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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

1. [...] is an XLR combined T and B cell Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome is an XLR combined T and B cell disorder
disorder that involves a that involves a cytoskeleton defect and progressive T and B cell
cytoskeleton defect and deletion.
progressive T and B cell deletion.

2. [...] is an exanthem that presents Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease is an exanthem that presents with oral
with oral ulcerations that resolve in ulcerations that resolve in 1 week.
1 week.

3. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for atypical pneumonia in a 6 weeks - 4 year
atypical pneumonia in a 6 weeks - old suspected to be caused by RSV or PIV?
4 year old suspected to be caused No antimicrobials indicated; Supportive care
by RSV or PIV?
[...]

4. Which imaging technique is used to Which imaging technique is used to gauge Developmental Dysplasia of
gauge Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) in children < 6 months old?
the Hip (DDH) in children < 6 Ultrasound
months old?
[...]

Because the acetabulum and proximal femur are still cartilaginous.

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

5. What is the biggest risk factor for What is the biggest risk factor for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)?
(DDH)? Breeched females
[...]

Frank > complete > footling

6. What CXR findings can be seen with What CXR findings can be seen with Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)? Cardiomegaly; Increased PVMs
[...]

7. How does prematurity change the How does prematurity change the risk of Respiratory Distress Syndrome
risk of Respiratory Distress (;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Disease)?
Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Increase
Disease)?
[...]

65% of infants born at 29-30 weeks have RDS.

8. What are the 3 age groups used to What are the 3 age groups used to divide young children with a fever
divide young children with a fever without a source?
without a source? < 28 days; 28 days-3 months; 3 months-3 years
[...]

9. What is the treatment for Meckel's What is the treatment for Meckel's Diverticulum?
Diverticulum? Surgical resection with transverse closure of the enterotomy
[...]

10. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to play cooperatively?
to play cooperatively? 4 y/o
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

11. What is the genetic inheritence of What is the genetic inheritence of Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?
Cystic Fibrosis (CF)? Autosomal recessive
[...]

12. [...]
is a complication of Sickle Cell Priapism is a complication of Sickle Cell Disease when a vaso-occlusive
Disease when a vaso-occlusive crisis occurs at the penis.
crisis occurs at the penis.

13. Where does avascular necrosis Where does avascular necrosis commonly occur in Sickle Cell Disease?
commonly occur in Sickle Cell Femoral head
Disease?
[...]

14. [...]
is a type of poisoning that yields Lead poisoning is a type of poisoning that yields basophillic stippling
basophillic stippling and and hypochromic microcytic anaemia.
hypochromic microcytic anaemia.

15. How do maternal serum AFP levels How do maternal serum AFP levels change with Down Syndrome
change with Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)?
(Trisomy 21)? Decrease
[...]

16. What is the overall cure rate for What is the overall cure rate for Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)?
Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)? > 85%
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

17. What is the empiric therapy for lobar What is the empiric therapy for lobar pneumonia in a 6 weeks - 4 year
pneumonia in a 6 weeks - 4 year old?
old? Amoxicillin; or PO Clindamycin; or Ceftriaxone; or IV Cefotaxime
[...]

All for 7-10 days


Common agents include:
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Staphylococcus aureis
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)

18. What is the duration of empiric What is the duration of empiric antibiotic therapy for meningitis caused by
antibiotic therapy for meningitis Escherichia coli?
caused by Escherichia coli? 21 days
[...]

19. What ECG findings are seen in What ECG findings are seen in Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) in
Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) in children?
children? LVH
[...]

20. WhichAPGAR score is indicative of Which APGAR score is indicative of no need to resuscitate the baby?
no need to resuscitate the baby? 8-10
[...]

21. What WBC level is seen on LP in TB What WBC level is seen on LP in TB meningitis?
meningitis? 10-500
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

22. What is the main complication of What is the main complication of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia?
neonatal hyperbilirubinemia? Kernicterus
[...]

aka bilirubin encephalopathy


Unconjugated bilirubin is lipid soluble and hence can cross the BBB and
precipitate in the basal ganglia. Meningitis and prematurity can cause the
BBB to be even more porous, thereby allowing kernicterus to present at
lower bilirubin levels.

23. What is the empiric treatment for What is the empiric treatment for meningitis in infants (1 - 3 months)?
meningitis in infants (1 - 3 months)? Ampicillin+Cefotaxime
[...]

24. [...]
is a cyanotic heart defect that Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR) is a cyanotic
presents with a RV impulse, heart defect that presents with a RV impulse, fixed/widely split S2, and
fixed/widely split S2, and a a systolic ejection murmur at the LUSB.
systolic ejection murmur at the
LUSB.

25. [...]
is a bacteria that causes Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a bacteria that causes pneumonia in
pneumonia in adolescents that adolescents that presents with a prolonged cough without fever.
presents with a prolonged cough
without fever.
Typically a ≥ 1 week history.

26. What is the full workup for direct What is the full workup for direct Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia?
Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia? LFTs, bacterial/viral cultures, metabolic screening tests, hepatic
[...] ultrasound, chloride sweat test

27. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with low grade fevers?
with low grade fevers? Viral
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

28. What are the possible CXR findings What are the possible CXR findings with Atrial Septal Defects■ (ASD)?
with Atrial Septal Defects■ (ASD)? Cardiomegaly; Increased PVMs
[...]

PVMs = pulmonary vascular markings

29. [...]
is a neonatal respiratory disorder Respiratory Distress Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Disease) is
that results from a deficiency of a neonatal respiratory disorder that results from a deficiency of
surfactant. surfactant.

Leads to poor lung compliance, atelectasis and hyaline membrane


formation at alveoli.

30. What percentage of children born What percentage of children born with Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
with Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy die in the first month of life?
18) die in the first month of life? 50%
[...]

31. What are the parameters of the What are the parameters of the APGAR score?
APGAR score? Appearance; Pulse; Grimace; Activity; Respiratory effort
[...]

32. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR)?
Return (TAPVR)? RAD; RVH
[...]

33. Which major vaccine contains eggs, Which major vaccine contains eggs, a potential allergen?
a potential allergen? Influenza
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

34. [...]
is an exanthem that presents Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease is an exanthem that presents with
with "football-shaped" vesicles "football-shaped" vesicles with surrounding erythema on the hands
with surrounding erythema on the and feet.
hands and feet.

35. At what age should At what age should echocardiography start to be performed to gauge
echocardiography start to be pulmonary artery pressures in Sickle Cell Disease?
performed to gauge pulmonary 10
artery pressures in Sickle Cell
Disease?
[...]
Done every other year.

36. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with increased projection of the areola
with increased projection of the and papilla?
areola and papilla? 4
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

37. [...]
is a phagocytic disorder that is Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a phagocytic disorder that is
commonly associated with recurrent commonly associated with recurrent gingivitis and seborrheic
gingivitis and seborrheic dermatitis.
dermatitis.

38. What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in mild What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in mild intermittent asthma?
intermittent asthma? > 80%
[...]

39. What is the treatment fo VZV as a What is the treatment fo VZV as a TORCH infection?
TORCH infection? Acyclovir
[...]

Prevent with VZIG.

40. [...]is a collagen vascular disease Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is a collagen vascular disease that
that presents as persistent presents as persistent inflammation in ≥ 1 joints for ≥ 6 weeks in a
inflammation in ≥ 1 joints for ≥ 6 patient < 16 y/o.
weeks in a patient < 16 y/o.

41. What is the treatment for Atrial What is the treatment for Atrial Septal Defects■ (ASD) < 8 mm in size?
Septal Defects■ (ASD) < 8 mm in None; 90% spontaneously close
size?
[...]

42. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to use spoons and cups?
to use spoons and cups? 15 months
[...]

43. How does peak expiratory flow How does peak expiratory flow (PEF) change in Asthma (Reactive
(PEF) change in Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
Airway Disease)? Decrease
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

44. [...]
is a non-suppurative Acute Rheumatic Fever is a non-suppurative complication of
complication of Streptococcal Streptococcal Pharyngitis that presents 2-6 weeks after untreated Strep
Pharyngitis that presents 2-6 weeks throat.
after untreated Strep throat.

45. [...]
is a monoclonal antibody that Pavilizumab is a monoclonal antibody that can be used as prophylaxis
can be used as prophylaxis against against RSV in high-risk infants < 2 years of age.
RSV in high-risk infants < 2 years
of age.
You can also give RSV IVIG.

46. What are the indications for using What are the indications for using preterm formulas to feed a baby?
preterm formulas to feed a baby? Prematurity
[...]

47. [...]
is a cyanotic congenital heart Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF) is a cyanotic congenital heart defect that
defect that presents with right presents with right ventricular impulses, a single S2 sound, and a
ventricular impulses, a single S2 systolic ejection murmur at the LUSB.
sound, and a systolic ejection
murmur at the LUSB.

48. What protein level is seen on LP in What protein level is seen on LP in HSV meningitis?
HSV meningitis? > 75
[...]

49. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 1 for activity?
with an APGAR rating of 1 for Mild to moderate flexion of the extremities
activity?
[...]

50. Which vitamin should be Which vitamin should be supplemented in all breastfed babies?
supplemented in all breastfed Vitamin D
babies?
[...]

400 IU/day to prevent rickets.

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

51. In infants, what is the most common In infants, what is the most common source of bacteria for UTIs?
source of bacteria for UTIs? Haematogenous seeding of the kidneys
[...]

52. What is the empiric treatment for What is the empiric treatment for meningitis in neonates (< 1 month)?
meningitis in neonates (< 1 month)? Ampicillin+Cefotaxime; Ampicillin+Gentamycin
[...]

53. Whichchildhood tumour is Which childhood tumour is associated with fetal hydantoin syndrome?
associated with fetal hydantoin Neuroblastoma
syndrome?
[...]

54. At which age do most neonatal At which age do most neonatal reflexes disappear?
reflexes disappear? 6 months
[...]
Persistent primitive reflexes can be a clue to developmental or
neurological disorders.

55. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 0 for activity?
with an APGAR rating of 0 for Limpness
activity?
[...]

56. What is the treatment for Acute Otitis What is the treatment for Acute Otitis Media (AOM) with a penicillin
Media (AOM) with a penicillin allergy?
allergy? Cefuroxime; Cefdinir; Cefprozil; Azithromycin
[...]

5-7 days for patients > 2 y/o without language/hearing deficits

57. Whichimmunoglobulin is deficient in Which immunoglobulin is deficient in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?


Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome? IgM
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

58. What kind of infections are seen in What kind of infections are seen in the combined B and T cell disorders?
the combined B and T cell Opportunistic infections
disorders?
[...]

Candida
Mycobacterium
VZV
CMV
PCP

59. What glucose level is seen on LP in What glucose level is seen on LP in HSV meningitis?
HSV meningitis? > 30
[...]

60. What is the duration of empiric What is the duration of empiric antibiotic therapy for meningitis caused by
antibiotic therapy for meningitis Listeria?
caused by Listeria? 14-21 days
[...]

61. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for atypical pneumonia in a > 4 year old
atypical pneumonia in a > 4 year suspected to be caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae?
old suspected to be caused by Doxycyline; or Erythromycin
Chlamydia pneumoniae?
[...]

14-21 days

62. What is the treatment for Neonatal What is the treatment for Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia when phototherapy
Hyperbilirubinemia when fails?
phototherapy fails? Exchange transfusions
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

63. What level of ketonemia is seen in What level of ketonemia is seen in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)? > 3 mmol/L
[...]

64. Which exanthem is associated with a Which exanthem is associated with a high ASO titer and a positive
high ASO titer and a positive throat culture?
throat culture? Scarlet Fever (Group A Streptococcus)
[...]

65. [...]
is a benign neonatal Acne Neonatorum is a benign neonatal dermatological disorder that
dermatological disorder that presents presents as tiny papulopustules similar to acne vulgaris and peaks at 2
as tiny papulopustules similar to months.
acne vulgaris and peaks at 2
months.

66. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with dullness to percussion and
with dullness to percussion and egophony on lung exam?
egophony on lung exam? Bacterial
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

67. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to hold its head up?
to hold its head up? 3 months
[...]

68. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 0 for
with an APGAR rating of 0 for appearance?
appearance? Blue and pale skin
[...]

69. What is the threshold age for What is the threshold age for Precocious Puberty in boys?
Precocious Puberty in boys? < 9 y/o
[...]

70. What bicarbonate level is seen in What bicarbonate level is seen in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)? < 15 mmol/L
[...]

71. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating cheese, egg yolk
babies to start eating cheese, egg and other protein rich foods?
yolk and other protein rich foods? 9-10 months
[...]

72. Whichtype of Precocious Puberty is Which type of Precocious Puberty is gonadotropin independent?
gonadotropin independent? Peripheral/Pseudo-precocious puberty
[...]

73. What is the treatment for aortic What is the treatment for aortic stenosis?
stenosis? Valvotomy or valve replacement
[...]

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74. How does bottle feeding change the How does bottle feeding change the risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Increase
[...]

75. What is the most common childhood What is the most common childhood cancer?
cancer? Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)
[...]

76. How does breast-feeding change the How does breast-feeding change the risk of developing an allergy to
risk of developing an allergy to cow's-milk protein?
cow's-milk protein? Decrease
[...]

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77. The [...] is a clinical scoring system The Centor score is a clinical scoring system used to guide the diagnosis
used to guide the diagnosis and and management of Streptococcal Pharyngitis.
management of Streptococcal
Pharyngitis.

78. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The palmar/plantar grasp reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex that
that involves grasping of a finger involves grasping of a finger placed in the palm of the baby or
placed in the palm of the baby or plantarflexion if the sole is stimulation.
plantarflexion if the sole is
stimulation.

79. [...]
is a congenital heart defect that Atrial Septal Defect■ (ASD) is a congenital heart defect that presents
presents with a widely fixed and with a widely fixed and split S2 sound at the left upper sternal border
split S2 sound at the left upper (LSUB).
sternal border (LSUB).

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80. What neutrophil level is seen on LP What neutrophil level is seen on LP in viral (non-HSV) meningitis?
in viral (non-HSV) meningitis? < 20
[...]

81. Which opportunistic infections are Which opportunistic infections are seen in Severe Combined
seen in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Immunodeficiency (SCID)? Candida, Mycobacterium, VZV, CMV, PCP
[...]

82. Which vaccine contains Which vaccine contains streptomycin, a potential allergen?
streptomycin, a potential allergen? IPV
[...]

83. [...]
is a clinical sign of Galeazzi's Sign is a clinical sign of Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) that involves the knee being lower on the affected side when the
(DDH) that involves the knee being hips are flexed and the patient is supine.
lower on the affected side when
the hips are flexed and the patient
is supine.

84. What is the mnemonic for common What is the mnemonic for common UTI pathogens?
UTI pathogens? SEEKS PP
[...]

SEEKS PP
- Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- Escherichia coli
- Enterobacter
- Klebsiella
- Serratia
- Proteus
- Pseudomonas

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85. In Failure To Thrive (FTT), which In Failure To Thrive (FTT), which standaridized growth curve do children
standaridized growth curve do fall off first?
children fall off first? Weight
[...]

Weight curve first, then height, then head circumference.

86. How does breast-feeding change the How does breast-feeding change the speed of cognitive development?
speed of cognitive development? Increase
[...]

87. What is the most common presenting What is the most common presenting sign of Meckel's Diverticulum?
sign of Meckel's Diverticulum? Intermittent painless rectal bleeding
[...]

SBO and Diverticulitis can also occur.

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88. [...]
is an exanthem that presents Erythema Infectiosum (5th Disease) is an exanthem that presents with a
with a "slapped cheek" "slapped cheek" appearance, circumoral pallour, and an
appearance, circumoral pallour, erythematous, maculopapular, lacy rash on the trunks and legs that
and an erythematous, lasts 2-3 weeks.
maculopapular, lacy rash on the
trunks and legs that lasts 2-3
weeks.

89. Which age groups is more commonly Which age groups is more commonly affected by chronic asymptomatic
affected by chronic asymptomatic uveitis in pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
uveitis in pauciarticular Juvenile Young children
Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
[...]

Can lead to blindness if not diagnosed by the slit-lamp examination.

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90. [...]
is a corticosteroid given to Betamethazone (BMZ) is a corticosteroid given to mothers during
mothers during gestation to gestation to decreased the risk of RDS by increasing the production of
decreased the risk of RDS by sufactant.
increasing the production of
sufactant.

91. What are the indications for using a What are the indications for using a soy based formula to feed a baby?
soy based formula to feed a baby? Milk allergy; galactosemia
[...]

92. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 2 for
with an APGAR rating of 2 for grimace?
grimace? A cough or sneeze
[...]

93. What is the serological status of What is the serological status of rheumatoid factor in systemic Juvenile
rheumatoid factor in systemic Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? Negative
[...]

94. Which type of cardiac shunts are Which type of cardiac shunts are typically acyanotic?
typically acyanotic? L to R
[...]

95. Which Lecithin:Sphingomyelin Ratio Which Lecithin:Sphingomyelin Ratio (L:S) is indicative of mature lungs?
(L:S) is indicative of mature lungs? >2
[...]

< 2 is an indication for steroids.

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96. [...]
is a possible feature of Migratory polyarthritis is a possible feature of Henoch-Schonlein
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) Purpura (HSP) that presents as tender and painful periarticular joint
that presents as tender and painful swelling.
periarticular joint swelling.

Often seen at the ankles and knees.

97. What is the etiology of Tracheitis? What is the etiology of Tracheitis?


[...] Staphylococcus aureus

98. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)? LVH; Biventricular hypertrophy
[...]

99. What are the indications for What are the indications for obtaining a CT scan in suspected meningitis?
obtaining a CT scan in suspected Signs of increased ICP
meningitis?
[...]

e.g. focal neurological deficits or papilledema

100. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice presents in the first 24 hrs?
presents in the first 24 hrs? Pathological
[...]

101. Typically, which vaccine is given to a Typically, which vaccine is given to a newborn child before being
newborn child before being discharged home?
discharged home? HBV
[...]

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102. What is the threshold level of IgG What is the threshold level of IgG where IVIG treatment becomes
where IVIG treatment becomes indicated for Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
indicated for Common Variable < 400
Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
[...]

103. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month old
pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month suspected to be caused by RSV?
old suspected to be caused by IV Ribavirin
RSV?
[...]

104. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to copy a square?
to copy a square? 4 y/o
[...]

105. Which age group is more commonly Which age group is more commonly affected by Epiglottitis?
affected by Epiglottitis? 2-7 years
[...]

106. What is the most common mutation What is the most common mutation causing Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?
causing Cystic Fibrosis (CF)? ∆F508 (seen in 70% of cases)
[...]

107. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating nuts?
babies to start eating nuts? 24 months
[...]

108. How does pulse pressure change in How does pulse pressure change in Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)? Widens
[...]

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109. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating soft table
babies to start eating soft table foods?
foods? 12 months
[...]

