100 Most Difficult Questions

100 Most Difficult Questions for SBI PO 2017 Preparation

Quantitative Aptitude (1-35)

1. The bullet train has a certain free luggage allowance and charges for excess luggage at a

fixed rate per kg. Two cousins Devansh and Prashmith who are traveling from San

Francisco to Los Angeles have 60 kgs of luggage between them, and are charged ` 2400 and

` 4800 respectively for excess luggage. Had the entire luggage belonged to one of them, the

excess luggage charge would have been ` 10,800. What is the ratio of the weight of

Devansh’s luggage to the total excess luggage allowance?

1) 2:3 2) 1:5 3) 1:2 4) 5:6 5) None of these

2. A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel is a dog located at a point that is 3/8 of the

distance AB measured from entrance A. when the train whistles the dog runs. If dog moves

to the entrance of the tunnel, A, the train catches the dog exactly at the entrance. If the dog

moves to the exit, B, the train catches the dog at exactly the exit. The speed of the train is

greater than the speed of the dog by what order?

1) 3:1 2) 5:1 3) 6:1 4) 4:1 5) None of these

3. Rohan and Rani got married 10 years ago. After marriage, they had 6 children including a

triplets and twins. Six years from now, the average age of the couple will be 38.5 years The

age of the triplets, twins and the sixth child is in the ratio of 3:2:1. What is the largest

possible average value of the present total age of the family?

1) 13 2) 12.25 3) 17.83 4) 11.09 5) None of these

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100 Most Difficult Questions

4. A work is done by 66 workers not all of them have the same capacity to work. Every day

exactly 2 workers, do the work with no pair of workers working together twice. Even after

all possible pairs have worked once, all the workers together work for 11 more days to

finish the work. Find the number of days in which all the workers together will finish the

work?

1) 66 days 2) 76 days 3) 77 days 4) 55 days 5) None of these

5. In a meeting, the sum of the ages of all the 29 bank employees i.e. Chief manager, Branch

Manager, Banking assistant is 696. The number of Branch Manager is the square root of a

two digit number, which is also a perfect cube. If the age of each Chief manager, each

Branch Manager, each Banking assistant be 1 year, 5 years, 3 years more, then the average of

the whole staff would have been 3 years more. How many banking assistants were there in

the meeting?

1) 12 2) 15 3) 16 4) 13 5) 11

6. Four candidates are there for an award and obtained distinct scores in a test. Each of the

four casts a vote to choose the winner of the award. The candidate who gets the largest

number of votes wins the award. In case of a tie in the voting process, the candidate with the

highest score wins the award. Who wins the award?

I. The candidates with top three scores, each vote for the top scorer amongst the other three.

II. The candidate with the lowest score votes for the player with the second highest score.

1) Both I and II 2) Only II 3) Any two of two

4) Other than the given options 5) Only I

7. Sristhi paid for an article using currency notes of denominations ` 1, ` 2, ` 5 and ` 10, using

at least one note of each denomination. The total number of five and ten rupee notes used

was one more than the total number of one and two rupee notes used. What was the price of

the article?

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100 Most Difficult Questions

I. Sristhi used a total of 13 currency notes.

II. The price of the article was a multiple of ` 10.

III. The price of article was multiple of ` 20

1) Both I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Any two of three

4) Other than the given options 5) Only II or Only III

8. Quantity I: The digit in the units place of a two – digit number is equal to the digit in the

tens place of one-third of that number and the digit in the tens place of the original number

is 2 less than the digit in the units place of one - third of the number. If the sum of the digits

of the original number is 6, then what is the number?

Quantity II: A set of consecutive positive integers beginning with 1 is written on the

blackboard. A student came along and erased one number. The average of the remaining

numbers is 17 11/17. What is the number which is 5 times of the number erased?

1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II

3) Quantity I > Quantity II 4) Quantity I < Quantity II

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined

9. Quantity I: A tank has four taps of equal capacity. The distance between two consecutive

taps is equal. The first tap is at the bottom of the tank and the fourth tap is at 3/4 of its

height. Then find in how much time will the tank be completely empty, if the first tap takes

12 hours to completely empty the tank.

Quantity II: My Grandfather is about as many days as my sister's son is in weeks and my

Grandfather is as many months as my brother's daughter in years. My Grandfather, my

sister's son and my brother's daughter together are 140 years. Can you tell my age, which is

30 years less than my brother's daughter age in years?

1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II

3) Quantity I > Quantity II 4) Quantity I < Quantity II

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined

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100 Most Difficult Questions

Directions (10-14): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

The first table gives the percentage of students in Engineering, who got employment in the

fields of Banking, Marketing, Software and others.

The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month in different fields.

The bar graph shows the number of students who passed out in each year.

