Classical Mechanics Problem 1: Central Potential

Solution

a) Integrals of motion for a central potential V (r):

Angular Momentum L = rv¡t = r2 φ̇ ¢
Energy per unit mass E = 12 ṙ2 + vt2 + V (r) = 21 ṙ2 + Veff (r)
where vt is the tangential velocity and Veff is defined as

L2
Veff (r) = V (r) +
2r2

If the orbit is circular, the distance of the test body from the origin is invariant: ṙ = 0,
which implies that the body is always at the equilibrium-distance:

dVeff dV L2 v2
=0 ⇒ = 3 = t = rφ̇2
dr dr r r
then µ ¶1/2
L 1 dV
φ̇ = ωφ = =
r2 r dr
so for the period we get

µ ¶−1/2
2π 1 dV
Tφ = = 2π
ωφ r dr

b) Write the orbit as in the statement of the problem:

dVeff
r(t) = r0 + ²(t) with (r0 ) = 0 and ²2 ¿ r02 .
dr
The energy per unit mass is now E = 12 ²̇2 + Veff (r0 + ²), and since ² is small we may
Taylor-expand the potential as

dVeff 1 d2 Veff
Veff (r0 + ²) = Veff (r0 ) + (r0 )² + 2
(r0 )²2 + O(²3 )
dr
| {z } 2 dr
=0

so then
1 2 1 d2 Veff
²̇ +
E − Veff (r0 ) = (r0 )²2 + O(²3 ) = const.
2 2 dr2
In the above equation we readily recognize the equation of the simple harmonic oscil-
lator with
µ 2 ¶1/2
d Veff
ωr =
dr2 r=r0

1
 and its general solution is
p
E − Veff (r0 )
²(t) = cos [ωr (t − t0 )]
ωr

where t0 is an arbitrary constant.

Now return to writing ωr in terms of V (r) instead of Veff (r).

d2 Veff d2 V 3L2 d2 V d2 V 3 dV
ωr2 = = + = + 3ωφ
2
= +
dr2 dr2 r4 dr2 dr2 r dr
µ 2 ¶1/2 · µ ¶¸1/2
d V 3 dV 1 d 3 dV
ωr = + = r
dr2 r dr r=r0 r3 dr dr r=r0

And the radial period is

2π
Tr =
ωr

c) Stability is determined by the sign of ωr2 . For stability: ωr2 > 0, so

µ ¶
1 d 3 dV
r >0
r3 dr dr
for the Yukawa-potential
GM −kr
V (r) = − e
r
so the condition is
µ ¶
1 d 3 dV GM £ ¤ £ ¤
3
r = 3 e−kr 1 + kr − (kr)2 > 0 ⇒ 1 + kr − (kr)2 > 0
r dr dr r
Ã√ ! Ã√ !
£ 2
¤ 5−1 5+1
1 + kr − (kr) = + kr − kr > 0
2 2
which is satisfied only if Ã√ !
5+1
kr <
2
Therefore circular orbits are unstable for
Ã√ !
5+1
kr >
2

2
d) The outermost stable circular orbit is at
Ã√ !
5+1
r0 =
2k

its energy per unit mass is

µ ¶
1 1 dV
E = V (r0 ) + (r0 ωφ )2 = V (r0 ) + r
2 2 dr r=r0
Ã√ !
1 GM −kr0 GM −kr0 5−1
e (kr0 − 1) = e >0
2 r0 r0 4
If r0 is decreased only slightly, E > 0 still and the orbit is absolutely stable ¥
The effective potential for the Yukawa-potential has the form shown in Figure 1.

Veff

Figure 1: Effective potential against distance from the origin

3
 Classical Mechanics Problem 2: Planar Double Pendulum
Solution

q1 l

q2 l

a) L=T −V
The moment of inertia for a uniform rod of length l and mass m is
1 2
I= ml about one of the ends
3
and
1
Ic = ml2 about the rod’s center
12
The kinetic energy term we can decompose into three parts:

