Roll No.

: Test Date: 29/12/2013

Centre Code: Test Booklet Code A

TEST No. 4
PAPER - I

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JEE (Main) 2014
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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

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1. Read each question carefully. 9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,
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2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section – I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions
 Test No. 4
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

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Physics Waves, Kinetic Theory, Thermodynamics, Thermal Properties of Matter

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Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group-13 to

Chemistry Group-18)

Mathematics Straight Lines, Conic Sections, Linear Inequalities, Mathematical Reasoning

Test - 4 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

TEST - 4 (Paper-1)

PART - A (PHYSICS)

SECTION - I (1) 75 m/s ĵ (2) –75 m/s ĵ

Straight Objective Type Questions
(3) 50 m/s ĵ (4) –50 m/s ĵ
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), 4. Molar heat capacity at constant volume of an ideal
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. gas is 2R. Slope of (P–V graph) will be
Choose the correct answer : (1) 2P (2) –2P
1. Wavelength of a sound wave of frequency 707 Hz,
3 3
travelling inside water is (Bulk modulus of water = (3) P (4)  P
2 2
2 × 109 Pa)
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m 5. In a stationary wave pattern that forms as a result of
reflection of waves from an obstacle, the ratio of the
(3) 3.5 m (4) 7 m

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amplitude at an antinode and a node is 4 : 1.
2. Equation of a transverse wave travelling in a medium Percentage of energy of wave passes across the

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is given by y = 10 sin (200 t – 0.01 x). Where y and obstacle is
x are expressed in cm and time in second. The
maximum transverse speed and maximum transverse
acceleration of a particle in the medium are
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(3) 48%
(2) 32%
(4) 64%

(1) 20 cm/s, 80 cm/s2 respectively 6. A standing wave is formed by two harmonic waves,
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y1 = a sin(bx – ct) and y2 = a sin(bx + ct) travelling

(2) 10 cm/s, 40 cm/s2 respectively on a string in opposite directions. Linear mass
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(3) 10 cm/s, 80 cm/s2 respectively density of the string is . Total mechanical energy
between two consecutive nodes on the string is
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(4) 20 cm/s, 40 cm/s2 respectively

3. Figure shows a transverse travelling wave that a 2c 2
(1)
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propagates with 100 m/s iˆ . Velocity of point P b

shown in figure is
a2c 2
ĵ (2)
b
P a2b2
iˆ (3)
37° c
b 2c 2
(4)
a
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 4 (Paper-I)

7. A sound absorber is fitted at a window of area
3 m2 which opens in a busy street. If the street
noise results an intensity level of 60 dB at the
window, amount of energy from street collected by
the sound absorber per second would be
(1) 2 J (2) 0.180 J
(3) 3 J (4) 0.10 J
8. A fighter jet moving in a vertical circle with constant
speed of radius R. The centre of the circle is at a
height h = 2R directly overhead of an observer
standing on the ground. The oiserver receives
maximum frequency of sound produced by the plane
when it is nearest to him. If speed of sound in air is
v0, speed of fighter jet is
 
(1) v0 (2) v0
3 3 3
11. Two tuning forks A and B when set in vibration, give
4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork A is filled,
the beats are reduced to 5 beats per 2 second. If
frequency of fork B is 250 Hz then frequency of A is
(1) 246 Hz
(2) 254 Hz
(3) 252.5 Hz
(4) 247.5 Hz
12. Two waves of equal frequencies have their intensities
in ratio 9 : 25. If these two waves interfere, then the
ratio of the maximum and minimum possible
amplitudes in the resultant waves is
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 4 : 5
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
13. Filament of an incandescent bulb has length  and
radius of cross-section r. Rating of the bulb is (P

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v0 v0
(3) (4) watt, V volt). Emissivity of the filament is  and

