Insight IAS Prelims 2020 Test 1 PDF

TEST – 1
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: S1: We will take two examples – camels and kangaroos.
The camel is dubbed the `ship of the desert'. It can adapt itself easily to the hot conditions
due to various reasons. Its special adaptation features are its hump, long legs, long hair and
special eyelids.
The hump enables it to store food. Long hair on its body helps it keep warm in the cold desert
nights.
The long legs of the camel are strong and have powerful muscles allowing it to carry heavy
loads for long distances.
On the other hand, to survive the harsh Australian summers, kangaroos will cool off by licking their
forelegs. A special network of blood vessels in the legs allows the animals to reduce their body
temperatures quickly through the evaporation of saliva since kangaroos lack regular sweat glands.
S2: The most universal behavioral adaptation used by small mammals, reptiles, and insects to deal
with high temperatures is staying in the shadow (shade) of plants or rocks, thus avoiding the direct
rays of the Sun. These animals also seek shelter by burrowing into the ground.
S3: Another behavioral adaptation used by desert animals is to remain inactive during the hot
daylight hours. These nocturnal desert animals keep cool by being active at night, whereas some
other desert animals get away from the sun's heat by digging underground burrows. Other common
adaptations seen in desert animals include big ears, light-colored coats, humps to store fat, and
adaptations that help conserve water.
Some animals have developed salt glands, a physical adaptation that allows the secretion of salt
without the loss of water. The absence of sweat glands, and the concentration of urine are other
physical adaptations made by desert animals. Because fat intensifies heat, a unique physical
adaptation of some desert animals is the storage of fat in humps or tails, rather than throughout the
entire body.
S4: Big ears serve a dual purpose: they are great for listening for bugs to eat that may be moving
around underground, but they are also loaded with blood vessels, allowing the animals to dissipate
excess body heat. For a fox, for instance, they are good radiators during hot days.
Q Source: AR: Ch 9: 6th NCERT – Science
5 The number of star(s) in our solar system is/are only
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TEST – 1
A. One
B. Two
C. Between three to eight
D. More than eight
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The principal component of the Solar System is the Sun, a G2 main-sequence star that
contains 99.86% of the system's known mass and dominates it gravitationally. The Sun's four
largest orbiting bodies, the giant planets, account for 99% of the remaining mass, with Jupiter and
Saturn together comprising more than 90%. The remaining objects of the Solar System (including
the four terrestrial planets, the dwarf planets, moons, asteroids, and comets) together comprise less
than 0.002% of the Solar System's total mass.
So, with only one star, the overall structure of the charted regions of the Solar System consists of
the Sun, four relatively small inner planets surrounded by a belt of mostly rocky asteroids, and four
giant planets surrounded by the Kuiper belt of mostly icy objects.
Q Source: Page 4: 6th NCERT Geography
6 With reference to the Palaeolithic age, consider the following statements.

1. It spans nearly three-tenth of human history.
2. Bone tools could be found, but stone tools were not made in this period.
3. Evidence of the existence of ostriches were found in India during this period.
4. There were few climatic changes in this period with only one inter-glacial period leading to a largely
stable environment.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
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TEST – 1
orrect Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The Palaeolithic period extends from 2 million years ago to about
12,000 years ago. This long stretch of time is divided into the Lower, Middle and Upper Palaeolithic.
This long span of time covers 99% of human history.
Statement 2: The Paleolithic Age is characterized by the use of knapped stone tools, although at the
time humans also used wood and bone tools.
Stone tools found during this period are generally tiny, and are called microliths. Microliths were
probably stuck on to handles of bone or wood to make tools such as saws and sickles.
Statement 3: This statement comes from your NCERT book. Ostriches were found in India during
the Palaeolithic period. Large quantities of ostrich egg shells were found at Patne in Maharashtra.
Designs were engraved on some pieces, while beads were also made out of them
Statement 4: The period when we find environmental changes, beginning about 12,000 years ago
till about 10,000 years ago is called the Mesolithic (middle stone).
The climate during the Paleolithic Age consisted of a set of glacial and interglacial periods in which
the climate periodically fluctuated between warm and cool temperatures.
Q Source: Ch2: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT
7 Consider the following statements.

