Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Edited by-
Monir Ahmed
B.Sc in Health Technology (Laboratory Medicine)
1st Batch
Institute of Health Technology
Mohakhali, Dhaka.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -2-
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -3-
To my parents
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -4-
The Editor
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -5-
Contents
General Pathology
***Q- 1. Define cell injury. What are the physical agents causes cell injury? Write the pathogenesis
of ischaemic cell injury.
**Q-2. Define and classify inflammation. Give the difference between acute and chronic
inflammation.
*Q-3. Define & classify hypertrophy and hyperplasia. Write the difference between hypertrophy
and hyperplasia.
*Q- 4. Define & classify cell injury and adaptation. Describe the cellular adaptation.
Q- 5. Define & classify wound and wound healing? What are the factors influencing wound
healing? Give the complication of wound healing.
***Q-6. Define and classify tumour (neoplasm). Give the difference between benign and malignant
tumour.
**Q-7. Define and classify shock. Give the pathogenesis/mechanism of hypovolaemic and septic
shock.
***Q- 8. Define & classify infarction and oedema. Give the difference between thrombus and
embolus.
Q- 9. Define & classify thrombus and embolus? Write down the complication of thrombus and
embolus.
Q- 10. Define & classify Gangrene? Give the laboratory diagnosis of a tumour (or Cancer).
*Q-11. Define & classify necrosis. Write down the difference between necrosis & apoptosis.
Q- 12. What is ischaemia and what are its causes? Name the pathogenesis of thrombosis.
Q- 13. What are the causes of cell injury? State the cellular and tissue responses to different types
of cell injury.
Q- 14. Define exudate & transudate. Write the difference between exudate and transudate.
Q- 15. Write short notes on- *** i. Tumour markers.
ii. Apoptosis.
*** iii. Repair.
iv. Paraneoplastic syndrome.
v. Ulcer
Clinical Pathology
***Q- 1. Write down the routine examination of urine. Enumerate the clinical importance of urine
examination (routine examination of urine).
**Q- 2. What are the liver function tests? Give the indication of liver function tests.
***Q-3. Name the common ova found in stool with figure. Write down the indication of stool
culture.
**Q-4. Write down the indication, contraindication and complication of lumber puncture.
***Q-5. What are the indications of semen analysis? Write normal findings of semen analysis (or,
Write routine examination of semen with normal findings).
***Q-6. Define proteinuria and write down their causes. How can you estimate/detect protein in
urine?
*Q-7. How do you collect urine for laboratory tests? Name the reducing substance present in urine.
**Q-8. Name the common cysts & trophozoites found in stool with figures. Write the indication of
routine examination of stool. Write down the procedure of collection of stool for examination in the
laboratory?
***Q-9. Define glycosuria and write down their causes. How can you detect glucose in urine?
*Q-10. Mention the difference between bacterial, viral and tubercular meningitis.
Q- 11. Write the routine examination of CSF with the normal findings.
Q- 12. What is ketonuria and what are the causes? How can you detect ketone bodies in urine?
Q- 13. How bile salts, bile pigments and urobilinogen can be detected in urine? What is their
clinical significance?
Q- 14. Write down the principle and procedure of Gram’s stain and Ziehl- Neelsen’s stain.
Q- 15. Write short notes on: *** i. OBT.
ii. OGTT.
*** iii. Bence Jones protein.
iv. CPK
v. Body fluids
vi. Haematuria and Haemoglobinuria.
Information is not knowledge. It's not that I'm so smart, it's just that I
stay with problems longer.- Albert Einstein
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -6-
Haematology
***Q- 1. Define erythropoiesis. What are the sites and stages of erythropoiesis? Name the factors
affecting erythropoiesis.
**Q- 2. Define and classify anticoagulants with examples. What are the anticoagulants commonly
used in the laboratory? Why EDTA is best?
*Q-3. What are the criteria of a good film? Write down the steps of preparation of a blood film.
***Q-4. Define MCH, MCV and MCHC with their normal values.
**Q-5. What are the causes of iron deficiency anaemia? Give the laboratory diagnosis of iron
deficiency anaemia.
***Q-6. Define and classify leukaemia. Give the laboratory diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia
(AML) and chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) or, Give the bone marrow findings of AML and
CML.
**Q-7. Give the uses of Improve Neubauer Counting Chamber, Wintrobe tube, RBC & WBC
pipette.
***Q-8. Give the total count, differential count and absolute count of WBC. Draw and label WBCs.
Q- 9. Define PCV. Mention the causes of high and low PCV.
Q- 10. Name the methods of Haemoglobin estimation. Give the advantages and disadvantages of
Acid Hematin Method.
Q- 11. What is leukaemoid reaction? Give the differences between leukaemia and leukaemoid
reaction.
**Q-12. Define and classify anaemia. What are the causes of anaemia?
*Q-13. What is ESR? Give the normal values of ESR. Mention the causes of high and low ESR.
Describe the procedure of estimation of ESR by Westergren method.
**Q- 14. What is thrombocytopenia? What are the causes of thrombocytopenia?
Q- 15. Short notes on: i. APTT.
*ii. Polycythaemia.
*iii. Pancytopenia.
*** iv. MCV.
v. Myeloblast and lymphoblast
vi. Bone marrow aspiration
vii. Laboratory diagnosis of ITP
Blood Transfusion
***Q-1. Define blood group. Name the important blood groups. Why ABO blood group is called
classical blood group?
***Q-2. What are the methods of blood grouping? Describe the slide method of blood grouping.
**Q-3. Give the indication and contraindication of blood transfusion. What do you mean by Safe
Blood Transfusion?
Q- 4. Give the pathogenesis, treatment and prevention of Erthroblastosis foetalis.
***Q-5. Give the hazards/complications of blood transfusion.
***Q-6. Name the different plasma products. Give the indication, contraindication and risk of fresh
frozen plasma.
***Q-7. What are the types of platelet concentrate? Give the indication and contraindication of
platelet transfusion.
Q- 8. What is blood bank? What are the importance of a blood bank?
*Q-9. Name the blood constituents available for clinical use. Give the immune complication of
blood transfusion.
**Q-10. Give the indication and contraindication of human albumin.
*Q-11. Give the indication and contraindication of hydroxyethyl starch.
Q- 12. Name the methods of detecting antibody in the laboratory. Describe anyone method.
Q- 13. Give the composition, indication and contraindication of SAG mannitol blood.
Q- 14. How do you screen a blood donor? What are the tests done for screening of blood for
transfusion?
Q- 15. Write short notes on: ***i. Auto-transfusion.
***ii. HLA system.
***iii. Cross matching
*iv. Cryoprecipitate.
v. Natural and immune antibodies.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -7-
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -8-
General Pathology
***Q- 1. Define cell injury. What are the physical agents causes cell injury? Write the
pathogenesis of ischaemic cell injury.
Answer. Definition of Cell injury: It may be defined as, “any adverse influence which
derange the cell’s ability to maintain a steady normal or adaptive homeostasis.” So, cell
injury results when the cell is exposed to an injurious agent or stress. It can also be defined
as, “the sequence of events that follows if the limits of adaptive response to a stimulus are
exceeded or if the cells are exposed to injurious agents or stress, deprived of essential
nutrients, or become compromised by mutations that affect the essential cellular
constituents.”
Physical agents that causes cell injury:
a. Mechanical trauma- May cause a subtle but significant dislocation or intracellular
organization of organelles or may destroy the cell by completely disrupting it.
b. Low temperature-
i. Induces vasoconstriction and impairs blood supply to cells →Hypoxia → cell
injury.
ii. If hypothermia persists for prolonged period → injury to vasomotor control with
marked vasodilatation, stagnation of blood flow and intravascular coagulation and when
temperature become significantly low, intercellular water crystallizes.
c. High temperature- causes hypermetabolism that results in:
i. exceeding the capacity of available blood supply
ii. accumulation of acid metabolites → ↓PH to critical level.
d. Sudden changes in atmospheric pressure- Deep sea divers or tunnel diggers. When
working under ↑ atmospheric pressure have higher level of atmospheric gases
dissolved in their blood. If such individual return to normal pressure too quickly,
the dissolved gases come out of solution rapidly and form air bubbles within the
circulation. O2 is easily re-dissolved but N2 is less soluble and may persist as small
bubbles that become trapped in the microcirculation, blocking the blood flow and
ultimately causing injury to cells. This condition is called caisson disease.
e. Electric shock- i. Produce heat → burn
ii. It may interfere in neural conduction pathways and often causes
death from cardiac arrhythmia.
f. Radiation- It causes cell injury by:
i. Direct ionization of chemical compounds contained within the cell.
ii. Ionization of cellular water producing free hot radicals that secondarily interact
with intercellular constituents.
iii. Induces varying mutations that may injure and even kill cells.
Pathogenesis/Mechanism of ischaemic or hypoxic cell injury:
Hypoxia
Reversible cell injury Irreversible cell injury (Cell death)
Membrane injury → i. Loss of phospholipids
Ischaemia ii. Reactive oxygen species (free radical)
iii. Cytoskeletal abnormality
Mitochondria iv. Lipid breakdown products
↓
↓ Oxidative phosphorylation Ca2+ influx → Ca 2+ in mitochondria
Cell swelling Leakage of enzymes (CK, LHD)
↓ATP ↓ Na Influx of Ca2+ Loss of microvilli
pump ↑Na+, H2O ER swelling Lysosomal enzyme ↓ Basophilia ( ↓ RNP)
Efflux of K+ Myelin figures release and activation Nuclear changes
Blebs within the cell Protein digestion
↑Glycolysis ↓ Glycogen
↓ PH
Clumping of
nuclear chromatin
ER= Endoplasmic reticulum
Detachment of RNP= Ribonucleoprotein
ribosomes ↓Protein synthesis
↓
Lipid deposition
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II -9-
**Q-2. Define and classify inflammation. Give the difference between acute and chronic
inflammation.
Answer. Definition of inflammation:
a. Inflammation is the reaction of tissues to all forms of injury.
b. Reaction of vascularized tissue to injury is called inflammation.
c. Inflammation is a complex reaction in living vascularized tissue to injurious agents
leading to the exudation and accumulation of protein rich fluid and leukocytes in
extravascular tissue, provided the injury does not destroy the tissue.
*Q-3. Define & classify hypertrophy and hyperplasia. Write the difference between
hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
Answer. Definition of hypertrophy:
a. Increase in the size of the cells leading to increase in the size of the organ is called
hypertrophy.
b. Hypertrophy is the increase in the size of the cells resulting in an increase in the
size of the organ.
c. Hypertrophy is the increase in the size of an organ or tissue due to increase in the
size of its constituent specialized cells.
Definition of hyperplasia:
a. Increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue with increase in volume is
called hyperplasia.
b. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, which then
may increase in volume.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 10 -
Causes of hyperplasia:
a. Induction of different genes encoding GF (growth factor), GFR (Growth
factor receptor).
b. Increased local production of GF, GFR.
c. Results in cellular proliferation. Hormone may act as growth factor.
*Q- 4. Define & classify cell injury and adaptation. Describe the cellular adaptation.
Answer. Definition of Cell injury: It may be defined as, “any adverse influence which
derange the cell’s ability to maintain a steady normal or adaptive homeostasis.” So, cell
injury results when the cell is exposed to an injurious agent or stress. It can also be defined
as, “ the sequence of events that follows if the limits of adaptive response to a stimulus are
exceeded, or if the cells are exposed to injurious agents or stress, deprived of essential
nutrients, or become compromised by mutations that affect the essential cellular
constituents.”
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 11 -
responses to more severe physiologic stresses and some pathologic stimuli, during which
new but altered states are achieved, allowing the cell to survive and continue to function.”
IV. Metaplasia- It is a reversible change in which one adult cell type (epithelial or
mesenchymal) is replaced by another adult cell type. It can also be defined as, “an
adaptive transformation of one adult cell type by another cell type of similar tissue.
Types of Metaplasia:
1. Epithelial metaplasia-
⇒ Squamous metaplasia, e.g. benign enlargement of prostate.
