Live Leak - IBPS SO Prelims 2017

Model Question Paper

based on Predicted Pattern

Q1-10) In the following questions, one or more parts of the sentence may
have an error. Find out the part(s) of the sentence with error(s) and click
the corresponding button. If the sentence contains no error, click the 'No
error' option.

Q1. Myanmar says (A) on Wednesday that a U.N. Security Council statements (B) on the
Rohingya refugee crisis could (C) 'seriously harm' its talks with Bangladesh (D).

1. A, B and C have errors

2. A and C have errors
3. A and B have errors
4. B and C have errors
5. No error

Q2. The Security Council had urged Myanmar (A) to 'ensure no further inordinate use
of military force' (B) and had expressed 'boisterous concern (C) over reports of human
rights violations and abuses in Rakhine State' (D).

1. A, B and C have errors

2. A and B have errors
3. B and C have errors
4. A and C have errors
5. No error
Q3. Responding, Myanmars de facto leader Aung Sang Suu Kyi said (A) the issues
facing Myanmar and Bangladesh (B) could only be rattled bilaterally, (C) a point she
says was ignored in the Security Council statement (D).

1. A, B and D have errors

2. B, C and D have errors
3. Only C has an error
4. C and D have errors
5. No error

Q4. Negotiations with Bangladesh were intermittent (A) a statement released by the
office of Myanmar de-facto leader Kyi says, (B) and the Bangladesh Foreign Minister
Abul Hassan Mahmood Ali had been repulsed (C) to Myanmar from Nov. 16-17 (D).

1. A, B and C have errors

2. B, C and D have errors
3. A, C and D have errors
4. A, B and D have errors
5. No error

Q5. Speaking at a conference (A) for Commonwealth countries parliamentarians in

Dhaka on Sunday, (B) Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina calling (C) for more
international pressure on Myanmar (D).

1. Only A has an error

2. Only C has an error
3. A and B have an error
4. Only D has an error
5. No error
Q6. I would request all of you to (A) discuss Rohingya issue of utmost priority (B) and
exerts pressure on the Myanmar government (C) to stop the persecution of its citizens
(D).

1. A and B have errors

2. B and D have errors
3. B and C have errors
4. C and D have errors
5. No error

Q7. In the nod to China,(A) the Myanmar statement said (B) it appreciated a stand
taken by some members of the Security Council (C) who upheld a principle of non-
interference in the internal affairs of sovereign countries (D).

1. Only A has an error

2. Only C has an error
3. B and D have errors
4. A, B, C and D have errors
5. No error

Q8. To appeasing council veto powers Russia and China (A), Britain and France
authorized (B) a push of the Security Council to adopt a resolution on the Myanmar
situation (C) and the 15-member body instead unanimously agreed on a formal
statement (D).

1. A and B have errors

2. A, B and C have errors
3. A and C have errors
4. B and C have errors
5. No error
Q9. The United Nations has denounced the violence (A) across the past 10 weeks as a
classic example (B) on ethnic cleansing to drive (C) the Rohingya Muslims out of
Buddhist majority Myanmar (D).

1. Only D has an error

2. Only C has an error
3. Only B has an error
4. A and B have an error
5. No error

Q10. Rejecting that accusation, the military said (A) its counter-insurgency clearance
operation was goaded (B) by Rohingya militants synchronised attacks (C) on 30
security posts in the northern part of Rakhine State on Aug. 25 (D).

1. A and B have errors

2. B and C have errors
3. C and D have errors
4. A and D have errors
5. No error

Q11-15). In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined.

Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is
needed, choose the alternative that indicates No improvement needed.

Q11. A man with an assault rifle killed at least 26 people and wounded 20 in the rural
Texas church during Sunday services.

A. In a rural Texas church

B. In some rural Texas church
C. In rural Texas church

1. A, B and C
2. Only A
3. Both A and C
4. Both A and B
5. No improvement

Q12. The Sutherland Spring massacre is likely to renew questions about why
someone on a history of violence could amass an arsenal of lethal weaponry.

A. Having a history
B. With a history
C. To a history

1. A, B and C
2. Only B
3. Both A and C
4. Both A and B
5. No improvement

Q13. The lone gunman, dressed in black tactical gear and a ballistic vest, drove on the
white-steepled First Baptist Church in Sutherland Springs and started firing inside.

A. Drove up to the white-steepled First Baptist Church

B. Drove in the white-steepled First Baptist Church
C. Drove until the while-steepled First Baptist Church

1. A, B and C
2. Both B and C
3. Both A and C
4. Both A and B
5. No improvement
Q14. He kept shoot once he entered, killing or wounding victims ranging in age from
five to 72 years, police told a news conference.

A. He kept shooting
B. He kept shooted
C. He kept on shooting

1. A, B and C
2. Both B and C
3. Both A and B
4. Both A and C
5. No improvement

Q15. President Donald Trump told reporters the shooting was a mental health
problem and wasnt a guns situation.

A. Was due to a mental health problem

B. Was because of a mental health problem
C. Was for a mental health problem

1. A, B and C
2. Both A and B
3. Both A and C
4. Both B and C
5. No improvement

Q16-25) A passage is given below with ten blanks labelled (A)-(J). From the
given options, choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in
the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

Education is a process that involves the ___(A)___ of knowledge, habits and skills
from one generation to another through teaching, research and training. It can be in a
formal or informal setting. Formal education involves ___(B)___ learning based on a
curriculum. In todays society, education and learning play an indispensable role in
shaping the lives of individuals and the society at large. The most effective way of
boosting economic growth, reducing poverty and improving peoples health is by
investing in education.

Human labour is essential for economic growth. A highly educated labour force
further ___(C)___ economic growth. Additionally, a highly educated labour force can
easily adapt to new working environments and conditions. In view of that, it
is ___(D)___ that education serves as the driving force for innovation of new
products and services. Educated workers ___(E)___ ideas in the workplace and come
up with new ideas that help in the growth of the economy.

