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SBI Clerk E-book

Table of Content:
1. Important Exam Dates
2. Exam Pattern & Detailed Syllabus
3. Previous Year Cutoff & Minimum Safe Attempts
4. Numerical Ability Tips
5. English Language Tips
6. Reasoning Ability Tips
7. Previous Year’s Analysis
8. Complete Study Notes for SBI Clerk
9. Free Mock Test

Introduction

The biggest recruitment notification of the year, SBI Clerk, has been recently released. Here we are sharing
this free ebook, which will help you to find all the important details for this exam at a single place.
We have already shared the table of content for this ebook. Do not forget to attempt the free mock test for
SBI Clerk Exam 2019, shared at the end of this ebook to check your preparation level!

1. Important Exam Dates

As per the latest notification of State Bank of India, here are the exam dates for SBI Clerk Exam
2019:

Event Name New Dates

Date of SBI Clerk Prelims Exam June 2019 (Tentative)

Date of SBI Clerk Main Exam 10.08.2019

2. Exam Pattern & Detailed Syllabus

(a) Prelims Exam pattern of SBI Clerk

S. No. Name of the Section No. of Questions Maximum Time Allotted

Marks

1. English Language 30 30 20 minutes

2. Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 minutes

3. Numerical Ability 35 35 20 minutes

Total 100 100 60 minutes

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(b) Main Exam pattern of SBI Clerk

S. Name of the Section No. of Maximum Time Allotted

No. Questions Marks

1. General/ Financial Awareness 50 50 35 minutes

2. General English 40 40 35 minutes

3. Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 minutes

4. Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 50 60 45 minutes

Total 190 200 2 hours 40 minutes

3. Previous Year’s Cutoff & Minimum Safe Attempts

SBI has already removed the cutoff of individual sections. So to maximize your chances of selection,
you should try to attempt maximum questions with 100% accuracy. To get an idea of overall difficulty
level of exam, we are sharing below the cut-off score of exam that was held in 2018.

SBI Clerk 2018 Prelims Cut Off out of 100

States Gen OBC SC ST OH VI HI XS DXS

Madhya Pradesh 66.25 66.25 51 46

Rajasthan 69

Uttar Pradesh 69.25 65.5 54.5 46.75 56.5 58.75 34.5 46.5 0

Himachal Pradesh 68.75

West Bengal 66.5 55.25 51.75 45 43 0 13.25 36.5 0

Maharashtra 57 57 57 42.25 49.5 61.75 18.5 23 0

Haryana 70.5 67 55.75 70.5 52.25 43.75 16.75 49 0

Delhi 71.75

Bihar 66.5 66.5 52.25 53.25 57 54.5 37 44 0

Punjab 71.5 65 58 71.5 54 45.75 0 42.5 3.25

Chhattisgarh 67.25 67.25 52.25 45.5 53.75 37.75 5.25 37.5 3

Gujarat 57.5 57.5 57.5 39.75 41.25 38.25 0 19.5 0

Uttarakhand 71 66.25 61 59.5 - 58.25 5 49.5 9.25

Tamil Nadu 60 60 59 53 51.25 58.75 18.5 32.25 0

Andhra Pradesh 71 71 64.75 57 67.25 66.5 31 45 1.5

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Jharkhand 69.5

Meghalaya 50.75 50.75 50.75 46 0 47 - 6.75 9.5

Assam 51.25 50.25 46.25 46.75 17.75 5 0 0 0

Telangana 68 68 59.25 59.5 66 75 29.25 44 1

Karnataka 63.75 58 52.25 51.75 51.5 53.25 36.75 34.25 3.5

Kerala 69 69 56.75 44.5 45.75 45.75 5 49.75 1.75

Odisha 62.5

Mizoram 11.25 11.25 11.25 11.25 - 24.75 # 21.25 24.25

Chhattisgarh 67.25 67.25 52.25 45.5 53.75 37.75 5.25 37.5 3

Chandigarh 71.25 64.5 64.5 71.25 - - - - -

Andaman and
53.5 53.5 53.5 53.5 - - - - -
Nicobar

SBI Clerk Main Exam Cut off 2018 State wise

State Cut-off
Rajasthan 96.75
Punjab 100.65
Haryana 99.00
Madhya Pradesh 92.60
Himachal Pradesh 98.25
Delhi 104.80
Bihar 96.00
Gujarat 85.00
Uttar Pradesh 96.00
Maharashtra 85.65
Jharkhand 96.00
Tamil Nadu 93.75
Karnataka 83.90
Chhattisgarh 91.50
West Bengal 95.30
Odisha 88.80

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Minimum Safe Attempts:

Looking at above scores, you should try to attempt at least 70+ questions with proper accuracy in order to
pass prelims exam.
4. Numerical Ability Tips
This is the most scoring section of SBI Clerk because one can easily score 35 marks in this section with
proper preparation.
The tips below will help you all score better in this section.
● Focus more on topics like Number Series, Simplification/ Approximation, Data Interpretation and Quadratic
Equations since they will constitute the major chunk of the quant section in the exam.
● Learn tables and squares up to at least 30 and common square roots, cubes and cube roots to save
calculation time during exams.
You can also read our article on easy tips to enhance your calculation skills here.
● Clear your concepts of different arithmetic topics asked since they will also find application in the Data
Interpretation questions.
● Have a very clear understanding of BODMAS rules.
● Practice topic-wise questions of quantitative aptitude section as well as full-length test on a daily basis.
● To score 30+ marks in this section, practice it for at least 2 hours regularly.
● You can also read important tips and tricks to clear Numerical Ability section of SBI Clerk 2019
here!
5. English Language Tips
English section is usually the most intimidating segment for most of the students. We hope the tips shared
below will help you score better in this section.
● To score better in the English section, a good command over Vocabulary and Grammar is crucial since these
two will cover almost all the topics asked in this section.
● To strengthen your vocabulary, daily reading of editorials and revision of words is important. You can refer
our series ‘Shape up your Vocabulary from Newspaper Wordlist’ for this purpose.
● Apart from that, develop a habit of conversing in English. This exercise will not only help you work on your
vocab also strengthen your spoken english.
● We have also shared a free PDF of the important Grammar rules. Make sure that you download and
study it thoroughly to strengthen your grammar basics.
● Apart from that, practice topic-wise questions on a regular basis.
● You can also read important tips and tricks to clear English section of SBI Clerk 2019 here!
6. Reasoning Ability Tips
Reasoning Ability is usually the most unpredictable section in the exam. But you can score good marks in
this section with proper preparation and the tips below will certainly help you do so.
● There are no fixed set of rules or formulas, which can mug up to score well in the reasoning section.
● The only way to score better is conceptual clarity. So, read the study notes of different topics thoroughly
and understand the correct approach to solve questions.
For instance, you do not need to solve the complete statements in case of Data Sufficiency, a common
mistake which many of you commit.
Understanding the approach to solve questions will help you in this.
● Next crucial step to score better in Reasoning section is thorough practice. Many of you question, ‘How can I
score better in Puzzles’ or ‘Verbal reasoning questions take time’. Well, you can overcome all this with
proper practice.
● Regular practice will also help you understand alternate and less time taking approaches to solve different
questions.
● You can also read important tips and tricks to clear Reasoning Ability section of SBI Clerk 2019
here!

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7. Previous Year’s Analysis

The analysis below will help students understand the topics and their weightage, which were asked in the
prelims exam of SBI Clerk, conducted in 2018.

Reasoning Ability
Following topics were asked in Reasoning Section of SBI Clerk Prelims Exam 2018 –

Number of
Topic Name Asked in Type of Questions Asked
Questions
• Box Based Puzzle
• Floor Based Puzzle
Puzzles Each Slot 10-15 • Scheduling based Puzzle (Monday to
Sunday)
• Date of Birth and year based Puzzle
• Circular Seating Arrangement
• Linear Seating Arrangement (Facing North
Seating Arrangement Each slot 1-10 and South)
• Linear Seating Arrangement (Facing North
Direction)
Inequality Some slots 5 • Direct Inequality

Coding-decoding Some slots 5 • Old Pattern

Input-output One slot 5 • Easy and Old Pattern

• Puzzle based questions based on height, age
Order and Ranking Most of the slots 1-3
of persons.
Blood Relation Each Slot 1-3 • Direct
All slots except
Direction Sense 1-3 • Direct
one
Series
• 1aed4%567h6u&*
• Alphanumeric Series or
Each Slot 5 • EA DE AV TG HI
• Alphabet Series
• 435 368 895 291 451
• Number Series
Topics which were not asked -
• Syllogism

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English Language
Following topics were asked in English Language section of SBI Clerk Prelims Exam 2018-

Number of
Topic Name Asked in Type of Questions Asked
Questions
• Moderate Level
• Not based on simple stories
• Most of the passages were related to social issues
Reading Comprehension Each Slot 5-7
• Passage related to Education Sector,
belongingness, stress management, hospitals were
asked
• In Sentence arrangement questions, a sentence
was given. First part or any other part of the
sentence was fixed. Students were required to
Sentence arrange the remaining sentence in a meaningful
Rearrangement Each slot 5-15 manner.
Para Jumble • In para jumble questions, 5-6 sentences were
given. Candidates were required to arrange the
given sentences in order to form a coherent
paragraph.
Two types of questions from this topic were asked -
• Find out the part of the sentence which is
Error Spotting Each slot 5-10 grammatically correct
• Find out the part of the sentence which is
grammatically incorrect
Following types of questions were asked in this
section
Sentence • A part of the sentence was highlighted. Candidates
Improvement/Sentence Each slot 5 were required to select the improved version of
Correction that part from the given options
• 5 sentences were given. Students were required to
select the most correct sentence.
• Moderate Level
Fill in the blanks Some slots 5
• Single Filers
Following types of questions were asked in this
section
Phrase Replacement Some slots 3-5 • A part of the sentence was highlighted. Students
were required to find out the meaning of that part
(idiom/phrase) among the given options.
• In a sentence, there were some highlighted words.
Spelling Correction Some slots 3-5 The students were required to select the word
which is most incorrect.
Topics which were not asked -
• Cloze Test
• Sentence Connector
• Odd one out

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Numerical Ability
• Following topics were asked in Numerical Ability of SBI Clerk Prelims Exam 2018
Topic Name Asked in Number of Questions Type of Questions Asked
• Tabular Chart
• Bar Graph
• Line Graph
Data Interpretation Each Slot 5-10
• Pie Chart
• Missing DI
• Caselet DI
Simplification Each slot 5-15 • Easy Level based on BODMAS Rule

Approximation Some slots 5-10 • Easy Level

• Missing Number Series
Number Series Some slots 5
• Wrong Pattern Number Series
Quadratic Equation Some slots 5 • Simple Level
Quantity and
Some slots 3-5 • Moderate - difficult level
Comparison Based
Data Sufficiency Some slots 3-5 • Moderate Level
• Profit and Loss
• Boats and Stream
• Age-based
• Ratio and Proportion
• Number System
Miscellaneous Each Slot 5-12
• Percentage
• SI & CI
• Pipes & Cistern
• Mixture & Allegation
• Mensuration
However, keeping in mind the recent trends in banking exams, you cannot rely solely on the above mentioned
topics. Have a thorough understanding of the various new pattern based questions introduced in the last 2
years and practice them well.
8. Complete Study Notes for SBI Clerk 2019
The table below consists of the links to the topic-wise study notes of different sections asked in SBI Clerk
Prelims exam.
Name of the Section Links to Study Notes