⇒ Columnar metaplasia. e.g. intestinal variant of gastric
carcinoma.
2. Connective tissue metaplasia, e.g. myositis ossificans.
3. Tumour metaplasia, e.g. carcinoma of the gall bladder.
Q- 5. Define & classify wound and wound healing? What are the factors influencing
wound healing? Give the complication of wound healing.
Answer. Wound: A wound is a break in the continuity of skin of the body. It can also be
defined as, “a breach in the superficial tissue continuum”.
Types of wound-
a. Incised wounds: These are caused by sharp instruments like knife, razor etc.
The blood vessels are clear cut and so these wounds bleed very much.
b. Contused wound: These are caused by blows by blunt instruments or by
crushing. The tissues are bruised.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 12 -
3. Systemic diseases
a. Diabetes
b. Malignant disease Delay wound healing.
c. Uraemia
d. Severe anaemia
e. Jaundice
Complication of wound healing:
1. Infection- delay wound healing
2. Wound bursting or rupture.
3. Implantation cyst- epithelial cells which flow into the healing wound may sometime
persists and proliferate to form cyst.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 13 -
***Q-6. Define and classify tumour (neoplasm). Give the difference between benign and
malignant tumour.
Answer. Definition of neoplasm: Neoplasm means new growth. Tumour is equated with
neoplasm. Willis definition of neoplasm states that, “a neoplasm (tumour) is an abnormal
mass of tissue, the growth of which exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of normal
tissues and persists in the same excessive manner after cessation of the stimuli which
evoked the change.”
Classification of tumour: I. Classification on behaviour- Tumours are of
following two type: 1. Benign tumours- these are mostly harmless, e.g. lipoma, osteoma.
2. Malignant tumours- Malignant tumour may be of carcinoma
(tumour of epithelial tissues) or sarcoma (tumours of connective tissue/ mesenchymal
origin). e.g. Fibrosarcoma, liposarcoma, osteogenic sarcoma. Cancer is the term for all
malignant tumours.
II. Classification on tissue of origin-
1. Epithelial tumours: tumours of epithelial cells.
2. Mesenchymal tumours: tumours of mesenchymal cells.
3. Mixed tumours: more than one neoplastic cell type.
4. Tumours of totipotent cells: Teratomas.
**Q-7. Define and classify shock. Give the pathogenesis/mechanism of hypovolaemic and
septic shock.
Answer. Shock:
a. Shock may be defined as, “widespread hypoperfusion of tissue due to
reduction in the blood volume or cardiac output or redistribution of blood
resulting in an inadequate effective circulatory volume.”
b. Shock is a disorder that results from systemic hypoperfusion due to
reduction either in cardiac output or in the effective circulatory blood
volume.
Classification of shock:
a. Cardiogenic shock, e.g. Myocardial infarction, Ventricular rupture, Arrhythmia,
Cardiac temponade, Pulmonary embolism.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 14 -
A. Reversible shock-
Haemorrhage, severe burn, severe vomiting & diarrhoea.
↓
Acute hypovolaemic shock
↓
Decreased central venous pressure.
↓
Decreased cardiac filling (end diastolic volume)
↓
Decreased cardiac output
↓
Decreased arterial pressure
↓
Reversible shock
↓
Compensatory autoregulation
↓
Increased arterial pressure.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 15 -
B. Irreversible shock-
Haemorrhage, severe burn, severe vomiting & diarrhoea.
↓
Severe hypovolaemia
↓ If not corrected
Compensatory mechanism failure
↓
Hypoperfusion of tissues
↓
Acute hypoxia
↓
i. Injury to endothelium, that leads to activation of coagulation cascade and ultimately
DIC (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)
ii. Anaerobic glycolysis, leads to decreased PH which leads to vasodilatation and
ultimately fall in blood pressure.
↓
Severe hypoxia
↓
Damage to cells and tissues
↓
Acute renal tubular necrosis
↓
Complete renal shutdown
↓
Death
***Q- 8. Define & classify infarction and oedema. Give the difference between thrombus
and embolus.
Answer. Infarction: Infract is an area of ischaemic necrosis caused by occlusion of either
the arterial supply or the venous drainage in a particular tissue. The process of formation of
an infract is known as infraction.
Classification of infraction:
A. On the basis of colour of infract-
1. Red/ Haemorrhagic infract.
2. White/pale/ anaemic infract.
B. On the basis of bacterial contamination-
1. Bland infract: bacterial infection absent.
2. Septic infract: bacterial infection present.
C. On the basis of duration-
1. Recent infraction
2. Old infraction
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 16 -
Q- 9. Define & classify thrombus and embolus? Write down the complication of thrombus
and embolus.
Answer. Definition of thrombus: 1. It is a solid or semi-solid mass formed within from the
cardiovascular system from the constituents of streaming blood.
2. Thrombus is a solid mass formed within noninterrupted
cardiovascular system from the constituents of the blood particularly platelets during life.
Thrombosis is the formation of solid mass in the circulation from the constituents of
the streaming blood. The mass itself is called a thrombus and consists of aggregated
platelets and fibrin in which red cells and white cells are trapped.
Classification of thrombus:
A. According to site-
1. Arterial thrombosis
2. Venous thrombosis:
a. Phlebothrombosis.
b. Thrombophebitis
c. Other types
3. Thrombosis in the heart:
a. Vegetations
b. Mural thrombosis
c. Laminated thrombus
d. Ball thrombus
B. Based on infection-
1. Bland/ aseptic thrombus, e.g. coronary thrombi
2. Septic/ infected thrombus, e.g. vegetation of infective
endocarditis.
C. Based on composition & colour-
1. Pale thrombus: platelets only (white)
2. Red thrombus: composed mainly by blood clots e.g. occluded
thrombus.
3. Mixed thrombus: composed of platelets, fibrin and clot, e.g.
coralline thrombus.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 18 -
Q- 10. Define & classify Gangrene? Give the laboratory diagnosis of a tumour (or
Cancer).
Answer. Gangrene: It can be defined as, “necrosis of tissue with superadded putrefaction”.
It can also be define as, “macroscopic death of tissue followed by desiccation or
putrefaction.”
Classification of Gangrene: Gangrene are divided into-
1. Dry gangrene: It occurs due to lack of arterial blood supply.
2. Moist gangrene: It develops due to obstruction of both arterial and venous
drainage particularly in moist area.
3. Gas gangrene (Clostridial myonecrosis): It is caused by anaerobic Clostridium
perfringens (Cl. welchii) in most cases, and rarely by Cl. novyi and Cl.
septicum.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 19 -
B. Local causes-
1. Arterial obstruction by thrombosis, embolism, spasm, atheroma etc.
2. Venous obstruction by venous thrombosis, strangulated hernia, volvulus etc.
3. Obstruction of small vessels by vasculitis, arthus reaction, severe cold (spasm)
etc.
Q- 13. What are the causes of cell injury? State the cellular and tissue responses to different
types of cell injury.
Answer. Causes of cell injury:
1. Oxygen-
a. Hypoxia: A cause of hypoxia is inadequate oxygenation of blood in cardiac
failure and respiratory failure.
b. Ischaemia, i.e. inadequate blood supply to an area due to diminished arterial flow
or reduced venous drainage, e.g. in atherosclerosis, thrombosis, embolism. Ischaemia is the
most common cause of hypoxia.
c. Inadequate oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, e.g. anaemia, carbon monoxide
poisoning.
2. Infectious agents: Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi, Protozoa and Helminthes.
3. Immunological reactions: Hypersensitivity reaction causes cell injury.
4. Physical agents: Mechanical trauma, burn, ionizing radiation, cold.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 20 -
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 21 -
4. Viral diseases, e.g. Viral hepatitis, in which apoptotic cell fragments in the liver
are termed Councilman bodies.
5. Injurious agents, which can cause necrosis, produce apoptosis in low doses, e.g.
cytotoxic anticancer drugs, radiation, mild thermal injury and hypoxia.
6. Cell death in tumour.
7. Pathological atrophy after duct obstruction, e.g. Parathyroid gland, pancreas.
8. Pathological atrophy of hormone dependent tissues, e.g. Loss of lymphocytes in
the thymus after glucocorticoid administration.
*** iii. Repair: Repair can be defined as, “the process of replacement of dead or
damaged tissues by new healthy cells (parenchymal or stromal). Repair is the replacement
of injured or dead cells after injury like inflammation, wounds, surgical resection by
proliferation of viable cells. The goal of the repair process is to restore the tissue to its
original state. It signifies restitution of the part to a (more or less) complete replica or
template or image of its former structure.
Repair occurs by two distinct process- regeneration which restores normal tissues
and healing which leads to scar formation and fibrosis. Most commonly repair occurs by a
combination of these two processes.
Repair begins early in inflammation sometimes in 24 hours after injury.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 23 -
Our prime purpose in this life is to help others. And if you can't help them,
at least don't hurt them. - Tenzin Gyatso
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 24 -
Clinical Pathology
***Q- 1. Write down the routine examination of urine. Enumerate the clinical importance
of urine examination (routine examination of urine).
Answer: Routine examination of urine involves: A. Physical examination
B. Chemical examination
C. Microscopic examination.
A. Physical examination-
1. Quantity: For a normal adult the urine output is about 700-2500ml/day depending
largely on the fluid intake.
2. Colour: Normally light straw.
3. Appearance: Normally clear and transparent.
4. Sediment: Absent in normal urine.
5. Specific gravity: Normal urine has a specific gravity in between 1010 to 1020.
B. Chemical examination-
1. Reaction: Normal urine is usually acidic.
2. Protein: Normal urine may contain upto 150mg protein (mostly albumin) in 24
hours which does not give a positive boiling test (which require ≥ 500mg/ml).
3. Reducing substances (e.g. sugar): Normally absent.
4. Ketone bodies: Normally absent.
5. Bilirubin: Normal urine contains no bilirubin.
6. Urobilinogen: A small amount of urobilinogen is excreted in normal urine.
7. Bile salts and bile pigment: Normally absent.
8. Blood: Absent in normal urine.
9. Chyle: Normally it is not present in urine.
C. Microscopic examination-
1. In a centrifuge take a suitable amount of urine (5-10ml).
2. Centrifuge it at 1500-3000 rpm for 5-10 minutes.
3. Decant the supernatant urine from the centrifuge tube.
4. Re-suspend the sediment and place a drop of sediment on a clean glass slide.
5. Place a cover slip over it and examine it under microscope. First observe the
deposits under low power lens and then confirm it under high power lens.
6. The following things are usually observed under the microscope:
a. Cells- A few epithelial cells and a very few leukocytes (pus cells) are
found in normal urine. RBCs are not found in normal urine.
b. Cellular Casts (epithelial cast, RBC cast, WBC cast)- Normally absent.
c. Other casts (hyaline cast, granular cast, waxy cast)- Normally absent.
d. Bacteria and Parasites- Normally absent.
e. Spermatozoa and others- Normally absent.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 25 -
**Q- 2. What are the liver function tests? Give the indication of liver function tests.
Answer. Liver function tests (LFT): The tests which are used to assess the condition or
disease of liver.
A. Pigment metabolism-
1. Blood: a. Serum Bilirubin
b. Vanden Bergh’s reaction/ Vanden Bergh’s test.
c. Icteric index
D. Metabolic activities-
1. Carbohydrate metabolism: a. Glucose tolerance test
2. Protein metabolism: a. Serum total protein
3. Fat & lipid metabolism: a. Serum total cholesterol
b. Stool for faecal fat
c. Serum Triglycerides
d. Cholesterol ester
e. Abnormal lipoproteins
E. Detoxification activity-
1. Blood ammonia level
2. Hippuric acid test
F. Excretion of foreign substance-
1. Bromsulphthalein test/ Bromsulphalein (Sulfobromophthalein) clearance
test
2. Rose Bengal test
G. Serological tests-
1. Mitochondrial antibody
2. Antinuclear and smooth muscle antibody
3. Viral antigens and antibodies:
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Hepatitis B virus
c. Hepatitis C virus
d. Hepatitis D virus/ Delta virus
e. Hepatitis E virus
H. Liver biopsy
I. Miscellaneous -
1. Serum α fetoprotein
2. Serum ferritin level.
3. Total iron binding capacity
4. Serum α1- antitrypsin
***Q-3. Name the common ova found in stool with figure. Write down the indication of
stool culture.