Education reduces ___(F)___ in a number of ways. One way is by creating

employment opportunities for educated people. Through employment, one is able to
afford a decent living. Education helps to increase economic security, create income
opportunities and improve livelihoods of the economical disadvantaged by providing
sustainable environmental management mechanisms. Education
further ___(G)___ poverty through skills acquired in the learning process. Skills such
as carpentry, plumbing and masonry are relevant in non-formal economies. One can
acquire these skills through technical and vocational training.

Educated people are health conscious and live longer than their counterparts because
they engage in healthy habits such as eating a balanced diet, exercising regularly and
going for medical check-ups. By___(H)___ in education, one will also be investing in
their health. Education serves to create room for technological advancements in the field
of medicine and agriculture. The advanced technology used for conducting surgery has
replaced traditional methods. This has seen an improvement in peoples general health
and an increased life expectancy. Most developing countries have a low life expectancy
compared to developed countries. This can be ___(I)___ to high illiteracy levels
present in developing countries. This translates to poor health and poor eating habits.
In conclusion, education is the only means of alleviating poverty, improving peoples
health and increasing economic growth. Improving literacy levels
in ___(J)___ societies will go a long way in improving human living standards.

Q16. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?

1. Retaining
2. Conservation
3. Transferal
4. Preserving
5. Perpetuation

Q17. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?

1. Supersized
2. Sodomized
3. Hypnotised
4. Institutionalised
5. Canonized

Q18. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (C)?

1. Deteriorates
2. Hampers
3. Jeopardizes
4. Provokes
5. Stimulates

Q19. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (D)?

1. Inconspicuous
2. Discernible
3. Dubious
4. Vague
5. Indefinite

Q20. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (E)?

1. Demolish
2. Entertain
3. Finalize
4. Trade
5. Discuss

Q21. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (F)?

1. Illiteracy
2. Population
3. Poverty
4. GST
5. Status quo

Q22. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (G)?

1. Alleviates
2. Pesters
3. Exasperates
4. Nettles
5. Nags

Q23. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (H)?
1. Demonstrating
2. Simplifying
3. Purifying
4. Investing
5. Focusing

Q24. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (I)?

1. Compared
2. Attributed
3. Provided
4. Demonstrated
5. Visualised

Q25. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (J)?

1. High-class
2. Ornamented
3. Prudish
4. Marginalised
5. Lethargic

Q26-30) Rearrange the following six sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B),
(C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph
and answer the given questions.

A. Employees who take occasional breaks to cyber-slack may experience relief from
stress, boredom, and fatigue.

B. If there is a high level of surveillance, a culture of distrust can form between the
employer and employee, which can decrease productivity.
C. However, studies show that taking short breaks from work improves productivity in
office settings.

D. A balance hence must be established between the upper management and the
employees about what is ethical in regards to cyberslacking.

E. Cyberslacking is commonly deemed unethical, but some argue that a small amount of
personal internet use while working in the office is beneficial.

F. Some companies use surveillance to monitor what their employees are doing online.

Q26. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. F

Q27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1. B
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. F

Q28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1. A
2. D
3. F
4. B
5. E

Q29. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

1. D
2. C
3. E
4. A
5. B

Q30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1. A
2. F
3. E
4. C
5. D

Q31-50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given
questions. Certain words have been highlighted for your attention.

An epiphany is an experience of sudden and striking realization. Generally, the term is

used to describe scientific breakthrough, religious or philosophical discoveries, but it
can be applied in any situation in which an enlightening realization allows a problem or
situation to be understood from a new and deeper perspective. Epiphanies are studied
by psychologists and other scholars, particularly those attempting to study the process
of innovation.

Epiphanies are relatively rare occurrences and generally follow a process of significant
thought about a problem. Often they are triggered by a new and key piece of
information, but importantly, a depth of prior knowledge is required to allow the leap of
understanding. Famous epiphanies include Archimedes's discovery of a method to
determine the density of an object ("Eureka!") and Isaac Newton's realization that a
falling apple and the orbiting moon are both pulled by the same force. Epiphanies can
come in many different forms and are often generated by a complex combination of
experience, memory, knowledge, predisposition and context. A contemporary
example of an epiphany in education might involve the process by which a student
arrives at some form of new insight or clarifying thought. Despite this popular image,
epiphany is the result of significant work on the part of the discoverer and is only the
satisfying result of a long process. The surprising and fulfilling feeling of epiphany is so
surprising because one cannot predict when one's labour will bear fruit, and our
subconscious can play a significant part in delivering the solution; and is fulfilling
because it is a reward for a long period of effort.

The word epiphany originally referred to insight through the divine. Today, this concept
is more often used without such connotations, but a popular implication remains that
the epiphany is supernatural, as the discovery seems to come suddenly from the outside.
The word's secular usage may owe much of its popularity to Irish novelist James Joyce.
The Joycean epiphany has been defined as "a sudden spiritual manifestation, whether
from some object, scene, event, or memorable phase of the mind
the manifestation being out of proportion to the significance or strictly logical
relevance of whatever produce it". The author used epiphany as a literary device within
each entry of his short story collection Dubliners (1914); his protagonists came to
sudden recognitions that changed their view of themselves and/or their social
conditions. Joyce had first expounded on epiphany's meaning in the fragment Stephen
Hero, although this was only published posthumously in 1944. For the
philosopher, Emmanuel Lvinas, epiphany or a manifestation of the divine is seen on
another's face.

A common myth predicts that most, if not all, innovations occur through
epiphanies. Not all innovations occur through epiphanies; Scott Berkun notes that "the
most useful way to think of an epiphany is an occasional bonus of working on tough
problems". Most innovations occur without epiphany, and epiphanies often contribute
little towards finding the next one. Crucially, an epiphany cannot be predicted or
controlled.
Q31. What can be a possible reason for an epiphany to come from the following
options?