110. What are the complications of What are the complications of Scarlet Fever?
Scarlet Fever? Rheumatic Fever; Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
[...]

Rememebr, Scarlet Fever is due to Group A Streptococcus.

111. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to crawl?
to crawl? 9 months
[...]

112. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice has total bilirubin levels that rise >
has total bilirubin levels that rise > 15-17 mg/dL?
15-17 mg/dL? Pathological
[...]

113. Which respiratory infection is Which respiratory infection is associated with "steeple sign" on PA
associated with "steeple sign" on neck films?
PA neck films? Croup
[...]

114. How do simple febrile seizures How do simple febrile seizures change the risk of developmental,
change the risk of developmental, intellectual or growth problems?
intellectual or growth problems? No change
[...]

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115. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to roll over?
to roll over? 4 months
[...]

116. What is the average daily weight What is the average daily weight gain for a child from birth to 3 months?
gain for a child from birth to 3 20-30 g/day
months?
[...]

1 kg/month

117. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Streptococcal Pharyngitis with penicillin
Streptococcal Pharyngitis with allergy?
penicillin allergy? Macrolides; or Clindamycin
[...]

Both for 10 days.

118. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice resolves in 2 weeks in preterm infants?
resolves in 2 weeks in preterm Physiological
infants?
[...]

119. How many night symptoms are seen How many night symptoms are seen in mild persistent Asthma
in mild persistent Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? > 2/month
[...]

120. How does breastfeeding change the How does breastfeeding change the risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Decrease
[...]

121. [...] and Retropharyngeal Abscess Peritonsillar Abscess and Retropharyngeal Abscess are 2 suppurative
are 2 suppurative complications of complications of Streptococcal Pharyngitis.
Streptococcal Pharyngitis.

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122. Peritonsillar Abscess and [...] are 2 Peritonsillar Abscess and Retropharyngeal Abscess are 2 suppurative
suppurative complications of complications of Streptococcal Pharyngitis.
Streptococcal Pharyngitis.

123. Which joints are more commonly Which joints are more commonly affected in Pauciarticular Juvenile
affected in Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? Large weight-bearing joints
[...]

i.e. knees, ankles

124. What is the genetic inheritence of What is the genetic inheritence of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)?
Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)? Autosomal Recessive
[...]

Mutation in the beta-globin chain

125. What WBC level is seen on LP in What WBC level is seen on LP in bacterial meningitis?
bacterial meningitis? > 1000
[...]

126. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with darker, coarse, curled pubic hair?
with darker, coarse, curled pubic 3
hair?
[...]

127. How many night symptoms are seen How many night symptoms are seen in moderate persistent Asthma
in moderate persistent Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? > 1/week
[...]

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128. What is the average daily weight What is the average daily weight gain for a child 4 months to 12 months
gain for a child 4 months to 12 old?
months old? 10-20 g/day
[...]

129. Why is IVIG contraindicated in Why is IVIG contraindicated in Selective IgA Deficiency?
Selective IgA Deficiency? IVIG causes fatal anaphylaxis
[...]

130. What is the etiology of Varicella What is the etiology of Varicella (Chickenpox)?
(Chickenpox)? VZV
[...]

131. [...] is a B-cell deficiency that Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia is a B-cell deficiency that presents
presents with no tonsils or with no tonsils or palpable lymph nodes.
palpable lymph nodes.

132. [...] is an exanthem that presents Roseola (Exanthema Subitum) is an exanthem that presents with high
with high fever for 4-5 days and a fever for 4-5 days and a rash that presents after the fever resolves.
rash that presents after the fever
resolves.

133. What CXR findings can be seen with What CXR findings can be seen with Truncus Arteriosus?
Truncus Arteriosus? Cardiomegaly; Increased PVMs
[...]

134. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to form 3 word sentences?
to form 3 word sentences? 3 years
[...]

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135. What is the empiric therapy for lobar What is the empiric therapy for lobar pneumonia in a > 4 year old?
pneumonia in a > 4 year old? Amoxicillin/Erythromycin (7-10 days); or Ceftriaxone/IV Cefotaxime
[...] + PO/IV macrolide (7-10 days)

+ Vancomycin/Clindamycin if Staphylococcus aureus is suspected

136. How does breastfeeding change the How does breastfeeding change the risk of ovarian cancer in the mother?
risk of ovarian cancer in the mother? Decrease
[...]

137. What ECG findings are seen with What ECG findings are seen with Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)?
Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)? Normal if small; LVH if large
[...]

138. [...] is a GI feature of Colicky abdominal pain is a GI feature of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura


Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) (HSP) that occurs secondary to hemorrhaging and edema of the small
that occurs secondary to intestines.
hemorrhaging and edema of the
small intestines.
2% of cases involve an ileoileal intussusception.

139. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Respiratory Distress Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline
Respiratory Distress Syndrome Membrane Disease)?
(;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Supportive measured; Intubation/ventilation; Surfactant
Disease)? replacement
[...]

Mechanical ventilation is associated with barotrauma and oxygen toxicity,


hence children should be extubated as soon as possible and placed on
CPAP.
Surfactant replacement decreases mortality.

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140. [...] is an acute inflammatory Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) is an acute inflammatory disorder of


disorder of the upper respiratory ract the upper respiratory ract that especially affects the subglottic space.
that especially affects the subglottic
space.

141. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with focal crackles on lung exam?
with focal crackles on lung exam? Bacterial
[...]

142. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The Galant reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex that involves the pelvis
that involves the pelvis moving moving towards the stimulated side once the paravertebral region has
towards the stimulated side once been stroked in a prone position.
the paravertebral region has been
stroked in a prone position.

143. [...] is a viral exanthem that presents Rubella (German Measles; 3-day Measles) is a viral exanthem that
with a descending maculopapular presents with a descending maculopapular rash that spreads from
rash that spreads from the face to the face to the body and resolves in 3-5 days.
the body and resolves in 3-5 days.

Note how this is pretty similar to Measles. The key differences are
hallmark symptoms and fever and shorter duration.
Measles typically has higher fevers.

144. How does cleft palate change the How does cleft palate change the risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Increase
[...]

145. [...] is an exanthem that presents Varicella (Chickenpox) is an exanthem that presents with an evolving
with an evolving rash in different rash in different stages that starts on the trunk and spares the palms
stages that starts on the trunk and and soles.
spares the palms and soles.

146. What is the etiology of Erythema What is the etiology of Erythema Infectiosum (5th Disease)?
Infectiosum (5th Disease)? Parvovirus B19
[...]

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147. What combination of antibiotics What combination of antibiotics should be given empirically to febrile
should be given empirically to febrile infants < 28 days?
infants < 28 days? Ampicillin+Gentamycin; Ampicillin+Cefotaxime
[...]

Should be administered before the LP

148. How does mobility of the tympanic How does mobility of the tympanic membrane change in Otitis Media
membrane change in Otitis Media with Effusion (OME)?
with Effusion (OME)? No change
[...]

149. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with cystic kidneys?
associated with cystic kidneys? Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
[...]

150. What is seen on CXR in Asthma What is seen on CXR in Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? Non specific findings (hyperinflation, depressed diaphragm,
[...] peribronchial thickening, atelectasis)

151. Which imaging technique is used to Which imaging technique is used to gauge Developmental Dysplasia of
gauge Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) in children > 6 months old?
the Hip (DDH) in children > 6 Xray
months old?
[...]

Because the proximal femur has now ossified

152. [...] is a GI disorder that can present Intussusception is a GI disorder that can present with a triad of colicky
with a triad of colicky abdominal abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and red "currant jelly" stool.
pain, bilious vomiting, and red
"currant jelly" stool.

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153. [...] is a TORCH infection that Toxoplasmosis is a TORCH infection that presents with a classic triad of
presents with a classic triad of chorioretinitis, hyprocephalus and intracranial calcifications.
chorioretinitis, hyprocephalus and
intracranial calcifications.
Also involves microcephaly, severe mental retardation, epilepsy.

154. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) affects joints in a
Arthritis (JIA) affects joints in a symmetrical distribution?
symmetrical distribution? Polyarticular
[...]

155. What is the classic triad of What is the classic triad of symptoms seen with Intussusception?
symptoms seen with Colicky abdominal pain; bilious vomiting; red currant jelly stool
Intussusception?
[...]

This is only seen in 20% of cases.


The red currant jelly stool is a rare and very late finding.

156. What kind of fever is seen in What kind of fever is seen in Bronchiolitis?
Bronchiolitis? Low-grade
[...]

157. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to abide by the rules?
to abide by the rules? 5 y/o
[...]

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158. What is the diagnostic criteria for What is the diagnostic criteria for Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Hx of acute onset for s/s; Middle ear effusion; s/s of middle ear
[...] inflammation

Remember, Acute Otitis Media (AOM) is not the same as Otitis Media
with Effusion (OME)

Otoscopic examination:
- Abnormal colour, opacification and decreased mobility of the tympanic
membrane
- Erythema and builging of the affected tympanic membrane. However
this alone is not enough.

159. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with diffuse and streaky lung
with diffuse and streaky lung infiltrates on CXR?
infiltrates on CXR? Viral
[...]

160. [...] is a feature of Sickle Cell Vaso-occlusive or pain crisis is a feature of Sickle Cell Disease that
Disease that presents as pain and presents as pain and organ dysfunction due to microvascular
organ dysfunction due to infarcts.
microvascular infarcts.

Can occur anywhere in the body.


11% have an overt occlusive stroke of a large cerebral artery by age
20.

161. Which type of Febrile Seizures Which type of Febrile Seizures presents more than once in 24 hours?
presents more than once in 24 Complex
hours?
[...]

As a "cluster"

162. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with breast buds?
with breast buds? 2
[...]

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163. Which type of Precocious Puberty Which type of Precocious Puberty involves the use of androgen
involves the use of androgen antagonists and aromatase inhibitors?
antagonists and aromatase Peripheral/Pseudo
inhibitors?
[...]

164. What are the top 3 pathogens What are the top 3 pathogens causing meningitis in infants (1-3
causing meningitis in infants (1-3 months)?
months)? Streptococcus pneumoniae; Neisseria meningitidis; Group B
[...] Streptococcus; Haemophilus influenzae

165. What is the diagnostic criteria for What is the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki Disease?
Kawasaki Disease? Fever for ≥ 5 days without explanation + ≥ 4 of the below:
[...]

- Bilateral nonexudative conjunctivitis


- "Strawberry tongue"; dry, red, cracked lips; diffuse oral cavity erythema
- Erythema and/or edema of the hands and feet
- Polymorphic rash, typically truncal
- Cervical LAD

166. In which season does In which season does Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) most commonly
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) occur?
most commonly occur? Winter, especially after Group A Streptococcus URI
[...]

167. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 2 for
with an APGAR rating of 2 for respiratory effort?
respiratory effort? Strong cry
[...]

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168. What is the treatment for Hip What is the treatment for Hip Dysplasia in a patient < 6 months y/o?
Dysplasia in a patient < 6 months Pavlik Harness
y/o?
[...]

Which flexes and abducts the hip.

169. What is the threshold size for Atrial What is the threshold size for Atrial Septal Defects■ (ASD) where
Septal Defects■ (ASD) where surgical closure becomes indicated?
surgical closure becomes indicated? > 8 mm
[...]

170. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Hirschsprung's Disease?
affected by Hirschsprung's Disease? Males
[...]

171. What CXR findings are seen in What CXR findings are seen in Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA)?
Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA)? Cardiomegaly; Rib notching; pulmonary venous congestion
[...]

172. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to sit upright?
to sit upright? 6 months
[...]

173. What CXR findings can be seen with What CXR findings can be seen with Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)?
Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)? Boot-shaped heart; decreased PVMs
[...]

Decreased pulmonary blood flow results in decreased PVMs

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174. At what platelet count should At what platelet count should patients suspected of Idiopathic
patients suspected of Idiopathic Thrombocytopaenic Purpura (ITP) be admitted to the hospital?
Thrombocytopaenic Purpura (ITP) < 20,000/mm3
be admitted to the hospital?
[...]

175. [...] is a respiratory disorder Bronchiolitis is a respiratory disorder described as acute inflammatory
described as acute inflammatory illness of the small airways.
illness of the small airways.

Commonly occurs in children < 3 years of age.

176. Which race is more commonly Which race is more commonly affected by Sickle Cell Disease?
affected by Sickle Cell Disease? AA
[...]

1 in 500 AA are affected

177. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)?
affected by Patau Syndrome Females
(Trisomy 13)?
[...]

60% of those affected are female

178. [...] is a TORCH infection that often Toxoplasmosis is a TORCH infection that often manifests following
manifests following maternal maternal exposure to cat feces or poorly cooked meat.
exposure to cat feces or poorly
cooked meat.
Highest risk of exposure is at 10-24 WGA

179. How does breastfeeding change the How does breastfeeding change the risk of breast cancer in the mother?
risk of breast cancer in the mother? Decrease
[...]

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180. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with adult-type hair limited to the
with adult-type hair limited to the genitalia?
genitalia? 4
[...]

181. What Sweat Chloride Test result is What Sweat Chloride Test result is seen in Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?
seen in Cystic Fibrosis (CF)? > 70 mEq/L
[...]

1% of Cystic Fibrosis (CF) patients have a negative sweat test.

182. What percentage of children born What percentage of children born with Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13) die
with Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13) in the first month of life?
die in the first month of life? 80%
[...]

183. What WBC level is seen on LP in What WBC level is seen on LP in HSV meningitis?
HSV meningitis? 10-1000
[...]

184. [...] or IV Methylprednisone PO Prednisone or IV Methylprednisone (Solumedrol) are 2


(Solumedrol) are 2 corticosteroids corticosteroids that can be highly effective with given as a 5-day
that can be highly effective with "pulse" but takes 4-6 hours to have effect.
given as a 5-day "pulse" but takes
4-6 hours to have effect.

185. PO Prednisone or [...] are 2 PO Prednisone or IV Methylprednisone (Solumedrol) are 2


corticosteroids that can be highly corticosteroids that can be highly effective with given as a 5-day
effective with given as a 5-day "pulse" but takes 4-6 hours to have effect.
"pulse" but takes 4-6 hours to have
effect.

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186. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with scalp aplasia cutis?
associated with scalp aplasia Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
cutis?
[...]

187. What is the average birth height? What is the average birth height?
[...] 50 cm

20 in

188. Which age group is more commonly Which age group is more commonly affected by Croup?
affected by Croup? 3 months to 5 years
[...]

189. What is the cause of sebaceous What is the cause of sebaceous hyperplasia in neonates?
hyperplasia in neonates?

[...]

Maternal hormones

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190. [...] is a benign neonatal Erythema toxicum is a benign neonatal dermatologic disorder that
dermatologic disorder that presents presents as blotchy, erythematous macules with overlying
as blotchy, erythematous macules white/yellow papules/pustules.
with overlying white/yellow
papules/pustules.

191. [...] is a physical exam test for Ortolani test is a physical exam test for Developmental Dysplasia of the
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip Hip (DDH) that invovles slow abductions of the flexed hip.
(DDH) that invovles slow
abductions of the flexed hip.
If the femoral head shifts into the acetabulum, it will clunk, thereby
revealing that the hip is reducible.

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192. What is the major renal complication What is the major renal complication of Sickle Cell Disease?
of Sickle Cell Disease? Renal Papillary Necrosis; Haematuria
[...]

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193. [...] is a paediatric fracture that Epiphyseal fracture is a paediatric fracture that involves the growth
involves the growth plate, the plate, the weakest portion of a child's skeletal system.
weakest portion of a child's skeletal
system.
Classified by the Salter-Harris System that also predicts prognosis.

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194. Which type of pathogen is the Which type of pathogen is the leading cause of pneumonia in children?
leading cause of pneumonia in
children? Viruses

[...]

RSV, influenza, Parainfluenza, adenovirus

195. Which type of opportunistic Which type of opportunistic infections are seen in DiGeorge Syndrome?
infections are seen in DiGeorge Candida, Mycobacterium, VZV, CMV, PCP
Syndrome?
[...]

196. [...] are a mucocutaneous feature of Burton's lines are a mucocutaneous feature of Lead poisoning that is
Lead poisoning that is described as described as blue lines on the gums.
blue lines on the gums.

197. What is the average birth head What is the average birth head circumference?
circumference? 35 cm
[...]

198. Which APGAR score is indicative of Which APGAR score is indicative of a potential need to resuscitate the
a potential need to resuscitate the baby?
baby? 4-7
[...]

199. [...] is a possible complication of Cholesteatoma is a possible complication of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
Acute Otitis Media (AOM) that is that is described as growth of desquamated stratified squamous
described as growth of epithelium in the inner ear.
desquamated stratified squamous
epithelium in the inner ear.

200. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that is Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a phagocytic disorder that is
associated with deep soft tissue associated with deep soft tissue abscesses.
abscesses.

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201. At what age should yearly retinal At what age should yearly retinal exams start in Sickle Cell Disease to
exams start in Sickle Cell Disease to detect sickle retinopathy?
detect sickle retinopathy? 8
[...]

202. What kind of fever is seen with What kind of fever is seen with Croup?
Croup? Low-grade
[...]

203. What is the average yearly weight What is the average yearly weight gain for a child from 2 years to
gain for a child from 2 years to puberty?
puberty? 5 lbs/year
[...]

204. Which infections are commonly seen Which infections are commonly seen in Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?
in Chediak-Higashi Syndrome? Staphylococcus infections of skin and lungs
[...]

205. What is the duration of empiric What is the duration of empiric antibiotic therapy for meningitis caused
antibiotic therapy for meningitis by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
caused by Streptococcus 10-14 days
pneumoniae?
[...]

206. [...] is an antimetabolite used in Hydroxyurea is an antimetabolite used in Sickle Cell patients > 5 y/o
Sickle Cell patients > 5 y/o with with severe complications that works to increase the proportion of
severe complications that works to HbF.
increase the proportion of HbF.

207. Which type of cardiac shunts are Which type of cardiac shunts are typically cyanotic?
typically cyanotic? R to L
[...]

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208. Which stage of Wilms' Tumour Which stage of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) involves a tumour
(Nephroblastoma) involves a limited to the kidney?
tumour limited to the kidney? 1
[...]

This is still operable.

209. How does maternal diabetes change How does maternal diabetes change the risk of Respiratory Distress
the risk of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Disease)?
Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline Increase
Membrane Disease)?
[...]

210. What is the most common What is the most common congenital heart defect (CHD)?
congenital heart defect (CHD)? VSD
[...]

20-25%

211. What drugs are used in the What drugs are used in the prophylactic therapy of UTI?
prophylactic therapy of UTI? TMP-SMX; Nitrofurantoin
[...]

212. What is the treatment for small What is the treatment for small Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)?
Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)? None; close monitoring
[...]

30-50% spontaneously close; the rest are mostly asymptomatic

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213. What is the empiric treatment for What is the empiric treatment for meningitis in children (3 months - 18
meningitis in children (3 months - years)?
18 years)? Cefotaxime; Ceftriaxone
[...]

