2003 NDBE-II EXAM

2003 NDBE-PART II EXAM

1. Which microbe is least likely to be killed in an autoclave: Bacillus

2. Contaminated sharps must be handled in such ways (container must be labeled, be non-puncturable, be closable)
except: does NOT have to be in a metal case.

3. The closest act the dentist would have for comforting a patient: tap on the shoulder.

4. The best way to communicate with the patient: talk to the patient while making eye contact.

5. The patient’s sadness can be observed from: his facial expression.

6. CN V2 should be anesthetized intraorally at the: pterygopalatine fossa or sphenopalatine fossa.

7. Which condition would delay a dentist’s decision to take full mouth x-rays: pregnancy

8. Post-operative bleeding is most likely caused by the patient failing to follow the post-op instructions.

9. Nasopalatine duct cyst is located at the midline between maxillary central incisors. EPT (vitality) differentiates it
from a periapical cyst.

10. A patient had a mandibular fracture quite some time ago and now has a painful movable tender mass in the old fracture
area near the mental foramen: Traumatic neuroma.

11. Probing depth differs depending on: if probing depth increases, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and
swelling, not due to a real gain of attachment.

12. If a patient does not have enough posterior inter-arch space for both maxillary and mandibular denture fabrication, it is
necessary to: perform a tuberosity operation.

13. Function of a post is to: provide retention of a core material.

14. Standard root canal treatments require a dentist to perform the treatment until the: DCJ (dentinocementum junction).

15. If during RCT the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrudes the file over the foramen, increase the file size and
re-create a new apical seat, then fill with the master cone of that size .

16. A child completes his/her primary dentition to occlusion at age: 2.5 years.

17. How old does a child/infant start to show the first sign of the primary dentition: prenatal in the uterus at 6 weeks.

18. If a dentist wants to check if the patient’s mandible has suffered from a fracture or not, the best indication is: occlusion
and arch continuity.
19. Best time to perform incision and drainage (I&D) at an area of infection: when the swelling is localized & fluctuant.

20. If a torus removal must be performed on a patient with a full-mouth dentition, the incision is made at: torus midline.

21. An allograft is from: freeze-dried human bone graft.

22. If an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within
this cavity: mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the
cavity.

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23. Enamel pearls occur mostly on: Incisors

24. The prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is generally good. After proper
treatment, this tooth can be used as an abutment for a posterior bridge. Both statements are incorrect.

25. After implant placement, an edentulous patient should: immediately have healing abutments placed over the
implants.

26. Tissue condition is used for treating: inflammatory papillary hyperplasia.

27. If during a recall of a patient who wears an RPD the dentist finds that the direct retainer and rests would be lifted if he
presses on the RPD’s edentulous area, what should the dentist do: reline the denture.

28. After periodontal surgery, the re-attachment can happen to dentin or cementum.

29. Scaling can be done on both enamel and the root surface (cementum).

30. Root planing can only be done on cementum.

31. There are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques than subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within
the subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than the attached plaques. Both statements are
correct.

32. The fact that a patient can decide for himself the treatment and the dentist would respect the patient’s will: Autonomy

33. Moyer’s Analysis: predicts the size of unerupted canines and premolars by using the mandibular incisors.

34. Primate Spaces: located between the lateral incisor & canine (maxillary), and canine and 1st molar (mandibular).

35. A posterior crossbite should be corrected ASAP.

36. Effects of EPI (increase HR & BP, vasoconstriction, brochodilation). It does not cause bronchoconstriction.

37. Besides inadequate irrigation, another reason for a dentist to fail to totally remove a canal’s necrotic tissue is: lack of
straight-line access.

38. Besides drainage, what else should be done for a patient with acute pulpitis: antibiotic prescription.

39. N2O is contraindicated in patients with: mild-moderate asthma.

40. TMD patients usually have: Psychosis

41. Why can a perforation to happen on a maxillary 1st premolar during access opening for RCT: mesial concavity.

42. Why is z-plasty preferred over the diamond technique for a frenum detachment: less scar contraction

43. If a child has a diastema of 2mm at age 8: it can be a normal condition.

44. One week after multiple extractions and alveolplasty the patient returns with a swelling at the ridge area. The patient
does not have a fever nor pain. The swelling extends to the mucogingival fold with fluid inside. X-rays show there are
spicules within the swelling. The dentist should surgically drain the swelling and remove the bony spicules .