1. Quality of education that a person acquires during his or her lifetime

2. A previous information about something that acts a ladder towards a new idea

3. It is supernatural and comes to a person suddenly from the outside

4. After a period of hard labour

5. Having an insight through the divine and feeling enlightened

Q32. Can an epiphany be predicted?

1. Yes, because it is the result of the discoverer's past experiences

2. No, because it is just a sudden realization that comes out of a discoverer's prior
knowledge and hard work

3. Absolutely because it is pretty satisfying in nature and a person can feel it coming
naturally to himself or herself

4. Never, because it has no base whatsoever

5. Possibly, because it varies from person to person. Not everyone in this world can be
an inventor

Q33. Possibly, because it varies from person to person. Not everyone in this world can
be an inventor

1. There is no real relevance of it

2. Being faithful to God and being religious causes an epiphany to occur

3. It is because of the divine's wish and will

4. Because it comes all of a sudden from the outside and has no physical roots
5. This is baseless because an epiphany occurs only because of sheer hard work

Q34. What is the difference between a Joycean epiphany and a normal epiphany
according to the passage?

1. One is related to absolute devotion to the divine and one is having it's own relevance

2. Joycean epiphany demands more hard work and labour than a normal epiphany

3. One is the result of spirituality and other is the result of prior knowledge and labour

4. Both are almost same in nature except for the fact that these belong to different
generations

5. There is basically no difference between the two

Q35. In the short story Dubliners (1914) by James Joyce, how is the culture of
epiphany demonstrated?

1. The spiritual manifestation of the characters in the story

2. The characters changed their perceptions about life and social conditions after having
epiphanies

3. All the characters lament about the social conditions and the vagueness of life and
then conceive epiphanies

4. The characters come to realize about the futility of life

5. The narration of the story and the word power made the readers to have epiphanies of
their own

Q36. What is the root of most innovations in the world?

1. An epiphany that is the result of the enlightenment of the discoverer

2. Sudden realizations about unexpectedness

3. A spiritually enriching epiphany

4. Epiphanies that come after working on difficult issues

5. An absolutely gigantic epiphany about an idea or a process

Q37. Choose an appropriate synonym of the word 'realization'

1. Incomprehension

2. Idiocy

3. Innocence

4. Discernment

5. Unconciousnesss

Q38. What can be the opposite of the word 'predisposition'?

1. Proneness

2. Liability

3. Miasm

4. Unwillingness

5. Vulnerability

Q39. Choose the word that means the closest to 'manifestation'.

1. Supress

2. Exposition

3. Repress
4. Dissemble

5. Secrete

Q40. Which of the following is an antonym of the word 'expounded'?

1. Elucidated

2. Delineated

3. Explained

4. Propounded

5. Obfuscated

Q41. What is the key idea of the given passage?

1. Online brand ambassadors

2. Social networking as a routine

3. Introduction to Social networking

4. Businesses are embracing Social networking

5. None of the above

Q42. What is the meaning of 'PHISHING' ?

1. The fraudulent practice of sending emails

2. Connect as or operate a network

3. The process of assigning a code to something for classification or identification

4. Convert (a coded message) into intelligible language

5. The state of being free from danger or threat.

Q43. Why security and privacy related to social networking sites are fundamentally
behavioural issues, not technology issues?

1. Because social networking sites are not based on technologies

2. Not all data being shared is as innocent as weekend plans

3. Keystroke loggers that can steal credentials are not connected to social networks

4. The more information a person posts, the more information becomes available for a
potential compromise by those with malicious intentions

5. None of the above

Q44. What is the most opposite of 'BREACH'?

1. Contravention

2. Closure

3. Neglect

4. Fracture

5. Violation

Q45. Why do many businesses today patrol sites like Twitter and Facebook?

1. To see the technologies behind them

2. To listen in on the chatter about their products and services

3. To make the work more easy

4. To create a more effective advertising campaign

5. To see how this free flow of information can boost productivity and autonomy
Q46. What is the most similar word to 'AVENUES'?

1. Egress

2. Refusal

3. Priority

4. Approach

5. Shutdown

Q47. How are businesses embracing social networking?

1. By the volume and accessibility of personal information

2. By modifying knowledge at their fingertips

3. By the brand and track of the company

4. By preparing an internal culture of alliance

5. All of the above

Q48. How people pose a higher risk to themselves and others?

1. By sending emails

2. By providing sensitive, private and confidential information

3. By giving unethical reviews to the posts

4. By using social networking

5. None of the above

Q49. What is anonymous to 'MALICIOUS'?

1. Benevolent

2. Baleful

3. Destructive

4. Pernicious

5. Malign

Q50. What is synonymous to 'Leverage'?

1. Grip

2. Weakness

3. Sympathy

4. Procure

5. Sensible

Q51. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

1, 2, 10, 37, 101, ?

1. 177

2. 190

3. 226

4. 230

5. 250

Q52. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

1, 2, 5, 11, 21, ?
1. 36

2. 40

3. 35

4. 33

5. 42

Q53. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

1, 5, 14, 30, 55, ?

1. 98

2. 82

3. 77

4. 89

5. 91

Q54. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

1, -1, 3, -5, 11, ?

1. -11

2. -21

3. -19

4. -36

5. -8

Q55. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
12, 16, 22, 32, 48, ?

1. 70

2. 78

3. 72

4. 74

5. 80

Q56. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
126 + 93 8 9 of 15 {1057 (237 167)} =?

1. 219
2. 147
3. -696
4. -876
5. -1080

Q57. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
{54 (29 8 4) 3 + 24 11 9 3 ?} 4 = 56
1. 208
2. -146
3. -274
4. 198
5. -178

1
Q58. Value of 1 + 2 + (1 + 2 + 4 )2 is equal to ?

1
1. (1 + + 2 + 1 + 2)
2
 1 2 )
2. (1 + + 2 1 +
2
1
3. (1 + + 2 1 + 2)
2
1
4. (1 + + 2 + 1 + 2)
2

5. None of these

Q59. What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
question?
105.27 % of 1200.11 + 11.80% of 2360.85 = 21.99% of ? + 1420.99
1. 500
2. 240
3. 310
4. 550
5. 960

Q60. What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
question?
(2025.11) ( 256.04) + (399.95) (?) = 33.98 40.11
1. 1682
2. 1024
3. 1582
4. 678
5. 1884

Q61-65) Comprehension (5 questions)

Direction: Study the table carefully to answer the questions.