T = T1 + T2,rot + T2,trans

where T1 is the kinetic energy of the first rod, T2,trans is the translational energy of
the center of mass of the second rod and T2,rot is its rotational energy about its center
of mass. Then
1
T1 = ml2 θ̇12
6
1
T2,rot = ml2 θ̇22
24
and
1 ¡ ¢
T2,trans = m ẋ2c + ẏc2
2
where xc and yc are the coordinates of the second rod’s center of mass, so
l
xc = l sin θ1 + sin θ2
2
l
yc = −l cos θ1 − cos θ2
2
from which
· ¸
1
ẋ2c + ẏc2 = l2 θ̇12 + θ̇22 + θ̇1 θ̇2 (sin θ1 sin θ2 + cos θ1 cos θ2 )
4

4
 The potential energies are simply Vi = mgyc,i , where yc,i are the vertical coordinates of
the rods’ centers of mass. Since both rods are uniform, yc,i are simply the coordinates
of the centers. Thus,
µ ¶
l l
V1 = −mg cos θ1 ; V2 = −mg l cos θ1 + cos θ2
2 2

The full Lagrangian is then

L = T1 + T2,rot + T2,trans − V1 − V2
· ¸ · ¸
2 1 3 1
= ml2 θ̇12 + θ̇22 + θ̇1 θ̇2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ) + mgl cos θ1 + cos θ2
3 6 2 2

b) Expand the Langrangian from part a) for small angles. The only function we have to
deal with is
1
cos θ = 1 − θ2 + O(θ4 )
2
Since we are going to look for normal modes with θj = θ̂j exp (iωt), where the θ̂j ¿ 1,
we immediately see that in the term θ̇1 θ̇2 cos (θ1 − θ2 ), the θ-dependence in the cosine
can be dropped, because even the first θ-dependent term gives a fourth order correction.
Then the approximate Lagrangian is
· ¸ · ¸
2 1 3 1
L = ml2 θ̇12 + θ̇22 + θ̇1 θ̇2 − mgl θ12 + θ22 + const.
3 6 4 4

The Euler-Lagrange equations are

d ∂L ∂L
=
dt ∂ θ̇j ∂θj

so in the specific case:

µ ¶
4 1 g 3
θ̈1 + θ̈2 + θ1 = 0
3 2 l 2
µ ¶
1 1 g 1
θ̈1 + θ̈2 + θ2 = 0
2 3 l 2

if we now look for normal modes, as mentioned, the above set of equations takes the
form " ¡ ¢ #" #
4 2 3g 1 2
3ω − 2 l 2ω θ̂1
1 2
¡1 2 1 g¢ =0
2ω 3ω − 2 l θ̂2
Non-trivial solutions exist if the determinant of the matrix on the left is zero. Denoting
ω 2 = λg/l, we can write this condition as
µ ¶µ ¶
4 3 1 1 λ2
λ− λ− − = 0,
3 2 3 2 4

5
 that is
7 2 7 3
λ − λ+ =0
36 6 4
whose solutions are
6
λ± = 3 ± √ ,
7
so finally
·µ ¶ ¸1/2
6 g
ω± = 3± √
7 l

c) To sketch the eigenmodes, find eigenvectors of the matrix in part b).

• ω 2 = λ− g/l (low-frequency mode)
µ ¶
3 8 1³ √ ´
θ̂2 = − θ̂1 = 2 7 − 1 θ̂1
λ 3 3
√
(2 7 − 1)/3 > 0 and real, therefore the two pendula are in phase;
• ω 2 = λ+ g/l (high-frequency mode)
µ ¶
3 8 1³ √ ´
θ̂2 = − θ̂1 = −2 7 − 1 θ̂1
λ 3 3
√
(−2 7 − 1)/3 < 0 and real, therefore the two pendula are perfectly out of phase.

a b

Figure 2: The low- (a) and high-frequency (b) normal modes of the planar double pendulum.

6
 Electromagnetism Problem 1
Solution
a) Normal modes are products of harmonic standing waves in the x, y and z directions.
For their frequencies, we have
q ·³ ¸1/2
πnx ´2 ³ πny ´2 ³ πnz ´2
ω = c kx2 + ky2 + kz2 = c + + ; nx , ny , nz ∈ Z+
a b b

Since a > b, the lowest frequency has nx = 1 and either ny = 1, nz = 0 or ny = 0, nz = 1

(note that ny = 0, nz = 0 does not satisfy the boundary condition Ek,at wall = 0). Since
we are told to pick the mode with E ~ k ŷ, the boundary conditions require