Vancomycin can be added for possible penicilllin resistant Strep pneumo.

214. Which type of pneumocytes make Which type of pneumocytes make surfactact?
surfactact? Type 2 Pneumocytes
[...]

215. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA)?
Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA)? Resection of the coarcted segment; Balloon dilataion of the
[...] coarctation

216. How do maternal beta-hCG levels How do maternal beta-hCG levels change with Down Syndrome (Trisomy
change with Down Syndrome 21)?
(Trisomy 21)? Increase
[...]

217. [...] is a GI disorder that is defined Hirschsprung's Disease is a GI disorder that is defined as the absence
as the absence of ganglion cells of ganglion cells in the bowel, thereby leading to abnormal motility.
in the bowel, thereby leading to
abnormal motility.

218. [...] is a congenital heart defect that Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) is a congenital heart defect that
presents with a murmur over the left presents with a murmur over the left scapula in infants
scapula in infants

219. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to copy a triangle?
to copy a triangle? 5 y/o
[...]

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220. [...] is a dermatological sequela of Skin bronzing is a dermatological sequela of direct neonatal
direct neonatal hyperbilirubinemia that presents after the patient is treated with
hyperbilirubinemia that presents phototherapy.
after the patient is treated with
phototherapy.

221. [...] is a TORCH infection that VZV is a TORCH infection that presents with microphthalmia, cataracts
presents with microphthalmia, and cutaneous/bony abnormalities.
cataracts and cutaneous/bony
abnormalities.

222. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) in
Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) in infants?
infants? RVH
[...]

223. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to turn pages one at a time?
to turn pages one at a time? 24 months
[...]

224. Which type of Febrile Seizures has Which type of Febrile Seizures has postictal paralysis?
postictal paralysis? Complex
[...]

225. [...] is a childhood cancer that can Neuroblastoma is a childhood cancer that can present anywhere there
present anywhere there is is sympathetic nervous tissue.
sympathetic nervous tissue.

Remember, it is a tumour of neural crest cells, which make up the


adrenal medulla and SNS.
The adrenals, retroperitoneal ganglia and abdomen are common
sites.

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226. [...] is a T-cell disorder that involves Hyper-IgE Syndrome (Job's Syndrome) is a T-cell disorder that
T-cell failure to produce involves T-cell failure to produce IFN-gamma, thereby leading to a
IFN-gamma, thereby leading to a neutrophil chemotactic defect.
neutrophil chemotactic defect.

227. [...] or Valproic Acid are 2 Phenobarbital or Valproic Acid are 2 anti-epileptics that can be given to
anti-epileptics that can be given to pediatric patients for complex febrile seizures.
pediatric patients for complex
febrile seizures.

228. Phenobarbital or [...] are 2 Phenobarbital or Valproic Acid are 2 anti-epileptics that can be given to
anti-epileptics that can be given to pediatric patients for complex febrile seizures.
pediatric patients for complex
febrile seizures.

229. How does Down Syndrome (Trisomy How does Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) change the incidence of ALL?
21) change the incidence of ALL? Increase
[...]

230. What is the most important What is the most important complication of Roseola (Exanthema
complication of Roseola (Exanthema Subitum)?
Subitum)? Febrile seizures
[...]

231. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to jump over low obstacles?
to jump over low obstacles? 5 years
[...]

232. [...] is a corticosteroid administered Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid administered to children with


to children with Haemophilus Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis before or at the time of
influenzae type B meningitis before antibiotic administration that can improve the neurological outcome of
or at the time of antibiotic Hib meningitis.
administration that can improve the
neurological outcome of Hib
meningitis. This is not indicated in other causes of meningitis.

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233. What is the treatment for moderate What is the treatment for moderate Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)?
Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)? Corticosteroids
[...]

Mild - no stridor at rest


Moderate - stridor at rest

234. What procedure is used to reduce What procedure is used to reduce Intussusception?
Intussusception? Barium/air enema; surgery if enema is unsuccessful
[...]

Air enema is preferred.


Barium enema can show a cervix-like mass.
Contraindications to barium enema include peritonitis, perforation and
profound shock.

235. The [...] is an examination technique The slit-lamp examination is an examination technique used to detect
used to detect chronic chronic asymptomatic uveitis in pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic
asymptomatic uveitis in Arthritis (JIA).
pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic
Arthritis (JIA).
More common in younger children.
If left undiagnosed, blindness can occur.

236. Which infection is a potential worry Which infection is a potential worry when giving honey to children < 1
when giving honey to children < 1 y/o?
y/o? Botulism
[...]

237. What is the etiology of Milia in What is the etiology of Milia in neonates?
neonates? Dead skin/oil in hair follicles
[...]

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238. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 0 for
with an APGAR rating of 0 for respiratory effort?
respiratory effort? Absent
[...]

239. [...] is a type of poisoning that yield Lead poisoning is a type of poisoning that yield lead lines on x-ray.
lead lines on x-ray.

240. What is the treatment for persistent What is the treatment for persistent Acute Otitis Media (AOM) (> 2-3
Acute Otitis Media (AOM) (> 2-3 days)?
days)? Augmentin (Amoxicillin+Clavulanate); Cefdinir; or IM/IV Ceftriaxone
[...]

241. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with diffuse crackles?
with diffuse crackles? Viral
[...]

242. [...] is an XLR B-cell deficiency that Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia is an XLR B-cell deficiency that
involves a tyrosine kinase involves a tyrosine kinase deficiency that blocks B-cell maturation.
deficiency that blocks B-cell
maturation.
There is significantly lower levels of B-cells, hence immunoglobulins of
all classes are deficient.
As this is a B-cell deficiency, infections start to occur after 6 months of life
and involve sinopulmonary and GI infections.

243. [...] is a clinical sign seen in Dance's Sign is a clinical sign seen in Intussusception and is described
Intussusception and is described as as the absence of bowel in the RLQ.
the absence of bowel in the RLQ.

244. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to pedal a tricycle?
to pedal a tricycle? 3 years
[...]

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245. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month old
pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
old caused by Chlamydia Ampicillin; or Amoxicillin; or IV Cefotaxime if febrile
trachomatis?
[...]

All for 10 days

246. What is the cause of Streptococcal What is the cause of Streptococcal Pharyngitis?
Pharyngitis? Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)
[...]

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247. [...] is a benign neonatal Mongolian Spots is a benign neonatal dermatologic disorder that
dermatologic disorder that presents presents as blue-gray macules at birth and into the first few years of life.
as blue-gray macules at birth and
into the first few years of life.

Some never disappear.

248. How does Down Syndrome (Trisomy How does Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) change the incidence of AML?
21) change the incidence of AML? Increase
[...]

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249. Which virus is a risk factor for Which virus is a risk factor for Intussusception in the summer?
Intussusception in the summer? Enterovirus
[...]

250. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating shellfish?
babies to start eating shellfish? 24 months
[...]

251. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Transposition of the Great Vessels? RAD; RVH
[...]

252. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with a short sternum and
associated with a short sternum rocker-bottom feet?
and rocker-bottom feet? Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
[...]

253. What is the treatment for mild What is the treatment for mild Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)?
Croup Supportive measures, fluids, cool-mist therapy, humidity
(Laryngotracheobronchitis)?
[...]

Mild - no stridor at rest

254. What protein level is seen on LP in What protein level is seen on LP in viral (non-HSV) meningitis?
viral (non-HSV) meningitis? 50-100
[...]

255. Which antibiotic can be used Which antibiotic can be used empirically in the outpatient management
empirically in the outpatient of a febrile 28-90 days old infant that is non-toxic appearing and low
management of a febrile 28-90 risk?
days old infant that is non-toxic Ceftriaxone, 50 mg/kg, IM
appearing and low risk?
[...]

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256. At which month after birth are At which month after birth are breastfed infants in need of iron
breastfed infants in need of iron supplementation?
supplementation? 4 months
[...]

257. Which pharyngeal pouches are Which pharyngeal pouches are hypoplastic in DiGeorge Syndrome?
hypoplastic in DiGeorge Syndrome? 3rd and 4th
[...]

258. What is the first-line treatment for What is the first-line treatment for Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Amoxicillin (high dose, 80-90 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days)
[...]

However, look at your patient. The AAP advocates for a 48-72 hour
observational period with treatment beginning after 72 hours with
nonsevere/mild symptoms.

259. What is the etiology of Measles What is the etiology of Measles (Rubeola)?
(Rubeola)? Paramyxovirus
[...]

260. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with pulmonary stenosis?
pulmonary stenosis? Right axis deviation; RVH; Right atrial enlargement (RAE)
[...]

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261. What is the treatment for Kawasaki What is the treatment for Kawasaki Disease?
Disease? IVIG; ASA
[...]

IVIG (2 g/kg; over 10-12 hrs)


High dose ASA (80-100 mg/kg/day over 4 doses until 48-72 hours after
the resolution of fever) followed by low dose ASA (3-5 mg/kg/day)
This is one of the few indications for giving ASA to a child.
Steroids are used if the disease is refractory to IVIG.

262. How does ESR change in Juvenile How does ESR change in Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? Normal or elevated
[...]

Hence, a normal ESR does not exclude JIA.

263. How do Homovanillic Acid (HVA) How do Homovanillic Acid (HVA) levels change in Neuroblastoma?
levels change in Neuroblastoma? Increase (95%)
[...]

Hence a 24 hr urine collection for catecholamines is indicated.

264. How does lung vital capacity change How does lung vital capacity change in Asthma (Reactive Airway
in Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
Disease)? Decreased
[...]

265. What is precocious puberty? What is precocious puberty?


[...] Premature onset of secondary sexual characteristics

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266. How do IgE levels change in How do IgE levels change in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome? Increased
[...]

267. What are the ToRCHeS pathogens What are the ToRCHeS pathogens that are commonly acquired in utero
that are commonly acquired in utero or the perinatal period?
or the perinatal period? see below
[...]

ToRCHeS:
- Toxoplasma gondii
- Other (parvovirus, Borrelia, VZV)
- Rubella
- CMV
- HSV/HIV/HBV
- Syphilis

268. What is the genetic inheritance of What is the genetic inheritance of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome??
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?? XLR
[...]

269. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The asymmetric tonic neck (fencer) reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex
that involves ipsilateral extremity that involves ipsilateral extremity extension and contralateral flexion
extension and contralateral when the head is turned laterally 45-90 degrees while supine.
flexion when the head is turned
laterally 45-90 degrees while supine.
i.e. they assume a 'fencer position'

270. What is What is Laryngotracheobronchitis?


Laryngotracheobronchitis? Viral croup
[...]

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271. Which TORCH infection can have a Which TORCH infection can have a characteristic "blueberry muffin"
characteristic "blueberry muffin" rash?
rash? Rubella
[...]

272. [...] is a feature of Sickle Cell Dactylitis is a feature of Sickle Cell Disease that occurs due to
Disease that occurs due to vaso-occlusion at the digits.
vaso-occlusion at the digits.

273. At what age should yearly hip At what age should yearly hip radiographs start to be performed in
radiographs start to be performed Sickle Cell Disease to detect for avascular necrosis?
in Sickle Cell Disease to detect for 10
avascular necrosis?
[...]

274. [...] is a T-cell disorder that is Hyper-IgE Syndrome (Job's Syndrome) is a T-cell disorder that is
characterized by the mnemonic characterized by the mnemonic FATED.
FATED.

FATED:
- coarse Facies
- noninflamed Abscesses
- retained primary Teeth
- increased IgE
- Dermatological problems (eczema)

275. What is the duration of empiric What is the duration of empiric antibiotic therapy for meningitis caused
antibiotic therapy for meningitis by Neisseria meningitidis?
caused by Neisseria meningitidis? 7 days
[...]

276. Which joint can develop arthritis as a Which joint can develop arthritis as a complication of Erythema
complication of Erythema Infectiosum (5th Disease), albeit rarely?
Infectiosum (5th Disease), albeit Knee
rarely?
[...]

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277. [...] is a respiratory disorder that Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis) is a respiratory disorder that
presents with hoarse voice, presents with hoarse voice, inspiratory stridor and a characteristic
inspiratory stridor and a seal-like, barking cough.
characteristic seal-like, barking
cough.

278. What is the etiology of Acne What is the etiology of Acne Neonatorum in neonates?
Neonatorum in neonates? Maternal hormones
[...]

279. [...] is a combined T and B cell Ataxia-Telangiectasia is a combined T and B cell disorder that
disorder that manifests due to a manifests due to a defect in DNA repair enzymes.
defect in DNA repair enzymes.

280. Which type of Febrile Seizures has Which type of Febrile Seizures has generalized features?
generalized features? Simple
[...]

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281. What protein level is seen on LP in What protein level is seen on LP in TB meningitis?
TB meningitis? 100-500
[...]

282. Which bacteria is especially known Which bacteria is especially known to cause UTI in adolescent females?
to cause UTI in adolescent females? Staphylococcus saprophyticus
[...]

283. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with camptodactyly?
associated with camptodactyly? Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
[...]

Camptodactyly = overlapping 4th and 5th digits/clenched hands

284. What temperature constitutes fever What temperature constitutes fever in a child < 3 months of age?
in a child < 3 months of age? ≥ 38 C (≥ 100.4 F; rectal)
[...]

285. Which phagocytic disorder has Which phagocytic disorder has intact phagocytosis and chemotaxis?
intact phagocytosis and Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
chemotaxis?
[...]

286. What temperature constitutes a What temperature constitutes a fever in children 3 months - 2 years of
fever in children 3 months - 2 years age?
of age? ≥ 38.3 C (≥ 102 F)
[...]

287. Which age group affected by Sickle Which age group affected by Sickle Cell Disease most commonly exhibits
Cell Disease most commonly dactylitis?
exhibits dactylitis? Toddlers
[...]

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288. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The moro reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex that involves sudden neck
that involves sudden neck extension extension while supine causing extension, adduction and the abduction of
while supine causing extension, the upper extremities.
adduction and the abduction of the
upper extremities.

289. What is the mnemonic for the 5 What is the mnemonic for the 5 major cyanotic heart diseases?
major cyanotic heart diseases? see below
[...]

290. What is the most common cause of What is the most common cause of aplastic anaemia in Sickle Cell
aplastic anaemia in Sickle Cell Disease?
Disease? Parvovirus B19
[...]

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291. What CXR findings are seen with What CXR findings are seen with Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)?
Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)? Cardiomegaly; Increased pulmonary vascular markings
[...]

292. When do cyanotic congenital heart When do cyanotic congenital heart defects present after birth?
defects present after birth? After the PDA closes
[...]

Typically int he first week of life.

293. Which acyanotic congenital heart Which acyanotic congenital heart defects are commonly seen alongside
defects are commonly seen Tricuspid Atresia?
alongside Tricuspid Atresia? ASD; VSD
[...]

294. [...] is a congenital heart defect VSD is a congenital heart defect (CHD) that presents with a holosystolic
(CHD) that presents with a murmur at the left lower sternal border (LLSB).
holosystolic murmur at the left
lower sternal border (LLSB).

295. [...] are a musculoskeletal feature of Nodules are a musculoskeletal feature of Acute Rheumatic Fever that
Acute Rheumatic Fever that present present over the joints, scalp and spine.
over the joints, scalp and spine.

296. [...] is a TORCH infection that CMV is a TORCH infection that presents with periventricular
presents with periventricular calcifications.
calcifications.

ToXoplasmosis = corteX
CMV = periVentricular

297. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with mature characteristics?
with mature characteristics? 5
[...]

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298. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to laugh?
to laugh? 4 months
[...]

299. What kind of fever is seen with What kind of fever is seen with Epiglottitis?
Epiglottitis? High grade
[...]

300. What kind of fever is seen with What kind of fever is seen with Tracheitis?
Tracheitis? High grade
[...]

301. Which corticosteroid administered to Which corticosteroid administered to mothers during gestation decreases
mothers during gestation decreases the incidence of Respiratory Distress Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline
the incidence of Respiratory Distress Membrane Disease)?
Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline Betamethasone (BMZ)
Membrane Disease)?
[...]

302. [...] is a TORCH infection that is VZV is a TORCH infection that is acquired when the mother has
acquired when the mother has maternal chickenpox in the first trimester.
maternal chickenpox in the first
trimester.
VZV acquired within 1 week before or after delivery are associated with
severe disseminated disease.

303. What is the most common lethal What is the most common lethal genetic disease affecting Caucasians?
genetic disease affecting Cystic Fibrosis (CF)
Caucasians?
[...]

304. [...] is a musculoskeletal feature of Migratory Polyarthritis is a musculoskeletal feature of Acute Rheumatic
Acute Rheumatic Fever that Fever that presents at > 2 joints.
presents at > 2 joints.

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305. Which cyanotic congenital heart Which cyanotic congenital heart defects are associated with DiGeorge
defects are associated with Syndrome?
DiGeorge Syndrome? Transposition of the great vessels; Truncus arteriosus
[...]

306. What is the indication for What is the indication for Myringotomy with tubes for the treatment of
Myringotomy with tubes for the Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
treatment of Acute Otitis Media > 3 cases of AOM in 6 months; or 4 in 1 year
(AOM)?
[...]

307. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with horseshoe kidney?
associated with horseshoe kidney? Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
[...]

308. [...] is a nuclease agent Deoxyribonuclease is a nuclease agent administered via aerosol in
administered via aerosol in Cystic Cystic Fibrosis (CF) to increase mucous clearance.
Fibrosis (CF) to increase mucous
clearance.

309. [...] is a neurological complication of Lead encephalopathy is a neurological complication of Lead poisoning
Lead poisoning that involves that involves increased intracranial pressure, headache, vomiting,
increased intracranial pressure, ataxia, seizures, coma and eventually death.
headache, vomiting, ataxia,
seizures, coma and eventually
death.

310. At what age do B-cell deficiencies At what age do B-cell deficiencies typically present?
typically present? After 6 months
[...]

Maternal antibodies disappear after 6 months.

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311. [...] is a possible clinical sign of Brudzinski's Sign is a possible clinical sign of meningitis that involves
meningitis that involves involuntary involuntary flexion of the hips/knees after neck flexion while supine.
flexion of the hips/knees after
neck flexion while supine.
Brudzinski = after brain (read: neck) flexion

312. Which opening pressure during an Which opening pressure during an LP may be indicative of bacterial
LP may be indicative of bacterial meningitis?
meningitis? > 180 mmHg
[...]

313. What is the most common primary What is the most common primary immunodeficiency?
immunodeficiency? IgA Deficiency
[...]

314. At what age do T-cell deficiencies At what age do T-cell deficiencies typically present?
typically present? 3-4 months
[...]

315. How does Wilms' Tumour How does Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) spread?
(Nephroblastoma) spread? Haematogenously via the renal vein and/or IVC
[...]

Lung and liver are often the first site of mets.

316. [...] is a benign neonatal Milia is a benign neonatal dermatologic condition that presents as white
dermatologic condition that presents papules on the face within the first month of life.
as white papules on the face
within the first month of life.

317. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
affected by Juvenile Idiopathic (JIA)?
Arthritis (JIA)? Females
[...]

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318. What glucose level is seen on LP in What glucose level is seen on LP in TB meningitis?
TB meningitis? 20-40
[...]

319. At which bilirubin level does At which bilirubin level does Kernicterus typically occur without risk
Kernicterus typically occur without factors?
risk factors? > 25 mg/dL
[...]

320. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating iron-fortified
babies to start eating iron-fortified single-grain cereal?
single-grain cereal? 4 months
[...]

321. How do uric acid levels often change How do uric acid levels often change in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?
(ALL)? Increase
[...]

322. How does functional residual How does functional residual capacity change in Asthma (Reactive
capacity change in Asthma Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? Increase
[...]

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323. [...] is an exanthem that presents Varicella (Chickenpox) is an exanthem that presents with a papular
with a papular rash described as rash described as "dew drops on a rose petal" that later evolves to
"dew drops on a rose petal" that vesicles, pustules and then excoriation.
later evolves to vesicles, pustules
and then excoriation.

324. What is the etiology of Croup? What is the etiology of Croup?


[...] Parainfluenza virus (PIV); other viruses

325. How do K levels change in Diabetic How do K levels change in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Ketoacidosis (DKA)? Increase
[...]

326. What is the first-line treatment for What is the first-line treatment for Otitis Media with Effusion (OME)?
Otitis Media with Effusion (OME)? Supportive
[...]

327. [...] is a middle ear disorder Myringitis is a middle ear disorder described as inflammation of the
described as inflammation of the tympanic membrane with normal membrane mobility.
tympanic membrane with normal
membrane mobility.
On the DDx for Acute Otitis Media (AOM).

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328. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice has total bilirubin increases < 5
has total bilirubin increases < 5 mg/dL/day?
mg/dL/day? Physiological
[...]

329. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice has total bilirubin levels that peak < 15
has total bilirubin levels that peak < mg/dL?
15 mg/dL? Physiological
[...]

330. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating fluoride
babies to start eating fluoride supplementation?
supplementation? 6 months
[...]

331. [...] is a T-cell disorder that involves Hyper-IgE Syndrome (Job's Syndrome) is a T-cell disorder that
lax joints and eosinophilia. involves lax joints and eosinophilia.

332. What percentage of stenotic aortic What percentage of stenotic aortic valve are bicuspid?
valve are bicuspid? 85%
[...]

333. Which race is more commonly Which race is more commonly affected by Kawasaki Disease?
affected by Kawasaki Disease? Asian
[...]

334. [...] is a TORCH infection that CMV is a TORCH infection that commonly presents with hearing loss,
commonly presents with hearing seizures, sepsis and pneumonia
loss, seizures, sepsis and
pneumonia
Microcephaly, periventricular calcifications, severe mental
retardation, and hepatosplenomegaly are also seen.

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335. What is pubarche? What is pubarche?


[...] Development of pubic hair

336. [...] and Folate are 2 drugs given Oral Penicillin VK and Folate are 2 drugs given prophylactically to
prophylactically to children at the children at the time of diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease to prevent
time of diagnosis of Sickle Cell bacteremia.
Disease to prevent bacteremia. The penicillin is given bid.

Continued until the child is atleast 5.

337. Oral Penicillin VK and [...] are 2 Oral Penicillin VK and Folate are 2 drugs given prophylactically to
drugs given prophylactically to children at the time of diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease to prevent
children at the time of diagnosis of bacteremia.
Sickle Cell Disease to prevent The penicillin is given bid.
bacteremia.
Continued until the child is atleast 5.

338. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to come when called upon?
to come when called upon? 12 months
[...]

339. What is the etiology of What is the etiology of Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease?


Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease? Coxsackievirus
[...]

340. What Streptococcal Antigen What Streptococcal Antigen Detection Test result is associated with
Detection Test result is associated Streptococcal Pharyngitis?
with Streptococcal Pharyngitis? Positive
[...]

aka "Rapid Strep Test"


The rapid strep test has a sensitivity of 80-90% and a specificity of >
95%. Therefore, false-negatives are common and you have to make
your clinical decision carefully based on the whole picture.

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341. How many night symptoms are seen How many night symptoms are seen in severe persistent Asthma
in severe persistent Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? Frequent
[...]

342. What is needed to confirm the What is needed to confirm the diagnosis of a UTI?
diagnosis of a UTI? Urine culture
[...]

The UA alone is not enough.

343. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Patent Ductus Arteriosus
affected by Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
(PDA)? Females
[...]

344. What is the most common What is the most common autosomal trisomy?
autosomal trisomy? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

345. How do Vanillylmandellic Acid How do Vanillylmandellic Acid (VMA) levels change in Neuroblastoma?
(VMA) levels change in Increase (95%)
Neuroblastoma?
[...]

Hence 24 hr urine collection for catecholamines is indicated.

346. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with an increase in scrotum/testis
with an increase in scrotum/testis size and scrotum darkening?
size and scrotum darkening? 2
[...]

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347. Which type of Febrile Seizures has a Which type of Febrile Seizures has a long duration (> 15 min)?
long duration (> 15 min)? Complex
[...]

348. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for abnormal host/urinary tract UTI?
abnormal host/urinary tract UTI? Ampicillin +
[...] Gentamycin/Piperacillin+Tazobactam/Ticarcillin+Clavulanate (for
Pseudomonas coverage)

For 14-21 days

349. What antibiotic is given What antibiotic is given prophylactically in HIV TORCH infections to
prophylactically in HIV TORCH prevent PCP infection?
infections to prevent PCP infection? TMP-SMX (Bactrim)
[...]

350. [...] is a possible sequela of Scarlet Fever is a possible sequela of Streptococcal Pharyngitis that can
Streptococcal Pharyngitis that can present with a "sandpaper-like" rash.
present with a "sandpaper-like"
rash.

351. [...] is an exanthem that can cause Erythema Infectiosum (5th Disease) is an exanthem that can cause
aplastic crisis in patients with aplastic crisis in patients with Sickle Cell Disease or other anaemias.
Sickle Cell Disease or other
anaemias.

352. How many night symptoms are seen How many night symptoms are seen in mild intermittent Asthma
in mild intermittent Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? < 2/month
[...]

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353. What is the most common What is the most common congenital infection?
congenital infection? CMV
[...]

354. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with aortic stenosis?
aortic stenosis? LVH
[...]

355. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with Truncus Arteriosus?
Truncus Arteriosus? RAD; RVH
[...]

356. [...] is a tumour syndrome that Denys-Drash Syndrome is a tumour syndrome that involves Wilms'
involves Wilms' Tumour Tumour (Nephroblastoma), nephropathy and genital abnormalities.
(Nephroblastoma), nephropathy
and genital abnormalities.

357. What is the difference between What is the difference between organic and nonorganic Failure To
organic and nonorganic Failure To Thrive (FTT)?
Thrive (FTT)? Organic is medical; Nonorganic is psychosocial
[...]

358. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating pureed fruits
babies to start eating pureed fruits and vegetables?
and vegetables? 6 months
[...]

359. How does breastfeeding change How does breastfeeding change postpartum bleeding?
postpartum bleeding? Decrease
[...]

Due to the increase in oxytocin.

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360. [...] is a possible GI feature of Watery diarrhea is a possible GI feature of Neuroblastoma that occurs
Neuroblastoma that occurs from from secretion of VIP.
secretion of VIP.

361. What is the normal progression in What is the normal progression in puberty for males?
puberty for males? Testicular enlargement; penile enlargement; growth spurt; pubic
[...] hair

In that order.
Yes, I know, this is kind of a weird card, but my attending asked me today
which happens first: the growth spurt or genital changes. Hence, this card
exists.

362. What is the treatment for Common What is the treatment for Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)?
Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)? IVIG if IgG < 400
[...]

363. [...] is an immunofluorescence Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is an immunofluorescence


technique used to diagnose technique used to diagnose DiGeorge Syndrome.
DiGeorge Syndrome.

364. Which type of Otitis Media presents Which type of Otitis Media presents with erythema and a bulging
with erythema and a bulging tympanic membrane on otoscope exam?
tympanic membrane on otoscope Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
exam?
[...]

365. A decline in [...] major percentile A decline in > 2 major percentile lines on a growth chart over 3-6 months
lines on a growth chart over 3-6 is suggestive of Failure To Thrive (FTT).
months is suggestive of Failure To
Thrive (FTT).

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366. Why is ASA (Aspirin) Why is ASA (Aspirin) contraindicated in the treatment of Juvenile
contraindicated in the treatment of Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? Reye's Syndrome
[...]

367. What is the threshold body What is the threshold body temperature commonly seen with Febrile
temperature commonly seen with Seizures?
Febrile Seizures? ≥ 39 C (≥ 102.2 F)
[...]

May also be due to a rapid increase in temperature.

368. How does mobility of the How does mobility of the Tympanic Membrane change with Acute
Tympanic Membrane change with Otitis Media (AOM)?
Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Decreased mobility
[...]

369. Which class of asthma involves Which class of asthma involves symptoms that occur < 2 times/week?
symptoms that occur < 2 Mild intermittent
times/week?
[...]

Patients are typically asymptomatic between exacerbations.

370. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that is Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a phagocytic disorder that is
associated with retinitis associated with retinitis pigmentosa.
pigmentosa.

371. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The Babinski reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex that involves fanning
that involves fanning and extension and extension of the lower extremity digits after stroking the plantar
of the lower extremity digits after surface.
stroking the plantar surface.

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372. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to hold their head midline?
to hold their head midline? 2 months
[...]

373. What neutrophil level is seen on LP What neutrophil level is seen on LP in bacterial meningitis?
in bacterial meningitis? > 50
[...]

374. What is the treatment for severe What is the treatment for severe Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)?
Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)? IV hydration, systemic steroids, nebulized racemic epinephrine,
[...] supplemental O2 and intubation if needed

Mild - no stridor at rest


Moderate - stridor at rest
Severe - respiratory distress and hypoxia

375. What is the most common What is the most common thrombocytopaenia of childhood?
thrombocytopaenia of childhood? Idiopathic Thrombocytopaenic Purpura (ITP)
[...]

376. How does Down syndrome change How does Down syndrome change the risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
the risk of Acute Otitis Media Increase
(AOM)?
[...]

377. What is the age of onset of Severe What is the age of onset of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Combined Immunodeficiency 3 months
(SCID)?
[...]

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378. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) can also affect the
Arthritis (JIA) can also affect the TMJ and vertebrae?
TMJ and vertebrae? Polyarticular
[...]

379. [...] is a severe complication of the Cerebral Edema is a severe complication of the treatment of DKA,
treatment of DKA, especially in especially in children, due to the decrease in serum osmolarity.
children, due to the decrease in
serum osmolarity.
Boluses of insulin decrease glucose so sharply that serum osmolarity
decreases sharply as well.
This is another reason why you never give HCO3 to treat DKA:
1. It will increase the work of breathing and exacerbate the acidosis
2. It will be converted into CO2 and cause widespread cerebral
vasodilation and cerebral edema.

380. What ECG findings are seen with What ECG findings are seen with Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)?
Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)? RAD; RVH
[...]

381. Is prematurity a contraindication to Is prematurity a contraindication to immunization?


immunization? No
[...]

382. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) involves recurrent,
Arthritis (JIA) involves recurrent, high spiking fevers > 39.4 C (> 102.9 F) prior to arthritis?
high spiking fevers > 39.4 C (> Systemic (Still's Disease)
102.9 F) prior to arthritis?
[...]

383. Which type of Precocious Puberty Which type of Precocious Puberty has high FSH and LH levels?
has high FSH and LH levels? Central/True
[...]

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384. Which type of Precocious Puberty Which type of Precocious Puberty involves the use of GnRH Analogs?
involves the use of GnRH Analogs? Central/True
[...]

385. [...] is a non-suppurative Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis is a non-suppurative


complication of Streptococcal complication of Streptococcal infection that presents with hematuria,
infection that presents with proteinuria, decreased urination, hypertension, pulmonary edema
hematuria, proteinuria, decreased and peripheral edema
urination, hypertension,
pulmonary edema and peripheral
edema

386. [...] is a possible clinical sign of Kernig's Sign is a possible clinical sign of meningitis that is described as
meningitis that is described as flexion of the hip to 90o with pain on extension of the leg.
flexion of the hip to 90o with pain
on extension of the leg.
Kernig = after knee extension

387. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to raise its head from the prone
to raise its head from the prone position?
position? 1 month
[...]

388. Which TORCH infection is Which TORCH infection is associated with salt-and-pepper-like
associated with chorioretinitis?
salt-and-pepper-like Rubella
chorioretinitis?
[...]

389. Which malabsorptive disorder is a Which malabsorptive disorder is a risk factor for Intussusception?
risk factor for Intussusception? Celiac Disease
[...]

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390. What are the top 3 causes of Acute What are the top 3 causes of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
Otitis Media (AOM)? Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus influenzae; Moraxella
[...] catarrhalis

Together they are responsible for 80% of cases.

391. What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in severe persistent asthma?
severe persistent asthma? < 60%
[...]

392. [...] is a clinical feature of Iridocyclitis is a clinical feature of Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic
Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) that is described as inflammation of both the iris and
Arthritis (JIA) that is described as ciliary body.
inflammation of both the iris and
ciliary body. https://youtu.be/oOrWDt1o1gk

393. After how many episodes of Acute After how many episodes of Acute Splenic Sequestration should
Splenic Sequestration should splenectomy be considered in Sickle Cell Disease?
splenectomy be considered in 2
Sickle Cell Disease?
[...]

394. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Transposition of the Great Vessels with a VSD?
Transposition of the Great Vessels Pulmonary artery band
with a VSD?
[...]

Transposition of the Great Vessels requires either a VSD or PDA to be


compatible with life.

395. [...] is a T-cell disorder that presents Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis is a T-cell disorder that presents
with refractory thrush and with refractory thrush and severely refractory diaper rash.
severely refractory diaper rash.

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396. What is the normal progression in What is the normal progression in puberty for females?
puberty for females? Thelarche; growth spurt; pubic hair; menarche
[...]

In that order.
Yes, I know, this is kind of a weird card, but my attending asked me today
which happens first: the growth spurt or thelarche (breast development).
Hence, this card exists.

397. [...] is a possible feature of Sickle Aplastic Anaemia is a possible feature of Sickle Cell Disease that
Cell Disease that involves acute involves acute and reversible reticulocytopaenia.
and reversible reticulocytopaenia.

Often due to Parvovirus B19.


Patients often require transfusions for 1-2 weeks.
Remember, sickled RBCs have a much shorter half-life than normal
RBCs.

398. [...] is a GI disorder that occurs due Meckel's Diverticulum is a GI disorder that occurs due to prolonged
to prolonged persistence of the persistence of the omphalomesenteric (vitelline) duct.
omphalomesenteric (vitelline)
duct.
It normally disappears by the 7th week of gestation.

399. How much food, per volume, do How much food, per volume, do babies eat every 2-3 hrs in the first 2
babies eat every 2-3 hrs in the first 2 months of life?
months of life? 60-90 mL
[...]

2-3 oz
Approximately 10-20 min per breast.

400. What RBC level is seen on LP in What RBC level is seen on LP in bacterial meningitis?
bacterial meningitis? 0-10
[...]

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401. Which exanthem is associated with Which exanthem is associated with Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
Subacute Sclerosing (SSPE), albeit rarely?
Panencephalitis (SSPE), albeit Measles (Rubeola)
rarely?
[...]

402. What is the treatment for hemolytic What is the treatment for hemolytic crisis in Sickle Cell Disease?
crisis in Sickle Cell Disease? Transfusion
[...]

403. Which type of vasculitis is a risk Which type of vasculitis is a risk factor for Intussusception?
factor for Intussusception? Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
[...]

404. Which enzyme is deficient in Severe Which enzyme is deficient in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
(SCID)? Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
[...]

405. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to enjoy looking around?
to enjoy looking around? 4 months
[...]

406. What are the top 3 pathogens What are the top 3 pathogens causing meningitis in children (3 months -
causing meningitis in children (3 18 years)?
months - 18 years)? Neisseria meningitidis; Streptococcus pneumoniae; Haemophilus
[...] influenzae

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407. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Transposition of the Great Vessels without a
Transposition of the Great Vessels VSD?
without a VSD? Prostaglandin E1; Ballon atrial septostomy (BAS)
[...]

PGE1 keeps the PDA open.


BAS creates an ASD to allow for mixing.
Transposition of the Great Vessels requires either a VSD or PDA to be
compatible with life.

408. Which imaging study is more Which imaging study is more sensitive for early joint changes in
sensitive for early joint changes in Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? MRI
[...]

409. What blood glucose level is seen in What blood glucose level is seen in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)? > 200 mg/dL
[...]

410. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
affected by Henoch-Schonlein (HSP)?
Purpura (HSP)? Males
[...]

411. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with preadolescent characteristics?
with preadolescent characteristics? 1
[...]

412. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to use 7-10 words?
to use 7-10 words? 18 months
[...]

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413. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with duodenal atresia?
associated with duodenal atresia? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

414. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a phagocytic disorder that presents with
presents with giant gray granules giant gray granules in the cytoplasm of nucleated cells on histology.
in the cytoplasm of nucleated
cells on histology.

415. [...] is an orthopaedic disorder that Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) is an orthopaedic disorder
presents due to poor growth and that presents due to poor growth and development of the hip
development of the hip resulting resulting in/from abnormal relationship between the femoral head
in/from abnormal relationship and acetabulum.
between the femoral head and
acetabulum.
Associated with torticollis, clubfeet and metatarsus adductus.

416. Which level of lead poisoning Which level of lead poisoning requires medical evaluation?
requires medical evaluation? > 20 ug/dL
[...]

However levels of 10-19 ug/dL can also be toxic and can cause
neurocognitive effects.
> 70 ug/dL is considered severe.

417. What is the most common renal What is the most common renal tumour in children?
tumour in children? Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)
[...]

418. [...] is an antimetabolite used to treat Methotrexate is an antimetabolite used to treat severe Juvenile
severe Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA).
(JIA).

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419. How long after birth is exclusive How long after birth is exclusive breast feeding recommended?
breast feeding recommended? 6 months
[...]

420. How does Common Variable How does Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) change the risk of
Immunodeficiency (CVID) change gastric cancer?
the risk of gastric cancer? Increase
[...]

421. Which type of Febrile Seizures Which type of Febrile Seizures presents only once in 24 hours?
presents only once in 24 hours? Simple
[...]

422. [...] is a B-cell disorder that involves Selective IgA Deficiency is a B-cell disorder that involves a defect in
a defect in isotype switching to isotype switching to IgA.
IgA.

IgA < 5 mg/dL

423. What is the full workup for indirect What is the full workup for indirect Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia?
Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia? Blood typing, Coomb's, CBC, PBS, reticulocyte count
[...]