The table shows the percentage distribution of 30,000 people who are involved in
different professions, and the percentage of female and male professionals among them.

Percentage of Percentage of Percentage of

Professions
people females males
Banking 25 30 -
Law 15 15 -
Teaching 25 - 60
Engineering 15 - 40
Medical 20 40 -

Q61. The total number of people in the teaching profession is what percentage of the
total number of people in the medical profession?

1. 145%

2. 325%

3. 125%

4. 175%

5. 300%

Q62. What is the ratio of the total number of males in the Medical and Banking
professions together to the total number of females in the same profession together?

1. 59 : 31

2. 35 : 17

3. 8 : 5

4. 37 : 73

5. 17 : 35
Q63. The females in the engineering profession are approximately what per cent of the
males in the Banking profession?

1. 51%

2. 52%

3. 53%

4. 54%

5. 55%

Q64. What is the ratio of the total number of males in the Banking and Medical
professions together to the total number of females in the law and Teaching professions
together?

1. 16 : 9

2. 35 : 13

3. 118 : 49

4. 37 : 13

5. 18 : 49

Q65. The total number of males in the Engineering profession is approximately what
percentage more than the number of females in the Law profession?

1. 100%

2. 133%

3. 167%

4. 125%
5. 150%

Q66-71) Comprehension (6 questions)

Directions: Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

A total of 42000 students appeared in an entrance examination from six cities, in which
the number of boys was 15000. The following pie-chart show the distribution of the total
students and of the total boys from these cities who appeared in the exam.

A
F 18%
25%

B
12.5%
E
9.5%

C
D 17%
18%

Total Students

F
32.4o A
82.8o
E
75.6o

B
D
72o
36o
C
61.2o

Boys
Q66. What is the total number of girls who appeared from City A?

1. 3800

2. 4110

3. 4300

4. 4500

5. 3700

Q67. What is the difference between the total number of boys and the total number of
girls who appeared in the exam from city E?

1. 2310

2. 3700

3. 3200

4. 2400

5. None of these

Q68. The total number of girls who appeared from City C is approximately what percent
of the total number of students who appeared from City D?

1. 45%

2. 56%

3. 61%

4. 78%

5. 49%
Q69. What is the difference between the total number of girls who appeared from city A
and that from city B?

1. 2000

2. 2100

3. 1980

4. 1850

5. 1860

Q70. The number of girls who appeared from City F is approximately what percent of
the total number of girls who appeared from all six cities together?

1. 45%

2. 38%

3. 42%

4. 34%

5. 48%

Q71. What is the average of girls of all the six cities if the number of girls increased by
10% in all the six cities?

1. 4576

2. 4950

3. 4956

4. 4875

5. 4965
Q72-76) The question below consists of a question and two statements I and
II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements
and give answer.

Q72. Is speed of train y slower than train x?

I. Train X of length 500m crosses another Train Y of length 400 m in 30 seconds

moving towards each other.

II. Train X crosses a platform of length 100m in 30 seconds while Train Y crosses a pole
in 40 seconds.

1. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

2. Data in sufficient II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

3. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question

4. Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

5. Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q73. How many minutes per hour does a person stop?

I. Without any stoppage a person travels certain distance at an average speed of 60

km/hr

II. The person travels a distance of 720 km

1. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

2. Data in sufficient II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
3. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question

4. Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

5. Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q74. What is the area of the right-angled triangle?

I. The height and base of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 4

II. The perimeter of the triangle is 48 cm.

1. Data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

2. Data in sufficient II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

3. Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question

4. Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

5. Data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q75. What will be the share of J in the profit earned by J, K and L together?

I. J, K and L invested total amount of Rs. 8,00,000 for a period of 2 years

II. The profit earned in the end is 60%

III. The amount invested by K is equal to the amount invested by J and L together.

1. Both II and III

2. Both I and III

3. Only III
4. All I, II and III

5. Cannot be determined

Q76. What is the rate of interest p.a.?

I. The amount becomes Rs. 12500 at compound interest after 2 years.

II. The same amount at simple interest becomes Rs. 12000 after two years.

III. The amount invested is Rs. 10000

1. II and either I or III

2. Either I or II

3. Any two of the three

4. None

5. I and either II or III

Q77. A speaks the truth 3 times out of 4, B speaks truth 7 times out of 10. They both
assert that a white ball is drawn from a bag containing 6 balls, all of different colours.
Find the probability of the truth of the assertion.

1. 12/49

2. 3/10

3. 21/40

4. 7/10

5. None of these

Q78. In the 75 litres of mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk and water is 4 : 1.
The quantity of water required to make the ratio of milk and water 3 : 1 is
1. 1 litre

2. 3 litres

3. 4 litres

4. 5 litres

5. None of these

Q79. In how many ways 7 B.tech students and 8 Arts students can be arranged together
so that no two B.tech students are side by side?

1. 15C7

2. 8! 9! / 2!

3. 7! 7!

4. 7! 8!

5. None of these

Q80. The perimeter of a square is equal to thrice the perimeter of a rectangle of length
of 12 cm and breadth 8 cm. What is the area of a circle whose diameter is equal to half of
the side of the square? (Rounded off to the two decimal places)

1. 196.54 cm2

2. 150 cm2

3. 184.64 cm2

4. 176.78 cm2

5. 154.3 cm2
Q81. Which of the following cannot be the volume of sphere if it is given that its radius
is a whole number?

1. 693 cm3

2. 539 cm3

3. 288 cm3

4. 759 cm3

5. 935 cm3

Q82. Two trains starting from two cities A and B which are 300 km apart. Their speeds
are 30m/s and 20 m/s respectively in opposite direction. A Helicopter from city A goes
to city B and then came back. When it reaches city A the two trains meet each other.
What is the speed of Helicopter?

