Reg No: 510465 Date: 14 - May - 2019. Student Name: Pilleboina Papaiah SBI CLERKS PRELIMS - Model Test 68 Question Paper

5/14/2019 Sreedhar's CCE | Institute for Competitive and Entrance Exams
Reg No : 510465 Date : 14 - May - 2019.
Student Name : pilleboina Papaiah
SBI CLERKS PRELIMS - Model Test 68 Question Paper
In each of the questions given below a sentence is given which is divided into 5 parts. Out of the given 5
parts, one is grammatically correct and the rest are not. It is then followed by 5 options which gives one of
the option as a correct one. Choose the option which is grammatically correct. If all the parts are
grammatically correct then answer according to the options given below.
1. They are complicited in this(A)/ violent by their deliberate negligence,(B)/ to saying the least, if not(C)/
active support, by not come(D)/ to the rescue of Muslims in a timely manner(E).
A
B
C
D
E
1 Answered Time Spent : 00:03:46 Marks : 1
2. We kept spoken to all the(A)/ responsible officers, they kept(B)/ reassure us that there was nothing(C)/ to
worrying about and that(D)/ they would taken care(E).
B
C
D
E
A
3. They should have been preparing(A)/ to such a calamity(B)/. It looks like callous(C)/ disregarding for the
safety of(D)/ the student minority in that country(E).
A
https://sreedharscce.com/exam-report 1/34
E
B
D
C
3 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:40 Marks : -0.25
4. A company may be opening(A)/ a significant number of new stores(B)/ almost every year, which in
turn(C)/ could cause its total revenue(D)/ to increase year after year(E).
D
B
All are correct
A
C
5. This shows the government’s arrogant(A)/ and unilateral move to bulldozer(B)/ all the financing
business(C)/ without discuss them on(D)/ the floor of the House(E).
E
A
C
D
B
6. Though they might not be debarred(A)/ from conducting arbitration in India arised out(B)/ of international
commercial arbitration, they will be(C)/ governed by the code of conducting applicable(D)/ of the legal
profession in India(E).
B
A
D
E
C
7. The Secretary have every(A)/ intention of staying(B)/ because the critical(C)/ progress making(D)/ of
national security(E).
B
A
C
E
D
8. The two poisonings, just over a(A)/ decade apart, has raised serious(B)/ questions domestically on
Britain’s ability(C)/ to protecting those seeking(D)/ politically asylum on its shores(E).
B
D
A
B
E
8 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:49 Marks : 0
9. On Tuesday, airport operations returning(A)/ to normally, while the wreckage of the(B)/ crashed aircraft
laid near(C)/ the runway, guarding(D)/ by security personnel(E).
D
E
B
A
C
10. A separate security source of(A)/ Gaza said the convoy is(B)/ also fire on(C)/ by unknown gunmen at
the(D)/ time of the exploding(E).
A
B
C
D
E
The following question consists of a passage in which certain phrase/Words are printed in bold. Find out if
there is an error in any of the bold word, find the correct alternatives to replace those words from the
options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the given word is
grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (5), i.e., “No correction required” as your
answer.
During the 1990s, the idea of a Uniform Civil Code was (11) criticised by women’s groups who feared the
unspoken (12) of the Hindu Right in advocating it. An influential (13) of argument questioned public
perceptions and assumptions about personal law, namely: Hindu personal law has been successfully
reformed; in sharp contrast, Muslim law remains uncodified and imposes the worst (14) on Muslim women;
therefore, Hindu personal law should be made the basis for a UCC. There was much to be questioned in
such assumptions. For instance, it was pointed out that, historically, Muslim personal law was way ahead of
its Hindu counterpart since marriage was understood to be a contract between individuals with built-in
provision for divorce, while Hindu law (15) within notions of (16), the absence of personhood for Hindu
wives, the vagaries of the Hindu Undivided Family, and so on. Much was made of a Census study on
marriage and polygamy (which had been cited in the famous ‘Towards Equality’ report of 1974 on the status
of Indian women) which showed that the incidence of polygamy (usually bigamy) was in fact greater among