424. How do glucose levels change on How do glucose levels change on LP in bacterial meningitis?
LP in bacterial meningitis? Decrease (< 30)
[...]

425. What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in moderate persistent asthma?
moderate persistent asthma? 60-80%
[...]

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426. [...] is a TORCH infection that Rubella is a TORCH infection that presents with a classic triad of
presents with a classic triad of PDA/pulmonary arteria hypoplasia, cataracts and deafness.
PDA/pulmonary arteria
hypoplasia, cataracts and
deafness. Microcephaly, glaucoma, microphthalmia and "salt-and-pepper"
chorioretinitis is also seen.

427. What is the Rule of 2 for Meckel's What is the Rule of 2 for Meckel's Diverticulum?
Diverticulum? see below
[...]

2% of the population
2 inches long
2 feet from ileocecal valve (proximally)
<2 y/o
2% symptomatic

428. What is the mainstay acute What is the mainstay acute treatment of Asthma (Reactive Airway
treatment of Asthma (Reactive Disease)?
Airway Disease)? Bronchodilators
[...]

Nebulized Albuterol 0.15 mg/kg in 2-3 mL NS or MDI 2 puffs q1-6hrs


PRN

429. [...] and Tracheitis are 2 respiratory Epiglottitis and Tracheitis are 2 respiratory infections that do not
infections that do not respond to respond to aerosolized racemic epinephrine.
aerosolized racemic epinephrine.

430. Epiglottitis and [...] are 2 respiratory Epiglottitis and Tracheitis are 2 respiratory infections that do not
infections that do not respond to respond to aerosolized racemic epinephrine.
aerosolized racemic epinephrine.

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431. What is seen on PA X-ray of the What is seen on PA X-ray of the neck in Croup
neck in Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)?
(Laryngotracheobronchitis)? Subglottic narrowing ("Steeple" sign)
[...]

432. What CXR findings are seen with What CXR findings are seen with aortic stenosis?
aortic stenosis? Normal CXR
[...]

433. How often should new foods be How often should new foods be introduced to the baby after 6 months of
introduced to the baby after 6 life?
months of life? 1 every 2-3 days to allow for the identification of food allergies
[...]

434. What are the top 3 pathogens What are the top 3 pathogens causing meningitis in neonates (< 1 month
causing meningitis in neonates (< 1 of age)?
month of age)? Group B Streptococcus; Escherichia coli; Listeria monocytogenes
[...]

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435. What are the indications for using an What are the indications for using an amino acid based formula to feed
amino acid based formula to feed a a baby?
baby? Malabsorption; Severe food allergy that the hydrolyzed protein
[...] formula cannot address

436. What is the typical neurological sign What is the typical neurological sign of Intussusception?
of Intussusception? Lethargy
[...]

437. [...] is a common complication of Tumour Lysis Syndrome is a common complication of treatment of
treatment of Acute Lymphocytic Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) that involves elevated levels of
Leukemia (ALL) that involves potassium, phosphate, and uric acid from increased cell turnover and
elevated levels of potassium, DNA breakdown.
phosphate, and uric acid from
increased cell turnover and DNA
breakdown.

438. Which percentile of body weight is Which percentile of body weight is considered the threshold for Failure To
considered the threshold for Failure Thrive (FTT)?
To Thrive (FTT)? 5th
[...]

439. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to walk backwards?
to walk backwards? 15 months
[...]

440. [...] is a B-cell disorder that is Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) is a B-cell disorder that is
associated with lymphoid associated with lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis.
interstitial pneumonitis.

441. How does pacifier use change the How does pacifier use change the risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
risk of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Increase
[...]

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442. What is the full sepsis workup for a What is the full sepsis workup for a paediatric patient?
paediatric patient? see below
[...]

- LP (with CSF culture, gram stain, cells count, Glc, protein and HSV
PCR, if needed)
- Urine culture
- UA
- CBC with differential
- Blood culture
- BMP (lytes, Glc, BUN/Cr)

443. [...] is a haematological Haemolytic anaemia is a haematological phenomenon that develops


phenomenon that develops after 6 after 6 months of age in Sickle Cell Disease due to the decrease in HbF
months of age in Sickle Cell levels.
Disease due to the decrease in
HbF levels.

444. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to anticipate feeding?
to anticipate feeding? 3 months
[...]

445. What is the most common cause of What is the most common cause of acquired heart disease in children?
acquired heart disease in children? Kawasaki Disease
[...]

446. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Pyloric Stenosis?
affected by Pyloric Stenosis? Males (4:1)
[...]

Especially firstborn males.

447. [...] is a GI disorder caused by Pyloric Stenosis is a GI disorder caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric
hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter sphincter in the first 2-8 weeks of life.
in the first 2-8 weeks of life.

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448. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is also referred to as
Arthritis (JIA) is also referred to as Still's Disease?
Still's Disease? Systemic
[...]

449. What is the average birth weight? What is the average birth weight?
[...] 3.5 kg

That's 7.7 lbs for the non-metric homies.

450. How do AFP levels change in How do AFP levels change in Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
Ataxia-Telangiectasia? Increase
[...]

451. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) involves
Arthritis (JIA) involves lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly and growth retardation?
lymphadenopathy, Systemic (Still's Disease)
hepatosplenomegaly and growth
retardation?
[...]

452. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to transfer objects between hands?
to transfer objects between hands? 6 months
[...]

453. [...] is a life threatening disorder Reye's Syndrome is a life threatening disorder seen in paediatric
seen in paediatric patients that patients that receive ASA while suffering a viral infection that presents
receive ASA while suffering a viral with acute, severe encephalopathy and degenerative liver disease.
infection that presents with acute,
severe encephalopathy and
degenerative liver disease.

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454. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with seizures?
associated with seizures? Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
[...]

455. What is the etiology of Erythema What is the etiology of Erythema Toxicum in neonates?
Toxicum in neonates? Uncertain
[...]

50% of full term infants are affected.


Presents shortly after birth; resolves in a few days.

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456. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Neuroblastoma?
Neuroblastoma? Surgical excision of localized tumours; combination chemotherapy
[...] for intermediate- to high-risk stages

457. How does breast-feeding change How does breast-feeding change the incidence of chronic disease?
the incidence of chronic disease? Decrease
[...]

458. Which gene is mutated in Cystic Which gene is mutated in Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?
Fibrosis (CF)? CFTR
[...]

Chromosome 7.
Controls chloride conductance.

459. [...] is a benign neonatal Sebaceous hyperplasia is a benign neonatal dermatologic disorder that
dermatologic disorder that presents presents as shiny yellow papules at 2-3 weeks of age.
as shiny yellow papules at 2-3
weeks of age.

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460. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to recognize parents?
to recognize parents? 2 months
[...]

461. Which acyanotic congenital heart Which acyanotic congenital heart defect is associated with Turner's
defect is associated with Turner's Syndrome (XO)?
Syndrome (XO)? Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA)
[...]

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462. Which Salter-Harris classification of Which Salter-Harris classification of paediatric epiphyseal fracture involves a
paediatric epiphyseal fracture fracture above the epiphysis through the physis and metaphysis?
involves a fracture above the 2
epiphysis through the physis and
metaphysis?
[...]

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463. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for atypical pneumonia in a 6 weeks - 4
atypical pneumonia in a 6 weeks - year old suspected to be caused by Bordetella pertussis?
4 year old suspected to be caused Azithromycin (5 days); or Clarithromycin (7 days)
by Bordetella pertussis?
[...]

And prohylaxis for close contacts.

464. What GnRH Stimulation Test result What GnRH Stimulation Test result is seen in central precocious
is seen in central precocious puberty?
puberty? LH-dominant response
[...]

465. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 1 for pulse?
with an APGAR rating of 1 for < 100 bpm
pulse?
[...]

466. [...] is a B-cell deficiency that has a Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) is a B-cell deficiency that
bimodal age distribution (1-5 and has a bimodal age distribution (1-5 and 16-20).
16-20).

467. What is the major cardiovascular What is the major cardiovascular complication of Kawasaki Disease?
complication of Kawasaki Disease? Coronary artery aneurysm
[...]

CHF and pericardial effusion is also seen.

468. Which age group is more commonly Which age group is more commonly affected by Tracheitis?
affected by Tracheitis? Older children
[...]

469. What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in mild What PEF/FEV1 ratio is seen in mild persistent asthma?
persistent asthma? > 80%
[...]

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470. [...] and deferasirox are iron Deferoxamine and deferasirox are iron chelating agents that can be
chelating agents that can be used in used in Sickle Cell Disease to prevent haemochromatosis if the patient
Sickle Cell Disease to prevent is receiving transfusions.
haemochromatosis if the patient is
receiving transfusions.

471. Deferoxamine and [...] are iron Deferoxamine and deferasirox are iron chelating agents that can be
chelating agents that can be used in used in Sickle Cell Disease to prevent haemochromatosis if the patient
Sickle Cell Disease to prevent is receiving transfusions.
haemochromatosis if the patient is
receiving transfusions.

472. [...] is a T-cell disorder that DiGeorge Syndrome is a T-cell disorder that manifests due to thymic
manifests due to thymic aplasia. aplasia.

473. [...] is a class of immunodeficiency T-cell deficiencies is a class of immunodeficiency that is associated with
that is associated with disseminated disseminated intracellular disease.
intracellular disease.

474. [...] are a feature of Measles Koplik spots are a feature of Measles (Rubeola) that presents as
(Rubeola) that presents as whitish-gray spots on the buccal mucosa.
whitish-gray spots on the buccal
mucosa.

475. What is the treatment for Stage 1-3 What is the treatment for Stage 1-3 Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)?
Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)? Nephrectomy; Vincristine+Dactinomycin chemotherapy
[...]

Stage 1 is a tumour limited to the kidney


Stage 2 is a tumour extended beyond the kidney
Stage 3 is a tumour spreading nonhaematogenously into the abdomen

476. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to bring their hands to midline?
to bring their hands to midline? 4 months
[...]

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477. What is the most common bacterial What is the most common bacterial cause of pneumonia in children?
cause of pneumonia in children? Streptococcus pneumoniae
[...]

478. What is the etiology of Scarlet What is the etiology of Scarlet Fever?
Fever? Group A Streptococcus
[...]

479. [...] is a GI disorder that occurs Intussusception is a GI disorder that occurs when 1 portion of the bowel
when 1 portion of the bowel telescopes into an adjacent portion, usually proximal to or involving the
telescopes into an adjacent portion, ileocecal valve.
usually proximal to or involving the
ileocecal valve.

480. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with lobar consolidation on CXR?
with lobar consolidation on CXR? Bacterial
[...]

481. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by UTI during childhood?
affected by UTI during childhood? Females (10x more common)
[...]

482. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with agenesis of the
associated with agenesis of the corpus callosum?
corpus callosum? Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
[...]

483. Which type of Otitis Media presents Which type of Otitis Media presents with opacification of the tympanic
with opacification of the tympanic membrane?
membrane? Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
[...]

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484. Which virus is a risk factor for Which virus is a risk factor for Intussusception in the winter?
Intussusception in the winter? Rotavirus
[...]

485. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to use 4-6 words?
to use 4-6 words? 15 months
[...]

486. How high is the fever typically seen How high is the fever typically seen in Streptococcal Pharyngitis?
in Streptococcal Pharyngitis? > 40 C (> 104 F)
[...]

487. [...] is an exanthem that presents Erythema Infectiosum (5th Disease) is an exanthem that presents with
with flulike symptoms and a flulike symptoms and a low-grade fever for 7-10 days before the rash
low-grade fever for 7-10 days appears.
before the rash appears.

488. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 1 for
with an APGAR rating of 1 for appearance?
appearance? Pink body; blue extremities
[...]

489. Which autosomal trisomy is Which autosomal trisomy is associated with Alzheimer's?
associated with Alzheimer's? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

25% of Down patients > 35 have Alzheimer's.

490. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) involves a
Arthritis (JIA) involves a salmon-pink macular rash that comes and goes with fever?
salmon-pink macular rash that Systemic (Still's Disease)
comes and goes with fever?
[...]

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491. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to copy a circle?
to copy a circle? 3 years
[...]

492. What is the treatment for CMV as a What is the treatment for CMV as a TORCH infection?
TORCH infection? Ganciclovir
[...]

493. [...] is an autoimmune vasculitis that Kawasaki Disease is an autoimmune vasculitis that commonly presents
commonly presents with a with a characteristic "strawberry tongue".
characteristic "strawberry tongue".

494. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) affects ≥ 5 joints?
Arthritis (JIA) affects ≥ 5 joints? Polyarticular
[...]

495. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Hirschsprung's Disease?
Hirschsprung's Disease? Surgical resection
[...]

496. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for uncomplicated cystitis?
uncomplicated cystitis? TMP-SMX or Cefixime (PO, 7-14 days); or IV Cefotaxime/Ampicillin +
[...] Gentamicin (if neonate, toxic-appearing or suspected
pyelonephritis)

497. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by UTI during the newborn
affected by UTI during the period?
newborn period? Males
[...]

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498. At which age does Streptococcal At which age does Streptococcal Pharyngitis typically start to present?
Pharyngitis typically start to present?
>2
[...]

Streptococcal Pharyngitis in someone < 2 y/o is very rare.

499. [...] is a bronchial disorder described Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease) is a bronchial disorder described by
by the triad of inflammation, the triad of inflammation, reversible smooth muscle constriction and
reversible smooth muscle mucous production.
constriction and mucous
production.
Commonly seen as part of an allergic triad:asthma, atopic dermatitis
and allergic rhinitis.

500. [...] is a combined T and B cell Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a combined T and B
disorder that presents with an ALC cell disorder that presents with an ALC < 500
< 500

There are no T and B cells.


ALC is absolute lymphocyte count

501. What ECG findings can be seen with What ECG findings can be seen with tricuspid atresia?
tricuspid atresia? Superior QRS axis; Right atrial enlargement; LVH
[...]

502. [...] and Roseola (Exanthema Rubella (German Measles; 3-day Measles) and Roseola (Exanthema
Subitum) are exanthems that Subitum) are exanthems that present with enlargement of the
present with enlargement of the suboccipital lymph nodes.
suboccipital lymph nodes.

503. Rubella (German Measles; 3-day Rubella (German Measles; 3-day Measles) and Roseola (Exanthema
Measles) and [...] are exanthems Subitum) are exanthems that present with enlargement of the
that present with enlargement of suboccipital lymph nodes.
the suboccipital lymph nodes.

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504. Which type of anaemia is commonly Which type of anaemia is commonly seen with systemic Juvenile
seen with systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? Anaemia of Chronic Disease (AICD)
[...]

505. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that is Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a phagocytic disorder that is associated
associated with partial with partial oculocutaneous albinism.
oculocutaneous albinism.

506. [...] is a T-cell disorder that presents Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis is a T-cell disorder that presents
with angular cheilitis, thickened with angular cheilitis, thickened nails, and periungual
nails, and periungual edema/erythema.
edema/erythema.

507. [...] is a common feature of Hypertension is a common feature of Neuroblastoma that results from
Neuroblastoma that results from compression of renal vasculature.
compression of renal vasculature.

508. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to perform a mature "pincer grasp"?
to perform a mature "pincer grasp"? 12 months
[...]

509. [...] is a combined T and B cell Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is a combined T and B
disorder that involves an Adenosine cell disorder that involves an Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

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510. Which Salter-Harris classification of Which Salter-Harris classification of paediatric epiphyseal fracture involves
paediatric epiphyseal fracture a crush injury on the physis?
involves a crush injury on the
physis? 5

[...]

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511. What is the most common cyanotic What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart defect?
congenital heart defect? Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
[...]

512. Which stage of Wilms' Tumour Which stage of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) involves bilateral renal
(Nephroblastoma) involves bilateral metastasis?
renal metastasis? 5
[...]

513. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome? Bone marrow transplant
[...]

514. Which percentile of body Which percentile of body weight-for-length is considered the threshold in
weight-for-length is considered the Failure To Thrive (FTT)?
threshold in Failure To Thrive 5th
(FTT)?
[...]

515. [...] is a tumour syndrome that Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome is a tumour syndrome that involves
involves Wilms' Tumour Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma), hemihypertrophy, macroglossia,
(Nephroblastoma), and omphalocele/umbilical hernia.
hemihypertrophy, macroglossia,
and omphalocele/umbilical
hernia.

516. [...] is a complication of untreated Cardiac arrhythmia is a complication of untreated Tumour Lysis
Tumour Lysis Syndrome that occurs Syndrome that occurs due to the hyperkalemia.
due to the hyperkalemia.

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517. What is the treatment for Pyloric What is the treatment for Pyloric Stenosis?
Stenosis? Pyloromyotomy
[...]

Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance must be corrected first.


NG tube decompression/suction is also performed.

518. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to walk on its own?
to walk on its own? 12 months
[...]

519. What is the onset of Epiglottitis? What is the onset of Epiglottitis?

[...] Rapid over several hours

520. What is the etiology of Epiglottitis? What is the etiology of Epiglottitis?


[...] Group A Streptotococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, viruses

521. What is the preferred antipyretic in What is the preferred antipyretic in paediatric patients?
paediatric patients? Acetaminophen
[...]

Due to the risk of Reye's Syndrome with Aspirin.

522. Which class of asthma involves Which class of asthma involves symptoms that occur > 2 times/week
symptoms that occur > 2 but < 1 time/day?
times/week but < 1 time/day? Mild persistent
[...]

Exacerbation may affect daily activity.

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523. [...] is a T-cell disorder that results DiGeorge Syndrome is a T-cell disorder that results from a 22q11
from a 22q11 chromosomal deletion. chromosomal deletion.

524. What is the earliest sign of What is the earliest sign of Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
Ataxia-Telangiectasia? Red sclerae
[...]

525. Which major vaccine contains Which major vaccine contains neomycin, a potential allergen?
neomycin, a potential allergen? MMR; IPV
[...]

526. [...] is a B-cell disorder that involves Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) is a B-cell disorder that
granulomas on various organs. involves granulomas on various organs.

527. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to form 2 word sentences?
to form 2 word sentences? 24 months
[...]

528. What is the treatment for Severe What is the treatment for Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Combined Immunodeficiency Antimicrobial treatment as needed; Recombinant Adenosine
(SCID)? Deaminase (ADA); Bone marrow transplant
[...]

529. [...] is a life-threatening sequela of Macrophage Activation Syndrome is a life-threatening sequela of


systemic Juvenile Idiopathic systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) that involves high fever,
Arthritis (JIA) that involves high pancytopaenia, DIC, hyperferritinemia and hypertriglyceridemia.
fever, pancytopaenia, DIC,
hyperferritinemia and
hypertriglyceridemia. There is also hepatosplenomegaly, liver dysfunction and
hypofibrinogenemia.

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530. What is seen on barium enema in What is seen on barium enema in Hirschsprung's Disease?
Hirschsprung's Disease? Narrow rectal segment with a sharp transition from the dilated
[...] proximal bowel

531. [...] is a TORCH infection that Toxoplasmosis is a TORCH infection that presents with diffuse
presents with diffuse calcifications calcifications in the cerebral cortex.
in the cerebral cortex.