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2 3 wein's constant is b. Wavelength of the most intense
radiation emitted by the filament, if the bulb is
9. Two tuning forks with natural frequencies 170 Hz
each move relative to a stationary observer. One fork
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moves away from the observer while the other moves
al operated at half of the rating voltage, is ( = Stefan's
constant)
towards him at the same speed. The observer hears
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1
beats of frequency 2 Hz. Speed of the tuning fork is
⎛ 2 r  ⎞ 4
(velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s) (1) b ⎜ ⎟
⎝ P ⎠
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(1) 1 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s

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(3) 2 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s 1

⎛ 4 r  ⎞ 4
10. A tube 0.75 m long is closed at one end. A stretched (2) b ⎜ ⎟
⎝ P
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⎠
wire is placed near the open end. The wire is
0.25 m long and has a mass of 0.01 kg. It is held
1
fixed at both ends and vibrates in its fundamental ⎛ 8 r  ⎞ 2
mode. It sets the air column in the tube into vibration (3) b ⎜ ⎟
⎝ P ⎠
at its fundamental frequency by resonance. If speed
of sound is 330 m/s in air then tension in the wire is
1
(1) 55 N (2) 110 N ⎛ 8 r  ⎞ 4
(4) b ⎜ ⎟
(3) 121 N (4) 165 N ⎝ P ⎠
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Test - 4 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

14. Three rods AB, BC, CA are joined to form a triangle 17. Assuming average molar mass of gases in the
ABC. Length of the rods AB and AC each are equal Earth's atmosphere to be 29 g/mole, the temperature
to b and their coefficient of linear expansion is 1 at which Earth will be lack of atmosphere is (Radius
whereas length of rod BC is a and its coefficient of of Earth = 6.4 × 106 m and g = 9.8 m/s2)
b (1) 10 × 103 K (2) 1.46 × 105 K
linear expansion is 2. Ratio , such that the
a (3) 0.73 × 105 K (4) 2.92 × 105 K
height h does not change upon heating the rods by
18. If the temperature of atmosphere T varies with height
same temperature, is
h as T = T0 (1 – h) where  is a positive fraction.
1 2 Assuming average molar mass of air to be M and
(1) 2  A the air to be an ideal gas, the variation of pressure
1
P with height h is (atmospheric pressure at Earth
2 surface = P0)
(2) 1 Mg
h (1) P  P 1  h  RT0
0
2 Mg
(3) 2  (2) P  P 1  h  RT0
1 0
B C
Mg
1 2 (3) P  P 1  h  RT0
(4) 3  0

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1 RT0

15. A platinum resistance thermometer reads 0°C when (4) P  P (1  h ) Mg

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0
resistance is 100  and 100°C when its resistance
is 120 . Reading of thermometer, when its
resistance is 112 , is
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19. An ideal gas ⎜ C   ⎟ is taken through a process
⎝ V ⎠
(1) 50° (2) 55°
in which the pressure and the volume vary such that
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(3) 60° (4) 56° P = V . The value of , for which molar heat
16. One gram mole of hydrogen gas at temperature capacity of gas is zero, is
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T0 K and pressure P0 pascal is enclosed in a vessel. (1)  (2) –

Assuming Boltzmann's constant to be k, Avogadro's
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1
number to be NA and speed of molecules to be root (3) (4)  2
mean square speed (and m is molar mass), the 
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number of collisions per second which the molecule 20. 1.0 g of pure water vaporises isobarically at
make with one square meter area of vessel wall is atmospheric pressure such that its volume changes
from vliquid = 1.0 cm3 to vvapour = 1671 cm3. If latent
P02N A P02 NA heat of vaporisation of water is LV = 2.26 × 106 J/kg
(1) (2)
24 KT0 m 12KT0 m and atmospheric pressure P0 = 1.0 × 105 Pa, the
change in internal energy of the system is
500 P02NA P02 N A (1) 169 J (2) 2260 J
(3) (4)
3 KT0 m 2KT0 m (3) 2091 J (4) 2009 J
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 4 (Paper-I)

21. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process such 23. Two moles of a diatomic ideal gas is taken through
that its internal energy relates to the volume as

U  a V , where a is a constant. Molar specific a process, P  , where a is a positive constant.
T
heat of the gas is Temperature of gas is increased from T0 to 2T0, work
(1) 1.5 R done by the gas is

(2) 2.5 R (1) 2 RT0

(3) 3.5 R (2) 4 RT0
(4) 4.5 R (3) 6 RT0
22. Pressure versus temperature (P – T) graph of n (4) 8 RT0
moles of an ideal gas is shown in figure.
Corresponding density versus volume ( – V) graph 24. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with speed of 120 m/s
is hits an ice block of mass 990 g kept on a
frictionless horizontal floor and gets embedded into
it. Temperature of ice block is 0°C and its latent heat
P
3
of fusion is 80 calory/gram. Ifth of the energy lost
4P0 C 4
in collision is converted into heat, mass of ice

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B melted is
2P0 D

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(1) 0.10 g (2) 0.11 g
P0

T0
A
2T0
T
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25. A cup of coffee cools down from 54°C to 45°C in
5 minute. How much further time in minutes it will
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take to cool down to 36°C, if the room temperature

  is 18°C?
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B, C C
(1) 5 (2) 7
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D
(1) (2) (3) 9 (4) 11
A, D B A
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V V SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-
 B C Reason type questions. Each of these questions
C, B contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
A
(3) A, D (4) D Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
V four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
V answer. You have to select the correct choice.
Space for Rough Work

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Test - 4 (Paper-I)
26. Statement-1 : Two waves y1 = Acos(t + kx) and
y2 = Acos(t – kx) are superimposed. At x = 0,
there forms a node.
and
Statement-2 : At node, net displacement due to two
waves should be zero.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : A wire is stretched and then fixed at
two ends. It oscillates in its seventh overtone mode.
Number of nodes and antinodes on the wire are 9
and 8 respectively.
and
Statement-2 : For a wire stretched and fixed at both
of ends, the length of wire and wavelength of wave
are related as  = 7.5 corresponding to its
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oscillation in seventh overtone mode.
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(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
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Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
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(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Statement-1 : Transverse waves cannot be produced
in gaseous medium.
and
Statement-2 : Gaseous medium possess no
modulus of rigidity.
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. Statement-1 : A cube of ice melts in open
atmosphere. Some amount of work is done by
atmosphere on (ice + water) system.
and
Statement-2 : Volume of water converted from melting
ice is lesser than its volume.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
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(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
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Statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : Deserts are hotter in the sunny days
but colder in nights.
and
Statement-2 : According to Kirchhoff's law, emissivity
of a body is equal to its absorptive power, this is why
deserts have high emissivity as their absorptive
power is high.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 4 (Paper-I)

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
36. What is the product when FeS2 is oxidized by O2?
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions (1) FeO and SO2

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions (2) Fe2O3 and SO3
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) FeO and SO3
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (4) Fe2O3 and SO2
31. The order of Lewis acidic strength for boron halides 37. 50% H2SO4 on electrolysis produces the compound
follow the order around anode which on complete hydrolysis
(1) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 produces one of the compound, which can act as
reducing agent, the compound is
(2) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2S2O8
(3) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(3) H2O (4) H2O2
(4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
38. Which of the following is the correct order of bond
32. Which of the following is not correct for diborane? dissociation energy?
(1) Each boron atom has four bonds around it (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(2) Each boron is sp3 hybridized hence HBH bond

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(2) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2
angles are of measure 109°28
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

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(3) Maximum number of atoms lie on a plane is
(4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
equal to 6
(4) B2H6 may act as reducing agent but can never
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39. Which of the following compound on hydrolysis form
two types of acids?
act as oxidising agent
(1) N2O5 (2) N2O
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33. When PCl3 is hydrolysed then oxyacid of phosphrus
is formed. The basicity of oxyacid is (3) N2O4 (4) N2O3
(1) 1 (2) 2
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40. XeF6 on reaction with BF3 donates one of its fluoride

