compiler used for the UNIX systems?
A. simulator
B. compiler
C. cc
D. sc
Ans. C
Q28. Which compiling option is used to compile programs to form part of a

library?
A. -c
B. -p
C. -f
D. -g
Ans. A
Q29. Which compiling option can be used for finding which part of the
program is consuming most of the processing time?
A. -f
B. -g
C. -p
D. -c
Ans. C
Q30. Which compiling option can generate symbolic debug information for
debuggers?
A. -c
B. -p
C. -f
D. -g
Ans. D
Q31. Which of the following is also known as loader?
A. locater
B. linker
C. assembler
D. compiler
Ans. B
Q32. Which parameter/s is/are included in ‘Time to market’ design metric of

an embedded system?
B. Time to refine
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Q33.How is the nature of instruction size in CISC processors?
A. Fixed
B. Variable
C. Both a and b
Ans. B
Q34. What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC Processors?
A. Hardwired
B. Microprogrammed
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q35. At an active HIGH reset pin of 8051 microcontroller, for how many
machine cycles should the positive going pulse be provided, if the power is
switched ON?
A. only on
B. two
C. three.
D. four
Ans. B
Q36. What is the size range of the alphanumeric LCDs?
A. 1 to 8 characters
B. 8 to 80 characters
C. 100 to 150 characters
D. 250 to 400 characters
Ans. B
Q37. Which type of handshake packet indicates that the device is incapable of
accepting data as it is supposed to be busy with some another task?
A. ACK
B. NAK
C. STALL
Ans. B
Q38. Which mode of operation is exhibited by RS-485 standard?
A. Single ended
B. Differential
C. Both a and b
Ans. B
Q39.In CPU structure, where is one of the operand provided by an accumulator

in order to store the result?
A. Control Unit
B. Arithmetic Logic Unit
C. Memory Unit
D. Output Unit
Ans. B
Q40. In CPU structure, which register provides the address for fetching of data
or instruction especially by means of processor?
A. Data Register
B. Instruction Register
C. Accumulator
D. Memory Address Register
Ans. D
Q41. In CPU structure, what kind of instruction to be executed is held by an

instruction Register (IR)?
A. Current (present)
B. Previous
C. Next
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Q42. Which stage associated with pipelining mechanism recognizes the

instruction that is to be executed?
A. Fetch
B. Decode
C. Execute
Ans. B
Q43. Which mnemonic implies ‘plus’ meaning in the branch instructions?
A. BPL
B. BEQ
C. BMI
D. BAL
Ans. A
Q44. In the branch instructions of ARM, what does the mnemonic BVC imply?
A. Overflow Set
B. Carry Set
C. Carry Clear
D. Overflow Clear
Ans. D
Q45. Which types of an embedded systems involve the coding at a simple level
in an embedded ‘C’, without any necessity of RTOS?
A. Small Scale Embedded Systems

B. Medium Scale Embedded Systems
C. Sophisticated Embedded Systems
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Q46. Which microcontrollers are adopted for designing medium scale

embedded systems?
A. 8-bit
B. 16-bit to 32-bit
C. 64-bit
All of the above
Ans. B
Q47. Which interrupt controller is present in Cortex-A15 processor?
a. GIC-390
b. GIC-500
c. Integrated GIC
d. GIC-400
Ans. C
Q48. For the supplied data, which edge level is necessary for LCD in order to
latch the data?
A. High-to-Low
B. Low-to-High
C. High-to-High
D. Low-to-Low
Ans. A
Q49. In LCD, which hex command performs the function of ‘Display on, cursor
on and blinking’?
A.0x0A
B. 0x0C
C. 0x0E
D. 0x0F
Ans. D
Q50. In DC motor interfacing, which field/s is/are generated by forcing current

through the coil for spinning of the motor?
A. Electric field
B. Electrostatic field.
C. Magnetic field
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q51. What is the value of maximum data rate in RS 232 standard?
A. 20 kb/s
B. 40 kb/s
C. 80 kb/s
D. 100 kb/s
Ans. A
Q52. In Modbus Protocol, which codes are included in Request PDU?

A. Function code, Response data
B. Function code, Function data
C. Error code, Exception code
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Q53. Which category of function code represents the currently used codes by
some companies especially for legacy products?
A. Public
B. User-defined
C. Reserved
D. Exceptions
Ans. C
Q54. In ISA, Timer 0 is also regarded as ______
A. System Timer
B. Refresh Timer
C. Speaker Timer
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Q55. How are the instructions executed in DSP Processors?
A. In Parallel manner
B. In Sequential manner
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q56. Which control register in x86 family is reserved for future use and
generally not adopted for current implementation?
A. CR0
B. CR1
C. CR2
D. CR4
Ans. B
Q57. Which type of non-privileged processor mode is entered due to raising of

high priority of an interrupt?
A. User mode
B. Fast Interrupt Mode (FIQ)
C. Interrupt Mode (IRQ)
D. Supervisor Mode (SVC)
Ans. B
Q58. Abort mode generally enters when _______
A. an attempt access memory fails

B. Low priority interrupt is raised
C. ARM processor is on rest
D. undefined instructions are to be handled
Ans. A
Q59. If the three stages of execution in pipelining are overlapped, how would
be the speed of execution?
A. Higher
B. Moderate
C. Lower
D. Unpredictable
Ans. A
Q60. In DAC 0808, what is the high speed multiplying input slew rate?
A. 2 mA/μ sec
B. 4 mA/μ sec
C. 8 mA/μ sec
D. 16 mA/μ sec
Ans. C
Class: BE
Semester:VIII
Q1. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of
an embedded system?

D. All the mentioned
Ans.: D
Q2. Which characteristics of an embedded system exhibit the responsiveness

to the assortments or variations in system's environment by computing
specific results for real-time applications without any kind of
postponement?
A. Single-functioned Characteristic
B. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
C. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
D. All the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q3. An embedded system must have
A. hard disk
B. processor and memory
C. operating system
D. Processor and input-output unit(s).
Ans.: B
Q4. An embedded system hardware can
A. have microprocessor or microcontroller or single purpose processor

B. have digital signal processor
C. one or several microprocessor or microcontroller or digital signal
processor or single purpose processors
D. Not have single purpose processor (s).
Ans.: C
Q5. An embedded system has RAM memory
A. for storing the variables during program run, stack and input or output
buffers, for example, for speech or image
B. for storing all the instructions and data
C. for storing the programs from external secondary memory
D. For fetching instructions and data into cache(s).
Ans.: A
Q6.Design metrics are (i) engineering cost (ii) time to market (iii) power
dissipation (iv) flexibility (v) system and user safety (vi) performance (vii)
prototype development time (viii) maintenance of the system
A. all
B. all except v and viii
C. iii and vi
D. all except i and ii
Ans.: A
Q7. A communication protocol specifies (i) the ways of communication of

signals on the bus (ii) ways of arbitration when several devices need to
communicate through the bus or the ways of polling from the devices
need of the bus at an instance (iii) memory requirement during
communication (iv) minimum rate of data transfer during communication
(v) interrupt service mechanism
A. i, ii, iii and iv

B. i, iii, iv and v
C. i and ii
D. i, ii and iii
Ans.: C
Q8. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
A. local area network

B. personal area network
C. metropolitan area network
D. wide area network
Ans.: B
Q9. Bluetooth uses __________
A. frequency hopping spread spectrum

B. orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
C. time division multiplexing
D. channel division multiplexing
Ans.: A
Q10. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
A. 2.4 GHz ISM

B. 2.5 GHz ISM
C. 2.6 GHz ISM
D. 2.7 GHz ISM
Ans.: A
Q11. Bluetooth supports _______
A. point-to-point connections
B. point-to-multipoint connection
C. both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
D. multipoint to point connection
Ans.: C
Q12. Which of the following is NOT true about Bluetooth?
A. Bluetooth has a range of about 30 feet.

B. Bluetooth has a bandwidth of 720 kbps.
C. Bluetooth is considered to be a long-distance wireless technology.
D. Bluetooth is considered to be low bandwidth wireless technology.
Ans.: C
Q13. What is one of the features that make Bluetooth different from other
wireless technologies?
A. low power consumption

B. high bandwidth wireless capabilities
C. inability to transfer voice and data between battery-operated mobile
devices
D. long-distance wireless capabilities
Ans.: A
Q14. ZigBee is an IEEE
A. 802.15.1
B. 802.15.2
C. 802.15.3
D. 802.15.4
Ans.: D
Q15. Bluetooth devices communicate at ____________ bandwidths.
A. Fixed
B. Static
C. High
D. Low
Ans.: D
Q16. CAN Communication Protocol is
A. One Wire
B. Two Wire
C. Three Wire
D. Four Wire
Ans.: B
Q17. Biomedical electronic devices are examples of Embedded Systems.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
Q18. Testing of Embedded Devices is NOT mandatory.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B
Q19. ZigBee devices can transmit data over long distances by passing data
through a mesh network of intermediate devices to reach more distant
ones.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
Q20. General Purpose Computer is an example of Embedded System.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B
Q 21. ARM processors where basically designed for?

B. Distributed systems
C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans.: C
Q 22. The ARM processors don’t support Byte addressability.
A.TRUE
B.FALSE
Ans.: B
Q 23.In the ARM, PC is implemented using ___________
A. Caches
B. Heaps
C. General purpose register
D. Stack
Ans.: C
Q 24.The additional duplicate register used in ARM machines are called as

_______
A. Copied-registers.
B.Banked registers
C. EXtra registers
D. Extential registers
Ans.: B
Q 25.All instructions in ARM are conditionally executed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans.: A
Q 26.What is the instruction set used by ARM7?

Ans.: A
Q 27.How many registers are there in ARM7?
A. 35 register( 28 GPR and 7 SPR)

B. 37 registers(28 GPR and 9 SPR)
C. 37 registers(31 GPR and 6 SPR)
D. 35 register(30 GPR and 5 SPR)
Ans.: C
Q 28.ARM7 has an in-built debugging device?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans.: A
Q 29.What are t, d, m, I stands for in ARM7TDMI?
A. Timer, Debug, Multiplex, ICE
B. Thumb, Debug, Multiplier, ICE
C. Timer, Debug, Modulation, IS
D. Thumb, Debug, Modulation, ICE
Ans.: B
Q 30.Each instruction in ARM machines is encoded into __________ Word.

A. 2 byte
B. 3 byte
C. 4 byte
D. 8 byte
Ans.: C
Q 31.When the processor is executing simple data processing instructions, the
pipeline enables one instruction to be completed every clock cycle, this is also
called as _____
A. Throughput
B. Latency
C. Execution
Ans.: A
Q 32.Stack is a form of
A. Last In First Out (LIFO)
B. First In First Out (FIFO)
C. Both a and b
Ans.: A
Q 33.An instruction that is used to move data from an ARM Register to a Status
Register (CPSR or SPSR) is called _______.
A. MRC
B. MRS
C. MSR
D. MCS
Ans.: C
Q 34.Instruction used to Test equality of two 32-bit values in ARM7 is called

_____.
A. TEQ
B. TST
C. EOR
C. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 35. Which among the following data processing instructions does not use
the barrel shifter?
A. ADD R2, R5, R4
B. MOV R5, R4, LSL #2
C. MOV r5, R4, LSR #2
D. MOV r5, R4, ROR #2
Ans.: A
Q 36.The average time required to reach a storage location in memory and

obtain its contents is called_____.
A. Latency time
B. Access time
C. Turnaround time
D. Response time
Ans.: B
Q 37.State whether the following statement is either true or false. Interrupt

signal can stop the execution of an assembly instruction in the middle while it
is being executed.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Ans.: A
Q 38.The multi-layer architecture acts as a crossbar switch

between___________ ina AMBA 3 AHB
A. Master and slave

B. Master and master
C. Slave and slave
Ans.: A
Q 39.The main advantage of multiple bus organization over the single bus is
________.
A. Reduction in the number of cycles for execution

B. Increase in size of the register
C. Better connectivity
Ans.: A
Q 40. Serial Peripheral Interface bus allows ___________.
A.Half/full
B. Synchronous
C. Serial communication with external devices
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q 41.RISC stands for _________

D.Reduced Induction Set Computer
Ans.: C
Q 42.The addressing mode where the EA of the operand is the contents of Rn is

______
A. Pre-indexed mode
Ans.: C
Q 43.What is the capability of ARM7 f instruction for a second?
A. 110 MIPS
B. 150 MIPS
C. 125 MIPS
D. 130 MIPS
Ans.: D
Q 44. In which of the following ARM processors virtual memory is present?
A. ARM7DI
B. ARM7TDMI-S
C. ARM7TDMI
D. ARM7EJ-S
Ans.: A
Q 45. Which of the following has the same instruction set as ARM7?
A. ARM6
B. ARMv3
C. ARM71a0
D. ARMv4T
Ans.: B
Q 46. In LPC 2148, which among the following is/are the functions of Mask
register?
A. Byte addressability
B. Relocation to ARM local bus for fastest posible I/O timing
C. Treating sets of port bits in the form of group without changing other bits
D. All of the above
Ans.: C
Q 47. What is the size range of the alphanumeric LCDs?
A. 1 to 8 characters
B. 8 to 80 characters
C. 100 to 150 characters
D. 250 to 400 characters
Ans.: B
Q 48. In LCD, which function is executed by ‘0x05’ hex command?
A. Shift display left
B. Shift display right
C. Clear display
D. Return cursor to home
Ans.: B
Q 49. What is the value of maximum data rate in RS 232 standard?
A. 20 kb/s
B. 40 kb/s
C. 80 kb/s
D. 100 kb/s
Ans.: A
Q 50. In DC motor interfacing, which field/s is/are generated by forcing
current through the coil for spinning of the motor?
A. Electric field
B. Electrostatic field
C. Magnetic field
D. All of the above
Ans.: C
Q51. Single 10-bit DAC provides variable _________ output.
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Analog and Digital
D. Neither Analog nor Digital
Ans.: B
Q52. Timer in the board has _________ compare and _________ capture
channels.
A. 3 and 4
B. 4 and 3
C. 4 and 4
D. 3 and 3
Ans.: C
Q53. What is the operating voltage of the LPC 2148?
A. 5V
B. 2.5V
C. 3V
D. 4.5V
Ans.: C
Q54. In CPU structure, what kind of instruction to be executed is held by an

instruction Register (IR)?
A. Current (present)
B. Previous
C. Next
Ans.: A
Q55. What is the program counter value when the LPC 2148 turns on?
A. 0x00000
B. 0xFFFFF
C. Where the previous program ends
D. At the location where we write the code
Ans.: A
Q56. The effective address of the instruction written in Post-indexed mode,
MOV [Rn]+Rm is _______
A. EA = [Rn]
B. EA = [Rn + Rm]
C. EA = [Rn] + Rm
D. EA = [Rm] + Rn
Ans.: A
Q57. ___________ symbol is used to signify write back mode.

A. #
B. ^
C. &
D. !
Ans.: D
Q58. The instructions which are used to load or store multiple operands are
called as __________
A. Banked instructions
B. Lump transfer instructions
C. Block transfer instructions
D. DMA instructions
Ans.: C
Q59. The ability to shift or rotate in the same instruction along with other
operation is performed with the help of _________
A. Switching circuit
B. Barrel shifter circuit
C. Integrated Switching circuit
D. Multiplexer circuit
Ans.: B
Q60. Package of LPC 2148 consist of _____________ pins.

A. 16
B. 32
C. 48
D. 64
Ans.: D
Subject:- Light Wave Communication
Class:- BE
Semester :- VIII
Q1. If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium with
high refractive index, then it is regarded as _______
A) External Reflection
B) Internal Reflection
C) Both a and b
D)None of the above
ANSWER: A
Q.2. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the ability of
__________
A) Light Collection
B) Light Scattering
C) Light Dispersion
D)Light Polarization
ANSWER:A
Q.3. Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes
place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0’s & 1’s in the signal?
A) Return-to-zero (RZ)
B). Non-Return to zero space
C). Return to zero inverted
D)Non-return to zero inverted
ANSWER: A
Q.4. In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal ______
A) reflection
B) refraction
C) diffraction
D)dispersion
ANSWER: A
Q.5 In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the
fiber from any damage?
A) Core
B) Cladding
C) Buffer Coating
D)None of the above
ANSWER: C
Q.6. Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
A) Meridional
B) Skew
C) Leaky
D)All of the above
ANSWER: B
Q.7. With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies the
propagation of polarization modes with different phase velocities & the difference between their
effective refractive indices?
A) Mode field diameter
B) Birefringence
C) Fiber beat length
D)Spot Size
ANSWER: B
Q.8. In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers ________the bit rate.
A) Increases
B) Stabilizes
C) Decreases
D)None of the above
Ans:- A
Q.9 On which factor/s do/does the response time of photodiode depend/s?

A) Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region
B) Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region

C) RC time constant
D)All of the above
Ans:- D
Q.10. When an optical signal is incident on a photo-detector, which noise originate/s due to
statistical nature of production and collection of photoelectrons?
A) Dark Current Noise
B) Quantum Noise
C) Surface Leakage Current noise
D)All of the above
Ans:- B
Q.11. According to frequency response of photo-detector, the modulation frequency at which the
output current decreases to ________of peak value.
A) one-third
B) one-fourth
C) half
D)one-tenth
Ans:-C
Q.12. The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a function of_____
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) period
D)wavelength
Ans:- D
Q.13. Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the precise movement of all
individual light waves together through time and space?
A) Monochromatic
B) Directional
C) Coherent
D)Brightness
Ans:- C
Q.14. In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always _______the
refractive index of cladding.
A) Less than
B) Equal to
C) Greater than
D)None of the above
Ans. A
Q.15. In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after their
quantization into discrete levels?
A) Binary
B) Decimal
C). ASCII
D)Excess-3
Ans:- A
Q.16. For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about 12μW, what would
be the value of generated photocurrent?
A) 3 μA
B) 6 μA
C) 9 μA
D)12 μA
Ans:- B
Q.17. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical
transmitter function?
A) Coding for error protection
B) Decoding of input data
C) Electrical to optical conversion

D)Recoding to match output standard
Ans:- D
Q.18. What is responsivity of a light detector
A) the time required for the signal to go from 10 to 90 percent of maximum amplitude
B) the ratio of the diode output current to optical input power
C) the ratio of output current to output power
D) the ratio of output current to input current
Ans:- D
Q.19. The three major groups in the optical system are
A) the components, the data rate and response time
B) the source, the link, and the receiver
C) the transmitter, the cable, and the receiver
D) the source, the link, and the detector
Ans:- D
Q.20 The higher the index number
A) the higher the speed of light
B) the lower the speed of light
C) has no effect on the speed of light
D) the shorter the wavelength propagation
Ans:- A
Q.21 The terms single mode and multimode are
A) the number of fibers placed into a fiber-optic cable
B) the number of voice channels each fiber can support
C) the number of wavelengths each fiber can support
D) the index number
Ans.- C
Q.22 What is reflective index number
A) a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of air
B) a number assigned by the manufacturer to the fiber in question
C) a number which determines the core diameter
D) a term for describing core elasticity
Ans:- A
Q.23 The cladding which surrounds the fiber core
A) is used to reduce optical interference
B) is used to protect the fiber
C) acts to help guide the light in the core
D) ensures that the refractive index remains constant
Ans:- C
Q.24 The term critical angle describes
A) the point at which light is refracted
B) the point at which light becomes invisible
C) the point at which light has gone from the refractive mode to the reflective mode
D) the point at which light has crossed the boundary layers from one index to another
Ans:- D
Q.25 Which of the following terms describes the reason that light is refracted at different angles?
A) Photon energy changes with wavelength
B) Light is refracted as a function of surface smoothness
C) The angle is determined partly by a and b
D) The angle is determined by the index of the materials
Ans:- D
Q.26 An incident ray can be defined as
A) a light ray reflected from a flat surface
B) a light ray directed toward a surface
C) a diffused light ray
D) a light ray that happens periodically
Ans:-B
Q.27 Approximately what is the frequency limit of the optical fiber?
A) 20 MHz
B) 1 MHz
C)100 MHz
D) 40 GHz
Ans:- D
Q.28 Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the precise movement of all
individual light waves together through time and space?
A) Monochromatic
B)Directional
C)Coherent
D)Brightness
Ans:-C
Q.29 The absence of _______________ in LEDs limits the internal quantum efficiency.
A) Proper semiconductor
B)Adequate power supply
C)Optical amplification through stimulated emission
D)Optical amplification through spontaneous emission
Ans:-C
Q.30 In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is ______ bright from all directions.
A) Less
B)Equally
C)More
D)Unpredicted
Ans:-B
Q.31 In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for which the
distance between the mirrors is an integral number of _______
A) λ / 2
B)λ / 4
C)λ / 6
D)λ / 8
Ans:- A
Q.32 In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated photon is/are
similar to the photon of incident wave?
A) Phase
B)Frequency
C)Polarization & direction of travel
D)All of the above
Ans:- D
Q.33 In photo detectors, energy of incident photons must be ________________ band gap energy
A) Lesser than
B)Greater than
C)Same as
D)Negligible
Ans:- B
Q.34 The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical bandwidth.

