MCQ in EST PDF

4AA-1.1 What are the frequency B. Manual retransmission C.
The repeater Height Above Average

privileges authorized to the C. Linear retransmission Terrain (HAAT)
Advanced operator in the 75-meter D. Automatic retransmission D. The repeater call sign
wavelength band?
A. 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 4AA-2.3 Under what circumstances, if 4AA-3.5 What frequencies in the 23-cm
kHz to 4000 kHz any, may an amateur station wavelength band are
B. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 automatically retransmit programs or the available for repeater operation?
kHz to 4000 kHz radio signals of other A. 1270-1300 MHz
C. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 amateur stations? B. 1270-1295 MHz
kHz to 3890 kHz A. Only when the station licensee is C. 1240-1300 MHz
D. 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 present D. Repeater operation is not permitted
kHz to 4000 kHz B. Only if the station is a repeater or in the 23-cm wavelength
space station band
4AA-1.2 What are the frequency C. Only when the control operator is
privileges authorized to the present 4AA-3.6 What is an open repeater?
Advanced operator in the 40-meter D. Only during portable operation A. A repeater that does not contain
wavelength band? control circuitry that
A. 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz 4AA-2.4 Which of the following stations limits repeater access to certain users
B. 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz may not be automatically B. A repeater available for use only by
C. 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz controlled? members of a club or
D. 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz A. A station transmitting control signals repeater group
to a model craft C. A repeater that continuously
4AA-1.3 What are the frequency B. A station in beacon operation transmits a signal to indicate
privileges authorized to the C. A station in auxiliary operation that it is available for use
Advanced operator in the 20-meter D. A station in repeater operation D. A repeater whose frequency pair
wavelength band? has been properly
A. 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 4AA-3.1 What is meant by repeater coordinated
kHz to 14350 kHz operation?
B. 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 A. An amateur radio station employing 4AA-3.7 What frequencies in the 6-meter
kHz to 14350 kHz a phone patch to pass wavelength band are
C. 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 third-party communications available for repeater operation?
kHz to 14350 kHz B. An apparatus for effecting remote A. 51.00-52.00 MHz
D. 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 control between a control B. 50.25-52.00 MHz
kHz to 14350 kHz point and a remotely controlled station C. 52.00-53.00 MHz
C. Manual or simplex operation D. 51.00-54.00 MHz
4AA-1.4 What are the frequency D. Radio communications in which
privileges authorized to the amateur radio station signals 4AA-3.8 What frequencies in the 2-meter
Advanced operator in the 15-meter are automatically retransmitted wavelength band are
wavelength band? available for repeater operation?
A. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 4AA-3.2 What is a closed repeater? A. 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz
kHz to 21450 kHz A. A repeater containing control B. 144.50-148.00 MHz
B. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 circuitry that limits C. 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz
kHz to 21450 kHz repeater access to certain users D. 146.00-148.00 MHz
C. 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 B. A repeater containing no special
kHz to 21450 kHz control circuitry to limit 4AA-3.9 What frequencies in the 1.25-
D. 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 access to any licensed amateur meter wavelength band are
kHz to 21450 kHz C. A repeater containing a transmitter available for repeater operation?
and receiver on the A. 220.25-225.00 MHz
4AA-2.1 What is meant by automatic same frequency, a closed pair B. 220.50-225.00 MHz
retransmission from a repeater D. A repeater shut down by order of an C. 221.00-225.00 MHz
station? FCC District Engineer- D. 223.00-225.00 MHz
A. The repeater is actuated by a in-Charge
received electrical signal 4AA-3.10 What frequencies in the 0.70-
B. The repeater is actuated by a 4AA-3.3 What frequencies in the 10- meter wavelength band are
telephone control link meter wavelength band are available for repeater operation?
C. The repeater station is actuated by available for repeater operation? A. 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450
a control operator A. 28.0-28.7 MHz MHz
D. The repeater station is actuated by B. 29.0-29.7 MHz B. 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz
a call sign sent in C. 29.5-29.7 MHz C. 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz
Morse code D. 28.5-29.7 MHz D. 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450
MHz
4AA-2.2 What is the term for the 4AA-3.4 Which of the following repeater
operation of a repeater whereby operating and technical 4AA-4.1 What is meant by auxiliary
the repeater station is actuated solely by parameters are ++++not++++ the station operation?
the presence of a responsibility of the area frequency A. Radio communication from a
received signal through electrical or coordinator? location more than 50 miles from
electromechanical means, A. The repeater effective radiated that indicated on the station license for a
without any direct, positive action by the power period of more than
control operator? B. The repeater transmit and receive three months
A. Simplex retransmission frequencies
B. Remote control of model airplanes 4AA-5.2 What is one responsibility of a B. Radio communication for remotely
or boats using control operator of a controlling another
frequencies above 50.1 MHz station under remote control? amateur radio station
C. Remote control of model airplanes A. Provisions must be made to limit C. Remotely controlling a station such
or boats using transmissions to no more that a control operator
frequencies above 29.5 MHz than 3 minutes if the control link does not have to be present at the
D. Transmission of communications malfunctions control point at all times
point-to-point within a B. Provisions must be made to limit D. The use of a control link between a
system of cooperating amateur stations transmissions to no more control point and a
than 4 minutes if the control link remotely controlled station
4AA-4.2 What is one use for a station in malfunctions
auxiliary operation? C. Provisions must be made to limit 4AA-6.2 How do the responsibilities of
A. Point-to-point radio communications transmissions to no more the control operator of a
within a system of than 5 minutes if the control link station under automatic control differ
cooperating amateur stations malfunctions from one under local
B. Remote control of model craft D. Provisions must be made to limit control?
C. Passing of international third-party transmissions to no more A. Under local control, there is no
communications than 10 minutes if the control link control operator
D. The retransmission of NOAA malfunctions B. Under automatic control, a control
weather broadcasts operator is not required
4AA-5.3 If the control link for a station to be present at a control point
4AA-4.3 A station in auxiliary operation under remote control C. Under automatic control, there is no
may only communicate malfunctions, there must be a provision control operator
with which stations? to limit transmission to D. Under local control, a control
A. Stations in the public safety service what time length? operator is not required to
B. Other amateur stations within a A. 5 seconds be present at the control point at all times
system of cooperating B. 10 minutes
amateur stations C. 3 minutes 4AA-6.3 Which of the following amateur
C. Amateur radio stations in space D. 5 minutes stations may be operated
satellite operation by automatic control?
D. Amateur radio stations other than 4AA-5.4 What frequencies are A. Stations without a control operator
those under manual authorized for radio remote control B. Stations in repeater operation
control of an amateur radio station? C. Stations under remote control
A. All amateur frequency bands above D. Stations controlling model craft
4AA-4.4 What frequencies are 220.5 MHz, except 432-433
authorized for stations in auxiliary MHz and 436-438 MHz 4AA-7.1 What is a control link?
operation? B. All amateur frequency bands above A. The automatic-control devices at an
A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 unattended station
220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and 435-437 MHz B. An automatically operated link
MHz and 436-438 MHz C. All amateur frequency bands above C. The remote control apparatus
B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 between a control point and a
220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and 435-438 MHz remotely controlled station
MHz and 435-437 MHz D. All amateur frequency bands above D. A transmission-limiting timing device
C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432
220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and 434-437 MHz 4AA-7.2 What is the term for apparatus
MHz and 435-438 MHz to effect remote control
D. All amateur frequency bands above 4AA-5.5 What frequencies are between the control point and a remotely
220.5 MHz, except 430-432 authorized for radio remote control controlled station?
MHz and 434-437 MHz of a station in repeater operation? A. Tone link
A. All amateur frequency bands above B. Wire control
4AA-5.1 What is meant by ++++remote 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 C. Remote control
control++++ of an amateur radio MHz and 436-438 MHz D. Control link
station? B. All amateur frequency bands above
A. Amateur communications conducted 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 4AA-8.1 What is meant by local control?
from a specific MHz and 435-437 MHz A. The use of a control operator who
geographical location other than that C. All amateur frequency bands above directly manipulates the
shown on the station 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 operating adjustments
license MHz and 434-437 MHz B. The OSCAR satellite transponder
B. Automatic operation of a station D. All amateur frequency bands above C. A carrier operated relay system
from a control point 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 D. The use of a portable handheld to
located elsewhere than at the station MHz and 435-438 MHz turn on or off the
transmitter repeater
C. An amateur radio station operating 4AA-6.1 What is meant by
under automatic control ++++automatic control++++ of an 4AA-8.2 Who may be the control
D. A control operator indirectly amateur radio operator of an auxiliary station?
manipulating the operating station? A. Any amateur operator
adjustments in the station through a A. The use of devices and procedures B. Any Technician, General, Advanced
control link for control so that a or Amateur Extra class
control operator does not have to be operator
present at a control point
C. Any General, Advanced or Amateur D. This is allowed only if you also give
Extra class operator 4AA-11.1 Without special FCC approval, the serial number of
D. Any Advanced or Amateur Extra what maximum height above the equipment
class operator ground level (excluding airport proximity
effects) is permitted 4AA-12.3 Under what conditions, if any,
4AA-9.1 How may a repeater station be for any amateur antenna support may communications be
identified? structure, including the transmitted to a commercial business by
A. By a burst of digitized information radiating elements, tower, supports, etc.? an amateur station?
B. Only voice may be used for A. 46 m (150 feet) A. When the total remuneration does
identification B. 61 m (200 feet) not exceed 25
C. By CW or voice C. 76 m (250 feet) B. When the control operator is
D. Only CW may be used for D. 91 m (300 feet) employed by the FCC
identification C. When transmitting international
4AA-11.2 From what government third-party communications
4AA-9.2 When a repeater station is agencies must permission be D. When the immediate safety of
identified in Morse code using obtained if you wish to erect an amateur human life or immediate
an automatic keying device, what is the antenna structure that protection of property is involved
maximum code speed exceeds 200 feet above ground level?
permitted? A. Federal Aviation Administration and 4AA-13.1 What are the only types of
A. 13 words per minute Federal Communications messages that may be
B. 30 words per minute Commission transmitted to an amateur station in a
C. 20 words per minute B. Environmental Protection Agency foreign country?
D. There is no limitation and Federal Communications A. Supplies needed, on a routine
Commission schedule
4AA-9.3 How often must a beacon C. Federal Aviation Administration and B. Emergency messages or business
station be identified? Environmental messages
A. Every eight minutes Protection Agency C. Business messages or messages of
B. Only at the end of the series of D. Environmental Protection Agency a technical nature
transmissions and National Aeronautics D. Personal remarks, tests, or
C. At the beginning of a series of and Space Administration messages of a technical nature
transmissions
D. At least once every ten minutes 4AA-12.1 Which of the following types of 4AA-13.2 What are the limitations on
during and at the end of amateur communications international amateur radio
activity is ++++not++++ a "prohibited communications regarding the types of
transmission" as defined in Part 97? messages transmitted?
4AA-9.4 When may a repeater be A. Transmission of messages into a A. Emergency communications only
identified using digital codes? disaster area for hire or B. Technical or personal messages
A. Any time that particular code is used for material compensation only
for at least part of B. Transmissions ensuring safety on a C. Business communications only
the communication highway, such as calling D. Call sign and signal reports only
B. Digital identification is not allowed a commercial tow truck service
C. Only voice may be allowed C. Transmission of communications 4AA-14.1 Under what circumstances, if
D. No identification is needed in digital that facilitate the regular any, may amateur operators
transmissions business or commercial affairs of any accept payment for using their own
party stations (other than a club
4AA-10.1 When is prior FCC approval D. Transmission of communications station) to send messages?
required before constructing concerning moving, supplying A. When employed by the FCC
or altering an amateur station antenna and quartering participants in a charity B. When passing emergency traffic
structure? event as long as the C. Under no circumstances
A. When the antenna structure violates sponsoring charity is the principal D. When passing international third-
local building codes beneficiary of such party communications
B. When the height above ground will communications, not the public
exceed 200 feet 4AA-14.2 Under what circumstances, if
C. When an antenna located 23000 4AA-12.2 May an amateur operator any, may the licensee of an
feet from an airport runway inform other amateur operators amateur station in repeater operation
will be 150 feet high of the availability of apparatus for sale or accept remuneration for
D. When an antenna located 23000 trade over the providing communication services to
feet from an airport runway airwaves? another party?
will be 100 feet high A. You are not allowed to sell or trade A. When the repeater is operating
equipment on the air under portable power
4AA-10.2 What must an amateur radio B. You are allowed to derive a profit by B. When the repeater is under local
operator obtain from the FCC buying or selling control
before constructing or altering an equipment on the air on a regular basis C. During Red Cross or other
antenna structure more than C. This is a permissible activity if the emergency service drills
200 feet high? apparatus can D. Under no circumstances
A. An Environmental Impact Statement normally be used at an amateur station
B. A Special Temporary Authorization and is not done for profit 4AA-15.1 Who is responsible for
C. Prior approval by the offering individual on a regular preparing an Element 1(A)
D. An effective radiated power basis telegraphy examination?
statement
A. The volunteer examiners or a C. They must prepare the examination 4AA-18.3 In a telegraphy examination,
qualified supplier from material contained how many characters are
B. The FCC in a question pool maintained by the counted as one word?
C. The VEC local FCC field office A. 2
D. Any Novice licensee D. They must prepare the examination B. 5
from a common question C. 8
4AA-15.2 What must the Element 1(A) pool maintained by the VECs or obtain a D. 10
telegraphy examination prove? question set from a
A. The applicant's ability to send and supplier 4AA-19.1 What is the minimum age to be
receive text in a volunteer examiner?
international Morse code at a rate of not 4AA-17.1 Who is eligible for A. 16 years old
less than 13 words per administering an examination for the B. 21 years old
minute Novice operator license? C. 18 years old
B. The applicant's ability to send and A. An amateur radio operator holding a D. 13 years old
receive text in General, Advanced or
international Morse code at a rate of not Extra class license and at least 18 years 4AA-19.2 Under what circumstances, if
less than 5 words per old any, may volunteer
minute B. An amateur radio operator holding a examiners be compensated for their
C. The applicant's ability to send and Technician, General, services?
receive text in Advanced or Extra class license and at A. Under no circumstances
international Morse code at a rate of not least 18 years old B. When out-of-pocket expenses
less than 20 words per C. An amateur radio operator holding a exceed 25
minute General, Advanced or C. The volunteer examiner may be
D. The applicant's ability to send text in Extra class license and at least 16 years compensated when traveling
international Morse old over 25 miles to the test site
code at a rate of not less than 13 words D. An amateur radio operator holding a D. Only when there are more than 20
per minute Technician, General, applicants attending the
Advanced or Extra class license and at examination session
4AA-15.3 Which telegraphy characters least 16 years old
are used in an Element 1(A) 4AA-19.3 Under what circumstances, if
telegraphy examination? 4AA-17.2 Within how many days after any, may a person whose
A. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the administration of a amateur station license or amateur
the period, the successful Novice examination must the operator license has ever been
comma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT examiners submit the revoked or suspended be a volunteer
and DN application to the FCC? examiner?
B. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, A. Within one week of the A. Under no circumstances
the period, the administration date B. Only if five or more years have
comma, the open and closed parenthesis, B. Within 10 days of the administration elapsed since the
the question mark, AR, date revocation or suspension
SK, BT and DN C. Within 5 days of the administration C. Only if 3 or more years have
C. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, date elapsed since the revocation
the period, the D. Within 30 days of the administration or suspension
comma, the dollar sign, the question date D. Only after review and subsequent
mark, AR, SK, BT and DN approval by the VEC
D. A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, 4AA-17.3 Where must the completed
the comma, and the Form 610 be submitted after the 4AA-19.4 Under what circumstances, if
question mark administration of a successful Novice any, may an employee of a
examination? company which is engaged in the
4AA-16.1 Who is responsible for A. To the nearest FCC Field Office distribution of equipment used in
preparing an Element 2 written B. To the FCC in Washington, DC connection with amateur radio
examination? C. To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA transmissions be a volunteer
A. The FCC D. To any VEC examiner?
B. Any Novice licensee A. If the employee is employed in the
C. The volunteer examiners or a 4AA-18.1 What is the minimum passing amateur radio sales part
qualified supplier score on a written of the company
D. The VEC examination element for the Novice B. If the employee does not normally
operator license? communicate with the
4AA-16.2 Where do volunteer examiners A. A minimum of 19 correct answers manufacturing or distribution part of the
obtain the questions for B. A minimum of 22 correct answers company
preparing an Element 2 written C. A minimum of 21 correct answers C. If the employee serves as a
examination? D. A minimum of 24 correct answers volunteer examiner for his/her
A. They must prepare the examination customers
from material contained 4AA-18.2 How many questions must an D. If the employee does not normally
in the ++++ARRL Handbook++++ or Element 2 written examination communicate with the
obtain a question set from the FCC contain? benefits and policies part of the company
B. They must prepare the examination A. 25
from material contained B. 50 4AA-20.1 What are the penalties for
in a question pool maintained by the C. 40 fraudulently administering
FCC in Washington D. 30 examinations?
A. The VE's amateur station license B. Facsimile patches of relatively dense ionization
may be suspended for a C. Xerography develop seasonally at E
period not to exceed 3 months D. ACSSB layer heights?
B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine A. Auroral propagation
not to exceed 500 for 4AB-1.5 In facsimile, how are variations B. Ducting
each day the offense was committed in picture brightness C. Scatter
C. The VE's amateur station license and darkness converted into voltage D. Sporadic-E
may be revoked and the variations?
operator's license suspended A. With an LED 4AC-1.3 In what region of the world is
D. The VE may be restricted to B. With a Hall-effect transistor ++++sporadic-E++++ most prevalent?
administering only Novice class C. With a photodetector A. The equatorial regions
license examinations D. With an optoisolator B. The arctic regions
C. The northern hemisphere
4AA-20.2 What are the penalties for 4AB-2.1 What is ++++slow-scan++++ D. The polar regions
administering examinations television?
for money or other considerations? A. The transmission of Baudot or ASCII 4AC-1.4 On which amateur frequency
A. The VE's amateur station license signals by radio band is the extended-distance
may be suspended for a B. The transmission of pictures for propagation effect of sporadic-E most
period not to exceed 3 months permanent display on paper often observed?
B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine C. The transmission of moving pictures A. 2 meters
not to exceed 500 for by radio B. 6 meters
each day the offense was committed D. The transmission of still pictures by C. 20 meters
C. The VE will be restricted to radio D. 160 meters
administering only Novice
class license examinations 4AB-2.2 What is the scan rate commonly 4AC-1.5 What appears to be the major
D. The VE's amateur station license used for amateur slow-scan cause of the ++++sporadic-E++++
may be revoked and the television? condition?
operator's license suspended A. 20 lines per minute A. Wind shear
B. 15 lines per second B. Sunspots
4AB-1.1 What is ++++facsimile++++? C. 4 lines per minute C. Temperature inversions
A. The transmission of characters by D. 240 lines per minute D. Meteors
radioteletype that form a
picture when printed 4AB-2.3 How many lines are there in 4AC-2.1 What is a ++++selective
B. The transmission of still pictures by each frame of an amateur fading++++ effect?
slow-scan television slow-scan television picture? A. A fading effect caused by small
C. The transmission of video by A. 30 changes in beam heading at
amateur television B. 60 the receiving station
D. The transmission of printed pictures C. 120 B. A fading effect caused by phase
for permanent display D. 180 differences between radio
on paper wave components of the same
4AB-2.4 What is the audio frequency for transmission, as experienced at the
4AB-1.2 What is the modern standard black in an amateur slow- receiving station
scan rate for a facsimile scan television picture? C. A fading effect caused by large
picture transmitted by an amateur A. 2300 Hz changes in the height of
station? B. 2000 Hz the ionosphere, as experienced at the
A. The modern standard is 240 lines C. 1500 Hz receiving station
per minute D. 120 Hz D. A fading effect caused by time
B. The modern standard is 50 lines per differences between the
minute 4AB-2.5 What is the audio frequency for receiving and transmitting stations
C. The modern standard is 150 lines white in an amateur slow-
per second scan television picture? 4AC-2.2 What is the propagation effect
D. The modern standard is 60 lines per A. 120 Hz called when phase
second B. 1500 Hz differences between radio wave
C. 2000 Hz components of the same
4AB-1.3 What is the approximate D. 2300 Hz transmission are experienced at the
transmission time for a facsimile recovery station?
picture transmitted by an amateur 4AC-1.1 What is a ++++sporadic-E++++ A. Faraday rotation
station? condition? B. Diversity reception
A. Approximately 6 minutes per frame A. Variations in E-layer height caused C. Selective fading
at 240 lpm by sunspot variations D. Phase shift
B. Approximately 3.3 minutes per B. A brief increase in VHF signal levels
frame at 240 lpm from meteor trails at 4AC-2.3 What is the major cause of
C. Approximately 6 seconds per frame E-layer height ++++selective fading++++?
at 240 lpm C. Patches of dense ionization at E- A. Small changes in beam heading at
D. 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm layer height the receiving station
D. Partial tropospheric ducting at E- B. Large changes in the height of the
4AB-1.4 What is the term for the layer height ionosphere, as
transmission of printed pictures experienced at the receiving station
by radio? 4AC-1.2 What is the propagation C. Time differences between the
A. Television condition called where scattered receiving and transmitting
stations 4AC-4.1 Why does the radio-path A. In conjunction with a grid-dip meter
D. Phase differences between radio horizon distance exceed the B. To provide reference points on a
wave components of the same geometric horizon? receiver dial
transmission, as experienced at the A. E-layer skip C. As the basic frequency element of a
receiving station B. D-layer skip transmitter
C. Auroral skip D. To directly measure wavelength
4AC-2.4 Which emission modes suffer D. Radio waves may be bent
the most from ++++selective 4AD-1.4 What is a ++++frequency
fading++++? 4AC-4.2 How much farther does the counter++++?
A. CW and SSB radio-path horizon distance A. A frequency measuring device
B. FM and double sideband AM exceed the geometric horizon? B. A frequency marker generator
C. SSB and AMTOR A. By approximately 15% of the C. A device that determines whether or
D. SSTV and CW distance not a given frequency
B. By approximately twice the distance is in use before automatic transmissions
4AC-2.5 How does the bandwidth of the C. By approximately one-half the are made
transmitted signal affect distance D. A broadband white noise generator
++++selective fading++++? D. By approximately four times the
A. It is more pronounced at wide distance 4AD-1.5 How is a frequency counter
bandwidths used?
B. It is more pronounced at narrow 4AC-4.3 To what distance is VHF A. To provide reference points on an
bandwidths propagation ordinarily limited? analog receiver dial
C. It is equally pronounced at both A. Approximately 1000 miles B. To generate a frequency standard
narrow and wide bandwidths B. Approximately 500 miles C. To measure the deviation in an FM
D. The receiver bandwidth determines C. Approximately 1500 miles transmitter
the selective fading D. Approximately 2000 miles D. To measure frequency
effect
4AC-4.4 What propagation condition is 4AD-1.6 What is the most the actual
4AC-3.1 What effect does ++++auroral usually indicated when a transmitter frequency could
activity++++ have upon radio VHF signal is received from a station differ from a reading of 146,520,000-
communications? over 500 miles away? Hertz on a frequency counter
A. The readability of SSB signals A. D-layer absorption with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0
increases B. Faraday rotation ppm?
B. FM communications are clearer C. Tropospheric ducting A. 165.2 Hz
C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. Moonbounce B. 14.652 kHz
D. CW signals have a fluttery tone C. 146.52 Hz
4AC-4.5 What happens to a radio wave D. 1.4652 MHz
4AC-3.2 What is the cause of as it travels in space and
++++auroral activity++++? collides with other particles? 4AD-1.7 What is the most the actual
A. A high sunspot level A. Kinetic energy is given up by the transmitter frequency could
B. A low sunspot level radio wave differ from a reading of 146,520,000-
C. The emission of charged particles B. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio Hertz on a frequency counter
from the sun wave with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1
D. Meteor showers concentrated in the C. Aurora is created ppm?
northern latitudes D. Nothing happens since radio waves A. 14.652 Hz
have no physical B. 0.1 MHz
4AC-3.3 In the northern hemisphere, in substance C. 1.4652 Hz
which direction should a D. 1.4652 kHz
directional antenna be pointed to take 4AD-1.1 What is a ++++frequency
maximum advantage of standard++++? 4AD-1.8 What is the most the actual
auroral propagation? A. A net frequency transmitter frequency could
A. South B. A device used to produce a highly differ from a reading of 146,520,000-
B. North accurate reference Hertz on a frequency counter
C. East frequency with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm?
D. West C. A device for accurately measuring A. 146.52 Hz
frequency to within 1 Hz B. 10 Hz
4AC-3.4 Where in the ionosphere does D. A device used to generate wideband C. 146.52 kHz
auroral activity occur? random frequencies D. 1465.20 Hz
A. At F-layer height
B. In the equatorial band 4AD-1.2 What is a ++++frequency- 4AD-1.9 What is the most the actual
C. At D-layer height marker generator++++? transmitter frequency could
D. At E-layer height A. A device used to produce a highly differ from a reading of 432,100,000-
accurate reference Hertz on a frequency counter
4AC-3.5 Which emission modes are best frequency with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0
for auroral propagation? B. A sweep generator ppm?
A. CW and SSB C. A broadband white noise generator A. 43.21 MHz
B. SSB and FM D. A device used to generate wideband B. 10 Hz
C. FM and CW random frequencies C. 1.0 MHz
D. RTTY and AM D. 432.1 Hz
4AD-1.3 How is a frequency-marker
generator used?
4AD-1.10 What is the most the actual 4AD-2.5 What types of coupling occur D. Number of digits in the readout,
transmit frequency could between a dip-meter and a external frequency
differ from a reading of 432,100,000- tuned circuit being checked? reference and temperature coefficient of
Hertz on a frequency counter A. Resistive and inductive the logic
with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 B. Inductive and capacitive
ppm? C. Resistive and capacitive 4AD-3.4 How can the frequency
A. 43.21 Hz D. Strong field response of an oscilloscope be
B. 0.1 MHz improved?
C. 432.1 Hz 4AD-2.6 How tight should the dip-meter A. By using a triggered sweep and a
D. 0.2 MHz be coupled with the tuned crystal oscillator as the
circuit being checked? time base
4AD-1.11 What is the most the actual A. As loosely as possible, for best B. By using a crystal oscillator as the
transmit frequency could accuracy time base and
differ from a reading of 432,100,000- B. As tightly as possible, for best increasing the vertical sweep rate
Hertz on a frequency counter accuracy C. By increasing the vertical sweep
with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? C. First loose, then tight, for best rate and the horizontal
A. 10 MHz accuracy amplifier frequency response
B. 10 Hz D. With a soldered jumper wire D. By increasing the horizontal sweep
C. 4321 Hz between the meter and the rate and the vertical
D. 432.1 Hz circuit to be checked, for best accuracy amplifier frequency response
4AD-2.1 What is a ++++dip-meter++++? 4AD-2.7 What happens in a dip-meter 4AD-3.5 How can the accuracy of a
A. A field strength meter when it is too tightly frequency counter be improved?
B. An SWR meter coupled with the tuned circuit being A. By using slower digital logic
C. A variable LC oscillator with checked? B. By improving the accuracy of the
metered feedback current A. Harmonics are generated frequency response
D. A marker generator B. A less accurate reading results C. By increasing the accuracy of the
C. Cross modulation occurs time base
4AD-2.2 Why is a dip-meter used by D. Intermodulation distortion occurs D. By using faster digital logic
many amateur operators?
A. It can measure signal strength 4AD-3.1 What factors limit the accuracy, 4AD-4.1 What is the condition called
accurately frequency response, and which occurs when the
B. It can measure frequency accurately stability of an oscilloscope? signals of two transmitters in close
C. It can measure transmitter output A. Sweep oscillator quality and proximity mix together in
power accurately deflection amplifier bandwidth one or both of their final amplifiers, and
D. It can give an indication of the B. Tube face voltage increments and unwanted signals at
resonant frequency of a deflection amplifier the sum and difference frequencies of
circuit voltage the original transmissions
C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube are generated?
4AD-2.3 How does a dip-meter function? face voltage increments A. Amplifier desensitization
A. Reflected waves at a specific D. Deflection amplifier output B. Neutralization
frequency desensitize the impedance and tube face C. Adjacent channel interference
detector coil frequency increments D. Intermodulation interference
B. Power coupled from an oscillator
causes a decrease in 4AD-3.2 What factors limit the accuracy, 4AD-4.2 How does ++++intermodulation
metered current frequency response, and interference++++ between two
C. Power from a transmitter cancels stability of a D'Arsonval movement type transmitters usually occur?
feedback current meter? A. When the signals from the
D. Harmonics of the oscillator cause an A. Calibration, coil impedance and transmitters are reflected out of
increase in resonant meter size phase from airplanes passing overhead
circuit Q B. Calibration, series resistance and B. When they are in close proximity
electromagnet current and the signals mix in one
4AD-2.4 What two ways could a dip- C. Coil impedance, electromagnet or both of their final amplifiers
meter be used in an amateur voltage and movement mass C. When they are in close proximity
station? D. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and the signals cause
A. To measure resonant frequency of and coil impedance feedback in one or both of their final
antenna traps and to amplifiers
measure percentage of modulation 4AD-3.3 What factors limit the accuracy, D. When the signals from the
B. To measure antenna resonance and frequency response, and transmitters are reflected in
to measure percentage of stability of a frequency counter? phase from airplanes passing overhead
modulation A. Number of digits in the readout,
C. To measure antenna resonance and speed of the logic and 4AD-4.3 How can intermodulation
to measure antenna time base stability interference between two
impedance B. Time base accuracy, speed of the transmitters in close proximity often be
D. To measure resonant frequency of logic and time base reduced or eliminated?
antenna traps and to stability A. By using a Class C final amplifier
measure a tuned circuit resonant C. Time base accuracy, temperature with high driving power
frequency coefficient of the logic B. By installing a terminated circulator
and time base stability or ferrite isolator
in the feed line to the transmitter and receiver D. Frequency discrimination
duplexer B. Increase the transmitter audio gain
C. By installing a band-pass filter in the C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain 4AD-7.3 With which emission type is the
antenna feed line D. Increase the receiver bandwidth capture-effect most
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the pronounced?
antenna feed 4AD-6.1 What is ++++cross-modulation A. FM
line interference++++? B. SSB
A. Interference between two C. AM
4AD-4.4 What can occur when a non- transmitters of different D. CW
linear amplifier is used with a modulation type
single-sideband phone transmitter? B. Interference caused by audio 4AE-1.1 What is ++++reactive
A. Reduced amplifier efficiency rectification in the receiver power++++?
B. Increased intelligibility preamp A. Wattless, non-productive power
C. Sideband inversion C. Harmonic distortion of the B. Power consumed in wire resistance
D. Distortion transmitted signal in an inductor
D. Modulation from an unwanted signal C. Power lost because of capacitor
4AD-4.5 How can even-order harmonics is heard in addition to leakage
be reduced or prevented in the desired signal D. Power consumed in circuit Q
transmitter amplifier design?