~ t) = E0 ŷ sin πx sin πz cos ωt

E(r,
a b

The magnetic induction we can get from Faraday’s Law:

∂B~ ³ ´
~ = x̂c ∂Ey − ẑc ∂Ey
= −c ∇ × E
∂t ∂z ∂x
³ π πx πz π πx πz ´
= x̂cE0 sin cos − ẑcE0 cos sin cos ωt
b a b a a b
µ ¶
~ t) = − πcE0 x̂ sin πx cos πz − ẑ cos πx sin πz sin ωt
B(r,
ω b a b a a b

where the frequency ω is (by the argument above)

µ ¶1/2
1 1
ω = πc + 2
a2 b

b) At a boundary of media, the discontinuity in the normal component of the electric field
is 4π times the surface charge density σ, so

Ey (x, 0, z) = 4πσ
E0 πx πz
σ(x, 0, z) = sin sin cos ωt
4π a b
σ(x, b, z) = −σ(x, 0, z)

and
σ(0, y, z) = σ(a, y, z) = σ(x, y, 0) = σ(x, y, b) ≡ 0
Similarly, at the boundary of media the discontinuity of the tangential component of
the magnetic field is given by the surface current ~κ

~ = 4π
n̂ × B ~κ
c

7
 where n̂ is a unit vector normal to the surface, so
µ ¶
c2 E0 ẑ πx πz x̂ πx πz
~κ(x, 0, z) = sin cos + cos sin sin ωt
4ω b a b a a b
~κ(x, b, z) = −~κ(x, 0, z)
c2 E0 ŷ πz
~κ(0, y, z) = − sin sin ωt
4ω a b
~κ(a, y, z) = −~κ(0, y, z)
c2 E0 ŷ πx
~κ(x, y, 0) = − sin sin ωt
4ω b a
~κ(x, y, b) = −~κ(x, y, 0)

c) Since there is no charge on the b × b sides, the force there is purely magnetic and is
given by
Z ³ ´
~ 1 ~ d2 x
F (t) = ~κ × B
2c
b×b

Zb Zb
E 2 c2 π πz
F~ (x = 0, t) = − 0 2 2 x̂ dy dz sin2 sin2 ωt
8ω a b
0 0
µ ¶2
c b
= −x̂ E0 sin ωt
4ω a

F~ (x = a, t) = −F~ (x = 0, t)
The forces point outwards from the box on both sides (as is indicated by the sign in
the equation above).
d) Start with the sides where y = const. The magnetic component of the force can be
written as above
Za Zb µ ¶
E 2 c2 π 1 πx πz 1 πx πz
F~mag (y = 0, t) = − 0 2 ŷ dx dz 2
cos2 sin2 + 2 sin2 cos2 sin2 ωt
8ω a a b b a b
0 0

1³ c ´2 1 µ b a
¶
= −ŷ E0 sin ωt +
2 2ω 4π a b
To simplify this result further, use ω from part a)
µ ¶−1 µ ¶−1
1 1 b a
ω −2 = (πc)−2 + = ab(πc) −2
+
a2 b2 a b
Then µ ¶2
E0 ab
F~mag (y = 0, t) = −ŷ sin ωt
4 2π 3

8
 The electric component of the force can be written as

Z Za Zb
1 ~ 2 E2 πx πz
F~el (y = 0, t) = σ E d x = ŷ 0 cos2 ωt dx dz sin2 sin2
2 8π a b
0 0
µ ¶2
1 E0 ab
= ŷ cos ωt
2 4 π3

F~tot (y = 0, t) = F~el (y = 0, t) + F~mag (y = 0, t)

µ ¶2
E0 ab ¡ 2 ¢
= ŷ cos ωt − sin2 ωt
4 2π 3
µ ¶2
E0 ab
= ŷ cos 2ωt
4 2π 3

and
F~tot (y = b, t) = −F~tot (y = 0, t)
There net force on the top and bottom sides oscillates between the inward and out-
ward direction with half the period of the lowest frequency mode. In a time average,
therefore, this force cancels.
Next, calculate the force on the sides where z = const. Again, there is no charge,
therefore no electric component; the force is purely magnetic

Zb Za
E 2 c2 π πx
F~ (z = 0, t) = − 0 2 2 ẑ dy dx sin2 sin2 ωt
8ω b a
0 0

a³ c ´2
= −ẑ E0 sin ωt
b 4ω
F~ (z = b, t) = −F~ (z = 0, t)