English Language ● Reading Comprehension Notes

● Cloze Test Notes
● Spotting Error Notes
● Sentence Correction Notes
● Fill in the Blank Notes
● Parajumbles Notes
● Sentence Connector Notes
● Daily Wordlist for Vocabulary

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Numerical Ability ● Number Series Notes

● Simplification/ Approximation Notes
● Quadratic Equation Notes
● Data Interpretation Notes
(Basics, Pie chart, Bar chart, Tabulation, Missing DI, Caselet DI, Line chart, Mixed
DI
● Simple & Compound Interest Notes
● Mixture & Alligation Notes
● Partnership Notes
● Pipes & Cistern Notes
● Notes of Problem on Ages
● Profit, Loss & Discount Notes
● Time & Work Notes
● Probability Notes

Reasoning Ability ● Inequality Notes

● Syllogism Notes (New Pattern & Old)
● Coding-Decoding Notes (New Pattern & Old)
● Puzzle Notes
● Seating Arrangement Notes
● Input-Output Notes
● Data Sufficiency Notes
● Verbal Reasoning notes
● Blood Relation Notes
● Distance & Direction Notes

To practice topic-wise questions of different sections, download gradeup app now!

9. Free Mock Test for SBI Clerk 2019

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1. Direction: In the following number A. 25 B. 30

series only one number is wrong. Find C. 35 D. 40
out the wrong number. E. 45
64,66, 76, 106, 180, 304 8. Direction: What should come in place
A. 76 B. 106 of the question marks (?) in the
C. 180 D. 64 following questions?
E. 526
2. Direction: In the following number A. 64 B. 72
series only one number is wrong. Find C. 80 D. 88
out the wrong number. E. None of these
105, 130, 162, 205, 263, 334 9. Direction: What should come in place
A. 130 B. 162 of the question marks (?) in the
C. 205 D. 263 following questions?
E. 105
3. Direction: In the following number
series only one number is wrong. Find A. 76 B. 79
out the wrong number. C. 82 D. 85
56, 89, 137.5, 212.75, 324.125, E. None of these
491.1875 10. Direction: What should come in place
A. 324.125 B. 491.1875 of the question marks (?) in the
C. 137.5 D. 89 following questions?
E. 212.75
4. Direction: In the following number
A. 20 B. 25
series only one number is wrong. Find
C. 40 D. 50
out the wrong number.
E. 35
8, 13, 37, 170.5, 1013.5, 7628.5
11. The difference between downstream
A. 13 B. 37
speed and upstream speed of boat is 7
C. 171 D. 1013.5
km/hr and boat travels 65 km from P to
E. 7628.5
Q (upstream) in 5 hours. Then find the
5. Direction: In the following number
speed of boat in still water?
series only one number is wrong. Find
A. 15.5 km/hr B. 20 km/hr
out the wrong number.
22, 30, 46, 70, 104, 142 C. 16.5 km/hr D. 14.5 km/hr
A. 30 B. 46 E. None of these
C. 70 D. 104 12. Amit's age is three times the sum of the
E. 142 ages of his two sons. Two years ago, his
6. Direction: What should come in place age was six years less than four times
of the question marks (?) in the the sum of the ages of his sons. What is
following questions? the present age of amit?
A. 30 B. 60
A. 620 B. 640 C. 24 D. 18
C. 660 D. 680 E. None of these
E. 700 13. The ratio, in which tea costing Rs. 192
7. Direction: What should come in place per kg is to be mixed with tea costing
of the question marks (?) in the Rs. 150 per kg so that the mixed tea
following questions? when sold for Rs. 194.40 per kg, gives a
profit of 20%.

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A. 1:2 B. 2:5 18. A 5th school JKV, plies 60% more

C. 3:8 D. 4:9 number of buses than that plies by St.
E. 5:7 Martha. If total number of students
14. Direction: In table given below (boys + girls) travelling in all the school
information is available about number of buses together plies by JKV was 288,
buses in different schools along with than each bus have how many seat ?
number of seats in each bus (equal number of students travelling in
corresponding to each school. Assume in all the buses of JKV)
each bus all seats are occupied by boys A. 38 B. 32
& Girls students only. Information about C. 42 D. 34
number of boys student in each bus also E. 36
is available in last column. Direction (19-23): What approximate
value should come in place of question
mark (?) in the following questions?
19. (√1443) ÷ 19.01 + 328 = ? × 22
A. 10 B. 12
C. 18 D. 15
E. 22
20. Direction: What approximate value
Total number of girls in all the school should come in place of question mark
buses of Vidya Niketan is how much (?) in the following questions?
percentage of total number of students 2301 ÷20.01 × 34.99 + 600.01 = ?
(boys + girls) travelling in all the school A. 4610 B. 4650
buses of Vidya Niketan? C. 4645 D. 4665
A. 40 B. 30 E. 4625
C. 35 D. 45 21. (?)² + 255.93 = 49.932% of 800.112
E. 36
A. 12 B. 8
15. Total number of boys travelling in all the
C. 15 D. 18
school buses of Fabre High is how much
E. 6
percentage less than the girls of
22. 43.258 ×28.997 × 35.052 = ?
travelling in all the school buses of Fabre
A. 43968 B. 45208
High?
C. 40857 D. 46486
A. 25% B. 50 %
C. 60 % D. 40 % E. 44624
E. 30 % 23. 74.91% of ? = (17.932)²
16. What is the difference between total A. 420 B. 425
students (boys + girls) travelling in all C. 408 D. 432
the school buses of St. Martha and that E. 444
of Madden’s? 24. Direction: Each question below is
A. 30 B. 20 followed by two statements I and II. You
C. 24 D. 40 have to determine whether the data
E. 10 given in the statement is sufficient for
17. Find out the respective ratio between answering the question. You should use
total boys travelling in all the school the data and your knowledge of
buses of St. Martha and that travelling Mathematics to choose the best possible
in all the school buses of Fabre High? answer.
A. 3 : 2 B. 5 : 4 24. What is the cost of painting two adjacent
C. 5 : 2 D. 6 : 5 walls of a hall having no door or window
E. 4 : 3 at Rs. 750 per m2?