(3) 3 (4) 4 to BF3 then what is the oxidation number of Xe in
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final compound?
34. When ammoniacal solution of common salt is
saturated with CO2, then product formed is (1) 5 (2) 6
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(1) NH4HCO3 (2) (NH4)2CO3 (3) 7 (4) 4

(3) NaHCO3 (4) Na2CO3 41. Which of the following is used to block silicones
chain?
35. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
dipole moment for MH3Cl, where M is the 14th group (1) MeSiCl3
element? (2) Me2SiCl2
(1) C > Si > Ge (2) Ge > C > Si (3) Me3SiCl
(3) Si > C > Ge (4) C > Ge > Si (4) Me4Si
Space for Rough Work

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Test - 4 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

42. Which of the following bicarbonate is least 48. When P4 (white phosphorus) reacts with SOCl2 it
thermodynamically stable? does not form
(1) KHCO3 (2) LiHCO3 (1) PCl5 (2) PCl3
(3) NaHCO3 (4) CsHCO3 (3) SO2 (4) S2Cl2
43. When I2 dissolves in KI it forms 49. Which of the following can act as a reducing agent?
(1) A compound which can reduce Na2S2O3 (1) H3PO4 (2) H4P2O7
(2) Compound which is white in colour (3) H3PO3 (4) (HPO3)3
(3) Compound has atom with linear shape 50. Which of the following compound does not exist?
(4) I2 in vapour phase (1) SCl2 (2) SeCl2
44. Which of the following can produce apple green (3) TeCl2 (4) OCl2
flame in flame test?
51. Which of the following nitrates on heating to lowest
(1) Li+ (2) K+ temperature form metal oxide?
(3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+ (1) LiNO3 (2) NaNO3
45. KNH2 with NH4Br on reaction to form product by using (3) KNO3 (4) CsNO3
(1) Acid base reaction 52. Which of the following starred bond is most stable?

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(2) Redox reaction *  H
*

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(1) Cl3C
(3) Decomposition reaction
(4) Condensation reaction
n al *  D
(2) Cl3C *

46. Which of the following causes temporary hardness *  T*

(3) Cl3C
to H2O?
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(4) All of these are identically stable

(1) CaCl2
53. Which of the following is not known?
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(2) MgCl2
(1) HOBr (2) HOBrO
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(3) CaSO4
(3) HBrO3 (4) HBrO4
(4) Ca(HCO3)2
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54. In XeF2, the bond angle is