The magnetic force is pushing the a × b walls outwards, too (sign!).

e) From the Maxwell stress tensor, the force per unit surface area is

1 ~ ~ E2 1 ~ ~ B2
f~ = E(E · n̂) − n̂ + B(B · n̂) − n̂
4π 8π 4π 8π
~ = 0 and B
On the x = const. walls n̂ = ±x̂, E ~ · x̂ = 0, so

B2 E 2 c2 π πz
f~(x = {0, a}, t) = ∓ x̂ = ∓ 0 2 2 x̂ sin2 sin2 ωt
8π 8ω a b
which is exactly the integrand from part c).

9
 ~ E
On the y = const. walls n̂ = ±ŷ, E( ~ · ŷ) = E 2 ŷ and B
~ · ŷ = 0, so we get

1
f~(y = {0, b}, t) = ∓ (E 2 − B 2 )ŷ
8π
· 2
E0 πx πz
=± cos2 ωt sin2 sin2
8π a b
µ ¶ ¸
E02 c2 π 1 2 πx 2 πz 1 2 πx 2 πz 2
− cos sin + 2 sin cos sin ωt ŷ
8ω 2 a2 a b b a b

the sum of the first two integrands from part d).

~ · ẑ) = 0 and B
On the z = const. walls n̂ = ±ẑ, (E ~ · ẑ = 0, so we get

B2 E 2 c2 π πx
f~(z = {0, b}, t) = ∓ ẑ = ∓ 0 2 2 ẑ sin2 sin2 ωt
8π 8ω b a
the last integrand from part d).

b
F(x) s k(y)
b k(x) k(z) F(z)
k(z) k(x)
z
F(z) –s
a k(y) F(x)
x
Figure 3: Average total forces, surface charges and surface currents on the cavity.

10
 Electromagnetism Problem 2: Waves in a Dilute Gas
Solution
(see Feynman Lectures on Physics, vol. II, chapter 32)

a) The EM wave is travelling in the x̂ direction; it has a transverse electric field, so assume
E × ŷ = 0. Then the electron in the atom behaves classically as a damped, driven
harmonic oscillator ¡ ¢
me ÿ + γ ẏ + ω02 y = −qE0 e−iωt
with the solution
1 qE(t)
y(t) = 2 .
ω2 − ω0 + iγω me
For the dipole moment per unit volume:

1 na q 2 E
P = na (−q)y =
ω02 − ω 2 − iγω me
Therefore the volume polarizability is, according to the definition given,

P 1 na q 2
α(ω) = = 2
²0 E ω0 − ω 2 − iγω ²0 me

(A quantum mechanical derivation would give this same expression multiplied by the
oscillator strength f for the transition.)
b) With no free charges or currents, Maxwell’s equations read
∂B
∇ · D = 0; ∇×E=−
∂t
∂D
∇ · B = 0; ∇×H=
∂t
and B = µ0 H, D = ²0 E + P = ²0 (1 + α)E for a single frequency ω. This gives us the
following wave-equation

∂2D 1
2
− ∇2 D = 0.
∂t µ0 ²0 (1 + α)

Now let D be that of a plane wave: D ∝ ei(kx−ωt) . Then

ω2
k 2 = µ0 ²0 (1 + α)ω 2 = (1 + α)
c2
p
⇒ n(ω) = 1 + α(ω)

One can also get this result by using the microscopic E, B and P fields:
µ ¶
1 2 ∂ P
∇ · E = − ∇ · P; c ∇ × B = +E
²0 ∂t ²0

11
 ∂2E 1 ∂P
⇒ − c2 ∇2 E = −
∂t2 ²0 ∂t
also
∂2P ∂P 2 na q 2
+ γ + ω0 P = − E.
∂t2 ∂t me
Together these give us k 2 = (1 + α)ω 2 /c2 for a plane wave, as before. (Note that we
are neglecting dipole-dipole interactions in the dilute gas.)
c) We start by noting that according to Fourier-analysis
Z∞
1
E(x, t) = dk ei(kx−ω(k)t) Ê(k)
2π
−∞
Z∞ Z∞
−ikx 1 2
/(2σ 2 )
Ê(k) = dx e E(x, 0) = √ dx e−i(k−kc )x−x
2πσ 2
−∞ −∞
−i(k−kc )2 σ 2 /2
=e