Table - I

Years Banking Marketing Software Other

2010 24 35 20 21
2011 19 46 24 11
2012 25 42 22 11
2013 21 36 18 25
2014 34 30 20 16

Table - II

Years Banking Marketing Software Given Data

2010 20500 19000 ----- Average = 21500
2011 ------ 15000 17500 Ratio of Banking : Software : Marketing 5:6:7
2012 12450 ------ 12750 Marketing = 36% of software salary in 2010
2013 13920 ------ 13160 Average = 13680
2014 14810 15220 -------- Average = 16410

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100 Most Difficult Questions

Total Number of Students Passed

1800
1600
1600 1500
1400
1400
1200
1200 1100
1000
800
600
400
200
0
2010 2011 2012 2013 2014

10. What is the difference between the total annual salary offered to all the Banking employees

in 2011 and the total annual salary offered to all the Software employees in 2014?

1) 8.7 cr. 2) 8.48 lakhs. 3) 3.03 cr.

4) 25.26 lakhs. 5) None of these

11. What is the ratio of the total annual salary offered to all the Marketing employees in 2012 to

the total annual salary offered to all the Marketing employees in 2013?

1) 2625:349 2) 7875:11168 3) 6275:1214 4) 225:349 5) None of these

12. The annual salary offered to a Software employee in 2011 is approximately what percentage

more/less than the annual salary offered to a Software employee in 2013?

1) 5% 2) 12% 3) 24.8% 4) 14% 5) None of these

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13. The total amount of salary offered to all the employees in Software in 2010 is approximately

what percentage less than the total amount of salary offered to all the Marketing employees

in 2013?

1) 18% 2) 44% 3) 25% 4) 36% 5) None of these

14. In 2012, what is the difference between the total salary paid to all the employees in Banking

and the total salary paid to all the employees in Software?

1) ` 4.62 lakh 2) ` 59.8 lakh 3) ` 55.35 lakh

4) ` 63.8 lakh 5) None of these

15. A and B started a business. It was decided that A would get some profit as salary and the

remaining profit would then be equally divided between the two of them. The respective

earnings of A and B were 22500 and 16500. Had the entire profit been divided in the ratio of

investments, B would have received ` 7500 more as his share of profit. Find the investment

of A, if B invested ` 12000?

1) 7500 2) 8129 3) 8539 4) 8500 5) None of these

16. A truck has to travel a distance of 400 km, at a constant speed. It travelled a 10th of the

distance with the specified speed and stopped for 60 minutes, to arrive at the destination on

time, it had to increase its speed by 60 km/h for the rest of the way. Another truck took off

from the destination and was heading in the opposite direction at the final speed of the first

truck and stopped halfway for 100 minutes. If it takes the same time to reach the first truck,

what % of second truck’s final speed is the first truck's old speed?

1) 38.46 2) 78.88 3) 12.52 4) 92.99 5) Can’t be determined

17. Let S be the set of five-digit numbers formed by the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, using each digit

exactly once such that exactly two odd positions are occupied by odd digits. What is the

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sum of the digits in the rightmost position of the numbers in S?

1) 228 2) 216 3) 294 4) 192 5) None of these

18. A leak was found in a ship when it was 77 km from the shore. It was found that the leak

admits 2.25 tonnes of water in 5.5 minutes. 92 tonnes will suffice to sink the ship. But the

pumps can throw out the water at the rate of 12 tonnes an hour. Find the average rate of

sailing at which the ship may reach the shore as it begins to sink.

1) 9.75 km/h 2) 13 km/h 3) 14.5 km/h

4) 10.5 km/h 5) None of these

19. The empty weight of a jar is 20% of its weight when it is completely filled with water. If

some water is taken out of jar such that the current weight of the jar is 40% of its weight

when it is completely filled with water. What percentage of water is taken out of the jar?

1) 70% 2) 60% 3) 85% 4) 50% 5) None of these

20. A group of workers was put on a job. From the second day onward, one worker was

withdrawn each day. The job was finished when the last worker was withdrawn. Had no

worker been withdrawn at any stage, the group would have finished the job in 55% of the

time. How many workers were there in the group?

1) 20 2) 15 3) 10 4) 22 5) None of these

21. A set of 10 pipes (set X) can fill 70% of a tank in 7 minutes. Another set of 5 pipes (set Y) fills

3/8 of the tank in 3 minutes. The third set of 8 pipes (Set Z) can empty 5/10 of the tank in 10

minutes. If one pipe is added for set X and set Y and set Z’s capacity is increased by 20% to

its original value and all the taps are opened at 2.58 p.m., then at what time does the tank

get filled? (If it is initially empty)

1) 3.05 p.m. 2) 3.04 p.m. 3) 3.10 p.m. 4) 3.03 p.m. 5) None of these

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100 Most Difficult Questions

22. Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number '1' marked on one side and

number '2' marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the

number '1' is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are

turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside

down such that all the six cards show number '2' on the upper side?