1. The first manned mission to moon was back in the 1960s by NASA.
2. No Indian citizen has ever landed on moon.
3. Chandrayaan-1 was India's first mission to the moon.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: No Indian has ever land on moon. The US is still the only country
that has put people on the moon. The last "man on the moon," NASA astronaut Gene Cernan,
touched down there in 1972.
The first manned mission to moon was back in 1969 by NASA. Infact till now India has no
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TEST – 1
manned mission to space. So we're aiming for our 1st manned mission probably in 2022
named GAGANYAN.
Although 3 Indians have been to space: a) Rakesh Sharma (USSR), b) Kalpana Chawla
(NASA), c) Sunita Williams(NASA). After our manned mission we'll be the 4th country in the
world to send human into space.
Rakesh Sharma (born 13 January 1949) is a former Indian Air Force pilot who flew aboard
Soyuz T-11, launched on 2 April 1984, as part of the Interkosmos programme. Sharma is the
first Indian citizen to travel in space.
Statement 3: Chandrayaan-1 was India's first mission to the moon. It operated for almost a year
(between October 2008 and August 2009). The lunar orbiter is best known for helping to discover
evidence of water molecules on the moon.
The 3,890-kg Chandrayaan-2, which will be launched onboard the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch
Vehicle (GSLV) Mk-3, will orbit around the moon and study its lunar conditions to collect data on its
topography, mineralogy and exosphere.
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Q Source: Page 4: 6 NCERT Geography
https://www.businessinsider.in/India-is-preparing-to-land-on-the-moon-for-the-first-time-in-the-count
rys-history/articleshow/61887191.cms
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-s-second-lunar-mission-to-land-on-moon-with-land
er-rover-isro/story-vqoGvAyk6hHuUL4SDa17GJ.html
8 Which of the following languages belong to the family of Indo-European languages?

1. Tibetan
2. Kashmiri
3. Hindi
4. Burmese

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 2 and 3: Sanskrit is part of a family of languages known as Indo-European.

Some Indian languages such as Assamese, Gujarati, Hindi, Kashmiri and Sindhi, and many
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TEST – 1
European languages such as English, French, German, Greek, Italian and Spanish belong to this
family. They are called a family because they originally had words in common. For instance, take
the words ‘matr’ (Sanskrit), ‘ma’ (Hindi) and ‘mother’ (English).
Statement 1 and 4: Sino-Tibetan, in a few sources also known as Trans-Himalayan, is a family of

more than 400 languages, second only to Indo-European in number of native speakers.
The Sino-Tibetan languages with the most native speakers are the varieties of Chinese (1.3 billion),
Burmese (33 million), and the Tibetic languages (6 million).
Other languages of the family are spoken in the Himalayas, the Southeast Asian Massif and the
eastern edge of the Tibetan Plateau. Most have small speech communities in remote mountain areas
and as such are poorly documented.
Q Source: Page 44: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT
9 Scientists recently captured the picture of a supermassive black hole in all its glory, for the first time
in history. The blackhole was that was captured was
A. Sagittarius A*, at the centre of the milky way galaxy

B. Messier 87, because it was the closest blackhole from the earth
C. Eventius Cx, since it was the youngest blackhole that could be observed from earth
D. None of the above statements is correct.
orrect Answer : D
Justification and Learning: A question that many people have been asking is why the scientists
did not choose to capture a photograph of a closer black hole.
Sagittarius A*, the black hole located in Milky Way 25,000 light-years away from Earth, may be
closer, but it doesn't necessarily mean it's a better subject to photograph.
During a news conference, the Event Horizon Telescope director Shep Doeleman explains that
Messier 87 is a better option, precisely because it is so far away. Thus, the supermassive black hole
is more fixed in position and does not move from its spot in the sky compared to the much nearer
Sagittarius A*.
Furthermore, BGR notes that with Sagittarius A* in the same galaxy as Earth, the scientists don't
have an ideal vantage point of this black hole. There are too many cosmic objects in between the
two with billions of stars, planets, and dust floating in the same flat disk of the Milky Way.
So, the scientists picked a black hole that Earth has a better view of: Messier 87. To get an image of
the black hole Messier 87, which is 6.5 billion times the mass of the sun and 54 million light-years
away, scientists used multiple telescopes to collect high-frequency radio waves from the object.
Q Source: AR: Page 6: 6th NCERT Geography
8
TEST – 1
https://www.techtimes.com/articles/241299/20190413/heres-why-scientists-did-not-take-image-of-sa
gittarius-a-black-hole-at-the-heart-of-milky-way.htm
https://www.nasa.gov/mission_pages/chandra/multimedia/black-hole-SagittariusA.html
10 By measuring the angle of the Pole Star from your place, you can know the
1. Latitude of your place
2. Longitude of your place
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The Sun and most of the stars change their position in the sky over time. But some
stars always appear to be in the same place. An example is Polaris, also called the North star, which
always appears to be sitting directly overhead the North pole. It turns out that your latitude is the
angle at which Polaris appears to sit above the horizon.
The North Star has the advantage it stays fixed in the sky - all night long - as illustrated here :
This North-star has two advantages, known since ancient times.
First of all, it tells the direction of accurate North.
Secondly, it may in an easy way tell your geographical latitude
Your Geographical Latitude = Height of North Star above horizon.
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TEST – 1
So, if you live in, say, Paris at 48 degrees North, Polaris will be 48 degrees above the Northern
horizon.
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Q Source: AR: Page 6: 6 NCERT Geography