45. Patient who suffers from insulin shock turns unconscious: dentist should give an IV injection of 50% dextran water.

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46. In order to give a patient an incisor with a younger look, the dentist can ROUND the incisor edge.

47. Inadequate attached gingiva without any periodontal signs or symptoms: no treatment is necessary.

48. Histologically, an aspirin burn is: mucosal necrosis.

49. The purpose of leveling the curve of Spee: correct and open the bite.

50. A palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because: a labial bow limits the expansion effect.

51. What effect does a cervical pull headgear have on maxillary teeth: extrusion and distal movement.

52. Most of the time, why type of force can a removable appliance provide: TIPPING

53. What is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalograph: nasion-menton

54. Where are points A & B on a cephalograph: between the incisors

55. What is the most likely cause of a premature exfoliation of the primary canine: inadequate arch space

56. When there is premature loss of primary mandibular 2nd molars, the permanent mandibular first molar usually changes its
path of eruption by erupting mesially due to: mesial drifting

57. What happens if there is premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine: mandibular incisors would move
distally and lingually

58. Inter-canine distance INCREASES after the mixed dentition.

59. After age 6, mandibular growth of a child mostly happens: posterior to 2 nd molars

60. Where is the maxillary growth center: maxillary tuberosity

61. If there is no succedaneous tooth, a primary tooth would absorb: more slowly

62. A patient who works at a nuclear power plant wears a work badge for detecting exposed amounts of radiation annually.
When he comes to see the dentist, the most likely reason that he does not need to wear his badge during the dental x-
ray examination is: the badge detects gamma rays, not x-radiation.

63. If there is radiation exposure of 4Gy on the arm, the likely reaction is: Erythema

64. Which cells are most sensitive to radiotherapy: Hematopoietics

65. With an upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is: phlebitis

66. A child asking repetitive and persistent questions is most likely: trying to delay the treatment

67. The problem that dentists encounter the most during treatment of an autistic child is: lack of communication

68. What disease results in a patient having osteomas and multiple intestinal polyposis: Gardner’s Syndrome

69. Polyposis perioral pigmentation is seen with: Peutz-Jeghers

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70. A patient who has multiple odontokeratocysts in the jaw and dermal pigmented macules on the back, cyst lesions on the
skin: Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome

71. Which syndrome has the triad of diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos, & multiple bone lesions: Langerhans Cell
Histiocytosis

72. To differentiate cemental dysplasia from a periapical cyst, the dentist should: do a pulp vitality test (EPT).

73. Acute pulpitis would cause malaise and fever in a patient.

74. Aspirin stops pain by interfering with signal interpretation in the CNS.

75. Natural endorphins are (enkephalin, endorphin, dynorphin), but NOT: Bradykinin

76. The action of morphine for pain relief: mimicking the body’s endorphin system.

77. Which does not have anti-inflammatory reactions: Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

78. Periodontal disease can be caused by (poor oral hygiene, plaque, faulty prosthesis), but NOT by Diabetes Mellitus

79. Which material is very hard to remove from a patient’s mouth: POLYETHER

80. Which is not a characteristic of Additional Silicones : impression must be poured right away because alcohol
would vaporize and cause distortion. Characteristics are: very stable, can be stored for more than a week, can have
multiple pours, high accuracy, may release H2 in some materials.

81. Glass ionomer cements is composed of: Aluminosilicate + Polyacrylic Acid

82. The best and most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel: office bleaching

83. The microabrasion technique involves: HCL + Pumice

84. Intrinsic stain can be caused by: Porphyria

85. The following have an additive action for each component when used together except: Penicillin + Tetracycline.
Aspirin + Acetaminophen, and Atropine + Glycopyrolate (anti-cholinergic) have additive actions when combined.