A) Smaller
B)Greater
C)Same as
D)Zero with respect to
Ans:- B
Q.35 A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy.
A) Direct absorption
B)Band gap energy
C)Wavelength range
D)Absorption coefficient
Ans:- D
Q.36 Determine quantum efficiency if incident photons on photodiodes is 4*1011 and electrons
collected at terminals is 1.5*1011
A) 50%
B)37.5%
C)25%
D)30%
Ans:- B
Q.37 The fraction of incident photons generated by photodiode of electrons generated collected at
detector is known as
A) Quantum efficiency
B)Absorption coefficient
C)Responsivity
D)Anger recombination
Ans:- A
Q.38. The optical 3 dB point occurs when currents ratio is equal to
A) ⅝
B)⅔
C)½
D)¾
Ans:- C
Q.39 The 3 dB electrical bandwidth B is 42 MHz. Determine 3dB optical bandwidth
A) 45.18
B)59.39
C)78.17
D)94.14
Ans:- B
Q.40 Intrinsically _________________ are a very linear device.
A) Injection lasers
B)DH lasers
C)Gain-guided
D)LEDs
Ans:- D
Q.41. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical
transmitter function
A) Coding for error protection
B)Decoding of input data
C)Electrical to optical conversion
D)Recoding to match output standard
Ans:-D
Q.42 Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of data
signal with minimum error?
A) Photo-diode
B)Signal Processing Circuits
C)Linear Circuitry
D)None of the above
Ans:- C
Q.43 Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for the
compensation of signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?
A) Photodetector
B)Amplifier
C)Equalizer
D)None of the above
Ans:- C
Q.44 In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to detector
must take place with _________coupling efficiency
A) maximum
B)stable
C)minimum
D)unpredictable
Ans:-A
Q.45 Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes
place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0's & 1's in the signal?
A) Return-to-zero (RZ)
B)Non-Return to zero space
C)Return to zero inverted
D)Non-return to zero inverted
Ans:- A
Q.46. External modulation for ________ modulation format allows the most sensitive coherent
detection mechanism.
A) FSK
B)DSK
C)PSK
D)ASK
Ans:- C
Q.47 Coherent radiation is relatively __________
A) Parabolic
B)Elliptic
C)Directional
D)Rectangular
Ans:-C
Q.48 ____________ limits receiver sensitivity.
A) Noise
B)Depletion layer
C)Avalanche
D)Current
Ans:- A
Q.49. The phase difference between the local oscillator and the source must be ________ for high
sensitivity reception.
A) Deep
B)High
C)Direct
D)Near zero
Ans:- D
Q.50 The introduction of nonlinear element within the ______ is necessary to enable efficient
carrier recovery.
A) PSK
B)ASK
C)FSK
D)PLL
Ans:- D
Q.51 Which of the following techniques is easy to implement?

A) Amplitude shift keying
B)Phase shift keying
C)Frequency shift keying
D)SCM
Ans:- C
Q.52. _____________ is essentially a crude form of Amplitude shift keying.
A) Analog modulation B)Digital intensity modulation C)Photodetector
D)Receiver structure
Ans. B
Q.53 ______________ is also referred to as on-off keying (OOK).

A) FSK B)DSK C)PSK D)ASK
Ans. D
Q.54 ________ does not require an external modulator.

ANS. A
Q.55 Eight level FSK and binary PSK yields an equivalent sensitivity. State whether the given
statement is true or false.
A) False B)True
ANS. B
Q.56 External modulation for ________ modulation format allows the most sensitive coherent
detection mechanism.
ANS. C
Q.57 _________ heterodyne detection does not require phase matching between the incoming signal
and the local oscillator.
A) Synchronous B)Asynchronous C)Noisy D)Spatial
ANS.B
Q.58 In ___________ detection, the phase of the local oscillator signal is locked to the incoming
signal.
A) Homodyne B)Heterodyne C)Spatial D)Noisy
ANS.A
Q.59 What is the main attraction of the optical homodyne detection?

A) Receiver sensitivity B)Transmission power C)Modulation scheme D)Line width
Ans. A
Q.60 What is the main attraction of the optical homodyne detection?

A) Receiver sensitivity B)Transmission power C)Modulation scheme D)Line width
Ans. C
Model question Paper
Subject: Light Wave Communication
Branch: Electronics
Class: B.E.
Semester: VIII
1. Multimode step index fiber has ___________

a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture
b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture
c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture
d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture
Ans: a
2. Multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range is ___________
a) 100 to 300 μm
b) 100 to 300 nm
c) 200 to 500 μm
d) 200 to 500 nm
Ans: a
3. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with ___________
a) Lower purity
b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.
c) No impurity
d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.
Ans: b
4. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are ___________
a) Better than multimode step index fibers
b) Same as multimode step index fibers
c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers
d) Negligible
Ans: a
5. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are
a) Single mode fibers
b) Multimode step fibers
c) Coaxial cables
d) Multimode graded index fibers
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements best explain the concept of material absorption?
a) A loss mechanism related to the material composition and fabrication of fiber
b) A transmission loss for optical fibers
c) Results in attenuation of transmitted light
d) Causes of transfer of optical power
Ans: a
7. Absorption losses due to atomic defects mainly include ___________
a) Radiation
b) Missing molecules, oxygen defects in glass
c) Impurities in fiber material
d) Interaction with other components of core
Ans: b
8. A permanent joint formed between two different optical fibers in the field is known as a
____________
a) Fiber splice
b) Fiber connector
c) Fiber attenuator
d) Fiber dispersion
Ans: a
9. The heating of the two prepared fiber ends to their fusing point with the application of
required axial pressure between the two optical fibers is called as ____________
a) Mechanical splicing
b) Fusion splicing
c) Melting
d) Diffusion
Ans: b
10. In a multimode fiber, much of light coupled in the fiber from an LED is ____________
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Lost
d) Unaffected
Ans: c
11. Which of the following does not explain the requirements of an optical detector?
a) High quantum efficiency
b) Low bias voltages
c) Small size
d) Low fidelity
Ans: d
12. The ___________ process takes place in both extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors.
a) Avalanche multiplication
b) External photoemission
c) Internal photoemission
d) Dispersion
Ans: c
13. ____________ are widely used in first generation systems of optical fiber
communication.
a) p-n diodes
b) 4-alloys
c) 3-alloys
d) Silicon photodiodes
Ans: d
14. Silicon has indirect band gap energy of __________________
a) 1.2 eV
b) 2 eV
c) 1.14 eV
d) 1.9 eV
Ans: c
15. Which of the following detector is fabricated from semiconductor alloys?
a) Photoconductive detector
b) p-i-n detector
c) Photodiodes
d) Photoemission detectors
Ans: a
16. What is done to create an extrinsic semiconductor?
a) Refractive index is decreased
b) Doping the material with impurities
c) Increase the band-gap of the material
d) Stimulated emission
Ans: b
17. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of
electric field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
Ans: c
18. Population inversion is obtained at a p-n junction by __________
a) Heavy doping of p-type material
b) Heavy doping of n-type material
c) Light doping of p-type material
d) Heavy doping of both p-type and n-type material
Ans: d
19. ______________ is caused due to thermal interaction between the free electrons and
the vibrating ions in the conduction medium.
a) Thermal noise
b) Dark noise
c) Quantum noise
d) Gaussian noise
Ans: a
20. The minimum pulse energy needed to maintain a given bit-error-rate (BER) which any
practical receiver must satisfy is known as ___________
a) Minimal energy
b) Quantum limit
c) Point of reversed
d) Binary signaling
Ans: b
21. In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the
ability of __________
a) Light Collection
b) Light Scattering
c) Light Dispersion
d) Light Polarization
Ans: a
22. During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible
for an extrinsic absorption?
a)Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b) Impurity atoms in glass material
c) Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d) All of the above
Ans: b
23. Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a)Link power budget
b) Rise time budget
c) Both a and b
Ans: b
24. The light sources used in fibre optics communication are ____________
a) LED’s and Lasers
b) Phototransistors
c) Xenon lights
d) Incandescent
Ans: a
25. The ________ ray passes through the axis of the fiber core.
a) Reflected
b) Refracted
c) Meridional
d) Skew
Ans: c
26. Light incident on fibers of angles________the acceptance angle do not propagate into
the fiber.
a) Less than
b) Greater than
c) Equal to
d) Less than and equal to
Ans: b
27. What is the numerical aperture of the fiber if the angle of acceptance is 16 degree?
a) 0.50
b) 0.36
c) 0.20
d) 0.27
Ans: d
28. The phenomenon which occurs when an incident wave strikes an interface at an angle
greater than the critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface is called as
____________
a) Refraction
b) Partial internal reflection
d) Limiting case of refraction
Ans: c
29. What does micro-bending losses depend on _____________
a) Core material
b) Refractive index
c) Diameter
d) Mode and wavelength
Ans: d
30. The system designer finds greatest interest in the ______________
a) Overall fiber attenuation
b) Fiber dispersion
c) Latitude of the fiber
d) Durability
Ans: a
31. The device used to remove any scattered optical power from the core is __________
a) Mode setup terminator
b) Nodal spectrum
c) Mode stripper
d) Attenuator
Ans: c
32. What is the unit of measurement of the optical attenuation per unit length?
a) dB-km
b) dB/km
c) km/dB
d) V
Ans: b
33. Which technology is used by the backscatter measurement method?
a) Refraction
b) Francis flat recovery
c) Optical time domain reflectometry
d) Optical frequency
Ans: c
34. ________________ measurements checks the impurity level in the manufacturing
process.
a) Material reflectometry
b) Material absorption loss
c) Material attenuation loss
d) Calorimetric loss
Ans: b
35. ___________ removes the light propagating in the cladding.
a) Cladding mode strippers
b) Core strippers
c) Mode enhancers
d) Attenuators
Ans: a
36. The measurement of dispersion allows the _________ of the fiber to be determined.
a) Capacity
b) Frequency
c) Bandwidth
d) Power
Ans: c
37. Intermodal dispersion is nonexistent in ________ fibers.
a) Multimode
b) Single mode
c) Step index- multimode
d) Al-GU
Ans: b
38. In the single mode fibers, the dominant dispersion mechanism is ____________
a) Intermodal dispersion
b) Frequency distribution
c) Material dispersion
d) Intra-modal dispersion
Ans: d
39. The time domain dispersion measurement setup involves _____________ as the photo
detector.
a) Avalanche photodiode
b) Oscilloscope
c) Circulator
d) Gyrator
Ans: a
40. Which of the following is not a strength member used in optical cable?
a) Steel wire
b) Germanium
c) Aramid yarns
d) Glass elements
Ans: b
41. The optical bandwidth is _____________ the electrical bandwidth.
a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Same as
d) Zero with respect to
Ans: b
42. The energy-level occupation for a semiconductor in thermal equilibrium is described by
the __________
a) Boltzmann distribution function
b) Probability distribution function
c) Fermi-Dirac distribution function
d) Cumulative distribution function
Ans: c
43. _________________ is used when the optical emission results from the application of
electric field.
a) Radiation
b) Efficiency
c) Electro-luminescence
d) Magnetron oscillator
Ans: c
44. Which devices are used to modulate the external cavity in order to achieve the higher
switching speeds?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Acousto-optic
c) Dispersive
d) Lead
Ans: b
45. Losses caused by factors such as core-cladding diameter, numerical aperture, relative
refractive index differences, different refractive index profiles, fiber faults are known as
____________
a) Intrinsic joint losses
b) Extrinsic losses
c) Insertion losses
d) Coupling losses
Ans: a
46. It is a passive device which allows the flow of optical signal power in only one direction
and preventing reflections in the backward direction.
a) Fiber slice
b) Optical fiber connector
c) Optical isolator
d) Optical coupler
Ans: c
47. Which feature of an optical isolator makes it attractive to use with optical amplifier?
a) Low loss
b) Wavelength blocking
c) Low refractive index
d) Attenuation
Ans: b
48. Which law gives the relationship between refractive index of the dielectric?
a) Law of reflection
b) Law of refraction (Snell’s Law)
c) Millman’s Law
d) Huygen’s Law
Ans: b
49. Rayleigh scattering and Mie scattering are the types of _____________
a) Linear scattering losses
b) Non-linear scattering losses
c) Fiber bends losses
d) Splicing losses
Ans: a
50. The scattering resulting from fiber imperfections like core-cladding RI differences,
diameter fluctuations, strains, and bubbles is?
a) Rayleigh scattering
b) Mie scattering
c) Stimulated Brillouin scattering
d) Stimulated Raman scattering
Ans: b
51. ____________ converts the received optical signal into an electrical signal.
a) Detector
b) Attenuator
c) Laser
d) LED
Ans: a
52. The depletion region must be ____________ to allow a large fraction of the incident
light to be absorbed in the device(photodiode).
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Long
d) Inactive
Ans: a
53. The process of excitation of an electron from valence band to conduction band leaves an
empty hole in the valence band and is called as ____________
a) Detection
b) Absorption
c) Degeneration of an electron-hole pair
d) Regeneration of an electron-hole pair
Ans: d
54. The photocurrent of an optical detector should be __________
a) Less
b) More
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
Ans: c
55. The absorption of photons in a photodiode is dependent on __________
a) Absorption Coefficient α0
b) Properties of material
c) Charge carrier at junction
d) Amount of light
Ans: a
56. The absorption coefficient of semiconductor materials is strongly dependent on
__________
a) Properties of material
b) Wavelength
c) Amount of light
d) Amplitude
Ans: b
57. The semiconductor material for which the lowest energy absorption takes place is?
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) GaSb
d) Germanium
Ans: d
58. A photodiode should be chosen with a ________________ less than photon energy.
a) Direct absorption
b) Band gap energy
c) Wavelength range
d) Absorption coefficient
Ans: d
59. In Buried hetero-junction (BH) lasers, the optical field is confined within __________
a) Transverse direction
b) Lateral direction
c) Outside the strip
d) Both transverse and lateral direction
Ans: d
60. Problems resulting from parasitic capacitances can be overcome __________
a) Through regrowth of semi-insulating material
b) By using oxide material
c) By using a planar InGaAsP active region
d) By using a AlGaAs active region
Ans: a
Subject:- Satellite and Mobile Communication.
Branch:-B.E(E&TC).
Year:-19-20
Sem:-VIII
1. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______

a. Relay
b. Repeater
c. Transponder
d. Duplexer
Answer: c
2. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.

a. True
b. False
Answer: a
3. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?

a. More number of operating channel
b. Better reception
c. More gain
d. Redundancy
Answer: a
4. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a. More bandwidth
b.More spectrum space
c. Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d.Economically viable
Answer: c
5. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a. Lesser attenuation
b.Less power requirements
c. More bandwidth
d. Overcrowding
Answer: d
6. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?

a. MF
b. Ku
c. X
d. C
Answer: a
7. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
a. Reduce traffic load
b. More gain
c. High speed
d. Error detection
Answer: a
a. Spatial isolation
b. Frequency reuse
c. Multiplexing
d. Modulation
Answer: b
9. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite into smaller segments?
a. Spatial isolation
b. Frequency reuse
c. Multiplexing
d. Modulation
Answer: a
10. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or
a. the number of its feed horns must be increased
b.the frequency of its transmission must be increased
c. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased
d. its footprint must be increased
Answer : b
11. India’s first domestic geostationary satellite 1NSAT-IA was launched on 10th April 1982 from
a. USSR
b.USA
c. UK
d. UP
Answer : b
12. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure that
a. launch takes place eastward
b. expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing
c. the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly
d. spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls into the sea
Answer : d
13. Geostationary satellite follow

a. Circular path
b.Elliptical path
c. Inclined path
d. Cycloidal path
ans-b
14. The number of days when Earth’s shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 88
b. 277
c. 5
d. 10
Answer : a
15. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is ……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
Answer : b
16. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..
a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
c. Beamwidth
d. Gain
Answer : a
17. What band does VSAT first operate?

a. L-band
b. X-band
c. C-band
d. Ku-band
Answer : c
18. [FSL]=?
a. [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log f
b. [FSL] = 20 log r+20 log f
c. [FSL] =32.4+20 log r+20 log (wavelength)
d. none of these
Ans-a
19. ……………. collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite

a. Helical antenna
b. Satellite dish
c. LNA
d. TWT
Answer : b
20. ………….is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.
a. Atmospheric loss
b. Path loss
c. Radiation loss
d. RFI
Answer : b
21. …………… is considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system.

a. Coverage
b. Cost
c. Access
d. Privacy
Answer : d
22. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite ……………
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
Answer : a
23. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth’s surface is called ……………
a. Zone beam
b. Hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam
Answer : d
24. A geosynchronous satellite
a. has the same period a that of the Earth
b. has a circular orbit
c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above
Answer : d
25. A transponder is a satellite equipment which

a. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
b. changes the frequency of the received signal
c. retransmits the received signal
d. does all of the above-mentioned functions
Answer : d
26. The Link-Power Budget Equation?

a.[PR] =[EIRP] +[GR] -[LOSSES]
b. [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[AA] +[PL]
c. [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML]
d. none of these
Ans-a
27. Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets are oval in shape or
a.Ellipses.
b.Perfect circles.
c.Squares.
d.Triangles.
Answer-a
28.Kepler's second law is known as

a.The Law of Orbits.
b.The Law of Areas.
c.The Law of Periods.
d.The Law of Gravity.
Answer-b
29. Kepler's third law is known as

a.The Law of Orbits.
b.The Law of Areas.
c.The Law of Periods.
d.The Law of Gravity.
Answer-c
30.For an elliptical orbit?

a. 0<e<1
b. 0
c. 1
ans-a
31.Apogee?
a. The point farthest from earth
b. The point nearest from earth
c. The point smallest from earth
Answer-a
32.. Perigee?
a.The point farthest from earth
b. The point longest from earth
c. The point closest approach to earth
Answer-c
33. Ascending node?

a. The point where the orbit crosses the equatorial plane going from south to north
Answer-a
34. Argument of perigee?

a. The angle from ascending node to perigee, measured in the orbital plane at
the earth’s center, in the direction of satellite motion.
Answer-a
35. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ………. ratio.

a. C/N
b. S/N
c. G/T
d. EIRP
Answer :a
36. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is ……….
a. EHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. SHF
Answer : d
37. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the

a. moon
b. sun
c. earth
d. all of the above
Answer : d
38. Which one of the following statement is correct?

a. Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting earth station
b. Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used
c. The width of a beam in space is inversely proportional to the width of the transmitting antenna
d. Use of high-frequency bands permits less number of satellites to share the orbit
Answer : c
39. A geostationary satellite is one which

a. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth
b. travels around the Earth in 24 hours
c. remains stationary above the Earth
d. appears stationary to everybody on Earth
Answer : d
40. Geostationary satellite follow

a. Circular path
b.Elliptical path
c. Inclined path
d. Cycloidal path
ans-b
41. What is the full form of WLAN?

a. Wide Local Area Network
b. Wireless Local Area Network
c. Wireless Land Access Network
d. Wireless Local Area Node
Answer : b
42. Repeaters inside communication satellites are known as ………

a. Transceivers
b. Transponders
c. Transducers
d. TWT
Answer : b
43. What is an noise power spectral density?

a.N0 = PN/B N=KTN joules
b.N0 = BN/PN
c. N0 = BN/PN =KTNB 0 joules

d. None of above
Ans-a
44. What is an EIRP?