Answer: The common ova found in the stool are as follows-
**Q-4. Write down the indication, contraindication and complication of lumber puncture.
Answer. Indication of lumber puncture/ indication of CSF collection:
A. Diagnostic purposes-
a. Diagnosis of –
a. Meningitis
b. Meningoencephalitis
c. Encephalitis
d. Brain abscess
e. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
f. Leukaemia
g. Multiple myeloma
h. Gullain Barre Syndrome
i. Spinal cord tumours
j. Intracranial haemorrhage due to injury
k. Intracranial occupying lesions.
b. Differential diagnosis of Cerebral infract versus intracerebral haemorrhage
(80% CSF show Xanthomatosis in later cases).
B. Therapeutic purposes-
a. Relief from intracranial pressure
b. Removal of exudate or blood from sub-arachnoid space
c. Introduction of serum, e.g. anit-meningococcus, anti-tetanus.
d. Introduction of drugs, e.g. hypertonic solution of MgSO4, NaCl.
e. Spinal anaesthesia, e.g. Novocain, eucaine etc.
f. Introduction of contrast media or isotopes, e.g. myelography.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 27 -
***Q-5. What are the indications of semen analysis? Write normal findings of semen
analysis (or, Write routine examination of semen with normal findings).
Answer. Indication of semen analysis:
a. To diagnose male sterility.
b. Medicolegal purposes, e.g. suspected rape.
c. To investigate the effectiveness of vasectomy and of recanalizatin operation.
Semen: It is a milky viscid liquid ejaculated by male containing the secretion of
testes as well as male accessory reproductive organs (e.g. prostate, urethra, epididymides
etc).
Composition of semen:
A. Secretion from testes- 05%
a. Spermatozoa
B. Secretion from seminal vesicles- 60%
a. Fructose (1.5-6.5mg/ml)
b. Phosphorycholine
c. Argothioneine
d. Ascorbic acid
e. Flavins
f. Prostaglandins
C. Secretion from prostate- 20%
a. Spermine
b. Citric acid
c. Cholesterol, phospholipids
d. Fibrinolysin, fibrinogenase
e. Zinc
f. Acid phosphatase
D. Others- 15%
a. Secretion from Epididymides
b. Secretion from Vasa deferentia
c. Secretion from Bulbourethral and Urethral glands
***Q-6. Define proteinuria and write down their causes. How can you estimate/detect
protein in urine?
Answer. Proteinuria: The presence of protein in urine which gives a positive boiling test or
stix test is called proteinuria.
Causes of proteinuria:
A. Physiological-
1. Newborn upto ten days
2. Prolonged standing (orthostatic)
3. Heavy Exercise
4. Pregnancy
B. Pathological-
a. Renal diseases (Heavy/massive proteinuria > 3gm/day):
1. Nephrotic syndrome
2. Nephritic syndrome
3. Acute glomerulonephritis
4. Infections, e.g. Pyelonephritis, tuberculosis.
5. Toxaemia of pregnancy
6. Haematuria due to calculi, tumours.
b. Post-renal diseases (Moderate proteinuria > 1gm/day):
1. Severe urinary tract infections, e.g. Prostitis, urethritis.
2. Calculi of ureters and urinary bladder
c. Systemic or Pre-renal diseases (Mild proteinuria ≤ 1gm/day):
1. Febrile illness
2. Congestive heart failure
3. Hypertension
4. Systemic disorders associated with haematuria.
*Q-7. How do you collect urine for laboratory tests? Name the reducing substance present
in urine.
Answer. Collection of urine for laboratory tests:
A. Collection of urine for routine examination-
1. Urine should be collected in a clean, dry container with well fitted tips.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 29 -
2. A clean catch, mid-stream urine void at any time of the day but a morning specimen
is preferable as because the components are present in a concentrated form.
3. Usually 10-20 ml urine is collect, but for complete examination 50-100ml
sample is required.
4. Urine should be examined within 30 minutes of collection, if immediate
examination is not possible preserve the specimen by refrigeration at 2°-4°C
(usually it can be preserved for 2-4 hours).
**Q-8. Name the common cysts & trophozoites found in stool with figures. Write the
indication of routine examination of stool. Write down the procedure of collection of stool
for examination in the laboratory?
Answer. The commonly found cysts and trophozoites are of:
1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Giardia lamblia
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 30 -
Collection of stool:
A. For routine examination-
1. Fresh stool void at anytime of the day may be collected (about 20-30gms) in
a clean and dry container.
2. It should not be allowed to mix with urine.
3. Oil, drugs, barium or bismuth should not be given to the patient prior to the
examination.
4. Stool should be examined within 30 minutes, otherwise trophozoites will be
missed. But when delay is unavoidable or when the parasite is to be
demonstrated later on, it should be preserved by refrigeration at 2°-4°C or
by Formalin.
B. For culture-
1. Collect a suitable amount of stool (10-20gms) in a container or in a wide
mouthed bottle with screw cap which is previously sterilized. For culture the
container must be sterile.
2. Fresh stool void at anytime of the day is the suitable material for culture.
3. In chronic bacillary dysentery cases and in cases where the stool is not
readily available, the rectal swab taken directly by a proctoscope is the
practical method of taking the sample. But it must be ensured that it is taken
from the rectum and not just from the anal orifice.
4. Send the specimen to laboratory without any delay.
***Q-9. Define glycosuria and write down their causes. How can you detect glucose in
urine?
Answer. Glycosuria: The presence of glucose in urine is called glycosuria.
The causes of glycosuria:
1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Hyperactivity of Thyroid, Pituitary and Adrenal cortex, (e.g. thyrotoxicosis,
Cushing’s syndrome, Acromegaly) and injections of these hormones.
3. Severe emotional stress like anger, fear and excitement leads to temporary
glycosuria (due to adrenal secretion by adrenal gland).
4. Severe liver disease or whole organ disease of Pancreas.
5. Infections, Anaesthesia, Asphyxia.
6. Renal glycosuria.
7. Alimentary glycosuria.
8. Central nervous system disorder, e.g. brain injury, stroke.
9. Pregnancy with possible latent diabetes (gastrointestinal disorder).
10. Severe burns
11. Severe sepsis.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 31 -
*Q-10. Mention the difference between bacterial, viral and tubercular meningitis.
Answer. The difference between bacterial, viral and tubercular meningitis is given below:
Characteristics Normal Bacterial/Pyogen Tubercular Viral Subarachnoid Tumour
of CSF ic meningitis meningitis meningitis haemorrhage
1. Pressure 60-100 Normal/ Normal/ increased Normal Increased Increased
(mm of H2O) increased
2. Colour Crystal clear Cloudy, Clear/ cloudy Clear Blood mixed/ Clear
purulent. xanthochromic
3. Cell count Lymphocyte Neutrophils Mostly Lymphocyte Red cells Normal
(per cu.mm) s 0-5 often more than lymphocytes upto s upto 2000. mostly
1000- 5000 500
4. Protein 150- 450 Increased Increased Increased Normal Increased
(mg/l) 500-2000 500-3000 500-2000 500-2000
5. Glucose 50- 70 May disappear Decreased 20-30 Normal Normal Normal
(mg/l)
6. Chloride 710 – 750 Normal Less than 600 Normal Normal Normal
(mg/dl)
7. Other Culture- Organisms on Tubercle bacilli in Stain and Centrifuged
changes sterile Gram stain and fibrin clot and culture- No supernatant is
(deposit) culture deposit on ZN stain organism. yellow
and culture; PCR
may identify the
organism
Q- 11. Write the routine examination of CSF with the normal findings.
Answer. Routine examination of CSF with normal findings:
A. Physical examination-
1. Volume: For a normal adult, it is about 150 ml and for neonates it may be 10-60
ml.
2. Appearance and Colour: Clear and colourless.
3. Pressure: Normally for an adult 60- 100 mm of H2O.
4. Specific gravity: Normally 1003 – 1006
5. Blood: Blood normally absent.
6. Clot: Normal CSF does not clot.
B. Chemical examination-
1. Protein: Normally 150-450 mg/l.
2. Glucose: Normally 50-70 mg/l.
3. Chlorides: Normally 700-750 mg/dl (120-127 mmol/l).
C. Cytological examination-
1. Cells: Normally 0-5 lymphocytes/cu.mm.
D. Bacteriological- Normally CSF is sterile.
1. Smear: Centrifuged deposits are stained by Gram’s stain and Ziehl-Neelsen’s
stain.
2. Culture and Sensitivity: Chocolate agar media and Lowenstein- Jensen media.
E. Serological- Normally no abnormality is seen.
1. VDRL
2. Kahn test
3. CFT
4. Colloidal gold test- for immunoglobulins.
Q- 12. What is ketonuria and what are the causes? How can you detect ketone bodies in
urine?
Answer. Ketonuria: Ketone bodies are intermediate products for fat metabolism which
comprise of acetone, acetoacetic acid and β- hydroxybutyric acid; and presence of ketone
bodies in urine is called ketonuria.
Causes of ketonuria: A. Physiological-
1. Prolonged starvation
2. Low carbohydrate intake and high fat intake.
B. Pathological-
1. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
2. Pregnancy toxaemia with vomiting.
3. Clinical condition with severe vomiting and toxaemia.
4. Glycogen storage diseases.
5. Febrile state in children.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
email: monirahmed.bd@gmail.com web: http://a0720120505112739-8475723.WebStarts.com
BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 32 -
Q- 13. How bile salts, bile pigments and urobilinogen can be detected in urine? What is
their clinical significance?
Answer: Detection of bile salts in urine: 1. Hay’s test
2. Strip method.
Q- 14. Write down the principle and procedure of Gram’s stain and Ziehl- Neelsen’s stain.
Answer. Gram’s staining (or, Jensen’s modification):
Principle-
When bacteria are stained with a violet stain and then mordanted (it
increases the colouring capacity of the stain) with iodine solution, some of them resist
subsequent treatment with decolourizing agent whereas others do not resist
decolourization. The organisms which resist decolourization are called “Gram-positive”;
and the organisms which are decolourized are called “Gram-negative”. The Gram-negative
organisms are then coloured with a red counter stain to differentiate from the Gram-
positive organisms.
Reagents-
1. Stain: Crystal violet or methyl violet or gentian violet- 0.5% solution in
distilled water.
2. Lugol’s iodine solution:
Iodine ................................... 1 gm
Potassium iodide ................. 2 gm
Distilled water .................... 100 ml
3. Acetone or alcohol
4. Counter stain: a. Neutral red-
1 gm neutral red
2 ml 1% Acetic acid
Distilled water to make 500 ml.
b. Safranin-
1.7 gm safranin
50 ml alcohol
Distilled water to make 500 ml.
c. Diluted Carbol-fuchsin-
1:10 dilution of strong carbol-fuchsin.
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Method/Procedure-
1. Preparation and fixation of the film: The slide should be clean and free from grease.
The material, if solid, is emulsified in a loop of clean water on the slide with a
sterile wire loop. A thin, uniform film is made with the loop. The film is dried in the
air and then fixed by passing the slide 3-4 times slowly through the flame. When
the slide is just hot to be borne on the back of the hand, the fixation is complete.
The slide is cooled.
2. Staining: Place the slide on the rack and flood with crystal violet or gentian violet
or methyl violet stain and kept for one minute.
3. Mordanting: The stain is drained off and washed with Lugol’s iodine solution or
Grams iodine solution. More iodine solution is poured on the film and kept for 2
minutes.
4. Decolourization: The iodine solution is washed off with alcohol or acetone and then
washed with water. The alternate washings with alcohol and water are repeated till
the colour ceases to come out of the film. (Acetone does this more quickly than
alcohol, so care should be taken not to use acetone for a longer period. Serous and
mucoid materials are more difficult to decolourize than saline suspensions and
required a longer exposure to the decolourizing agent).