Hindus than Muslims. Moreover, such wives had no rights under the reformed Hindu law, unlike the rights
available to Muslim women under polygamy.
Now that we are once again faced with the (17) of a UCC being foisted on us, this represents an
opportunity to take stock from where we are today. We believe that there are three main lessons to be learnt
from our recent past. First, we must stop making (18) comparisons between Muslim and Hindu women.
Having studied the comparative data on polygamy that continue to be cited, we noticed the following. One,
the data come from a special sample survey conducted by the Census of India in 1960 of one lakh women,
which is (19) acknowledged to be a non-representative sample — that is, it may be suggestive, but cannot
stand for entities like India, Hindu women or Muslim women. Two, the survey includes women who were
married between 1940 and 1960 — which means that 15 of these 20 years were prior to the enactment in
1955 of the Hindu Code Bill that (20) polygamy. And three, the overall incidence of polygamy reported for
Hindu and Muslim women is 5.7 percent and 5.6 percent, respectively. In short, these data do not prove that
there was more bigamy among Hindu women than Muslim women even in 1960, let alone in more recent
times.
11. 11
selfsame
extensively
unsightly
veracity
no change required
12. 12
suspicious
versatile
trivial
intentions
no change required
13. 13
strand
infliction
ordeal
customary
no change required
14. 14
plumb
convincing
vulnerabilities
nugatory
no change required
14
Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0
15. 15
fluctuated
languished
oscillated
digress
no change required
16. 16
insinuate
sacrament
imperative
multifaceted
no change required
17. 17
intensity
range
wilderness
spectre
no change required
18. 18
dubious
coliseum
tartness
expanse
no change required
19. 19
platform
explicitly
course
ring
no change required
20. 20
pitted
gridiron
substantiated
outlawed
no change required
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results and preserving the
sites once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem
of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder. I would like to
make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and reduce the
amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental
authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for the
excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the publication of results. At the same time, they
would break the illegal excavator‘s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in
illegal activities. You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover,
ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be available for all to appreciate, not
sold5/14/2019
to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing
Sreedhar's CCEthat has
| Institute for unique
Competitiveartistic merit
and Entrance or scientific value. But, you
Exams
might reply everything that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company.
Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you
are wrong. I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of
one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000 virtually
indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions known as l‘melekh
handles have been found in abundance—more than 4,000 examples so far. The basements of museums
are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not
enough money even to catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as
inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could
be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be
photographed and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer. A purchaser could even
be required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes. It would be
unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market. But the
demand for the clandestine product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot
when another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the
professional archaeologist who excavated it.
21. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose ?
an alternative to museum display of artifacts