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I. Length and breadth are in the ratio of
7:3 respectively.
II. Perimeter of the hall is 150 m and
height is one-fifth of the perimeter.
A. If the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I or
in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
D. If the data in both Statements I and
II together are necessary to answer the
question.
E. If the data even in both Statements
I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
25. Direction: Each question below is
followed by two statements I and II. You
have to determine whether the data
given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question. You should use
the data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose the best possible
answer.
The ages of Anand and Sumit are in the
ratio of 6 : 5 respectively. What is the
age of Anand?
I. The ages of Anand and Sudeep are in
the ratio of 10 : 7.
II. After 5 years the ratio of Anand’s and
Sumit’s ages will be 7 : 6.
A. If the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I or
in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
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D. If the data in both Statements I and
II together are necessary to answer the
question.
E. If the data even in both Statements
I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
26. Direction: Each question below is
followed by two statements I and II. You
have to determine whether the data
given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question. You should use
the data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose the best possible
answer.
The cost of three types (A, B and C) of
rice is Rs. 20/kg, Rs. 15/kg and Rs.
18/kg respectively. If all the three types
of rice are mixed, then find the average
cost of the mixed rice per kg.
Statement I: The ratio of the quantity of
type A to type B to type C mixed is 3: 2:
4
Statement II: The quantity of type A rice
mixed is 12 kg.
A. If the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I or
in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
D. If the data in both Statements I and
II together are necessary to answer the
question.
E. If the data even in both Statements I
and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
27. Direction: Each question below is
followed by two statements I and II. You
have to determine whether the data
given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question. You should use
the data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose the best possible
answer.
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Jeff’s average (arithmetic mean) D. The data in both statement I and II

monthly utility bill for the months of together are not sufficient to answer
June, July, and August was $75. During the question.
which month did he receive the highest E. The data in both statement I and II
bill? together are necessary to answer the
(1) The lowest bill was received in July. question.
(2) The total of his bills for July and Directions (29-33): Answer the
August was $160. questions based on the information
given below:
A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient,
The following line graph shows revenue
but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
and expenditure of a company A for 5
to answer the question asked
year (in Lakhs):
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient,
but statement (1) alone is not sufficient
to answer the question asked
C. BOTH statements (1) and (2)
TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the
question asked, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
to answer the question asked
29. What is the average revenue of the
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER company over the years?
are NOT sufficient to answer the A. 1000 lakhs
question asked, and additional data are B. 1010 lakhs
needed C. 1050 lakhs
28. Direction: Each of the questions below D. 2020 lakhs
consist of a question and two statements E. None of these
numbered I and II given below it. You 30. What is the difference between revenue
have to decide whether the data and expenditure of company A over the
provided in the statements are sufficient year?
to answer the question. Read both the A. 350 lakhs B. 250 lakhs
statements and give answer C. 200 lakhs D. 300 lakhs
X, Y are integers then is X an even E. None of these
number? 31. What is the average expenditure of the
I. An even number is obtained when this company A over the years?
number X is divided by 5. A. 940 lakhs B. 900 lakhs
II. The Sum of X and Y is an even C. 1000 lakhs D. 1010 lakhs
E. None of these
number.
32. What is the ratio of sum of expenditure
A. The data in statement I alone are
in the year 2012 and 2013 to that of
sufficient to answer the question, while
revenue in year 2014?
the data in statement II alone are not
A. 21: 25 B. 25: 21
sufficient to answer the question.
C. 30: 37 D. 37: 30
B. The data in statement II alone are
E. None of these
sufficient to answer the question, while
33. In which year was the profit percentage
the data in statement I alone are not
highest?
sufficient to answer the question.
Given that: Profit
C. The data either in statement I alone
or in statement II alone are sufficient to =
answer the question.

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A. 2011 B. 2012 equivalent to (Q)/ ‘going crazy’, the