1) 3 2) 5 3) 7

4) This cannot be achieved 5) None of these

23. Two friends Turbo and Black shadow simultaneously left two places A and B respectively.

Turbo left from A to B and Black shadow left from B to A. However every time that either of

them arrives at his destination, he immediately turns back to reach his starting point and

keeps on travelling in that manner between A and B. If the distance between A and B is 7

km and the speed of Turbo and Black shadow are 70 kmph and 20 kmph respectively, how

many times they meet in the first seven hours after they start?

1) 70 2) 65 3) 40 4) 75 5) None of these

24. A, B, C are supposed to take biscuits from a box in a ratio 3:2:1 respectively. But all of them

came at different times and assuming themselves to be first to arrive took the share of their

biscuits. What fraction of the biscuits left in the box after they visited once?

1) 5/16 2) 5/18 3) 11/18 4) 3/19 5) None of these

25. (41772/89208) x (54432/33984) = ?

1) 187/333 2) 167/441 3) 155/246 4) 161/241 5) 177/236

26. A couple has two children. The probability that the first child is a girl is 50%. The

probability that the second child is a girl is also 50%. The couple tells you that they have a

daughter. What is the probability that their other child is also a girl?

1) 2/3 2) 1/3 3) 3/4 4) 1/4 5) None of these

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100 Most Difficult Questions

27. The numbers 2272 and 875 are divided by three digit number N, giving the same remainder.

The sum of the digits of N is

1) 13 2) 10 3) 14 4) 11 5) None of these

28. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 6

hours and the second in 4 hours. Assuming that each candle burns at a constant rate, in how

many hours after being lighted, was the first candle twice the height of the second?

1) 3.5 hrs 2) 2 hrs 3) 4 hrs 4) 3 hrs 5) 2.5 hrs

29. The duration of a railway journey varies as the distance and inversely as the velocity; the

velocity varies directly as the square root of the quantity of coal used per kilometer, and

inversely as the number carriages in the train. In a journey of 50 km in half an hour with 18

carriages, 100kg of coal is required. How much coal will be consumed in a journey of 42 km

in 28 minutes with 16 carriages?

1) 53.76 kg 2) 149.33 kg 3) 47.51 kg 4) 48.43 kg 5) None of these

30. A says to B, ‚I am twice as old as you were when I was as old as you are.‛ The sum of their

present ages is 63 years. Find the age of A?

1) 36 years 2) 18 years 3) 27 years 4) 30 years 5) None of these

31. For every set of 19 kites sold, a vendor gives 1 kite extra, free of cost. In order to give a

discount of 10%, the number of extra kites he should give in a sale of 27 kites to the nearest

integer is

1) 3 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8 5) 9

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32. In an examination, the max marks for each of the 3 papers is 50 each The max marks for the

4th paper is 100. Find the number of ways with which a student can score 60% marks in

aggregate?

1) 330850 2) 233551 3) 110551 4) 220800 5) None of these

Directions (33-35): Refer to the following Information to answer the question that follow

In an exhibition of watches there were three companies HMT, ROMAX and TITAN who

introduced their model in the exhibition and it is found at the last of the exhibition that total 300

customers visited the exhibition. 50% customers purchased HMT; 55% customers purchased

TITAN; 45% customers purchased ROMAX. 20% of customers who purchased HMT also

purchased other two brands. Customers who purchased any of the two brands are 95.

Customers of only HMT are 20 more than that of only ROMAX. Customers who purchased only

HMT and ROMAX are 40.

33. How many of them did not purchase any of the three watches?

1) 15 2) 20 3) 5 4) 10 5) None of these

34. How many of them purchased only one brand of watches?

1) 175 2) 160 3) 165 4) 170 5) None of these

35. How many of them purchased at least two brands of watches?

1) 125 2) 105 3) 95 4) 130 5) None of these

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Reasoning Ability (36-70)

Directions (36-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 7 friends who travel to college everyday by a particular train which

stops at 5 stations – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively after it leaves base stations. 3 among them get in

the train at the base station. S gets down at the next station at which U gets down. Q gets in

with 2 persons and does not get down with either P or T. V alone gets in at station 3 and gets

down with R after 1 station. P travels between only 2 stations and get down at station 5. None of

them gets in at station 2. R gets in with U but does not get in with either Q or S. T gets in with 2

other and gets down alone after S. Q and S going to same college and they get down together at

station 3. None of them gets down at station 1.