(a. It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the
antenna gain & the power fed to the antenna input.
(b. It is a measure of radiated or transmitted power of an antenna. It can be completed from the antenna
gain& the power fed from the antenna output.
(c. Either a or b.
(d. None of above
Ans-a
45. INTELSAT stands for ………….

a. Intel Satellite
b. International Telephone Satellite
c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
Answer : c
46. …………. is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or) another body of solar
systems.
a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
d. none of the above
Answer : a
47. ………… is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and retransmit data to earth stations.
a. Optical communication
b. Digital communication
c. Analog communication
d. Satellite communication
Answer : d
48. ………… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be an ellipse.
Answer : b
49. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its orbital plane, focused
at the barycenter.
Answer : c
50. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube of the mean distance
between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
Answer : d
51. Which area is least effectively covered by geostationary satellites?

a.Equatorial region
b.Polar region
c. A and C
ans-b
52.Which antenna is used for sending back signals from satellite to earth?
a.Dipole antenna
b.Horn antenna
c.Yagi antenna
d.Chicken-mash antenna
ans-b
53. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on
a. geostationary satellites
b. MEO
c.LEO
d. None of these
Ans-a
54.The down link frequency in the C band transponder is
a. 6 GHz
b. 4 GHz
c. 14 GHz
d. 11 GHz
Answer-b
55. The carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon

a. Effective Isotropic Radiated power
b. Bandwidth.
c. Free space path losses
d. All of them
Answer-d
56. The multiple access technique suitable only for digital transmission is
a.TDMA
b.FDMA
c.Botha.andb.
d.Packet Access
Answer-a
57.What is meant by azimuth angle?

a. It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & the plane passing
through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
b. It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local vertical plane & the plane passing through
the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
c. It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane & center of earth.
d. None of above
Ans-a
58.Commonly used mode for 3G networks is

a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. TDD
d. FDD
ANSWER: d
59.Write the equations of losses for clear sky conditions.

a. Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)+(AML)+(AA.+(PL)
b. Losses=(FSL)+(RFL)
c. Losses=(FSL+(AML)+(AA.+(PL)
d. None of above
Ans-a
60.The shape of the cellular region for maximum radio coverage is

a. Circular
b. Square
c. Oval
d. Hexagon
ANSWER: d
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Techniques
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.
Class: B.E
Semester: VIII

a) Resistance
c) Capacitance
d) Conductance
Answer: b
Q2. The networks in which the R, L, C parameters are individually concentrated or lumped at
discrete points in the circuit are called
a) Lumped
b) Distributed
c) Parallel
d) Paired
Answer: a
Q3. The lines having R, L, C distributed along the circuit are called
a) Lumped
b) Distributed
c) Parallel
d) Paired
Answer: b
Q4. Which primary parameter is uniformly distributed along the length of the conductor?
a) G
b) C
c) L
d) R
Answer: d
Q5. The primary parameter that is associated with the magnetic flux linkage is
a) R
b) L
c) C
d) G
Answer: b
Q6. Find the phase constant of a wave travelling with a velocity of 1.2 x 108 and a frequency of
7.5 giga radian/sec
a) 62.5
b) 26.5
c) 56.2
d) 52.6
Answer: a
Q7. The electrical length in a transmission line refers to the

a) Product of attenuation constant and length
b) Ratio of attenuation constant and length
c) Product of phase constant and length
d) Ratio of phase constant and length
Answer: a
Q8. The unit of attenuation constant is

a) Decibel
b) Bel
c) Neper
d) No unit
Answer: c
Q9. The attenuation constant causes phase distortion and the phase constant causes frequency
distortion. State True/False.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q10. The purpose of the transmission line equation is to

a) Find primary parameters
b) Find secondary parameters
c) Find the reflection cofficient
d) Impedance matching
Answer: d
a) Impedance inverter
b) Impedance doubler
c) Impedance tripler
d) Impedance quadrupler
Answer: a
Q12. Which transmission line is called as one to one transformer?

a) L = λ
b) L = λ/2
c) L = λ/4
d) L = λ/8
Answer: b
Q13. The reflection coefficient of a wave with transmission coefficient 0.35 is

a) 1.35
b) 0.65
c) 0.35
d) 0.7
Answer: b
Q14. The incident wave amplitude is 24 units. Find the reflected wave amplitude if the reflection
coefficient is 0.6.
a) 14.4
b) 16.6
c) 13.3
d) 11.1
Answer: a
Q15. Find the reflection coefficient of the wave passing through two media having intrinsic
impedances of 4 and 9 respectively.
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.38
d) 0.1
Answer: c
Q16. Calculate the transmission coefficient, when the incident and transmitted amplitudes are 10
and 7 respectively.
a) 17
b) 3
c) 10/7
d) 0.7
Answer: d
Q17. The transmission coefficient in a wave travelling through two media having intrinsic
impedances of 5.5 and 1.33 is
a) 0.389
b) 0.55
c) 0.133
d) 0.42
Answer: a
Q18. The transmission coefficient in a wave travelling through two media having permittivities 4
and 1 is
a) 1/4
b) 3/2
c) 3/4
d) 2/3
Answer: d
Q19. The Smith chart is a polar chart which plots

a) R vs Z
b) R vs Znorm
c) T vs Z
d) T vs Znorm
Answer: b
Q20. The Smith chart is graphical technique used in the scenario of transmission lines. State
true/false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q21. The phenomenon employed in the waveguide operation is

a) Reflection
b) Refraction
d) Adsorption
Answer: c
Q22. The dominant mode in waveguide is the mode which has

a) Highest frequency
b) Highest wavelength
c) Lowest phase constant
d) Highest attenuation
Answer: b
Q23. The modes are calculated from which parameter?

a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Phase constant
d) V number
Answer: d
Q24. The circular waveguides use which function in the frequency calculation?
a) Laplace function
b) Schottky function
c) Bessel function
d) Transfer function
Answer: c
Q25. The scattering parameters are used to indicate the

a) Permittivity and permeability
b) Electric and magnetic field intensities
c) Reflection and transmission coefficients
d) Frequency and wavelength
Answer: c
Q26. Which of the following two parameter models cannot be used to represent a transmission
line?
a) H parameter model
b) T parameter model
c) ABCD parameter model
d) S parameter model
Answer: a
Q27. For the matched line, the parameters S12 and S21 are
a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) ∞
Answer: b
Q28. The waveguides are materials with characteristics of

a) Low bulk resistivity
b) High bulk resistivity
c) High conductivity
d) Low conductivity
Answer: a
Q29. The parameters S11 and S22 indicate the transmission coefficients. State true/false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q30. The waveguides increase the transmission of the electromagnetic waves. State true/false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q31. The real part of the propagation constant is the

a) Attenuation constant
b) Phase constant
c) Permittivity
d) Permeability
Answer: a
Q32. The phase constant of a wave is given by

a) ω√(LC)
b) ω√(L/C)
c) ω√(C/L)
d) ω√(1/LC)
Answer: a
Q33. The cut off frequency of the dominant mode in a TE wave in the line having a and b as 2.5
cm and 1 cm respectively is
a) 4.5 GHz
b) 5 GHz
c) 5.5 GHz
d) 6 GHz
Answer: d
Q34. The cut off frequency of the TE01 mode will be

a) mc/2a
b) mc/2b
c) nc/2a
d) nc/2b
Answer: d
Q35. The condition which will satisfy the dimensions of the waveguide is
a) a = b
b) a > b
c) a < b
d) ab = 0
Answer: b
Q36. The cut off wavelength of the TE10 mode having a broad wall dimension of 5cm is
a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 10
d) 0.01
Answer: a
Q37. The broad wall dimension of a waveguide having a cut off frequency of 7.5 GHz is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Q38. The sin θ in the waveguide refers to the ratio of the

a) Frequency to wavelength
b) Wavelength to frequency
c) Cut off frequency to frequency
d) Frequency to cut off frequency
Answer: c
Q39. Is the transmission of a frequency 5 GHz possible in waveguides?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a
Q40. The dimension for a waveguide in dominant mode with a cut off wavelength of 2 units is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: b
Q41. The production of power at higher frequencies is much simpler than production of power at
low frequencies.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q42. Microwave tubes are power sources themselves at higher frequencies and can be used
independently without any other devices.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q43. Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories depending on the type of:
a) Electron beam field interaction
b) Amplification method
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods
Answer: a
Q44. The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a _________ type beam amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
Answer: a
Q45. In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is parallel to
the electric field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Q46. ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a reflector
electrode after the cavity.
b) Reflex klystron
d) Magnetrons
Answer: b
Q47. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is:

a) Low power gain
b) Low bandwidth
Answer: b
Q48. In a _________ oscillator, the RF wave travels along the helix from the collector towards
the electron gun.
a) Interaction oscillator
b) Backward wave oscillator
c) Magnetrons
d) None o the mentioned
Answer: b
Q49. Extended interaction oscillator is a ________ beam oscillator that is similar to klystron.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed beam
c) Parallel beam
d) M beam
Answer: a
Q50. Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Q51. Silicon and germanium are called ___________ semiconductors.
a) direct gap
b) indirect gap
c) band gap
d) indirect band gap
Answer: b
Q52. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:

Answer: d
Q53. In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current generated is constant irrespective of the electric
filed applied to the specimen.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Q54. When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the threshold electric field,
the current in the material:
a) increases linearly
b) decreases linearly
c) increases exponentially
d) decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Q55. When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb more energy
from the field and become:
a) hot electrons
b) cold electrons
c) emission electrons
Answer: a
Q56. GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. Gunn diode is:

a) bulk device
b) sliced device
c) made of different type of semiconductor layers
Answer: a
Q57. The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made of:

a) molybdenum
b) GaAs
c) gold
d) copper
Answer: a
Q58. When either a voltage or current is applied to the terminals of bulk solid state compound
GaAs, a differential ______ is developed in that bulk device.
a) negative resistance
b) positive resistance
c) negative voltage
Answer: a
Q59. The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs is:

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer: c
Q60. The free electron concentration in N-type GaAs is controlled by:

a) effective doping
b) bias voltage
c) drive current
Answer: a
Subject: Nanotechnology(188152/238152)
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. Which of the following is an example of bottom-up approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
A Etching
B Dip pen nano-lithography
C Lithography
D Erosion
Ans.:B
Q1.The size of nanoparticles is between _____ nm.
A 100 to 1000
B 0.1 to 10
C 1 To 100
D 0.01 to 1
Ans.: C
Q2.The diameter of hydrogen atom is...
A1
B 10
C 0.1
D 0.01
Ans.: C
Q3.Carbon atoms make ____ type of bond with other carbon atoms.
A covalent
B ionic
C metallic
D hydrogen
Ans.: A
Q4.Fullerene or bucky ball is made up of ____ carbon atoms.
A 100
B 20
C 75
D 60
Ans.: D
Q5.The thermal conductivity of a standard SWNT along its length is ____ watt/(m.K)
A 3500
B 385
C 35000
D 35
Ans.: A
Q6.Which of the following is the application of nanotechnology to food science and

technology?
A Agriculture
B Food safety and biosecurity
C Product development
Ans.: D
Q7.What are the advantages of nano-composite packages?
A Lighter and biodegradable
B Enhanced thermal stability, conductivity and mechanical strength
C Gas barrier properties
Ans.: D
Q8.The nano particles from iron and palladium are used to produce ________
A Magnets
B Magnetic lens
C Magneto meters
D Magnetic storage devices
Ans.: D
Q9. Which gas serves as buffer gas in Laser ablation?
A Nitrogen
B Oxygen
C Helium
D Neon
Ans.: C
Q10.Nano particles target the rare ____causing cells and remove them from blood.
A Tumour
B Fever
C Infection
D Cold
Ans.: A
Q11.___________is the field in which the nano particles are used with silica coated iron
oxide iron oxide.
A Magnetic applications
B Electronics
C Medical diagnosis
D Structural and mechanical materials
Ans.: C
Q12. Which of the following is an example of bottom-up approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
A Etching
B Dip pen nano-lithography
C Lithography
D Erosion
Ans.:B
Q13.Who was the first scientist to describe that substances having nanodimensions possess
altogether different and unique properties?
A Richard Feynmann
B Eric Drexler
C Archimedes
D Michael Faraday
Ans.: A
Q14.The thickness of a transistor is ____ nm.
A 50
B 90
C 2,000
D 5,000
Ans.: B
Q15.The size of a virus is ____ nm.
A2
B 20
C 50
D 2000
Ans.: D
Q16.The diameter of a bucky ball is ____ nm.
A 1,000
B 100
C 10
D1
Ans.: A
Q17.The width of a typical DNA molecule is ____ nm.
A1
B2
C5
D 10
Ans.: A
Q18. Which of the following is an example of top-down approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
AGas phase agglomeration
B Molecular self-assembly
C Mechanical grinding
D Molecular beam epitaxy
Ans.: C
Q19.The compressive strength of a nanotube _____ its tensile strength.
A is less than
B is greater than
C is equal to
D may be greater than
Ans.: B
Q20.The bulk modulus of a standard SWNT is ____ that of diamond.
A less than
B greater than
C equal to
D less than or equal to
Ans.: D
Q21.The largest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ____
carbon atoms.
A 60
B 75
C 180
D 540
Ans.: C
Q22.Which of the following does not apply to nanotechnology?
A It is a general-purpose technology.
B It can be called Green technology.
C Newtonian mechanics can describe it.
D It involves rearrangement of atoms.
Ans.: C
Q23.The smallest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ____
carbon atoms.
A 75
B 60
C 20
D 15
Ans.: A
Q24. Carbon nanotubes are poor transmitters of electromagnetic radiations due to their
____________
A High conductivity
B Large surface area
C High porosity
D Chemical Stability
Ans.: A
Q25. Which of the following is the principal factor which causes the properties of
nanomaterials to differ significantly from other materials?
A Size distribution
B Specific surface feature
C Quantum size effects
Ans.: D
Q26. CVD stands for ____________
A Carbon vapour density
B Chemical vapour density
C Chemical vapour deposition
D Carbon vapour deposition

Ans.: C
Q27. What are the advantages of nano-composite packages?
A Lighter and biodegradable
B Enhanced thermal stability, conductivity and mechanical strength
C Gas barrier properties
Ans.: D
Q28.The electrical conductivity of a nanotube is ____ times that of copper.
A 10
B 100
C 1000
D 1/100
Ans.: B
Q29.An MWNT possesses electrical superconductivity up to temperature of...
A 12 K
B 12°C
C 100 K
D 100°
Ans.: D
Q30.At room temperature, the thermal conductivity of a copper wire is ____ watt/(m.K).
A 3500
B 350
C 385
D 38.5
Ans.: B
Q31.In radial direction, the thermal conductivity of a nanotube is ____ watt/(m.K).
A 3500
B 385
C 350
D0
Ans.: B
Q32.The thermal stability of a nanotube is seen up to ____ K in vacuum.
A 100
B 1000
C 2200
D 3100
Ans.: C
Q33.The thermal conductivity of an SWNT along length is ____ watt/(m.K).
A 35
B 350
C 385
D 3500
Ans.: B
Q34.The size of a quantum dot is ____ nm.
A5
B 10
C 50
D 100
Ans.: A
Q35.The wavelength of visible light is ____ nm.
A 40-70
B 400-700
C 4000-7000
D 40000-70000
Ans.: D
Q36.The capacity of a normal human eye to see the smallest object is ____ μm.
A 10000
B 1000
C 100
D 10
Ans.: C
Q37.The width of a carbon nanotube is ____ nm.
A1
B 1.3
C 2.5
D 10
Ans.: C
Q38.The thermal stability of a nanotube is seen up to ____ K in air.
A 100
B 1000
C 2000
D 3100
Ans.: B
Q39.Coating the nano crystals with the ceramics is carried that leads to ________
A Corrosion
B Corrosion resistant
C Wear and tear
D Soft
Ans.: B
Q40.Nano particles of which atom are used to control collateral damage due to explosion?
A Copper
B Aluminium
C Carbon
D Lead
Ans.: B
Q41.Who prepared and explained nanotubes for the first time?
A SumioTijima
B Richard Smalley
C Eric Drexler
D Richard Feynmann
Ans.: A
Q42.The __________ to the ceramics are superior coatings.
A Nano particles
B Nano powder
C Nano crystals coating
D Nano gel
Ans.: D
Q43.By nano scale distribution of the _______ in matrix improves the life and performance.
A Carbide
B Tungsten
C Hydrides
D Nitrites
Ans.: B
Q44.Carbon nano tubes are the sheets of graphite about ________
A 0.1nm
B 0.2nm
C 0.3nm
D 0.4nm
Ans.:
Q45.Carbon nano tubes are also called as ________
A Bucky tubes
B Bulky tubes
C Bulk tubes
D Buck balls
Ans.: A
Q46.Carbon nano tubes are first observed in _________
A 1992
B 1991
C 1990
D 1993
Ans.: B
Q47.In how many methods the CNT can be prepared?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Ans.: D
Q48.The current used in the arc discharge method is about _________
A 100Ma
B 200mA
300mA
D 400mA
Ans.: A
Q49.The yield of the laser ablation is ______________
A 30%
B 70%
C 80%
D 90%
Ans.: B
Q50.Laser ablation method is developed by _______
A Kelvin
B Richard Smalley
C Watson and crick
D Neilsbohr
Ans.: B
Q51.A water cooled surface is used in the process to collect __________
A Nano particles
B Nano tubes
C Nano spheres
D Nano sheets
Ans.: B
Q52.To improve the composite of graphite _______ is used as a catalyst.
A CO
B NI
C CO and NI
D TIO
Ans.: C
Q53.Chemical vapour decomposition is developed in an year ________
A 2001
B 2002
C 2006
D 2007
Ans.: D
Q54.The substrate is heated to ________
A 200C
B 300C
C 400C
D 700C
Ans.: D
Q55.Multi walled CNT are ________ concentric nano tubes.
A Single
B Double
C Triple
D Multiple
Ans.: D
Q56.The nano tube may _________ without friction.
A Slides
B Overlaps
C Under laps
D Collides
Ans.: C
Q57.CNT is ___________
A Conductor
B Insulator
C Semi conductor
D Impure metal
Ans.: C
Q58.Most promising applications of the CNT is _________
A Paper batteries
B Solar cells
C Space elevators
D Stab proof
Ans.: B
Q59. The synthesized magnetic nano particles from _________ have been found to self-
arrange automatically.
A Zin
B Copper
C Iron
D Zirconium
Ans.: C
Q60. The main purpose of CNTs in fuel cells is ___________
A Production of energy
B Active medium
C Catalyst
D Storage
Ans.: D
Subject:- Power Electronics
Class:- BE
Semester :- VII
Q1 A tangent drawn from the Y-axis to the Pavg on the gate characteristics gives the value of the
a) maximum value of gate-source resistance
b) minimum value of gate-source resistance
c) maximum value of gate-source power
d) minimum value of gate-source power
ANSWER: a
Q.2 Higher the magnitude of the gate pulse
a) lesser is the time required to inject the charges
b) greater is the time required to inject the charges
c) greater is the value of anode current
d) lesser is the value of anode current
ANSWER:a
Q.3. The two transistor model of the SCR can obtained by
a) bisecting the SCR vertically
b) bisecting the SCR horizontally
c) bisecting the SCRs top two & bottom two layers
d) bisecting the SCRs middle two layers
ANSWER: d
Q.4. The average output voltage is maximum when SCR is triggered at ωt =

a) π
b) 0
c) π/2
d) π/4
ANSWER: b
Q.5 For a single phase thyristor circuit with R load & firing angle α, the conduction angle can be given by
a) π+α
b) 2π+α
c) π-α
d) α
ANSWER: C
Q.6. . A three-phase bridge inverter requires minimum of _____________ switching devices.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
ANSWER: c
Q.7. In inverters, to make the supply voltage constant
a) an inductor is placed in series with the load
b) capacitor is connected in parallel to the load side
c) capacitor is connected in parallel to the supply side
ANSWER: c
Q.8. In a single pulse semi-converter using two SCRs, the triggering circuit must produce
a) two firing pulses in each half cycle
b) one firing pulse in each half cycle
c) three firing pulses in each cycle
d) one firing pulse in each cycle
Ans:- b
Q.9 In a 1-φ full converter, Number of SCRs conducting during an overlap
a)2
b)4
c)6
d)8
Ans:- b
Q.10. In a single-phase half-wave circuit with RL load and a freewheeling diode, the load voltage during
the freewheeling period will be
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) negative
d) positive than negative
Ans:- a
Q.11. A single full converter alone can given a
a) four quadrant operation
b) three quadrant operation
c). two quadrant operation

Ans:-C
Q.12. Single phase half bridge inverters requires
a) two wire ac supply
b) two wire dc supply
c) three wire ac supply
d) three wire dc supply
Ans:- D
Q.13 .Single-phase full bridge inverters requires
a) 4 SCRs and 2 diodes
b) 4 SCRs and 4 diodes
c) 2 SCRs and 4 diodes
d) 2 SCRs and 2 diodes
Ans:- b
Q.14. In a SCR,
a) Gate current is directly proportional to forward breakover voltage
b) As gate current is raised, forward breakover voltage reduces
c) Gate current has to be kept on continuously for conduction
d) Forward breakover voltage is low in the forward blocking state.
Ans. b
Q.15 In a SCR, at switch on, there is a sudden increase of current, then