C. 2013 D. 2014 much-needed dialogue for (R)/ mental
E. 2010 health is finally taking place (S)
34. A photographer allows a discount of A. SPQR B. PRQS
10% on the advertised price of a C. PQSR D. QPSR
camera. The price (in Rs) that must be E. None of the above
marked on the camera, which cost him 38. Direction: In the given question, a
Rs 600, to make a profit of 20% would statement divided into different
be segments is given. The first segment is
A. 800 B. 850 fixed, rearrange the other segments to
C. 900 D. 950 form a coherent statement. If the
E. 1000 sentence is already arranged or the
35. A Thirty men can complete a work in 16 correct sequence doesn't match any of
days. They started work and after 6 the given sequence, mark (E), .i.e.,
‘None of the above’ as your answer.
days, ten more men joined. Find the
Excess fat in our system will
number of days in which the remaining
ultimately/ blocking the flow of blood
work will get completed?
(P)/ a life-threatening catastrophe like a
A. 7.5 B. 8
heart attack (Q)/ that may ultimately
C. 9 D. 6
lead to (R)/ land up in arteries, end up
E. 7 (S)
36. Direction: In the given question, a A. QPRS B. PRSQ
statement divided into different C. SPRQ D. SQPR
segments is given. The first segment is E. None of the above
fixed. Rearrange the other segments to 39. Direction: In the given question, a
form a coherent sentence. If the statement divided into different
sentence is already arranged or the segments is given. The first segment is
correct sequence doesn't match any of fixed, rearrange the other segments to
the given sequence, mark (E), .i.e., form a coherent statement. If the
‘None of the above’ as your answer. sentence is already arranged or the
Women, who are typically good/ can correct sequence doesn't match any of
aid in the quest to (P)/ communicators the given sequence, mark (E), .i.e.,
and capable of empathy, (Q)/ at the core ‘None of the above’ as your answer.
of a business’s goals and strategies (R)/ The engagement of the start-up
create a CSR vision that is (S) community/ substantially in terms of
A. SPQR B. RPQS government-sponsored meetings and
C. PQSR D. QPSR (P)/ with the government has gone up
E. None of the above (Q)/ brainstorm various issues of
37. Direction: In the given question, a relevance (R)/ conferences held to (S)
statement divided into different A. QPSR B. PQSR
segments is given. The first segment is C. PRSQ D. QPRS
fixed, rearrange the other segments to E. None of the above
form a coherent statement. If the 40. Direction: In the given question, a
sentence is already arranged or the statement divided into different
correct sequence doesn't match any of segments is given. The first segment is
the given sequence, mark (E), .i.e., fixed, rearrange the other segments to
‘None of the above’ as your answer. form a coherent statement. If the
While there used to be a time when/ sentence is already arranged or the
battling depression or visiting correct sequence doesn't match any of
psychiatrists was (P)/ considered being the given sequence, mark (E), .i.e.,
‘None of the above’ as your answer.

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A national security strategy would with another highlighted to make the

also/ enable a thorough and careful sentence correct. Find the words that
evaluation (P)/ to the government in need to be exchanged.
responding (Q)/ to such a terrorist The efface (A) of time has
attack (R)/ of military options that may done nothing (B) to passage (C) the
be available. (S) people’s memories (D) of the tornado
A. QPSR B. PSQR that destroyed (E) their small town.
C. PQSR D. QPRS A. A–E & B–C
E. None of the above B. A–B & D–E
41. Direction: In the given question, five C. No exchange required
words are printed in bold and are D. A–C
numbered A, B, C, D and E. The E. C–D
positions of some highlighted words may 44. Direction: In the given question, five
be incorrect and need to be exchanged words are printed in bold and are
with another highlighted to make the numbered A, B, C, D and E. The
sentence correct. Find the words that positions of some highlighted words may
need to be exchanged. be incorrect and need to be exchanged
Many of the city’s residents (A) with another highlighted to make the
feel contempt (B) for law sentence correct. Find the words that
enforcement (C) because of the need to be exchanged.
increasing accusations (D) of officer Even though (A) the
misconduct. (E) drug company (B) is known for
A. A-C B. C-D & B-C its mendacity (C) when life-
C. C-E D. A-B & C-E saving (D) new drugs, it has in fact
E. No exchange required created several promoting(E)
42. Direction: In the given question, five products.
words are printed in bold and are A. No exchange required
numbered A, B, C, D and E. The B. D–E C. A–C
positions of some highlighted words may D. C–D & B–C E. A–B & D–E
be incorrect and need to be exchanged 45. Direction: In the given question, five
with another highlighted to make the words are printed in bold and are
sentence correct. Find the words that numbered A, B, C, D and E. The
need to be exchanged. positions of some highlighted words may
The medical profession's impaled (A) be incorrect and need to be exchanged
for scientific advancement had with another highlighted to make the
eagerness (B) it on the horns of a sentence correct. Find the words that
dilemma (C), forcing an unnatural (D) need to be exchanged.
choice between (E) science and While Ella is an extrovert (A) who
morality. loves to socialize (B), her twin Elle is
A. A-B an introvert who prefers (C)
B. C–D the isolation (D) of her bedroom. (E)
C. A-B & D–E A. B-D
D. No exchange required B. C–D
E. A–E & B–C C. A-B & D–E
43. Direction: In the given question, five D. No exchange required
words are printed in bold and are E. A–E & B–C
numbered A, B, C, D and E. The 46. Direction: Read the sentence to find
positions of some highlighted words may out whether there is any error in it. The
be incorrect and need to be exchanged error, if any, will be in one part of the