Now Taylor-expand ω(k) about k = kc :

µ ¶
dω
ω(k) = ω(kc ) + (k − kc ) + O{(k − kc )2 }
dk kc
≡ kc vph + vg (k − kc ) + O{(k − kc )2 }

where, by definition, vph and vg are the phase- and group-velocities, respectively. Now
let K = k − kc . Then
Z∞
1 2
σ 2 /2
E(x, t) = dK eikc (x−vph t)+iK(x−vg t)−K
2π
−∞

(x−vg t)2 /(2σ 2 )

ikc (x−vph t) e
E(x, t) = e √ = eikc (x−vph t) N (x − vg t, σ)
2πσ 2

d) From part c)
µ ¶−1 µ ¶−1
dω dk c d log n
vg = = = 1+ .
dk dω n d log ω
√
For the dilute gas, n = 1 + α ≈ 1 + α/2, which we will write as n = nr + ini (for α
is complex)

na q 2 ω02 − ω 2
nr ≈ 1 +
2²0 me (ω02 − ω 2 )2 + γ 2 ω 2
na q 2 γω
ni ≈
2²0 me (ω0 − ω 2 )2 + γ 2 ω 2
2

12
Here the real part nr of the index of refraction determines the dispersion, and the
imaginary part ni determines the absorption/gain coefficient. At ω = ω0 :

d log nr na q 2
nr = 1 and =−
d log ω 2²0 me γ 2
µ ¶−1 µ ¶
na q 2 na q 2
vg = 1− c≈ 1+ c
2²0 me γ 2 2²0 me γ 2
Note that vg > c at ω = ω0 . This is called anomalous dispersion. It does not vio-
late causality because signals (information) cannot travel faster than the minimum of
(vph , vg ), and now vph = c (since nr = 1). Also, the waves are damped by the electronic
resonance maximally at ω = ω0 .

13
 Quantum Mechanics Problem 1
Solution
1. The ground state will have no nodes, so we can pick the even part of the general solution
of the free Schrödinger equation inside the well. Outside the well, square-integrability
demands the solutions to vanish at infinity. The wave-function for the ground state is
then

|x| < w |x| > w

ψ(x) = cos kx ψ(x) = Ae−α|x|

Both the wave-function and its derivative has to be continuous at the boundaries of
the well:

ψ: cos kw = Ae−αw
dψ
: −k sin kw = −αAe−αw
dx
⇒ k tan kw = α

Directly from Schrödinger’s equation:

|x| < w |x| > w

~2 k 2 ~2 α2
E= E =− + V0
2m 2m

~2 k 2 ~2 α2
⇒ =− + V0
2m 2m
From which we get the transcendental equation:
· ¸1/2
2mV0
k tan kw = − k2
~2

Let k ∗ denote the positive root of the equation above, and introduce the following
notation: √
2mV0 π
kc = and kmax = .
~ 2w
Clearly, the LHS of the equation diverges at kmax ; and the RHS describes a circle with
radius kc , as shown in Fig. 4.
For the energy we have
~2 k ∗ 2
E=
2m

14
 k tankw
kc

k* * tan k* w
*

H L
(kc2- –k2)1/2

k
k* * kc kmax

Figure 4: Graphical representation of the solution of the transcendental equation

2. Write the result of part 1 in the non-dimensional form:

· ¸1/2
2mw2 V0 2
kw tan kw = − (kw)
~2
According to the condition given in the statement of the problem, the radius of the
circle on the RHS (that in Fig. 4) goes to infinity, therefore
k → kmax
and
~2 kmax
2
~2 π 2
E→ =
2m 8mw2
3. The potential barrier on the low-potential side of the well, denoted a in the figure, will
be finite (for any E), so the particle will eventually escape by the tunnel-effect.
4. ∆E = 0, because the perturbation is odd (and therefore its integral with the square of
the ground-state wave-function vanishes).
5.
Za p
1
F = dx 2m(V (x) − B)
~
w
V (x) = V0 − eEx
V0 − B
B = V0 − eEa ⇒ a=
eE