(1) The tolerance limit of di/dt varies from 3 to 30A/us
(2) di/dt upper limit is 3A/us
(3) di/dt rating can be increased by having an inductive load
(4) di/dt rating can be increased by a resistive load Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1, 3
(b) 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2
Ans:- a
Q.16. When a SCR is in the forward blocking state,

a) All the 3 junctions are reverse biased
b) The anode and cathode junctions are forward biased but the gate junction is reverse biased
c) The anode junction is forward biased but the cathode and gate junctions are reverse biased
d) The anode and gate junctions are forward biased but the cathode junction is reverse biased
Ans:- b
Q.17. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a

a)Unijunction device
b)Device with three junction
c)Device with four junction
d)None of the above
Ans:- b
Q.18. The inverter can be classified as

a) Voltage Source Inverter
b) current Source Inverter
C) both a and b
D) power inverter
Ans:-c
Q.19. A freewheeling diode is connected across an inductive load is
a)To restore conduction angle on phase
b)To avoid negative reversal voltage drop
c)To reduce the PRV
d)All of the above
Ans:- a
Q.20 Inverter converts
a)DC to AC
b)AC to DC
c)DC to DC
d)AC to AC
Ans:- A
Q.21 The latching current of an SCR is 12 mA. Its holding current will be
a)4 mA
b)12 mA
c)50 mA
d )8 mA
Ans.- a
Q.22 A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is operated at a firing
angle a and the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the freewheeling diode conducts is
a)α/ π
b)α
c)π + α
d)π − α
Ans:- a
Q.23 If the firing angle in an SCR rectifier is decreased, the output is

a)Increased
b)Maximum
c)Decreased
d)Remain Unaffected
Ans:- a
Q.24 A SCR is a ________ switch
a)One directional
b)Two directional
c)Three directional
d)Four Directional
Ans:- a
Q.25 In a 3-φ semi converter for firing angle less than or equal to 60°, wheeling diode conducts for
a)Zero degree
b)30°
c)45°
d)75°
Ans:- a
Q.26 The effective turning off SCR after the anode current has reached zero value.
a)The charge is removed by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
b)Chargers are injected by applying reverse anode-cathode voltage
c)Chargers are injected by applying the gate signal
d)None of these
Ans:-a
Q.27 In the forward blocking mode, the middle junction (J2) has the characteristics of that of a:
a)Inductor
b)Transistor
c)Capacitor
d)None of these
Ans:- c
Q.28 The forward dv/dt rating of an SCR:-
a)Decrease with the decrease in the RMS value if forward anode-cathode voltage
b)Decrease with the increase in the junction temperature
c)Increase with an increase in the junction temperature
d)Increase with the decrease in the RMS value of forward anode-cathode voltage
Ans:-C
Q.29 What is the most suitable method to turn on the SCR device among the following?
a)Gate Triggering Method
b)Forward Voltage Triggering Method
c)Temperature Triggering Method
d)dv/dt triggering Method
Ans:-a
Q.30 What is the total anode current of SCR in the equivalent circuit from the two transistors (T1 & T2)
analogy of SCR?
a)The sum of both base current
b)The sum of both collector current
c)The sum of the base current of T2 & collector current of T1
d)The sum of the base current of T1 & collector current of T2
Ans:-B
Q.31 The value of anode current required to maintain the conduction of an SCR even though the gate
signal is removed is called as the:-
a)Latching current
b)Holding current
c)Switching current
d)All of these
Ans:- A
Q.32 During forward blocking state, the SCR has
a)Low current, medium voltage
b)Low current, large voltage
c)Medium current, large voltage
d)Large current, low voltage
Ans:- b
Q.33 A single phase full bridge inverter is fed from a 48 V battery and is delivering power to a pure
resistance load what is the value of fundaments output voltage?
a)15.80
b)22.26
c)8.36
d)43.22
Ans:- d
Q.34 In the three-phase bridge inverter, each step consists of

a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) will depend on the value of the firing angle
Ans:- B
Q.35 The 120° mode of operation of a three phase bridge inverter requires ___________ number of steps.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Ans:- c
Q.36 The peak value of the line voltage in case of 120° mode of operation of a three-phase bridge inverter
is
a) Vs/2
b) 3Vs/2
c) Vs/√2
d) Vs
Ans:- d
Q.37 In the single-pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about
__________
a) π
b) 2π
c) π/2
d) π/4
Ans:- c
Q.38. In the single-pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about
____________ in the negative half cycle.
a) 2π
b) 3π/2
c) π/2
d) 3π/4
Ans:- b
Q.39 The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is
a) square wave
b) triangular wave
c) quasi-square wave
d) sine wave
Ans:- c
Q.40 In the single-pulse width modulation method, when the pulse width of 2d is equal to its maximum
value of π radians, then the fundamental component of output voltage is given by
a) Vs
b) 4Vs/π
c) 0
d) 2Vs/π
Ans:- b
Q.41. Find the peak value of the fundamental component of voltage with a pulse width of 2d = 90 and Vs
= 240 V for single-pulse modulation in a full wave bridge inverter.
a) 305 V
b) 216 V
c) 0 V
d) 610 V
Ans:-b
Q.42 In ___________ type of modulation method, the pulse width is not equal for all the pulses.
a) multiple pulse width modulation
b) single pulse width modulation
c) sinusoidal pulse width modulation
Ans:- c
Q.43 In PWM, the comparator output is further given to a ____________
a) integrator
b) scr devices
c) trigger pulse generator
d) snubber circuit
Ans:- c
Q.44 In the sinusoidal pulse width modulation, ____________ is the reference wave signal.
a) square wave
b) triangular wave
c) sinusoidal wave
d) quasi-square wave
Ans:-c
Q.45 In sinusoidal pulse width modulation, the comparator output is high when the
a) triangular wave has magnitude higher than the sinusoidal wave
b) sinusoidal wave has magnitude higher than the triangular wave
c) triangular wave has magnitude equal to the sinusoidal wave
Ans:- b
Q.46. In pulse width modulated inverters, the output voltage is controlled by controlling the
a) input frequency
b) modulating index
c) amplification factor
Ans:-b
Q.47 In case of sinusoidal pulse width modulation with MI < 1, if the number of pulses per half cycle
(N) = 5, then
a) harmonics of order 5 and 7 become significant
b) harmonics of order 5 and 7 are eliminated
c) harmonics of order 9 and 11 become significant
d) harmonics of order 9 and 11 are eliminated
Ans:-c
Q.48. In single-phase modulation of PWM inverters, the pulse width is 120°. For an input voltage of 220
V dc, the rms value of output voltage is
a) 185 V
b) 254 V
c) 127 V
d) 179 V
Ans:- d
Q.49. In an inverter, if the fundamental output frequency is 50 Hz, then the frequency of the lowest order
harmonic will be
a) 50 Hz
b) 150 Hz
c) 250 Hz
d) 350 Hz
Ans:- b
Q.50 In a PWM inverter, if the frequency of the lowest harmonic is 180 Hz, then the frequency of the
fundamental component would be ___________
a) 50 Hz
b) 60 Hz
c) 540 Hz
d) 90 Hz
Ans:- b
Q.51 In case of sinusoidal pulse width modulation with MI < 1, the order of the dominate harmonic can
be raised by
a) increasing the number of pulses
b) reducing the number of pulses
c) lowering the input voltage frequency
d) raising the input voltage frequency
Ans:- a
Q.52 In case of sinusoidal pulse width modulation with MI < 1, if the number of pulses per half cycle (N)
= 6, then
a) harmonics of order 7 and 9 become significant
b) harmonics of order 7 and 9 are eliminated
c) harmonics of order 11 and 13 become significant
d) harmonics of order 11 and 13 are eliminated
Ans. c
Q.53 In an inverter, if the fundamental output frequency is 45 Hz, then the frequency of the second
lowest order harmonic will be
a) 45 Hz
b) 135 Hz
c) 225 Hz
d) 9 Hz
Ans. c
Q.54 In an inverter, if the fundamental output frequency is 45 Hz, then the frequency of the lowest order
harmonic will be
a) 45 Hz
b) 225 Hz
c) 15 Hz
d) 135 Hz
ANS. d
Q.55 A single-phase bridge inverter has a square wave output voltage waveform, with odd harmonics
present. What is the percentage of the fifth harmonic component to the fundamental component?
a) 50 %
b) 25 %
c) 20 %
d) 5 %
ANS. c
Q.56 Control of frequency and control of voltage in 3-phase inverters is

a) possible only through inverter control circuit
b) possible through the control circuit of inverter and converter
c) possible through inverter control of frequency and through converter control for voltage
ANS. c
Q.57 Output voltage of a single-phase bridge inverter, fed from a fixed dc source is varied by
a) varying the switching frequency
b) pulse-width modulation
c) pulse amplitude modulation
d) all of the mentioned
ANS.b
Q.58 A single-phase bridge inverter, fed from a 230 V dc is connected to the load R = 10 Ω and L = 0.03
H. Determine the fundamental component of rms output current. Fundamental output frequency of the
square wave output = 50 Hz.
a) 30 A
b) 15 A
c) 2.3 A
d) 20.7 A
ANS.b
Q.59 A single-phase bridge inverter, fed from a 230 V dc is connected to the load R = 10 Ω and L = 0.03
H. The output is a quasi-square wave with an on period of 0.5 of a cycle. Determine the fundamental
component of rms output voltage.
a) 207.10 V
b) 146.42 V
c) 265.4 V
d) 129 V
Ans. b
Q.60 In case of multiple pulse width modulation method, if the amplitudes of the reference wave and the
carrier wave are made equal then, the pulse width =
a) ∞
b) 0
c) 100 °
Ans. b
Subject: - Process Control System
Class: - BE
Semester: - VIII
1. The feedback control system:
a. Cannot make corrections until a measurable error exists

b. Makes a change in output which is the differentiated error
c. Is always superior to a feed forward system in operation
d. Is theoretically capable of perfect control
Answer: a
2. The feed forward control system:
a. Cannot make corrections until a measurable error exists

b. Makes a change in output that is the integrated error
c. Requires little knowledge of the process before installation
d. Is theoretically capable of perfect control
Answer: d
3. The original boiler drum level application of feedforward control, developed in 1925:
a. Is still being applied everyday

b. Was abandoned because of poor measuring techniques
c. Worked well only with the particular boiler for which it was originally designed
d. Was immediately recognized as the ultimate control system
Answer: a
4. A properly designed feedforward control system:
a. Should be applied to every process

b. Should be employed when its use can be justified economically and technologically
c. Is always easier to adjust than a feedback system
d. Will always result in more economical process operation
Answer: b
5. The most dramatic application of feedforward techniques has occurred in their application to:
a. Heat exchangers
b. Level processes
c. Flow processes
d. Distillation columns
Answer: d
6. A valve positioner :
a. Takes the place of a cascade control system

b. Provides more precise valve position
c. Makes a pneumatic controller in necessary
d. Provides a remote indication of valve position
Answer: b
7. Assume that a control valve regulates stream flow to a process and that high temperature makes the reaction
hazardous. The usual pneumatically operated control valve utilizes the following action for fail-safe operation
a. Air to open
b. Air to close
c. 3 psi (20 kpa) to fully open
d. 15 psi (100 kpa) to fully close
Answer: a
8. The basic function of the spring in a control valve is to
a. Characterize flow
b. Oppose the diaphragm so as to position the valve according to signal pressure
c. Close the valve if air failure occurs
d. Open the valve if air failure occurs
Answer: b
9. A diaphragm actuator has a diaphragm area of 50 square inches and is adjusted to stroke a valve when a 3 to 15 psi
(20 to 100 k Pa) Signal is applied. If the signal is 15 psi (100 k pa) the force on the valve stem will be :
a. 750 pounds
b. 750 pounds less than the opposing spring force
c. Dependent on hysteresis
Answer:b
10. A high- pressure flow process requires a valve with tight packing. This would suggest that :
a. A valve positioner should be employed

b. The actuator must be sized to provide adequate force
c. Oversized pneumatic signals lines are required
d. The controller supplying the signal to the valve must have a very narrow proportional band.
Answer: b
11. An electronic controller creates a 4 to 20mA dc signal that must actuate a steam valve for temperature control.
The best and most economical choice would be to :
a. Use an all-electric actuator system

b. Convert to a pneumatic signal at the controller and use a pneumatic actuator.
c. Use pneumatic actuator with an electric to pneumatic valve positioner
Answer:c
12. A pressure control process using proportional plus integral control has a time constant of 10 seconds. The best
choice of actuator would be :
a. An electric motor
b. A pneumatic diaphragm
c. A piston and cylinder
d. A solenoid electrical
Answer: b
13. A diaphragm actuator has a diaphragm area of 115 square inches. A valve positioner is attached to the actuator
and fed with 22 psi air supply. If after 9 psi signal is received from the controller the signal changes to 10 psi and the
valve fails to move. What is the force applied to the valve stem?
a. 2.530 pounds
b. 1.495 pounds
c. 1.035 pounds
Answer: a
14. One advantage of an electric to pneumatic valve positioner is :
a. It can be used on flow control

b. It produces positive valve position
c. It conserves energy
d. It dampers valve travels
Answer: b
15. A single seated globe valve containing a plug 1 1/2 inches in diameter is used in a line pressurized to 500 psi. What
actuator force is required for tight Shutoff.?
a. 884 pounds
b. 2,000 pounds
c. Depends upon direction of flow through the valved
d None of the above
Answer: c
16. With a proportional-only controller, if measurement rules set point, the output will be:
a. 0
b. 100 percent
c. 50 percent
d. Impossible to define
Answer: c
17. If in a proportional-plus-integral controller measurements away from the set point for a long period, the
controller’s output will be:
a. 0
b. Unknown
c. 50 percent
d. 100 percent
Answer: a
18. In the modem controller, derivative action is applied only to the:
a. Error
b. Measurement
c. Setpoint
d. Integral circuit
Answer: b
19. The function of the integral (reset) mode is to:
a. Oppose change in measurement

b. Automatically adjust the controller’s gain
c. Eliminate offset
d. Stabilize the controlloop
Answer: c
20. Automatic controllers operate on the difference between set point and measurement, which is called:
a. Offset
b. Bias
c. Error
d. Feedback
Answer: c
21. A two-position controller (on/off) always:
a. Controls with a fixed offset

b. Controls around a point
c. Automatically adjusts its integral time
d. Requires precise tuning
Answer: b
22. Gain and proportional bands are:
a. Reciprocally related
b. Two different control modes
c. Adjusted independently 0f one another
d. Controller functions calibrated in time units
Answer: a
23. When we adjust integral time in a controller:
a. We determine an RC time constant in the controller’s internal feedback path

b. We adjust the time it will take for integral to equal derivative
c. We set the process time constant so that it will always equal 1
d. What happens specifically depends on the type of controller, pneumatic
Answer: a
24. A proportional controller will have an offset difference between set point and control point:
a. At all times
b. Equal to the proportional band setting
c. That depends on process load
d. That will eventually vanish
Answer: c
25. If it were possible for a proportional controller to have a true 0 percent proportional band, the controller gain
would have to be:
a. Unity
b. 100
c. Infinite
Answer: c
26. If the proportional band of the controller is adjusted to the minimum possible value, the control action is likely to
be:
a. On/off
b. With maximum otIset
c. Excellent
d. Inoperative
Answer: a
27. The following symbol appears in an instrument diagram. It represents :
a. Flow rate controller

b. Fixed control point
c. Frequency converter
d. Final control element
Answer: a
28. All control systems that fit into the usual pattern are:
a. Open-Loop
b. Nonself-regulating
c. Closed-loop
d. On/off
Answer: c
29. If operating properly, automatic control will always:
a. Reduce manpower
b. Reduce costs
c. Make the process operate more uniformly
d. Decrease maintenance
Answer: c
30. The ratio controller
a. Can be used with any combination of related process variables

b. Has one measurement in put and two outputs
c. Can be used for even-numbered ratios
d. Must always employ the derivative mode in the controller
Answer: a
31. Two flows are to be ratio controlled, the first is measured with an orifice and the second with a shedding vortex
flowmeter. The signals must be:
a. Both made linear by using a square root extractor on the orifice signal
b. Used as if a 1 percent error can be tolerated
c. Both made linear by using a square root extractor on the shedding vortex transmitter
d. Flow-calibrated
Answer: a
32. A cascade control system will increase the natural frequency of the control loop along with having the following
inftuence on the magnitudes of the associated time constants
a. Reduce them
b. Increase them
c. Not affect them
d. Have an unpredictable effect
Answer: a
33. In a cascade control system the secondary may be regarded as:
a. A valve actuator
b. An elaborate final control element
c. A means of slowing down regulation of the manipulated variable
d. A sophisticated noise filter
Answer: b
34. If two square root flow signals are to be ratio-controlled and the ratio factor adjusted, the maximum practical
factor is:
a. 0.6 to 1.7
b. 0.3 to 3.0
c. 1.0 to 10
d. 1.0 to 1.0
Answer: b
35. A very common secondary loop that may be used with almost any process except flow is:
a. Flow
b. Temperature
c. Pressure
d. Valve position
Answer: a
36. A cascade control system is to be adjusted. You should first
a. Place the primary controller on manual and adjust the secondary controller
b. Place the secondary controller on manual and adjust the primary controller
c. Place both controllers on automatic and go through the conventional adjustment routine
d. Bypass the secondary controller and adjust the primary controller by the conventional method
Answer: a
37. If the time constant of the secondary loop is greater than the time constant of the primary loop, cascade control
will:
a. Shorten the period of the total system

b. Lengthen the period of the total system
c. Improve the operation of the system
d. Provide no benefits
Answer: d
38. A duplex controller has the following number of inputs:
a. One
b. Two
c. One for each output
d. As many as required
Answer: a
39. The duplex controller provides the following number of control valve signals:
a. One
b. Two
c. One for each output
d. As many as required
Answer: b
40. We have a closed-loop control system which is cycling. We should:
a. Increase the proportional band

b. Increase integral action
c. Check and adjust both
d. Immediately shut it down
Answer: c
41. A proportional controller is being used to control a process and the offset between set point and control point
must be held to a minimum. This would dictate that the proportional band
a. Be as narrow as possible
b. Be as wide as possible
c. Be of moderate value
d. Does not relate to the problem
Answer: a
42. The system gain of the closed-loop control system:
a. Refers to the process gain

b. Refers to the gain of the measurement and control devices
c. Refers to the total gain of all components. including measurement, controller, valve operator, valve, and process
d. Relates only to the gain of the controller
Answer: b
43. In pneumatic systems the medium used is
A. Air
B. Liquid
C. Hydrogen
D. Oil
Answer: A. Air
44. In pneumatic instrumentation systems the pressure of compressed air used is around
A. 1 bar
B. 1.4 bar
C. 2.5 bar
D. 5.5 bar
Answer: B. 1.4 bar

45. In pneumatic systems a restriction-volume combination is equivalent to
A. R.L. circuit
B. R.C. circuit
C. Rectifier
D. Resonant circuit
Answer: B. R.C. circuit
46. In pneumatic-electrical analogy, the electrical resistance is analogous to
A. Field helical tube
B. Volume of air
C. Restriction to flow
Answer: C. Restriction to flow
47. .......... cannot be the final control element
A. Potentiometer
B. Electro-pneumatic converter
C. Servomotor
D. All of the above
Answer: A. Potentiometer
48. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following?
A. Underdamping
B. Overdamping
C. Poor stability at reduced values of open loop game
D. Low-level oscillations
Answer: D. Low-level oscillations

49. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
A. Error detector
B. Final control element
C. Sensor
D. Oscillator
Answer: D. Oscillator
50. In a control system output of the controller is given to
A. Final control element
B. Amplifire
C. Comparator
D. Sensor
Answer: A. Final control element
51. A controller, essentially is a
A. Sensor
B. Clipper
C. Comparator
D. Amplifier
Answer: C. Comparator
52. Bimetallic thermostat is ..............controller
A. On-off
B. Zero-term
C. One-term
D. Two-term
Answer: A. On-off
53. Which fluid is used in hydraulic power systems?
a. water
b. oil
c. non-compressible fluid
d. all of the above
Ans- D
54. What is the function of hydraulic motor?
1. hydraulic motor converts hydraulic oil under pressure into torque and angular displacement
2. hydraulic motor converts hydraulic oil under pressure into force and linear displacement
3. hydraulic motor converts hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
4. hydraulic motor converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
Ans- b
55. 1. Valves are defined as devices to control, or regulate the commencement and ——- of air
Ans- Direction
56. On resetting valves, for example those equipped with a return spring, the —– position is the position
assumed by the moving parts of the valve when it is connected but not actuated.
Ans- Neutral
57. Direct control of a valve means that valve is caused to operate directly by actuating element without any —
——–elements being operated.
Ans- Intermediate
58 Electric actuators for stepped motion are known as stepper motor.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stepper motors are the motors in which the motion generated is in the form of steps with respect to the
time and works on the same principle as electric actuators but with stepped motion.
59.Which of the motions in actuators are preferred:

a) Translator
b) Rotary
c) Stationary
d) Non-Stationary
View Answer
Answer: b
60.The reciprocal of proportional band is called:
(A) Gain
(B) Percent
(C) Minutes per repeat
(D) Reset
Answer : A
Subject: Process Control System
Branch: Electronics
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
1.What is the mean by term “control”?

(a) Method Stop Process
(b) Method to force parameter.
(c)Method to force on system.
(d)Method to force process
Ans: b
2.What is purpose to control System?

(a) To wait the System Output.
(b) To stop the system output.
(c)To examine the method to control operation.
(d)To observe the system
Ans: c
3.How Artificial Process operate?

(a) By Man.
(b) By Machine.
(c)By Nature.
(d)By both Man & Machine
Ans: d
4.What is mean by Process?

(a) Human Regulation.
(b) Self-Regulation.
(c)Computer Regulation.
(d)Government Regulation
Ans: b
5.What is mean by Human aided control System?

(a) control by controller.
(b) Control by Man.
(c)Control by Computer.
(d)Control by government.
Ans: b
6. In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
7. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
Ans: a
8. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system
will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
9. In open loop system

(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
10. The tendency to oscillate called?

(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
11. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
12. A car is moving at a constant speed , which of the following is the feedback element for the
driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
13. The initial response when tune output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
14. An automatic toaster is which type of control system?

(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
15. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
16. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by ?

(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
17. Which system is a part of the human temperature control system?

(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
18. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
19. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
20.The steady state accuracy increases by.
(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
21.What is mean by PID?

(a) PhaseIntegrator differentiator
(b) Pressure Integrator differentiator
(c) Proportional Integral derivative
(d) Phase Integral derivative
Ans: c
22. A.C. servomotor resembles

(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(e) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
26. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
27. Zero initial condition for a system means
(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
28. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.

(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the same amount as the gain decrease
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Ans: c
29. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes
and load disturbances depend?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
30. The transient response, with feedback system,

(a) rises slowly
(b) rises quickly
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
31. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be
avoided?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
Ans: c
32. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
33. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
34. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
35. A controller, essentially, is a

(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
36. Which of the following is the not the ideal input to a controller?
(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans: a
37. The on-off controller is Which type system?

(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) non-linear
(d) discontinuous
Ans: d
38.pneumatic system is work on

(a) solid Pressure
(b) air pressure
(c) waterpressure
(d) none of above
Ans: b
39.In pressure control system which of following converter used?

(a) Current toPressure
(b) voltage to current
(c) current to voltage
(d) none of above
Ans: a
40. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to

(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate
Ans: d
41. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
41. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to

(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
Ans: d
42. The transient response of a system is mainly due to

(a) inertia forces
(b) internal forces
(c) stored energy
(d) friction
Ans: c
43. Which Signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal?
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
44. A signal affect the value of controlled variable is known as

(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
5. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained?

(a) Signal flow graph
(b) Analogous table
(c) Output-input ratio
(d) Standard block system
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
46. What is increases by feedback?

(a) system stability
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
(d) effects of disturbing signals
Ans: a
47. By which of the following the system response can be tested better?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
48. In a system zero initial condition means that

(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
(d) All of above.
Ans: a
49. The technique is used transfer of heat called?