ToXoplasmosis = corteX
CMV = periVentricular

532. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to play pat-a-cake?
to play pat-a-cake? 9 months
[...]

533. What is the threshold age for What is the threshold age for Precocious Puberty in caucasian girls?
Precocious Puberty in caucasian < 8 y/o
girls?
[...]

534. Which type of Febrile Seizures has Which type of Febrile Seizures has focal features?
focal features? Complex
[...]

535. Which phagocytic disorder has Which phagocytic disorder has abnormal chemotaxis and impaired
abnormal chemotaxis and phagocytosis?
impaired phagocytosis? Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
[...]

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536. [...] is an exanthem that presents Measles (Rubeola) is an exanthem that presents with an erythematous
with an erythematous maculopapular rash that descends from the head/neck and spreads
maculopapular rash that to the trunk and limbs.
descends from the head/neck and
spreads to the trunk and limbs.

537. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to print their first name?
to print their first name? 5 y/o
[...]

538. Which imaging study is most Which imaging study is most sensitive for Pyloric Stenosis?
sensitive for Pyloric Stenosis? U/S
[...]

U/S can also detect pyloric muscle diameter and thickness


AXR can show a dilated air-filled stomach

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539. What is the most common lower What is the most common lower respiratory infection in children < 2 y/o?
respiratory infection in children < 2 Bronchiolitis
y/o?
[...]

540. [...] is an anti-Pseudomonal agent Tobramycin is an anti-Pseudomonal agent commonly given via aerosol
commonly given via aerosol to to Cystic Fibrosis (CF) patients as treatment for Pseudomonas infection.
Cystic Fibrosis (CF) patients as
treatment for Pseudomonas
infection. Given BID for 4 weeks.

541. Which therapeutic measure Which therapeutic measure commonly helps patients with Tetralogy of
commonly helps patients with Fallot by increasing TPR?
Tetralogy of Fallot by increasing Knee-Chest position
TPR?
[...]

The knee-chest position increases TPR (i.e. afterload) and decreases the
R to L shunting seen in Tetralogy.

542. How does FEV1 change in Asthma How does FEV1 change in Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
(Reactive Airway Disease)? Decrease
[...]

543. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?
Antibiotics as needed; Bone marrow transplant
[...]

544. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 1 for
with an APGAR rating of 1 for respiratory effort?
respiratory effort? Weak cry
[...]

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545. How does breastfeeding change the How does breastfeeding change the risk of Bronchiolitis?
risk of Bronchiolitis? Decrease
[...]

546. Which chromosomal disorder is Which chromosomal disorder is associated with Hirschsprung's Disease?
associated with Hirschsprung's Down syndrome
Disease?
[...]

547. Which chromosome is implicated in Which chromosome is implicated in Patau Syndrome?


Patau Syndrome? 13
[...]

E for Edwards, E for eightteen.


You already know Down's is 21, hence Patau is 13.

548. What is the treatment for aplastic What is the treatment for aplastic anaemia in Sickle Cell Disease?
anaemia in Sickle Cell Disease? Transfusion
[...]

549. [...] is a T-cell disorder that involves Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis is a T-cell disorder that involves
the inability of T-cells to recognize the inability of T-cells to recognize Candida antigens.
Candida antigens.

550. [...] is an exanthem that presents Roseola (Exanthema Subitum) is an exanthem that presents with a
with a discrete maculopapular discrete maculopapular rash on the trunk that lasts < 24 hours.
rash on the trunk that lasts < 24
hours.

551. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) involves an
Arthritis (JIA) involves an asymmetric distribution of affected joints?
asymmetric distribution of Pauciarticular
affected joints?
[...]

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552. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month old
pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
old caused by Streptococcus Ampicillin; or Amoxicillin; or IV Cefotaxime if febrile
pneumoniae?
[...]

All for 10 days

553. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with endocardial
associated with endocardial cushion/septal defects?
cushion/septal defects? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

554. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to build a tower of 2 blocks?
to build a tower of 2 blocks? 15 months
[...]

555. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to hop and skip?
to hop and skip? 4 years
[...]

556. [...] is a bacteria that can yield Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacteria that can yield pneumonia in infants
pneumonia in infants that presents that presents afebrile with conjunctivitis and a staccato cough.
afebrile with conjunctivitis and a
staccato cough.

557. What neutrophil level is seen on LP What neutrophil level is seen on LP in HSV meningitis?
in HSV meningitis? < 50
[...]

558. [...] is a potential complication of Acute Renal Failure is a potential complication of untreated Tumour
untreated Tumour Lysis Syndrome Lysis Syndrome that occurs due to uric acid deposition in renal tubules.
that occurs due to uric acid
deposition in renal tubules.

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559. How does passive exposure to How does passive exposure to tobacco smoke change the risk of Acute
tobacco smoke change the risk of Otitis Media (AOM)?
Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Increase
[...]

560. [...] is a childhood cancer that Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) is a childhood cancer that commonly
commonly presents as a painless presents as a painless abdominal/flank mass.
abdominal/flank mass.

Classically found while the parents are bathing the child.

561. What is the major biliary What is the major biliary complication of Sickle Cell Disease?
complication of Sickle Cell Disease? Cholelithiasis (and possible jaundice)
[...]

Sickling = increased hemolysis = increased bilirubin = increased bile

562. [...] is a possible sign of Enterocolitis is a possible sign of Hirschsprung's Disease that develops
Hirschsprung's Disease that due to bacterial proliferation secondary to bowel distention.
develops due to bacterial
proliferation secondary to bowel
distention. Bowel distention causes decreased perfusion which causes deterioration
of the mucosa which causes bacterial proliferation which causes
enterocolitis which can cause... you know... diarrhea.

563. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a phagocytic disorder that involves a
involves a defect in microtubular defect in microtubular function and thereby decreased phagocytosis.
function and thereby decreased
phagocytosis.

564. What is the etiology of Roseola What is the etiology of Roseola (Exanthema Subitum)?
(Exanthema Subitum)? HHV6; HHV7
[...]

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565. As a general rule, by how much do As a general rule, by how much do children increase in body weight
children increase in body weight from birth to 12 months?
from birth to 12 months? Triple
[...]

Body weight should double in 5 months, triple in 1 year, and quadruple


in 2 years.

566. [...] is a clinical sign seen on AXR Target (or Doughnut) sign is a clinical sign seen on AXR and U/S of an
and U/S of an abdomen with abdomen with Intussusception.
Intussusception.

567. [...] is a common feature of Periorbital bruising is a common feature of Neuroblastoma that is
Neuroblastoma that is described as described as "raccoon eyes" or "black eyes".
"raccoon eyes" or "black eyes".

Look, don't judge me here, I just wanted to remember the link to


Neuroblastoma.

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568. What is the treatment for Total What is the treatment for Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
Anomalous Pulmonary Venous (TAPVR)?
Return (TAPVR)? Balloon atrial septostomy (BAS)
[...]

569. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Coarctation of the Aorta
affected by Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA)?
(CotA)? Males
[...]

570. Which chromosomal deletion is seen Which chromosomal deletion is seen in DiGeorge Syndrome?
in DiGeorge Syndrome? 22q11
[...]

CATCH-22.

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571. [...] is a neonatal respiratory Respiratory Distress Syndrome (;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Disease)
disorder that presents with bilateral is a neonatal respiratory disorder that presents with bilateral atelectasis,
atelectasis, air bronchograms and air bronchograms and a "ground-glass" appearance on CXR.
a "ground-glass" appearance on
CXR.

572. [...] is a congenital heart defect that Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) is a congenital heart defect that
presents with upper extremity presents with upper extremity hypertension and leg weakness/pain in
hypertension and leg children.
weakness/pain in children.

vs. infants

573. What age is the peak onset of Acute What age is the peak onset of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?
Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)? 4
[...]

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574. [...] is a respiratory infection that Epiglottitis is a respiratory infection that involves patients preferring a
involves patients preferring a "tripod" position with their neck extended.
"tripod" position with their neck
extended.

575. Which type of pneumonia often Which type of pneumonia often involves a WBC count > 15,000?
involves a WBC count > 15,000? Bacterial
[...]

576. [...] is a congenital heart defect that Aortic Stenosis is a congenital heart defect that presents with a
presents with a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur.
crescendo-decrescendo systolic
ejection murmur.

577. [...] is a drug that can be used to Allopurinol is a drug that can be used to decrease Uric Acid levels in
decrease Uric Acid levels in Tumour Tumour Lysis Syndrome.
Lysis Syndrome.

578. [...] is a respiratory infection that Croup is a respiratory infection that involves patients preferring to sit
involves patients preferring to sit up, leaning against their parent's chest.
up, leaning against their parent's
chest.

579. [...] is a diagnostic test that gauges Peak Flow Monitoring is a diagnostic test that gauges how fast a patient
how fast a patient can forcibly expire can forcibly expire air after a maximal inhalation.
air after a maximal inhalation.

Readings of 50-80% indicate mild to moderate obstruction.


Readings < 30% are seen in severe obstruction.
FEV is volume. PEF is flow rate.

580. What is the genetic inheritance of What is the genetic inheritance of Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
(CGD)? XLR
[...]

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581. What is the onset of Croup? What is the onset of Croup?


[...] 2-3 days

582. [...] is a cause of meningitis that can Neisseria meningitidis is a cause of meningitis that can also yield a
also yield a rapidly spreading rapidly spreading petechial rash that may precede other symptoms.
petechial rash that may precede
other symptoms.

583. Which stage of Wilms' Tumour Which stage of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) involves tumour
(Nephroblastoma) involves tumour growth beyond the kidney?
growth beyond the kidney? 2
[...]

This is still operable.

584. [...] is a neurological complication of Kernicterus is a neurological complication of neonatal


neonatal hyperbilirubinemia that hyperbilirubinemia that presents with hypotonia, seizures,
presents with hypotonia, seizures, choreoathetoid movements, deafness, impaired eye movements and
choreoathetoid movements, dental enamel hypoplasia.
deafness, impaired eye
movements and dental enamel
hypoplasia. The deafness is manifested by delayed language acquisition.
Upward gaze is especially affected in terms of eye movement.
Cognitive function is relatively spared.

585. Which lung lobe is commonly Which lung lobe is commonly affected by aspiration pneumonia on CXR?
affected by aspiration pneumonia on Right middle; Right upper
CXR?
[...]

Remember, the right mainstem bronchus is shorter, fatter and more


vertical. Thereby making it easier for aspirated material to enter the right
side.

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586. What is the etiology of Mongolian What is the etiology of Mongolian Spots in neonates?
Spots in neonates? Melanocytes
[...]

587. What is the treatment for large What is the treatment for large Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)?
Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)? Diuretics; Digitalis; surgical closure
[...]

Large VSDs typically involve CHF and pulmonary HTN.

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588. What RBC level is seen on LP in What RBC level is seen on LP in viral (non-HSV) meningitis?
viral (non-HSV) meningitis? 0-2
[...]

589. What is the most feared What is the most feared complication of fluid administration in Diabetic
complication of fluid administration Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)? Cerebral Edema
[...]

Seen when fluids are repleted too rapidly.


Typically you give 10-20 mL/kg NS boluses over 1 hr followed by
repletion of the remaining fluid over 24-48 hrs plus maintenance fluids.
Fluids should contain one-half NS as Na will correct with glucose
dropping.
K should be given as one-half KCl or K-acetate + one-half KPO4

590. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Total Anomalous Pulmonary
affected by Total Anomalous Venous Return (TAPVR)?
Pulmonary Venous Return Males
(TAPVR)?
[...]

591. What is the most common cause of What is the most common cause of hospitalization in Sickle Cell
hospitalization in Sickle Cell Disease?
Disease? Vaso-occlusive or pain crisis
[...]

592. At which age should patients no At which age should patients no longer receive the DTaP vaccine?
longer receive the DTaP vaccine? 7
[...]

At which point Tdap is used.

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593. Which 2 immunoglobulins are Which 2 immunoglobulins are particularly deficient in


particularly deficient in Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
Ataxia-Telangiectasia? IgA; IgM
[...]

594. [...] or Infliximab are 2 anti-TNF Etanercept or Infliximab are 2 anti-TNF agents that are used in
agents that are used in refractory refractory polyarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA).
polyarticular Juvenile Idiopathic
Arthritis (JIA).

595. Etanercept or [...] are 2 anti-TNF Etanercept or Infliximab are 2 anti-TNF agents that are used in
agents that are used in refractory refractory polyarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA).
polyarticular Juvenile Idiopathic
Arthritis (JIA).

596. What is the treatment for What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis as a TORCH infection?
Toxoplasmosis as a TORCH Pyrimethamine+Sulfadiazine
infection?
[...]

597. Which class of asthma involves Which class of asthma involves daily symptoms with ≥ exacerbations
daily symptoms with ≥ per week?
exacerbations per week? Moderate persistent
[...]

Exacerbations limit daily activity.

598. [...] is a sequelae of L to R heart Eisgenmenger's syndrome/phenomenon is a sequelae of L to R heart


defects that involves the defects that involves the development of pulmonary hypertension and
development of pulmonary eventual shunt reversal.
hypertension and eventual shunt
reversal.
Commonly seen with large ASDs and VSDs.

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599. [...] is an exanthem that presents Rubella (German Measles; 3-day Measles) is an exanthem that
with low-grade fever for 1-2 days presents with low-grade fever for 1-2 days before the rash.
before the rash.

Often the fever is only present on the first day of the rash only.

600. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to perform an immature "pincer
to perform an immature "pincer grasp"?
grasp"? 9 months
[...]

601. Which viral infections in the mother Which viral infections in the mother are major contraindications to
are major contraindications to breast-feeding a baby?
breast-feeding a baby? HIV; HTLV
[...]

Breast-feeding is also not recommended for:


- active, untreated TB
- active herpetic lesions
- use of or dependence on illicit drugs
- use of chemotherapeutic drugs
- undergoing radiation therapy

602. What is the treatment for stroke and What is the treatment for stroke and priapism in Sickle Cell Disease?
priapism in Sickle Cell Disease? Chronic exchange transfusion to keep HbS < 30%
[...]

603. What is the treatment for Patent What is the treatment for Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)? Indomethacin; NSAIDs; surgical ligation if persistent
[...]

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604. [...] is a cause of neonatal Breastfeeding Jaundice is a cause of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia


hyperbilirubinemia that is due to that is due to poor feeding or inadequate breast milk supply.
poor feeding or inadequate breast
milk supply.
Usually occurs in the first week of life and resolves when enteral intake
increases.
Remember, neonates have an increased enterohepatic circulation.

605. [...] is a type of Otitis Media that Otitis Media with Effusion (OME) is a type of Otitis Media that presents
presents with fluid behind the with fluid behind the tympanic membrane but no evidence of middle
tympanic membrane but no ear inflammation.
evidence of middle ear
inflammation.

606. What is the empiric antibiotic What is the empiric antibiotic therapy for pneumonia in neonates?
therapy for pneumonia in neonates? Ampicillin+Gentamycin/Cefotaxime for 10-21 days
[...]

+ Vancomycin if MRSA is prevalent


+ IV Acyclovir if HSV is suspected

607. What is the average growth rate (of What is the average growth rate (of height) for a child from age 4 to
height) for a child from age 4 to puberty?
puberty? 2-3 inches
[...]

608. Which age group is more commonly Which age group is more commonly affected by acute-onset uveitis in
affected by acute-onset uveitis in pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Older children
Arthritis (JIA)?
[...]

609. What is the next step in What is the next step in management for a febrile 28-90 days old infant
management for a febrile 28-90 that is toxic-appearing?
days old infant that is Hospitalization followed by full sepsis workup
toxic-appearing?
[...]

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610. What is the next step in What is the next step in management for a febrile 28-90 days old infant
management for a febrile 28-90 that is non-toxic appearing and low risk?
days old infant that is non-toxic Outpatient management followed by observation/follow up
appearing and low risk?
[...]

611. Which antibiotic is a risk factor for Which antibiotic is a risk factor for Pyloric Stenosis?
Pyloric Stenosis? Erythromycin
[...]

This is why Azithromycin is now preferred for Pertussis.

612. Which haematological disorder is Which haematological disorder is associated with an increased risk for
associated with an increased risk for Salmonella osteomyelitis?
Salmonella osteomyelitis? Sickle Cell Disease
[...]

613. Which type of sinopulmonary Which type of sinopulmonary infections are seen in Bruton's
infections are seen in Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia?
Agammaglobulinaemia? Pneumococcal
[...]

614. What is the etiology of What is the etiology of Toxoplasmosis?


Toxoplasmosis? Toxoplasma gondii
[...]

615. Which primitive reflex typically sticks Which primitive reflex typically sticks around the longest?
around the longest? Palmar/plantar grasp
[...]

Disappears around 9 months.

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616. What is the treatment for Chronic What is the treatment for Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis?
Mucocutaneous Candidiasis? Systemic antifungals; Skin care
[...]

617. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to walk up and down steps without
to walk up and down steps without help?
help? 24 months
[...]

618. Why is Erythromycin avoided in the Why is Erythromycin avoided in the treatment of Bordetella pertussis?
treatment of Bordetella pertussis? Risk of Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
[...]

619. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is more severe when
Arthritis (JIA) is more severe when the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor?
the patient is seropositive for Polyarticular
rheumatoid factor?
[...]

RF+ is also associated with older age of onset and +ANA

620. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) affects < 5 joints?
Arthritis (JIA) affects < 5 joints? Pauciarticular
[...]

621. Which gestational age is a threshold Which gestational age is a threshold risk factor for severe Bronchiolitis?
risk factor for severe Bronchiolitis? < 35 WGA
[...]

622. Which type of otitis media does not Which type of otitis media does not present with fever, ear pain, or ear
present with fever, ear pain, or ear tugging?
tugging? Otitis Media with Effusion (OME)
[...]

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623. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month old
pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month suspected to be caused by HSV?
old suspected to be caused by IV Acyclovir
HSV?
[...]

624. For children born before 38 WGA, For children born before 38 WGA, how long should there developmental
how long should there milestones be corrected for prematurity?
developmental milestones be 2 years
corrected for prematurity?
[...]

625. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with a prominent occiput,
associated with a prominent low set ears and small mouth?
occiput, low set ears and small Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
mouth?
[...]

626. [...] is a B-cell disorder that Selective IgA Deficiency is a B-cell disorder that commonly presents
commonly presents with milk with milk allergies and diarrhea.
allergies and diarrhea.

627. What is the next step in What is the next step in management for a febrile 28-90 days old infant
management for a febrile 28-90 that is non-toxic appearing but not low risk?
days old infant that is non-toxic Hospitalization and full sepsis workup
appearing but not low risk?
[...]

What constitutes low risk?