1. 100 m/s

2. 120 m/s

3. 150 m/s

4. 85 m/s

5. 90 m/s

Q83. The current of the stream is 33.33 m/min. A boat goes 35 km upstream and gets
back to the starting point in 6 hours. The speed of boat during upstream and
downstream respectively is

1. 10 km/h and 14 km/h

2. 12 km/h and 14 km/h

3. 8 km/h and 12 km/h

4. 12 km/h and 8 km/h

5. 14 km/h and 10 km/h

Q84. A truck travels 1/3 of the distance on a straight road with a velocity of 10 km/h,
the next 1/3 with a velocity of 20 km/h and last 1/3 with a velocity of 60 km/h. What is
the average velocity of the truck for the whole journey?

1. 10 km/h

2. 5 m/s

3. 15 km/h

4. 10 m/s

5. None of these

Q85. A car covers first 50 km in 45 minutes and next 39 km in 25 minutes. The average
speed of the car in kmph is :

1. 75

2. 65

3. 85

4. 80

5. 60

Q86. P, Q and R enter into partnership. P invests some money at the beginning. Q
invests triple the amount after 6 months and R invests half the amount after 8 months.
If the annual profit be Rs. 48,000, Qs share is

1. Rs. 24,000
2. Rs. 26,680

3. Rs. 30,850

4. Rs. 25,500

5. Rs. 27,000

Q87. Ramesh is a dishonest dealer. He marks up the price of his goods by 30% and
gives a discount of 10% to the customer. Besides, he also cheats both his supplier and his
buyer by 150 grams while buying and selling 1 kilogram. Find the percentage profit
earned by the dealer.

1. 39.5%

2. 51.45%

3. 58.29%

4. 46.66%

5. 32%

Q88. What total amount would Jatin get at the end of three years if he invests an
amount of Rs. 1200 in a scheme which offers simple interest at the rate of 7.5 percent
per annum for three years?

1. Rs. 1511

2. Rs. 1481

3. Rs. 1623

4. Rs. 1550

5. Rs. 1470
Q89. The average salary of the entire staff in a school is Rs. 8,000 per month. The
average salary of teaching staff is Rs. 9500 and that of non-teaching staff is Rs. 7000. If
the number of people teaching staff is 10, then find the number of people in non-
teaching staff.

1. 12

2. 18

3. 15

4. 10

5. None of these

Q90. The ratio of the age of Ramesh and Suresh is 8 : 9. Nine years ago the ratio of their
age was 5 : 6. What is the present age of Ramesh?

1. 16

2. 20

3. 24

4. 18

5. None of these

Q91. Three diggers dug a ditch of 360 m deep in five days working simultaneously.
During one shift, the first digger digs as many meters more than the second as the
second digs as many meters more than the third. The first diggers work in 8 days is
equal to the third diggers work in 12 days. How many metres does the third digger dig
per shift?

1. 20 m

2. 12 m
3. 24 m

4. 17 m

5. 19 m

Q92. Find the relation between x and y.

6x2 + 40 = 31x

3y2 + 7y + 4 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x y

4. x y

5. x = y or no relation can be established

Q93. Find the relation between x and y.

3 3 1
6( ) + 1 = 5 ,
2 +1 2 + 1 2

2y2 7y + 6 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x y

4. x y

5. x = y or no relation can be established

Q94. Find the relation between x and y.

(x + 2)(x 5)(x 6)(x + 1) = 144

2y2 13y + 21 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x y

4. x y

5. x = y or no relation can be established

Q95. Find the relation between x and y.

2 2 2 + 1 2 + 3 = 0

10y2 29y + 21 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y

3. x y

4. x y

5. x = y or no relation can be established

Q96. Find the relation between x and y.

3(x + 2) + 3(-x) = 10

y2 9y + 20 = 0

1. x > y

2. x < y
3. x y

4. x y

5. x =y or no relation can be established

Q97. A sum of Rs. 20000 is borrowed at 16% p.a. compounded annually which is paid
back in 3 equal annual instalments. What is the amount of each instalments?

1. Rs. 8905.15

2. Rs. 9142.65

3. Rs. 8562.32

4. Rs. 9456.75

5. Rs. 7514.23

Q98. The wages of 6 men and 4 women amount to Rs. 4000 per week and the wages of
4 men and 3 women to Rs. 2275 per week. Find the daily wages of a woman (in rupees,
assuming that the wages for a week are paid on basis of 7 week).

1. Rs. 98

2. Rs. 92

3. Rs. 82

4. Rs. 84

5. Rs. 88

Q99. Two pipes A and B can fill up a half full tank in 1.2 hours. The tank was initially
empty. Pipe B was kept open for half the time required by pipe A to fill the tank
completely by itself. Then, pipe A was kept open for as much time as was required by
pipe B to fill up 1/3 of the tank by itself. It was found that the tank was 5/6 full. The least
time in which any of the pipes can fill the tank fully is

1. 4.8 hours

2. 4 hours

3. 3.6 hours

4. 6 hours

5. None of these

Q100. What is the value of 100% ?

1. 10%

2. 100

3. 1

4. 1%

5. None of these

Q101-110). Directions: In the following question assuming the given

statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given
conclusions is/ are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.