(a) Boiler
(b) Heat exchanger
(c) comparator
(d) vaporization
Ans: b
50. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator?

(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Speed and acceleration
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
51.In control valve the flow of liquid is depend on

(a) % of valve opening
(b) % of liquid flow
(c) % of motor speed
(d) % of operator speed
Ans: a
52. Whichof following is not a final control element?

(a) Control valve
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Electro-pneumatic converter
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
53. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
Ans: b
54. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
55. Which of the following is electromechanical device?

(a) Induction relay
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
56. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it

(a) reduces damping
(b) reduces the gain margin
(c) increases input noise
(d) increases error
Ans: c
57. By applying feedback Which factor is reduces?

(a) system stability
(6) system gain
(c) system stability and gain
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
58. Which of the following can be measured byLVDT?

(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
59. Which instrument Directly converts temperature into voltage?

(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Gear train
(d) LVDT
Ans: a
60. A.C. servomotor is basically a

(a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
(c) two phase induction motor
(d) three phase induction motor
Ans: c
Subject : Antenna and Wave Propagation (AWP)
Branch : E&TC
Class : BE
Semester : VIII
Total Marks : 60
Time Allotted : 1 Hr 30 Mins
Q1. What is /are the advantages of using ferrite loops?
I. Increase in Magnetic field intensity
II. Increase in radiation resistance
III. Decrease in Magnetic field intensity
IV. Decrease in radiation resistance
A III and IV
B II and III
C I and III
D I and II
Ans.: D
Q2. Why are beverage antennas not used as transmitting antenna?
A Low radiation efficiency
B Low radiation resistance
C Both a and b
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q3. In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to

_____.
Aλ
B λ/4
C λ/8
D λ/2
Ans.: A
Q4. What is the far-field position of an electric short dipole?
A Along X-axis
B Along Y-axis
C Along Z-axis
D None of these
Ans.: C
Q5. By how many times is an input impedance of a folded dipole at

resonance greater than that of an isolated dipole with same length as one of
its sides?
A2
B3
C4
D5
Ans.: C
Q6. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many
shape patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
A2
B4
C8
D 16
Ans.: C
Q7. A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz has the wavelength of

0.075m and gain of about 13dBi. What will be its required capture area?
A 0.9732 m2
B 0.0149 m2
C 0.5521 m2
D 0.0475 m2
Ans.: B
Q8. Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle of
two legs of one wire?
A Apex angle
B Tilt angle
C Both A and B
D None of these
Ans.: B
Q9. What is/are the major applications of an infinitesimal dipole that

contribute/s to its analysis?
A Improvement in radiation resistance by increasing dipole length
B Field pattern estimation due to any length of antenn
C Both A and B
D None of these
Ans.: C
Q10. If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by

λ/4, what would be the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
A 6.99 dB
B 6.53 dB
C 8.93 dB
D 7.55 dB
Ans.: B
Q11. In a parasitic array antenna, the conductors that are not connected to
the transmission line is called as?
A Driven element
B Parasitic elements
C Extra elements
D Array elements
Ans.: B
Q12. Parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the half-
wave dipole-driven element is called _______
A Array element
B Director element
C Reflector element
D Driven element
Ans.: C
Q13. The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time
varying electromagnetic
A Current density
B Electric Field Intensity
C Magnetic field intensity
D Power density
Ans.: A
Q14. F2 layer of Appleton region acts as a significant reflecting medium for

_____ frequency radio waves
A Very Low
B Low
C Medium
D High
Ans.: D
Q15. According to Webster’s dictionary, what is an antenna?
A Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves
B Transducer between guided wave & free space wave
C Sensor of electromagnetic waves
D Impedance matching device
Ans.: A
Q16. Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire
antenna?
A For a charge oscillating in time motion
B For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight
C For a charge with no motion
D None
Ans.: C
Q17. In a non-isotropic directional antenna, which radiating lobe axis makes

an angle of 180° w.r.t. major beam of an antenna?
A Minor lobe
B Back lobe
C Side lobe
D None
Ans.: B
Q18. At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
A 0° & 180°
B 90° & 180°
C 180° & 360°
D 180° & 270°
Ans.: A
Q19. Which among the following defines distance between two points on
each side of major lobe especially when the radiation drops to zero?
A First null beam width (FNBW)
B Side lobe level (SLL)
C Front to back ratio (FBR)
D Half power beam width (HPBW)

Ans.: A
Q20. Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation

pattern of the dipole/wire antennas?
A Current
B Voltage
C Power
D Frequency
Ans.: A
Q21. In an electrically small loop, the overall length of the loop is ______
one-tenth of a wavelength.
A Less than
B Equal to
C Greater than
D Very very Greater than
Ans.: A
Q22. On which factor/s do/does the radiation field of a small loop depend?
A Area
B Shape
C Shape and Area
D None
Ans.: C
Q23. From the radiation point of view, small loops are _________radiators
A Poor
B Good
C Better
D Excellent
Ans.: A
Q24. According to the directivity of a small loop, which value of ‘θ’

contributes to achieve the maximum value of radiation intensity (Umax)?
A 0°
B 90°
C 180°
D 270°
Ans.: B
Q25. In which kind of array configutaion, locations must deviate or adjust to

some nonplaner surface like an aircraft or missile?
A Linear
B Planar
C Conformal
D All
Ans.: C
Q26. What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?
A Spherical
B Elliptical
C Hyperbolic
D None
Ans.: A
Q27. In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar
_______excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
A Phase
B Voltage
C Frequency
D Power
Ans.: A
Q28. Which mode of propagation is adopted in HF antennas?
A Ground wave
B Ionospheric
C Tropospheric
D All
Ans.:
Q29. After which phenomenon/phenomena do the waves arrive at the

receiving antenna in Ionospheric propagation?
A Refraction
B Diffraction
C Reflection or scattering
D All
Ans.: C
Q30. Which of the following is not one of the types of driven array antenna?
A Rectilinear antenna
B Broadside antenna
C End fire antenna
D log periodic antenna
Ans.: A
Q31. What does the beam width of an antenna tell us?
A Directivity
B Signal power
C Degradation
D Signal Strength
Ans.: C
Q32. Which among the following defines the angular distance between two
points on each side of major lobe especially when the radiation drops to
zero?
A Half power beam width (HPBW)
B First null beam width (FNBW)
C Side lobe level (SLL)
D Front to back ratio (FBR)
Ans.: B
Q33. From the radiation point of view, small loops are radiators
A Poor
B Better
C Excellent
D None
Ans.: A
Q34. _________ antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna
elements with a feed network
A Aperture antennas
B Array antennas
C Printed antennas
D Wire antennas
Ans.: B
Q35. If the individual antennas of the array are spaced equally along a
straight line. Then It is __________array
A Linear
B Non-Linear
C Linear and Non-Linear
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q36. For which band/s is the space wave propagation suitable over 30 MHz?
A VHF
B UHF
C SHF
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q37. In an electrical circuit, which nature of impedance causes the current &
voltages inphase
A Resistive
B Reactive
C Capacitive
D Inductive
Ans.: A
Q38. Which type of ground wave travels over the earth surface by acquiring
A Surface Wave
B Space Wave
C Both
D None
Ans.: B
Q39. After which phenomenon/phenomena do the waves arrive at the

receiving antenna in ionospheric propagation?
A Reflection or Scateering
B Refraction
C Defraction
D All of the above
Ans.: A
Q40. The basic requirements of transmitting antennas are
A High efficiency
B Low side lobes
C Large signal to noise ratio
D Lone of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q41. _________ is a device that converts electrons to photons or vice-versa.

A Antenna
B Electron gun
C Photon amplifier
D Microwave tube
Ans.: A
Q42. The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points
is called
A Half power beam width
B Full null beam width
C Beam width
D None
Ans.: A
Q43. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
A Beam area
B Effective area
C Aperture area
D Beam efficiency
Ans.: A
Q44. As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the

antenna:
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains unchanged
D Depends on the type of the antenna

Ans.: A
Q45. Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is

numerically equal to
A Gain of the antenna
B Directivity
C Beam efficiency
D Beam area
Ans.: B
Q46. ________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage

to the incident electric field.
A Effective height
B Gain
C Directivity
D Loss
Ans.: A
Q47. The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and

operating wavelength is given by:
A 4πAe/λ2
B 2πAe/λ2
C πAe/λ2
Ans.: A
Q48. Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is

given by the relation:
A λ2/ ΩA
B ΩA / λ2
C λ2× ΩA
D No such relationship exists
Ans.: A
Q49. The number N of radio transmitters or point sources of radiation

distributed uniformly over the sky which an antenna can resolve is given by:
A 4π/ ΩA
B 2π/ ΩA
C π/ ΩA
Ans.: A
Q50. If an antenna radiates over half a sphere, directivity of the antenna is:
A Two
B Four
C Three
D One
Ans.: A
Q51. In a End-Fire array the radiation is along___________________
A Along the axis of array antenna
B Perpendicular to axis of array antenna
C Depends on dimensions
D None
Ans.: A
Q52. Which are the different element of parasitic array antennas

A Driven Element
B Reflectors and Directors
C Parasitic Element
D All of the Above
Ans.: D
Q53. Yagi-Uda Antenna is a example of_________ array antenna
A Broadside Antenna
B End -Fire Antenna
C Parasitic
D Collnear
Ans.: C
Q54. Binomial Broadside array uses _________Space feeded with

_________excitation
A Uniform, Uniform
B Uniform, Non-Uniform
C Non-Uniform,Uniform
D Non-Uniform,Non-Uniform
Ans.: B
Q55. Which of the following array antennas uses uniform spacing, uniform
amplitude and uniform phase of excitation
A Broadside Array
B Collinear
C End-Fire Array
D Broadside and Collinear

Ans.: D
Q56. Which of the following array antennas uses uniform spacing, uniform
amplitude and phase of excitation varies progressively along axis array
A Broadside Array
B Collinear
C End-Fire Array
D Parasitic
Ans.: C
Q57. For infinitesimal dipole the segment length is
A very very less than wavelength
B Half of wavelength
C equal to wavelength
D greater of wavelength
Ans.: A
Q58. For half dipole antenna the 3dB beamwidth is________ degrees
A 90
B 180
C 87
D 78
Ans.: D
Q59. In cellular and cordless telephones, walkie-talkie and CB radios

mostly________antennas are used
A Broadside Array
B Dipole
C Monopole
D End-fire Array
Ans.: C
Q60. The radiation resistance of loop antenna can be increased by
A Increasing perimeter
B Increasing number of turns
C Inserting ferrite core of high permeability
D All of the above
Ans.:D
Subject: Antenna wave propagation (AWP)
Class:BE
Semester:VIII
Q1.Which mode of radiation occurs in an helical antenna due to smaller

dimensions of helix as compared to a wavelength?
A. Normalb
B. Axial
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q2. By how many times is an input impedance of a folded dipole at resonance

greater than that of an isolated dipole with same length as one of its sides?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Ans. C
Q3. How do the elements of an active region behave?
A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Resistive
Ans. C
Q4. In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to ______
A. λ/2
B. λ
C. λ/10
D. λ/50
Ans. B
Q5.What is the advantages of using ferrite loops?
A. Increase in Magnetic field intensity
B. Increase in radiation resistance
C. Decrease in Magnetic field intensity
D. Decrease in radiation resistances
Ans. A
Q6.What is/are the major applications of an infinitesimal dipole that

contribute/s to its analysis?
A. Field pattern estimation due to any length of antenna

B. Improvement in radiation resistance by increasing dipole length
C. Both a and b
Ans. C
Q7. A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation
resistance 2 Ω. What would be the power radiated by an antenna?
A. 90 kW
B. 135 kW
C. 180 kW
D. 200 kW
Ans. C
Q8. The concept of magnetic vector potential finds its major application in
deriving expression of magnetic field intensity especially for ______
A. Real fields
B. Imaginary fields
C. Complex fields
Ans. C
Q9. Which among the below mentioned magnetic quantities are dependent on
medium?
A. B
B. H
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q10. Self impedance of an antenna is basically __________
A. Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas

B. Its impedance by taking into consideration the consequences of other
antennas
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q11. Which property of antenna is likely to be evidenced in accordance to

Reciprocity theorem?
A. Equality of impedances
B. Equality of directional patterns
C. Equality of effective lengths
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Q12. If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its
radiation resistance?
A. 22.22 ohm
B. 27.77 ohm
C. 33.33 ohm
D. 39.77 ohm
Ans. B
Q13.In radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves generated

by transmitting antenna?
A. Spherical
B. Plane
C. Triangular
D. Square
Ans. A
Q14. What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?
A. Radiator
B. Converter
C. Sensor
D. Inverter
Ans. C
Q15. In lens antenna, what kind of wave energy is transformed into plane
waves?
A. Convergent
B. Divergent
C. Contingent
D. Congruent
Ans. B
Q16. According to Secant law, which frequency is greater than critical

frequency by a factor of secθi?
A. MUF
B. LUF
C. OWF
D. UHF
Ans. A
Q17. If the maximum electron density for F-layer in ionosphere is 4 x 106

electrons/cm3, then what will be the critical frequency of EM wave for F-layer?
A. 4 MHz
B. 9 MHz
C. 18 MHz
D. 25 MHz
Ans. C
Q18. Which layer has the atmospheric conditions exactly opposite to that of
standard atmosphere?
A. Depression layer
B. Regression layer
C. Inversion layer
D. Invasion layer
Ans. C
Q19. What is the direction of varying orientation of polarized surface wave at

the earth surface in a wave tilt mechanism?
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Diagonal
D. Opposite
Ans.b
Q20.For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less is the
__________
A. Attenuation
B. Phase velocity
C. Propagation constan
D. Tilt angle
Ans. A
Q21. According to depth of penetration, what is the percentage proportion of

attenuated wave w.r.t its original value?
A. 17%
B. 27%
C. 37%
D. 57%
Ans. C
Q22. What is the possible range of height for the occurrence of sporadic E-
region with respect to normal E-region?
A. 20 km – 50 km
B. 45 km – 85 km
C. 90 km – 130 km
D. 140 km – 200 km
Ans. C
Q23. Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Radiated
D. Diffracted
Ans. C
Q24. In which kind of waveform is the phase velocity defined?
A. Sinusoidal
B. Rectangular
C. Square
D. Triangular
Ans. A
Q25. Wavefront is basically a locus of points acquiring similar _______
A. Phase
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Wave equation
Ans. A
Q26. Which among the following is an application of high frequency?
A. SONAR
B. Subsurface communication
C. Radio navigation
D. Facsimile
Ans. D
Q27. What is the wavelength of Super high frequency (SHF) especially used in
Radar & satellite communication?
A. 1 m – 10 m
B. 1 cm – 10 cm
C. 10 cm – 1 m
D. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
Ans.B
Q28.Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation pattern

of the dipole/wire antennas?
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Frequency
D. Phase
Ans. A
Q29. If an observation point is closely located to the source, then the field is
termed as ________
A. Induced
B. Radiated
C. Reflected
D. Far-field
Ans. A
Q30. At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
A. 0° & 180°
B. 90° & 180°
C. 180° & 270°
D. 180° & 360°
Ans. A
Q31. Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire
antenna?
A. For a charge with no motion
B. For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight & infinite wire
C. For a charge oscillating in time motion
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q32. The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time
varying electromagnetic field?
A. . Electric field intensity

B. Magnetic field intensity
C. Current density
D. Power density
Ans. B
Q33. Which kind of polarization is provided by helical antennas?
A. Plane
B. Elliptical
C. Circular
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q34. Why are beverage antennas not used as transmitting antenna?
A. Low radiation resistance
B. Low radiation efficiency
C. Both a and b
Ans. C
Q35. Which among the following is not a disadvantage of rhombic antenna?

A. Requirement of large space
B. Reduced transmission efficiency
C. Maximum radiated power along main axis
D. Wastage of power in terminating resistor
Ans. C
Q36. Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle of
two legs of one wire?
A. Apex angle
B. Tilt angle
C. Both a and b
D. . None of the above
Ans. B
Q37. If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be the
operating region of an array?
A. . Transmission line region

B. Active region
C. Reflective region
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q38. What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given
side lobe level (SLL)?
A. Widest
B. Narrowest
C. Both a and b

Ans. B
Q39. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape
patterns are generated with no minor lobes?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Ans. C
Q40. If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4,

what would be the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
A. 6.53 dB
B. 7.99 dB
C. 8.55 dB
D. 9.02 dB
Ans. A
Q41. What is the far-field position of an electric short dipole?
A. Along x-axis
B. Along y-axis
C. Along z-axis
D. Along xy plane
Ans. C
Q42. For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component must
be used by the loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that frequency?
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Resistor
D. Gyrator
Ans. D
Q43. What is the nature of current distribution over the small dipoles?
A. Spherical
B. Rectangular
C. Triangular
D. Square
Ans. C
Q44. Dipole antenna is symmetrical in nature where the two ends are at equal
potentials with respect to _____point
A. Initial
B. Eventual
C. Mid
Ans. C
Q45. The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its
____
A. Source
B. Distance of point from the source (R)
C. Both a and b
Ans. B
Q46. Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________
A. Point angle
B. Linear angle
C. Plane angle
D. Solid angle
Ans. D
Q47. Which antenna radiating region/s has/have independent nature of

angular field distribution over the distance from the antenna?
A. Reactive near-field region
B. Fresnel region
C. Fraunhofer region
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q48. Which conversion mechanism is performed by parabolic reflector

antenna?
A. . Plane to spherical wave

B. Spherical to plane wave
C. Both a and b
Ans. B
Q49.Which antennas are renowned as patch antennas especially adopted for

space craft applications?
A. Aperture
B. Microstrip
C. Array
D. . Lens
Ans. B
Q50. Which type of wire antennas are also known as dipoles?
A. Linear
B. Loop
C. Helical
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Q51. Which among the following plays a primary role in generation of

conduction current in an ionosphere due to presence of electric field?
A. Ions
B. Motion of electrons
C. Neutral molecules
Ans. B
Q52. Which mechanisms are likely to occur in mid-frequency operation

corresponding to ionospheric region?
A. . Only Reflection
B. Only Refraction
C. Partial reflection & refraction
Ams. C
Q53. According to Snell's law in optics, if a ray travels from dense media to
rarer media, what would be its direction w.r.t the normal?
A. Towards
B. Away
C. Across
D. Beside
Ans. B
Q54. By which name is an ionospheric propagation, also known as?
A. Sea wave propagation
B. Ground wave propagation
C. Sky wave propagation
D. All of the above
Ans.C
Q55. Which type of ground wave travels over the earth surface by acquiring
A. Surface wave
B. Space wave
C. Both a & b
Ans. B
Q56. In an electrical circuit,which nature of impedance causes the current &

voltages in phase?
A. Reactive
B. Resistive
C. Capacitive
D. Inductive
Ans. B
Q57. Which equations are regarded as wave equations in frequency domain
for lossless media?
A. Maxwell's
B. Lorentz
C. Helmholtz
D. Poisson's
Ans. C
Q58. Which among the following exhibits perpendicular nature in TEM wave?
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Direction of propagation
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Q59. If the tower antenna is not grounded, which method of excitation is/are
applicable for it?
A. Series
B. Shunt
C. Both a and b
Ans. A
Q60. For which band/s is the space wave propagation suitable over 30 MHz?
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Techniques(RMT)
Branch: Electronics & Telecommunications
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. . __________ is a region of Electromagnetic spectrum having frequency

ranging from 1GHz to 100 GHz
A. Micro wave
B. UVC.
C. IRD.
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q2. Which of the following bands that comes under Microwave Band
A. CB.
BDC.
C. ED.
D. all the above
Ans. D
Q3.Which of the following is the main advantage of microwave
A. Highly directive
B. Moves at the speed of light
C. Greater S/N ratio
D. High penetration power
Ans. A
Q4. Reflex klystron is a ______
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Attenuator
D. Filter
Ans. B
Q5. On which of the following principle does Klystron operates
A. AM
B. FM
C. PM
D. VM
Ans. D
Q6. In multicavity klystron additional cavities are inserted between buncher &
catcher cavities to achieve
A. Higher Gain
B. Higher Efficiency
C. Higher Frequency
D. Higher Bandwidth
Ans. A
Q7. Which of the following is one of the mode in Reflex Klystron
A. Give same frequency but different transit time
B. Are caused by spurious frequency modulation
C. Are just for theoretical consideration
D. Result from excessive transit time across resonator gap

Ans. A
Q8. A space between two cavities in two cavity klystron is _______
A. Drift space
B. Free space
C. Running space
D. Normal space
Ans. A
Q9. Magnetron is an _______
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Phase shifter
D. Both phase shifter & amplifier
Ans. B
Q10. Traveling Wave Tube is __________
A. Oscillator
B. Tuned Amplifier
C. Wide Band Amplifier
D. Both Amplifier & Oscillator
Ans. C
Q11. Which of the following elements are taken in Microwave
A. Lumped Circuit Elements
B. Distributed Circuit Elements
C. Both A and B
Ans. B
Q12. Short term fading in microwave communication links can be overcome by
A. Increasing the transmitted power
B. Changing the antenna
C. Changing the modulation scheme
D. Diversity reception & transmission
Ans. D
Q13. _______ is the best medium for handling the large microwave power
A. Coaxial line
B. Rectangular wave guide
C. Strip line
D. Circular wave guide
Ans. B
Q14. Which of the following microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic
field & radial electric field
A. Reflex Klystron
B. Coaxial Magnetron
C. Travelling Wave Magnetron
D. Crossed field amplifier
Ans. D
Q15. Which of the following is the disadvantage of microstrips with respect to

stripline circuit
A. Do not let themselves to be printed circuits

B. Are more likely to radiate
C. Are bulkier
D. Are more expensive & complex to manufacture
Ans. D
Q16. Most of the power measuring microwave devices measure
A. Average power
B. Peak power
C. Instantaneous power
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q17. HEMT(High Electron Mobility Transistor) used in microwave circuit is a