a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession
a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value
the governmental regulation of archaeological sites
a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts
22. The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:
A market for such artifacts already exists.

Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
There is likely to be a continuing supply of such artifacts.
Museums are well supplied with examples of such artifacts.
Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those already catalogued in museum collections.
23. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum
basements?
Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts.

Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage.
Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become separated from each other.
Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in temperature and humidity.
Such artifacts often remain uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage.
24. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus to emphasize which of the following points?
Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable, although more rare, than royal seal impressions.
Artifacts that are very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists.
Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are available in large quantities.
Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing large quantities of salable artifacts.
Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread, particularly on the island of Cyprus.
25. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation
is based on which of the following assumptions?
Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.

The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only duplicate artifacts.
Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal
excavators.
26. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal?
Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts.

An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the demand for them will fall.
Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors.
Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of artifacts for resale.
Counterfeiting of artifacts
https://sreedharscce.com/exam-report will become more commonplace. 9/34
27. The author implies that which of the following would occur if duplicate artifacts were sold on the open
market?
I. Illegal excavation would eventually cease completely.
II. Cyprus would become the primary source of marketable duplicate artifacts.
III. Archaeologists would be able to publish the results of their excavations more frequently than they
currently do.
I only
III only
I and II only
II and III only
I, II, and III
28. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘potential’ ?
lacking
squalid
torpid
abominable
mediocre
29. Which among the following is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word ‘paltry' ?
hilarity
alacrity
halt
insignificant
spurring
Not Answered Time Spent : 00:01:55 Marks : 0
29
30. Which among the following is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘expedition’ ?
hindrance
trashy
piddling
contemptible
sordid
30 Not Visited Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0
31. Side of a square is two times the diameter of a circle, if the difference between the area of the square
and that of the circle is 630 cm2, what is the perimeter of the square ? (in cms)
168
108
280
224
112
32. Hari invests Rs.3600 for T years in scheme A offering ‘X’% p.a simple interest. He also invests Rs.4800
for the same period (T years) in scheme B offering ‘X-3’% p.a simple interest. If the interest earned from
scheme A is equal to the interest earned from scheme B. what is the value of ‘X’ ?
9
12
15
11
8
33. 4 men can finish a piece of work in 24 days. 6 women can finish the same piece of work in 20 days. Only
6 men started working and in 2 days completed certain amount of work. After that 10 women joined them. In
how many days the whole work will be completed ?
12
6
8
10
9
34. A, B and C started a business. A invested an amount for 10 months. B invested, for 8 months, an
amount which was Rs.25 more than that invested by A. C invested Rs.250 for 12 months. If at the end of the
year, the total profit received was Rs.3400 and A’s share in the profit was Rs.1000, what was the amount
that A had invested ?
Rs.200
Rs.150
Rs.100
Rs.240
Rs.300
35. The total cost of fencing a circular field(@ Rs. 10 per m) is Rs.330 less than the cost of gravelling(@
Rs.5 per m2) the same circular field. What is the radius of the circular field ?
21 m
14 m
10.5 m
7m
4.9 m
36. Average weight of 12 girls in a group was 40kgs. One of the girls weighing 45kgs was replaced by two
other girls - Tara who weighed 50 kgs and
5/14/2019 MiniCCE
Sreedhar's who weighed
| Institute ‘X’ kgs.
for Competitive andIfEntrance
the average
Exams weight of the new group
thus formed was also 40 kgs, what was Mini’s weight ?
25 kgs
35 kgs
30 kgs
45 kgs
20 kgs
37. A man while running at a speed of 3m/s, crosses a stationary train in 2 minutes. How much time will the
same train take to cross a pole at a speed of 54 km/h ?
28 seconds
18 seconds
30 seconds
24 seconds
20 seconds
38. In a village there are 3500 registered voters. 72% of the registered voters could cast their votes and
none of the votes were invalid. If only two candidates (M and N) were contesting the election and M got 10%
votes more than N. how many votes did N get ?
960
800
900
1120
1200
39. Sam invested a certain sum in scheme A. which offers simple interest @ 8% pa., for 3 years and
another sum in scheme B which offers compound interest @ 10 p.c.p.a. for 2 years. If the respective ratio
https://sreedharscce.com/exam-report 13/34 of
sums invested in schemes A and B is 3 : 4. what is the respective ratio of interest earned by him from
schemes
5/14/2019A and B ? Sreedhar's CCE | Institute for Competitive and Entrance Exams
6:7
1:3
7:9
2:3
4:7
40. The respective ratio of time taken by a boat to travel a certain distance downstream and time taken by it
to travel the same distance upstream is 7 : 9. If the speed of the boat in still water is 24 kmph. what distance
(in km) the boat can travel downstream in 2 hours ?
54
58
56
52
48
Each question below contains a statement followed by Quantity I and Quantity II. Find both to find the
relationship among them. Mark your answer accordingly.
41. If the quantity of milk in mixture is 10 litre then find the quantity of water if
Quantity I: After selling it at CP, milkman saves 25%
Quantity II: If the ratio of Milk and water is 5 : 1
Quantity I > Quantity II

Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity II > Quantity I
Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
42.https://sreedharscce.com/exam-report
Find the original consumption if 14/34
Quantity I: After increasing price by 20% a family now gets 5 kg less on that price.
Quantity
5/14/2019 II: After increasing price by 25%, a CCE
Sreedhar's family increases
| Institute its and
for Competitive expenditure by 10% and gets 6 kg less
Entrance Exams
than original consumption

43. Find the present age of A

Quantity I: Three years before, the ratio of ages of A and B was 5:6. Three years hence this ratio will
become 6 : 7
Quantity II: Eleven years before the ratio of ages of A and B was 1:3 and eleven years hence the ratio will
become 1 : 2

44. Find the sum

Quantity I: If the Compound Interest for 2 years at 20% rate of interest is Rs 1,320.
Quantity II: If the amount on a sum for 2 years in which rate of interest for 3 years makes a sum of 125 to
amount 216 is Rs 2880.