47. If a H2O2 sample has volume strength 10 V then
how many molecules of H2O2 are present in 224 mL (1) 90° (2) 120°
solution of it? (3) 109°28 (4) 180°
(1) 6.022 × 1020 55. In which of the following silicate, all four oxygen
(2) 2 × 10–3 around silicon are shared with other units?
(3) 12.044 × 1022 (1) Pyrosilicate (2) Linear silicates
(4) 10–3 (3) Sheet silicates (4) 3-D silicates
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : F2 is a strongest oxidizing agent
among all halogens.
and
Statement-2 : Fluorine has highest electronegativity
among all elements.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
n al (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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57. Statement-1 : NH3 is highly water soluble.
o
and
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Statement-2 : NH3 forms hydrogen bond with H2O.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Ed
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 4 (Paper-I)
58. Statement-1 : H2O2 has open book structure.
and
Statement-2 : H 2 O 2 has H-bonding among
molecules.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : Sodium in liquid ammonia (3 M) forms
a diamagnetic solution.
and
Statement-2 : Sodium in liquid ammonia (dilute
solution) shows reducing property.
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(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : Cs can melt even on palm.
and
Statement-2 : Cs have very weak metallic bonding.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Test - 4 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
(1) x2 + y2 – 4x – 8y – 30 = 0
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions (2) x2 + y2 + 4x – 8y – 30 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 + 4x + 8y – 30 = 0
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (4) x2 + y2 + 4x + 8y = 0
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 66. Let A, B, C be three points on a straight line such
that B lying between A and C. Consider all circles
61. A rectangle PQRS joins the points P, Q, R, S.
passing through B and C. The points of contact of
Co-ordinates of P and R be (2, 3) and (8, 11) the tangents from A to these circles lie on
respectively. The line QS is known to be parallel to
the y-axis. Then coordinates of Q and S are (1) A straight line (2) A parabola
(3) A circle (4) Ellipse
(1) (0, 7) and (10, 7) (2) (5, 2) and (5, 12)
(3) (7, 6) and (7, 10) (4) (7, 2) and (7, 12) a ⎛ 1⎞
67. The eccentricity of the curve x  t and
2 ⎜⎝ t ⎟⎠
62. The orthocenter of the triangle formed by pair of lines a ⎛ 1⎞
y ⎜t  ⎟
3x2 + 5y2 + 8xy – 5x – 7y + 2 = 0 and x – y = 0 is 2 ⎝ t ⎠ , where t is a parameter, is
⎛ 1 1⎞ ⎛ 2 1⎞ 1 1
(1) ⎜ , ⎟ (2) ⎜ , ⎟ (1) (2)

n
⎝2 2⎠ ⎝3 3⎠ 2 2
(3) 2 (4)

.i
⎛ 1 1⎞ 2
(3) ⎜ , ⎟ (4) (–1, 1) 68. The four sides of a quadrilateral are given by equation
⎝3 3⎠
63. If the two feet of normals drawn from a point to the
n al (xy + 12 – 4x – 4y)2 = (2x – 2y)2. The equation of a
line with slope 3 which divides area of
parabola x2 – 6x – 4y + 5 = 0 be (7, 3) and (–1, 3),
then the third foot is quadrilateral in two equal parts is
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(1) (1, 0) (2) (–3, 8) (1) y  3( x  4) (2) y  3 x  4

(3) (3, –1) (4) (5, 0)
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(3) y  3( x  4)  4 (4) y  3( x  4)
64. Consider an ellipse with centre at the origin. From an
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arbitrary point P on the ellipse, perpendiculars PA x2 y 2

69. From any point P on the hyperbola   1,
and PB are dropped on the axes of the ellipse. Then 9 4
Ed

the locus of the point Q that divides AB in the fixed x2 y 2

ratio m : n may be
(1) Pair of straight lines (2) An ellipse
(3) A hyperbola (4) Parabola
65. Let ABC be a triangle whose vertices are A(–5, 5)
and B(7, –1). If vertex C lies on the circle whose
director circle has equation x2 + y2 = 100, then the
locus of orthocenter of ABC is
Space for Rough Work
tangents are drawn to the hyperbola   1.
18 8
The area cut-off by the chord of contact and the
asymptotes of the first hyperbola
(1) Depends only on abscissa of the point P
(2) Depends only on ordinate of point P
(3) Is 48 sq. unit
(4) Is 24 sq. unit

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 4 (Paper-I)

70. Tangents are drawn from (, ) to the hyperbola 1

3x2 – 2y2 = 6 and are inclined at angles 1, 2 to the (1) Greater than
3
positive x-axis. If tan 1.tan 2 = 2, then value of
(22 – 2) is equal to (2) Less than or equal to 2