5. Counter staining: It is counter stained with 1 in 10 diluted carbol-fuchsin solution
for 20 seconds or with neutral red for 2 minutes or with safranin for 1 minute.
6. Wash with water and dried in air or dried by blotting it with filter paper.
7. Examine under oil immersion of the microscope.
Results-
Because the Gram-positive organisms retain the crystal violet after
decolourization, they appear dark blue in colour. The Gram-negative organisms are
decolourized and take up the colour of the counter stain and appear pink in colour.
Reagents-
1. Carbol-fuchsin [Ziehl Neelsen’s (strong) Carbol fuchsin]:
Basic fuchsin .......................................... 10 gm
Absolute Ethanol ................................... 100ml
5% solution of Phenol in water ............ 1000 ml
2. Decolourizing agent:
20 % Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
05% Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) for Mycobacterium leprae, or
Acid alcohol 3% Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in 95% alcohol,
(or, 01% Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) for Actinomyces)
3. Counter stain: a. Luffler’s methylene blue, or Malachite green, or Picric
acid.
Methods/Procedure-
1. A film is made from the material. Dried in air and fixed by passing through
flame. The film should be 10-20 mm in diameter.
2. Flood the whole slide with strong carbol fuchsin and heat gently underneath
the slide until steam is seen rising from the slide and then kept for 5
minutes. (Do not overheat; avoid boiling over of the stain). or, Carbol
fuchsin is heated in a test tube till fumes appear. Then the slide is covered
the fuming carbol fuchsin and kept for 5 minutes.
3. The slide is washed with water to remove the excess stain.
4. a. The film is washed with 20% sulphuric acid to see whether it is acid fast.
Washings with the sulphuric acid and water are repeated until the wash is
faint pink in colour.
b. To find out whether the organism is also alcohol fast, the film is washed
with 95% alcohol for 2 minutes. Instead of employing sulphuric acid and
alcohol in two steps, the acid- alcohol (3% HCl in 95% alcohol) may be
used to find out acid and alcohol fast at the same step.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 34 -
ii. OGTT (Oral glucose tolerance test)/Glucose tolerance test (GTT): Glucose
tolerance test (GTT) or Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) determines the ability of an
individual to utilize a given quantity of glucose taken orally.
Preparation of the individual for the test-
The individual should be on a normal diet for 3 days preceding to the day of the
test. He is to fast overnight for about 8-12 hours. Water is allowed. He should be free
from other illness and effects of trauma and corticosteroid, diuretics, phenothiazines,
anti-depressants as these decrease glucose tolerance test.
Test procedure-
The patient should remain seated and refrain from food and smoking during the test.
The fasting blood and urine samples are collected. 75 gram glucose in 250-300 ml water
(can also be given with lemon water) is given orally. And then half hourly blood and urine
samples are taken for 2 hours. All the samples are tested for and the glucose tolerance
curve is plotted with the time as abscissa and blood glucose values as ordinates. Urine
glucose values are recorded below the corresponding blood glucose values under the
abscissa.
Normal Glucose Tolerance Test Curve-
Fasting After taking 75gm glucose by mouth Corresponding Urine
½ hour 1 hour 1 ½ hour 2 hours sugar
4.0 5.5 4.6 4.4 4.0 Absent in all samples
mmol/l mmol/l mmol/l mmol/l mmol/l
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 35 -
*** iii. Bence Jones protein: Bence Jones proteins represent either the κ (kappa) or
λ (lambda) light chains of the immunoglobulin formed in some lymphoproliferative
disorders. It was first demonstrated by H. Bence Jones in 1847.
Properties of Bence Jones proteins-
Bence Jones protein develops at 40° -60°C and redissolves on 100°C. On cooling
again, the precipitate reappears at 40° -60°C. While other urinary proteins usually appear at
60°C and do not redissolve on boiling.
Detection of Bence Jones protein in urine-
Filter the urine, if cloudy. If alkaline, make it acidic by with 5% acetic acid. Place 5
ml of urine in a test. Place the test tube in the water bath and raise the temperature
gradually. Bence Jones protein begins to appear at 40° -60°C. Heating is continued and the
Bence Jones protein redissolves on boiling. Filter the boiling urine and allowed to cool.
The reprecipitation of the filtrate urine at 40° -60°C indicates presence of Bence Jones
protein.
Bence Jones Protein found in-
a. Multiple myeloma.
b. Malignant lymphoma.
c. Chronic myeloid leukaemia.
d. Osteosarcoma.
e. Osteomalacia.
f. Generalized carcinomatosis.
v. Body fluids: Water of the body together with its dissolved solute is called body
fluid. So, body fluid is an aqueous solution containing electrolytes and non-
electrolytes and consists of intracellular and extracellular components.
Types-
1. Intracellular fluid (ICF): The fluid inside the cells of the body is known as
intracellular fluid. It is about 40% of the total body weight and is about the 60 -
70% of the total body fluid.
2. Extracellular fluid (ECF): The fluid in the spaces out side the cells of the body
known as extracellular body fluid. It is about the 20% of the total body weight
and is about 30-40 % of the total body fluid.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 36 -
Causes of haemoglobinuria-
a. Incompatible blood transfusion
b. Black water fever in malignant malaria
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
d. Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria
e. Streptococcal septicaemia
f. Gas gangrene
g. Strenuous exercise
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 37 -
Crystals
Crystals are the unorganized deposits of urine found mostly in various
disease conditions. Commonly found crystals are-
A. Crystals of Acidic urine:
1. Amorphous urate crystal
2. Uric acid crystals
3. Cholesterol crystals.
4. Calcium oxalate crystals
5. Sodium urate crystals
6. Cystine crystals
7. Fat droplets
8. Leucine spheres
9. Tyrosine needles
B. Crystals of Alkaline urine
1. Amorphous phosphate
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Calcium phosphate
4. Ammonium urate.
Procedure-
1. Mix the specimen thoroughly by shaking the container tube gently.
2. Draw the semen upto 0.5 mark of a white cell diluting pipette and then the
diluent upto the 11 mark. Mix well by rotatory and side to side movements.
3. Fill the counting chamber (Neubauer ruling) with the diluted seminal fluid
and leave on the bench for 2 minutes to settle down the immobilized sperm.
4. Count the number of sperm in four large corner squares covering 4 sq.mm
area under high power lens of the microscope. While counting only consider
those spermatozoa which are complete, i.e. with a head, a neck and a tail.
Calculations-
Total spermatozoa per ml = Sperm count × 50,000
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 38 -
b. Giardia:
1. Cystic form of Giardia lamblia-
i. Size: 8-14 µm in length and 5-10 µm in width
ii. Shape: Oval
iii. Nucleus: 2-4
iv. Colour: Colourless
2. Trophozoite of Giardia lamblia-
i. Shape: Pear
ii. Size: 15 µm × 9 µm
iii. Nucleus: 2 with large central karyosome.
iv. Flagella: 4 pairs or 8 in numbers.
v. Colour: Colourless.
“We can never be happy, if we are not satisfied with our selves. And
the first step to happiness is to shun the ego.” Monir Ahmed
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 40 -
Haematology
***Q- 1. Define erythropoiesis. What are the sites and stages of erythropoiesis? Name the
factors affecting erythropoiesis.
Answer. Erythropoiesis: The process of formation of erythrocytes under normal
physiological condition is known as erythropoiesis.
Sites of erythropoiesis:
1. Mesoblastic erythropoiesis- is the production of primitive, nucleated erythrocytes in
the mesoderm of the yolk sac in the early few weeks of embryonic life.
2. Hepatic erythropoiesis- is the production of primitive erythrocytes mainly in the
liver during the middle trimester of gestation. In this period a reasonable numbers
of erythrocytes are also produced by the spleen and lymph nodes.
3. Myeloid erythropoiesis- is the production of erythrocytes by the bone marrow
during the last trimester of gestation and after birth.
Stages of erythropoiesis:
1. Proerythroblast/ Pronormoblast
2. Basophil erythroblast/ Early normoblast
3. Polychromatophil erythroblast/ Intermediate normoblast
4. Orthochromatic erythroblast/ Late normoblast
5. Reticulocyte
6. Mature erythrocyte
**Q- 2. Define and classify anticoagulants with examples. What are the anticoagulants
commonly used in the laboratory? Why EDTA is best?
Answer. Anticoagulants: Anticoagulants are substances which prevent clotting of blood.
Classification of anticoagulants:
A. General classification-
1. Natural anticoagulants-
a. Heparin
b.Antithrombin III (Heparin co-factor II)
2. Artificial anticoagulants (Commonly used in the laboratory) -
a. Heparin
b. Ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA)
c. Oxalated compounds:
i. Single oxalate or Potassium oxalate
ii. Double oxalate or Paul Heller’s mixture (Ammonium oxalate+ Potassium
oxalate).
d. Tri-sodium citrate
e. Acid citrate dextrose
f. Citrate phosphate dextrose
g. Alsever’s solution
h. Sodium fluoride
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 41 -
*Q-3. What are the criteria of a good film? Write down the steps of preparation of a blood
film.
Answer. The criteria of a good film:
1. It should be uniformly thick but not too thick.
2. The margin should be even and should not touch the side of the slide.
3. The film should be tongue shaped having three parts- head, body and tail with a
length about 3 -4 cm (occupying the middle two-third of the slide).
4. There should be a single tail which is not too long and should be gradually thin
without any serrated ends.
5. The film should end near the centre of the slide and not extending upto the edge
of the slide.
6. The cells should be uniformly distributed especially white cells.
7. There should be some overlapping of red cells near the head of the slide but are
separated from each other near the tail.
8. On the surface of the film, there should be no ridges, weaves and holes.
9. The film should be properly stained to identify the cells morphology.
***Q-4. Define MCH, MCV and MCHC with their normal values.
Answer. Red cell indices/ absolute values: a. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
b. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH)
c. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
(MCHC).
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): This is the mean or average volume of a single
red cell expressed in femtoliter.
PCV l/l
Calculation- MCV = femtoliter
RBC count per liter
PCV % × 10
= femtoliter
RBC/cu. mm
**Q-5. What are the causes of iron deficiency anaemia? Give the laboratory diagnosis of
iron deficiency anaemia.
Answer. Iron deficiency anaemia: It develops when the supply of iron to the bone marrow
is insufficient for the requirement of Hb synthesis.
Causes of iron deficiency anaemia-
A. Increased physiological demands:
1. Children during the period of growth
2. Premenopausal women
3. Pregnancy
B. Pathological blood loss:
1. Peptic ulcer
2. Haemorrhoids (Piles)
3. Hiatus hernia
4. Carcinoma of stomach
5. Carcinoma of colon
6. Oesophageal varices (when rupture, there is severe bleeding)
7. Ulcerative colitis
8. Hookworm infestation
9. Urinary tract infection and haematuria
10. Menorrhagia in female
C. Malabsorption/ Impaired absorption:
1. Coeliac disease
2. Post-gastrectomy
3. Tropical sprue
4. Whipples diseases
5. Atrophic gastritis
D. Nutritional deficiency:
1. Inadequate intake or improper feeding.
B. Iron Profile-
1. Serum iron is reduced- less than 10 µmol/l.
2. Serum ferritin is reduced- less than 12µg/l.
3. Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) is increased- 80 µmol/l or more.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 43 -
***Q-6. Define and classify leukaemia. Give the laboratory diagnosis of acute myeloid
leukaemia (AML) and chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) or, Give the bone marrow
findings of AML and CML.
Answer. Leukaemia: The leukaemias are diseases of unknown aetiology characterized by
uncontrolled abnormal and widespread proliferation of the leukocytic cells of the body
which infiltrate the bone marrow and other body tissues usually associated with but not
invariably presence of immature white cells in the peripheral blood. It can also be defined
as, “a malignant state of haemopoietic tissue characterized by widespread proliferation of
leucopoietic cells in bone marrow with or without appearance of abnormal premature
leucocytes in peripheral blood.”