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www.gradeup.co
sentence. The number corresponding to
that part will be your answer. If the
given sentence is correct as it is, mark
the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
While the policy no doubt is (1) historic,
many of its elements have (2) been
recommended by (3) various
committees for decades. (4)
A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
E. No error
47. Direction: Read the sentence to find
out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number corresponding to
that part will be your answer. If the
given sentence is correct as it is, mark
the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
It is likely (1) that they would go (2) for
hiding for a few weeks, (3)
and resurface when the publicity has
died down. (4)
A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
E. No error
48. Direction: Read the sentence to find
out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number corresponding to
that part will be your answer. If the
given sentence is correct as it is, mark
the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
As we grow elder, it is important that
(1)/ we feel the need to expose
ourselves to (2)/ the outside world and
staying out (3)/ gives us exactly that
opportunity. (4)
A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
E. No error
49. Direction: Read the sentence to find
out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number corresponding to
that part will be your answer. If the
given sentence is correct as it is, mark
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the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
To have seen the depth of disagreement
about justification, (1)/ consider the
variety of reasons (2)/ advanced for one
of the most widely accepted (3)/ moral
standards. (4)
A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
E. No error
50. Direction: Read the sentence to find
out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. The number corresponding to
that part will be your answer. If the
given sentence is correct as it is, mark
the answer as No error. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
A menstruating Nepali woman, along
(1)/ with her two children have died of
suspected (2)/ smoke inhalation, while
they were shut in small window-less (3)/
huts, with no food, away from their
homes in Kathmandu. (4)
A. (1) B. (2)
C. (3) D. (4)
E. No error
51. Direction: A sentence with one blank is
given, indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the word that best
fits the blank appropriately.
Freedom House, a global watchdog for
freedom and democracy, points out in its
latest report _______ democracy
worldwide is facing a crisis.
A. That B. Than
C. Though D. Till
E. which
52. Direction: A sentence with one blank is
given, indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the word that best
fits the blank appropriately.
It is becoming hard to tolerate the
_______ borne from the garbage near
the lake.
A. Incense B. Effluvium
C. Redolence D. Aura
E. None of these
www.gradeup.co
53. Direction: A statement with a single
blank is given. Choose the most effective
word from the given options to complete
the sentence meaningfully.
In terms of experience, Maya is junior
_________ Neha.
A. To B. Than
C. Of D. From
E. Instead
54. Direction: A statement with a single
blank is given. Choose the most effective
word from the given options to complete
the sentence meaningfully.
I don't think Ann will get the job. She
hasn't got enough _________.
A. Age B. Height
C. Opportunity D. Experience
E. None of these
55. Direction: A statement with a single
blank is given. Choose the most effective
word from the given options to complete
the sentence meaningfully.
John’s parents tried living in the
________, but they could not adapt to
the cold.
A. Coast B. North
C. Circumstances D. Debt
E. None of these
56. Direction: In the given question, a part
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below
the sentence alternatives to the bold
part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D)
which may help improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case
the given sentence is correct, your
answer is (E), i.e., ‘No correction
required’.
He was brought dead despite rushing
him to the hospital as quickly the
driver could drive.
A. To the hospital as quick
B. To the hospital as quickly as
C. At the hospital as quickly
D. At the hospital as quickly as
E. No correction required
57. Direction: In the given question, a part
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below
the sentence alternatives to the bold
part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D)
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which may help improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case
the given sentence is correct, your
answer is (E), i.e., ‘No correction
required’.
In case you didn’t bothered
about reading the documents, let me
summarize them in bullet points.
A. Didn’t bother about
B. Do bothering about
C. Do bothered about
D. Didn’t bothered about
E. No correction required
58. Direction: In the given question, a part
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below
the sentence alternatives to the bold
part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D)
which may help improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case
the given sentence is correct, your
answer is (E), i.e., ‘No correction
required’.
The thief ran fast and he escaped the
radar of the police.
A. Ran fast and he escape
B. Run fast and escaped
C. Run faster and he escaped
D. Ran fast and escaped
E. No correction required
59. Direction: In the given question, a part
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below
the sentence alternatives to the bold
part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D)
which may help improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case
the given sentence is correct, your
answer is (E), i.e., ‘No correction
required’.
The employee was not sure if her offer
of negotiating the salary would be
excepted or declined.
A. Will be expected
B. Would have been expected
C. Would be accepted
D. Would have been accepted
E. No correction required
www.gradeup.co
60. Direction: In the given question, a part
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below
the sentence alternatives to the bold
part are given at (A), (B), (C) and (D)
which may help improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case
the given sentence is correct, your
answer is (E), i.e., ‘No correction
required’.
To keep up their good name in the
industry, the burger chain hired
marketing experts to generate new
ideas.
A. Their good name around
B. Their good names in
C. Its good name in
D. It’s good name in
E. No correction required
Direction (61-65): Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
India continues to rank third lowest in
the proportion of business leadership
roles held by women for the third year
consecutively, according to a global
survey by Grant Thornton – Women in
business: New perspectives on risk and
reward. Only 17 percent of senior roles
are held by women in India. The survey
of 5,500 businesses in 36 economies
further adds that 41 percent of the
Indian businesses surveyed have no
women in leadership roles, 7 points
higher than the last year.
Grant Thornton’s report highlights that
the increase in businesses without
gender diversity in senior management
comes at a time when companies face
increasing levels of uncertainty. It
explores the role of gender when it
comes to spotting and managing risks,
by either seizing the opportunity
or management of the threat that
risk can bring.
The research shows that men and
women see risks and opportunities
through a different lens which provides
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a diversity of thinking when combined.
The data reveals that women overall see
lower levels of risk when considering
aspects of organisational and
commercial life such as political or
economic change, as well as lower levels
of opportunity. Women are also less
inclined than men, according to the
survey, to act in the face of an
unforeseen risk that threatens their
organisation’s commercial performance.
Francesca Lagerberg said: “Our research
challenges the presumption that women
are risk averse and will, therefore, see
high levels of risk in the business world.
It suggests that women will not rush to
label a situation as a risk and mitigate it.
Instead, they will consider the context
and nuance fully, and respond in ways
that recognise the wider environment
and the impact their decision will have
on people as well as on the bottom line”.
Source: https://www.grantthornton.in
61. Which of the following word is similar in
meaning to ‘uncertainty’ as used in the
passage?
A. Postulation B. Audacity
C. Speculation D. Precariousness
E. Temerity
62. The phrase ‘management of the threat’
is incorrectly used in the passage. Which
of the following is the correct
replacement of the phrase?
A. Managing the threat
B. Managing of the threat
C. Have managing the threat
D. Had managing the threat
E. Have been managing the threat
63. Which of the following statement(s) is
FALSE with reference to the passage?
I. Women have different perception of
seeing risks as compared to men.
II. Diversity of thinking at the senior
level gives management teams a wider
peripheral vision of what constitutes a
risk and provides a more balanced
approach for reacting to it, either as an
opportunity or a threat.
www.gradeup.co