_________
A. Source
B. Detector
C. High power amplifier
D. Low noise amplifier
Ans. D
Q18. In Microwave circuit , Wave guide section will act as a ______
A. Low pass filter
B. Band pass filter
C. High pass filter
D. Band reject filter
Ans. C
Q19. Which of the following is the biggest advantage of the TRAPATT diode
over IMPATT diode
A. Low Noise
B. High efficiency
C. Ability to operate at high frequencies
D. Lesser sensitivity to harmonics
Ans.B
Q20. For which of the following reason, the Varactor diode is not useful at
microwave frequencies
A. For electronic tuning
B. For frequency multiplication
C. As an Oscillator
D. As a parametric amplifier
Ans. C
Q21. Which of the following is a circularly polarized antenna ?
A.Helica
B. Pyramidal
C. Horn
D. Dipole
Ans. A
Q22. Which of the following is the semiconductor diode which can be used in
switching circuits at microwave range
A. PIN diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Varactor diode
D. Gunn diode
Ans. A
Q23. Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on _________
A. Feed pattern
B. Antenna aperture
C. Surface losses
D. low side lobe level
Ans. B
Q24. _________ noise is produced in a microwave tube due to random nature

of emission & electron flow
A. Partition noise
B. Shot noise
C. Johnson noise
D. Shannon noise
Ams. B
Q25. Which of the following is the one of the reason why vacuum tubes
eventually fail at microwave frequencies
A. Noise figure increases
B. Transit time becomes too short
C. Shunt capacitive reactances becomes too large
D. Series inductance reactances becomes too small
Ans. A
Q26. A Magic – Tee is nothing but

A. Modification of E- Plane tee
B. Modification of H- Plane tee
C. Combination of E- plane & H- plane
D. Two E- plane tees connected in parallel
Ans. C
Q27. Which of the following is used for amplification of microwave energy
A. Travelling wave tube
B. Magnetron
C. Reflex klystron
D. Gunn diode
Ans. A
Q28. In Microwave power measurements using bolometer, the principle of

working is the variation of
A. Inductance with absorption of power
B. Resistance with absorption of power
C. Capacitance with absorption of power
D. Cavity dimensions with heat generated by the power
Ans. B
Q29. In π mode operation of magnetron, the spokes due to phase focusing

effect rotate at an angular velocity corresponding to ________
A. One pole / cycle
B. Two poles / cycle
C. Four poles / cycle
D. Six poles / cycle

AnsB
Q30. Travelling wave parametric amplifiers are used to _______
A. Provide a greater gain
B. Reduce the number of Varactor diodes required
C. Avoid the need for cooling
D. Provide a greater bandwidth
Ans. D
Q31. Which of the following is the major advantage of Travelling wave tube
over Klystron
A. Higher gain
B. Higher frequency
C. Higher Output
D. Higher bandwidth
Ans. D
Q32. Due to the curvature of earth, microwave repeaters are placed at a

distance of about
A. 10 km
B. 50 km
C. 150 km
D. 250 km
Ans. B
Q33. At Microwave frequencies , the size of the antenna becomes
A. Very large
B. Large
C. Small
D. Very Small
Ans. D
Q34. Which of the following noise becomes important at microwave

frequencies
A. Shot noise
B. Flicker noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Transit time noise
Ans. D
Q35. The phenomenon of microwave signals following the curvature of earth is

known as _______
A. Faraday effect
B. Ducting
C. Wave tilt
D. Troposcatter
Ans. B
Q36. In Microwave communication links, The rain drop attenuation

experienced is mainly due to
A. Absorption of microwave energy by water vapour
B. Resonance absorption of atomic vibration in water molecules
C. Scattering of microwaves by collection of water drops
D. Refraction of microwaves through liquid drop lenses formed by rain
Ams. A
Q37. The key difference between circuit theory and transmission line theory is:
A. circuit elements
B. voltage
C. current
D. electrical size
Ans. D
Q38. Transmission line is a _________ parameter network.
A. lumped
B. distributed
C. active
Ans. B
Q39. For transverse electromagnetic wave propagation, we need a minimum

of:
A. 1 conductor
B. 2 conductors
C. 3 conductors
D. bunch of conductors
Ans. B
Q40. ______ principle does Klystron operates
B. Pulse Modulation
C. Frequency Modulation
D. Velocity Modulation
Ans. D
Q41. ______ is the main advantage of a microwave.
A. Highly directive
B. High penetration power
C. Moves at the speed of light
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q42. Reflex klystron is used in_____.
A. Oscillator
B. mixer
C. frequency multiplier
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q43. One of the following is used for amplification of microwave energy.
A. magnetron
B. travelling wave tube
C. gunn diode
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q44. one of the bands that come under Microwave Band.
A. E
B. D
C. C
D. All the above
Ans. D
Q45. ______is not a microwave tube.
A .cathode_ray tube
B. magnetron
C. travelling_wave tube
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q46.Which is the dominant mode in rectangular waveguides ?
A .TE10
B .TM11
C .TM01
D .TE11
Ans.A
Q47.In microwave communication links, what causes intense fading in the

18GHz band ?
A .Rain
B .Fog
C .Dust
D. Snow
Ans. A
Q48. X-band frequencies are in which one of the following ranges?
A.8.0 to 12.0 GHz
B. 12.4 to 16.4 GHz

C. 3.5 to 5.5 GHz
D. 5.5 to 8.0 GHz
Ans. A
Q49.A Gunn diode is a negative resistance device, which is used as source of

microwaves. What is the number of p-n junctions ?
A. 0
B. B3
C. C2
D. D1
Ans.A
Q50.For a parabolic reflector of 5 meter diameter, the far field pattern

measurement at 6 GHz should be carried out a distance of at least
A. 2.0 km
B. 1.5 km
C. 1.0 km
D. 0.5 km
Ans. C
Q51. Why is an attenuator used in a TWT ?
A. To prevent oscillations
B. To prevent saturation
C. To help bunching
D.To increase gain
Ans. A
Q52.The maximum theoretical output circuit efficiency of a double resonator

klystron amplifier is
A. 58%
B. 85%
C. 25%
D. None of these
Ans.A
Q53.The type of antenna to be used for producing circularly polarized beams is
A. helical antenna
B.paraboloid
C. pyramidal horn
D. log-periodic array
Ams. A
Q54.Ionospheric preparation is not possible for microwaves because
A.Microwave will penetrate through the ionospheric layers
B.There will be dispersion of microwave energy
C. There will be an abrupt scattering in all directions
D. Microwaves will be fully absorbed by the ionospheric layers
Ams. A
Q55. fabrication of microstrip line is_____.
A. cladding
B.printed circuit technique
C. oxidation
D. None of these
Ans. B
Q56.____is the most common antenna to the predetermined radiation
pattern.
A. array antenna
B. helical antenna
C. sectrol horn
D. None of these
Ans. A
Q57.15 A Gunn diode is a negative resistance device, which is used as source of

microwaves. What is the number of p-n junctions ?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Ans.A
Q58.The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its
A. High attenuation
B. High sensitivity
C. Low distortion
D. Low selectivity
Ans. A
Q59. Which one of the following is a transferred electron device ?
A. Gunn DIODE
B.TRAPATT diode
C.IMPATT diode
D.BARITT diode
Ans. A
Q60. A amplifier has a power gain of 200. What is its gain in dB? (log10 2 =
0.30)
A.23dB
B.20 dB
C. 14 dB
D. 17 dB
Ans. A
Branch: Electronics and Telecommunication En gg
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1.ARM stands for _____________

A Advanced Rate Machines
B Advanced RISC Machines
C Artificial Running Machines
D Aviary Running Machines
Ans.: B
Q2.The RTC module makes use of the Basic Timer1 because of _________
A its bytes are controlled in the Basic Timer1 register
B it is started by timer1
C it is ended by basic timer1
D it needs a clock pulse of 1hz that is provided by basic timer1
Ans.: D
Q 3.Which of the following is the design in which both the hardware and
software are considered during the design?
A platform based design
B memory based design
C software/hardware codesign
D peripheral design
Ans.: C
Q 4.________ is an extension of the processor BUS.

A SCSI BUS
B USB
C PCI BUS
Ans.: C
Q 5.In LPC 2148, which among the following is/are the functions of Mask
register?
A Byte addressability
B Relocation to ARM local bus for fastest posible I/O timing
C Treating sets of port bits in the form of group without changing other bits
D All of the above
Ans.: C
Q 6.Which design activity is in charge of mapping operations to hardware?

A scheduling
B high-level transformation
C hardware/software partitioning
D compilation
Ans.: C
Q 7.The high speed mode of operation of the USB was introduced by _____
A ISA
B USB 3.0
C USB 2.0
D ANSI
Ans.: C
Q 8.The banked registers are used for ______
A Switching between supervisor and interrupt mode
B Extended storing
C Same as other general purpose registers
Ans.: A
Q 9.Which parameter/s is/are included in ‘Time to market’ design metric of an

embedded system?
A Time to prototype
B Time to refine
CTime to produce in bulk
D All of the above
Ans.: D
Q 10.Which of the following is a process of analyzing the set of possible

designs?
A design space exploration
B scheduling
C compilation
D hardware/software partitioningA
Ans.: A
Q 11.What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC Processors?

A Hardwired
B Microprogrammed
C Both a and b
DNone of the above
Ans.: A
Q 12.Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
A 2.4 GHz ISM
B 2.5 GHz ISM
C 2.6 GHz ISM
D 2.7 GHz ISM
Ans.: A
Q 13.Which of the following byte performs the slave selection?

A first byte
B second byte
C terminal byte
D eighth byte
Ans.: A
Q 14.Abort mode generally enters when _______

A an attempt access memory fails
B low priority interrupt is raised
C ARM processor is on rest
D undefined instructions are to be handled
Ans.: A
Q 15.The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation

with ______
A Low cost and low power consumption
B Higher degree of multi-tasking
C Lower error or glitches
D Efficient memory management
Ans.: A
Q 16.Which are the two lines used in the I2C?

A SDA and SPDR
B SPDR and SCL
C SDA and SCL
D SCL and status line
Ans.: C
Q 17.Protocol is a set of
A Formats
B Procedures
C Formats & Procedures
Ans.: C
Q 18.Which of the following processors has CISC architecture?

A AVR
B Atmel
C Blackfin
D Zilog Z8
Ans.: D
Q 19.Which of the following are interfaced as inputs to the parallel ports?

A LEDs
B switch
C alphanumeric display
D seven segmented display
Ans.: B
Q 20.Which of the following is a process of analyzing the set of possible

designs?
A Design Space Exploration
B scheduling
C compilation
D hardware/software partitioning
Ans.: C
Q 21.Which functional unit of ARM family architecture is responsible for

upgrading the address register contents before the core reads or writes the
next register value from memory location?
A Data bus
B Barrel Shifter
C Incrementer
D Instruction Decoder
Ans.: C
Q 22.Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the hardware
components?
A platform based design
B memory design
C peripheral design
D input design
Ans.: A
Q 23.How is the nature of instruction size in CISC processors?

A Fixed
B Variable
C Both a and b
D None of the above
Ans.: B
Q 24.Which of the following can transfer multiple bits of data simultaneously?

A serial port
B sequential port
C concurrent unit
D parallel port
Ans.: D
Q 25.An embedded system is one that has _______________ embedded in it

as one of its most important component.
Acomputer-hardware with software
Bcomputer-hardware
Ccomputer with software
D None of above
Ans.: A
Q 26.Which microcontrollers are adopted for designing medium scale

embedded systems?
A8-bit
B 16-bit to 32-bit
C 64-bit
D All of these
Ans.: B
Q 27.The time taken to respond to an interrupt is known as

A interrupt delay
B interrupt time
C interrupt latency
D interrupt function
Ans.: C
Q 28.Which are the processors based on RISC?

A ARM7TDMI
B 80386
C MC68030
D MC68020
Ans.: A
Q 29.The address space in ARM is ___________

A 224
B 264
C 216
D 232
Ans.: D
Q 30.The high speed mode of operation of the USB was introduced by _____
A ISA
B USB 3.0
C USB 2.0
D ANSI
Ans.: C
Q 31.Which can activate the ISR?

A interrupt
B function
C procedure
D structure
Ans.: A
Q 32.Each instruction in ARM machines is encoded into __________ Word.

A 2 byte
B 3 byte
C 4 byte
D 8 byte
Ans.: C
Q 33. ARM 7 TDMI IC is

A LPC 2138
B LPC 2148
C LPC 2128
D All of above
Ans.: D
Q 34.NRE cost is
AOne time monetary cost of manufacturing each copy of the system
B Sale cost of the product
C One time monetary cost of designing the system
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q 35.Which out of the following is the main function of a Watchdog timer?

A control the compare mode
B control the capture mode
C protection from failures to the system
D all of the mentioned
Ans.: C
Q 36.Which interrupt can make a change in the processor’s mode?

A internal interrupt
B external interrupts
C exceptions
D software mode
Ans.: C
Q 37.Which of the following helps in the generation of waveforms?
A timer
B inputs
C outputs
D memory
Ans.: A
Q 38.Which interrupts generate fast interrupt exception?

A internal interrupt
B external interrupt
C software interrupt
D hardware interrupt
Ans.: B
Q 39.All instructions in ARM are conditionally executed.

A True
B False
Ans.: A
Q 40.Time-to-Prototype is
A Time needed to build the working version of the system
B time needed to bring the product in market
CTime needed to design the working version of the system
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 41.Find out the integrating type analog to digital converter?

A Flash type converter
B Tracking converter
C Counter type converter
D Dual slope ADC
Ans.: D
Q 42.Which of the following determines the rate generation?

A divide by N
B multiply by N
C addition by N
D subtraction by N
Ans.: A
Q 43.A Watchdog Timer can act as an interval timer?

A true
B false
C can’t be say
D depends on the conditions
Ans.: A
Q 44.Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated memory or

peripheral interfaces?
A Microcontroller
B Microprocessor
C Embedded system
D Memory system
Ans.: C
Q 45.Average Time-to-Market constraint is about

A 80 days
B 08 months
C 12 months
D None of the above
Ans.: B
Q 46.RISC has ___________
A Fixed size instructions
B 8-bit size instructions
C Variable size instructions
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 47.In the process of pipelining, which instructions are fetched from the
memory by the ARM processor during the execution of current instruction?
A Previous
B Present
C Next
D All of the above
Ans.: C
Q 48.CISC has an emphasis on

A Software
B Hardware & software
C Hardware
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q 49.ARM 7 has _____________ memory organization

A Von Neumann
B Harvard
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 50.ISP stands for __________

AIndustry Standard Programming
B In-System Programming
C Industry Specific Programming
D None of the above
Ans.: B
Q 51.Which is the first company who defined RISC architecture?

A Intel
B IBM
C Motorola
D MIPS
Ans.: B
Q 52.LPC 2138/48 is __ pins IC

A 32
B 40
C 64
D None of the above
Ans.: 64
Q 53.The ALU in ARM 7 TDMI processor is ____ .

A 32 bit
B 64 bit
C 16 bit
D None of the above
Ans.: A
Q 54.Barrel shifter in ARM 7 ___________ by any number of bits.

A shifts/rotates second operand
B shift second operand
C rotate second operand
D none of the above
Ans.: A
Q 55.Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

A local area network
B personal area network
C metropolitan area network
D wide area network
Ans.: B
Q 56.ARM 7 has _ basic operating modes

A four
B seven
C five
D none of the above
Ans.: B
Q 57.SPSR means ___

A Serial Program Status Register
B Saved Program Status Register
C Both A & B
D None of the above
Ans.: B
Q 58.ARM 7 has _____ clock rate.

A 72 MHz
B 200 MHz
C 66 MHz
D None of the above
Ans.: C
Q 59.What does API stand for?
A address programming interface
B application programming interface
C accessing peripheral through interface
D address programming interface
Ans.: B
Q 60.Register based load & store architecture is in ___________

A CISC
B RISC
C Both A & B
D None of above
Ans: B
Class: B.E. (E&TC)
Semester : VIII
Q.1.The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.

A. True
B. False
C.Both Correct
D.None of Above
ANS. A
Q.2. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
A. More bandwidth
B. More spectrum space
C. Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
D. Economically viable
ANS. C
Q.3.Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?

A. MF
B. KU
C. X
D. C
ANS. A
Q.4. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called _______
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
ANS. C
Q.5.What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40
ANS. D
Q.6.What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite
called?
a) Satellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
ANS. B
Q.7.Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency

and re-transmits the signal in a satellite?
a) Repeater
b) Relay
c) Transponder
d) Transducer
ANS.C
Q.8. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station
to monitor and control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
ANS.A
Q.9. INTELSAT stands?

a)International Telecommunications Satellite
b)IndiaTelecommunications Satellite
c)InterTelecommunications Satellite
d)None of the above
ANS.A
Q.10.Kepler’s first law states?

a)The path followed by a satellite around theprimary will be an ellipse.
b)The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an circle.
c)The path followed by a satellite around the primary will be an sphere
d)None of the above
ANS.A
Q.11. Apogee?
b)The point nearestfrom earth
ANS. A
Q.12. Define Polar-orbiting Satellites.

(a) Polar orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the north
&southPolar Regions.
b)Orbiting Satellites orbit the earth in such a way as to cover the east & west Polar
Regions
c) Either (a) & (b)
d)None of the above
ANS. A
Q.13. Define Universal time.

(a) It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
referencewhich is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard for
setting clocks.
(b) It is the time used for all privatetime keeping purposes & it is the time
referencewhich is broadcast by the national bureau of standards as a standard for
setting clocks.
(c) It is the time used for all civil time keeping purposes & it is the time
referencewhich is not broadcast by the national bureau ofstandards as a standard
for setting clocks.
(d) None of above
ANS.A
Q.14.What is meant by azimuth angle?

(a) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local
verticalplane&theplane passing through the earth station ,the satellite & center of
earth.
(b) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane &
the plane passing through the earth station ,the satellite & center of earth.
(c) It is defined as the angle produced by intersection of local horizontal plane &
center of earth.
(d) None of above
ANS.B
Q.15.What is an polar antenna?
(a) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in a ellipticalarcie known as
polarmount antenna
(b) Andoubleactuator is used which moves the antenna in a circular arc ie known
as polarmount antenna.
(c) A single actuator is used which moves the antenna in acircular arc ie known as
polar mount antenna..
(d) None of above
ANS. C
Q.16. Define the terms in Eclipse.

(a) During equinoxperiods, the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with
the result that earth’ s shadow eclipses that satellite & the sunlight fails to reach the
satellite solar cells.
(b) During equinox periods,the earth the sun & the satellite are in alignment with
the resultthat earth’ s shadow eclipses thatsatellite& the sunlight success to reach
the satellite solarcells.
(c) a& b
(d) None of above
ANS.A
Q.17.What is meant by frequency reuse?

(a) The carrier with same senses of depolarization may overlap in frequency
thistechnique is known as frequency reuse
(b). The carrier with opposite senses of polarization may overlap in frequency this
technique is known as frequency reuse.
(c) a& b
(d) None of abo
ANS. B
Q.18. TT&C means

A. Telecommunication Tracking Control
B. Telemetric Tracing Command
C. Telephonic Tracking Console
D. Telemetric Tracking Command
ANS.D
Q.19.A transponder is a satellite equipment which

A.receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
B. changes the frequency of the received signal
C. retransmits the received signal
D.does all of the above-mentioned functions
ANS.D
Q.20. . _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it
to an electric current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish
ANS. B
Q.21. s a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere.

A. Atmospheric loss
B. Path loss
C. Radiation loss
D. RFI
ANS. B
Q.22. he carrier to noise ratio for a satellite depends upon

(B) Bandwidth.
(D) All of them
ANS. D
Q.23.What are the types of antenna losses?

(a) sky noise
(b) Antenna losses
(c) sky noise , Antenna losses
(d) all of these
ANS. D
Q.24.The total noise of a satellite earth station receiving system consists of

a)Sky noise
b)Antenna and feeder noise
c)Parametric amplifier noise
d)All of the above
ANS.D
Q.25. Define input backoff.
(a) In order to reduce the intermodulation distortion,the operating point of the
TWT must be shifted closer to the linear portion of the curve,the reduction in input
power being referred to as i/p backoff.
(b) In order to reduce the inter-modulation distortion,the operating point of the
TWTmust be shifted closer to the linear portion of the curve,the reduction in
outputpowerbeingreferred to as i/p back-off.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of abo
ANS. A
Q.26. Define S/N ratio.

(a) The S/N introduced in the preceding section is used to refer to the ratio of
signal power to noise power at the receiver output.This ratio is sometimes referred
to as the post detector.
(b) The S/N introduced in the preceding sectionis used to refer to the ratio of
signalpower to noise power at the receiver input. This ratio is sometimes referred
to as the postdetector.
(c) Either a or b.
(d) None of above
ANS. A
Q.27.What is an antenna losses?