Classification of Leukaemia:
A. Classification on Clinical course-
1. Acute leukaemia
2. Chronic leukaemia
B. Morphological classification- based on predominant leukaemic cells.
1. Myeloid leukaemia
2. Lymphoid leukaemia
C. Combined classification (Clinical and Morphological)-
1. Myeloid leukaemias
a. Acute myeloblastic leukaemia/ Acute myeloid leukaemia.
b. Chronic myelocytic leukaemia/ Chronic myeloid leukaemia.
2. Lymphoid leukaemias
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.
B. Bone marrow-
1. Cellularity: Hypercellular.
2. M/E ratio: Increased.
3. Erythropoiesis: Decreased.
4. Leukopoiesis: Increased, immature blast cells are 30-90%.
5. Megakaryopoiesis: Reduced.
C. Special investigations-
1. Serum lysozyme (muramidase).
2. Cell surface markers.
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Uses of WBC pipette: It is used in the dilution for the determination of-
1. Total count of WBC
2. Total count of cells in different body fluids, e.g. CSF, synovial fluid etc.
3. Total count of Spermatozoa in seminal fluid.
4. Total count of platelets when platelet counts are low, e.g. Dengue fever.
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***Q-8. Give the total count, differential count and absolute count of WBC. Draw and
label WBCs.
Answer. Normal Total count of WBC: 4000-11000/cu.mm. of blood.
Absolute count and Differential count of WBC-
◊ Granulocytes-
⇒ Neutrophils (Polymorphs.) : 2000-7500/µl of blood. 40-75%
⇒ Eosinophils : 100-400/µl of blood. 1-4%
⇒ Basophils : 0-100/µl of blood. 0-1%
◊ Agranulocytes-
⇒ Lymphocytes : 2000-4500/µl of blood. 20-45%
⇒ Monocytes : 200-800/µl of blood. 2-8%
Q- 10. Name the methods of Haemoglobin estimation. Give the advantages and
disadvantages of Acid Hematin Method.
Answer. Methods of estimation of haemoglobin:
1. Visual methods-
a. Sahli's method/Acid haematin method/ Sahli's Acid haematin method
b. Paper strip comparator method
2. Colorimetric methods-
a. Cyanomethaemoglobin method,
b. Carboxy-haemoglobin method
c. Oxyhaemoglobin method
d. Alkaline haematin method
3. Autoanalyzer methods-
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a. Electronic counter
b. Direct reading electronic haemoglobinometer
4. Others-
a. Measurement of O2 carrying capacity
b. Measurement of Iron content of Hb
c. Specific gravity method
Q- 11. What is leukaemoid reaction? Give the differences between leukaemia and
leukaemoid reaction.
Answer. Leukaemoid reaction: It is used to describe the conditions in which peripheral
blood picture resembles that of leukaemia in a patient who does not have leukaemia usually
with no leukaemic changes in the bone marrow.
Characters Leukaemoid reactions Leukaemia
1. Clinical Clinical feature of the underlying Splenomegaly, Lymph node
Features cause is obvious. enlargement, Haemorrhage more
marked.
2. Blood examinations
a. Total white Mostly below 100,000/mm3 Can exceed 100,000/mm3
cell count
b. Immature cells Less than 10% Usually numerous
c. White cell Toxic changes may be seen. Cells usually atypical as well as
morphology immature. Toxic changes are
uncommon.
d. Anaemia Slight or absent Usually progressive
e. Platelets Normal or increased Decreased except in CGL
f. Nucleated red Frequent in leukoerythroblastic Infrequent and seldom in
cells anaemia number.
3. Bone marrow Mild leucoblastic hyperplasia may Hyperplasia. Large number of
be present. Not like leukaemia. immature cells. Leukaemic
picture.
4. Autopsy
a. Infiltration of Absent Present
organs and
tissues
b. NAP score Increased Normal or decreased.
**Q-12. Define and classify anaemia. What are the causes of anaemia?
Answer. Definition of anaemia: Two important definitions of anaemia are cited below-
a. Anaemia is a clinical condition characterized by a pale colouration of skin and
mucus membrane as a result of qualitative and quantitative deficiency of
haemoglobin below normal range for an individual in respect of age and sex.
b. Anaemia may be defined as reduction in the concentration of haemoglobin in
the peripheral blood below normal for age and sex of the patient.
In adult male haemoglobin less than 13 gm/dl (70%) and in female less than 11.5 gm/dl
(60%) is labelled as anaemia. When haemoglobin is low upto 11 gm/dl it is labelled as mild
anaemia, value of 9-11 gm/dl as moderate anaemia, and less than 9 gm/dl as severe
anaemia.
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♦ Classification of anaemia:
I. Morphological classification-
This is based on mainly MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume), MCHC (Mean
Corpuscular Haemoglobin Concentration), and MCH (Mean Corpuscular Haemoglobin).
1. Microcytic Hypochromic anaemia: MCV, MCHC and MCH are below normal, e.g.
iron deficiency anaemia (most common), thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic diseases and
sideroblastic anaemia.
2. Macrocytic anaemia: MCV is above normal, and MCHC is normal. It occurs in
megaloblastic anaemia and macro-normoblastic anaemia.
3. Normocytic Normochromic anaemia: MCV, MCHC and MCH are within normal
range, e.g. acute blood loss, most cases of anemia due to depression of erythropoiesis and
haemolytic anaemia.
II. Aetiological classification/ Causes of Anaemia-
This classification is based on pathophysiology and cause.
A. Impaired red cell formation / production (Dyshaemopoietic anaemia):
1. Deficiency of essential nutrients (or, Deficiency anaemia) e.g. Iron deficiency
anaemia, Megaloblastic anaemia/ Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia.
2. Depression of erythropoiesis/ Disturbance of bone marrow function not due to
deficiency of substance essential for the erythropoiesis, e.g. Aplastic anaemia, Sideroblastic
anaemia.
B. Increased destruction of red cell (Haemolytic anemia):
1. Intracorpuscular effect/ Intrinsic abnormality.
2. Extracorpuscular effect/ Extrinsic abnormality.
C. Blood loss (Haemorrhagic anaemia):
1. Acute post-haemorrhagic anaemia-
Loss of large volume of blood over a short period, e.g. surgical blood loss, accidental
blood loss.
2. Chronic post-haemorrhagic anaemia-
e.g. hookworm infection, bleeding peptic ulcer, menorrhagia.
*Q-13. What is ESR? Give the normal values of ESR. Mention the causes of high and low
ESR. Describe the procedure of estimation of ESR by Westergren method.
Answer. ESR: When the blood is mixed with a suitable anticoagulant and is allowed to
stand vertically, red cells settle down to the bottom. The rate at which this sedimentation of
red cells takes place is known as Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR).
• Normal values or range of ESR:
Method Normal range or value
◊ Westergren method Men : 0-09 mm in 1st hour.
Women : 0-20 mm in 1st hour.
◊ Wintrobe method Men : 0-10 mm in 1st hour.
Women : 0-20 mm in 1st hour.
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2. Secondary thrombocytopenia:
a. Drugs and chemicals-
i. Drugs causing aplastic anaemia, e.g. cytotoxic drugs, chloramphenicol.
ii. Drugs causing immune thrombocytopenia, e.g. quinine, chloroquine, quinidine,
sulphonamides, trimethoprim, penicillins, celphalosporins.
b. Infections- Dengue fever, HIV.
c. Aplastic anaemia
d. Acute leukaemia
e. Systemic lupus erythematosus- autoimmune disease
f. Bone marrow infiltration- Secondary carcinoma, malignant lymphomas,
multiple myeloma.
g. Hypersplenism
h. Liver diseases, massive blood transfusion, DIC (Disseminated intravascular
coagulation), post-partum thrombocytopenia.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 49 -
Result-
Normally it is 35-45 seconds. An abnormal result is indicated when clotting
time of patient is 10 or more seconds more than the control time.
*iii. Pancytopenia: Pancytopenia is the state where all the three formed elements of
blood are reduced, i.e. there is anaemia, leucopenia and thrombocytopenia.
Causes of Pancytopenia-
1. Aplastic anaemia
2. Administration of cytotoxic agents
3. Radiotherapy
4. Overwhelming infections
5. Subleukaemic acute leukaemia
6. Bone marrow infiltration- Lymphomas, metastatic carcinoma of bone, multiple
myeloma, myelofibrosis.
7. Hypersplenism
8. Megaloblastic anaemia
9. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Laboratory diagnosis-
a. Routine Blood Examination
b. Bone marrow examination
c. Other investigations depending on clinical diagnosis.
PCV % × 10
= femtoliter
RBC (1012/L)
Significance-
1. It increases in macrocytic anaemia.
2. It decreases in microcytic anaemia.
.
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
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“The man who makes his strides in search of knowledge, Allah makes his
path easier towards Heaven.” Al-Hadith.
“He who is worried can not smile, only though wisdom can his sorrow be
wiped out. You will be a man of bad luck, if you are jealous of others’ good luck.
You should establish yourself in virtue, if you want to be successful in your life.
Good luck is always with you, if you pay attention to it. Bodily, vocal and mental
purification is the essence of life. If you want to be happy in this long life, first you
should purify yourself, look within. Nobody can help you except yourself. Poverty
does not matter, matters generosity and hospitality. One who has self purification
is best among men and deity.” Buddha
Monir Ahmed. BSc (Lab medicine), 1st batch, IHT, Dhaka. Mobile-01918-713432
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 52 -
Blood Transfusion
***Q-1. Define blood group. Name the important blood groups. Why ABO blood group is
called classical blood group?
Answer. Blood group: Blood groups are the groups of blood classified according to the
presence or absence of genetically inherited antigens on the surface of the cells and
antibody in plasma. It can be defined as, “the antigenic make up present on various cellular
and/or soluble components of blood together with the antibody and their interactions.”
Important blood groups:
1. ABO 8. Lewis
2. Rhesus (Rh) Produce 9. Diego Produce
3. MNS HTRs & 10. Dombrock Delayed Haemolytic Transfusion
4. Duffy HDN 11. Indiana Reactions (DHTRs)
5. Kell 12. Colton
6. Kidd 13. Xg
7. Lutheran 14. P
ABO systems/ ABO blood groups are called classical blood groups, because-
1. These are the principle blood groups and found among all the people.
2. They maintain both first and second part of Landsteiner’s Law.
3. The hazards of mismatched blood transfusion of ABO blood groups are most
effective and appear more quickly than others.
***Q-2. What are the methods of blood grouping? Describe the slide method of blood
grouping.
Answer. The methods of blood grouping: There are two methods-
1. Slide method
2. Tube method
**Q-3. Give the indication and contraindication of blood transfusion. What do you mean
by Safe Blood Transfusion?
Answer. Indication of blood transfusion:
A. Whole blood-
1. Traumatic, surgical blood loss
2. GIT and uterine haemorrhage
3. Obstetrical haemorrhage
B. Packed cell-
1. Chronic anaemias, e.g. thalassaemia, sickle cell anaemia, aplastic anaemia.
C. Granulocyte concentrate-
1. Severe neutropenia, not responding to antibiotic therapy.
2. Post chemo-irradiation.
D. Platelet concentrate-
1. Severe thrombocytopenia with haemorrhage
2. Patient with myelotoxic drug therapy.
3. Aplastic anaemia.
E. Plasma-
1. Frozen fresh plasma (FFP): burns, coagulation disorders
2. Cryoprecipitate (rich in factor VIII & IX): haemophilia A and B.
F. Other conditions where blood transfusion is given-
1. Exchange transfusion in HDN.
2. Hypovolumic shock
Safe blood transfusion: Safe blood transfusion is the process by which blood is
collected from low risk donors and transfused after necessary testing and proper
screening in accordance with the standard operating procedure.
In simple words, safe blood transfusion means attainment of the following
objective-
1. Selection of proper donor, i.e. low risk donor.
2. Proper cross matching of the donor’s blood and the recipient’s blood.
3. Proper screening of the blood, i.e. checking blood for transmissible diseases
and quantity and quality of the blood.