36. At which station does T get down?

1) Station 2 2) Station 4 3) Station 3 4) Station 5 5) None of these

37. At which station does R, U get in?

1) Base station 2) Station 2 3) Station 1 4) Station 3 5) None of these

38. After how many station does Q get down?

1) 4 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 5) None of these

39. At which of the following station does Q and T get in?

1) Base station 2) Station 1 3) Station 2 4) Station 5) None of these

40. Which of the following is correct?

1) T gets in at the base station 2) R gets down at Station 3

3) V gets down at Station 5 4) U gets down at Station 2 5) None of these

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41. Statements:

99% flowers are not thorns

100% buds are thorns

0% rose is flower

Conclusions:

I. 29% flowers which are not buds are not roses

II. 98% thorns are not roses

1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows

3) Neither I nor II follows 4) I and II both follow 5) None of these

Directions (42-43): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers,

it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and

rearrangement:

(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Input: 32 perseverance 46 a 62 Memory 54 beyond coziness 93

Step I: 92 32 46 a 62 memory 54 beyond coziness quantum

Step II: 61 91 32 46 a 54 beyond coziness random nonverbal

Step III: 53 60 90 32 46 a beyond stagnant orator dynamic

Step IV: 45 52 59 89 32 a tenacity penchant endemic captain

Step V: 31 44 51 58 88 urban query fathom deceive bemoaned

Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per

the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: Rampant 46 endurable 31 29 mystery fragrance 54 about 83 91 naughty

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42. Which of the following pair represents extreme right and extreme left at the STEP VI?

1) (33, blank) 2) (bias, 29) 3) (blind, 28)

4) cannot be determined 5) None of these

43. Which of the following represents the penultimate step for the given input?

1) 31 46 54 29 83 43 all word represent pure hypothetic functions

2) 30 44 51 79 86 29 all worries related program has flaw

3) 30 44 51 79 86 29 action wonders related prize hype fixing

4) Both 2) and 3)

5) Cannot be determined

Directions (44-45): Study the information and answer the following questions:

"Predominant thought is magnet" is coded as: 32<51R 23>9M 6<28I 16<33L

"Mental attitude is the magnet" is coded as: 6<28E 23>9M 6<28I 15>14L 24<36H

"Magnet law is that like attracts like" is coded as: 1<15E 23>9M 9<19E 20>18O 40>38X 20>18O

6<28I

"Mental attitude invariably attracts such condition" is coded as: 6<28E 24<36H 26<46P 40>38X

24>19G 30<41S

44. If "Such adorable moment " is coded as "24>19G ____ 29>28R ", "Adorable Friends" is coded

as "____ 16<36P" and "Friends attracts moment " is coded as" 29>28R ____ 40>38X" What

would be filled as the code for "Such adorable friend"?

1) 24>19G 30<41S ____ 2) 16<36P ____ 22<33H

3) ____ 16<36P 24>19G 4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

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45. How many vowels will come in the coded form of "Golden words for the future" is coded as

above?

1) 1 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2 5) None of these

Directions (46-47): Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and /or a question

and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data

provided in the statement(s) is/ are sufficient to answer the given question. Read both the

statements and

Give answer 1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the

data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer 2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the

data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer 3) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer

the question.

Give answer 4) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

the question.

Give answer 5) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the

questions.

46. Alka and Madhu put 40 matches on the table and make themselves aware of the game for

which the matches are to be used. As per the rules, the winner is the one who takes the last

match. Who will win the game?

I. Each player in turn takes 1, 3 or 5 matches

II. Madhu chooses to go first and takes 3 matches

47. In which month is my birthday?

I. I will celebrate my birthday in a month which begins on a Friday and ends on a Friday

too.

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II. I will celebrate my birthday in the current month. The result of adding the date of the last

Monday of last month and the date of the first Thursday of next month is 38

Directions (48-49): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A

word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input

and rearrangement

Input: Ran 27 roll 64 train 125 prompt 216 problem 343 randomly 512

Step I: 125 ran 27 roll 64 problem 343 randomly 512 prompt

Step II: 64 125 ran 27 randomly 512 prompt problem

Step III: 27 64 125 prompt problem randomly

Step III is the last step of the rearrangement.

Now, a set of words and letters is given below. As per the rules followed in above steps, answer

the questions based on it.

48. Input: 1000 absconding 216 letter party 125 8 hi

Which step will be the last for the given input?