45. Find the distance if
Quantity I: A man covers a distance in 15 hours. He covers first half at 12 kmph and second half at 15
kmph.
Quantity II: Two buses moves towards each other at a speed of 30 kmph and 40 kmph respectively. When
they meet it is found that faster bus covers 30 km more than slower one.

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given question ?
46. 105.75 + 27 x 2 + ? = 180
40.5
15.75
30.25
25.75
20.25
47.
13
8
11
12
17
48.5/14/2019 Sreedhar's CCE | Institute for Competitive and Entrance Exams
134
144
112
122
142
49.
50. (0.343)2 ÷ (0.49)4 x (0.7)? = (0.7)2
1
5
2
4
3
51. (2.7 x 29.4 + 2.7 x 54.6) ÷ (8 - 1 x 12.3 - 8.1 x 8.3) = ?

5
9
7
6
8
51 Marked for Review Time Spent : 00:00:09 Marks : 0
52.
36.25
30.5
40.5
52
60
53. √? + 25% of 160 + 116 = 142
6400
400
1600
2500
3600
54.
81
71
88
69
79
55.
225
289
144
169
121
Study the table and answer the given question :

Number of gold coins sold by 5 stores during 5 months :
Months
March April May June July
Stores
M 114 160 113 87 196

N 89 145 121 183 169
O 168 93 177 123 154
P 88 125 114 145 148

Q 71 65 99 96 188
56. If 60% of total number of gold coins sold by stores M and O in May weigh 5 gms each, what is the total
number of 5 gms gold coins sold by stores M and O together in May ?
174
178
168
172
182
56 Marked for Review Time Spent : 00:00:16 Marks : 0
57. Number of gold coins sold by store Q in June is what percent of the number of gold coins sold by store
O in March ?
58. What is the difference between average number of gold coins sold by store N in April and June together
and average number of gold coins sold by store P in March and May together ?
63
67
61
69
65
59. The respective ratio of total number of gold coins sold by stores N and Q together in July and that by the
same stores together in August is 17 : 14. What is the total number of gold coins sold by stores N and Q
together in August ?
280
308
294
266
322
60. Number of gold coins sold by store M increased by what percent from April to July ?
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series ?
61. 158 80 42 24 16 ?
8
12
11
13
10
62. 18 33 24 39 30 ?
45
62
56
51
49
63. 2 4 10 32 ? 652
224
181
240
154
130
64. 32 16 24 60 ? 945
480
182
164
210
350
65. 20 21 23 31 79 ?
275
284
186
351
463
This question is based on the five three digit numbers given below:
317 935 826 453 542
66. In each number all the digits are arranged in descending order from left to right within the number. In
how many numbers thus formed will the second digit be exactly divisible by 3?
Four
Two
Three
One
None
67. If ‘2’ is subtracted from the first digit of every odd number and ‘4’ is subtracted from to the first digit of
every even number, which of the following will be the product of all the three digits of the lowest number thus
formed ?
30
105
8
48
7
68. The positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged What will be the
difference between the highest and the lowest numbers thus formed ?
174
359
383
468
274
69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the positions of alphabets in the English
alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
PV
LR
DJ
TZ
NS
69
Answered Time Spent : 00:00:35 Marks : -0.25
70. If each vowel in the word PERSONAL is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series and
each consonant is changed to previous letter in English alphabetical series and then all alphabets in the
word thus formed is arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right), which of the following will be third from
the right side of the new arrangement thus formed ?
B
O
F
M
P
This question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the
statements and choose the most appropriate option.
71. In which house does Raghav stay amongst houses named M, N, O, P and Q ?
I. Raghav’s friend correctly remembers that he neither stays in house named Q nor P.
II. Raghav’s cousin correctly remembers that he does not stay in house M and that the name of the house in
which he stays is not a vowel.
The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions.
The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
72. How is ‘rice’ written in a certain code language ( note: all the codes are two letter codes only) ?
I. In the same code language, ‘rice bowl’ is coded as ‘jk lw’ and ‘want bowl’ is coded as ‘1w mi’.
II. In the same code language, ‘rice now’ is coded as ‘sn jk’ and ‘right now’ is coded as ‘sn gh’
73. Among five people namely- V, W, X, Y and Z standing in a straight line facing north, who is standing
second from the left end of the line ?
I. V stands exactly in the centre of the line. V is an immediate neighbour of both X and W.
II. W stands second from the right end of the line. Only one person stands between W and X.
74. How many 100 rupee notes were given to the Taxi driver by the passenger ?
I. The passenger gave the taxi driver less than 7 notes but more than 3 notes and the number of notes that
were given was an exact multiple of three.
II. The passenger gave the taxi driver more than 4 notes but less than 9 notes and the number of notes that
were given was a multiple of two.
75. How far is point M from point D ?