4. Rational use of blood.
5. Supply of blood with standard quality and quantity.
***Q-6. Name the different plasma products. Give the indication, contraindication and risk
of fresh frozen plasma.
Answer. The different plasma products are:
1. Fresh Frozen Plasma
2. Cryoprecipitate
3. Intragam
4. Normal Immunoglobulins
5. Hyper Immunoglobulins
6. Anti-D
7. Albumex 20
8. Albumex 4
9. Biostate (Factor VIII Concentrate)
10. Prothrombinex HT (factor II, IX, X) / Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
b. Intraventricular haemorrhage
***Q-7. What are the types of platelet concentrate? Give the indication and
contraindication of platelet transfusion.
Answer. The types of platelet concentrate:
1. Platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood donations-
a. Single donor unit: It is in a volume of 50–60 ml of plasma which should contain
at least 55 x 109 platelets, <1.2 x 109 red cells, <0.12 x 109 leucocytes.
b. Pooled unit: platelets prepared from 4 to 6 donor units ‘pooled’ into one pack to
contain an adult dose of at least 240 x 109 platelets.
2. Platelet concentrate preparation collected by plateletpheresis.
Importance of blood bank: The most important role reflecting the importance of
blood bank are-
1. Collection of safe blood from healthy donor.
2. Proper preservation of the blood and blood components for future use.
3. Manufacture of blood components.
4. Supply of appropriate blood to patients to save lives.
5. Ensuring rational use of blood.
6. Motivating and encouraging volunteer donor to donate blood.
7. To prevent the transfusion transmitted diseases by screening the blood.
8. Conduct clinical research on blood and its components.
9. Assisting the clinicians and surgeons in patient care, treatment and surgery.
*Q-9. Name the blood constituents available for clinical use. Give the immune
complication of blood transfusion.
Answer. The blood constituents available for clinical use are:
1. Cellular elements-
a. Red cells
i. Red cell concentrated/ Packed red blood cell concentrate
ii. Red cell suspension with normal saline
b. Leukocytes, e.g. Granulocyte concentrate
c. Platelets, e.g. Platelet concentrate
2. Plasma and plasma products-
o Fresh Frozen Plasma
o Cryoprecipitate
o Intragam
o Normal Immunoglobulins
o Hyper Immunoglobulins
o Anti-D
o Albumex 20
o Albumex 4
o Biostate (Factor VIII Concentrate)
o Prothrombinex HT (factor II, IX, X)/ Prothrombin complex concentrate
(PCC)
Risks/Adverse reactions:
1. Nausea
2. Chills
3. Fever
4. Headache
5. Hypotension
Q- 12. Name the methods of detecting antibody in the laboratory. Describe anyone method.
Answer. The presence of (irregular) blood group antibodies is usually detected in one or
more of three ways:
1. Cell and serum ABO typing
2. Cross matching
a. Major cross matching
b. Minor cross matching
These are done in following phases-
i. Saline phase
ii. Albumin phase
iii. Coombs phase
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 58 -
Q- 13. Give the composition, indication and contraindication of SAG mannitol blood.
Answer. SAG-M( Saline, adenine, glucose, mannitol) blood composition:
Sodium chloride 8.77 g
Glucose monohydrate 9.00 g
Adenin 0.169 g
Mannitol 5.25 g
Water for injection 1000 mL
450 ml of blood is collected n the primary bag containing CPD solution, the plasma
is expressed after centrifugation to empty bag and then the 100 ml of the SAGM solution is
expressed in the primary bag containing red cells. The red cells can be stored for 41 days in
SAGM.
Indication of SAG-M blood:
1. Haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
2. Surgery in neonates
3. For top up transfusions
4. Acute blood loss
Q- 14. How do you screen a blood donor? What are the tests done for screening of blood
for transfusion?
Answer. Screening of a blood donor: The following criteria should be met-
1. Age- 18 – 57 yrs.
2. Weight- males ≥ 55kgs females ≥ 45 kgs.
3. Frequency of donation- Not more than once in 3 month.
4. Haemoglobin- ≥ 12.5 gm/dl.
5. Blood pressure- Systolic: 100-120 & Diastolic: 50- 100 mm of Hg.
6. Pulse- 60-90 beats/minute.
7. Temperature- 98 – 98.6° F (Afebrile)
8. Vaccination – No history of recent vaccination.
9. Drug therapies- normally the donor under any medication should not
be selected.
10. Medical ailments- Should be disease free.
11. Surgery- History of no major surgery. After a few weeks of
minor surgery, may be considered with careful analysis of past medical
history.
12. Medical history- There should be no complication in previous
donations.
13. Other conditions- e.g. In pregnancy, lactation, menstruation, the females
are deferred from blood donations.
The screening of blood for Transfusion: The following tests are done for screening
of blood for transfusion-
A. Mandatory Tests: These tests are done to detect-
1. Hepatitis B virus
2. Hepatitis C virus
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Answer.
***i. Auto-transfusion/Autologous transfusion: The autologous blood transfusion
is the transmission of patient’s own blood. Autologous transfusion is defined as, “the
infusion of patient’s own blood”.
Categories of Autologous transfusion-
1. Predeposit
2. Haemodilution and short term storage
3. Intraoperative blood salvage
4. Post-operative blood salvage
Indication for autologous transfusion-
1. Requirement of rare blood group type.
2. Presence of unexpected antibodies in the recipient.
3. Prevention of allo-immunization.
4. Religious belief
5. Cardiovascular, orthopaedic, gynaecological, plastic reconstruction surgery.
Contraindications-
1. Evidence of infection
2. Schedule surgery to correct aortic stenosis.
3. Unstable angina
4. Uncontrolled seizure disorder
5. Myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accident within 6 months.
6. Significant cardiac or pulmonary diseases who have not yet been cleared for
surgery.
7. High grade left main coronary artery disease
8. Cyanotic heart disease
9. Uncontrolled hypertension.
Advantages of Autologous transfusion-
1. Elimination of the risk of disease transmission (AIDS, HBV, HCV, syphilis,
malaria).
2. No risk of haemolytic, febrile, and allergic reactions.
3. To provide fully compatible blood in immunized patients.
Hazards/ Disadvantages of Autologous transfusion-
1. Anaemia and hypovolaemia
2. Loss of working time and difficulties faced by traveling several time to the blood
bank.
3. Units lost when surgery is postponed or cancelled.
4. Sepsis from blood contamination.
5. Cancer dissemination.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 60 -
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 61 -
Storage-
At –25°C or colder for up to 1 year
Indications –
1. As an alternative to Factor VIII concentrate in the treatment of inherited
deficiencies of:
— von Willebrand Factor (von Willebrand’s disease)
— Factor VIII (haemophilia A)
— Factor XIII
2. As a source of fibrinogen in acquired coagulopathies: e.g. disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Administration –
1. If possible, use ABO-compatible product
2. No compatibility testing required
3. After thawing, infuse as soon as possible through a standard blood
administration set
4. Must be infused within 6 hours of thawing
v. Natural and immune antibodies: Blood group antibodies are of two kinds-
1. Natural antibodies: Naturally occurring antibodies are those found in the blood of
people who have not been exposed to foreign blood cell antigens. Naturally
occurring antibodies are usually IgM i.e. complete antibody.
2. Immune antibodies: Immune antibodies arises as a result of an immune response to
blood cell antigens not normally possessed by an individual but acquired by blood
transfusion or transplantation or by transplacental passage of foetal red cells during
pregnancy. Immune antibodies are mostly IgG, i.e. incomplete antibody.
o An envious person does not look at those more capable than him and aspire to better
himself; he plots to drag them down to his own level. Jealousy is simply an unwitting
admittance of one's own flaws and failings.
o People who can admire true greatness are happy people. Such admiration also serves to
elevate one's own existence. By opening wide the doors of our hearts we can broaden our
own horizons and strengthen our belief in life. A breakdown in this capacity to praise and
respect others can lead to inflexibility and self-righteousness.
o There may be times when others seem enviable. But others are others and you are you.
Rather than comparing your joys and sorrows to those of others, you should aim to surpass
your limits in the situation you are in right now. Those who can do this are the true victors
in life.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 62 -
*Q- 1. Define pneumonia. Give the classification and organisms of pneumonia. Give the
stages of lobar pneumonia/ Give the morphology of various stages of lobar pneumonia.
Answer. Pneumonia: Pneumonia is defined as any inflammation of lung parenchyma. It can
also be defined as, “inflammation of lung parenchyma with or without consolidation”.
Classification of pneumonia-
A. On anatomical site:
a. Lobar pneumonia
b. Bronchopneumonia
c. Interstitial pneumonia
B. Aetiological classification:
a. Bacterial
i. Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Diplococcus pneumoniae
ii. Haemophilus influenae
iii. Staphylococcus aureus
iv. Enterobacteriacae, e.g. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
v. Legionella pneumophila
b. Fungal
i. Histoplasma capsulatum
ii. Blastomyces dermatitidis
iii. Pneumocystis carinii
c. Viral
i. Influenza virus
ii. Measles
iii. Respiratory sincitial virus
iv. Chicken pox
C. On exudation
a. Suppurative pneumonia
b. Fibrous pneumonia
a. Macroscopic- The affected lobe returns to normal size or almost the normal
size.
b. Microscopic- The consolidated exudate within the alveolar spaces
undergoes progressive enzymatic digestion to produce a granular semi-solid
debris that is either reabsorbed, ingested by macrophages or coughed out.
Fate: 1. Usually complete resolution takes place.
2. May develop complications-
i. Suppurative and lung abscess (by type III pneumococcus, klebsiella,
staphylococcus)
ii. Empyema
iii. Organization and fibrosis
iv. Bacteraemia and septicaemia.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 63 -
***Q-2. Define peptic ulcer (disease). Give the site and complication of peptic ulcer
(disease).
Answer. Peptic ulcer: Peptic ulcers are chronic most often solitary lesion that may occur in
any part of the gastrointestinal tract which is exposed to aggressive action of acid peptic
juices. So, peptic ulcers are chronic ulcerative lesions of the gastrointestinal tract at the
sites exposed to the aggressive action of acid- peptic juices.
Sites of peptic ulcers: The two major ones are duodenal ulcer and gastric ulcer.
1. Duodenum, first part- About 70%.
2. Stomach, usually antrum- About 28%.
3. Barrett’s oesophagus.
4. Meckel’s diverticulum and adjacent ileum with ectopic gastric mucosa.
5. Duodenum, stomach and or jejunum in Zollinger- Ellison syndrome.
6. Gastroenterostomy stoma.
Complication of peptic ulcer:
1. Bleeding
2. Perforation or penetration into an adjacent viscus.
3. Obstruction from oedema or from scarring of the pylorus.
4. Malignant transformation is extremely rare with gastric ulcers and possibly it is an
ulcerative gastric carcinoma form the outset. Malignant transformation does not
occur with duodenale ulcer.
5. Intractable pain.
6. Acquired pyloric stenosis.
***Q-3. How do you diagnose tuberculosis in the laboratory? (Or, Give the laboratory
diagnosis of Tuberculosis).
Answer. Diagnosis of tuberculosis in the laboratory:
1. Mycobacterial culture- which is the gold standard test should be advised for exact
identification of organism and sensitivity of drugs.
2. PCR for Myco. tuberculosis bacilli- more sensitive than AFB because bacterial load
upto 10 can give positive result.
3. Sputum for AFB- only positive when bacterial load is >5000.
4. FNAC/Cytology/Biopsy of the affected organ.
5. Supportive radiology and imaging technique.
6. ELSIA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay) - although not very specific.
7. Blood routine examination
a. Hb: Anaemia
b. TC: Relative lymphocytosis, monocytosis
c. ESR: Markedly high, mostly above 100 mm in 1st hour.
8. Others:
a. Mantoux test
b. ICT for TB
***Q-4. Define IHD. What are the risk factor and complication of MI?
Answer. Ischaemic heart disease (IHD): Ischaemic heart disease results from myocardial
ischaemia due to an imbalance between the supply (perfusion) and demand of the heart for
oxygenated blood.