1) III 2) II 3) IV 4) I 5) None of these

49. Which of the following can be the input for the given Step?

STEP III - 343 512 8 the only method

1) he believe 343 512 only 64 method 216 the gone

2) believe 343 512 souvenir 8 he the 27 64 only method 216

3) 121 care for 64 125 cross limit souvenir 343 the only method

4) Cannot be determined

5) None of these

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50. Conclusion: At least some amounts are costs. All amounts being prices is a possibility

1) Statements:

Some costs are prices

Some prices are amounts

All amounts are expenses

2) Statements:

Some prices are costs

Some costs are amounts

All amounts are expenses

3) Statements:

Some prices are costs

Some costs are amounts

All amounts are expenses

No Expenses is Price

4) Statements:

Some amounts are prices

Some prices are expenses

Some expenses are Costs

5) Statements:

All Costs are Prices

No prices are expenses

All expenses are Amount

Directions (51-53): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H of a family are sitting around a circular table. Four

among them are facing the center of a table whereas rest four members are facing outward.

There are three married couples among them. Each family member is born in a different year.

Among A and B, one is facing the center and the other is facing outward. D is facing opposite

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side of that of A and is sitting beside A. G is the oldest member and is beside the one who is

facing A. A’s husband is facing inward. B is brother of G and they have 8 years of gap between

them. C is the son of F who is the only sister-in-law of B. C was born when his mother was 20

years old. G’s wife was born in 1964 and is younger to G by 3 years. D is younger to his sister by

5 years. C is second to the left of B’s wife and is to the immediate left of C’s father. C is the

nephew of A’s husband. F is three places from C and is sitting beside C’s wife who is 3 years

younger to C. D is the maternal uncle of H and is third to the left of his brother-in-law. H is the

youngest among them and was born in 2010. H is third to right of his Grandfather.

51. How is the youngest member in the family is related to B’s brother?

1) Son 2) Daughter 3) Father

4) Grandson 5) None of these

52. Who sits opposite to the one who born in 1961 in circular arrangement?

1) A 2) C 3) G 4) D 5) None of these

53. How is B related to the one, who sits opposite to him in the arrangement?

1) Mother 2) Sister-in-law 3) Sister

4) Wife 5) None of these

Directions (54): Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and /or a question

and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data

provided in the statement(s) is/ are sufficient to answer the given question. Read both the

statements and

Give answer 1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the

data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer 2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the

data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

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100 Most Difficult Questions

Give answer 3) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer

the question.

Give answer 4) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer

the question.

Give answer 5) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the

questions.

54. Is it 9 o’clock now?

I. After the half an hour, the minute and the hour hands of the clock will make an angle of

exactly 90° with each other

II. Exactly 15 minutes ago, the hour and the minute hands of the clock coincided with each

other

Directions (55): Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

fasting relax digestive system - g10 f5 i28 e6

boosts brain function efficiency - h45 j28 e10 f30

increases energy daily body - d15 e10 f10 i20

fasting cures life threatening - g10 e26 k20 d14

55. What is code for get well suffer?

1) C5 D5 F21 2) C3 D7 F26 3) C5 D5 F26

4) D7 F26 C4 5) None of these

Directions (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ajay, Kamal, Sandhya, Rajkumar, Sharda are five aspirants for SBI PO 2017. To Pursue their aim

they joined classroom coaching of TalentSprint. They joined the classes at different centres.

These centres located in Delhi, Lucknow, Patna, Bhubaneswar, Hyderabad. No two centres of

TalentSprint are in a single town. Owing to the different problems they were confronting they

joined different types of courses. Names of the courses are BFC, MFC, DCC, PPC and TS. Each

person has different surnames viz, DIXIT, TRIPATHI, BAJPAI, SAHOO, AND SINGH. One

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who joined BFC course is associated with TalentSprint centre at Hyderabad. Three people

among them, i.e. Ajay Dixit, Ms Sahoo, and the one who is associated with Delhi centre, are

good at Nonverbal reasoning. But the other two Mr.Singh and the one who has joined PPC are

good at Verbal reasoning. No person is good at both Nonverbal and verbal Reasoning. One who

has joined PPC is not Kamal. Sharda and the person who has joined DCC have been friends

since school. Rajkumar has joined TS and is Good at Verbal Reasoning. Sharda is not associated

with Delhi, but she is good at Nonverbal Reasoning. Ms. Sahoo and the person who is

associated with Patna centre are unfamiliar with each other but good at Nonverbal Reasoning.

Ms.Triphati has joined PPC.