A. By using a push-push amplifier 4AD-6.2 What is the term used to refer to 4AE-1.2 What is the term for an out-of-
B. By using a push-pull amplifier the condition where the phase, non-productive
C. By operating class C signals from a very strong station are power associated with inductors and
D. By operating class AB superimposed on other capacitors?
signals being received? A. Effective power
4AD-5.1 What is ++++receiver A. Intermodulation distortion B. True power
desensitizing++++? B. Cross-modulation interference C. Peak envelope power
A. A burst of noise when the squelch is C. Receiver quieting D. Reactive power
set too low D. Capture effect
B. A burst of noise when the squelch is 4AE-1.3 What is the term for energy that
set too high 4AD-6.3 How can ++++cross- is stored in an
C. A reduction in receiver sensitivity modulation++++ in a receiver be electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
because of a strong reduced? A. Potential energy
signal on a nearby frequency A. By installing a filter at the receiver B. Amperes-joules
D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity B. By using a better antenna C. Joules-coulombs
when the AF gain C. By increasing the receiver's RF gain D. Kinetic energy
control is turned down while decreasing the
AF gain 4AE-1.4 What is responsible for the
4AD-5.2 What is the term used to refer to D. By adjusting the pass-band tuning phenomenon when voltages
the reduction of across reactances in series can often be
receiver gain caused by the signals of a 4AD-6.4 What is the result of ++++cross- larger than the voltages
nearby station modulation++++? applied to them?
transmitting in the same frequency A. A decrease in modulation level of A. Capacitance
band? transmitted signals B. Resonance
A. Desensitizing B. Receiver quieting C. Conductance
B. Quieting C. The modulation of an unwanted D. Resistance
C. Cross modulation interference signal is heard on the
D. Squelch gain rollback desired signal 4AE-2.1 What is ++++resonance++++ in
D. Inverted sidebands in the final stage an electrical circuit?
4AD-5.3 What is the term used to refer to of the amplifier A. The highest frequency that will pass
a reduction in receiver current
sensitivity caused by unwanted high- 4AD-7.1 What is the ++++capture B. The lowest frequency that will pass
level adjacent channel effect++++? current
signals? A. All signals on a frequency are C. The frequency at which capacitive
A. Intermodulation distortion demodulated by an FM reactance equals
B. Quieting receiver inductive reactance
C. Desensitizing B. All signals on a frequency are D. The frequency at which power factor
D. Overloading demodulated by an AM is at a minimum
receiver
4AD-5.4 What causes ++++receiver C. The loudest signal received is the 4AE-2.2 Under what conditions does
desensitizing++++? only demodulated signal resonance occur in an
A. Audio gain adjusted too low D. The weakest signal received is the electrical circuit?
B. Squelch gain adjusted too high only demodulated signal A. When the power factor is at a
C. The presence of a strong signal on minimum
a nearby frequency 4AD-7.2 What is the term used to refer to B. When inductive and capacitive
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low the reception blockage reactances are equal
of one FM-phone signal by another FM- C. When the square root of the sum of
4AD-5.5 How can ++++receiver phone signal? the capacitive and
desensitizing++++ be reduced? A. Desensitization inductive reactances is equal to the
A. Ensure good RF shielding between B. Cross-modulation interference resonant frequency
the transmitter and C. Capture effect
D. When the square root of the product D. The phenomenon where thermal electrostatic field?
of the capacitive and effects on the surface of the A. A battery
inductive reactances is equal to the conductor decrease the impedance B. A transformer
resonant frequency C. A capacitor
4AE-3.2 What is the term for the D. An inductor
4AE-2.3 What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF
phenomena which occurs in an current flows along the surface of the 4AE-4.4 What is the term used to
electrical circuit when the inductive conductor? express the amount of electrical
reactance equals the A. Layer effect energy stored in an electrostatic field?
capacitive reactance? B. Seeburg Effect A. Coulombs
A. Reactive quiescence C. Skin effect B. Joules
B. High Q D. Resonance C. Watts
C. Reactive equilibrium D. Volts
D. Resonance 4AE-3.3 Where does practically all of the
RF current flow in a 4AE-4.5 What factors determine the
4AE-2.4 What is the approximate conductor? capacitance of a capacitor?
magnitude of the impedance of a A. Along the surface A. Area of the plates, voltage on the
series R-L-C circuit at resonance? B. In the center of the conductor plates and distance
A. High, as compared to the circuit C. In the magnetic field around the between the plates
resistance conductor B. Area of the plates, distance between
B. Approximately equal to the circuit D. In the electromagnetic field in the the plates and the
resistance conductor center dielectric constant of the material
C. Approximately equal to XL between the plates
D. Approximately equal to XC 4AE-3.4 Why does practically all of an C. Area of the plates, voltage on the
RF current flow within a plates and the
4AE-2.5 What is the approximate few thousandths-of-an-inch of the dielectric constant of the material
magnitude of the impedance of a conductor's surface? between the plates
parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Because of skin effect D. Area of the plates, amount of charge
A. Approximately equal to the circuit B. Because the RF resistance of the on the plates and the
resistance conductor is much less dielectric constant of the material
B. Approximately equal to XL than the DC resistance between the plates
C. Low, as compared to the circuit C. Because of heating of the metal at
resistance the conductor's interior 4AE-4.6 What is the dielectric constant
D. Approximately equal to XC D. Because of the AC-resistance of the for air?
conductor's self inductance A. Approximately 1
4AE-2.6 What is the characteristic of the B. Approximately 2
current flow in a 4AE-3.5 Why is the resistance of a C. Approximately 4
series R-L-C circuit at resonance? conductor different for RF D. Approximately 0
A. It is at a minimum current than for DC?
B. It is at a maximum A. Because the insulation conducts 4AE-4.7 What determines the strength of
C. It is DC current at radio the magnetic field around
D. It is zero frequencies a conductor?
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect A. The resistance divided by the
4AE-2.7 What is the characteristic of the C. Because of skin effect current
current flow in a D. Because conductors are non-linear B. The ratio of the current to the
parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? devices resistance
A. The current circulating in the parallel C. The diameter of the conductor
elements is at a 4AE-4.1 What is a ++++magnetic D. The amount of current
minimum field++++?
B. The current circulating in the parallel A. Current flow through space around a 4AE-5.1 What is the resonant frequency
elements is at a permanent magnet of the circuit in Figure
maximum B. A force set up when current flows 4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C
C. The current circulating in the parallel through a conductor is 40 picofarads
elements is DC C. The force between the plates of a [see graphics addendum]?
D. The current circulating in the parallel charged capacitor A. 79.6 MHz
elements is zero D. The force that drives current through B. 1.78 MHz
a resistor C. 3.56 MHz
4AE-3.1 What is the ++++skin D. 7.96 MHz
effect++++? 4AE-4.2 In what direction is the magnetic
A. The phenomenon where RF current field about a conductor 4AE-5.2 What is the resonant frequency
flows in a thinner layer of when current is flowing? of the circuit in Figure
the conductor, close to the surface, as A. In the same direction as the current 4AE-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C
frequency increases B. In a direction opposite to the current is 200 picofarads
B. The phenomenon where RF current flow [see graphics addendum]?
flows in a thinner layer of C. In all directions; omnidirectional A. 1.99 kHz
the conductor, close to the surface, as D. In a direction determined by the left B. 1.78 MHz
frequency decreases hand rule C. 1.99 MHz
C. The phenomenon where thermal D. 1.78 kHz
effects on the surface of the 4AE-4.3 What device is used to store
conductor increase the impedance electrical energy in an
4AE-5.3 What is the resonant frequency 4AE-5.10 What is the resonant frequency 4AE-5.17 What is the resonant frequency
of the circuit in Figure of the circuit in Figure of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C
is 10 picofarads 9 picofarads is 6 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]?
A. 3.18 MHz A. 17.7 MHz A. 6.63 MHz
B. 3.18 kHz B. 17.7 kHz B. 6.63 kHz
C. 7.12 MHz C. 53.1 MHz C. 10.3 MHz
D. 7.12 kHz D. 53.1 kHz D. 10.3 kHz
4AE-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C
is 10 picofarads 10 picofarads is 50 picofarads
A. 10.1 MHz A. 50.3 MHz A. 3.18 MHz
B. 63.7 MHz B. 15.9 MHz B. 3.18 kHz
C. 10.1 kHz C. 15.9 kHz C. 7.12 kHz
D. 63.7 kHz D. 50.3 kHz D. 7.12 MHz
4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and
is 40 picofarads is 15 picofarads C is 10 picofarads
A. 13.1 MHz A. 29.1 kHz A. 3.56 MHz
B. 14.5 MHz B. 29.1 MHz B. 7.96 kHz
C. 14.5 kHz C. 5.31 MHz C. 3.56 kHz
D. 13.1 kHz D. 5.31 kHz D. 7.96 MHz
4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C
is 20 picofarads is 9 picofarads is 100 picofarads
A. 19.9 kHz A. 23.7 kHz A. 1.77 MHz
B. 17.8 kHz B. 3.54 kHz B. 1.68 MHz
C. 19.9 MHz C. 23.7 MHz C. 1.77 kHz
D. 17.8 MHz D. 3.54 MHz D. 1.68 kHz
4AE-5.7 What is the resonant frequency 4AE-5.14 What is the resonant frequency 4AE-5.21 What is the half-power
of the circuit in Figure of the circuit in Figure bandwidth of a parallel resonant
4AE-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C circuit which has a resonant frequency of
is 7 picofarads is 30 picofarads 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
[see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]? A. 18.9 kHz
A. 2.84 MHz A. 2.65 kHz B. 1.89 kHz
B. 28.4 MHz B. 20.5 kHz C. 189 Hz
C. 21.3 MHz C. 2.65 MHz D. 58.7 kHz
D. 2.13 MHz D. 20.5 MHz
4AE-5.22 What is the half-power
4AE-5.8 What is the resonant frequency 4AE-5.15 What is the resonant frequency bandwidth of a parallel resonant
of the circuit in Figure of the circuit in Figure circuit which has a resonant frequency of
4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?
is 15 picofarads is 5 picofarads A. 58.7 kHz
[see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]? B. 606 kHz
A. 23.7 MHz A. 18.4 MHz C. 47.3 kHz
B. 23.7 kHz B. 2.12 MHz D. 16.5 kHz
C. 35.4 kHz C. 18.4 kHz
D. 35.4 MHz D. 2.12 kHz 4AE-5.23 What is the half-power
bandwidth of a parallel resonant
4AE-5.9 What is the resonant frequency 4AE-5.16 What is the resonant frequency circuit which has a resonant frequency of
of the circuit in Figure of the circuit in Figure 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C 4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C A. 211 kHz
is 8 picofarads is 40 picofarads B. 16.5 kHz
[see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]? C. 47.3 kHz
A. 28.1 kHz A. 1.33 kHz D. 21.1 kHz
B. 28.1 MHz B. 14.5 MHz
C. 49.7 MHz C. 1.33 MHz 4AE-5.24 What is the half-power
D. 49.7 kHz D. 14.5 kHz bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the 4AE-5.37 What is the Q of the circuit in
12.8 MHz and a Q of inductance is 2.7 Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
218? microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the
A. 21.1 kHz ohms inductance is 12.6
B. 27.9 kHz [see graphics addendum]? microhenrys and the resistance is 22,000
C. 17 kHz A. 75.1 ohms
D. 58.7 kHz B. 7.51 [see graphics addendum]?
C. 71.5 A. 22.1
4AE-5.25 What is the half-power D. 0.013 B. 39
bandwidth of a parallel resonant C. 25.6
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 4AE-5.32 What is the Q of the circuit in D. 0.0256
14.25 MHz and a Q of Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
150? resonant frequency is 14.128 MHz, the 4AE-5.38 What is the Q of the circuit in
A. 95 kHz inductance is 4.7 Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
B. 10.5 kHz microhenrys and the resistance is 18,000 resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the
C. 10.5 MHz ohms inductance is 3 microhenrys
D. 17 kHz [see graphics addendum]? and the resistance is 2,200 ohms
A. 4.31 [see graphics addendum]?
4AE-5.26 What is the half-power B. 43.1 A. 0.031
bandwidth of a parallel resonant C. 13.3 B. 32.2
circuit which has a resonant frequency of D. 0.023 C. 31.1
21.15 MHz and a Q of D. 25.6
95? 4AE-5.33 What is the Q of the circuit in
A. 4.49 kHz Figure 4AE-5-3 when the 4AE-5.39 What is the Q of the circuit in
B. 44.9 kHz resonant frequency is 4.468 MHz, the Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
C. 22.3 kHz inductance is 47 microhenrys resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the
D. 222.6 kHz and the resistance is 180 ohms inductance is 42 microhenrys
[see graphics addendum]? and the resistance is 220 ohms
4AE-5.27 What is the half-power A. 0.00735 [see graphics addendum]?
bandwidth of a parallel resonant B. 7.35 A. 23
circuit which has a resonant frequency of C. 0.136 B. 0.00435
10.1 MHz and a Q of D. 13.3 C. 4.35
225? D. 0.23
A. 4.49 kHz 4AE-5.34 What is the Q of the circuit in
B. 44.9 kHz Figure 4AE-5-3 when the 4AE-5.40 What is the Q of the circuit in
C. 22.3 kHz resonant frequency is 14.225 MHz, the Figure 4AE-5-3 when the
D. 223 kHz inductance is 3.5 resonant frequency is 3.625 MHz, the
microhenrys and the resistance is 10,000 inductance is 43 microhenrys
4AE-5.28 What is the half-power ohms and the resistance is 1,800 ohms
bandwidth of a parallel resonant [see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]?
circuit which has a resonant frequency of A. 7.35 A. 1.84
18.1 MHz and a Q of B. 0.0319 B. 0.543
195? C. 71.5 C. 54.3
A. 92.8 kHz D. 31.9 D. 23
B. 10.8 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz 4AE-5.35 What is the Q of the circuit in 4AE-6.1 What is the phase angle
D. 44.9 kHz Figure 4AE-5-3 when the between the voltage across and
resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the the current through the circuit in Figure
4AE-5.29 What is the half-power inductance is 8.2 4AE-6, when Xc is 25
bandwidth of a parallel resonant microhenrys and the resistance is 1,000 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100
circuit which has a resonant frequency of ohms ohms [see graphics addendum]?
3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? [see graphics addendum]? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage
A. 22.3 kHz A. 36.8 leading the current
B. 76.2 kHz B. 0.273 B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage
C. 31.4 kHz C. 0.368 lagging the current
D. 10.8 kHz D. 2.73 C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
4AE-5.30 What is the half-power 4AE-5.36 What is the Q of the circuit in D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage
bandwidth of a parallel resonant Figure 4AE-5-3 when the leading the current
circuit which has a resonant frequency of resonant frequency is 7.125 MHz, the
14.25 MHz and a Q of inductance is 10.1 4AE-6.2 What is the phase angle
187? microhenrys and the resistance is 100 between the voltage across and
A. 22.3 kHz ohms the current through the circuit in Figure
B. 10.8 kHz [see graphics addendum]? 4AE-6, when Xc is 25
C. 13.1 kHz A. 0.221 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms
D. 76.2 kHz B. 4.52 [see graphics addendum]?
C. 0.00452 A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging
4AE-5.31 What is the Q of the circuit in D. 22.1 the current
Figure 4AE-5-3 when the B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading
the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms D. Because there is a phase angle that
the current [see graphics addendum]? is equal to zero
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging between the current and voltage
the current the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading 4AE-7.2 In a circuit where the AC voltage
4AE-6.3 What is the phase angle the current and current are out of
between the voltage across and C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading phase, how can the true power be
the current through the circuit in Figure the current determined?