86. The maximum concentration used for N2O sedation: 50%

87. Patient with nausea and vomiting during N2O sedation: usually inhale too high a concentration of N2O

88. The percentage of the US population who see a dentist each year: 60%

89. The best sedative medication to used in a dental office: N2O

90. Schedule II Drugs are:

91. During fabrication of a pediatric stainless-steel crown, which tooth surface requires the least reduction: lingual

92. Ataxic epilepsy patient’s most common dental problem is: gingival hyperplasia due to their medication

93. The optimal incisal reduction of an anterior PFM crown: 1.5mm

94. The most important advantage of a porcelain veneer: Esthetics

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95. Compared with a porcelain veneer, the most important advantage of a composite resin veneer: Cost

96. Compared with Type II plaster, which is NOT characteristics of die strength: higher expansion. Better compressive and
tensile strengths, and requires less water are characteristics.

97. Which is a disadvantage of a resin-based GIC over a water-based GIC: easier to manipulate. Advantages of resin-
based GICs: better fluoride release, better bonding and esthetics.

98. Characteristic of an implant that would change the bony resorption pattern is: intraosseous integration

99. The recommended number of implants for complete edentulous patients: 6 maxillary + 4 mandibular

100. The term that describes the number of cases of a disease divided by the population: Prevelance

101. The median of 10, 20, 20, 20, 30, 35, 40, 40, 50, 50, 60: 35 (the middle number)

102. An apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on: maxillary lingual area

103. To increase the success rate of treating localized juvenile periodontitis: combine the use of systemic antibiotics

104. Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?

105. What is the purpose of placing retention grooves and where are they placed?

106. Which feature provides the bond onlay the most retention?

107. Which drugs have active metabolites that prolong its effect: Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide (all choices but
narcotics)

108. When a child loses the primary 2nd molar before permanent 1st molar eruption, the space maintainer of choice: distal
shoes

109. A black male has erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips. He also has palmar and planta erosion and blisters:
Erythema Multiform

110. What is the most likely diagnosis of a bilateral white macule on the floor of the mouth?

111. An old man came to the clinic with pain and swelling on the left side of his mandible. He had extractions a few months
ago and the healing is not going well. The x-ray shows “cotton wool” ground glass radiopacity lesion on the left side of
the mandible. The bone margins are diffuse and non-clear. A large area is involved and there is no definite margin:
Chronic Osteomyelitis.

112. A child comes to the clinic with pain at the mandible. X-ray shows “sunflower” outgrowth of bone spicules:
Osteosarcoma

113. Which component in a local anesthetic causes the most toxic effects in a clinical situation: preservatives

114. System effects of Lidocaine & epinephrine:

115. When pKa increases for the same lidocaine, what happens to its effect: local anesthetics with a pKa closer to
physiologic pH have a higher concentration of the non-ionized base (lipid-soluble) form to pass into the
nerve cell causing a more RAPID ONSET of action.

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116. The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what
happens to the onset of action and duration of action?

117. The wax pattern should be washed with soap and water before it is invested to: increase surface wetting ability

118. A child with a post-operational lip swelling is most likely to have bitten his lip due to the anesthesia.

119. Lidocaine is the local anesthetic that can also be used as a topical anesthetic.

120. Which antibiotics should a patient take who needs premedication prophylaxis and who is allergic to penicillins according
to the American Heart Association 1997 recommendation: Clindamycin 600mg 1hr prior

121. A tongue with a smooth, pink swelling of the dorsum: Fibroma

122. The most likely post-operative side effect of a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy: nerve damage

123. Which nerve would the ramus split osteotomy most likely damage: inferior alveolar nerve

124. For extracting 3rd molars, the following condition makes the operation easier (elastic bone, conical roots, soft tissue
impaction), but NOT a small space within the tooth bud

125. An open-ended question: allows patient to respond freely

126. The most common medication for Trigeminal neuralgia: Tegretol

127. A patient taking Dicumarol most likely has a history of: coronal infarct

128. The common sign of all types of shock: lack of perfusion

129. The first sign of a patient suffering from insulin shock: sweating

130. Which areas should scalloping be reduced in periodontal surgery: anterior esthetic region

131. The best sign of a successful apexogenesis: continuous completion of the root apex

132. What procedure is performed on a tooth with a necrotic pulp and unfinished root tip/apex: Apexification

133. Which sycope is most common in the dental office: psychogenic

134. When parents insist on entering the dental office with the child, the child’s behavior usually: depends on parent’s
behavior or gets worse?