- previously healthy
- non-toxic appearing
- no focal bacterial infection on examination
- WBC 5000-15000 (with < 1500 bands)
- Normal UA (< 5 WBCs/hpf)

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628. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with holoprosencephaly?
associated with Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
holoprosencephaly?
[...]

629. What neutrophil level is seen on LP What neutrophil level is seen on LP in TB meningitis?
in TB meningitis? < 20
[...]

630. [...] is a combined T and B cell Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome is a combined T and B cell disorder that
disorder that involves involves thrombocytopaenic purpura, infection and eczema.
thrombocytopaenic purpura,
infection and eczema.
TIE:
- Thrombocytopaenic purpura
- Infection
- Eczema

631. [...] or calcium disodium EDTA are Succimer/DMSA or calcium disodium EDTA are lead chelating agents
lead chelating agents used to treat used to treat Lead poisoning if lead levels are > 45 ug/dL.
Lead poisoning if lead levels are >
45 ug/dL.

632. Succimer/DMSA or [...] are lead Succimer/DMSA or calcium disodium EDTA are lead chelating agents
chelating agents used to treat Lead used to treat Lead poisoning if lead levels are > 45 ug/dL.
poisoning if lead levels are > 45
ug/dL.

633. Which exanthem is also referred to Which exanthem is also referred to as German Measles?
as German Measles? Rubella
[...]

634. In which season is Erythema In which season is Erythema Infectiosum (5th Disease) an epidemic?
Infectiosum (5th Disease) an Spring
epidemic?
[...]

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635. What is the treatment for HIV as a What is the treatment for HIV as a TORCH infection?
TORCH infection? AZT; TMP-SMX for PCP prophylaxis
[...]

Avoid breastfeeding

636. Which pneumococcal vaccine Which pneumococcal vaccine should be given to Sickle Cell Disease
should be given to Sickle Cell patients due to the susceptibility to Streptococcus pneumoniae infection?
Disease patients due to the PCV23
susceptibility to Streptococcus
pneumoniae infection?
[...]
Remember, Strep pneumo is encapsulated.

637. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to know colours?
to know colours? 4 y/o
[...]

638. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with increased penis breadth and
with increased penis breadth and glans development?
glans development? 4
[...]

639. What is Group B Streptococcus? What is Group B Streptococcus?


[...] Streptococcus agalactiae

640. Which genetic disorder should be Which genetic disorder should be evaluated for in any pediatric patient
evaluated for in any pediatric patient that has nasal polyps?
that has nasal polyps? Cystic Fibrosis (CF)
[...]

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641. What is the treatment for Truncus What is the treatment for Truncus Arteriosus?
Arteriosus? Surgical correction
[...]

642. Which age group more commonly Which age group more commonly presents with Mycoplasma
presents with Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia?
pneumoniae pneumonia? Older children; Teenagers
[...]

643. What is the most common cause of What is the most common cause of Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)?
Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)? PIV types 1 and 3
[...]

Other causes include RSV, influenza, rubeola virus, adenovirus and


Mycoplasma pneumoniae

644. Which interleukin receptor is Which interleukin receptor is defective in Severe Combined
defective in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
Immunodeficiency (SCID)? IL-2 receptor
[...]

645. [...] is a benzodiazepine that can be Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that can be used to stop prolonged febrile
used to stop prolonged febrile seizures (> 5 minutes).
seizures (> 5 minutes).

Administered rectally.

646. How does breast-feeding change How does breast-feeding change the risk of eczema?
the risk of eczema? Decrease
[...]

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647. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Intussusception?
affected by Intussusception? Males
[...]

648. What is the treatment for Hyper-IgE What is the treatment for Hyper-IgE Syndrome (Job's Syndrome)?
Syndrome (Job's Syndrome)? Bone marrow transplant; Penicillinase-resistant antibiotics
[...]

649. [...] is a possible life-threatening Status Asthmaticus is a possible life-threatening complication of


complication of Asthma (Reactive Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease) that involves severe asthma attacks
Airway Disease) that involves that may not be responsive to standard treatments.
severe asthma attacks that may
not be responsive to standard
treatments. Can lead to respiratory acidosis and respiratory arrest

650. Which type of otitis media presents Which type of otitis media presents with decreased mobility of the
with decreased mobility of the tympanic membrane?
tympanic membrane? Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
[...]

651. What are the top 3 most common What are the top 3 most common bugs causing infection in neonates?
bugs causing infection in neonates? Group B Streptococcus (GBS); enteric gram-negative bacilli (e.g.
[...] Escherichia coli); Listeria

652. Why are children more susceptible Why are children more susceptible to Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?
to Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? Eustachian tube angle of entry, short length and decreased tone
[...]

653. Which type of Otitis Media often Which type of Otitis Media often presents with ear tugging and ear
presents with ear tugging and ear pain?
pain? Acute Otitis Media (AOM)
[...]

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654. What is the antibiotic therapy for What is the antibiotic therapy for Streptococcal Pharyngitis?
Streptococcal Pharyngitis? Pencillin VK; or Amoxicillin (PO, 10 days); or Benzathine Penicilllin
[...] G (1 dose)

655. Which respiratory infection is Which respiratory infection is associated with thumb sign on lateral
associated with thumb sign on neck films?
lateral neck films? Epiglottitis
[...]

656. [...] is a physical exam test for Barlow test is a physical exam test for Developmental Dysplasia of the
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip Hip (DDH) that involves dislocation of the hip by flexion and
(DDH) that involves dislocation of adduction of the hip with axial pressure.
the hip by flexion and adduction
of the hip with axial pressure.
Reveals that the hip is dislocatable or subluxable.

657. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is associated with
Arthritis (JIA) is associated with Macrophage Activation Syndrome?
Macrophage Activation Systemic (Still's Disease)
Syndrome?
[...]

658. [...] is a GI disorder that presents Pyloric Stenosis is a GI disorder that presents with projectile
with projectile nonbilious emesis nonbilious emesis that gradually increases in intesity and frequency.
that gradually increases in intesity
and frequency.

659. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to engage in parallel play?
to engage in parallel play? 24 months
[...]

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660. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with decreased breath sounds on
with decreased breath sounds on lung exam?
lung exam? Bacterial
[...]

661. What is the treatment for pulmonary What is the treatment for pulmonary stenosis?
stenosis? Valvotomy or Valve replacement
[...]

662. What is the diagnostic criteria for What is the diagnostic criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Acute Rheumatic Fever? JONES Criteria (2 major; 1 major + 2 minor + lab evidence of GAS
[...] infection)

JONES/Major Criteria:
- Joints = polyarthritis
- O = heart = carditis
- N = subcutaneous Nodules
- Erythema marginatum
- Sydenham's chorea
Minor criteria:
- arthralgia
- fever
- elevated ESR
- elevated CRP
- prolonged PR interval

663. Which type of Febrile Seizures has a Which type of Febrile Seizures has a short duration (< 15 min)?
short duration (< 15 min)? Simple
[...]

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664. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with microphthalmia and
associated with microphthalmia polydactyly?
and polydactyly? Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
[...]

665. [...] is a congenital heart defect that Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) is a congenital heart defect that
presents with a machine-like presents with a machine-like murmur at the left upper sternal border
murmur at the left upper sternal (LUSB).
border (LUSB).

666. What CXR findings can be seen with What CXR findings can be seen with Pulmonary Stenosis?
Pulmonary Stenosis? Normal heart size; decreased PVMs
[...]

There is decreased blood flow to the lungs, hence decreased PVMs

667. Why do Sickle Cell patients have a Why do Sickle Cell patients have a significantly higher susceptibility to
significantly higher susceptibility to encapsulated organisms?
encapsulated organisms? Functional asplenia
[...]
Patients that present with fever > 38 C (> 100.4 F) have to be evaluated
for bacterial sepsis, septic joints and osteomyelitis.

Encapsulated (SHiNS):
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Neisseria meningitidis
- Salmonella

668. [...] is a possible complication of Tympanosclerosis is a possible complication of Acute Otitis Media
Acute Otitis Media (AOM) that is (AOM) that is described as scarring of the tympanic membrane.
described as scarring of the
tympanic membrane.

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669. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy
affected by Edwards' Syndrome 18)?
(Trisomy 18)? Females (3:1)
[...]

670. [...] is a dermatological feature of Erythema Marginatum is a dermatological feature of Acute Rheumatic
Acute Rheumatic Fever that Fever that presents as a circinate, erythematous maculopapular rash
presents as a circinate, on the trunk and extremities.
erythematous maculopapular
rash on the trunk and extremities.

671. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating soft finger
babies to start eating soft finger food?
food? 10-12 months
[...]

e.g. cookies, fruits, vegetables, meats

672. How does breast-feeding change How does breast-feeding change the risk of infection in the baby?
the risk of infection in the baby? Decrease
[...]

Due to the presence of maternal IgA antibodies.

673. How does Common Variable How does Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID) change the risk of
Immunodeficiency (CVID) change lymphoma?
the risk of lymphoma? Increase
[...]

674. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a phagocytic disorder that involves
involves progressive neuropathy. progressive neuropathy.

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675. How do IgA levels change in How do IgA levels change in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome? Increased
[...]

676. What is the cause of petechiae, What is the cause of petechiae, purpura and bleeding in Acute
purpura and bleeding in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?
Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)? Thromboctopaenia
[...]

677. [...] is a feature of Sickle Cell Acute Chest Syndrome is a feature of Sickle Cell Disease that involves
Disease that involves fever, fever, respiratory symptoms and the radiologic appearance of new
respiratory symptoms and the pulmonary opacities.
radiologic appearance of new
pulmonary opacities.
Hypoxia may be present, but is not required for Dx.
Etiology is unknown.
Infection/fat emboli are known causes.

678. [...] is a psychiatric feature of Lead Pica is a psychiatric feature of Lead poisoning that is described as eating
poisoning that is described as inappropriate substances.
eating inappropriate substances.

679. What is the most common subtype What is the most common subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)? Pauciarticular (50%)
[...]

Polyarticular = 35%
Systemic = 20%

680. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with hypertonia?
associated with hypertonia? Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
[...]

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681. Which anti-influenza agent is used Which anti-influenza agent is used to treat pneumonia caused by both
to treat pneumonia caused by both influenza A and B?
influenza A and B? Oseltamivir
[...]

Amantadine is A only

682. Which type of Precocious Puberty Which type of Precocious Puberty has high levels of sex steroids?
has high levels of sex steroids? Both Central/True and Peripheral/Pseudo
[...]

683. What is the test used to diagnose What is the test used to diagnose Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
(CGD)? Nitroblue Tetrazolium Test
[...]

As well as the presence of leukocytosis and hypergammaglobulinaemia.

684. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with increased penis length?
with increased penis length? 3
[...]

685. Which stage of Wilms' Tumour Which stage of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) involves
(Nephroblastoma) involves nonhaematogenous spread into the abdomen?
nonhaematogenous spread into 3
the abdomen?
[...]

686. At which age does the Pavlik At which age does the Pavlik Harness's failure rate get > 50%?
Harness's failure rate get > 50%? 6 months
[...]

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687. What is the most common What is the most common presenting feature of Henoch-Schonlein
presenting feature of Purpura (HSP)?
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)? Palpable purpura
[...]

Commonly seen on the legs and buttocks.


Progression involves urticarial lesions --> maculopapular rash -->
palpable purpura.

688. What is the genetic inheritance of What is the genetic inheritance of Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia?
Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia? XLR
[...]

689. What is the treatment for hip What is the treatment for hip dysplasia for a patient 6 months to 3 years
dysplasia for a patient 6 months to old?
3 years old? Skin traction for 3 weeks followed by closed or open reduction
[...]

Skin tractio relaxes the sift tissue around the hip and joint.

690. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 0 for pulse?
with an APGAR rating of 0 for Absent pulse
pulse?
[...]

691. How soon after birth do acyanotic How soon after birth do acyanotic heart defects present?
heart defects present? Usually between 1-3 months
[...]

These kids are typically asymptomatic in early childhood.


As fetal circulation transitions into adult circulation, the symptoms
worsen.

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692. [...] is a pediatric fracture that Torus fracture is a pediatric fracture that involves "buckling" of the
involves "buckling" of the cortex cortex with compression of the bone.
with compression of the bone.

693. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with Hirschsprung's
associated with Hirschsprung's Disease?
Disease? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

694. [...] is a possible feature of Sickle Acute Splenic Sequestration is a possible feature of Sickle Cell
Cell Disease that involves an acute Disease that involves an acute decrease in hemoglobin due to splenic
decrease in hemoglobin due to sequestration.
splenic sequestration.

Presents with splenomegaly and hypovolemia.


Typically occurs between 6 months and 2 y/o.

695. [...] is a cardiac feature of Acute Carditis is a cardiac feature of Acute Rheumatic Fever that often
Rheumatic Fever that often presents presents with a new murmur and/or CHF symptoms.
with a new murmur and/or CHF
symptoms.
Mitral/aortic insufficiency or Carey Coombs murmur

696. What protein level is seen on LP in What protein level is seen on LP in bacterial meningitis?
bacterial meningitis? > 100
[...]

697. At what age should transcranial At what age should transcranial dopplers to detect stroke risk start in
dopplers to detect stroke risk start Sickle Cell Disease?
in Sickle Cell Disease? 2 y/o
[...]

Done every 1-2 years

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698. Which childhood tumour is Which childhood tumour is associated with Hirschsprung Disease?
associated with Hirschsprung Neuroblastoma
Disease?
[...]

699. What percentage of children born What percentage of children born with Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy 18)
with Edwards' Syndrome (Trisomy die in the first year of life?
18) die in the first year of life? 90%
[...]

700. What is the mainstay treatment for What is the mainstay treatment for chronic Asthma (Reactive Airway
chronic Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
Disease)?
Inhaled corticosteroids ± long-acting beta-agonists for protection
[...]

Leukotriene receptor antagonists can be used as alternatives to inhaled


corticosteroids for mild persistent asthma or in combination with inhaled
corticosteroids for moderate to severe persistent asthma.

701. How soon after delivery are APGAR How soon after delivery are APGAR scores measured?
scores measured? 1 and 5 minutes
[...]

702. What is menarche? What is menarche?


[...] Onset of menses

703. Which stage of Wilms' Tumour Which stage of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) involves
(Nephroblastoma) involves haematogenous metastases?
haematogenous metastases? 4
[...]

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704. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 1 for
with an APGAR rating of 1 for grimace?
grimace? Grimace
[...]

705. What is the age of onset of What is the age of onset of Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
Ataxia-Telangiectasia? Before 6 y/o
[...]

Patients are often confined to a wheelchair by age 10-12.

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706. Which Salter-Harris classification of Which Salter-Harris classification of paediatric epiphyseal fracture
paediatric epiphyseal fracture involves a fracture low on the epiphysis through the physis?
involves a fracture low on the 3
epiphysis through the physis?
[...]

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707. At which age should a baby be able At which age should a baby be able to run?
to run? 18 months
[...]

708. What is the onset of Tracheitis? What is the onset of Tracheitis?


[...] 2-3 days gradual onset with acute decompensation

709. [...] is a type of precocious puberty Central/True Precocious Puberty is a type of precocious puberty that
that involves premature activation involves premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal
of the axis.
hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal
axis.

710. As a general rule, by how much do As a general rule, by how much do children increase in length from birth
children increase in length from to 12 months?
birth to 12 months? Double
[...]

711. What GnRH Stimulation Test result What GnRH Stimulation Test result is seen in peripheral precocious
is seen in peripheral precocious puberty?
puberty? No increase in gonadotropin levels (LH; FSH)
[...]

712. The [...] is a scintigraphical The MIBG Scan is a scintigraphical technique used in Neuroblastoma to
technique used in Neuroblastoma to detect small primary tumours and/or metastases.
detect small primary tumours and/or MIBG = Metaiodobenzylguanidine, in case you end up getting pimped on
metastases. it like I did.

This is the same scan used in Pheochromocytoma. Why? Because both


tumours involve cells from the neural crest cell origin (esp. adrenal
medulla) and the chemical localizes to adrenergic tissue.

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713. What is required for the definitive Dx What is required for the definitive Dx of Hirschsprung's Disease?
of Hirschsprung's Disease? Rectal suction Bx that must include the submucosa
[...]

Submucosa is needed in order to evaluate for rectal ganglion cells.

714. Which APGAR score is indicative of Which APGAR score is indicative of severe distress and the immediate
severe distress and the immediate need to resuscitate the baby?
need to resuscitate the baby? 0-3
[...]

715. [...] is a genital complication of Varicocele is a genital complication of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)
Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma) seen in boys that presents due to compression of the spermatic vein
seen in boys that presents due to by the tumour.
compression of the spermatic
vein by the tumour.

716. [...] are a hallmark feature of Rubella Forschheimer Spots are a hallmark feature of Rubella (German
(German Measles; 3-day Measles) Measles; 3-day Measles) that are described as palatal petechiae.
that are described as palatal
petechiae.

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717. At which Centor score is empiric At which Centor score is empiric therapy for Streptococcal Pharyngitis
therapy for Streptococcal indicated?
Pharyngitis indicated? ≥4
[...]

718. [...] is an exanthem that presents Measles (Rubeola) is an exanthem that presents with high fever and
with high fever and the Three C's the Three C's (coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis) for 3-4 days before the
(coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis) rash.
for 3-4 days before the rash.

Coryza = irritation and swelling of mucous membranes in the nose

719. What is the best way to prevent RSV What is the best way to prevent RSV spread?
spread? hand washing
[...]

720. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with hypotonia?
associated with hypotonia? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

721. What is the threshold age for What is the threshold age for Precocious Puberty in african-american
Precocious Puberty in girls?
african-american girls? < 7 y/o
[...]

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722. [...] is a diagnostic procedure Rectal Manometry is a diagnostic procedure performed in


performed in Hirschsprung's Hirschsprung's Disease to measure the pressure of the anal sphincter.
Disease to measure the pressure of
the anal sphincter.

723. What is the treatment for Stage 4 What is the treatment for Stage 4 Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)?
Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)? Pulmonary irradiation; 3-drug combination chemotherapy
[...]

Stage 4 is haematogenous metastases

724. Which type of Precocious Puberty Which type of Precocious Puberty has low FSH and LH levels?
has low FSH and LH levels? Peripheral/Pseudo
[...]

725. What is the most common cause of What is the most common cause of acute intestional obstruction in the
acute intestional obstruction in the first 2 years of life?
first 2 years of life? Intussusception
[...]

726. What is the duration of empiric What is the duration of empiric antibiotic therapy for meningitis caused
antibiotic therapy for meningitis by Haemophilus influenzae?
caused by Haemophilus 7-10 days
influenzae?
[...]

727. [...] is an exanthem that involves Varicella (Chickenpox) is an exanthem that involves fever and malaise
fever and malaise for 1 day for 1 day followed by an evolving rash over 3-7 days.
followed by an evolving rash over
3-7 days.

728. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with increased breast and areola size?
with increased breast and areola 3
size?
[...]