4AE-6, when Xc is 500 D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging A. By multiplying the apparent power
ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 250 the current times the power factor
ohms [see graphics addendum]? B. By subtracting the apparent power
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage 4AE-6.8 What is the phase angle from the power factor
leading the current between the voltage across and C. By dividing the apparent power by
B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage the current through the circuit in Figure the power factor
leading the current 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 D. By multiplying the RMS voltage
C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and Xl is 500 times the RMS current
lagging the current ohms
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage [see graphics addendum]? 4AE-7.3 What does the power factor
lagging the current A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage equal in an R-L circuit having
lagging the current a 60 degree phase angle between the
4AE-6.4 What is the phase angle B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage voltage and the current?
between the voltage across and leading the current A. 1.414
the current through the circuit in Figure C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage B. 0.866
4AE-6, when Xc is 75 lagging the current C. 0.5
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 100 D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage D. 1.73
ohms [see graphics addendum]? leading the current
A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading 4AE-7.4 What does the power factor
the current 4AE-6.9 What is the phase angle equal in an R-L circuit having
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading between the voltage across and a 45 degree phase angle between the
the current the current through the circuit in Figure voltage and the current?
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 A. 0.866
the current ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 75 ohms B. 1.0
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging [see graphics addendum]? C. 0.5
the current A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading D. 0.707
the current
4AE-6.5 What is the phase angle B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging 4AE-7.5 What does the power factor
between the voltage across and the current equal in an R-L circuit having
the current through the circuit in Figure C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging a 30 degree phase angle between the
4AE-6, when Xc is 50 the current voltage and the current?
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading A. 1.73
[see graphics addendum]? the current B. 0.5
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging C. 0.866
the current 4AE-6.10 What is the phase angle D. 0.577
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading between the voltage across and
the current the current through the circuit in Figure 4AE-7.6 How many watts are being
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 consumed in a circuit having a
the current ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 25 ohms power factor of 0.2 when the input is
D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging [see graphics addendum]? 100-V AC and 4-amperes is
the current A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage being drawn?
leading the current A. 400 watts
4AE-6.6 What is the phase angle B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage B. 80 watts
between the voltage across and lagging the current C. 2000 watts
the current through the circuit in Figure C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage D. 50 watts
4AE-6, when Xc is 75 lagging the current
ohms, R is 100 ohms, and Xl is 50 ohms D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage 4AE-7.7 How many watts are being
[see graphics addendum]? leading the current consumed in a circuit having a
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging power factor of 0.6 when the input is
the current 4AE-7.1 Why would the rate at which 200-V AC and 5-amperes is
B. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging electrical energy is used in being drawn?
the current a circuit be less than the product of the A. 200 watts
C. 14 degrees with the voltage leading magnitudes of the AC B. 1000 watts
the current voltage and current? C. 1600 watts
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading A. Because there is a phase angle that D. 600 watts
the current is greater than zero
between the current and voltage 4AE-8.1 What is the effective radiated
4AE-6.7 What is the phase angle B. Because there are only resistances power of a station in
between the voltage across and in the circuit repeater operation with 50 watts
the current through the circuit in Figure C. Because there are no reactances in transmitter power output, 4 dB
4AE-6, when Xc is 100 the circuit feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB
antenna gain? D. 23.7 watts, assuming the antenna antenna gain?
A. 158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a A. 946 watts, assuming the antenna
gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole half-wave dipole
B. 39.7 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-8.5 What is the effective radiated B. 37.5 watts, assuming the antenna
gain is referenced to a power of a station in gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole repeater operation with 100 watts half-wave dipole
C. 251 watts, assuming the antenna transmitter power output, 4 dB C. 600 watts, assuming the antenna
gain is referenced to a feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole circulator loss, and 7 dB half-wave dipole
D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna antenna gain? D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna
gain is referenced to a A. 631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a
half-wave dipole gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole
half-wave dipole
4AE-8.2 What is the effective radiated B. 400 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-8.9 What is the effective radiated
power of a station in gain is referenced to a power of a station in
repeater operation with 50 watts half-wave dipole repeater operation with 200 watts
transmitter power output, 5 dB C. 25 watts, assuming the antenna transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and gain is referenced to a feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 7 dB half-wave dipole circulator loss, and 10 dB
antenna gain? D. 100 watts, assuming the antenna antenna gain?
B. 315 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-8.6 What is the effective radiated B. 2000 watts, assuming the antenna
half-wave dipole repeater operation with 100 watts half-wave dipole
C. 31.5 watts, assuming the antenna transmitter power output, 5 dB C. 126 watts, assuming the antenna
D. 69.9 watts, assuming the antenna antenna gain? D. 260 watts, assuming the antenna
half-wave dipole
4AE-8.3 What is the effective radiated B. 126 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-8.10 What is the effective radiated
power of a station in gain is referenced to a power of a station in
repeater operation with 75 watts half-wave dipole repeater operation with 200 watts
transmitter power output, 4 dB C. 12.5 watts, assuming the antenna transmitter power output, 4 dB
feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and gain is referenced to a feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 10 dB half-wave dipole circulator loss, and 6 dB
antenna gain? D. 1260 watts, assuming the antenna antenna gain?
B. 75 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-8.7 What is the effective radiated B. 63.2 watts, assuming the antenna
half-wave dipole repeater operation with l20 watts half-wave dipole
C. 18.75 watts, assuming the antenna transmitter power output, 5 dB C. 632 watts, assuming the antenna
D. 150 watts, assuming the antenna antenna gain? D. 159 watts, assuming the antenna
half-wave dipole
4AE-8.4 What is the effective radiated B. 240 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-9.1 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of
power of a station in gain is referenced to a V2 and R3 result in the
repeater operation with 75 watts half-wave dipole same voltage and current characteristics
transmitter power output, 5 dB C. 60 watts, assuming the antenna as when V1 is 8-volts,
feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and gain is referenced to a R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms [see
circulator loss, and 6 dB half-wave dipole graphics addendum]?
antenna gain? D. 379 watts, assuming the antenna A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
A. 37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
gain is referenced to a half-wave dipole C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
half-wave dipole D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
B. 237 watts, assuming the antenna 4AE-8.8 What is the effective radiated
gain is referenced to a power of a station in 4AE-9.2 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of
half-wave dipole repeater operation with 150 watts V2 and R3 result in the
C. 150 watts, assuming the antenna transmitter power output, 4 dB same voltage and current characteristics
gain is referenced to a feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and as when V1 is 8-volts,
half-wave dipole circulator loss, and 7 dB
R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8 kilohms R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms voltage
[see graphics addendum]? [see graphics addendum]?
A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts 4AF-1.6 What is the range of voltage
B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts ratings available in Zener
C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts diodes?
volts D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts A. 2.4 volts to 200 volts
D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. 1.2 volts to 7 volts
4AE-9.9 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of C. 3 volts to 2000 volts
4AE-9.3 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts
V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and current characteristics
same voltage and current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, 4AF-1.7 What is the schematic symbol
as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms for a tunnel diode [see graphics
R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16 kilohms [see graphics addendum]? addendum]?
[see graphics addendum]? A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts A. 1
A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts B. 2
B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts C. 3
C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts D. 4
volts
D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts 4AE-9.10 In Figure 4AE-9, what values 4AF-1.8 What is the principal
of V2 and R3 result in the characteristic of a tunnel diode?
4AE-9.4 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of same voltage and current characteristics A. A high forward resistance
V2 and R3 result in the as when V1 is 12-volts, B. A very high PIV
same voltage and current characteristics R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms C. A negative resistance region
as when V1 is 10-volts, [see graphics addendum]? D. A high forward current rating
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms A. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
[see graphics addendum]? B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts 4AF-1.9 What special type of diode is
A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts C. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts capable of both
B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts amplification and oscillation?
C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts A. Point contact diodes
D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts 4AF-1.1 What is the schematic symbol B. Zener diodes
for a semiconductor C. Tunnel diodes
4AE-9.5 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of diode/rectifier [see graphics addendum]? D. Junction diodes
V2 and R3 result in the A. 1
same voltage and current characteristics B. 2 4AF-1.10 What is the schematic symbol
as when V1 is 10-volts, C. 3 for a varactor diode [see graphics
R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms D. 4 addendum]?
[see graphics addendum]? A. 1
A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts 4AF-1.2 Structurally, what are the two B. 2
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts main categories of C. 3
C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 semiconductor diodes? D. 4
volts A. Junction and point contact
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts B. Electrolytic and junction 4AF-1.11 What type of semiconductor
C. Electrolytic and point contact diode varies its internal
4AE-9.6 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of D. Vacuum and point contact capacitance as the voltage applied to its
V2 and R3 result in the terminals varies?
same voltage and current characteristics 4AF-1.3 What is the schematic symbol A. A varactor diode
as when V1 is 10-volts, for a Zener diode [see graphics B. A tunnel diode
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20 kilohms addendum]? C. A silicon-controlled rectifier
[see graphics addendum]? A. 1 D. A Zener diode
A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 B. 2
volts C. 3 4AF-1.12 What is the principal
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts D. 4 characteristic of a varactor
C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts diode?
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts 4AF-1.4 What are the two primary A. It has a constant voltage under
classifications of Zener diodes? conditions of varying
4AE-9.7 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of A. Hot carrier and tunnel current
V2 and R3 result in the B. Varactor and rectifying B. Its internal capacitance varies with
same voltage and current characteristics C. Voltage regulator and voltage the applied voltage
as when V1 is 12-volts, reference C. It has a negative resistance region
R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10 kilohms D. Forward and reversed biased D. It has a very high PIV
[see graphics addendum]?
A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts 4AF-1.5 What is the principal 4AF-1.13 What is a common use of a
B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts characteristic of a Zener diode? varactor diode?
C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts A. A constant current under conditions A. As a constant current source
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts of varying voltage B. As a constant voltage source
B. A constant voltage under conditions C. As a voltage controlled inductance
4AE-9.8 In Figure 4AE-9, what values of of varying current D. As a voltage controlled capacitance
V2 and R3 result in the C. A negative resistance region
same voltage and current characteristics D. An internal capacitance that varies 4AF-1.14 What is a common use of a
as when V1 is 12-volts, with the applied hot-carrier diode?
A. As balanced mixers in SSB C. 3 C. The practical lower frequency limit
generation D. 4 of a transistor in
B. As a variable capacitance in an common base configuration
automatic frequency control 4AF-2.3 What are the three terminals of D. The practical upper frequency limit
circuit a bipolar transistor? of a transistor in
C. As a constant voltage reference in a A. Cathode, plate and grid common emitter configuration
power supply B. Base, collector and emitter
D. As VHF and UHF mixers and C. Gate, source and sink 4AF-2.9 What is the term used to
detectors D. Input, output and ground express that frequency at which
the grounded base current gain has
4AF-1.15 What limits the maximum 4AF-2.4 What is the meaning of the term decreased to 0.7 of the gain
forward current in a junction ++++alpha++++ with regard to obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor?
diode? bipolar transistors? A. Corner frequency
A. The peak inverse voltage A. The change of collector current with B. Alpha cutoff frequency
B. The junction temperature respect to base C. Beta cutoff frequency
C. The forward voltage current D. Alpha rejection frequency
D. The back EMF B. The change of base current with
respect to collector 4AF-2.10 What is the meaning of the
4AF-1.16 How are junction diodes rated? current term ++++beta cutoff frequency++++
A. Maximum forward current and C. The change of collector current with with regard to a bipolar transistor?
capacitance respect to emitter A. That frequency at which the
B. Maximum reverse current and PIV current grounded base current gain has
C. Maximum reverse current and D. The change of collector current with decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1
capacitance respect to gate kHz in a transistor
D. Maximum forward current and PIV current B. That frequency at which the
grounded emitter current gain
4AF-1.17 What is a common use for 4AF-2.5 What is the term used to has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable
point contact diodes? express the ratio of change in at 1 kHz in a transistor
A. As a constant current source DC collector current to a change in C. That frequency at which the
B. As a constant voltage source emitter current in a bipolar grounded collector current gain
C. As an RF detector transistor? has decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable
D. As a high voltage rectifier A. Gamma at 1 kHz in a transistor
B. Epsilon D. That frequency at which the
4AF-1.18 What type of diode is made of C. Alpha grounded gate current gain has
a metal whisker touching a D. Beta decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1
very small semi-conductor die? kHz in a transistor
A. Zener diode 4AF-2.6 What is the meaning of the term
B. Varactor diode ++++beta++++ with regard to 4AF-2.11 What is the meaning of the
C. Junction diode bipolar transistors? term ++++transition region++++ with
D. Point contact diode A. The change of collector current with regard to a transistor?
respect to base A. An area of low charge density
4AF-1.19 What is one common use for current around the P-N junction
PIN diodes? B. The change of base current with B. The area of maximum P-type charge
A. As a constant current source respect to emitter current C. The area of maximum N-type
B. As a constant voltage source C. The change of collector current with charge
C. As an RF switch respect to emitter D. The point where wire leads are
D. As a high voltage rectifier current connected to the P- or N-
D. The change in base current with type material
4AF-1.20 What special type of diode is respect to gate current
often used in RF switches, 4AF-2.12 What does it mean for a
attenuators, and various types of phase 4AF-2.7 What is the term used to transistor to be ++++fully
shifting devices? express the ratio of change in saturated++++?
A. Tunnel diodes the DC collector current to a change in A. The collector current is at its
B. Varactor diodes base current in a bipolar maximum value
C. PIN diodes transistor? B. The collector current is at its
D. Junction diodes A. Alpha minimum value
B. Beta C. The transistor's Alpha is at its
4AF-2.1 What is the schematic symbol C. Gamma maximum value
for a PNP transistor [see graphics D. Delta D. The transistor's Beta is at its
addendum]? maximum value
A. 1 4AF-2.8 What is the meaning of the term
B. 2 ++++alpha cutoff frequency++++ 4AF-2.13 What does it mean for a
C. 3 with regard to bipolar transistors? transistor to be ++++cut off++++?
D. 4 A. The practical lower frequency limit of A. There is no base current
a transistor in B. The transistor is at its operating
4AF-2.2 What is the schematic symbol common emitter configuration point
for an NPN transistor [see graphics B. The practical upper frequency limit C. No current flows from emitter to
addendum]? of a transistor in collector
A. 1 common base configuration D. Maximum current flows from emitter
B. 2 to collector
4AF-3.5 Under what operating condition 4AF-4.5 What colors are available in
4AF-2.14 What is the schematic symbol does an SCR exhibit LEDs?
for a unijunction electrical characteristics similar to a A. Yellow, blue, red and brown
transistor [see graphics addendum]? forward-biased silicon B. Red, violet, yellow and peach
A. 1 rectifier? C. Violet, blue, orange and red
B. 2 A. During a switching transition D. Red, green, orange and yellow
C. 3 B. When it is used as a detector
D. 4 C. When it is gated "off" 4AF-4.6 What is the schematic symbol
D. When it is gated "on" for a neon lamp [see graphics
4AF-2.15 What are the elements of a addendum]?
unijunction transistor? 4AF-3.6 What is the schematic symbol A. 1
A. Base 1, base 2 and emitter for a TRIAC [see graphics addendum]? B. 2
B. Gate, cathode and anode A. 1 C. 3
C. Gate, base 1 and base 2 B. 2 D. 4
D. Gate, source and sink C. 3
D. 4 4AF-4.7 What type neon lamp is usually
4AF-2.16 For best efficiency and stability, used in amateur radio
where on the load- 4AF-3.7 What is the transistor called work?
line should a solid-state power amplifier which is fabricated as two A. NE-1
be operated? complementary SCRs in parallel with a B. NE-2
A. Just below the saturation point common gate terminal? C. NE-3
B. Just above the saturation point A. TRIAC D. NE-4
C. At the saturation point B. Bilateral SCR
D. At 1.414 times the saturation point C. Unijunction transistor 4AF-4.8 What is the DC starting voltage
D. Field effect transistor for an NE-2 neon lamp?
4AF-2.17 What two elements widely A. Approximately 67 volts
used in semiconductor devices 4AF-3.8 What are the three terminals of B. Approximately 5 volts
exhibit both metallic and non-metallic a TRIAC? C. Approximately 5.6 volts
characteristics? A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2 D. Approximately 110 volts
A. Silicon and gold B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
B. Silicon and germanium C. Base, emitter and collector 4AF-4.9 What is the AC starting voltage
C. Galena and germanium D. Gate, source and sink for an NE-2 neon lamp?
D. Galena and bismuth A. Approximately 110-V AC RMS
4AF-4.1 What is the schematic symbol B. Approximately 5-V AC RMS
4AF-3.1 What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode [see graphics C. Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS
for a silicon controlled addendum]? D. Approximately 48-V AC RMS
rectifier [see graphics addendum]? A. 1
A. 1 B. 2 4AF-4.10 How can a neon lamp be used
B. 2 C. 3 to check for the presence of
C. 3 D. 4 RF?
D. 4 A. A neon lamp will go out in the
4AF-4.2 What is the normal operating presence of RF
4AF-3.2 What are the three terminals of voltage and current for a B. A neon lamp will change color in the
an SCR? light-emitting diode? presence of RF
A. Anode, cathode and gate A. 60 volts and 20 mA C. A neon lamp will light only in the
B. Gate, source and sink B. 5 volts and 50 mA presence of very low
C. Base, collector and emitter C. 1.7 volts and 20 mA frequency RF
D. Gate, base 1 and base 2 D. 0.7 volts and 60 mA D. A neon lamp will light in the
presence of RF
4AF-3.3 What are the two stable 4AF-4.3 What type of bias is required for
operating conditions of an SCR? an LED to produce 4AF-5.1 What would be the bandwidth of
A. Conducting and nonconducting luminescence? a good crystal lattice
B. Oscillating and quiescent A. Reverse bias band-pass filter for a single-sideband
C. Forward conducting and reverse B. Forward bias phone emission?
conducting C. Zero bias A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
D. NPN conduction and PNP D. Inductive bias B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
conduction C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
4AF-4.4 What are the advantages of D. 15 kHz at -6 dB
4AF-3.4 When an SCR is in the using an LED?