56. Who has enrolled for the PPC?

1) Ajay 2) Kamal 3) Sandhya 4) Rajkumar 5) None of these

57. What is the surname for the one, who has enrolled in Hyderabad centre?

1) Dixit 2) Bajpai 3) Sahoo 4) Singh 5) None of these

58. Which of the following combinations of city shows interest in non verbal reasoning?

1) Delhi, Lucknow 2) Patna, Bhubaneswar 3) Lucknow, Patna

4) Patna, Delhi 5) Delhi, Bhubaneswar

59. Sandhya has joined the classes at which of the following centers?

1) Lucknow 2) Delhi 3) Bhubaneswar

4) Patna 5) Lucknow or Bhubaneswar

60. What is the surname of the person who has got enrolled in Delhi?

1) Bajpai 2) Tripathi 3) Singh 4) Sahoo 5) Dixit

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100 Most Difficult Questions

Directions (61-64): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are eight friends – Prema, Tina, Ruchi, Bhumu, Vani, Kriti, Radha and Shreya. They have

been given 8 different letters token – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, but not necessarily in the same

order. They like different fruits – apple, grapes, banana, lichi, papaya, mango, orange and

melon but not necessarily in the same order. They all are sitting around a circular table with

equal people facing inside and outside. The one having token D is sitting third to left of one

having token A whose name is not Vani and does not like banana. The one having token C is

facing outside and sitting between the ones having tokens F and G who like mango and papaya

respectively. Tine is sitting to the immediate left of the one having token A who does not like

lichi and melon. Shreya is sitting second to right of the one who likes mango. The one who likes

melon is facing inside and sitting second to left of the one who likes lichi and he is also sitting

third to right of Prema. The one having token C is sitting second to right of the one having

token D whose name is ruche and likes apple. Kriti who likes grapes is neither A nor H. Prema

is not sitting to the immediate left of Ruchi. Both the neighbors of the one having token B are

facing inside. The one having token F is facing inside. The ones having tokens B and C face

same direction. The one having token E is to the immediate right of radha and he is also sitting

second to right of the one having token H. The one who likes orange is sitting second to left of

the one having token G.

61. Who sits opposite to the person who likes Litchi?

1) Bhumu 2) Vani 3) Kriti 4) Radha 5) None of these

62. What is Radha’s position with respect to Shreya?

1) 2nd to the left 2) 3rd to the right 3) Immediate left

4) 4th to the left 5) None of these

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100 Most Difficult Questions

63. Who are the immediate neighbours of the person who likes lichi?

1) apple, grapes 2) grapes, Kriti 3) Ruchi, A

4) Radha, Orange 5) None of these

64. Who is 3rd to the left of the person who likes Apple?

1) A 2) F 3) D 4) H 5) None of these

Directions (65-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are five units i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each unit has a different height. Also each unit contains

books and boxes. Unit 2 is above unit 1 and unit 3 is above unit 2 and so on. Every unit belongs

to different country i.e. Beijing, Paris, London, Sydney and Zurich. The total height of all five

units is equal to 252 ft. Total height of a unit is equal to the height of books plus height of boxes

in each unit. Height of books is not equal to the height of boxes, unless specified so. The books

that belong to London is in an even unit. The total height of unit 1 is 75 ft. Sydney does not

belong to unit 1. The total height of unit, which belongs to Sydney is 55 ft. There is only one gap

between London and Paris. The height of books and height of boxes in unit 3 are equal. The

height of books in unit 2 is not less than 30 ft. The height of books in unit 4 is 4 ft more than the

books, which are in unit 3. The total height of the unit for London is not 37 ft. The total height of

unit, which is 37 ft high is not taking the place, which is immediate above the unit, which

contains 20 ft more than the unit, which belongs to Sydney. The height of boxes in unit 2 is 23 ft.

Unit belonging to Zurich does not contain equal height of books and boxes. The total height of

unit 2 is an odd number and is more than 50 ft and less than 55 ft. Height of boxes in Unit 1 is 23

ft more than the height of boxes in unit 4 and height of books in unit 5 is 7 ft less than that in

unit 1.

65. What is the total height in unit 3?

1) 37 ft 2) 32 ft 3) 53 ft 4) 75 ft 5) None of these

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100 Most Difficult Questions

66. Unit 3 belongs to which country?

1) Paris 2) Zurich 3) Sydney 4) Beijing 5) London

67. If ‘Sydney’ is related to 37 ft in the same way as ‘Beijing’ is related to 53 ft. Which of the

following is ‘Paris’ related to, following the same pattern?

1) 53 ft 2) 37 ft 3) 75 ft 4) 32 ft 5) None of these

68. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and hence they form group. Which one of

the following does not belong to that group?

1) Sydney 2) 32 ft 3) 75 ft 4) Paris 5) Beijing

69. What is the height of box in unit 4?

1) 23 ft 2) 17 ft 3) 27 ft 4) 40 ft 5) 20 ft

70. Which unit contains 30 ft book?

1) None of these 2) Unit 2 3) Unit 3 4) Unit 1 5) Unit 5

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100 Most Difficult Questions

English Language (71-100)

Directions (71-78): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been

numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.

Find out the appropriate word in each case.

An old wine is better than a young wine. That’s a myth. Most wines are meant to be consumed

soon after____(71)________. White wines are best consumed within two to three years

and___(72)________ reds within three to five years.