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729. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 0 for
with an APGAR rating of 0 for grimace?
grimace? No reponse
[...]

730. What is the hourly goal in glucose What is the hourly goal in glucose drop when administering Insulin to
drop when administering Insulin to treat Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
treat Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)? 80-100 mg/dL/hr
[...]

Hence, start the insulin drip at 0.1 U/kg/hr.


When glucose levels reach 250-300 mg/dL or it drops > 100 mg/dL/hr,
add D5 to the fluids.
Once pH > 7.3, HCO3 > 16 mmol/L, anion gap is normal and the patient
is eating, start SQ insulin and d/c insulin drip after 1 hr.

731. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The rooting reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex that involves the infant
that involves the infant pursuing an pursuing an object placed around its mouth or next to the cheek.
object placed around its mouth or
next to the cheek.

732. What RBC level is seen on LP in What RBC level is seen on LP in HSV meningitis?
HSV meningitis?
10-500
[...]

733. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to build a tower of 3 blocks?
to build a tower of 3 blocks? 18 months
[...]

734. [...] is a neurological feature of Sydenham's Chorea is a neurological feature of Acute Rheumatic Fever
Acute Rheumatic Fever that that presents with emotional instability and involuntary movements.
presents with emotional instability
and involuntary movements.

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735. [...] is a common feature of Wilms' Hypertension is a common feature of Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma)
Tumour (Nephroblastoma) that that presents due to increased Renin secretion by the tumour or
presents due to increased Renin compression of renal vasculature.
secretion by the tumour or
compression of renal vasculature.

736. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for atypical pneumonia in a > 4 year old
atypical pneumonia in a > 4 year suspected to be caused by Influenza?
old suspected to be caused by Supportive care
Influenza?
[...]

Zanamivir or Oseltamivir can decrease symptoms if given within 36


hours.

737. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to smile?
to smile? 2 months
[...]

738. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to say "mama" or "dada"?
to say "mama" or "dada"? 9 months
[...]

739. What are the possible ECG findings What are the possible ECG findings with Atrial Septal Defects■ (ASD)?
with Atrial Septal Defects■ (ASD)? RVH; Right atrial enlargement (RAE); RBBB
[...]

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740. Which Salter-Harris classification of Which Salter-Harris classification of paediatric epiphyseal fracture
paediatric epiphyseal fracture involves a fracture straight across through the physis?
involves a fracture straight across 1
through the physis?
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

741. [...] is a scintigraphical procedure Meckel's Scan is a scintigraphical procedure that is used to diagnose
that is used to diagnose Meckel's Meckel's Diverticulum as technetate radiolabeled with Tc99m is taken
Diverticulum as technetate up by the ectopic gastric tissue.
radiolabeled with Tc99m is taken
up by the ectopic gastric tissue.
Pertechnetate is actively accumulated and secreted by the mucoid cells
of the gastric mucosa.
Uptake is enhanced by cimetidine, glucagon or gastrin.

742. [...] is a congenital heart defect that Truncus Arteriosus is a congenital heart defect that presents with CHF,
presents with CHF, a single S2 and a single S2 and strong, bounding pulses.
strong, bounding pulses.

743. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to coo?
to coo? 3 months
[...]

744. What is the most common What is the most common complication of Measles (Rubeola)?
complication of Measles (Rubeola)? Otitis media
[...]

Others include:
- Encephalitis
- Pneumonia
- Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE; very rare)

745. [...] is a combined T and B cell Ataxia-Telangiectasia is a combined T and B cell disorder that presents
disorder that presents with a triad of with a triad of cerebellar defects (ataxia), spider
cerebellar defects (ataxia), spider angiomata/telangiectasia, and IgA deficiency.
angiomata/telangiectasia, and IgA
deficiency.

746. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to engage in group play?
to engage in group play? 3 y/o
[...]

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747. What CXR findings can be seen with What CXR findings can be seen with Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Transposition of the Great Vessels? "Egg on a string"; Cardiomegaly; Increased PVMs
[...]

748. Which vaccine contains polymyxin Which vaccine contains polymyxin B, a potential allergen?
B, a potential allergen? IPV
[...]

749. The [...] is a primitive neonatal reflex The stepping reflex is a primitive neonatal reflex that involves movement
that involves movement of the of the infant's leg in a walking movement when they are held upright and
infant's leg in a walking movement leaning forward.
when they are held upright and
leaning forward.

750. What is the treatment for Tetralogy What is the treatment for Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)?
of Fallot (ToF)? Surgical correction
[...]

751. What CXR findings can be seen with What CXR findings can be seen with Total Anomalous Pulmonary
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Venous Return (TAPVR)?
Return (TAPVR)? Cardiomegaly; Increased PVMs; "Snowman" sign
[...]

752. What is the etiology of Rubella What is the etiology of Rubella (German Measles; 3-day Measles)?
(German Measles; 3-day Measles)? RNA/Togavirus
[...]

753. [...] is a congenital heart defect that Coarctation of the Aorta (CotA) is a congenital heart defect that
presents with CHF, decreased presents with CHF, decreased lower extremity pulses and acidosis in
lower extremity pulses and infants.
acidosis in infants.

Also involves a murmur heard over the left scapula.

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

754. [...] is a class of immunodeficiency Phagocytic deficiency is a class of immunodeficiency that results in
that results in sinopulmonary and sinopulmonary and soft tissue infections.
soft tissue infections.

755. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 2 for pulse?
with an APGAR rating of 2 for > 100 bpm
pulse?
[...]

756. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) involves pericarditis,
Arthritis (JIA) involves pericarditis, pleuritis and myalgia?
pleuritis and myalgia? Systemic (Still's Disease)
[...]

757. What glucose level is seen on LP in What glucose level is seen on LP in viral (non-HSV) meningitis?
viral (non-HSV) meningitis? > 30
[...]

758. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating whole cow's
babies to start eating whole cow's milk?
milk? 12 months
[...]

759. [...] is an exanthem that presents Scarlet Fever is an exanthem that presents with erythroderma that is
with erythroderma that is accentuated in folds, where darker Pastia's lines are seen.
accentuated in folds, where darker
Pastia's lines are seen.
Erythroderma is a sandpaper-like, confluent rash that involves
desquamation and/or exfoliation.

760. [...] is a common complication of the Tumour Lysis Syndrome is a common complication of the treatment of
treatment of Acute Lymphocytic Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) that presents during the induction
Leukemia (ALL) that presents during phase of chemotherapy.
the induction phase of
chemotherapy.

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761. [...] is a phagocytic disorder where Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a phagocytic disorder where
catalase-positive organisms catalase-positive organisms cannot be killed.
cannot be killed.

Due to the lack of NADPH Oxidase.

762. What is the most common What is the most common malignant tumour of infants?
malignant tumour of infants? Neuroblastoma
[...]

763. How do Ca levels change in How do Ca levels change in DiGeorge Syndrome?


DiGeorge Syndrome? Decrease
[...]

Hypoparathyroidism causes decreased Ca and downstream seizures


and tetany.

764. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 2 for
with an APGAR rating of 2 for appearance?
appearance? Pink body and extremities
[...]

765. Which class of asthma involves Which class of asthma involves continual symptoms with frequent
continual symptoms with frequent exacerbations?
exacerbations? Severe persistent
[...]

Limited daily activity.

766. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice has total bilirubin increases of > 0.5
has total bilirubin increases of > 0.5 mg/dL/hr?
mg/dL/hr? Pathological
[...]

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Anki Glossary: Bros Clerkships > Paediatrics (826 cards) Generated on 2018-09-03

767. Which major autosomal trisomy is Which major autosomal trisomy is associated with hypothyroidism?
associated with hypothyroidism? Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
[...]

768. [...] is a non-suppurative Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis is a non-suppurative


complication of Streptococcal complication of Streptococcal infection that presents 1-2 weeks
infection that presents 1-2 weeks following infection and cannot be prevented by timely antibiotic
following infection and cannot be administration.
prevented by timely antibiotic
administration.

769. [...] is an autoimmune platelet Idiopathic Thrombocytopaenic Purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune


disorder that is commonly preceded platelet disorder that is commonly preceded by a viral illness.
by a viral illness.

esp, varicella, rubella, mumps, infectious mononucleosis

770. [...] is a class of immunodeficiency B-cell deficiencies is a class of immunodeficiency that results in
that results in sinopulmonary and sinopulmonary and GI infections.
GI infections.

771. [...] is a phagocytic disorder that Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a phagocytic disorder that
presents due to a lack of NADPH presents due to a lack of NADPH Oxidase, thereby reducing the reactive
Oxidase, thereby reducing the oxidative potential in neutrophils.
reactive oxidative potential in
neutrophils.

772. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for atypical pneumonia in a 6 weeks - 4
atypical pneumonia in a 6 weeks - year old suspected to be caused by Influenza A and B?
4 year old suspected to be caused Oseltamivir (for A & B > 1 year); Amantadine (for A > 1 year)
by Influenza A and B?
[...]

These antivirals can significantly decrease symptoms if given within 36


hours of presentation.

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773. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for atypical pneumonia in a > 4 year old
atypical pneumonia in a > 4 year suspected to be caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
old suspected to be caused by Clarithromycin; or Azithromycin
Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
[...]

14-21 days
5 days if Azithromycin

774. What is seen on CXR with What is seen on CXR with Respiratory Distress Syndrome (;RDS;
Respiratory Distress Syndrome Hyaline Membrane Disease)?
(;RDS; Hyaline Membrane Bilateral atelectaasis; Air bronchograms; "Ground-glass"
Disease)? appearance
[...]

775. How does breastfeeding change How does breastfeeding change maternal oxytocin levels?
maternal oxytocin levels? Increase
[...]
Thereby decreasing postparum uterine bleeding.

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776. What is the treatment for DiGeorge What is the treatment for DiGeorge Syndrome?
Syndrome? Thymus transplantation (ALC < 100)
[...]

777. Which enzyme is deficient in Which enzyme is deficient in Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
Chronic Granulomatous Disease NADPH Oxidase
(CGD)?
[...]

778. What is the duration of empiric What is the duration of empiric antibiotic therapy for meningitis caused
antibiotic therapy for meningitis by Group B Streptococcus?
caused by Group B 14-21 days
Streptococcus?
[...]

779. Which level of bilirubin is considered Which level of bilirubin is considered to be pathological in neonates?
to be pathological in neonates? > 15 mg/dL
[...]

780. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating well-chopped
babies to start eating well-chopped meats?
meats? 8 months
[...]

781. What physical finding is associated What physical finding is associated with an APGAR rating of 2 for
with an APGAR rating of 2 for activity?
activity? Full flexion of the extremities
[...]

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782. What is the treatment for Tricuspid What is the treatment for Tricuspid Atresia?
Atresia? Prostaglandin E1; Ballon atrial septostomy (BAS); surgery
[...]

PGE1 keeps the PDA open.

783. [...] is an exanthem that involves Roseola (Exanthema Subitum) is an exanthem that involves
erythematous tympanic erythematous tympanic membranes.
membranes.

784. What acid-base imbalance is What acid-base imbalance is commonly seen in Pyloric Stenosis?
commonly seen in Pyloric Stenosis? Hypochloremic, hypokalemic, metabolic alkalosis
[...]

785. What does a bone marrow Bx reveal What does a bone marrow Bx reveal in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?
(ALL)? Hypercellular marrow with increased lymphoblasts
[...]

786. [...] is a tumour syndrome that WAGR Syndrome is a tumour syndrome that involves Wilms' Tumour
involves Wilms' Tumour (Nephroblastoma), aniridia, genitourinary abnormalities and mental
(Nephroblastoma), aniridia, retardation.
genitourinary abnormalities and
mental retardation.

787. What is the serological status of What is the serological status of ANA in systemic Juvenile Idiopathic
ANA in systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
Arthritis (JIA)? Negative
[...]

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788. [...] is a type of glomerulonephritis IgA Nephropathy is a type of glomerulonephritis that can be seen in
that can be seen in Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) both prior to or after onset of the
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) associated rash.
both prior to or after onset of the
associated rash.
RBC casts and acute renal failure can also develop.

789. What RBC level is seen on LP in TB What RBC level is seen on LP in TB meningitis?
meningitis? 0-2
[...]

790. Which age group more commonly Which age group more commonly presents with Chlamydia trachomatis
presents with Chlamydia pneumonia?
trachomatis pneumonia? Infants (1-3 months)
[...]

791. Treatment can prevent most Treatment can prevent most complications of Streptococcal Pharyngitis
complications of Streptococcal except for one. What it is?
Pharyngitis except for one. What it Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
is?
[...]

792. In older children, what is the most In older children, what is the most common source of bacteria for a UTI?
common source of bacteria for a Ascending infections from fecal flora
UTI?
[...]

793. Which type of Neonatal Jaundice Which type of Neonatal Jaundice resolves in 1 week in term infants?
resolves in 1 week in term infants? Physiological
[...]

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794. [...] is a cause of unconjugated Breast Mild Jaundice is a cause of unconjugated neonatal
neonatal hyperbilirubinemia that is hyperbilirubinemia that is thought to be due to the inhibition of bilirubin
thought to be due to the inhibition conjugation by an unknown enzyme in breast milk.
of bilirubin conjugation by an
unknown enzyme in breast milk.
An extension of physiological jaundice.
Peaks at 10-15 days.
Declines slowly by 3- 12 weeks.

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795. Which Salter-Harris classification of Which Salter-Harris classification of paediatric epiphyseal fracture
paediatric epiphyseal fracture involves a fracture through both the epiphysis and metaphysis?
involves a fracture through both 4
the epiphysis and metaphysis?
[...]

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796. Which phase of breathing is Which phase of breathing is prolonged in Asthma (Reactive Airway
prolonged in Asthma (Reactive Disease)?
Airway Disease)? Expiration
[...]

797. What is the most common primary What is the most common primary agent causing Bronchiolitis?
agent causing Bronchiolitis? RSV
[...]

However PIV (esp. type 3), adenovirus, influenza and rhinovirus are also
causes.

798. [...] and Dimercaprol/BAL are Lead EDTA and Dimercaprol/BAL are Lead chelating agents that are used to
chelating agents that are used to treat Lead poisoning if lead levels are > 70 ug/dL or if there are
treat Lead poisoning if lead levels symptoms of encephalopathy.
are > 70 ug/dL or if there are
symptoms of encephalopathy.

799. EDTA and [...] are Lead chelating EDTA and Dimercaprol/BAL are Lead chelating agents that are used to
agents that are used to treat Lead treat Lead poisoning if lead levels are > 70 ug/dL or if there are
poisoning if lead levels are > 70 symptoms of encephalopathy.
ug/dL or if there are symptoms of
encephalopathy.

800. [...] is a life-threatening respiratory Epiglottitis is a life-threatening respiratory disorder that presents with
disorder that presents with thumb thumb sign on CXR/URXR.
sign on CXR/URXR.

Patients are toxic-appearing with difficulty swallowing, drooling and


severe respiratory distress.
Urgent intubation is indicated.

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801. At which age should a child be able At which age should a child be able to play in the company of other
to play in the company of other children?
children? 18 months
[...]

802. At which age is it recommended for At which age is it recommended for babies to start eating egg whites?
babies to start eating egg whites? 12 months
[...]

803. What is thelarche? What is thelarche?


[...] Development of breasts

804. [...] is a GI disorder that presents Intussusception is a GI disorder that presents with an ill-defined,
with an ill-defined, "sausage "sausage shaped" mass in the RUQ.
shaped" mass in the RUQ.

805. Which Tanner stage corresponds Which Tanner stage corresponds with sparse, long and slightly
with sparse, long and slightly pigmented pubic hair?
pigmented pubic hair? 2
[...]

806. Which type of Precocious Puberty is Which type of Precocious Puberty is gonadotropin dependent?
gonadotropin dependent? Central/True
[...]

807. Which chromosome is implicated in Which chromosome is implicated in Edward's Syndrome?


Edward's Syndrome? 18
[...]

E for Edwards, E for eightteen.


You already know Down's is 21, hence Patau is 13.

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808. What is the cause of pallour in What is the cause of pallour in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?
Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)? Anaemia
[...]

809. Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Which subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) has the worst
Arthritis (JIA) has the worst prognosis?
prognosis? Systemic (Still's Disease)
[...]

810. What is the empiric therapy for What is the empiric therapy for pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month old
pneumonia in a 3 weeks - 4 month suspected to be caused by CMV?
old suspected to be caused by
CMV? IV Ganciclovir

[...]

811. [...] is a paediatric fracture described Greenstick Fracture is a paediatric fracture described as an incomplete
as an incomplete fracture that fracture that breaks 1 side of a bone and bends the other.
breaks 1 side of a bone and
bends the other.

812. How does residual volume change How does residual volume change in Asthma (Reactive Airway
in Asthma (Reactive Airway Disease)?
Disease)? Increase
[...]

813. Which chromosome is implicated in Which chromosome is implicated in Down Syndrome?


Down Syndrome? 21
[...]

814. What is the treatment for Bruton's What is the treatment for Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia?
Agammaglobulinaemia? IVIG
[...]

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815. What WBC level is seen on LP in What WBC level is seen on LP in viral (non-HSV) meningitis?
viral (non-HSV) meningitis? 100-500
[...]

816. Which major vaccine contains Which major vaccine contains gelatin, a potential allergen?
gelatin, a potential allergen? MMR
[...]

817. [...] are a clinical feature of Down Brushfield spots are a clinical feature of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
Syndrome (Trisomy 21) that is that is described as speckled irises.
described as speckled irises.

818. Which type of pneumonia presents Which type of pneumonia presents with high fevers?
with high fevers? Bacterial
[...]

819. Which sex is more commonly Which sex is more commonly affected by Kawasaki Disease?
affected by Kawasaki Disease? Males
[...]

820. How do C3 complement levels How do C3 complement levels change in Post-Streptococcal


change in Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis?
Glomerulonephritis? Normal or Low
[...]

821. What is the treatment for Rubella as What is the treatment for Rubella as a TORCH infection?
a TORCH infection? No treatment; prevention is the mainstay of approach
[...]

Most cases are seen in non-Rubella-immune mothers.

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822. What is the treatment for Hip What is the treatment for Hip Dysplasia in a patient > 3 years?
Dysplasia in a patient > 3 years? Surgery
[...]

823. [...] is a severe complication of in Hydrops Fetalis is a severe complication of in utero Erythema
utero Erythema Infectiosum (5th Infectiosum (5th Disease).
Disease).

824. Which type of GI infections are seen Which type of GI infections are seen in Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia?
in Bruton's Agammaglobulinaemia? Giardia; rotavirus
[...]

825. Which type of Otitis Media presents Which type of Otitis Media presents with air-fluid levels?
with air-fluid levels? Both
[...]

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)


Otitis Media with Effusion (OEM)

826. What are the indications for using a What are the indications for using a hydrolyzed protein based formula to
hydrolyzed protein based formula to feed a baby?
feed a baby? Milk and soy allergy
[...]

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