Q101. Statements: X F = I; F > J L; J K < Z

Conclusions:

I. X > L

II. J > Z

III. J < Z

1. Only II is true
2. Only I is true
3. Only I and III are true
4. Only I and either II or III are true
5. Only III is true

Q102. Statements: E > R = T Q, P N > C = Q

Conclusions:

I. N T

II. R P

III. E > C

1. Only I and III are true

2. Only II is true
3. Only II and III are true
4. Only III is true
5. Only I is true

Q103. Statements: S U < R = G, S P N = V

Conclusions:

I. G > V

II. N U

III. R > P

1. None is true
2. Only II and III are true
3. Only I is true
4. Only I and III are true
5. 5) All I and II and III are true
Q104. Statements: D W, P > Q, W < T = R, Q = V < D

Conclusions:

I. P > D

II. P > V

III. D R

IV. T > V

1. Only II is true
2. Only II and III and IV are true
3. Only I, II and IV are true
4. Only I and IV are true
5. Only I and II and III are true

Q105. Statements: U = E > N, Y Z < C, U > Y = S

Conclusions:

I. Z S

II. Y > N

III. E > S

IV. U Z

1. None is true
2. Only II, III and IV are true
3. Only I and III are true
4. Only II and IV are true
5. Only II is true
Q106. Conclusions:

I. Some Kashi are Gomti.

II. Some Sarva are not Gomti.

Statements:

1. Some Aryawat are Sarva. All Sarva are Prathma. Some Prathma are Baroda. All
Baroda are Kashi. All Kashi are Gomti.
2. All Aryawat are Gomti. Some Gomti are Baroda. All Baroda are Kashi. Some Kashi
are Prathma. All Prathma are Sarva.
3. All Aryawat are Kashi. Some Kashi are Baroda. All Baroda are Gomti. Some Gomti
are Prathma. All Prathma are Sarva.
4. All Aryawat are Sarva. Some Aryawat are Kashi. Some Kashi are Baroda. All Baroda
are Gomti. Some Gomti are Prathma.
5. None of these

Q107. Conclusions:

I. Some Goods is not Income.

II. Some Service is Direct.

Statements:

1. All Goods are Service. No Service is tax. Some tax are Income. All Income are Direct.
No Direct is Excise.
2. Some Goods are Excise. No Excise is Income. All are Service Income. Some Income
are tax. All tax are Direct.
3. All Goods are tax. No tax are Income. All Direct are Income. Some Direct are Excise.
All Excise are Service.
4. All Goods are Income. Some Income are Service. All Service are tax. No tax is Direct.
All Excise are Direct.
5. None of these.
Q108. Conclusions:

I. Some 2 are 6.

II. Some 4 are 2.

Statements:

1. All 1 are 6. Some 6 are 5. All 5 are 2. Some 2 are 3. All 3 are 4.
2. All 1 are 6. Some 6 are 5. Some 5 are 2. All 2 are 3. Some 3 are 4.
3. Some 1 are 4. All 4 are 2. Some 2 are 3. All 3 are 5. Some 5 are 6.
4. Some 1 are 6. All 6 are 5. Some 5 are 4. All 4 are 2. Some 2 are 3.
5. None of these.

Q109. Conclusions:

I. Some Bat are Mat.

II. Some Tiger are Ball.

Statements:

1. Some Ball are Bat. All Bat are Tiger. No Tiger is Mat. Some Mat are dog. All dog are
pig.
2. Some Ball are Bat. All Bat are dog. No dog is Mat. Some Mat are Tiger. All Tiger are
pig.
3. Some Ball are Bat. All Bat are pig. No pig is Mat. Some Mat are dog. All dog are
Tiger.
4. Some Ball are Mat. All Mat are pig. No pig is Bat. Some Bat are dog. All dog are
Tiger.
5. None of these.

Q110. Conclusions:
I. Some King are Servant.

II. Some Servants are not King.

Statements:

1. Some Pot are Servant. No Servant is Prince. All Prince are Sun. No Sun is King. All
Universe are King.
2. All Pot are Servant. Some Servant are Prince. No Prince is Sun. Some Sun are King.
All King are Universe.
3. Some Pot are Universe. All Universe are Prince. No Prince is Servant. All Servant are
Sun. No Servant is King.
4. All Pot are Prince. Some Prince are Sun. No Sun is King. Some King are Universe. All
Universe are Servant.
5. None of these.

Q111-115) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below:

Eight people, Anand, Amay, Avni, Awin, Dilraj, Preet, Mansi and Rashika live in a multi-
storey building on different floors. All the people are from different places namely,
Pune, Mumbai, Delhi, Indore, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Ranchi, and Gandhinagar and
play different sports, hockey, football, tennis and handball (which mean two people play
same sport). The ground floor is number 1, the floor above is number 2 and so on, and
the topmost floor is number 8.

The person playing football lives immediately next to each others floor. The person who
plays tennis lives between the floors of the persons playing hockey. Rashika lives on 6th
floor and Avni lives immediately below Rashikas floor. Awin lives immediately below
Mansis floor and Awin does not live on 1st or 2nd floor. The person from Pune lives on
2nd floor. The persons from Indore and Gandhinagar have exactly three floors in
between them and the person from Indore lives above the person from Gandhinagar.
Dilraj and Avni play tennis. Preet lives immediately above Amays floor. Anand and
Dilraj have exactly two floors in between them. The person from Bangalore lives at the
3rd floor and plays handball. Mansi is neither from Mumbai nor from Ranchi. Anand is
from Hyderabad and lives on fourth floor. The person from Delhi and Mumbai lives
immediately next to each others floor

Q111. Which city is Preet from?

1. Bangalore
2. Pune
3. Ranchi
4. Mumbai
5. Delhi

Q112. Which of the following is related to Amay?

1. Hockey Ranchi
2. Football Mumbai
3. Football Delhi
4. Handball Pune
5. None of the above

Q113. Which of the following statement is true according to the given data?

1. Amay plays football.

2. The persons who play handball have three floors in between them.
3. Awin is from Ranchi
4. Avni is from Indore.
5. None of the above

Q114. How many floors are between Preets floor and the person from Ranchi?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Q115. Who among the following plays football?

1. Rashika
2. Amay
3. Preet
4. Anand
5. Mansi

Q116-119) Directions: Study the information given below carefully and

answer the questions that follow.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G H, I and J are ten houses. A is 5 km North of K which is 4 km South of

J, 5 km East of B, 3 km West of E and 8 km North of C. G is 12 km North of mid-point of
D and C and 5 km West of J. D is 10 km West of C and 8 km South of F which is 4 km
East of H. I is 5 km North of H.