Yes, a very small number of wines will keep for 10 to 20 years or more. These would have been

in production for many years and have the ______(73)_____to back their ____(74)____ to fame

and high prices.

These include the best Bordeaux, Burgundies and Napa Velley reds, some Barolos and

Barbarescos, and, of course, Penfolds Grange. Most wines capable of ____(75)_____

are____(76)_____ undrinkable when young as they are designed to be long-lasting (with strong

tannins and high acidity) and are rarely released before five years ; 95 percent of the wine

produced worldwide is ___(77)________ ready to drink ____(78)____bottling.

71. 1) Construction 2) creation 3) production 4) protraction 5) reproduction

72. 1) most 2) highest 3) utmost 4) greater 5) mostly

73. 1) derivative 2) effect 3) provenance

4) spring 5) cradle

74. 1) answer 2) claim 3) truth 4) application 5) disclaim

75. 1) crumbling 2) slumping 3) declining 4) aging 5) fading

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100 Most Difficult Questions

76. 1) virtually 2) basic 3) effectual

4) purposefully 5) virtual

77. 1) occasionally 2) sporadically 3) usual

4) generally 5) exactly

78. 1) in 2) from 3) at 4) by 5) on

Directions (79-83): In these questions, the sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating that

something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning

of the sentence as a whole

79. A huge interest from buyers for ____________ discounted Bharat Stage – III (BS-III) vehicles

enabled dealers of top two - wheeler markers in the country to beat the deadline and

_________ their stocks by Friday noon.

1) thickly, weary 2) heavily, exhaust 3) easily, use up

4) profoundly, overwork 5) massively, strengthen

80. There is much value and ___________ in one’s own employees interacting to solve a

problem by ______technology

1) synergy, using 2) unity, parting

3) cooperation, defining 4) discord, applying

5) accepting, working

81. India’s two biggest wheat producers Punjab and Haryana would______________ their

annual wheat__________ from tomorrow

1) begin, procure 2) compel, procuring

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100 Most Difficult Questions

3) commence, procurement 4) launch, purchasing

5) finish, attaining

82. Anti-dumping penalties target exporters that sell goods below the cost of production

and__________ duties are intended to____________ for foreign-government subsidies to

producers.

1) invalidate, penalize 2) balance, satisfy 3) permitting, atone

4) counteracting, forfeit 5) countervailing, compensate

83. Foreign investors ____________ on Indian stocks and bonds have __________ the rupee on

course for its best first - quarter performance since 1975

1) cloying, fix 2) overindulge, displaced 3) feeding, neglected

4) gorging, put 5) nibbling, rested

Directions (84-88): Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in

the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given

questions.

A. Our reform process in India is an ongoing process

B. It has picked up pace in last two years and it will continue to gain pace in the years to come

C. Economic reforms will continue to gain momentum in coming years as the country looks to

push growth and attract investment in the infrastructure sector.

D. Therefore, we have opened up in terms of our economy and today we are amongst the most

open economies in the world

E. India stands out with one difference today

F. Contrary to all the global noises we see in various parts of the world, there are no voices of

protectionism in India

84. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

1) A 2) C 3) B 4) F 5) E

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100 Most Difficult Questions

85. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

1) A 2) E 3) C 4) F 5) D

86. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) F 4) D 5) C

87. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after the rearrangement?

1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) E

88. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

1) E 2) D 3) A 4) F 5) C

Directions (89 - 95): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain

words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.

The Indian economy has withstood the litmus test. The growth recuperation visible in high

frequency indicators confirms that currency exchange-induced disruption was at best short

lived; with a swift pace of remonetisation restoring economic normalcy faster than earlier

anticipated. The latest GDP release reinforces this, with growth clocking a robust 7% in the third

quarter. Armed with long-term benefits of improved tax compliance, greater transparency,

superior governance, deregulation and digitization, India can be expected to maintain its

position as the fastest growing economy; amid a global economic backdrop that still remains

weak and fraught with uncertainty.

This resilience of the economy has taken shape over the last 2-3 years, owing to the five winds

of change, which will continue to play a potent role in the coming years:

One, there is a perceptible feeling of action and outcome orientation in policies.

As such, economic reforms are now better targeted such as the MSME for Make in India,

affordable housing for job creation and MNREGS for rural infrastructure.

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100 Most Difficult Questions

Two, Policy delivery has been chiseled with usage of smarter technologies such as the JAM

trinity (Jan Dhan -Aadhar-Mobile) to improve allocation of resources while minimizing

exclusion errors and leakages.

Three, there is a very proactive policy for international collaboration, moving beyond

diplomacy for enhancing trade and commercial linkages with other countries.