(a) It is add to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise temperature is
in the sum of the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
(b) Itis add to noise received as radiation & the total antenna noise temperature is
inthedividerof the equivalent noise temperature of all these sources.
(c) It is add to noise received as radiation is inthe sum of the equivalent noise
temperature of all these sources.
(d) None of above
ANS.A
Q.28. Define saturation flux density.

(a) The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of
TWTA is termed the saturation flux density.
(b) The flux density required at the transmittingantenna to produce saturation
ofTWTA is termed the saturation flux density.
(c)a&b
(d) None of above
ANS.A
Q.29. n satellite communication modulation is used

a)AM
b)FM
c)PWM
d)PAM
ANS.B
Q.30. A synchronous satellite orbits the earth once in

a)4 hours
b)12 hours
c)6 hours
d)24 hours
ANS.D
Q.31. Geostationary satellites are located at a height of

a)3600 km from earth’s surface
b)36000 km from earth’s surface
c)360,000 km from earth’s surface
d)3600,000 km from earth’s surface
ANS. B
Q.32.Which area is least effectively coverd by geostationary satellites?

a)Equatorial region
b)Polar region
c)A and C
d)None of the above
ANS. B
Q.33. Atmospheric drag has negligible effect on

(a).geostationary satellites
(b).MEO
(c). LEO
(d) None of these
ANS.A
Q.34.Anoblate spheroid is
(a).The earth is not perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a
flattening at the poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid
(b).The earth is perfectly spherical, there being an equatorial bulge and a flattening
at the poles, a shape described as an oblate spheroid
(d) None of thesE
ANS. A
Q.35.The losses for clear-sky conditions are

(a) [LOSSES] =[FSL] +[RFL] +[AML] +[AA] +[PL]
(d) noneofthese
ANS. A
Q.36.The Link-Power Budget Equation?

(d) none of these
ANS. A
Q.37.The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam is known as ……..

a. Beam width
b. Band width
c. Footprint
d. Zone
ANS.C
Q.38.A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station is

……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
ANS.B
Q.39.A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..

a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
c. Beamwidth
d. Gain
ANS.A
Q.40.As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite
……………
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
ANS.A
Q.41.A geosynchronous satellite

a. has the same period a that of the Earth
b. has a circular orbit
c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above
ANS.D
Q.42.A transponder is a satellite equipment which

a. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
b. changes the frequency of the received signal
c. retransmits the received signal
d. does all of the above-mentioned functions
ANS.D
Q.43.At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is

……….
a. EHF
b. UHF
c. SHF
d. VHF
ANS. C
Q.44.Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the

a. moon
b. sun
c. earth
d. all of the above
ANS.D
Q.45.A geostationary satellite is one which

a. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth
b. travels around the Earth in 24 hours
c. remains stationary above the Earth
d. appears stationary to everybody on Earth
ANS.D
Q.46.INTELSAT stands for ………….

a. Intel Satellite
b. International Telephone Satellite
c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
ANS. C
Q.47.……… law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary
will be an ellipse.
ANS.B
Q.48.Television transmission is an example of which type of transmission?

a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
ANS. A
Q.49.What is meant by EIRP?

a. Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power
b. Energy Isotropic Radiated Power
c. Equivalent Isotropic Resonance Power
d. none of these
ANS.A
Q.50.The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of
TWTA is known as ……….
a. Electric flux density
b. Magnetic flux density
c. Saturation flux density
d. Photon flux density
ANS.C
Q.51.Which of the following comes under methods of multiple access techniques?

a. FDMA & TDMA
b. SCPC & CDMA
c. CDMA & GSM
d. none of these
ANS. A
Q.52.A communication satellite is a repeater between …………… and …………..

a. a transmitting station and a receiving station
b. a transmitting station and many receiving station
c. many transmitting station and many receiving station
d. none
ANS. C
Q.53.For global communication, the number of satellites needed is

a. 1
b. 3
c. 10
d. 5
ANS. 3
Q.54.In satellite communication, highly directional antennas are used to

a. direct the spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth
b. strengthen the beam to overcome the cosmic noise
c. make corrections in change of polarisation of the beam
d. select a particular channel in transmission and reception
ANS.A
Q.55.Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?

a) Ground station
b) Power system
c) Telemetry tracking
d) Communication subsystem
ANS.A
Q.56. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station
to monitor and control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
ANS.A
Q.57.Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the

a. moon
b. sun
c. earth
d. all of the above
ANS. D
Q.58.………… is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and

retransmit data to earth stations.
a. Optical communication
b. Digital communication
c. Analog communication
d. Satellite communication
ANS.D
Q.59.A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in
order to ……..
a. avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b. avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming
signal
c. minimise free-space losses
d. maximise antenna gain
ANS. B
Q.60. traffic-handling capacity of an Earth station on the uplink depends on ……

a. its EIRP
b. satellite antenna gain
c. noise associated with the satellite
d. all of the above
ANS.D
SUBJECT: EMBEDDED SYSTEM
BRANCH : E&TC
SEMESTER :VIII
1) What does API stand for?

a) address programming interface
b) application programming interface
c) accessing peripheral through interface
d) address programming interface
Ans B
2) Which activity is concerned with identifying the task at the final embedded
systems?
a) high-level transformation
b) compilation
c) scheduling
d) task-level concurrency management
ANS D
3) Name a volatile memory.
a) RAM
b) EPROM
c) ROM
d) EEPROM
ANS A
4) Which type of memory is suitable for low volume production of embedded systems?
a) ROM
b) Volatile
c) Non-volatile
d) RAM
ANS C
5) What type of memory is suitable for high volume production?
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) EPROM
d) EEPROM
ANS –B
6 How an embedded system communicate with the outside world?
a) Peripherals
b) Memory
c) Input
d) Output
ANS A
7) Which one of the following is an asynchronous communication channel?

a) SPI
b) MUDs
c) MOO
d) VOIP
ANS A
8) What does I2C stand for?
a) inter-IC
b) intra-IC
c) individual integrated chip
d) intel IC
ANS A
9) Which of the following indicates the type of operation that the master requests?
a) address value
b) initial value
c) terminal count
d) first byte
ANS A
10) What is CISC?
a) Computing instruction set complex
b) Complex instruction set computing
c) Complimentary instruction set computing
d) Complex instruction set complementary
ANS B
11) What kind of memory does an OTP have?
a) SRAM
b) RAM
c) EPROM
d) DRAM
ANS C
12) ARM stands for _____________

a) Advanced Rate Machines
b) Advanced RISC Machines
c) Artificial Running Machines
d) Aviary Running Machines
ANS B
13) The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation with ______
a) Low cost and low power consumption
b) Higher degree of multi-tasking
c) Lower error or glitches
d) Efficient memory management
ANS A
14) ARM processors where basically designed for _______
a) Main frame systems
b) Distributed systems
c) Mobile systems
d) Super computers
ANS C
15) The ARM processors don’t support Byte addressability.
a) True
b) False
ANS B
16) RISC stands for _________
a) Restricted Instruction Sequencing Computer
b) Restricted Instruction Sequential Compiler
c) Reduced Instruction Set Computer
d) Reduced Induction Set Computer
ANS C
17) The instructions which are used to load or store multiple operands are called as
__________
a) Banked instructions
b) Lump transfer instructions
c) Block transfer instructions
d) DMA instructions
ANS C
18) The Instruction, LDM R10!, {R0,R1,R6,R7} ______
a) Loads the contents of R10 into R1, R0, R6 and R7
b) Creates a copy of the contents of R10 in the other registers except for the above
mentioned ones
c) Loads the contents of the registers R1, R0, R6 and R7 to R10
d) Writes the contents of R10 into the above mentioned registers and clears R10
ANS A
19) The instruction, MLA R0,R1,R2,R3 performs _________
a) R0<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3]
b) R3<-[R0]+[R1]+[R2]
c) R0<-[R1]*[R2]+[R3]
d) R3<-[R0]*[R1]+[R2]
ANS C
20) The ability to shift or rotate in the same instruction along with other operation is
performed with the help of _________
a) Switching circuit
b) Barrel switcher circuit
c) Integrated Switching circuit
d) Multiplexer circuit
ANS B
21) The offset used in the conditional branching is __________ bit.
a) 24
b) 32
c) 16
d) 8
ANS A
22)What is/are the configuration status of control unit in RISC Processors?
a. Hardwired
b. Microprogrammed
c. Both a and b
ANS A
23) The ARM core uses ____ Architecture.
a) RISC b) CISC c) Both D) none
ANS A
24) ARM Processor specifically designed for to reduce ___
a) Size b) Power Consumption C) both d) none.
ANS C
25) ARM Processor core is a key component of ___ bit embedded system.
a)8 b) 16 c)32 d)64
ANS C
26) RISC Philosophy implemented with ___ major deign goals.
a) 4 b)6 c)8 d)16
ANS A
27) .____ is the processing of instruction broken down to smaller unit.
a) Pipeline b) ALU c) MCU d) All
ANS A
28) Register contains ___
a) Address b) data c) both d) none
ANS C
29).___ Instruction used to transfer the data between register and memory.
a) Load b)store c) bothd) none
ANS C
30) The design rule s allow a RISC to be __
a)simpler b) complicated c) both d) none
ANS A
31) .___ is used to communicate between part of the device
a) Bus b) ALU c) Address d) Peripherals
ANS A
32) .____ is used to connect peripherals.
a) PCI b) ALU c) MCU d) All
ANS A
33) ARM bus has __ Architecture level.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
ANS A
34) .____ is placed between main memory and core .
a)cacheb) RAM c)ROM d) all
ANS A
35) .____ interrupt controller available in ARM Processor.
a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5
ANS A
36) Application of ARM processor is____
a) automotive) consumable c) mobile d) all
ANS D
37) In ARM processor data items are placed in ____ file.
a)Register b) I/O c) memory d) all
ANS A
38) ALU means____
a) Arithmetic logic unit b) Adder logic unit c) both d) none
ANS A
39_ IN ARM 7 PROCESSOR MAU means ________
a) Multiply Accumulate unit b) Multiple adder unit c) Multiple accumulate unit d)
none
ANS A
40) General purpose registers holds the _____
a) Data b) Address c)both d) none
ANS C
41) .___ Register is used as the stack pointer.

a) r13 b) r14 c) r15 d) r16
ANS A
42) .____ register is called the link register.
a) r13 b) r14c) r15 d) r16
ANS B
43) . In ARM consists of ______ processor mode.
a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6
ANS A
44) .How many bank registers are available in ARM?
a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 40
ANS A
45) . The SPSR store the ___ mode of CPSR
a) Present b) previous c) both d) none
ANS B
46) .____ are used to stop specific interrupt.
a) Interrupt mask b) Interrupt request c) both d) none
ANS A
47) . CPSR has ___ interrupt mask bits.
a)2 b) 5 c) 6 d) 4
ANS A
48) .___ interrupt levels available on theARM processor.
a) 2 b) 5 c) 6 d) 4
ANS A
49) .____ instruction perform bitwise operations.
a) Arithmeticb) logical c) compare d) all
ANS B
50) .___ instruction used to load word in register.
A) LDR b) STR c) STRB d) LDRB
ANS A
51) ___ instruction used to save a word or byte from a register.
A)LDR b) STR c) STRB d) LDRB
ANS B
52) .___ instruction used to carry out stack operations
a) Load b) store c) both d) none
ANS C
53) .___ operation remove the data from the stack.
a) POP b) PUSH c) both d) none
ANS A
54) THUMP has ___ code density.
a)higherb) lower c) medium d) none
ANS A
55) . ____ is used for logical shift left.
a) LSL b) ASL c) CMP d)LSR
ANS A
56) .___ is used for compare two 32-bit integer.
a) LSL b) ASL c) CMP d)CMN
ANS C
57) ) ARM supports____types of exceptions.
a)5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
ANS A
58) _____is provided to service general-purpose interrupt handling of internal and
external events.
a)IRQ b) FIQ c) SWI d) None
ANS A
59) The ARM7TDMI T support for the _____
A )Thump b)Multiplies c)debug d) none
ANS A
60) The ARM7TDMI D support for ____
A )Thump b)Multiplies c)debug d) none
ANS C
Subject: Radiation and Microwave Techniques
Branch: Electronics & Telecommunication
Class: BE
Semester: VIII
Q1. Transmission line is a _________ parameter network.
A.lumped
B. distributed
C. active
Ans.: B) distributed
Q2. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:
A. impedance Z of a transmission line
B. impedance which is a constant at any point on the transmission line
C.reciprocal of admittance of a transmission line
Ans.: B) impedance which is a constant at any point on the transmission line
Q3. Propagation constant γ is given by:
A. α+jβ
B. α-jβ
C. α/jβ
D. α.jβ
Ans.: A) α+jβ
Q4.Characteristic impedance Zₒ is given by:
A.√Z/Y
B. √ZY
C. √Z+√Y
D. √Z-√Y
Ans.: A).√Z/Y
Q5.The value of ‘α’ for a lossless line is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
D. Data insufficient
Ans.: A) 0
Q6.Smith chart is based on the polar plot of:
A. Reactance
B. Voltage
C.Current
D. Voltage reflection co-efficient
Ans.: D) Voltage reflection co-efficient
Q7.A slotted line can be used to measure _____ and the distance of
_____________ from the load.
A. SWR, first voltage minimum
B.SWR, first voltage maximum
C. characteristic impedance, first voltage minimum
D.characteristic impedance, first voltage maximum

Ans.: A) SWR, first voltage minimum
Q8.In the expression for phase of the reflection coefficient, Lmin stands for :
A. distance between load and first voltage minimum
B. distance between load and first voltage maximum
C.distance between consecutive minimas
D. distance between a minima and immediate maxima
Ans.: A) distance between load and first voltage minimum
Q9. The major advantage of single stub tuning over other impedance
matching techniques is:
A.Lumped elements are avoided
B. It can be fabricated as a part of transmission line media
C. It involves two adjustable parameters
D.All of the mentioned
Ans.: D) All of the mentioned
Q10.Shunt stubs are preferred for:
A.Strip and microstrip lines
B.Coplanar waveguides
C.Circular waveguide
D.Circulators
Ans.: A) Strip and microstrip lines
Q11.For co-axial lines and waveguides, ________ is more preferred.
A. Open circuited stub
B Short circuited stub
C. Slotted section
D. Co-axial lines cannot be impedance matched
Ans.: B) Short circuited stub
Q12 The major advantage of double stub tuning is:
A it uses 2 tuning stubs in fixed positions
B.it involves 2 stubs
C. length of the stub is variable
Ans.: A) it uses 2 tuning stubs in fixed positions
Q13. If there is no standing wave on a transmission line, then the value of

SWR is:
A. 1
B. 0
C. Infinity
Ans.: A) 1
Q14.The value of ‘α’ for a lossless line is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. Infinity
D. Data insufficient
Ans.: A) 0
Q15.Expression for characteristic impedance Zₒ of a transmission line in

terms of L and C the transmission line is:
A. √(C/L)
B. √(CL)
C. √(L/C)
D. 1/√(LC)
Ans.: C) √(L/C)
Q16.The condition for a distortion less line is:
A.R/L=G/C
B. R/C=G/L
C.R=G
D. C=L
Ans.: A) .R/L=G/C
Q17. Which of the following is true regarding attenuation?
A. Conductor loss
B.Di-electric loss
C. Sum of both conductor loss and di electric loss
D. Attenuation is different from the losses
Ans.: C) Sum of both conductor loss and di electric loss
Q18. Which of the following parameters is negligible in transmission lines?
A. R
B. L
C. C
D. G
Ans.: D) G
Q19.__________ is a region of Electromagnetic spectrum having frequency

ranging from 1GHz to 100 GHz
A. Micro wave
B. UV
C. IR
D. None of these
Ans.: A) Micro wave
Q20.Which of the following is the main advantage of microwave
A. Highly directive
B. Moves at the speed of light
C. Greater S/N ratio
D. High penetration power
Ans.: A) Highly directive
Q21. The modes of propagation supported by a rectangular wave guide are:
A TM, TEM, TE modes

B TM, TE
C TM, TEM
D TE, TEM
Ans.:B) TM, TE
Q22. For any mode of propagation in a rectangular waveguide, propagation

occurs:
A Above the cut off frequency
B Below the cut off frequency
C Only at the cut-off frequency
D Depends on the dimension of the waveguide
Ans.: A) Above the cut off frequency
Q23. The attenuation in waveguide above to cut off frequency
A very high
B very low
C zero
D infinite
Ans.: B) very low
Q24. A hollow rectangular waveguide cannot propagate TEM waves because:

A Of the existence of only one conductor
B Of the losses caused
C It is dependent on the type of the material used
Ans: A Of the existence of only one conductor
Q25. Dominant mode is defined as::

A Mode with the lowest cut off frequency
B Mode with the highest cut off frequency
C Any TEM mode is called a dominant mode
Ans: A Mode with the lowest cut off frequency

Q26. To ensure that only dominant TE10 mode propagates in a rectangular
Waveguide, the operating frequency
A. must be more than cutoff frequency of TE10 mode
B. must be less than cutoff frequency of TE20 mode
C. must be more than cutoff frequency of TE10 mode and less than cutoff
frequency of TE20 mode
D. must be less than cutoff frequency of TE10 mode
Ans:C) must be more than cutoff frequency of TE10 mode and less than cutoff
frequency of TE20 mode
Q28. A rectangular waveguide act as:

A Low pass filter
B High pass filter
C Band pass filter

D Band stop filter
Ans:B) High pass filter
Q29. In a waveguide the operating wavelength is less than cut-off wavelength,

the wave will be:
A Guided
B Attenuated
C Guided with attenuation

D Not propagated at all
Ans : A Guided
Q30. The phase velocity of waves propagation in hollow metal waveguide is
A Greater than the group velocity
D Equal to group velocity

Ans:A Greater than the group velocity
Q31. The cut off frequency of the TEM wave is

A. 0
B.1 GHz
C. 6 GHz
D. infinity
Ans.: A ) 0
B Q32. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:

A. their insertion loss
B. their coupling specification
C. their directivity
D. all of the above
Ans: D )all of the above
Q33. An “isolator” is a device that:

A. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
B. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
C. separates signals among various ports
D. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
Ans: A ) allows a signal to pass in one direction only
Q34. A “circulator” is a device that:
A. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
B. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
C. separates signals among various ports
D. prevents microwaves from being “trapped” in a waveguide
Q35. A device that makes possible the use of same antenna for transmission
and Reception both
A the duplexer
B. the magic-tee
C. the crystal diode
D. none of these
Ans:A) the duplexer
Q36. Scattering matrix for a reciprocal network is:

A Symmetric
B Unitary
C Skew symmetric
D Identity matrix
Ans:A) Symmetric
Q37. S parameters are expressed as a ratio of:
A Voltage and current

B Impedance at different ports
C Incident and the reflected voltage waves
Ans:C Incident and the reflected voltage waves
Q38. ________ is a three-port microwave device that can be lossless and

matched at all ports.
A Hybrid junction
B Magic Tee
C Circulator
D Isolator
Ans: C ) Circulator
Q39. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
A. is fixed
B. depends on the frequency it carries
C. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
D. both b and c
Ans: D) both b and c
Q40. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:
A. an H-plane TEE
B. an E-plane TEE
C. a “magic” TEE
D. all of the above
Ans:D) all of the above
Q41.Which of the following is one of the mode in Reflex Klystron
A. Give same frequency but different transit time
B. Are caused by spurious frequency modulation
C. Are just for theoretical consideration
D. Result from excessive transit time across resonator gap
Ans.: A ) Give same frequency but different transit time
Q42.Magnetron is an _______
A. Amplifier
B. Oscillator
C. Phase shifter
D. Both phase shifter & amplifier
Ans.: B) Oscillator
Q43.Traveling Wave Tube is __________
A. Oscillator
B. Tuned Amplifier
C. Wide Band Amplifier
D. Both Amplifier & Oscillator
Ans.: C ) Wide Band Amplifier

Q44.In multicavity klystron additional cavities are inserted between buncher &
catcher cavities to achieve
A. Higher Gain
B. Higher Efficiency
C. Higher Frequency
D. Higher Bandwidth
Ans.: A) Higher Gain Higher Gain
Q45.A space between two cavities in two cavity klystron is _______
A. Drift space
B. Free space
C. Running space
D. Normal space
Ans.: A) Drift space
Q46.On which of the following principle does Klystron operates
B. Frequency Modulation
C. Pulse Modulation
D. Velocity Modulation
Ans.: D) Velocity Modulation
Q47. A Magic – Tee is nothing but

A. Modification of E- Plane tee
B. Modification of H- Plane tee
C. Combination of E- plane & H- plane in parallel
D. Two E- plane tees connected
Ans.:C) Combination of E- plane & H- plane
Q.48 The correct sequence of parts in klystron amplifier are
A. anode, catcher cavity, cathode, buncher cavity
B. cathode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity, cavity
C. anode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity, cathode
D. cathode, catcher cavity, anode, buncher cavity
Ans.: B) cathode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity, cavity
Q.49 In a TWT the axial component of electric field advances along the tube
A. at a velocity that is almost equal to speed of light
B. at a velocity that is a small fraction of speed of light
C. at a velocity that is about 50% of speed of light
D. at a velocity that may be even more than speed of light
Ans.:B ) at a velocity that is a small fraction of speed of light
Q50.A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is:
A. Low power gain

B. Low bandwidth
C.High source power
D.Design complexity
Ans.: B) Low bandwidth
Q51.The negative resistance in Gunn diode is due to

A. electron transfer to a less mobile energy level
B. high reverse bias
C.electron domain formation at the junction
D. tunnelling across the junction
Ans.: A) electron domain formation at the junction
Q52. The Biggest Disadvantage the IMPATT Diode has is its

A. Low Efficiency
B. High Noise
C. Low BW
D.In utility to provide Pulse Operation
Ans.: B) High Noise
Q53. IMPATT stands for:

A. impact avalanche and transit time
B. induced mobility at transmission time
C. implied power at transmission terminal
Ans.:A) impact avalanche and transit time
Q54. A disadvantage of micro strips with respect to strip line circuit is that the
former:
A. Do not let themselves to be printed-circuits
B. Are more likely to radiate
C. Are bulkier
D. Are more expensive and complex to manufacture
Ans.: D) Are more expensive and complex to manufacture
Q55. The PIN diode is must suited for......applications
A. Microwave oscillating
B.Microwave switching
C.Microwave amplifying
D.Microwave rectifying
Ans.: A) Microwave switching
Q.56 A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.
A. Three
B.Two
C.Four
D. One
Ans.: A) Three
Q57. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied
to an IMPATT diode, it results in:
B break down of depletion region
Ans.: A) avalanche multiplication
Q.58 The mode of operation in which the Gunn diode is not stable is:
A. Gunn oscillation mode
B. limited space charge accumulation mode
C. stable amplification mode
D.bias circuit oscillation mode
Ans.: A) . Gunn oscillation mode
Q.59 Which mode of propagation is supported by a strip line?