135. The toxic effect of sulfram is produced by which of its metabolites: acetyl aldehyde

136. During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened?
What is the treatment for this?

137. Which injection most likely has a positive aspiration:

138. Which drug produces gingival hyperplasia and immunodepression: Phenytoin

139. A child who is having leukemia treatment most likely has an infection of: Candidiasis

140. The most definite way to differentiate an ameloblastoma and odontogenic keratocyst: smear cytology

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141. The most likely diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion fixed at the margins: malignancy

142. The cyst that has lymphoid tissue and epitheloid cells: lymphoepithelioid cyst

143. The most likely sign of a neoplasm: Anaplasia

144. When the dentist inserts a new complete denture into a patient’s mouth, there is obvious occlusal disharmony. The most
likely cause is: initial vertical dimension

145. A dentist who uses 5-HEMA for clinical situations most likely experiences: contact dermatitis

146. If upper anterior teeth are placed too anteriorly & superiorly in a complete denture, the patient would have difficulty
pronouncing: “s” and “th” sounds

147. What was done wrong if resin teeth will not stay fixed to the resin denture base: wax got in between the teeth and
acrylic base during processing

148. What is the purpose of beveling at the MON cavosurface?

149. For a patient with a faulty amalgam restoration, replacement with casting inlay/onlay might be better because of: better
retention

150. When the restorative material is resin, a ZOE base material should be avoided (not be used).

151. Why during mixing cement, the liquid part is not taken out of its container right before mixing: to prevent loss of
volatile materials

152. Red erosion at the gingiva, buccal mucosa, and tongue is: erosive lichen planus

153. A dental patient with Type II Diabetes Mellitus: should eat and have their insulin shot or (hypoglycemic) prior to
the dental procedure.

154. A 5-year old child who lives in a community with water fluoridation of 0.75ppm should have a supplemental fluoride
intake of: 0mg (not needed)

155. The best concentration of APF for clinical use: 1.23%

156. 0.5oz of chlorhexidine = ___ml of chorhexidine?

157. Which field can be a specialty according to the ADA: public health

158. The most abundant cells in gingival crevicular fluid in gingivitis and periodontitis: neutrophils

159. Which parents cannot be treated with beta-blockers as an anti-arrithymic medication: asthma patients

160. The most important factor for retention of a complete denture: peripheral seal

161. The two most important factors for retention of a complete denture: peripheral seal and intimate tissue contact

162. The reason a patient would complain of a lower complete denture “popping up” all the time: over-extension

163. The cause of epulis fissuratum: an unstable denture

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164. A patient complains his TMJ pops on opening and clicks during closing: reciprocal clicking

165. Muscles that determine the lingual border of a mandibular complete denture: glossopalatal, mylohyoid, geniohyoid

166. The salivary gland most likely to have a sialolith: submandibular gland

167. The most common intra-oral site of a melanoma: hard palate

168. When observing an amalgam filling, the dentist found a proximogingival angle deficiency. The most likely main cause of
this is: too large an initial amount of amalgam was added to the cavity preparation .