(1) 7 (2) 11 2
(3) Greater than
3
(3) 5 (4) 6
71. PQ is the chord passing through centre of the ellipse 2
2 2 (4) Less than or equal to
x y 3
  1 . If the square of its length is the H.M.
a2 b 2
75. Equation of the parabola with latus rectum 2 2 units
of the squares of length of major and minor axes,
and axis as the line x – y =0 and tangent at the vertex
then slope of line may be equal to
as x + y = 1, is (origin lies outside of parabola)
1
(1) 2 (2) (1) x2 + y2 – 2xy + 4x + 4y + 4 = 0
2
(2) x2 + y2 – 2xy + 8x + 8y – 8 = 0
(3) –1 (4) 3
(3) x2 + y2 – 2xy – 4x – 4y + 4 = 0
72. Line y = x + 2 is a tangent to the parabola y2 = 8x. Let (4) x2 + y2 – 2xy – 2x – 2y + 2 = 0
M be the point on this line from where other tangent is
drawn which is perpendicular to this tangent. The 76. The number of points with integral coordinates that

n
lie in the interior of the region common to the circle
distance of M from N ( 1, 2 2) is

.i
x2 + y2 = 16 and the parabola y2 = 4x is
(1) 2
(3) 1
(2) 3
(4) 5
n al (1) 10
(3) 17
(2) 16
(4) 13

x2 y 2 x2 y 2
77. On the ellipse   1 , the point M nearest to the
ur
73. A tangent to the hyperbola   1 meets the 18 8
4 1
line 2x – 3y + 25 = 0 is
ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4 at two distinct points. The locus
⎛ 8⎞
o

of mid point of this chord is (1) (–3, 2) (2) ⎜  2, ⎟

⎝ 3⎠
uj

(1) (x2 + 4y2)2 = 4(x2 – 4y2)

(3) (3, 2) (4) (3 2, 0)
(2) (x2 – 4y2)2 = x2 + 4y2
Ed

(3) (x2 + 4y2)2 = (x2 – 4y2) 78. Given a circle (x + 4)2 + (y – 2)2 = 25. Another
circle is drawn passing through (–4, 2) and touching
(4) (x2 + 4y2)2 = 4(x2 + 4y2) the given circle internally at the point A(–4, 7). AB
74. Let PQ be double ordinate of the hyperbola is the chord of length 8 units of the larger circle
intersecting the other circle at the point C. Then AC
x2 y 2 will be
  1 . If O is the centre of the hyperbola and
a2 b2
(1) 4 units (2) 17 units
OPQ is an equilateral triangle, then its eccentricity
must be (3) 5 units (4) 3 units
Space for Rough Work

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Test - 4 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
79. The equation of the hyperbola whose foci are 84. An incident ray (L1) is reflected by the mirror (L2)
symmetrically situated on the x-axis with respect to 3x + 4y = 5 and equation of reflected ray (L3) is
the origin, the equation of the asymptotes as x + y = 1, the equation of L1 is
4
y   x and distance between foci being 20, is (1) x – y = –3 (2) 17x + 31y = 45
3
(3) 17x – 31y = –77 (4) 31x + 17y = –3
x2 y 2 x2 y 2
(1)  1 (2)  1 85. If origin is moved to a point such that the
64 36 16 9
transformed expression for the expression
x2 y 2 x2 y 2
(3)  1 (4)  1 f(x, y) = x2 – 4y2 – 6x + 8y + 3 will be free from first
9 16 36 64
degree terms, then the point is
x2 y 2 (1) (–3, –1) (2) (1, –3)
80. If normal at the point P() to the ellipse  1
14 5
(3) (3, –1) (4) (3, 1)
intersects it again at the point Q(2), then cos is
equal to
SECTION - II
1 1 Assertion – Reason Type Questions
(1) (2)
3 2
Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-
2 1 Reason type questions. Each of these questions
(3) (4)

n
3 6 contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
81. If the circumference of the circle Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

.i
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
x2 + y2 + 8x + 8y – b = 0 is bisected by
x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y + a = 0, then a + b is equal to
(1) –56 (2) 2
n al
answer. You have to select the correct choice.