A. TEM mode
B. TM mode
C. TE mode
Ans.: A) TEM mode
Q.60. To fabricate a low frequency circuit using the hybrid microwave IC

methodology the material with _______ is preferred
A. high dielectric constant
B. low dielectric constant
C. high resistivity
D. low resistivity
Ans.: A) high dielectric constant
Subject: Telecomm Network Management
Class: B.E. (E&TC)
Semester : VIII
MOCK TEST
Q1 what is ASN.1
A Syntax
B It is a formal language developed for use with application layers for data transfer between
systems.
C Set of rules used to specify data types and structures for storage of information
D All of above
ANS: D
Q2 ASN.1 a formal language developed by

A CCITT
B ITU-T
C CCITT & ISO
D ISO
ANS: C
Q3 The keyword BEGIN is used for

A End of an ASN.1 module
B Start of an ASN.1 module
C Start and end of list
D Non of above
ANS:B
Q4 ASN.1 data type convention of Data type for MIB module is

A Initial lowercase letter
B Initial uppercase letter
C All uppercase letters
D None of above
ANS:C
Q5 Which are the Network management standards

A OSI/CMIP
B SNMP/Internet
C TMN
D All of above
ANS: D
Q6 MIB stands for

A Management Information Base
B Management Information Bureau
C Management Information Branch
D Management Information Boucher
ANS: A
Q7 The Global View of Network Management is done in Organization model

A Two Tier Network Management Organization model
B Three Tier Network Management Organization model
C Network Management Organization model with MoM
D All of above
ANS:C
Q.8 Organization model describes

A The components of network Management and their relationship
B Managed and Unmanaged Objects
C Global Monitoring
D All of above
ANS: D
Q.9 An Information Model is concerned of

A Structure of Information
B Storage of Information
C A & B both
D Only A
ANS:C
Q.10 SMI stands for

A Structure of Management Information
B Structure of Management Institution
C Structure of Management Index
D None of Above
ANS: A
Q.11 Network Elements are
A Hubs
B Bridges
C Routers
D All of above
ANS: D
Q.12 Functional Model of Network Management Consists of

A Configuration Management & Fault Management
B Performance Management & Security Management
C Accounting Management
D All of above
ANS: D
Q. 13 OSI Network Management Model consists of

A Organization Model
B Information & Communication Model
C Functional Model
D All of above
ANS: D
Q. 14 MIT is
A Management Information Tree
B Management Information Test
C Management Information Task
D None of above
ANS: A
Q.15 Which are the information that can be stored in MIB

A Hubs, Bridges, Routers
B Program, Algorithms, Protocol Functions
C A& B both
D Only B
ANS: C
Q.16 MDB stands for

A Management Database
B Management Databasic
C Management Datebase
D None of above
ANS: A
Q.17 Out of the Statemets 1) MDB physical database 2) MIB virtual database
A Statement 1 & Statement 2 is correct
B Statement 1 & Statement 2 is not correct
C Statement 1 correct & Statement 2 is not correct
D Statement 1 not correct & Statement 2 is correct
ANS:A
Q.18 Manager
1 Sends requests to agents
2 Monitors alarms
3 Houses applications
4 Provides user interface
A All are correct
B 1 & 2 are correct
C 1,2,3 are correct
D All are incorrect
ANS: A
Q.19 TMN Architecture

1. Addresses management of telecommunication networks
2. Based on OSI model
3. Superstructure on OSI network
4. Addresses network, service, and business management
A All are correct
B All are incorrect
C 1 & 2 is correct
D 1,2,3 are correct
ANS:A
Q.20 Management Information Base

1. Information base contains information about objects
2. Organized by grouping of related objects
3.Defines relationship between objects
4.It is NOT a physical database. It is a virtual
A All are correct
B All are incorrect
C 1 & 2 is correct
D 1,2,3 are correct
ANS:A
Q.21. Performance management is closely related to _________

a) Proactive Fault Management
b) Fault management
c) Reactive Fault Management
d) Preventive Fault Management
ANS. B
Q.22. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration and
_____
a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity
ANS.A
Q.23. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to
network based on predefined policy is called ___________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
ANS.D
Q.24. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of
______________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
ANS. C
Q.25. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is
__________
a) Transmission path
b) Virtual path
c) Virtual circuit
d) Transmission circuit
ANS.A
Q.26.In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection to
the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
ANS. C
Q.27. he ................... portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user
activities and audit data etc.
A. Configuration management
B. Security management
C. Performance management
D. None of these
ANS.B
Q.28.A network management system can be divided into ___________

a) three categories
b) five broad categories
c) seven broad categories
d) ten broad categories
ANS.B
Q.29.Which of these is an objective of service level management?

a) Monitor changes throughout their lifecycle
b) Define, document, agree, monitor, measure, report, and review services
c) Respond to service requests and inquiries promptly
d) Establish the root cause of incidents and problems efficiently and cost effectively
ANS.B
Q.30. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
a) True
b) False
ANS.A
Q.31.The process of verifying the identity of a user.

a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
ANS.A
Q.32.In Telecommunication management Network (TMN) system, the role of the manager is to
issue commands and requests to the agent. These commands and requests are known as
a)notifications
b)feedbacks
c)operations
d)Acknowledgement
ANS.C
Q.33. In TMN terminology, the switching systems, circuits, terminals, etc., which comprise a
telecommunications network, are known as a)Operations support systems (OSS)
b)Network Elements (NEs)
c)Mediation devices (MDs)
d)Q Adapter (QA)
ANS. B
Q.34. Specific services provided by CMISE

A.Management association services
B. Management notification services
C.Management operation cervices
D. All Of Above
ANS. D
Q.35. CMISE stands for

A. Common management information service elements
B. Complex management information service elements
C. Common maximum information service elements
D. Common management input service elements
ANS.A
Q.36.CMIP is specified by
A.IEEE
B. ITU-T
C. ANISE
D.ATU
ANS. B
Q.37. MIB stands for

A. management information base
B. manage information basic
C. management input base
D. manage incorporate base
ANS. A
Q.38.A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of

A. manageable network objects
B. Networks Parameters
C. Mediation devices
D. Q Adapter
ANS. A
Q.39. Network Configuration Management will include

A. Network device discovery
B. Configuration backup
C. Configuration change management
D.All of above
ANS. D
Q.40. fault management is the set of functions that

A. detect, malfunctions
B. isolatemalfunctions
C. correct malfunctions
D. All of above
ANS. D
Q.41. Types of Fault Management

A. active
B. passive
C. both A and B
D. none of above
ANS. C
Q.42. Network performance management is the collective techniques that enable, manage and
ensure optimal performance levels of a computer network.
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.43. Key factors in network performance management include

A. Network delays
B. Throughput
C. Error rate
D. All of above
ANS. D
Q.44.Thegoal of network management is to ensure that the users of network are provided IT
services with a quality of service that they expect.
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.45. Network Management is the act of initializing, monitoring and modifying the operation of
the primary network functions
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.46. network configuration manager is a comprehensive network configuration management

tool that helps
A. entire life cycle of your network devices and configurations
B. short life cycle of your network devices and configurations
C. entire life cycle of your network devices only
D. entire life cycle of your network configurations only
ANS. A
Q.47.The process by fault management tool to check the network and discovers problems that
affect performance or data transmission is
A. Detection
B. Diagnosis
C. Alerting
D. Resolving
ANS. A
Q.48.Diagnosis is the fault management tool determines what the problem actually is and where
on the network it’s located.
A.TRUE
B. FLASE
ANS. A
Q.49. The fault management tool automatically executes programs or scripts designed to fix the
problem
A. Detection
B. Diagnosis
C. Alerting
D. Resolving
ANS.D
Q.50. Network delays is not the Key factors in network performance management
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. B
Q.51. Network security is a computer networking system policy to assure the security to its
organization assets, software and hardware resources
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.52. need for information security is based on

A. To protect the information against any unwanted access
B. To guard the data from any undesired amendment
C. To safeguard the data from any inappropriate delay in the route
D. all of above
ANS.D
Q.53. key parameters towards making network system safe

A. Establish a Firewall
B. Antivirus Protection
C. Set-up Strong Passwords
D. ALL OF ABOVE
ANS.D
Q.54. Accounting management is concerned with tracking network utilization information

A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.55. Accounting is often referred to as billing management

A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.56. Network Management Services can include

A.network maintenance
B. monitoring of attached network devices
C.implementation of upgrades/patches
D.All The Above
ANS. D
Q.57.A management information base (MIB) is a database used for managing the entities in a
communication network
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.58.CMISE Filtering produces the ability to select a subset of these objects based on conditions
applied to attributes
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
ANS. A
Q.59. common management information service element (CMISE) ismanagement application of

A. OSI
B. ITU-T
C. IEEE
D. NONE OF ABOVE
ANS.A
Q.60. SNMP stands for

A. simple network management protocol
B. simple network management property
C. single network management protocol
D. simple network monitoring protocol
ANS. A
BE (E&TC) Semester VIII
Subject: Antenna and Wave Propagation(Elective) A
N
Paper Code 188154/238154 S
1) _________ of an antenna is a plot of the magnitude of the far field strength a

versus position around the antenna.
a) Radiation pattern b) Directivity
c) Beam width d) None of the mentioned
2) --------------is independent of distance b

a) radiation density b) radiation intensity
c) Both a and b d) none
3) The minimum value of the directivity of an antenna is………. a
a) Unity b) zero
c) Infinite d) none
4) Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of c
a) Ex b)Ey
c) Both Ex & Ey & in phase d)Both Ex & Ey & out of phase
5) A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: b
a) Marconi antenna b) Hertz antenna
c) loop antenna d) none of the above
6) Far field region also known as b
a) Near field region b) Frounhoper region
c) Erlang region d) Fresnel region
7) Friis free space equation c
a)Is a function of transmitting and receiving antenna gain

b)Depends upon the distance between transmitting and receiving antenna
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
1 P.T.O.
8) Which auxiliary functions assist in solving the radiation problem by b
evaluation of E & H using sources J & M?
a) Scalar potentials b) Vector potential
c)Gradient potentials d) Divergence potentials
9) Gain is always -------------than directivity b
a) Greater b) lesser
c) Equal to d) none
10) ………………. is portion of antenna’s input impedance due to transmitted a
radio waves leaving the antenna
a)Radiation Resistance b) Antenna Resistance

c)Efficiency d) Power gain
11) The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between a
its half-power points.
a) beam width b) Antenna Resistance
c) antenna density d) radiation pattern
12) In the solutions of inhomogeneous vector potential wave equation, which b
component exists if the source is at origin and the points are removed from
the source (Jz = 0)?
a) Inward b) Outward
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
13) What is the beam width for a half wave dipole antenna? a
a) 90° b) 180°
c) 50° d) 250°
14) What is the impedance of the folded dipole antenna? c

a) 50Ω b) 100Ω
c) 300Ω d) 20Ω
15) If the power input to an antenna is 100 mW and if the radiated power is c
measured to be 90 mW, then the efficiency of the antenna is:
a) 75 % b) 80 %
c) 90 % d) Insufficient data
2
16) The source of vector potential is b
a) Charge density b) Current density
c) Both a and b d) none
17) The field immediately surrounding antenna and far field region is known as b
a) far field region b) near field region
c) Frounhoper region d) none of above
18) Which condition makes coupled equations into uncoupled equations c
a) Retarded b) Helmholtz
c) Lorentz gauge d) none
19) According to Friis free space equation d
a) Received power falls with square of the distance between the transmitter
and receiver
b) Increases with square of the distance between the transmitter and
receiver
c)Received power increases with gains of transmitting and receiving
antennas
d) all the above
20) The vector magnetic potential shows the inverse relationship with its b
a)Source
b) Distance of point from the source (R)
c.)Both a and b
d)None of the above
21) For infinitesimal dipole antenna the segment length is _________ a
(a) Very very less than wavelength
(b) Half of wavelength
(c) Equal to wavelength
(d) Greater than wavelength
3 P.T.O.
22) For half dipole antenna the 3dB beamwidth is________ degrees c
(a)90
(b)180
(c)78
(d)87
23) In cellular and cordless telephones , walkie-talkie and CB radios mostly c
________ antennas are used
(a) Broadside Array
(b) Dipole
(c) Monopole
(d) End-fire Array
24) The radiation resistance of loop antenna can be increased by d
(a) Increasing perimeter
(b) Increasing number of turns
(c) Inserting ferrite core of high permeability
(d) All of the above
25) What is/are the advantages of using ferrite loops? a
I) Increase in magnetic field intensity
II) Increase in radiation resistance
III) Decrease in magnetic field intensity
IV) Decrease in radiation resistance
(a)I & II
(b) III & IV
(c) I & IV
(d) II & III
4
26) Which of the following array antennas uses uniform spacing, uniform c
amplitude and phase of excitation varies progressively along axis array
(a) Broadside Array
(b) Collinear
(c) End-Fire Array
(d)Parasitic
27) In order to increase the gain of Yagi-Uda arrays, what element are added a
a) Using many director
b) Using many dipole
c) Using many reflector
d. All of these
28) Binomial Broadside array uses _________Space feeded with b
_________excitation
(a) Uniform, Uniform
(b) Uniform, Non-Uniform
(c) Non-Uniform,Uniform
(d) Non-Uniform,Non-Uniform
29) Yagi-Uda Antenna is a example of_________ array antenna c
(a) Broadside Antenna
(b) End-Fire Antenna
(c) Parasitic
(d) Colinear
30) Which are the different element of parasitic array antennas d
(a) Driven Element
(b) Parasitic Element
(c) Reflectors and Directors
(d) All
5 P.T.O.
31) In a End-Fire array the radiation is along___________________ a
(a) Along the axis of array antenna
(b) Perpendicular to axis of array antenna
(c) Depends on dimensions
(d) None
32) In a Broad side array the radiation is along___________________ b
(a) Along the axis of array antenna
(b) Perpendicular to axis of array antenna
(c) Depends on dimensions
(d) None
33) In a Uniform Linear array all elements are fed with a current of a
____________ amplitude
(a) Equal
(b) Unequally
(c) Both
(d) None
34) Linear array is a system of ------spaced elements. b
(a) Un-equally
(b) Equally
(c) Both
(d) None
35) If the individual antennas of the array are spaced equally along a straight a
line. Then It is __________array
(a) Linear
(b) Non-Linear
(c) Linear or Non-Linear
6
36) In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar a
_______ excitation along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum
radiation.
(a) Phase
(b) Frequency
(c) Current
(d) Voltage
37) _________ antennas consist of a regular arrangement of antenna b
elements with a feed network
(a) Aperture
(b) Array
(c) Printed
(d) Wire
38) Which of the following is not one of the types of driven array antenna? a
(a) Rectilinear Antenna
(b) Broadside Antenna
(c) End fire Antenna
(d) Log Periodic Antenna
39) Parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the half-wave c
dipole-driven element is called _______
(a) Array Element
(b) Director Element
(c) Reflector Element
(d) Driven Element
7 P.T.O.
40) In a parasitic array antenna, the conductors that are not connected to the b
transmission line is called as?
(a) Driven Element
(b) Parasitic Elements
(c) Feeder
(d)Boom
41) Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on…. b
a) Feed Pattern
b) Antenna Aperture
c) Surface losses
d) Low side lobe level
42) Aperture antennas are very practical for space applications a
a)True
b)False
43) The concept that each point on a wave front may be considered as a new b
wave source is given by
a)Snell’s Law
b) Huygen’s principle
c) young’s Law
d) Hertz’s Law
44) Antenna that does not belong to the horn antenna family among the d
following are
a) Pyramidal horn
b) Conical horn
c) bi-conical horn
8
45) Horn antennas used in the frequency range of b
a) VHF
b) UHF
C) SHF
d) MW
46) Broadband antenna is a
a)log periodic
b)dipole
c)yagi uda
d)horn
47) Which one of the following statement is true for log periodic antenna b
a)Frequency dependent antenna
b) Frequency independent antenna
c) Directional antenna
48) One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. c
This is the
a) Conical horn
Folded dipole
b) Log-periodic
c) Square loop
49) Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide b
a) Biconical
b) Horn
c) Helical
d) Discone
9 P.T.O.
50) The type of dipole antenna that has a higher band width is called as a
a) Conical antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Marconi antenna
51) What happens when a vertical or horizontal polarized antenna receives a c
circular polarized wave?
a) Gain increases b) Signal strength increases c) Signal strength reduces
d) Cannot receive circular polarized waves
52) Radiation from an antenna at other angles than the desired direction. c
a) Antenna direction b) Field strength c ) Sidelobe d) Directivity
53 Is not included in the group. d
a) Slot b) Horn c) Helix d) Marconi
54 It is a measure of how much the antenna concentrates its transmitted d
microwave power in a given direction
a) Beamwidth b) Polarization c) Bandwidth d) Gain
55 An electro magnetic wave consists of _____ a
a) both electric and magnetic fields.b) an electric field only c) a magnetic
field only
d) non-magnetic field only
56 velocity of light in free space a
a) 300 x 10^6 m/s b) 300 x 10^6 km/s c) 186,000 km/s d)186,000 m/s
57 Which antenna radiates equally in all directions b
a) Vertical antenna b) isotropic antenna c) Horizontal antenna d) Dipole
antenna
58 The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is b
a) a figure-8 b) a sphere c) a unidirectional cardioid d) a parabola
10
59 The ratio of the focal length to the diameter of the mouth of the parabola is a
called
a) aperture b) focal point c) foci d) major axis
60 The size of antenna is inversely proportional to a
a) frequency b) power c) radiation resistance d) wavelength
**********
11 P.T.O.

BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Model Question Paper ANS

1) . Which of the following parameters is not a primary parameter? b

8) Identify the material which is not present in a transmission line setup. d

15) The range of the standing wave ratio is c

Subject :-Radiation and Microwave Techniques

Branch:- B.E. (E&TC)

1) Voltage reflection coefficient can be defined as:

3) Flow of power in transmission line takes place through:

4) If a transmission line of a characteristics impedance 50 Ω is terminated with a load

5) If a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is to be matched to a load of

7) If a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 Ω is terminated with a load

8) Smith chart is based on the polar plot of:

9) To get an admittance chart from an impedance chart:

10) Propagation constant γ is given by:

12) Transmission line is a _________ parameter network.

14) Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:

16) Shunt stubs are preferred for:

18) For co-axial lines and waveguides, ________ is more preferred.

19) The major advantage of double stub tuning is:

21) Maxwell’s equation for electromagnetic waves in a waveguide is:

23) In TM mode, if the direction of wave propagation is in ‘z’ direction, then:

24) TEₒₒ mode for a rectangular waveguide:

25) The lowest mode of TE mode propagation in a circular waveguide is:

26) S parameters are expressed as a ratio of:

27) Ferrite isolators are ____ port microwave devices.

28) Directional coupler for waveguide are characterized by

29) A “circulator” is a device that:

30) The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:

32) T- junction is an example for:

37) The material out of which PIN diode is made is:

40) GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:

41) A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.

45) Micro strip can be fabricated using:

50) In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j is connected across a negative resistance

52) The muticavity Klystron is

53) The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to

55) Ionospheric preparation is not possible for microwaves because

56) Which of the following is not possible in a circular wave guide ?

58) The substrate of an MMIC must be a _____________ to accommodate the

60) Processing in MMICs is done by __________

Q1. Which of the following parameters is not a primary parameter?

Q 21. The modes of propagation supported by a rectangular wave guide is:

b. losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies

c. there are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies

d. they would be too bulky at lower frequencies

a. because it is more efficient

b. to increase coupling of the signal

c. to reduce spurious mode generation

d. to increase the bandwidth of the system

a. a metal semiconductor point-contact diode

b. a microwave mixer diode

c. often used as a microwave detector

d. suitable for use as a microwave switch

a. to couple two different antennas to a transmitter without mutual interference

d. to increase the speed of the pulses in pulses in pulsed radar

a. the smaller cross

b. lower attenuation section needed at any frequency

c. freedom from spurious modes

b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength

c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity

d. is directly proportional to the group velocity

Q40 . A TEE connector used with waveguides is:

Q 46. The multicavity klystron