++++triggered++++ or ++++on++++ A. Low power consumption and long 4AF-5.2 What would be the bandwidth of
condition, its life a good crystal lattice
electrical characteristics are similar to B. High lumens per cm per cm and low band-pass filter for a double-sideband
what other solid-state power consumption phone emission?
device (as measured between its C. High lumens per cm per cm and low A. 1 kHz at -6 dB
cathode and anode)? voltage requirement B. 500 Hz at -6 dB
A. The junction diode D. A current flows when the device is C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
B. The tunnel diode exposed to a light D. 15 kHz at -6 dB
C. The hot-carrier diode source
D. The varactor diode 4AF-5.3 What is a crystal lattice filter?
A. A power supply filter made with A. A Zener diode B. Maximum and minimum input
crisscrossed quartz B. A tunnel diode voltage, maximum output current
crystals C. An SCR and voltage
B. An audio filter made with 4 quartz D. A varactor diode C. Maximum and minimum input
crystals at 1-kHz voltage, minimum output current
intervals 4AG-1.4 What type of linear regulator is and maximum output voltage
C. A filter with infinitely wide and used in applications D. Maximum and minimum input
shallow skirts made using requiring efficient utilization of the voltage, minimum output voltage
quartz crystals primary power source? and maximum output current
D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and A. A constant current source
steep skirts made using B. A series regulator 4AG-2.1 What is the distinguishing
quartz crystals C. A shunt regulator feature of a Class A
D. A shunt current source amplifier?
4AF-5.4 What technique can be used to A. Output for less than 180 degrees of
construct low cost, high 4AG-1.5 What type of linear voltage the signal cycle
performance crystal lattice filters? regulator is used in B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of
A. Splitting and tumbling applications where the load on the the signal cycle
B. Tumbling and grinding unregulated voltage source C. Output for more than 180 degrees
C. Etching and splitting must be kept constant? and less than 360 degrees
D. Etching and grinding A. A constant current source of the signal cycle
B. A series regulator D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of
4AF-5.5 What determines the bandwidth C. A shunt current source the input signal cycle
and response shape in a D. A shunt regulator
crystal lattice filter? 4AG-2.2 What class of amplifier is
A. The relative frequencies of the 4AG-1.6 To obtain the best temperature distinguished by the presence
individual crystals stability, what should be of output throughout the entire signal
B. The center frequency chosen for the the operating voltage of the reference cycle and the input never
filter diode in a linear voltage goes into the cutoff region?
C. The amplitude of the RF stage regulator? A. Class A
preceding the filter A. Approximately 2.0 volts B. Class B
D. The amplitude of the signals B. Approximately 3.0 volts C. Class C
passing through the C. Approximately 6.0 volts D. Class D
filter D. Approximately 10.0 volts
4AG-2.3 What is the distinguishing
4AG-1.1 What is a ++++linear electronic 4AG-1.7 What is the meaning of the term characteristic of a Class B
voltage regulator++++? ++++remote sensing++++ with amplifier?
A. A regulator that has a ramp voltage regard to a linear voltage regulator? A. Output for the entire input signal
as its output A. The feedback connection to the cycle
B. A regulator in which the pass error amplifier is made B. Output for greater than 180 degrees
transistor switches from the directly to the load and less than 360
"off" state to the "on" state B. Sensing is accomplished by wireless degrees of the input signal cycle
C. A regulator in which the control inductive loops C. Output for less than 180 degrees of
device is switched on or C. The load connection is made the input signal cycle
off, with the duty cycle proportional to the outside the feedback loop D. Output for 180 degrees of the input
line or load D. The error amplifier compares the signal cycle
conditions input voltage to the
D. A regulator in which the conduction reference voltage 4AG-2.4 What class of amplifier is
of a control element is distinguished by the flow of
varied in direct proportion to the line 4AG-1.8 What is a ++++three-terminal current in the output essentially in 180
voltage or load current regulator++++? degree pulses?
A. A regulator that supplies three A. Class A
4AG-1.2 What is a ++++switching voltages with variable B. Class B
electronic voltage regulator++++? current C. Class C
A. A regulator in which the conduction B. A regulator that supplies three D. Class D
of a control element is voltages at a constant
varied in direct proportion to the line current 4AG-2.5 What is a ++++Class AB
voltage or load current C. A regulator containing three error amplifier++++?
B. A regulator that provides more than amplifiers and sensing A. Output is present for more than 180
one output voltage transistors degrees but less than
C. A regulator in which the control D. A regulator containing a voltage 360 degrees of the signal input cycle
device is switched on or reference, error B. Output is present for exactly 180
off, with the duty cycle proportional to the amplifier, sensing resistors and degrees of the input
line or load transistors, and a pass element signal cycle
conditions C. Output is present for the entire input
D. A regulator that gives a ramp 4AG-1.9 What are the important signal cycle
voltage at its output characteristics of a three- D. Output is present for less than 180
terminal regulator? degrees of the input
4AG-1.3 What device is usually used as A. Maximum and minimum input signal cycle
a stable reference voltage voltage, minimum output current
in a linear voltage regulator? and voltage
4AG-2.6 What is the distinguishing 4AG-3.3 What is a ++++pi-L- pi-network for impedance matching
feature of a ++++Class C network++++? between the final amplifier of
amplifier++++? A. A Phase Inverter Load network a vacuum-tube type transmitter and a
A. Output is present for less than 180 B. A network consisting of two multiband antenna?
degrees of the input inductors and two capacitors A. Greater transformation range
signal cycle C. A network with only three discrete B. Higher efficiency
B. Output is present for exactly 180 parts C. Lower losses
degrees of the input D. A matching network in which all D. Greater harmonic suppression
signal cycle components are isolated
C. Output is present for the entire input from ground 4AG-3.10 Which type of network
signal cycle provides the greatest harmonic
D. Output is present for more than 180 4AG-3.4 Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network suppression?
degrees but less than provide the greatest A. L-network
360 degrees of the input signal cycle harmonic suppression? B. Pi-network
A. L-network C. Pi-L-network
4AG-2.7 What class of amplifier is B. Pi-network D. Inverse-Pi network
distinguished by the bias C. Inverse L-network
being set well beyond cutoff? D. Pi-L-network 4AG-4.1 What are the three general
A. Class A groupings of filters?
B. Class B 4AG-3.5 What are the three most A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
C. Class C commonly used networks to B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive
D. Class AB accomplish a match between an C. Audio, radio and capacitive
amplifying device and a D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce
4AG-2.8 Which class of amplifier transmission line?
provides the highest efficiency? A. M-network, pi-network and T- 4AG-4.2 What is a ++++constant-K
A. Class A network filter++++?
B. Class B B. T-network, M-network and Q- A. A filter that uses Boltzmann's
C. Class C network constant
D. Class AB C. L-network, pi-network and pi-L- B. A filter whose velocity factor is
network constant over a wide
4AG-2.9 Which class of amplifier has the D. L-network, M-network and C- range of frequencies
highest linearity and network C. A filter whose product of the series-
least distortion? and shunt-element
A. Class A 4AG-3.6 How are networks able to impedances is a constant for all
B. Class B transform one impedance to frequencies
C. Class C another? D. A filter whose input impedance
D. Class AB A. Resistances in the networks varies widely over the
substitute for resistances in design bandwidth
4AG-2.10 Which class of amplifier has the load
an operating angle of more B. The matching network introduces 4AG-4.3 What is an advantage of a
than 180 degrees but less than 360 negative resistance to constant-k filter?
degrees when driven by a sine cancel the resistive part of an impedance A. It has high attenuation for signals on
wave signal? C. The matching network introduces frequencies far
A. Class A transconductance to cancel removed from the passband
B. Class B the reactive part of an impedance B. It can match impedances over a
C. Class C D. The matching network can cancel wide range of frequencies
D. Class AB the reactive part of an C. It uses elliptic functions
impedance and change the value of the D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to
4AG-3.1 What is an ++++L- resistive part of an the trap frequency can
network++++? impedance be varied
A. A network consisting entirely of four
inductors 4AG-3.7 Which type of network offers the 4AG-4.4 What is an ++++m-derived
B. A network consisting of an inductor greater transformation filter++++?
and a capacitor ratio? A. A filter whose input impedance
C. A network used to generate a A. L-network varies widely over the
leading phase angle B. Pi-network design bandwidth
D. A network used to generate a C. Constant-K B. A filter whose product of the series-
lagging phase angle D. Constant-M and shunt-element
impedances is a constant for all
4AG-3.2 What is a ++++pi-network++++? 4AG-3.8 Why is the L-network of limited frequencies
A. A network consisting entirely of four utility in impedance C. A filter whose schematic shape is
inductors or four matching? the letter "M"
capacitors A. It matches a small impedance range D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate
B. A Power Incidence network B. It has limited power handling undesired
C. An antenna matching network that is capabilities frequencies too near cutoff for a
isolated from ground C. It is thermally unstable constant-k filter.
D. A network consisting of one inductor D. It is prone to self resonance
and two capacitors or 4AG-4.5 What are the distinguishing
two inductors and one capacitor 4AG-3.9 What is an advantage of using a features of a Butterworth
pi-L-network instead of a filter?
A. A filter whose product of the series- 4AG-5.5 How is the positive feedback 4AG-6.2 How is an F3E FM-phone
and shunt-element coupled to the input in a emission produced?
impedances is a constant for all Pierce oscillator? A. With a balanced modulator on the
frequencies A. Through a tapped coil audio amplifier
B. It only requires capacitors B. Through link coupling B. With a reactance modulator on the
C. It has a maximally flat response C. Through a capacitive divider oscillator
over its passband D. Through capacitive coupling C. With a reactance modulator on the
D. It requires only inductors final amplifier
4AG-5.6 Which of the three major D. With a balanced modulator on the
4AG-4.6 What are the distinguishing oscillator circuits used in oscillator
features of a Chebyshev amateur radio equipment utilizes a
filter? quartz crystal? 4AG-6.3 What is a ++++reactance
A. It has a maximally flat response over A. Negative feedback modulator++++?
its passband B. Hartley A. A circuit that acts as a variable
B. It allows ripple in the passband C. Colpitts resistance or capacitance
C. It only requires inductors D. Pierce to produce FM signals
D. A filter whose product of the series- B. A circuit that acts as a variable
and shunt-element 4AG-5.7 What is the ++++piezoelectric resistance or capacitance
impedances is a constant for all effect++++? to produce AM signals
frequencies A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by C. A circuit that acts as a variable
the application of a inductance or capacitance
4AG-4.7 When would it be more voltage to produce FM signals
desirable to use an m-derived B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal D. A circuit that acts as a variable
filter over a constant-k filter? by the application of a inductance or capacitance
A. When the response must be magnetic field to produce AM signals
maximally flat at one frequency C. The generation of electrical energy
B. When you need more attenuation at by the application of 4AG-6.4 What is a ++++balanced
a certain frequency that light modulator++++?
is too close to the cut-off frequency for a D. Reversed conduction states when a A. An FM modulator that produces a
constant-k filter P-N junction is exposed balanced deviation
C. When the number of components to light B. A modulator that produces a double
must be minimized sideband, suppressed
D. When high power levels must be 4AG-5.8 What is the major advantage of carrier signal
filtered a Pierce oscillator? C. A modulator that produces a single
A. It is easy to neutralize sideband, suppressed
4AG-5.1 What condition must exist for a B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit carrier signal
circuit to oscillate? C. It can be tuned over a wide range D. A modulator that produces a full
A. It must have a gain of less than 1 D. It has a high output power carrier signal
B. It must be neutralized
C. It must have positive feedback 4AG-5.9 Which type of oscillator circuit is 4AG-6.5 How can a single-sideband
sufficient to overcome commonly used in a phone signal be generated?
losses VFO? A. By driving a product detector with a
D. It must have negative feedback A. Pierce DSB signal
sufficient to cancel the B. Colpitts B. By using a reactance modulator
input C. Hartley followed by a mixer
D. Negative feedback C. By using a loop modulator followed
4AG-5.2 What are three major oscillator by a mixer
circuits often used in 4AG-5.10 Why is the Colpitts oscillator D. By using a balanced modulator
amateur radio equipment? circuit commonly used in followed by a filter
A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback a VFO?
B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft A. The frequency is a linear function of 4AG-6.6 How can a double-sideband
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce the load impedance phone signal be generated?
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce B. It can be used with or without crystal A. By feeding a phase modulated
lock-in signal into a low pass filter
4AG-5.3 How is the positive feedback C. It is stable B. By using a balanced modulator
coupled to the input in a D. It has high output power followed by a filter
Hartley oscillator? C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator
A. Through a neutralizing capacitor 4AG-6.1 What is meant by the term D. By modulating the plate voltage of a
B. Through a capacitive divider ++++modulation++++? class C amplifier
C. Through link coupling A. The squelching of a signal until a
D. Through a tapped coil critical signal-to-noise 4AG-7.1 How is the efficiency of a power
ratio is reached amplifier determined?