15
 V(x)

V0

a
x

–w 0 w

√ Za
2m p
F = dx (V0 − B) − eEx
~
w
√ µ ¶ ¯a
2m 2 1 3/2 ¯¯
= − (V0 − B − eEx) ¯
~ 3 eE w
√
2m 2 1 3/2
= (V0 − B − eEw)
~ 3 eE

6. Write the energy of the particle as

1
B= mv 2 .
2
Then
2B
.v2 =
m
The time it takes for the particle to bounce back and forth once is
4w
T = ,
v
so it hits the right wall with frequency
v
ν=
4w

Probability to escape v −2F

⇒ = e
unit time 4w
4w 2F
⇒ Lifetime ∼ e
v

16
 Quantum Mechanics Problem 2
Solution
1. Drop the t-label for simplicity. Then we have
· ¸
cos θ sin θe−iωt
H=B ,
sin θeiωt − cos θ
and for the eigenvectors solve
· ¸· ¸ · ¸
cos θ sin θe−iωt x x
=±
sin θeiωt − cos θ y y
with the normalization condition |x|2 + |y|2 = 1. From the vector-equation
sin θ
y = eiωt x
cos θ ± 1
and with the normalization, we end up with
· ¸ · ¸
cos (θ/2) sin (θ/2)
|+i = |−i =
sin (θ/2)eiωt − cos (θ/2)eiωt

2. Decompose the state-vector as

|ψi = c+ |+i + c− |−i
and write Schrödinger’s equation in terms of these vectors:
d
i~
|ψi = H|ψi
· dt ¸
d d
i~ ċ+ |+i + c+ |+i + ċ− |−i + c− |−i = B [c+ |+i − c− |−i]
dt dt
or in the (|+i, |−i) basis
" # " d d
#" #
d c+ B − i~h+| dt |+i −i~h+| dt |−i c+
i~ =
dt c− d
−i~h−| dt |+i d
−B − i~h−| dt |−i c−
which, with the given concrete form of the vectors, is
" # " #" #
d c+ B + ~ω sin2(θ/2) −~ω cos (θ/2) sin (θ/2) c+
i~ = .
dt c− −~ω sin (θ/2) cos (θ/2) −B + ~ω cos2(θ/2) c−
Now use the identities
1
sin2 (θ/2) =(1 − cos θ)
2
1
cos2 (θ/2) = (1 + cos θ)
2
1
sin (θ/2) cos (θ/2) = sin θ
2

17
 to get " # " #" #
d c+ 1 2B − ~ω cos θ −~ω sin θ c+
i~ = .
dt c− 2 −~ω sin θ −2B + ~ω cos θ c−
Note that in the last equation we dropped the part of the Hamiltonian that was pro-
portional to the identity, since that gives only a time dependent phase that is identical
for the coefficients c− , c+ . This we can rewrite in the form:
" # " #" #
d c+ Dz Dx c+
i~ = .
dt c− Dx −Dz c−

with the solution

" # ( " #) " #
c+ −i Dz Dx 1
= exp
c− ~ Dx −Dz 0
à ! à !
~
|D|t ~
|D|t
= cos − iD̂ · ~σ sin .
~ ~

And so
à ! à !
~
|D|t Dz ~
|D|t
c+ = cos −i sin
~ ~
|D| ~
à ! à !
~
|D|t Dz2 ~
2 2 2 |D|t
|c+ | = cos − i 2 sin
~ D ~

3. For B À ~ω, Dz → D, so
|c+ |2 → 1

(Adiabatic theorem)

18
 Statistical Mechanics and Thermodynamics Problem 1
Thermodynamics of a Non-Interacting Bose Gas
Solution
a)

1 p2
np = Ep =
eβ(Ep −µ) − 1 2m

At and below TBEC µ = 0. At exactly TBEC , there are no atoms in the condensate and
Z µ ¶3/2 Z∞
V d3 p −3 2m x2 dx
N= = (2π~) V 4π
2π~3 eβp2 /(2m) −1 β ex 2−1
0
| {z }
=I1
µ ¶3/2
1 2mkT
n= I1
2π 2 ~2
µ ¶2/3
2π 2 n ~2
kTBEC =
I1 2m

(2 points)

b) The above integral with µ = 0 also applies below TBEC , but it then gives the number
of non-condensed atoms. So on an isotherm below Vcritical