Four, the Centre has been focusing on building consensus on critical policies with key political

parties. The passage of GST with full majority by the Rajya Sabha is an excellent example.

Five, there is a growing implementation of competitive federalism, which, via Ease of Doing

Business, is bringing out the best practices and policies by most states.

These winds of change, along with structural strengths of a young demography, high technical

and engineering skills, large consumer base, among others, have now placed India on a

preordained growth trajectory. The sustainability of this growth has been further supported by

several factors: India ‘s improved macroeconomic stability reflected in low inflation, low CAD

and fiscal prudence as reinforced in Budget FY18; a governance regime that has leaned away

from unaffordable populism and cronyism; variegated reform mix with focus on micro

enablers, macro stability, institution building , and behavioural shifts; and long-term focus on

growth via programmes of smart cities, Make in India, start-up India, Digital India.

At the cusp of a new fiscal year, the economic outlook for FY18 continues to appear promising,

owing to a combination of structural and cyclical factors. The latter are in fact anticipated to

drive an ever more substantive recovery in both the consumption and investment cycles over

the next 12-18 months via the following short-term enablers.

The Centre had partially implemented the 7th CPC from Aug 2016 (with implementation of

16% hike in pay, 63.5% increase in allowances, and 24% increase in pensions). This will benefit

4.7 million central government employees (including defence and railways) and 5.3 million

pensioners. Total outgo for the Centre (including Railways) has been estimated at about

€85,000crore. These payouts will now be followed by an increase in allowances in FY18 at the

Centre, accompanied by state-level pay commissions over the next 1-2 years. Both are expected

to support private consumption, especially discretionary demand, further.

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100 Most Difficult Questions

Also interest rate support is expected to trickle down. Between Jan ’15-oct’16, the RBI reduced

the repo rate by a cumulative 175 bps on the back of increasing comfort on inflation. Since then,

banks have passed on 60 bps through cuts in base rate and another 95-105 bps via cuts in

MCLR. This will boost leveraged consumption and help in reducing corporate leverage.

89. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word

FRAUGHT given in bold as used in the passage

1) Empty 2) Filled 3) composed 4) tough 5) imprecise

90. Which are the factors that contribute to India’s ability to maintain its position as the fastest

growing economy?

I. Improved Tax Compliance

II. Lesser transparency

III. Deregulation and digitisation

IV. Superior governance

1) I, III & IV 2) Only III & IV 3) All four

91. Choose the word/group of words which is opposite in meaning as the word RESILIENCE

given in bold as used in the passage?

1) Volatile 2) Pliable 3) Flexibility 4) Expansive 5) Rigid

92. According to the passage, what can be said about international collaboration?

1) Without effective international collaboration we would have limited access to

breakthrough scientific knowledge

2) There is a policy moving beyond diplomacy to enhance trade and commercial linkages

with other countries

3) There is a delay in implementing trade and commercial linkages

4) International Collaboration helps access world-class infrastructure

5) Its efforts addresses global challenges

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100 Most Difficult Questions

93. Choose the word/group of words which is opposite in meaning as the word PRUDENCE

given in bold as used in the passage

1) Austerity 2) Diligence 3) Foresight

4) Disregard 5) Tact

94. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

1) Usage of smarter technologies has proven a failure to improve allocation of resources

2) Economic reforms are less targeted for rural infrastructure

3) The centre has been focusing on building consensus on critical policies

4) Competitive Federalism is not producing the desired effect by most states

5) Owing to a combination of structural and cyclical factors, the economic outlook seems to

deteriorate

95. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word

DISCRETIONARY given as bold as used in the passage

1) Unrestricted 2) Carelessness 3) Callousness

4) Rash 5) Tactless

Directions (96-100): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your

answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if

any)

96. A few weeks earlier, (A) / Paytm had started charging its customers (B)/ a two percent fee

for adding money(C)/ to the wallet using their credit card.(D)/ No error (E) .

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100 Most Difficult Questions

97. The Indian power sector is set to witness(A)/ a sea change with new tariff regulations,(B)/

which will consider for the first time energy efficiency, (C)/peaking power rates and time-of-

the-day tariff as key themes.(D)/ No error (E).

98. E-commerce companies are scheduling (A)/ classes with their sellers, both online and

offline, (B)/ hiring more people,(C)/ revamping their technology and warehousing.(D)/ No

error (E)

99. To avoid multiple taxation (A)/ under the coming goods and services tax (GST),(B)/

diamond jewelers have urged they be obligated(C)/ from levies on the processing of

diamonds.(D)/ No error (E).

100. In the next stage of artificial intelligence (A)/ adopting, banks will use AI to help

understand (B)/the intentions and emotions of customers (C)/ and enable better interactions.

(D). No error (E)

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