4AG-5.4 How is the positive feedback B. Carrier rejection through phase A. Efficiency = (RF power out / DC
coupled to the input in a nulling power in) X 100%
Colpitts oscillator? C. A linear amplification mode B. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF
A. Through a tapped coil D. A mixing process whereby power out) X 100%
B. Through link coupling information is imposed upon a C. Efficiency = (RF power in / DC
C. Through a capacitive divider carrier power in) X 100%
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor D. Efficiency = (DC power in / RF
power in) X 100%
the output C. A detector that uses a mixing
4AG-7.2 For reasonably efficient process with a locally
operation of a vacuum-tube Class 4AG-7.8 What order of Q is required by a generated carrier
C amplifier, what should the plate-load tank-circuit sufficient D. A detector used to detect cross-
resistance be with 1500- to reduce harmonics to an acceptable modulation products
volts at the plate and 500-milliamperes level?
plate current? A. Approximately 120 4AG-8.4 How are FM-phone signals
A. 2000 ohms B. Approximately 12 detected?
B. 1500 ohms C. Approximately 1200 A. By a balanced modulator
C. 4800 ohms D. Approximately 1.2 B. By a frequency discriminator
D. 480 ohms C. By a product detector
4AG-7.9 How can parasitic oscillations D. By a phase splitter
4AG-7.3 For reasonably efficient be eliminated from a power
operation of a vacuum-tube Class amplifier? 4AG-8.5 What is a ++++frequency
B amplifier, what should the plate-load A. By tuning for maximum SWR discriminator++++?
resistance be with 800- B. By tuning for maximum power A. A circuit for detecting FM signals
volts at the plate and 75-milliamperes output B. A circuit for filtering two closely
plate current? C. By neutralization adjacent signals
A. 679.4 ohms D. By tuning the output C. An automatic bandswitching circuit
B. 60 ohms D. An FM generator
C. 6794 ohms 4AG-7.10 What is the procedure for
D. 10,667 ohms tuning a power amplifier 4AG-8.6 What is the ++++mixing
having an output pi-network? process++++?
4AG-7.4 For reasonably efficient A. Adjust the loading capacitor to A. The elimination of noise in a
operation of a vacuum-tube Class maximum capacitance and wideband receiver by phase
A amplifier, what should the plate-load then dip the plate current with the tuning comparison
resistance be with 250- capacitor B. The elimination of noise in a
volts at the plate and 25-milliamperes B. Alternately increase the plate wideband receiver by phase
plate current? current with the tuning differentiation
A. 7692 ohms capacitor and dip the plate current with C. Distortion caused by auroral
B. 3250 ohms the loading capacitor propagation
C. 325 ohms C. Adjust the tuning capacitor to D. The combination of two signals to
D. 769.2 ohms maximum capacitance and then produce sum and
dip the plate current with the loading difference frequencies
4AG-7.5 For reasonably efficient capacitor
operation of a transistor D. Alternately increase the plate 4AG-8.7 What are the principal
amplifier, what should the load current with the loading frequencies which appear at the
resistance be with 12-volts at capacitor and dip the plate current with output of a mixer circuit?
the collector and 5 watts power output? the tuning capacitor A. Two and four times the original
A. 100.3 ohms frequency
B. 14.4 ohms 4AG-8.1 What is the process of B. The sum, difference and square root
C. 10.3 ohms ++++detection++++? of the input
D. 144 ohms A. The process of masking out the frequencies
intelligence on a received C. The original frequencies and the
4AG-7.6 What is the ++++flywheel carrier to make an S-meter operational sum and difference
effect++++? B. The recovery of intelligence from the frequencies
A. The continued motion of a radio modulated RF signal D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input
wave through space when the C. The modulation of a carrier frequency
transmitter is turned off D. The mixing of noise with the
B. The back and forth oscillation of received signal 4AG-8.8 What are the advantages of the
electrons in an LC frequency-conversion
circuit 4AG-8.2 What is the principle of process?
C. The use of a capacitor in a power detection in a diode detector? A. Automatic squelching and increased
supply to filter A. Rectification and filtering of RF selectivity
rectified AC B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage B. Increased selectivity and optimal
D. The transmission of a radio signal to C. Mixing with noise in the transition tuned-circuit design
a distant station by region of the diode C. Automatic soft limiting and
several hops through the ionosphere D. The change of reactance in the automatic squelching
diode with respect to D. Automatic detection in the RF
4AG-7.7 How can a power amplifier be frequency amplifier and increased
neutralized? selectivity
A. By increasing the grid drive 4AG-8.3 What is a ++++product
B. By feeding back an in-phase detector++++? 4AG-8.9 What occurs in a receiver when
component of the output to the A. A detector that provides local an excessive amount of
input oscillations for input to signal energy reaches the mixer circuit?
C. By feeding back an out-of-phase the mixer A. Spurious mixer products are
component of the output to B. A detector that amplifies and generated
the input narrows the band-pass B. Mixer blanking occurs
D. By feeding back an out-of-phase frequencies C. Automatic limiting occurs
component of the input to D. A beat frequency is generated
C. Noise figure performance B. Emitter bypass
4AG-9.1 How much gain should be used D. Bypass undesired signals C. Input coupling
in the RF amplifier stage of D. Hum filtering
a receiver? 4AG-10.1 What type of circuit is shown in
A. As much gain as possible short of Figure 4AG-10 [see graphics 4AG-12.1 What type of circuit is shown in
self oscillation addendum]? Figure 4AG-12
B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals A. Switching voltage regulator [see graphics addendum]?
to overcome noise B. Linear voltage regulator A. Switching voltage regulator
generated in the first mixer stage C. Common emitter amplifier B. Grounded emitter amplifier
C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals D. Emitter follower amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator
below the noise of the D. Emitter follower
first mixer stage 4AG-10.2 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the
D. It depends on the amplification purpose of R1 and R2 [see graphics 4AG-12.2 What is the purpose of D1 in
factor of the first IF addendum]? the circuit shown in Figure
stage A. Load resistors 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
B. Fixed bias A. Line voltage stabilization
4AG-9.2 Why should the RF amplifier C. Self bias B. Voltage reference
stage of a receiver only have D. Feedback C. Peak clipping
sufficient gain to allow weak signals to D. Hum filtering
overcome noise generated 4AG-10.3 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the
in the first mixer stage? purpose of C1 [see graphics 4AG-12.3 What is the purpose of Q1 in
A. To prevent the sum and difference addendum]? the circuit shown in Figure
frequencies from being A. Decoupling 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
generated B. Output coupling A. It increases the output ripple
B. To prevent bleed-through of the C. Self bias B. It provides a constant load for the
desired signal D. Input coupling voltage source
C. To prevent the generation of C. It increases the current handling
spurious mixer products 4AG-10.4 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the capability
D. To prevent bleed-through of the purpose of C3 [see graphics D. It provides D1 with current
local oscillator addendum]?
A. AC feedback 4AG-12.4 What is the purpose of C1 in
4AG-9.3 What is the primary purpose of B. Input coupling the circuit shown in Figure
an RF amplifier in a C. Power supply decoupling 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
receiver? D. Emitter bypass A. It resonates at the ripple frequency
A. To provide most of the receiver gain B. It provides fixed bias for Q1
B. To vary the receiver image rejection 4AG-10.5 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the C. It decouples the output
by utilizing the AGC purpose of R3 [see graphics D. It filters the supply voltage
C. To improve the receiver's noise addendum]?
figure A. Fixed bias 4AG-12.5 What is the purpose of C2 in
D. To develop the AGC voltage B. Emitter bypass the circuit shown in Figure
C. Output load resistor 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
4AG-9.4 What is an ++++i-f amplifier D. Self bias A. It bypasses hum around D1
stage++++? B. It is a brute force filter for the output
A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier 4AG-11.1 What type of circuit is shown in C. To self resonate at the hum
B. A receiver demodulator Figure 4AG-11 [see graphics frequency
C. A receiver filter addendum]? D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
D. A buffer oscillator A. High-gain amplifier
B. Common-collector amplifier 4AG-12.6 What is the purpose of C3 in
4AG-9.5 What factors should be C. Linear voltage regulator the circuit shown in Figure
considered when selecting an D. Grounded-emitter amplifier 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
intermediate frequency? A. It prevents self-oscillation
A. Cross-modulation distortion and 4AG-11.2 In Figure 4AG-11, what is the B. It provides brute force filtering of the
interference purpose of R [see graphics addendum]? output
B. Interference to other services A. Emitter load C. It provides fixed bias for Q1
C. Image rejection and selectivity B. Fixed bias D. It clips the peaks of the ripple
D. Noise figure and distortion C. Collector load
D. Voltage regulation 4AG-12.7 What is the purpose of R1 in
4AG-9.6 What is the primary purpose of the circuit shown in Figure
the first i-f amplifier 4AG-11.3 In Figure 4AG-11, what is the 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
stage in a receiver? purpose of C1 [see graphics A. It provides a constant load to the
A. Noise figure performance addendum]? voltage source
B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion A. Input coupling B. It couples hum to D1
C. Dynamic response B. Output coupling C. It supplies current to D1
D. Selectivity C. Emitter bypass D. It bypasses hum around D1
D. Collector bypass
4AG-9.7 What is the primary purpose of 4AG-12.8 What is the purpose of R2 in
the final i-f amplifier 4AG-11.4 In Figure 4AG-11, what is the the circuit shown in Figure
stage in a receiver? purpose of C2 [see graphics 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]?
A. Dynamic response addendum]? A. It provides fixed bias for Q1
B. Gain A. Output coupling B. It provides fixed bias for D1
C. It decouples hum from D1 designed to form a picture C. By using a reactance modulator on
D. It provides a constant minimum load C. The transmission of printed pictures an oscillator
for Q1 by electrical means D. By using a balanced modulator on
D. The transmission of moving pictures an oscillator
4AG-13.1 What value capacitor would be by electrical means
required to tune a 20- 4AH-2.2 How can a double-sideband
microhenry inductor to resonate in the 4AH-1.4 What is emission phone signal be produced?
80-meter wavelength band? ++++F3C++++? A. By using a reactance modulator on
A. 150 picofarads A. Voice transmission an oscillator
B. 200 picofarads B. Slow Scan TV B. By varying the voltage to the
C. 100 picofarads C. RTTY varactor in an oscillator
D. 100 microfarads D. Facsimile circuit
C. By using a phase detector, oscillator
4AG-13.2 What value inductor would be 4AH-1.5 What type of emission is and filter in a
required to tune a 100- produced when a frequency feedback loop
picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40- modulated transmitter is modulated by a D. By modulating the plate supply
meter wavelength band? facsimile signal? voltage to a class C
A. 200 microhenrys A. F3C amplifier
B. 150 microhenrys B. A3C
C. 5 millihenrys C. F3F 4AH-2.3 How can a single-sideband
D. 5 microhenrys D. A3F phone signal be produced?
A. By producing a double sideband
4AG-13.3 What value capacitor would be 4AH-1.6 What is emission signal with a balanced
required to tune a 2- ++++A3F++++? modulator and then removing the
microhenry inductor to resonate in the A. RTTY unwanted sideband by filtering
20-meter wavelength band? B. Television B. By producing a double sideband
A. 64 picofarads C. SSB signal with a balanced
B. 6 picofarads D. Modulated CW modulator and then removing the
C. 12 picofarads unwanted sideband by heterodyning
D. 88 microfarads 4AH-1.7 What type of emission is C. By producing a double sideband
produced when an amplitude signal with a balanced
4AG-13.4 What value inductor would be modulated transmitter is modulated by a modulator and then removing the
required to tune a 15- television signal? unwanted sideband by mixing
picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15- A. F3F D. By producing a double sideband
meter wavelength band? B. A3F signal with a balanced
A. 2 microhenrys C. A3C modulator and then removing the
B. 30 microhenrys D. F3C unwanted sideband by
C. 4 microhenrys neutralization
D. 15 microhenrys 4AH-1.8 What is emission
++++F3F++++? 4AH-3.1 What is meant by the term
4AG-13.5 What value capacitor would be A. Modulated CW ++++deviation ratio++++?
required to tune a 100- B. Facsimile A. The ratio of the audio modulating
microhenry inductor to resonate in the C. RTTY frequency to the center
160-meter wavelength band? D. Television carrier frequency
A. 78 picofarads B. The ratio of the maximum carrier
B. 25 picofarads 4AH-1.9 What type of emission is frequency deviation to the
C. 405 picofarads produced when a frequency highest audio modulating frequency
D. 40.5 microfarads modulated transmitter is modulated by a C. The ratio of the carrier center
television signal? frequency to the audio
4AH-1.1 What is emission A. A3F modulating frequency
++++A3C++++? B. A3C D. The ratio of the highest audio
A. Facsimile C. F3F modulating frequency to the
B. RTTY D. F3C average audio modulating frequency
C. ATV
D. Slow Scan TV 4AH-1.10 What type of emission results 4AH-3.2 In an FM-phone signal, what is
when a single sideband the term for the maximum
4AH-1.2 What type of emission is transmitter is used for slow-scan deviation from the carrier frequency
produced when an amplitude television? divided by the maximum audio
modulated transmitter is modulated by a A. J3A modulating frequency?
facsimile signal? B. F3F A. Deviation index
A. A3F C. A3F B. Modulation index
B. A3C D. J3F C. Deviation ratio
C. F3F D. Modulation ratio
D. F3C 4AH-2.1 How can an FM-phone signal
be produced? 4AH-3.3 What is the deviation ratio for an
4AH-1.3 What is ++++facsimile++++? A. By modulating the supply voltage to FM-phone signal having
A. The transmission of tone-modulated a class-B amplifier a maximum frequency swing of plus or
telegraphy B. By modulating the supply voltage to minus 5 kHz and accepting a
B. The transmission of a pattern of a class-C amplifier maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz?
printed characters A. 60
B. 0.16 A. 6000
C. 0.6 B. 3 4AH-6.2 What is meant by referring to
D. 1.66 C. 2000 electromagnetic waves as
D. 1/3 ++++horizontally polarized++++?
4AH-3.4 What is the deviation ratio of an A. The electric field is parallel to the
FM-phone signal having 4AH-5.1 What are ++++electromagnetic earth
a maximum frequency swing of plus or waves++++? B. The magnetic field is parallel to the
minus 7.5 kHz and accepting A. Alternating currents in the core of an earth
a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? electromagnet C. Both the electric and magnetic fields
A. 2.14 B. A wave consisting of two electric are horizontal
B. 0.214 fields at right angles to D. Both the electric and magnetic fields
C. 0.47 each other are vertical
D. 47 C. A wave consisting of an electric field
and a magnetic field 4AH-6.3 What is meant by referring to
4AH-4.1 What is meant by the term at right angles to each other electromagnetic waves as
++++modulation index++++? D. A wave consisting of two magnetic having ++++circular polarization++++?
A. The processor index fields at right angles to A. The electric field is bent into a
B. The ratio between the deviation of a each other circular shape
frequency modulated B. The electric field rotates
signal and the modulating frequency 4AH-5.2 What is a ++++wave front++++? C. The electromagnetic wave
C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio A. A voltage pulse in a conductor continues to circle the earth
D. The ratio of the maximum carrier B. A current pulse in a conductor D. The electromagnetic wave has been
frequency deviation to the C. A voltage pulse across a resistor generated by a quad
highest audio modulating frequency D. A fixed point in an electromagnetic antenna
wave
4AH-4.2 In an FM-phone signal, what is 4AH-6.4 When the electric field is
the term for the ratio 4AH-5.3 At what speed do perpendicular to the surface
between the deviation of the frequency- electromagnetic waves travel in free of the earth, what is the polarization of
modulated signal and the space? the electromagnetic
modulating frequency? A. Approximately 300 million meters wave?
A. FM compressibility per second A. Circular
B. Quieting index B. Approximately 468 million meters B. Horizontal
C. Percentage of modulation per second C. Vertical
D. Modulation index C. Approximately 186,300 feet per D. Elliptical
second
4AH-4.3 How does the modulation index D. Approximately 300 million miles per 4AH-6.5 When the magnetic field is
of a phase-modulated second parallel to the surface of the
emission vary with the modulated earth, what is the polarization of the
frequency? 4AH-5.4 What are the two interrelated electromagnetic wave?