I. Point C is 5 m to the north of point D. Point N is to the east of point D. Point M is 2 m to the south of
https://sreedharscce.com/exam-report point
25/34
N.
II. Point B is to the east of point M. PointSreedhar's
5/14/2019 A is 2 CCE
m to| Institute
the north of point
for Competitive andB. PointExams
Entrance D is to the west of point A.
76. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RESTORE, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the
English alphabetical series ?
Two
More than three
None
Three
One
Study the information carefully and answer the given question.

Eight friends F, G, H, I, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circle with equal distance between each other -
NOT facing the centre (They are all facing opposite of the centre) but not necessarily in the same order.
H is an immediate neighbour of both N and G and F is third to the left of N. M is second to the right of H. I
is third to the right of O
77. Based on the seating arrangement, if M is to H, and following the same logic I is to F. then N is to_
L
G
I
O
H

78. Based on the given arrangement, four of the following five are similar to each other and hence make a
group. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group ?
OI
IG
NM
HL
GF
79. Which of the following is N’s position ?
Exactly between H and M

immediate left of M
other than those given as options
Second to the left of L
immediate right of H
80. Based on the given arrangement, four of the following five are similar to each other and hence make a
ONI
GLI
MIN
HFL
FHG
81. Which of the following is O’s position ?
immediate left of M
immediate right of F
immediate left of L
Other than those given as options
immediate right of I
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question:

$8%YK#9Q&AL5?W4+*H6βU©2€RFΩ37TV£P
82. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the given arrangement and
so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
Q#A&
T3FΩ
F€©2
PV7T
W5AL
83. How many such numbers are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by
another number and also immediately preceded by a symbol ?
None
Two
One
Three
More than three
84. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the given
arrangement ?
$%K %KQ K9L 9&W ?
QA5
A5H
&L?
&5H
&L*
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question:

$ 8 % Y K # 9 Q & A L 5 ? W 4 + * H 6 β U © 2 € R F Ω3 7 T V £ P
85. Which of the following is thirteenth to the right of the twenty-seventh from the right end of the given
arrangement ?
β
*
W
€
U
Read the following information carefully and answer the question:

Point B is 12m to the south of Point A. Point C is 7m to the east of Point B. Point E is 12 m to the east of
Point A Point C is 4m to the south of Point D. Point F is 3m to the east of Point C.
86. Point A is in which direction with respect to Point F ?
North-east
North
North-west
South-east
South-West
87. If a person walks 8m towards south from Point E and then takes a right turn, which of the following
points would he reach first ?
C
A
B
F
D
In this question two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to
take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. Read the given information carefully and mark the appropriate answer.
88. Statements :
All tiles are stools.
All stools are tables.
Conclusion : I. Atleast some tables are tiles.
Conclusion : II. Atleast some tables are stools.
only Conclusion II is true

both Conclusions I and II are true
neither Conclusion I nor II is true
only Conclusion I is true
either Conclusion I or II is true
89. Statements :
Some colours are yellow.
Some yellow are red.
Conclusion : I. Some yellow are colours.
Conclusion : II. All yellow are colours.

90. Statements :
Some bags are bottles.
No bottle is a glass.
Conclusion : I. Some bags are glass
Conclusion : II. Atleast some bags are not glasses.

91. Statements :
Some tablets are injections.
All injections are salt.
Conclusion : I. Some tablets are salt.
Conclusion : II. All tablets are salt.

92. Statements :
All flags are symbols.
No symbol is water.
Conclusion : I. No flag is water.
Conclusion : II. Some flags are water.