1. Continental islands are Bodies of land connected by the continental shelf to a continent.
2. Islets are some of the largest islands.
3. Archipelago is a group of islands.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3 only
orrect Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Continental islands are bodies of land that lie on the continental shelf
of a continent. Examples are Borneo, Java, Sumatra, Sakhalin, Taiwan and Hainan off Asia; New
Guinea, Tasmania, and Kangaroo Island off Australia; Great Britain, Ireland, and Sicily off Europe;
Greenland, Newfoundland, Long Island, and Sable Island off North America; and Barbados, the
Falkland Islands, and Trinidad off South America.
A special type of continental island is the microcontinental island, which is created when a
continent is rifted. Examples are Madagascar and Socotra off Africa, New Caledonia, New Zealand,
and some of the Seychelles.
S2 and S3: Islets are very small islands. In the Caribbean and West Atlantic, islets are often called
cays or keys. Rum Cay in the Bahamas and the Florida Keys off Florida are examples of islets.
An archipelago, sometimes called an island group or island chain, is a chain, cluster or collection of
islands, or sometimes a sea containing a small number of scattered islands.
Indonesia, Japan, the Philippines, New Zealand, Maldives, the British Isles, the Bahamas, the
Aegean Islands (Greece), the Florida Keys, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, the Canary Islands, the Madeira
and the Azores are all examples of well-known archipelagos.
Learning: Oceanic islands are islands that do not sit on continental shelves. The vast majority are
volcanic in origin, such as Saint Helena in the South Atlantic Ocean.
The few oceanic islands that are not volcanic are tectonic in origin and arise where plate
movements have lifted up the ocean floor above the surface. Examples are Saint Peter and Paul
Rocks in the Atlantic Ocean and Macquarie Island in the Pacific.
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TEST – 1
Another subtype is an island or bar formed by deposition of tiny rocks where water current loses
some of its carrying capacity. This includes:
barrier islands, which are accumulations of sand deposited by sea currents on the continental
shelves
fluvial or alluvial islands formed in river deltas or midstream within large rivers. While some
are transitory and may disappear if the volume or speed of the current changes, others are
stable and long-lived.
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Q Source: AR: 6 NCERT Geography
12 Consider the following statements. The regions/states

1. Bhopal, Ahmedabad and Dhaka are located at nearly the same or very close latitudinal lines.
2. Kochi, Nagpur, and Udaipur are located at nearly the same longitudinal lines.
3. Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and Gujarat are situated between 20 degrees north to 28 degrees north
latitude.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
orrect Answer : C
Justification: S1 and S2: All these places have been either marked or are easily visible in the map
below.
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TEST – 1
S3:
Q Source: Map based: India
13 Which of the following metabolic risk factors contribute to increasing the risk of Non-Communicable
Diseases (NCDs)?
1. Overweight/obesity
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TEST – 1
2. Hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels)