A. The modulation index increases as fields considered to make A. Circular
the RF carrier frequency up an electromagnetic wave? B. Horizontal
(the modulated frequency) increases A. An electric field and a current field C. Elliptical
B. The modulation index decreases as B. An electric field and a magnetic field D. Vertical
the RF carrier frequency C. An electric field and a voltage field
(the modulated frequency) increases D. A voltage field and a current field 4AH-6.6 When the magnetic field is
C. The modulation index varies with perpendicular to the surface
the square root of the RF 4AH-5.5 Why do electromagnetic waves of the earth, what is the polarization of
carrier frequency (the modulated not penetrate a good the electromagnetic
frequency) conductor to any great extent? field?
D. The modulation index does not A. The electromagnetic field induces A. Horizontal
depend on the RF carrier currents in the insulator B. Circular
frequency (the modulated frequency) B. The oxide on the conductor surface C. Elliptical
acts as a shield D. Vertical
4AH-4.4 In an FM-phone signal having a C. Because of Eddy currents
maximum frequency D. The resistivity of the conductor 4AH-6.7 When the electric field is parallel
deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the dissipates the field to the surface of the
carrier frequency, what earth, what is the polarization of the
is the modulation index when the 4AH-6.1 What is meant by referring to electromagnetic wave?
modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? electromagnetic waves A. Vertical
A. 3 traveling in free space? B. Horizontal
B. 0.3 A. The electric and magnetic fields C. Circular
C. 3000 eventually become aligned D. Elliptical
D. 1000 B. Propagation in a medium with a high
refractive index 4AH-7.1 What is a ++++sine wave++++?
4AH-4.5 What is the modulation index of C. The electromagnetic wave A. A constant-voltage, varying-current
an FM-phone transmitter encounters the ionosphere and wave
producing an instantaneous carrier returns to its source B. A wave whose amplitude at any
deviation of 6 kHz when D. Propagation of energy across a given instant can be
modulated with a 2-kHz modulating vacuum by changing electric represented by a point on a wheel
frequency? and magnetic fields rotating at a uniform speed
C. A wave following the laws of the A. Square wave 4AH-8.2 What is the term used in
trigonometric tangent B. Sine wave reference to a DC voltage that
function C. Cosine wave would cause the same heating in a
D. A wave whose polarity changes in a D. Tangent wave resistor as a certain value of
random manner AC voltage?
4AH-7.9 What is a ++++sawtooth++++ A. Cosine voltage
4AH-7.2 How many times does a sine wave? B. Power factor
wave cross the zero axis in A. A wave that alternates between two C. Root mean square
one complete cycle? values and spends an D. Average voltage
A. 180 times equal time at each level
B. 4 times B. A wave with a straight line rise time 4AH-8.3 What would be the most
C. 2 times faster than the fall accurate way of determining the
D. 360 times time (or vice versa) rms voltage of a complex waveform?
C. A wave that produces a phase angle A. By using a grid dip meter
4AH-7.3 How many degrees are there in tangent to the unit B. By measuring the voltage with a
one complete sine wave circle D'Arsonval meter
cycle? D. A wave whose amplitude at any C. By using an absorption wavemeter
A. 90 degrees given instant can be D. By measuring the heating effect in a
B. 270 degrees represented by a point on a wheel known resistor
C. 180 degrees rotating at a uniform speed
D. 360 degrees 4AH-8.4 What is the rms voltage at a
4AH-7.10 What type of wave is common household electrical
4AH-7.4 What is the ++++period++++ of characterized by a rise time power outlet?
a wave? significantly faster than the fall time (or A. 117-V AC
A. The time required to complete one vice versa)? B. 331-V AC
cycle A. A cosine wave C. 82.7-V AC
B. The number of degrees in one cycle B. A square wave D. 165.5-V AC
C. The number of zero crossings in C. A sawtooth wave
one cycle D. A sine wave 4AH-8.5 What is the peak voltage at a
D. The amplitude of the wave common household electrical
4AH-7.11 Which sine waves make up a outlet?
4AH-7.5 What is a ++++square++++ sawtooth wave? A. 234 volts
wave? A. The fundamental frequency and all B. 165.5 volts
A. A wave with only 300 degrees in prime harmonics C. 117 volts
one cycle B. The fundamental frequency and all D. 331 volts
B. A wave which abruptly changes even harmonics
back and forth between two C. The fundamental frequency and all 4AH-8.6 What is the peak-to-peak
voltage levels and which remains an odd harmonics voltage at a common household
equal time at each level D. The fundamental frequency and all electrical outlet?
C. A wave that makes four zero harmonics A. 234 volts
crossings per cycle B. 117 volts
D. A wave in which the positive and 4AH-7.12 What type of wave is made up C. 331 volts
negative excursions occupy of sine waves at the D. 165.5 volts
unequal portions of the cycle time fundamental frequency and all the
harmonics? 4AH-8.7 What is the rms voltage of a
4AH-7.6 What is a wave called which A. A sawtooth wave 165-volt peak pure sine
abruptly changes back and B. A square wave wave?
forth between two voltage levels and C. A sine wave A. 233-V AC
which remains an equal time D. A cosine wave B. 330-V AC
at each level? C. 58.3-V AC
A. A sine wave 4AH-8.1 What is the meaning of the term D. 117-V AC
B. A cosine wave ++++root mean square++++ value of
C. A square wave an AC voltage? 4AH-8.8 What is the rms value of a 331-
D. A rectangular wave A. The value of an AC voltage found by volt peak-to-peak pure
squaring the average sine wave?
4AH-7.7 Which sine waves make up a value of the peak AC voltage A. 117-V AC
square wave? B. The value of a DC voltage that B. 165-V AC
A. 0.707 times the fundamental would cause the same heating C. 234-V AC
frequency effect in a given resistor as a peak AC D. 300-V AC
B. The fundamental frequency and all voltage
odd and even harmonics C. The value of an AC voltage that 4AH-9.1 For many types of voices, what
C. The fundamental frequency and all would cause the same is the ratio of PEP to
even harmonics heating effect in a given resistor as a DC average power during a modulation peak
D. The fundamental frequency and all voltage of the same in a single-sideband phone
odd harmonics value signal?
D. The value of an AC voltage found by A. Approximately 1.0 to 1
4AH-7.8 What type of wave is made up taking the square root B. Approximately 25 to 1
of sine waves of the of the average AC value C. Approximately 2.5 to 1
fundamental frequency and all the odd D. Approximately 100 to 1
harmonics?
4AH-9.2 In a single-sideband phone the signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70-meter A. An antenna for rejecting interfering
signal, what determines the wavelength band signals
PEP-to-average power ratio? receiver? B. A highly sensitive antenna with
A. The frequency of the modulating A. In the atmosphere maximum gain in all
signal B. In the ionosphere directions
B. The degree of carrier suppression C. In the receiver front end C. An antenna capable of being used
C. The speech characteristics D. Man-made noise on more than one band
D. The amplifier power because of the presence of parallel LC
4AI-1.1 What is meant by the term networks
4AH-9.3 What is the approximate DC ++++antenna gain++++? D. An antenna with a large capture
input power to a Class B RF A. The numerical ratio relating the area
power amplifier stage in an FM-phone radiated signal strength
transmitter when the PEP of an antenna to that of another antenna 4AI-2.2 What is an advantage of using a
output power is 1500 watts? B. The ratio of the signal in the forward trap antenna?
A. Approximately 900 watts direction to the A. It has high directivity in the high-
B. Approximately 1765 watts signal in the back direction frequency amateur bands
C. Approximately 2500 watts C. The ratio of the amount of power B. It has high gain
D. Approximately 3000 watts produced by the antenna C. It minimizes harmonic radiation
compared to the output power of the D. It may be used for multiband
4AH-9.4 What is the approximate DC transmitter operation
input power to a Class C RF D. The final amplifier gain minus the
power amplifier stage in a RTTY transmission line losses 4AI-2.3 What is a disadvantage of using
transmitter when the PEP output (including any phasing lines present) a trap antenna?
power is 1000 watts? A. It will radiate harmonics
A. Approximately 850 watts 4AI-1.2 What is the term for a numerical B. It can only be used for single band
B. Approximately 1250 watts ratio which relates the operation
C. Approximately 1667 watts performance of one antenna to that of C. It is too sharply directional at the
D. Approximately 2000 watts another real or theoretical lower amateur
antenna? frequencies
4AH-9.5 What is the approximate DC A. Effective radiated power D. It must be neutralized
input power to a Class AB RF B. Antenna gain
power amplifier stage in an unmodulated C. Conversion gain 4AI-2.4 What is the principle of a trap
carrier transmitter when D. Peak effective power antenna?
the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. Beamwidth may be controlled by
A. Approximately 250 watts 4AI-1.3 What is meant by the term non-linear impedances
B. Approximately 600 watts ++++antenna bandwidth++++? B. The traps form a high impedance to
C. Approximately 800 watts A. Antenna length divided by the isolate parts of the
D. Approximately 1000 watts number of elements antenna
B. The frequency range over which an C. The effective radiated power can be
4AH-10.1 Where is the noise generated antenna can be expected increased if the space
which primarily determines to perform well around the antenna "sees" a high
the signal-to-noise ratio in a 160-meter C. The angle between the half-power impedance
wavelength band radiation points D. The traps increase the antenna gain
receiver? D. The angle formed between two
A. In the detector imaginary lines drawn through 4AI-3.1 What is a parasitic element of an
B. Man-made noise the ends of the elements antenna?
C. In the receiver front end A. An element polarized 90 degrees
D. In the atmosphere 4AI-1.4 How can the approximate opposite the driven element
beamwidth of a rotatable beam B. An element dependent on the
4AH-10.2 Where is the noise generated antenna be determined? antenna structure for support
which primarily determines A. Note the two points where the signal C. An element that receives its
the signal-to-noise ratio in a 2-meter strength of the excitation from mutual
wavelength band receiver? antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum coupling rather than from a transmission
A. In the receiver front end signal point and compute line
B. Man-made noise the angular difference D. A transmission line that radiates
C. In the atmosphere B. Measure the ratio of the signal radio-frequency energy
D. In the ionosphere strengths of the radiated
power lobes from the front and rear of 4AI-3.2 How does a parasitic element
4AH-10.3 Where is the noise generated the antenna generate an electromagnetic
which primarily determines C. Draw two imaginary lines through field?
the signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25-meter the ends of the elements A. By the RF current received from a
wavelength band and measure the angle between the lines connected transmission
receiver? D. Measure the ratio of the signal line
A. In the audio amplifier strengths of the radiated B. By interacting with the earth's
B. In the receiver front end power lobes from the front and side of magnetic field
C. In the ionosphere the antenna C. By altering the phase of the current
D. Man-made noise on the driven element
4AI-2.1 What is a ++++trap D. By currents induced into the
4AH-10.4 Where is the noise generated antenna++++? element from a surrounding
which primarily determines electric field
and the length/diameter ratio of the A. By installing a good ground radial
4AI-3.3 How does the length of the conductors system
reflector element of a C. It is a constant for all antennas since B. By isolating the coax shield from
parasitic element beam antenna it is a physical ground
compare with that of the driven constant C. By shortening the vertical
element? D. Sunspot activity and the time of day D. By lengthening the vertical
A. It is about 5% longer
B. It is about 5% shorter 4AI-5.1 What is a ++++driven 4AI-6.5 Why does a half-wave antenna
C. It is twice as long element++++ of an antenna? operate at very high
D. It is one-half as long A. Always the rearmost element efficiency?
B. Always the forwardmost element A. Because it is non-resonant
4AI-3.4 How does the length of the C. The element fed by the transmission B. Because the conductor resistance is
director element of a line low compared to the
parasitic element beam antenna D. The element connected to the radiation resistance
compare with that of the driven rotator C. Because earth-induced currents add
element? to its radiated power
A. It is about 5% longer 4AI-5.2 What is the usual electrical D. Because it has less corona from the
B. It is about 5% shorter length of a driven element element ends than other
C. It is one-half as long in an HF beam antenna? types of antennas
D. It is twice as long A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/2 wavelength 4AI-7.1 What is a ++++folded
4AI-4.1 What is meant by the term C. 3/4 wavelength dipole++++ antenna?
++++radiation resistance++++ for an D. 1 wavelength A. A dipole that is one-quarter
antenna? wavelength long
A. Losses in the antenna elements and 4AI-5.3 What is the term for an antenna B. A ground plane antenna
feed line element which is supplied C. A dipole whose ends are connected
B. The specific impedance of the power from a transmitter through a by another one-half
antenna transmission line? wavelength piece of wire
C. An equivalent resistance that would A. Driven element D. A fictional antenna used in
dissipate the same B. Director element theoretical discussions to
amount of power as that radiated from an C. Reflector element replace the radiation resistance
antenna D. Parasitic element
D. The resistance in the trap coils to 4AI-7.2 How does the bandwidth of a
received signals 4AI-6.1 What is meant by the term folded dipole antenna compare
++++antenna efficiency++++? with that of a simple dipole antenna?
4AI-4.2 What is the term used for an A. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / A. It is 0.707 times the simple dipole
equivalent resistance which transmission resistance) X 100% bandwidth
would dissipate the same amount of B. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / B. It is essentially the same
energy as that radiated from total resistance) X 100% C. It is less than 50% that of a simple
an antenna? C. Efficiency = (total resistance / dipole
A. Space resistance radiation resistance) X 100% D. It is greater
B. Loss resistance D. Efficiency = (effective radiated
C. Transmission line loss power / transmitter output) X 100% 4AI-7.3 What is the input terminal
D. Radiation resistance impedance at the center of a
4AI-6.2 What is the term for the ratio of folded dipole antenna?
4AI-4.3 Why is the value of the radiation the radiation A. 300 ohms
resistance of an resistance of an antenna to the total B. 72 ohms
antenna important? resistance of the system? C. 50 ohms
A. Knowing the radiation resistance A. Effective radiated power D. 450 ohms
makes it possible to match B. Radiation conversion loss
impedances for maximum power transfer C. Antenna efficiency 4AI-8.1 What is the meaning of the term
B. Knowing the radiation resistance D. Beamwidth ++++velocity factor++++ of a
makes it possible to transmission line?
measure the near-field radiation density 4AI-6.3 What is included in the total A. The ratio of the characteristic
from a transmitting resistance of an antenna impedance of the line to
antenna system? the terminating impedance
C. The value of the radiation resistance A. Radiation resistance plus space B. The index of shielding for coaxial
represents the front- impedance cable
to-side ratio of the antenna B. Radiation resistance plus C. The velocity of the wave on the
D. The value of the radiation resistance transmission resistance transmission line
represents the front- C. Transmission line resistance plus multiplied by the velocity of light in a
to-back ratio of the antenna radiation resistance vacuum
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic D. The velocity of the wave on the
4AI-4.4 What are the factors that resistance transmission line divided
determine the radiation by the velocity of light in a vacuum
resistance of an antenna? 4AI-6.4 How can the antenna efficiency
A. Transmission line length and height of an HF grounded vertical 4AI-8.2 What is the term for the ratio of
of antenna antenna be made comparable to that of actual velocity at
B. The location of the antenna with a half-wave antenna? which a signal travels through a line to
respect to nearby objects the speed of light in a
vacuum? B. Electrical length divided by 0.8 decreases
A. Velocity factor C. 80 meters B. The resistance decreases and the
B. Characteristic impedance D. 160 meters capacitive reactance
C. Surge impedance increases
D. Standing wave ratio 4AI-10.1 In a half-wave antenna, where C. The resistance increases and the
are the current nodes? capacitive reactance
4AI-8.3 What is the velocity factor for a A. At the ends decreases
typical coaxial cable? B. At the center D. The resistance increases and the
A. 2.70 C. Three-quarters of the way from the capacitive reactance
B. 0.66 feed point toward the increases
C. 0.30 end
D. 0.10 D. One-half of the way from the feed 4AI-11.3 Why should an HF mobile
point toward the end antenna loading coil have a high
4AI-8.4 What determines the velocity ratio of reactance to resistance?