Q116. Distance between J and E is?

1. 3 km
2. 7 km
3. 4 km
4. 10 km
5. 5 km
Q117. If a person walks 8 km West from E then turns left, walks another 8 km then
turns right walks 5 km and again turns right and finally walks 8 km where does he
reach?

1. A
2. D
3. G
4. F
5. H

Q118. A is the only son of D who is the only daughter of S. E is the mother of G and
daughter-in-law of D. How is G is related to D?

1. Grand-daughter
2. Grandson
3. Daughter
4. Granduncle
5. Cannot be determined

Q119. Manav said to Awin, Yesterday, I met the only brother of the only daughter of
my maternal grandmother. Whom did Manav meet?

1. Brother
2. Uncle
3. Father
4. Son
5. Cannot be determined

Q120-124). Direction: Given below are an input - output, step responsive

mathematical operations on a set of numbers according to which you need to answer the
following questions. No operation is repeated.
Input:

STEP 1

STEP 2

STEP 3

Similarly, find the appropriate step for the following input:

Q120. What is the difference of the sum of all the digits of step 2 and the sum of the
digits of the last step of this given input?

1. 34
2. 40
3. 52
4. 26
5. None of these

Q121. How many odd digits are there in the previous step of the last step of the given
input?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Q122. If the numbers 2 and 4 are replaced by each other in step 1 of the given Input
then, what is the difference between the old output and new output (you have to adding
all those 4 digits of last step)?

1. Zero
2. 7
3. 2
4. 6
5. None of these

Q123. How many digits in step 2 are multiples of 2?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. None of these
Q124. If all the odd digits of step 1 are added with each other and subtract by the
answer obtained by adding all the digits of step 3, what will be the result?

1. 17
2. 15
3. 21
4. 29
5. None of these

Q125-129). Direction: Read the given information and answer below question.

Ten students namely A, B, C, D, E, P, Q, R, S and T from a banking coaching institute

but not necessarily in the same order have an exam on five different days starting from
Monday to Friday of the same week. Students have exam at two different time slot 8:45
AM and 12:45 PM. S has an exam on Tuesday at 08:45 AM. The number of people who
have exam between Q and D is same as the number of people who have exam between C
and R. B's exam day is immediately before S. S does not have exam on any of the days
before Q. There is one student who have exam at 08:45 AM immediately before T. R
does not have exam at 12:45 PM. D does not have exam on any of the days after E. Only
three people have exam between Q and E. Neither Q nor E does have any exam on
Friday. Only 2 people have exam between P and T. P does not have any exam on any of
the day after R.

Q125. Which is group of people whose exam slot is 8:45 AM?

1. Q, S, E, P, R
2. Q, S, A, P, R
3. Q, S, E, P, T
4. Either 1) or 2)
5. None of these
Q126. What is Time and day for exam of A?

1. Thursday 8:45 AM
2. Thursday 12:45 PM
3. Friday 8:45 AM
4. Friday 12:45 PM
5. None of these

Q127. How many people have exam between A and S?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. Cant be determined
5. None of these

Q128. Whose exam is on Friday?

1. R and T
2. A and P
3. R and A
4. Either 2 or 3
5. None of these

Q129. Which of the following statement is definitely False?

1. S exam on Tuesday
2. D exam on Tuesday
3. R exam on Friday
4. P exam on Monday
5. All are true
Q130-134). Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:

There are eight persons Dilip, Elsa, Gaurav, Hamir, Ravi, Savi, Tarun and Urvashi
sitting around a circular table. Some of the persons are not facing the centre. They all
like four different tyes of drinks, viz Coca Cola, Maaza, Thumbsup and Tropicana, and
each drink is liked by two persons.

Note: Same direction means that if one person is facing the centre then the other person
also faces the centre and vice versa. Opposite direction means if one person is facing the
centre then the other person faces outside and vice versa.

Tarun sits on the immediate right of Elsa, who likes Coca Cola. Gaurav sits third to the
left of Urvashi, who likes Tropicana and both are facing the same direction. Gaurav and
Elsa are not facing the same direction but Gaurav is an immediate neighbor of Ravi.
Ravi sits fourth to the left of Tarun and both are facing opposite directions but like the
same soft drink. The person who like Coca Cola sit adjacent to each other, but face
opposite directions. The persons who like Maaza sit opposite each other. The immediate
neighbours of Ravi are facing the centre. The person who likes Tropicana is an
immediate neighbor of the persons who like Thumbsup. Hamir and Savi are immediate
neighbours of Urvashi. Hamir is not facing the centre and likes Thumbsup. The one who
is on the immediate left of Savi is not facing the centre. Savi sits second to the right of
Gaurav.

Q130. Who among the following like Coca - Cola?

1. Ravi, Tarun
2. Gaurav, Urvashi
3. Savi, Dilip
4. Hamir, Urvashi
5. None of these
Q131. How many persons are not facing the centre?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None of these

Q132. Which of the following statement is true about Dilip?

1. Dilip is an immediate neighbor of Gaurav and the person who likes Maaza
2. The immediate neighbor of Dilip are facing the centre
3. Dilip is third to the right of the person who likes Thumbsup
4. None of the given statements is true
5. Dilip sits opposite Urvashi, who likes Tropicana

Q133. Who among the following sits third to the right of Urvashi?

1. Tarun, who likes Tropicana

2. Elsa, who likes Coca Cola
3. Ravi, who likes Maaza
4. Cant be determined
5. None of these

Q134. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. Savi, Urvashi
2. Ravi, Hamir
3. Gaurav, Dilip
4. Elsa, Hamir
5. Urvashi, Elsa
Q135-139). Directions: Study the following information to answer the given
questions.

In a certain code language

give me money is written as ve ka ro,

money for him is written as se ve di,

for various things is written as ba di la

things belong us is written as ra ba yo

Q135. What is the code for various?

1. ba
2. di
3. la
4. Cant be determine
5. None of these

Q136. What does the code ra stand for?