3. Hyperlipidemia (high levels of fat in the blood)

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Noncommunicable - or chronic - diseases are diseases of long duration and generally
slow progression. The four main types of noncommunicable diseases are cardiovascular diseases
(like heart attacks and stroke), cancer, chronic respiratory diseases (such as chronic obstructed
pulmonary disease and asthma) and diabetes.
Tobacco use, physical inactivity, the harmful use of alcohol and unhealthy diets all increase the risk
of dying from a NCD.
In terms of attributable deaths, the leading metabolic risk factor globally is elevated blood pressure
(to which 19% of global deaths are attributed), (1) followed by overweight and obesity and raised
blood glucose.
Noncommunicable diseases, or NCDs, are by far the leading cause of death in the world,
representing 63% of all annual deaths. Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) kill more than 36 million
people each year. Some 80% of all NCD deaths occur in low- and middle-income countries.
Learning: Some facts about NCDs:
Each year, 15 million people die from a NCD between the ages of 30 and 69 years; over 85%
of these "premature" deaths occur in low- and middle-income countries.
NCDs disproportionately affect people in low- and middle-income countries where more than
three quarters of global NCD deaths – 32million – occur.
Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), also known as chronic diseases, tend to be of long

duration and are the result of a combination of genetic, physiological, environmental and
behaviours factors.
Non-communicable diseases such as diabetes, cancer and heart disease, are collectively
responsible for over 70% of all deaths worldwide, or 41 million people. These include 15
million people dying prematurely, aged between 30 and 69.
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TEST – 1
One third of these deaths are premature and occur before the age of 70, affecting
economically productive individuals.
The four ‘major’ NCDs are caused, to a large extent, by four modifiable behavioural risk
factors: tobacco use, unhealthy diet, insufficient physical activity and harmful use of alcohol.
Q Source: AR:
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/06/12/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-12-june-2019/
https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/noncommunicable-diseases
14 Which of the following is on track to become the first G7 country to legislate for net zero emissions
by 2050?
A. USA
B. Germany
C. Japan
D. United Kingdom
Correct Answer : D
Learning: This would be achieved by an amendment of the UK Climate Change Act passed in 2008
in order to reach the target of net zero emissions by 2050.
It would be ending the sale of new diesel and petrol cars and vans through the government’s policy
document, “Road to Zero Strategy”, and protecting biodiversity and promoting sustainability
through a 25-year Environment Plan.
In 2008, the UK’s original target was an 80 per cent reduction in emissions by 2050. Since then, the
projected whole economy cost of reaching the target has reduced dramatically because of advances
in green technology.
Other members of the Group of seven industrially developed countries – Canada, France, Germany,
Italy, Japan, and the United States – are also expected to follow the UK’s move.
The UK will conduct a further assessment within 5 years to confirm that other countries are taking
similarly ambitious action.
Q Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/uk-on-track-to-be-first-g7-country-to-legislate-
for-net-zero-emissions-by-2050-65047
15 As per the recent amendment to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964
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TEST – 1
1. Foreigner Regional Registration Offices (FRROs) will be gradually phased out and self-reporting will
be encouraged.
2. Whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not is to decided only by the State
Department of Foreign Affairs, a power that was vested in the Central government before.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: FRRO still exists in some states, such as Bihar, where foreigners have
to keep reporting their movements in and out of the state.
Statement 2: Changes proposed as per the amendment:
It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to
decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.
The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the
Tribunals.
The amended order also allows District Magistrates to refer individuals who haven’t filed claims
against their exclusion from NRC to the Tribunals to decide if they are foreigners or not.
Learning: Current Practice: So far, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the
Centre. The 1964 order on Constitution of Tribunals said: “The Central Government may by
order, refer the question as to whether a person is not a foreigner within meaning of the Foreigners
Act, 1946 (31 of 1946) to a Tribunal to be constituted for the purpose, for its opinion.”
Q Source:
16 Among the given options, the difference in time can be the maximum between which of these
countries/regions:
A. Brazil and South Africa

B. Australia and Alaska
C. India and Brazil
D. Iceland and China
Correct Answer : B
15
TEST – 1
Learning: Some of these countries have multiple time zones: even if you choose the one that gives
you the maximum difference, B would still be the answer. The corresponding regions have been
marked on the map from NCERT:
Time difference between Australia and Alaska (+8-(-10)=18 hours to +10-(-10)=20 hours). This is
because they are placed right next on either side of the International Date line, so there is likely to
be a difference of at least 1 day in time. See map below.
Q Source: Page 14: 6th NCERT: Geography
17 If the Earth stopped spinning suddenly, the consequence would be that