factor in a transmission 4AI-10.2 In a half-wave antenna, where A. To swamp out harmonics
line? are the voltage nodes? B. To maximize losses
A. The termination impedance A. At the ends C. To minimize losses
B. The line length B. At the feed point D. To minimize the Q
C. Dielectrics in the line C. Three-quarters of the way from the
D. The center conductor resistivity feed point toward the 4AI-11.4 Why is a loading coil often used
end with an HF mobile
4AI-8.5 Why is the physical length of a D. One-half of the way from the feed antenna?
coaxial cable point toward the end A. To improve reception
transmission line shorter than its B. To lower the losses
electrical length? 4AI-10.3 At the ends of a half-wave C. To lower the Q
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the antenna, what values of D. To tune out the capacitive reactance
coaxial cable current and voltage exist compared to
B. RF energy moves slower along the the remainder of the 4AI-12.1 For a shortened vertical
coaxial cable antenna? antenna, where should a loading
C. The surge impedance is higher in A. Equal voltage and current coil be placed to minimize losses and
the parallel feed line B. Minimum voltage and maximum produce the most effective
D. The characteristic impedance is current performance?
higher in the parallel feed C. Maximum voltage and minimum A. Near the center of the vertical
line current radiator
D. Minimum voltage and minimum B. As low as possible on the vertical
4AI-9.1 What would be the physical current radiator
length of a typical coaxial C. As close to the transmitter as
transmission line which is electrically 4AI-10.4 At the center of a half-wave possible
one-quarter wavelength antenna, what values of D. At a voltage node
long at 14.1 MHz? voltage and current exist compared to
A. 20 meters the remainder of the 4AI-12.2 What happens to the bandwidth
B. 3.51 meters antenna? of an antenna as it is
C. 2.33 meters A. Equal voltage and current shortened through the use of loading
D. 0.25 meters B. Maximum voltage and minimum coils?
current A. It is increased
4AI-9.2 What would be the physical C. Minimum voltage and minimum B. It is decreased
length of a typical coaxial current C. No change occurs
transmission line which is electrically D. Minimum voltage and maximum D. It becomes flat
one-quarter wavelength current
long at 7.2 MHz? 4AI-12.3 Why are self-resonant antennas
A. 10.5 meters 4AI-11.1 Why is the inductance required popular in amateur
B. 6.88 meters for a base loaded HF stations?
C. 24 meters mobile antenna less than that for an A. They are very broad banded
D. 50 meters inductance placed further up B. They have high gain in all azimuthal
the whip? directions
4AI-9.3 What is the physical length of a A. The capacitance to ground is less C. They are the most efficient radiators
parallel antenna farther away from the D. They require no calculations
feedline which is electrically one-half base
wavelength long at 14.10 B. The capacitance to ground is 4AI-12.4 What is an advantage of using
MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.82.) greater farther away from the top loading in a shortened
A. 15 meters base HF vertical antenna?
B. 24.3 meters C. The current is greater at the top A. Lower Q
C. 8.7 meters D. The voltage is less at the top B. Greater structural strength
D. 70.8 meters C. Higher losses
4AI-11.2 What happens to the base feed D. Improved radiation efficiency
4AI-9.4 What is the physical length of a point of a fixed length HF
twin lead transmission mobile antenna as the frequency of
feedline at 3.65 MHz? (assume a velocity operation is lowered?
factor of 0.80.) A. The resistance decreases and the
A. Electrical length times 0.8 capacitive reactance
Answers 4AB-1.2 A 4AE-1.2 D
4AB-1.3 B 4AE-1.3 A
4AB-1.4 B 4AE-1.4 B
4AA-1.1 A 4AB-1.5 C 4AE-2.1 C
4AA-1.2 B 4AB-2.1 D 4AE-2.2 B
4AA-1.3 D 4AB-2.2 B 4AE-2.3 D
4AA-1.4 C 4AB-2.3 C 4AE-2.4 B
4AA-2.1 A 4AB-2.4 C 4AE-2.5 A
4AA-2.2 D 4AB-2.5 D 4AE-2.6 B
4AA-2.3 B 4AC-1.1 C 4AE-2.7 B
4AA-2.4 A 4AC-1.2 D 4AE-3.1 A
4AA-3.1 D 4AC-1.3 A 4AE-3.2 C
4AA-3.2 A 4AC-1.4 B 4AE-3.3 A
4AA-3.3 C 4AC-1.5 A 4AE-3.4 A
4AA-3.4 D 4AC-2.1 B 4AE-3.5 C
4AA-3.5 C 4AC-2.2 C 4AE-4.1 B
4AA-3.6 A 4AC-2.3 D 4AE-4.2 D
4AA-3.7 D 4AC-2.4 B 4AE-4.3 C
4AA-3.8 A 4AC-2.5 A 4AE-4.4 B
4AA-3.9 B 4AC-3.1 D 4AE-4.5 B
4AA-3.10 A 4AC-3.2 C 4AE-4.6 A
4AA-4.1 D 4AC-3.3 B 4AE-4.7 D
4AA-4.2 A 4AC-3.4 D 4AE-5.1 C
4AA-4.3 B 4AC-3.5 A 4AE-5.2 B
4AA-4.4 C 4AC-4.1 D 4AE-5.3 C
4AA-5.1 D 4AC-4.2 A 4AE-5.4 A
4AA-5.2 A 4AC-4.3 B 4AE-5.5 B
4AA-5.3 C 4AC-4.4 C 4AE-5.6 D
4AA-5.4 C 4AC-4.5 A 4AE-5.7 C
4AA-5.5 D 4AD-1.1 B 4AE-5.8 A
4AA-6.1 A 4AD-1.2 A 4AE-5.9 B
4AA-6.2 B 4AD-1.3 B 4AE-5.10 C
4AA-6.3 B 4AD-1.4 A 4AE-5.11 A
4AA-7.1 C 4AD-1.5 D 4AE-5.12 B
4AA-7.2 D 4AD-1.6 C 4AE-5.13 C
4AA-8.1 A 4AD-1.7 A 4AE-5.14 D
4AA-8.2 B 4AD-1.8 D 4AE-5.15 A
4AA-9.1 C 4AD-1.9 D 4AE-5.16 B
4AA-9.2 C 4AD-1.10 A 4AE-5.17 C
4AA-9.3 D 4AD-1.11 C 4AE-5.18 D
4AA-9.4 A 4AD-2.1 C 4AE-5.19 A
4AA-10.1 B 4AD-2.2 D 4AE-5.20 B
4AA-10.2 C 4AD-2.3 B 4AE-5.21 A
4AA-11.1 B 4AD-2.4 D 4AE-5.22 D
4AA-11.2 A 4AD-2.5 B 4AE-5.23 C
4AA-12.1 B 4AD-2.6 A 4AE-5.24 D
4AA-12.2 C 4AD-2.7 B 4AE-5.25 A
4AA-12.3 D 4AD-3.1 A 4AE-5.26 D
4AA-13.1 D 4AD-3.2 D 4AE-5.27 B
4AA-13.2 B 4AD-3.3 B 4AE-5.28 A
4AA-14.1 C 4AD-3.4 D 4AE-5.29 C
4AA-14.2 D 4AD-3.5 C 4AE-5.30 D
4AA-15.1 A 4AD-4.1 D 4AE-5.31 A
4AA-15.2 B 4AD-4.2 B 4AE-5.32 B
4AA-15.3 A 4AD-4.3 B 4AE-5.33 C
4AA-16.1 C 4AD-4.4 D 4AE-5.34 D
4AA-16.2 D 4AD-4.5 B 4AE-5.35 D
4AA-17.1 A 4AD-5.1 C 4AE-5.36 A
4AA-17.2 B 4AD-5.2 A 4AE-5.37 B
4AA-17.3 C 4AD-5.3 C 4AE-5.38 B
4AA-18.1 B 4AD-5.4 C 4AE-5.39 D
4AA-18.2 D 4AD-5.5 A 4AE-5.40 A
4AA-18.3 B 4AD-6.1 D 4AE-6.1 A
4AA-19.1 C 4AD-6.2 B 4AE-6.2 B
4AA-19.2 A 4AD-6.3 A 4AE-6.3 C
4AA-19.3 A 4AD-6.4 C 4AE-6.4 B
4AA-19.4 B 4AD-7.1 C 4AE-6.5 D
4AA-20.1 C 4AD-7.2 C 4AE-6.6 B
4AA-20.2 D 4AD-7.3 A 4AE-6.7 A
4AB-1.1 D 4AE-1.1 A 4AE-6.8 D
4AE-6.9 D 4AF-3.5 D 4AG-6.6 D
4AE-6.10 C 4AF-3.6 A 4AG-7.1 A
4AE-7.1 A 4AF-3.7 A 4AG-7.2 B
4AE-7.2 A 4AF-3.8 B 4AG-7.3 C
4AE-7.3 C 4AF-4.1 B 4AG-7.4 A
4AE-7.4 D 4AF-4.2 C 4AG-7.5 B
4AE-7.5 C 4AF-4.3 B 4AG-7.6 B
4AE-7.6 B 4AF-4.4 A 4AG-7.7 C
4AE-7.7 D 4AF-4.5 D 4AG-7.8 B
4AE-8.1 B 4AF-4.6 C 4AG-7.9 C
4AE-8.2 C 4AF-4.7 B 4AG-7.10 D
4AE-8.3 D 4AF-4.8 A 4AG-8.1 B
4AE-8.4 A 4AF-4.9 D 4AG-8.2 A
4AE-8.5 D 4AF-4.10 D 4AG-8.3 C
4AE-8.6 B 4AF-5.1 B 4AG-8.4 B
4AE-8.7 C 4AF-5.2 C 4AG-8.5 A
4AE-8.8 D 4AF-5.3 D 4AG-8.6 D
4AE-8.9 A 4AF-5.4 D 4AG-8.7 C
4AE-8.10 D 4AF-5.5 A 4AG-8.8 B
4AE-9.1 B 4AG-1.1 D 4AG-8.9 A
4AE-9.2 C 4AG-1.2 C 4AG-9.1 B
4AE-9.3 C 4AG-1.3 A 4AG-9.2 C
4AE-9.4 D 4AG-1.4 B 4AG-9.3 C
4AE-9.5 C 4AG-1.5 D 4AG-9.4 A
4AE-9.6 A 4AG-1.6 C 4AG-9.5 C
4AE-9.7 B 4AG-1.7 A 4AG-9.6 D
4AE-9.8 B 4AG-1.8 D 4AG-9.7 B
4AE-9.9 C 4AG-1.9 B 4AG-10.1 C
4AE-9.10 C 4AG-2.1 B 4AG-10.2 B
4AF-1.1 D 4AG-2.2 A 4AG-10.3 D
4AF-1.2 A 4AG-2.3 D 4AG-10.4 D
4AF-1.3 D 4AG-2.4 B 4AG-10.5 D
4AF-1.4 C 4AG-2.5 A 4AG-11.1 B
4AF-1.5 B 4AG-2.6 A 4AG-11.2 A
4AF-1.6 A 4AG-2.7 C 4AG-11.3 D
4AF-1.7 C 4AG-2.8 C 4AG-11.4 A
4AF-1.8 C 4AG-2.9 A 4AG-12.1 C
4AF-1.9 C 4AG-2.10 D 4AG-12.2 B
4AF-1.10 D 4AG-3.1 B 4AG-12.3 C
4AF-1.11 A 4AG-3.2 D 4AG-12.4 D
4AF-1.12 B 4AG-3.3 B 4AG-12.5 A
4AF-1.13 D 4AG-3.4 D 4AG-12.6 A
4AF-1.14 D 4AG-3.5 C 4AG-12.7 C
4AF-1.15 B 4AG-3.6 D 4AG-12.8 D
4AF-1.16 D 4AG-3.7 B 4AG-13.1 C
4AF-1.17 C 4AG-3.8 A 4AG-13.2 D
4AF-1.18 D 4AG-3.9 D 4AG-13.3 A
4AF-1.19 C 4AG-3.10 C 4AG-13.4 C
4AF-1.20 C 4AG-4.1 A 4AG-13.5 A
4AF-2.1 C 4AG-4.2 C 4AH-1.1 A
4AF-2.2 B 4AG-4.3 A 4AH-1.2 B
4AF-2.3 B 4AG-4.4 D 4AH-1.3 C
4AF-2.4 C 4AG-4.5 C 4AH-1.4 D
4AF-2.5 C 4AG-4.6 B 4AH-1.5 A
4AF-2.6 A 4AG-4.7 B 4AH-1.6 B
4AF-2.7 B 4AG-5.1 C 4AH-1.7 B
4AF-2.8 B 4AG-5.2 D 4AH-1.8 D
4AF-2.9 B 4AG-5.3 D 4AH-1.9 C
4AF-2.10 B 4AG-5.4 C 4AH-1.10 D
4AF-2.11 A 4AG-5.5 D 4AH-2.1 C
4AF-2.12 A 4AG-5.6 D 4AH-2.2 D
4AF-2.13 C 4AG-5.7 A 4AH-2.3 A
4AF-2.14 C 4AG-5.8 B 4AH-3.1 B
4AF-2.15 A 4AG-5.9 B 4AH-3.2 C
4AF-2.16 A 4AG-5.10 C 4AH-3.3 D
4AF-2.17 B 4AG-6.1 D 4AH-3.4 A
4AF-3.1 D 4AG-6.2 B 4AH-4.1 B
4AF-3.2 A 4AG-6.3 C 4AH-4.2 D
4AF-3.3 A 4AG-6.4 B 4AH-4.3 D
4AF-3.4 A 4AG-6.5 D 4AH-4.4 A
4AH-4.5 B 4AI-8.2 A
4AH-5.1 C 4AI-8.3 B
4AH-5.2 D 4AI-8.4 C
4AH-5.3 A 4AI-8.5 B
4AH-5.4 B 4AI-9.1 B
4AH-5.5 C 4AI-9.2 B
4AH-6.1 D 4AI-9.3 C
4AH-6.2 A 4AI-9.4 A
4AH-6.3 B 4AI-10.1 A
4AH-6.4 C 4AI-10.2 B
4AH-6.5 D 4AI-10.3 C
4AH-6.6 A 4AI-10.4 D
4AH-6.7 B 4AI-11.1 A
4AH-7.1 B 4AI-11.2 B
4AH-7.2 C 4AI-11.3 C
4AH-7.3 D 4AI-11.4 D
4AH-7.4 A 4AI-12.1 A
4AH-7.5 B 4AI-12.2 B
4AH-7.6 C 4AI-12.3 C
4AH-7.7 D 4AI-12.4 D
4AH-7.8 A
4AH-7.9 B
4AH-7.10 C
4AH-7.11 D
4AH-7.12 A
4AH-8.1 C
4AH-8.2 C
4AH-8.3 D
4AH-8.4 A
4AH-8.5 B
4AH-8.6 C
4AH-8.7 D
4AH-8.8 A
4AH-9.1 C
4AH-9.2 C
4AH-9.3 C
4AH-9.4 B
4AH-9.5 D
4AH-10.1 D
4AH-10.2 A
4AH-10.3 B
4AH-10.4 C
4AI-1.1 A
4AI-1.2 B
4AI-1.3 B
4AI-1.4 A
4AI-2.1 C
4AI-2.2 D
4AI-2.3 A
4AI-2.4 B
4AI-3.1 C
4AI-3.2 D
4AI-3.3 A
4AI-3.4 B
4AI-4.1 C
4AI-4.2 D
4AI-4.3 A
4AI-4.4 B
4AI-5.1 C
4AI-5.2 B
4AI-5.3 A
4AI-6.1 B
4AI-6.2 C
4AI-6.3 D
4AI-6.4 A
4AI-6.5 B
4AI-7.1 C
4AI-7.2 D
4AI-7.3 A
4AI-8.1 D

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