III. Women need to be more vocal In a certain code language,

about their ambitions and raise their ‘new venture with experts’ is written as
hands up for the right roles and ‘rb st ap di’.
projects if they aspire to assume senior ‘experts bring new information’ is
management positions. written as ‘di mu st co’.
‘venture for exploring purpose’ is written
A. Both I and II B. Only II
as ‘hz jk vg ap’.
C. Only III D. Both II and III ‘purpose bring with details’ is written as
E. All I, II, III ‘fe vg co rb’.
64. Which of the following can be inferred 66. Which of the following is the code for
from the following sentence of the ‘bring data’?
passage? A. di vg B. co rb
‘Women are also less inclined than men, C. rb di D. vg xl
according to the survey, to act in the E. xl co
face of an unforeseen risk that threatens 67. What does ‘jk’ stands for?
their organisation’s commercial A. for
performance’? B. exploring
A. Women don’t want to take an action C. purpose
in the case of emergency and don’t D. Either for or exploring
E. details
care about their company’s commercial
68. If ‘with new country’ is written as ‘pq rb
performance. di’, then which of the following is the
B. Unlike men, women are less willing code for ‘country purpose experts’?
to defend their organisation in case of A. vg hz pq B. pq fe st
an unexpected threat affecting the C. st pq vg D. hz ap st
commercial performance of the E. pq st ap
company. 69. What is the code for ‘venture’?
C. Men and women are equally focused A. ap B. rb
towards company’s commercial C. mu D. vg
performance. E. Can’t be determined
D. Women are more proactive in taking 70. What is the code for ‘information
decisions as compared to men. details’?
E. None of these A. mu ap B. fe vg
C. rb fe D. co mu
65. Which of the following can be the
E. mu fe
probable course of action to bring Direction (71-75): Study the following
gender diversity in senior management? information carefully and answer the
I. The companies should opt for effective given questions.
risk management to make the industry Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are eight family
conducive for women. members sitting around a circle facing
II. Women should be sent abroad for the centre but not necessarily in the
higher education. same order. There are five females and
III. If they wish to prosper in senior three males in the family. U sits second
management positions, women should to the right of his sister and on the
properly assess the projects and the immediate left of his wife. S sits third to
roles they are offered. the right of U. V sits second to the right
A. Both I and II B. Only III of her husband X, who is not an
immediate neighbour of his sister T. R
C. All I, II and III D. Both I and III
sits second to the right of Q and has two
E. Only I children. W is not an immediate
Direction (66-70): Study the following neighbour of U and he is son of X. X sits
information carefully and answer the second to the right of U, who is brother
given questions. of T.

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71. How many sons does U have? Direction (78-82): Study the following
A. One information carefully and answer the
B. Two questions given below.
C. None Seven Indian sports persons T, U, V, W,
D. Can’t be determined X, Y and Z is going to participate in
E. None of these Summer Olympic 2020. They are sitting
72. Who among the following sits second to in an aeroplane to go to Japan in a row
the right of R? and facing north. All of them belong to
A. X B. S different sports viz – Cricket,
C. W D. T Badminton, Chess, Shooter, Tennis,
E. None of these Hockey, Boxer, but not necessarily in
73. How is T related to S? the same order. U sits fourth to the left
A. Aunt B. Sister of the person who belongs to Hockey.
C. Mother D. Father Only one person sits between U and Z.
E. None of these Z belongs to Chess. Either U or the one
74. Which of the following groups represents who belongs to Hockey sits at the
the group of females? extreme ends of the row. The person
A. R, T, U B. Q, W, S who belongs to Cricket sits third to the
C. Q, S, R D. V, T, W right of W, who is not an immediate
E. None of these neighbour of Z. Only one person sits
75. Which of the following statements is
between X and the one who belongs to
true?
Badminton. T and V are immediate
A. Q is son of U
neighbours. T does not belong to
B. T is brother-in-law of R
Hockey. The one who belongs to Tennis
C. V is sister of T
sits third to the right of the one who
D. R is mother of Q and S
belongs to Boxer.
E. None of these
78. Who among the following belongs to
Direction (76-77): Study the
Shooter?
information given below and answer the
A. Y B. W
questions based on it.
A person is standing at point P, he starts C. X D. T
walking towards his south and walks for E. None of these
5m and reached at point Q then he takes 79. Who among the following sits at the
a right turn and walks for 6m then he extreme right end of the row?
takes a right turn and walks for 4m and A. V B. T
then he takes a left turn and walks for C. Y D. U
6m and reached at point R. Point S is 8m E. None of these
to the south of point R. 80. Which of the following sports does T
76. In which of the following direction is belong?
point S with respect to point P? A. Hockey
A. North B. North-west B. Cricket
C. South D. South-east C. Tennis
E. South-west D. Can’t be determined
77. If point T is 12m to the west of point Q E. None of these
then how far is point T with respect to 81. Which of the following combination is
point R? true?
A. 5m B. 4m A. V – Chess B. X – Cricket
C. 6m D. 8m C. Y – Shooter D. All are true
E. 9m E. None is true