86. Statement-1 : Equation of tangent passing through

(1, 1) to the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 2y – 1 = 0 is
(3) –64 (4) –14
ur
x(1) + y(1) – 2(x + 1) + (y + 1) – 1 = 0
82. A, B and C are 3 points on a circle with centre O. i.e., 2y – x – 2 = 0.
The chord BA is extended to point T such that CT
o

and
becomes a tangent to the circle at point C. If
ATC = 20° and ACT = 40°, then BOA is Statement-2 : Equation of tangent passing through
uj

(1) 120° (2) 150° (0, 0) to the circle x2 + y2 – x – y = 0 is x + y = 0.

Ed

(3) 160° (4) 170° (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

83. The equation of the base of an equilateral triangle is Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
2x + y = 3 and vertex is (–2, 3), then length of its Statement-1
side is (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
8 4 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) (2) Statement-1
15 3 5
4 8 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) (4) (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
15 3 5
Space for Rough Work

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 4 (Paper-I)

87. Statement-1 : Tangent of the angle intercepted by 89. Statement-1 : The equation x2 + y2 – 2xy + x + 1 = 0
the tangents drawn to the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4 at
(0, 2) is 4 3 . represents pair of straight lines if   2 2 .

and
Statement-2 : Angle intercepted by the tangents from
(x1, y1) to any ellipse is acute if (x1, y1) lies outside
the director circle and obtuse if (x1, y1) lies inside the
director circle and outside the ellipse.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
x2 y 2
88. Statement-1 : For ellipse 2  2  1 (a > b) and
and
Statement-2 : The point P on the line x + y = 1
such that PA + PB is minimum, where A(2, 0),
⎛ 4 1 ⎞
B(0, –1) is ⎜ , ⎟ .
⎝3 3 ⎠
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

n
a b
2 2
x y 90. Statement-1 : Triangle formed by the vertex and end

.i
hyperbola 2  2  1 . If e1 and e2 represent the
a b points of double ordinate of the parabola y2 = 4x is
eccentricities of ellipse and hyperbola respectively
then e12 + e22 = 2.
n al an equilateral triangle, then area of triangle is 48 3
sq. units.
and
and
ur
Statement-2 : If e 1 and e 2 are eccentricities of
hyperbola and conjugate hyperbola respectively, then Statement-2 : Area formed by the vertex and latus
1 1 rectum of the parabola y2 = 4x is 2 sq. units.
o

  1.
e12 e22 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
uj

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Ed

Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  
Space for Rough Work

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 Test Booklet Code A

Test No. 3
Paper I

.in
n al
o ur
uj
Ed

AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN

for
RI
ALL

JEE (Main) 2014

ES
Test - 3 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 3 (Paper-I)

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (1) 31. (1) 61. (2)
2. (3) 32. (3) 62. (3)
3. (4) 33. (4) 63. (2)
4. (1) 34. (2) 64. (2)
5. (4) 35. (1) 65. (3)
6. (4) 36. (3) 66. (2)

n
7. (3) 37. (1) 67. (4)

.i
8. (2) 38. (3) 68. (2)
9.
10.
(3)
(4)
n 39.
40.
al
(2)
(1)
69.
70.
(2)
(4)
11. (2) 41. (2) 71. (1)
ur

12. (3) 42. (1) 72. (4)

o

13. (3) 43. (1) 73. (1)

uj

14. (3) 44. (2) 74. (3)

15. (2) 45. (2) 75. (2)
Ed

16. (4) 46. (4) 76. (3)

17. (Deleted) 47. (3) 77. (3)
18. (3) 48. (4) 78. (4)
19. (3) 49. (2) 79. (3)
20. (4) 50. (3) 80. (3)
21. (3) 51. (1) 81. (1)
22. (3) 52. (2) 82. (2)
23. (3) 53. (3) 83. (2)
24. (1) 54. (3) 84. (2)
25. (2) 55. (4) 85. (3)
26. (2) 56. (3) 86. (1)
27. (1) 57. (4) 87. (1)
28. (1) 58. (3) 88. (1)
29. (2) 59. (1) 89. (4)
30. (3) 60. (3) 90. (4)
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