(Ischaemia comprises not only insufficiency of oxygenated blood but also reduced
availability of nutrient substrates and inadequate removal of metabolites. )
IHD is classified into four syndromes:
1. Angina pectoris
2. Myocardial infarction (MI) or Heart attack
3. Sudden cardiac death (SCD)
4. Chronic ischaemic heart disease
2. Hypertension
3. Cigarette smoking
4. Diabetes mellitus
b. Potentially controllable
1. Alcohol
2. Lipoprotein Lp(a)
3. Hardened (trans) unsaturated fat intake
4. Chlamydia pneumoniae
***Q-6. Define nephrotic syndrome. Give the difference between AGN & nephrotic
syndrome.
Answer. Nephrotic syndrome: It is characterized by massive proteinuria (>3.5gm/day),
hypoalbuminimia, lipiduria, severe oedema (anasarca), hyperlipidaemia.
The difference between acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) and nephrotic syndrome/
Difference between Acute Nephritic Syndrome and Nephrotic Syndrome:
Traits Acute glomerulonephritis/ Acute Nephritic Nephrotic syndrome
Syndrome
A. Common 1. Post streptococcal immunologically 1. Membranous glomerulopathy.
causes mediated disease. 2. Minimal change disease.
2. SLE (Systemic lupus erythematosus). 3. Focal segmental
3. Post infective endocarditis by glomerulosclerosis.
Staphylococcus. 4. Membrano-proliferative
4. Post viral infections- measles, mumps, glomerulonephritis.
chicken pox, Hepatitis B
B. Clinical 1. Periorbital oedema 1. Anasarca (severe oedema).
features 2. Mild to moderate hypertension. 2. Hypertension absent.
C. Laboratory findings
a. Urine volume a. Reduced a. Normal
b. Haematuria b. Grossly visible b. Absent
c. Proteinuria c. Mild to moderate c. Massive (>3.5gm/day)
d. RBC and d. Present d. Absent.
RBC cast in
urine
e. Lipiduria e. Absent. e. Present.
Traits Acute glomerulonephritis/ Acute Nephritic Nephrotic syndrome
Syndrome
f. Plasma f. Normal f. Reduced.
albumin
g. Serum g. Normal g. Raised
cholesterol
h. Blood urea h. May be increased. h. Normal
and creatinine
***Q-7. Name the intestinal ulcer. Give the difference between typhoid & tubercular ulcer.
Answer. Ulcers of the GIT:
A. Ulcers of oesophagus and stomach-
a. Benign:
1. Chronic gastric ulcer (peptic ulcer)
2. Acute gastric ulcer
i. Stress ulcer
ii. Curling ulcer (ulcer due to extensive burn).
iii. Cushing ulcer (ulcers due to trauma or surgery to brain)
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b. Malignant:
1. Ulcerative or excavated gastric carcinoma
B. Ulcers of the intestine-
a. Ulcers of small intestine:
1. Duodenal ulcer
2. Typhoid ulcer
3. Tuberculous ulcer
4. Bacillary dysentery ulcers
5. Crohn’s disease
6. Malignant ulcer
7. Peptic ulcer in Meckel’s diverticulum
**Q-8. What is cirrhosis of liver? Classify cirrhosis of liver. Give the pathogenesis and
effects of cirrhosis of liver.
Answer. Cirrhosis of liver: 1. It is chronic disease of the liver characterized by diffuse
fibrosis and conversion of normal hepatic architecture into structurally abnormal nodules.
2. Liver (hepatic) cirrhosis is the end-stage condition of liver disease
which results from persistent and progressive necrosis of hepatocytes, followed by fibrosis
and abnormal nodule formation.
**Q- 9. Define jaundice. Give the laboratory diagnosis of different types of jaundice
(haemolytic & obstructive jaundice).
Answer. Jaundice: Jaundice may be defined as, “yellow discolouration of the skin, sclera
and mucous membrane due to increased bilirubin concentration in the body fluid above
normal.” So, yellow discolouration of the skin, mucous membrane and internal organs is
called jaundice.
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*Q-10. Write down the risk factors, sites and classification of carcinoma of breast.
Answer. Risk factors of carcinoma of breast (aetiology and pathogenesis):
I. Genetic predisposition-
BRCA1 and BRCA2 tumour- suppressor genes are associated with the
occurrence of breast carcinoma. p53 tumour suppressor gene is also
implicated.
II. Hormonal exposure-
1. Length of reproductive life: Risk increases with early menarche and late
menopause.
2. Parity: Breast cancer incidence is more in nulliparous than in multiparous.
3. Age at first child: Risk is increased in women older 30 years at the time of their first
child.
4. Obesity: There is a increased risk in postmenopausal obese women probably due to
synthesis of oestrogen in fat depots.
5. Oestrogen producing ovarian tumours are associated with breast cancer.
III. Other factors-
1. Age: More common over 50 years and rare before 25 years.
2. Proliferative breast disease: It is associated with an increased risk.
3. Diet: Dietary fat is implicated.
4. Alcohol: Moderate or heavy alcohol consumption is associated an increased risk.
5. Radiation: Exposure to radiation increases the risk.
6. Race: More common in America and in Europe, mostly whites.
7. Breast feeding: Risk is higher in women who do not breast fed their children.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 70 -
Invasive Squamous
Carcinoma Invasive
Adenocarcinoma
Figure- Pathogenesis of cervical carcinoma
Disadvantages of FNAC:
1. Danger of dissemination of tumour cells in the needle tract or natural cavities.
2. It may cause internal bleeding and complication like air embolism,
penumothorax.
3. Accuracy of the method has been questioned- the point of the needle may miss
the target.
4. The procedure has the following limitations-
a. Considerable training and expertise is needed to rely on the diagnosis.
b. The procedure is not suitable for many non-neoplastic conditions where
preserved detail tissue architecture is necessary for diagnosis.
c. False negative results may be obtained in the following situations:
i. If there is extensive fibrosis and sclerosis in a tumour.
ii. If the tumour is highly vascular.
iii. If there is tumour necrosis.
Indication of FNAC:
1. When surgery in not possible-
a. Patient refuses surgery or tolerates anaesthesia poorly.
b. Exploratory mass in a poor risk patient.
c. Difficult or dangerous site of location of mass.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 72 -
Result-
Cell nucleus - Blue
Cytoplasm - Pink
Collagen fibers - Pink
Reticulin fibers - Pink
RBC - Bright red
WBC - Nucleus blue, cytoplasm vary with cell type.
Pathogenesis of AGN:
It is mediated by type III hypersensitivity reaction. In response to the above antigen
(streptococcal or non-streptococcal) antibody is formed→ deposition of circulating
immune complex (ag+ab) in glomeruli→ ag+ab+c (complement mediated injury) →
Neutrophils come to the area→ Phagocytosis of immune complex. Some cell die and
release of lysosomal enzymes→ damaging the endothelial cells and glomerular basement
membrane (GBM)→ In response to injury endothelial cells and mesaginal cells proliferate
(cellular swelling) later→ epithelial cell proliferation→ Acute glomerulonephritis.
*Q- 15. What are the sites of tuberculosis? Give the difference between primary &
secondary tuberculosis/Give the difference between primary & post primary tuberculosis.
Answer. The sites of Tuberculosis:
1. Lungs
2. Kidneys
3. Bones
4. Lymphnodes
5. Brain
6. Intestine
7. Liver and spleen
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 73 -
Q- 17. Enumerate the causes of rheumatoid arthritis. State the pathology of rheumatoid
arthritis.
Answer. Rheumatoid arthritis: It is a chronic systemic inflammatory disorder that may
affect many tissues and organ- skin, blood vessels, heart, lungs and muscles, but principally
attack the joints, producing a non-suppurative proliferative and inflammatory synovitis that
often progress to destruction of the articular cartilage and ankylosis of the joints.
Q- 18. Define atherosclerosis. Write down the risk factors and complications of
atherosclerosis.
Answer. Atherosclerosis (AS): Atherosclerosis is defined as progressive inflammatory
disease of arterial wall characterized by formation of intimal lesion called atheromas or
fibrofatty plaques which produces obstruction and ultimately weakens the underlying
media- the vascular lumen.
Risk factors for the development of Atherosclerosis (AS): These include major risk
factors which may be modifiable or non-modifiable and lesser, uncertain or nonquantitated
factors.
A. Major risk factors-
a. Non-modifiable- like increasing age, male gender, family history, genetic
abnormality.
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*Q- 19. Give the pathogenesis & pathology of infective hepatitis with laboratory
diagnosis.
Answer. Pathogenesis of infective hepatitis/ Hepatitis A: There are three possibility exist-
1. A direct cystopathic effect.
2. The induction of immune response against viral antigens that damage virally
infected hepatocytes.
3. Alteration of liver cell antigens and the initiation of an autoimmune reaction. Virus
infected cell→ alter the antigenic structure of cell membrane of hepatocytes by the
following way:
a. by introduction of viral antigens.
b. by exposing the sequestrated antigen.
c. By including the synthesis of new antigen.
Pathology:
A. Macroscopic-
Liver cell is slightly enlarged, swollen, tense and bile stained.
B. Microscopic-
1. “Diffuse Ballooning” degeneration of liver cells.
A. 2. Cord arrangement of liver cell lost because:
a. Swelling of the cells.
b. Regeneration of cells.
3. Focal necrosis- especially in the centriobular region liver cells are cytolysed by the
virus and “dropped out”. These areas then infiltrated with inflammatory cells.
4. Kuffer’s cell hyperplasia with lipofuscin pigment and other debris.
5. Regeneration of hepatocytes in the recovery phage.
6. Bile stasis within the canaliculi of the liver.
7. Portal area shows the infiltration of lymphocytes, plasma cells and monocytes.
8. Councilman’s body- coagulative necrosis of the hepatocyte with disappearance of
nucleus and produce a round dense eosinophilic body known as councilman body found
in HAV.
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Hepatitis A- cent percent cure rate. Rarely <1% it may cause fulminant hepatitis.
In case of viral non-A non-B hepatitis
a. Recovery
b. Chronic hepatitis
c. Fulminant hepatitis
d. Carrier state.
Q-20. Briefly describe the Haematoxylin and Eosin stain. Shortly describe the progressive
and regressive stain.
Answer. The Haematoxylin and Eosin stain:
Harris’s Haematoxylin-
Haematoxylin - 2.5 gm
Absolute alcohol - 25 ml
Potassium alum - 50 gm
Distilled water - 500 ml
Mercuric oxide - 1.25 gm
Glacial acetic acid - 20 ml
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Eosin-
1% Stock alcoholic Eosin
Eosin Y - 1 gm
Distilled water - 20 ml
Dissolved and add Alcohol 95% - 80 ml
Working solution-
Eosin stock solution (1part) + 80 % alcohol (3parts)
Just before use add 0.5 ml of glacial acidic acid to each 100 ml of stain and
stirr.
It is generally known that basic dyes are differentiated by a weakly acid medium,
and acid dyes are differentiated by a weakly basic one. For example, when staining in alum
haematoxylin, one may use a solution of acid alcohol to differentiate the section. If a
section has been overstained in eosin (an acid dye), it can be differentiated in a basic
medium composed of alcohol containing 0.1%-0.5% concentrated ammonium hydroxide.
Q-21. Name five cytopathological specimens that are commonly received in the
laboratorirs. How will you process pleural fluid sample for cytopathological examination.
Answer. Commonly received cytopathological specimens:
1. Cervical smear (paps smear)
2. Body fluids (e.g. pleural fluid, ascitic fluid, CSF, peritoneal fluid).
3. Sputum
4. Aspiration from lymph nodes
5. Aspiration from glands
6. Urine
7. Aspiration from breast lump
8. Stomach aspirates
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Q-22. Define and classify fixative. Which one is ideal fixative for biopsy specimen and
why? What are the equipments required for gross examination of a large soft tissue tumour.