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82. How many persons are there between Z clothes namely Shirt, Trouser, Jeans,
and W? Jacket, Pant, Sweater and Shoes but not
A. None B. One necessarily in the same order. C has a
C. Two D. Three seminar in a month which has less than
E. None of these 31 days. Only two people have a
Direction (83-85): The following seminar between C and D. The one who
questions are based on the three-digit likes Shirt has a seminar immediately
numbers given below: before D. Only one person has a seminar
before the one who likes Jeans. Only
83. If the difference of the first and last three people have a seminar between B
digits of a number is even then change and the one who likes Pant. E likes
the middle digit of that number to 5 and neither Pant nor Jeans. A has a seminar
if the difference of the first digit and last immediately before E. G likes Shoes and
digit of a number is odd then has a seminar not in the month of
interchange the last and first digit then march. The one who likes Trouser has a
which of the following numbers thus seminar in the month, which has less
formed will be highest? than 31 days. The one who has a
A. 827 B. 784 seminar in March does not like Jacket.
C. 581 D. 861 86. Which of the following represents the
E. 425 month in which D has a seminar?
84. What would be the second highest A. January
number obtained after subtracting 2 B. Cannot be determined
from every even digit of the given C. October
sequence and subtracting 1 from every D. December
odd digit of the given sequence and then E. June
interchanging the second digit and third 87. Which of the following represents the
digit? people who have a seminar in January
A. 861 B. 827 and June, respectively?
C. 784 D. 752 A. G, D B. F, D
E. 581 C. B, E D. G, C
85. If all the digits within the number are E. F, C
arranged in increasing order from right 88. How many people have a seminar
to left and then the numbers thus between the months in which G and C
formed are arranged in decreasing order have a seminar?
from left to right. Which of the following A. None B. Two
number will be fourth from the right C. Three D. One
end? E. More than three
A. 425 B. 861 89. As per the given arrangement, C is
C. 752 D. 581 related to Shirt and B is related to Jacket
E. 827 following a certain pattern, which of the
Direction (86-90): Study the following following is G related to following the
information carefully and answer the same pattern?
questions that follow. A. Pant B. Sweater
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G have C. Shoes D. Jeans
a seminar on seven different months of E. Trouser
the same year namely January, 90. Which of the following cloth does F like?
February, March, June, August, October A. Jacket B. Jeans
and December but not necessarily in the C. Pant D. Shirt
order. Each of them also likes different E. Trouser

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Direction (91-93): Study the following
information carefully to answer the
given questions.
A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule. The following
is an illustration of input and re-
arrangement.
Input: record 73 rot retirement 52 19
radio 89 61 retrieve 45 rest
Step 1: retirement record 73 rot 52
radio 89 61 retrieve 45 rest 91
Step 2: retrieve retirement record 73 rot
52 radio 89 61 rest 91 54
Step 3: record retrieve retirement 73 rot
radio 89 61 rest 91 54 25
Step 4: radio record retrieve retirement
73 rot 89 rest 91 54 25 16
Step 5: rest radio record retrieve
retirement rot 89 91 54 25 16 37
Step 6: rot rest radio record retrieve
retirement 91 54 25 16 37 98
Step 6 is the final step.
As per the rules followed in the above
steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate steps for the
given input.
Input: seldom 65 stuck 13 salesman 79
21 son sold 42 sticker 51
91. Which element comes exactly between
‘salesman’ and ‘stuck’ in step 3?
A. 79 B. 56
C. 65 D. 42
E. 24
92. If in the last step ‘1’ is added to each of
the odd numbers and ‘1’ is subtracted
from each of the even numbers, then
how many numbers are there which are
a multiple of ‘4’ will be formed?
A. None B. One
C. Two D. Three
E. More than three
93. Which element is 3rd to the left of one
which is 7th from the left end in second
last step?
A. sticker B. salesman
C. 65 D. stuck
E. None of these
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94. Direction: The question below consists
of two statements numbered I and II.
You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give the answer:
94. What is the shortest distance between
the cities ‘U’ and ‘V’?
I. The shortest distance between the two
cities is more than 20 km but less than
23 km.
II. The shortest distance between the
two cities is more than 21 km but less
than 24 km.
A. The data in statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. The data either in statement I alone
or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
D. The data in both statements I and II
together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
E. The data in both statements I and II
together are necessary to answer the
question.
95. Direction: The question below consists
of two statements numbered I and II.
You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give the answer:
Who among G, L, J and B is towards
West of S?
I. L is South of S and East of J.
II. B is South of G who is North West of
S.
A. The data in statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. The data either in statement I alone
www.gradeup.co

or in statement II alone are sufficient to 96. Which game does Chetan play?
answer the question. A. Hockey B. Badminton
D. The data in both statements I and II C. Football D. Tennis
together are not sufficient to answer E. Cannot be determined
the question.
97. What is the profession of Manav?
E. The data in both statements I and II
together are necessary to answer the A. Teacher B. Model
question. C. Lawyer D. Actor
Direction (96-100): Read the given E. Cannot be determined
information carefully and answer the 98. Who is a Teacher?
questions given below: A. Nikhil B. Rajesh
Five people Nikhil, Manav, Chetan, C. Manav D. Tanmay
Tanmay and Rajesh are practising five E. Cannot be determined
different professions i.e. Acting,
99. What is the profession of Chetan?
Modelling, Law, Chartered Accountancy
and Teaching. Each one plays only one A. Model B. Actor
of the five different games Cricket, C. Lawyer D. CA
Football, Hockey, Badminton and E. Cannot be determined
Tennis. Nikhil is a Model and plays 100. Which game can the person learn from
Hockey. The one who plays Badminton the Teacher?
is not an Actor. Chetan and Manav are A. Tennis B. Badminton
not Teachers and Chetan do not play
C. Cricket D. Hockey
Cricket. Manav plays Football. Rajesh is
E. Cannot be determined
a Lawyer and plays Tennis.

***

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