169. Which type of amalgam requires larger condensers and lateral condensation: Spherical

170. Which metal element of the cobalt-chromium alloy provides anti-corrosion properties: chromium

171. Due to the mesial concavity of the maxillary 1 st premolar, prior to amalgam condensation, the tooth is best prepared with:
custom wedge and matrix

172. The tooth with the most consistent root canal: maxillary canine

173. Maxillary lateral incisor root tip usually tips to the: distal

174. Which tooth has a triangular canal shape: maxillary central incisor

175. The pulp chamber shape of a mandibular first molar with 4 canals: trapezoidal

176. The buccal curvature of roots cannot be observed on a x-ray.

177. The parallel x-ray technique follows many rules to optimize the resultant image except for one rule: the target tooth
and film should be as close as possible. It does follow the rules: keep the film and target tooth as parallel as
possible, the incoming central ray should be perpendicular to the film and target tooth, and the film is placed as far to the
x-ray source as possible.

178. When the electrons hit the anode from the cathode in an x-ray machine, most of the energy is converted into: HEAT

179. On a panoramic radiograph, there is a soap bubble appearance bilaterally in the region of the angle of the mandible. The
condition is most likely: Cherubism

180. Radiographic widening of the PDL space around all teeth: Scleroderma

181. Treatment of a tooth fractured below the alveolar bone level: Extraction

182. SCIATIC NERVE can be injured when giving a patient an injection in the buttocks.

183. A child with nursing bottle caries has caries: buccally on maxillary anterior teeth.

184. The apical foramen most often exits the root canal 0.5mm from the apex.

185. The dental x-ray machine tube is surrounded by OIL

186. The best way to image the TMJ: MRI

187. The local anesthetic most likely to produce a hematoma: PSA nerve block

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188. In taking radiographs, mA controls the MEAN ENERGY of the x-ray.

189. Recent myocardial infarction (MI) is contraindicated in elective RCT.

190. Organisms involved in periodontal disease: P. gingivalis, E species, bacteroids, Campylobacter rectus

191. If a new patient informs you he is taking Dicumarol daily, you would want to order a PT test.

192. The nerve involved with a LeForte II fracture: infraorbital nerve

193. When orthodontically moving a tooth, the center of resistance is: ½ down the root

194. If the SNA is 82° and the patient is 90°. The increase indicates a protrusive maxilla (Class II)

195. A patient has an MOD amalgam placed 3 weeks ago, and the patient now complains of pain with heat. This patient
should be treated with: RCT

196. Cement of choice for composite inlays/onlays: resin cement

197. Percent of mandibular first molars with 4 canals: 35-40%

198. A 9-year old girl tell the dentist “my mom is always nagging me to brush my teeth.” You should respond by saying, “
clean teeth are healthy teeth”

199. The most likely site to perforate when accessing the root canal on a maxillary central: facial surface

200. With a Modified Widman Flap, you most likely reduce bone by: removing infected osseous tissue

201. A clinical remount is done to compensate for VDO

202. All are true regarding composite inlay preparation (rounded internal line angles, cavosurface bevel), but NOT the
margin is placed in enamel.

203. A finding of juvenile periodontitis: Leukopenia

204. The interpersonal distance zone in which the dentist usually treats their patient is best described as: PERSONAL

205. Treatment of choice for an 8-year old patient with a 1mm intrusion of the permanent lateral maxillary incisor: allow the
tooth to re-erupt

206. Biotransformation is all (conjugation, hydrolysis, oxidation), but NOT covalent bonds

207. When Diazepam & Atropine are administered together, sedation and relaxation occurs, however analgesia does not.

208. Principle for an occlusal-lingual amalgam preparation: self retention immediately past where occlusal grooves
coalesce.

209. A radiographic sign of occlusal trama include (hypercementosis, root resorption, alteration of lamina dura & PDL), but
NOT vascular infiltration of the PDL.

210. Properties of sodium hypochlorite that is most undesirable is: toxicity to vital dentin

211. What is the activity of caries if it is sealed off with a restoration: no activity (it is arrested)

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212. The most frequent site from where pain radiates to the ear: mandibular molar

213. The therapeutic index of a drug indicates the drug’s relative: Efficacy

214. Cleft palate deformity occurs during which trimester of pregnancy:

215. Advantages of hybrid glass ionomers:

216. To correct a posterior crossbite, the attachment must be placed on: labial of maxillary and mandibular teeth.

217. The majority of cells in dental pulp are: fibroblasts

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