• Nnon-condensed is constant
• T is constant
⇒ p is constant
(think of the kinetic origin of pressure)

p
Classical Gas p µ 1/V
Bose Gas
Phase Transition Line
–5/3
pBEC µ V

V
(2 points)

19
c)
Z µ ¶5/2 Z∞
V p2 d3 p −3 2m 4π x4 dx
U= = (2π~) V
2π~3 2
2m eβp /(2m) − 1 β 2m ex2 − 1
0
| {z }
=I2
µ ¶
I2 2m 1 I2
= Nc = Nc kT ∝ T 5/2
I1 β 2m I1
µ ¶3/2 µ ¶
5 I2 V 2mkT 5
cv = Nc k = k I2 ∝ T 3/2
2 I1 2π 2 ~2 2

(2 points)

d) From the reversibility of the Carnot-cycle:

dS1 = −dS2 for 1 cycle
∆S1 = −∆S2 for the entire process
¯ ¯
∂S ¯¯ ∂U ¯¯ 3/2
dU = T dS − pdV ⇒ T = = cv = aT
|{z} ∂T ¯V ∂T ¯V | {z }
=0 from c)
dS cv
⇒ =
dT T
Therefore the entropy transfer in the entire process is
ZT0 ZT0
cv 2 ³ 3/2 3/2
´
∆Si = dT = a T 1/2 dT = a T0 − Ti
T 3
Ti Ti

3/2 1 ³ 3/2 3/2

´
∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0 ⇒ T0 = T1 + T2
2

ZT0
2 ³ 5/2 5/2
´
Heat transferred to F1 : Q1 = T dS = a T0 − T1 .
5
T1
ZT2
2 ³ 5/2 5/2
´
Heat transferred from F2 : Q2 = T dS = a T2 − T0 .
5
T0

Therefore the total work done by the Carnot-machine is

2 ³ 5/2 5/2 5/2
´
W = Q2 − Q1 = a T1 + T2 − 2T0
5
(4 points)

20
 Statistical Mechanics and Thermodynamics Problem 2
Phase Transition in a Superconductor
Solution
a)
¯ ¯
∂Q ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯
cH ≡ = T
∂T ¯H ∂T ¯H
¯ ¯
∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯
dS = dT + dM
∂T ¯M ∂M ¯T
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯ ∂M ¯¯
= +
∂T ¯H ∂T ¯M ∂M ¯T ∂T ¯H
| {z }
=0

where the last term is zero because M is independent of T . Then

¯ ¯
∂S ¯¯ ∂Q ¯¯
cH = T = ≡ cM
∂T ¯M ∂T ¯M

(2 points)

b) The transition takes place at constant T and H. The thermodynamic function whose
variables are T and H is the Gibbs-potential:

dG = −SdT − M dH

Gsuper = Gnormal at every point on HC (T ), so dGS = dGN which we then write as

−SS dT − MS dH = −SN dT − MN dH
|{z}
=0
¯
dH ¯¯ dHC SN − SS 4π
¯ = = = − (SN − SS )
dT trans. dT MS V HC (T )
line

(3 points)

c) By the third law S → 0 as T → 0. But the figure shows HC (T = 0) is finite. Therefore

dHC
→ 0 as T → 0.
dT
The transition is second order where SN − SS = 0, that is, the latent heat equals zero.

V dHC
SN − SS = − HC (T )
4π dT

21
 • At T = 0 the transition is second order because both entropies go to zero.
• At T = TC (H = 0) the transition is second order since HC (T ) = 0 and dHC /dT
is finite.
• At all other temperatures the transition is first order since both HC (T ) and
dHC /dT are finite.

(2 points)

d) Use H and T as variables

¯ ¯
∂S ¯¯ ∂S ¯¯
dS(H, T ) = dH + dT
∂H ¯T ∂T ¯H

¯ ¯ ¯
∂S ¯¯ cH ∂S ¯¯ ∂M ¯¯
¯ = = − =0
∂H T T ∂T ¯H ↑ ∂T ¯H
Maxwell
relation

Z
cH a
S= dT = T 3 V T < TC
T 3
b
= T 3 V + γT V T > TC
3
µ ¶
b−a
SN − SS = T 3 V + γT V T = TC (H = 0)
3

µ ¶
b−a
γ= TC2
3
µ ¶1/2
3γ
TC (H = 0) =
b−a

(3 points)

22