Answer. Fixative: Fixatives are chemical substances which preserve the cellular structure
and tissue arrangements most closely to the original form present in the body. So, the
fixatives are agents that fix the tissues which prevent autolysis and preserve the tissues by
killing and hardening.
Classification of Fixatives:
A. Classification based on mode of action-
a. Primary fixative: Fixative that can be used for the fixation of tissues for the
first time. e.g. 10% Formalin, Zenker’s fluid.
b. Secondary fixatives: The fixatives that are used after the tissue first been
fixed for 3-4 hours in formalin. e.g. Formol sublimate and Helly’s fluid.
B. Classification based on chemical properties-
a. Simple fixative, that consists of one substance, e.g. 10% Formalin.
b. Compound fixative, that consists of two or more substances, e.g. Bouin’s
fluid, Zenker’s fluid, Carnoy’s fluid.
C. Classification based on practical use-
a. Routine fixative, e.g. 10% Formalin.
b. Special fixative, e.g. Zenker’s fluid, Helly’s fluid, Bouin’s fluid.
D. Special classification-
a. Microanatomical fixative, which preserve the anatomy of the tissue.
b. Cytological fixative, which may be cytoplasmic or nuclear and preserve
the respective intracellular constituents.
c. Histochemical fixative, employed for demonstration of histological
constituents and enzymes.
Ideal fixative for Biopsy: Formalin is considered as an ideal fixative as-
1. It is relatively inexpensive, readily available and easy to prepare.
2. It is compatible with most stains and penetrates the tissues well.
3. Normal colour of the tissue is remained.
4. Best fixative for neurological tissues.
Disadvantages of formalin:
a. Causes excessive hardening of tissues.
b. Causes irritation of skin, mucous membrane and conjunctiva.
c. Leads to formation of formalin pigment in tissues having excessive
blood at an acidic PH which can be removed by treatment of
section with picric-alcohol in solution of NaOH.
The equipments required for gross examination of a large soft tissue tumour:
1. Jar with appropriate fixative
2. Measuring tap
3. Cassettes
4. Knife
5. Tray
6. Marker pen and tagging papers
7. Forceps
8. Spatula
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Q-23. Name the malignant tumours of uterine cervix. Which test is done for carcinoma
cervix?
Answer. Malignant tumours/ carcinomas of cervix:
1. Ectocervix (uterine cervix)-
i. Squamous neoplasia:
a. Cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN)
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Endocervix-
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Adenosquamous carcinoma
c. Undifferentiated carcinoma.
d. Leiomyoma.
Q-24. Define microtomy. What are the types of microtome? How will you care it?
Answer. Microtomy: The process by which the tissues are cut in thin lamellae or thin
sections of uniform thickness for histological or histopathological study.
Types of microtome:
1. Rotary microtome
2. Rocking microtome
3. Sliding microtome
4. Freezing microtome
5. Base sledge microtome
6. Vibrating knife microtome
Care of microtome:
1. Keep the moving parts well lubricated and clean.
2. Put a cover on the microtome when not in use to prevent dust
accumulation.
3. Do not permit rust, dust or paraffin to accumulate between the
bearing surface of the knife holder, brackets, etc.
4. Surface should be cleaned frequently, then wiped with good neutral
oil (e.g. coconut oil); this will prevent rust formation.
5. After cutting section on the microtome, all accumulated paraffin and
tissue should be removed with a soft brush. Metal parts are cleaned
with xylene (don’t use xylene too frequently, it will remove the
painted finish).
6. All moving parts of the microtome must be lubricated, and kept free
from paraffin. Xylene (or, petroleum ether) helps to remove paraffin.
7. The rigidity of the knife holder and the knife are important but never
adjust any screw so tightly that may cause binding. The instrument
should be tight only to the point of smooth, firm operation.
Q-25. Mention the principle of tissue processing. What are the clearing agents? What are
the criteria for choosing an ideal clearing agent?
Answer. The principle of tissue processing:
a. To prevent post mortem changes such as putrefaction and autolysis.
b. Preserve various cell constituents in as life like manner as possible.
c. Protect by hardening the soft tissues, allowing easy handling during
different steps of processing.
d. Convert the normal semi-fluid consistency of cells to an irreversible semi-
solid consistency. and
e. The visual differentiation of structure by using dyes and chemicals.
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Clearing agents: Clearing is the process in which alcohol from tissues and cells is
removed and is replaced by a fluid in which wax is soluble and it also makes the
tissue transparent. Commonly used clearing agents are-
1. Xylene
2. Toluene
3. Benzen
4. Chloroform
5. Ceder wood oil
6. Carbon tetrachloride
7. Amyl acetate
8. Methyl benzoate
9. Inhibisol (Methyl chloroform)
Q-26. Give the laboratory investigation of nephritic syndrome. Give the steps of PAP stain.
Answer. Laboratory investigation of nephritic syndrome:
1. Blood Examination-
a. Blood urea: increased
b. Serum Creatinine: may be increased.
2. Urine Examination-
a. Urine volume: Reduced.
b. Haematuria: Grossly visible.
c. Proteinuria: Mild to moderate.
d. RBC and RBC cast: Present
Procedure-
1. Fix the smear in equal parts of ether and 95% alcohol for 30 minutes.
2. After fixation, transfer the slide without drying directly from alcohol-ether solution
to 95% alcohol, then through 80% alcohol, 70% alcohol, and water, to distilled
water.
3. Stain in Harris’s haematoxylin (modified) for 2-3 minutes.
4. Rinse gently in tap water to prevent cells from being washed off.
5. Differentiate carefully the nuclear staining in 1% hydrochloric acid in 70% alcohol;
nuclei should be clear and sharp in detail; the cytoplasm should be light blue and
clear.
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6. Place gently running tap water for 5 minutes to wash out the acid thoroughly and to
blue nuclei.
7. Rinse in distilled water and transfer through 70% alcohol, 80% alcohol, to 95%
alcohol.
8. Stain in OG6 for 2 minutes.
9. Rinse five times as follows:
a. Twice in 95% alcohol
b. Once in 1% acetic acid in 95% alcohol.
c. Once in 1% phosphotungstic acid in 95% alcohol.
d. Once in 95% alcohol.
10. Stain in EA50 for 2 minutes.
11. Rinse 9 times as follows:
a. 3 changes of 95% alcohol.
b. 2 changes of absolute alcohol.
c. 4 changes of xylene.
12. Mount in DPX.
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iv. Biopsy: It is the small piece of tissue taken out from a living body for
histoplathological or cytopathological study for investigational purpose (diagnostic biopsy)
or for eradication of a lesion (excisional biopsy). Biopsy can be defined as, “obtaining an
adequate piece of representative tissue which should include both apparently normal tissue
as well as grossly abnormal tissue”.
Types of biopsy-
1. Open biopsy: a. Incisional biopsy
b. Excisional biopsy
2. Endoscopic biopsy
3. Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy (FNAB)
4. Punch biopsy
5. Trephine biopsy
6. Sigmoidoscopic biopsy
7. Wedge biopsy
8. Drill biopsy
9. Crosby capsule biopsy.
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B. Based on composition:
1. Pure gall stone
2. Mixed gall stone
3. Combined gall stone
Complications-
a. Stone in the gall bladder:
1. Acute cholecystitis
2. Chronic cholecystitis
3. Mucocele
4. Empyema
5. Carcinoma
b. Stone in the common bile duct:
1. Obstructive jaundice
2. Cholangitis
c. Stone in the ampula of Vater:
1. Acute pancreatitis
d. Stone in the intestine:
1. Acute intestinal obstruction
xiii. Malignant cell: The term literally means growing worse and resisting
treatment. It is used as a synonym for cancerous and connotes a harmful condition that
generally is life-threatening.
There are several features that can be used to differentiate normal cells from
malignant cells-
1. Invasion: Malignant cells do not respect tissue boundaries, and can be seen
infiltrating or invading into surrounding structures
2. Increased mitotic rate: Mitoses are rarely seen in normal tissues. Malignant cells
will often have increased numbers of mitoses. Mitoses are typically counted 'per high
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power field'. More aggressive tumours typically have a higher mitotic rate; however these
tumours are typically more sensitive to radiation.
3. Differentiation and Anaplasia: Normal cells are usually structured in a particular
way that corresponds with their function. This is known as differentiation. Malignant cells
may become less differentiated as part of their path to malignancy. This is known as
anaplasia.
a. Well differentiated malignant cells show features similar to the parent
tissue. For example, well differentiated adenocarcinoma cells will tend to form
gland-like structures; well differentiated squamous cell carcinomas may show
intercellular bridging or keratin formation.
b. Poorly differentiated cells have lost most of their resemblance to the
parent tissue, which may be difficult to identify without special staining techniques.
c. Anaplastic cells have no resemblance to their parent tissue, and usually
indicate a very aggressive malignancy.
xiv. Shock:
a. Shock may be defined as, “widespread hypoperfusion of tissue due to
reduction in the blood volume or cardiac output or redistribution of blood
resulting in an inadequate effective circulatory volume.”
b. Shock is a disorder that results from systemic hypoperfusion due to
reduction either in cardiac output or in the effective circulatory blood
volume.
Classification of shock-
a. Cardiogenic shock, e.g. Myocardial infarction, Ventricular rupture, Arrhythmia,
Cardiac temponade, Pulmonary embolism.
b. Hypovolaemic shock, e.g. Haemorrhage, fluid loss (vomiting, diarrhoea, burns,
trauma).
c. Septic shock, e.g. overwhelming microbial infection, endotoxic shock, Gram
positive septicaemia, Fungal species, Super antigen.
d. Neurogenic shock, e.g. Anaesthetic accident, spinal injury.
e. Anaphylactic shock, e.g. Generalized IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction
(Type-I hypersensitivity).
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 85 -
plasma cells, fibroblasts and giant cells particularly Langhan’s and foreign body type of
giant cells. The center may or may not contain caseation necrosis.
Types of Granuloma-
a. Depending on the presence or absence of caseation necrosis:
1. Caseous granuloma, e.g. Tuberculosis.
2. Non-caseous granuloma, e.g. Other granuloma.
b. Depending on the immune response/ Pathogenesis:
1. Immune granuloma, e.g. Tuberculosis
2. Non-immune granuloma, e.g. Foreign body granuloma and other
granuloma.
Advantages of IHC-
1. Can be applied to routinely processed material, even if stored for a long periods.
2. Provide an accurate correlation with traditional morphologic parameters.
3. Compatible with most currently used fixative.
4. IHC can be applied to decalcified material, previously stained microscopy
sections.
5. Can also be applied to cytologic preparation and to electron microscopy.
Disadvantages of IHC-
1. May give rise to false negative results.
2. Properly trained and experienced laboratory personnel are needed to interpret
the results.
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has become soft enough to cut. This is done by bending the tissue or by piercing a knife or
needle.
2. Formic acid method: Formic acid (SG 1.2) - 5-10 ml
Distilled water to - 100 ml.
It takes a longer time, 5-14 days for decalcification. The method is very
satisfactory where speed is not essential.
The acid from the tissue must be removed with 70% alcohol giving three
changes during 24 hours.
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BSc in Laboratory Medicine Part-II - 87 -
Morphology-
Gross:
6. Prostate is enlarged, weight becomes 3-10 times normal (60-100gms).
7. Nodules in lateral lobe may compress urethra to a slit like orifice.
8. Nodules in middle lobe may project up into floor of urethra.
9. Cross sections shows well defined nodules of various size, colour and
consistency.
10. There is no true capsule.
Microscopic:
1. Glandular, fibroblastic and muscular proliferation.
2. Gland may be small to large and cystically dilated.
3. The epithelium is thrown up into papillary buds and infolding.
4. Basement membrane is intact.
5. Glands contain corpora amylasia.
6. Aggregates of lymphocytes found within the stroma.
Complications-
1. Chronic retention
2. Acute retention
3. Cystitis
4. Pyelonephritis
5. Hydronephrosis
6. Trabeculation and diverticulum formation of the bladder.
7. Hydroureter
8. Renal failure.
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