1. us
2. belong
3. me
4. Either belong or us
5. Either belong or me

Q137. Which of the following may represent money things time?

1. ve ba yo
2. ve se ba
3. ba zi di
4. ba ka zi
5. ba fe ve

Q138. What is the code for give?

1. ve
2. ka
3. ro
4. Cant be determine
5. Either di or ro

Q139. What is the code for him?

1. ba
2. ro
3. yo
4. se
5. Cannot be determined

Q140-144). Direction: The following question consists of three statements numbered

I, II and III. Decide if data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions
below.

Q140. How is P related to S?

I. Q is brother of U. S is wife of Us son.

II. R is brother of N. T is son of N. S is mother of T.

III. P is wife of U. U is father of N.

1. Only I is sufficient.
2. Only I and III are sufficient.
3. Only II and III are sufficient.
4. Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
5. Only I and either II or III are required.

Q141. How is A related to B?

I.B is the mother of C, who is the only brother of A.

II. D is the father of E, who is the sister of A.

III. B has three children in which only one is son.

1. Only I and III are sufficient.

2. All I, II and III are required.
3. Only II and III are sufficient.
4. Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
5. Only I and II are sufficient.

Q142. How many students are there between Gopal and Arun in a row of sixty
students?

I. Ramesh is twentieth from the left end and Gopal is five places away from Ramesh.

II. Gopal is twenty-second from the left end and Arun is twenty-seventh from the right
end.

III. Arun sits at an end

1. Only I is sufficient
2. Only II is sufficient
3. Only III is sufficient
4. Only I and II are Sufficient
5. None of these

Q143. In a five-floor building, on which floors does Mr. Ravi live? (Starting from first
floor going up to fifth floor)

I. Mr. Ravi lives exactly above Rams flat, whose flat is exactly above Vinays flat.

II. Shiva lives on top floor.

III. Rohan lives exactly above Mr. Ravis flat. Vinay lives on the first floor.

1. Only I is Sufficient
2. Only II is Sufficient
3. Both II and III are Sufficient
4. Both I and III are Sufficient
5. Data inadequate

Q144. Towards which direction AGRA from Delhi?

I. MATHURA is to the west of DELHI and to the north of FARIDABAD.

II. PALWAL is to the east of AGRA and to the south of FARIDABAD.

III. Ghaziabad is to the north-east of AGRA and north of Palwal.

1. Only III is Sufficient

2. Only II and III are Sufficient
3. All I, II and III are Sufficient
4. Only I and II are Sufficient
5. None is sufficient
Q145. Read the following paragraph and choose the option that best summarizes the
main idea of the paragraph.

Abe said he would go ahead with a planned sales tax hike to 10 percent from 8 percent
in 2019 and use some of the revenue to create a social security system for all
generations, by diverting the funds to education instead of paying down public debt.

The premier had earlier admitted that would make it impossible to meet the pledge to
balance the primary budget -- excluding debt-servicing and new bond sales -- by the
year ending March 2021.

While Abes plan to spend more on education and childcare has helped buoy stocks of
some related companies such as JP-Holdings Inc that operates nursery schools, the
spectre of bigger spending raises concerns about looser fiscal discipline.

1. Higher spending on education

2. Abe's economic plan
3. Concerns on looser fiscal discipline
4. Either 1 or 3
5. None of the above

Q146-147). A statement is followed by two assumptions 1 and 2. You have to consider

the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to pick the assumption that can definitely be drawn from the given
statement and indicate your answer accordingly.

Q146. Statement: Prime Minister Shinzo Abes ruling coalition scored a landslide
victory at the polls, boosted by his campaign promises to invest more heavily in
education and childcare, aimed partly at encouraging more women to join the
workforce.

Assumptions:

1. The number of women workers in Japan are lesser than men.

2. Women are reluctant to join the workforce because of education and childcare.

1. 1
2. 2
3. Either 1 or 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Both 1 and 2

Q147. Statement: Japans prime minister has vowed to make education and childcare
a priority over balancing the budget after winning a new mandate from voters on
Sunday, as a rapidly-ageing population threatens to undermine his efforts to reflate the
economy.

Assumptions:

1. Spending on education and childcare is low.

2. Budget spending on rapidly-ageing population is high.

1. 1
2. 2
3. Either 1 or 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Both 1 and 2

Q148-150). Two statements are followed by two conclusions 1 and 2. You have to
consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to pick the conclusion that can definitely be drawn from the given
statements and indicate your answer accordingly.

Q148. Statements:
I: Japans prime minister has vowed to make education and childcare a priority over
balancing the budget after winning a new mandate from voters on Sunday

II: A rapidly-ageing population threatens to undermine his efforts to reflate the

economy.

Conclusions:

1. Budget-spending on education and childcare in Japan will increase.

2. The Japanese economy will reflate from the current stagnation.

1. 1 follows
2. 2 follows
3. Either 1 or 2 follows
4. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
5. Both 1 and 2 follow

Q149. Statements:

I. All the world's a stage.

II. And all the men and women are merely players.

Conclusions:

I. The world we live in is a futile and vague stage.

II. The players who perform on this stage are all the men and women.

1. Only conclusion I follow

2. Only conclusion II follow
3. Either conclusion I or II follows
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5. Both conclusions I and II follow
 Q150. Statement: This will gradually lead to the erosion of trust of the Nepali people
in Indian rupees, Chinta Mani Shivakoti, deputy governor of Nepals central bank,
Nepal Rastra Bank, told Reuters. Indian silence over the exchange of old notes is an
injustice to Nepali people.

The course of actions:

I: RBI should facilitate the exchange of old notes with the Nepal Rastra Bank as soon as
possible.

II: RBI should cancel the demonetization drive (consider todays date be 09.11.2017)

1. Only I follow
2. Only II follows
3. Either I or II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Both I and II follow

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Detailed Syllabus of IBPS SO Prelims 2017

20 Days IBPS SO Study Schedule Prelims 2017