Study the following information carefully and answer the given question :
A school decided to organise Seminars on different countries for seven days at a stretch starting from
Sunday and ending on Saturday keeping each day exclusively for one country viz_. Nepal, Sri Lanka,
Pakistan,
5/14/2019 China, Bangladesh. MyanmarSreedhar's
and Bhutan (not for
CCE | Institute necessarily inEntrance
Competitive and the sameExamsorder).
The Seminar on China and Myanmar (may or may not be in the same order) is one after the other and the
same way on Nepal and Bhutan (may or may not be in the same order) is one after the other and there is a
gap of two days between these two sets. Same way, the Seminar on Bangladesh and Pakistan (may or may
not be in the same order) is one after the other. There is only one Seminar between Myanmar and Sri Lanka
and two between Bhutan and Pakistan. The Seminar on Bhutan is before that of Bangladesh.
93. On which of the following days is the Seminar on Sri Lanka scheduled ?
other than those given as options

Sunday
Friday
Monday
Thursday
94. The Seminar on which of the following countries is scheduled on Sunday?
China
Nepal
Myanmar
Sri Lanka
95. Based on the scheduled sequence, if Bhutan is to Sri Lanka and following the same logic. Nepal is to
China, then Bangladesh is to
Pakistan
Sri Lanka
Nepal
Myanmar
Bhutan

96. Based on the scheduled sequence, if Nepal is to Bangladesh and following the same logic. Pakistan is
to Myanmar, then China is to_
Bhutan
Nepal
Pakistan
Sri Lanka
97. Based on the scheduled sequence, four of the following five are similar to each other and hence make a
Bhutan - Bangladesh
Pakistan - Bhutan
Bangladesh - Pakistan
Nepal - Myanmar
Myanmar - China
Study the following information and answer the given question:

M is the mother of G. G is the brother of N. N is the son of L. L is the son of T. T is married to K. K is the
father of D.
98. How is N related to M ?
Daughter
Daughter-in-law
Niece
Son
Son-in-law
99. If R is the daughter of D then how is T related to R?
Father
Mother
Grandfather
Grandmother
Cannot be determined
100. How is D related to N ?
Mother
Uncle
Cannot be determined
Aunt
Father

Reg No: 510465 Date: 14 - May - 2019. Student Name: Pilleboina Papaiah SBI CLERKS PRELIMS - Model Test 68 Question Paper

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5/14/2019 Sreedhar's CCE | Institute for Competitive and Entrance Exams

Reg No : 510465 Date : 14 - May - 2019.

Student Name : pilleboina Papaiah

SBI CLERKS PRELIMS - Model Test 68 Question Paper

1 Answered Time Spent : 00:03:46 Marks : 1

2 Answered Time Spent : 00:01:05 Marks : 1

3 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:40 Marks : -0.25

4 Answered Time Spent : 00:01:16 Marks : -0.25

5 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:18 Marks : -0.25

6 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:53 Marks : -0.25

7 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:34 Marks : -0.25

8 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:49 Marks : 0

10 Answered Time Spent : 00:01:17 Marks : 1

11 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:21 Marks : 0

12 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:01 Marks : 0

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20 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:01 Marks : 0

21. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose ?

an alternative to museum display of artifacts

21 Answered Time Spent : 00:03:49 Marks : 1

A market for such artifacts already exists.

22 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:01:47 Marks : 0

Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts.

23 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:14 Marks : 0

24 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:06 Marks : 0

Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.

25 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0

Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts.

26 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:01 Marks : 0

27 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:03 Marks : 0

28 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:14 Marks : 0

30 Not Visited Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0

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40 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0

Quantity I > Quantity II

41 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:01 Marks : 0

Quantity I > Quantity II

42 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0

43. Find the present age of A

Quantity I > Quantity II

43 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:01 Marks : 0

44. Find the sum

Quantity I > Quantity II

44 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:00 Marks : 0

Quantity I > Quantity II

45 Not Answered Time Spent : 00:00:02 Marks : 0

46. 105.75 + 27 x 2 + ? = 180

46 Answered Time Spent : 00:01:25 Marks : 1

47 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:51 Marks : -0.25

48 Answered Time Spent : 00:00:27 Marks : 1