1. The gases and dust in the earth’s atmosphere would stop rotating suddenly and drop towards the
earth immediately.
2. All of the land masses could be scoured clean of anything not attached to bedrock in some time.
3. All the ocean currents would move from the equator towards the poles in a very short time.
4. Our magnetic protection from cosmic rays and other high-energy particles would vanish gradually.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
16
TEST – 1
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: If the Earth stopped spinning suddenly, the atmosphere would
still be in motion with the Earth's original 1100 mile per hour rotation speed at the equator. This is
due to the law of inertia (something in motion continues to be in motion unless stopped by an
external force, and something at rest continues to be at rest unless moved by an external force).
This is also why, all of the land masses would be scoured clean of anything not attached to bedrock.
This means rocks, topsoil, trees, buildings, your pet dog, and so on, would be swept away into the
atmosphere.
Statement 3: This is an absurd statement, and even if something like this may happen, a
redistribution of the ocean currents might take a long time.
Statement 4: As for other effects, presumably the magnetic field of the Earth is generated by a
dynamo effect that involves its rotation. If the Earth stopped rotating, it's magnetic field would no
longer be regenerated and it would decay away to some low, residual value due to the very small
component which is 'fossilized' in its iron-rich rocks. There would be no more 'northern lights' and
the Van Allen radiation belts would probably vanish, as would our protection from cosmic rays and
other high-energy particles. This is a significant biohazard.
Learning: If the process happened gradually over billions of years, the situation would be very
different, and it is this possibility which is the most likely as the constant torquing of the Sun and
Moon upon the Earth finally reaches it's conclusion.
If the rotation period slowed to 1 rotation every 365 days a condition called 'sun synchronous',
every spot in the Earth would have permanent daytime or night time all year long.
This is similar to the situation on the Moon where for 2 weeks the front-side is illuminated by the
Sun, and for 2 weeks the back side is illuminated. This situation for the Earth is not the condition of
'stopped' rotation, but it is as close as the laws of physics will let the Earth get.
https://image.gsfc.nasa.gov/poetry/ask/q1168.html

1. Each village, demarcated as per the Census, must have its own dedicated Gram Sabha and Gram
Panchayat.
2. Anyone who is eligible to vote in Lok Sabha elections from a particular village can also vote in Gram
Panchayat elections.
3. All such voters, mentioned in statement 2, are members of Gram Sabha.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
17
TEST – 1
Correct Answer : B
Justification: S1: The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a
Panchayat. This could be only one village or a few villages. In some states, a village meeting is
held for each village.
S2 and S3: Anyone who is 18 years old or more and who has the right to vote is a member of the
Gram Sabha. These adults also have a right to vote in Lok Sabha (LS) elections.
Every village Panchayat is divided into wards, i.e. smaller areas. Each ward elects a representative
who is known as the Ward Member (Panch). All the members of the Gram Sabha also elect a
Sarpanch who is the Panchayat President. The Ward Panchs and the Sarpanch form the Gram
Panchayat. The Gram Panchayat is elected for five years.
Q Source: Page 44: Social and Political Life - I
19 Consider the following statements. At present in India,

1. There is no central statutory agency or uniform legislation regulating the advertising industry.
2. There is a Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising that, inter alia, safeguards against the
indiscriminate use of advertising for the promotion of products regarded as hazardous to society or
to individuals.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: There is no statutory body, but the Indian advertising market as a
whole is regulated and controlled by a non-statutory body, the Advertising Standards Council of
India (ASCI).
In the absence of uniform integrated legislation, it is necessary for advertisers to ensure that an
advertisement is in compliance will all local and national advertisement laws.
Statement 2: The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) established in 1985 has adopted a
Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising. It is a commitment to honest Advertising and to fair
competition in the market-place. It stands for the protection of the legitimate interests of consumers
and all concerned with Advertising - Advertisers, Media, Advertising Agencies and others who help
in the creation or placement of advertisements.
18
TEST – 1
The code requires advertisements to be:
Honest Representations
Truthful and Honest to consumers and competitors.
Non-Offensive to Public
Within the bounds of generally accepted standards of public decency and propriety.
Against Harmful Products/Situations
Not used indiscriminately for the promotion of products, hazardous or harmful to society or to
individuals particularly minors, to a degree unacceptable to society at large.
Fair in Competition
Not derogatory to competition. No plagiarism.
Learning: ASCI is a voluntary self-regulatory council established in 1985 to promote responsible

advertising and to enhance public confidence in advertisements. The council's objectives are:
To ensure the truthfulness and honesty of representations and claims made by advertisements
To ensure that advertisements are not offensive to generally accepted standards of public
decency
To safeguard against the indiscriminate use of advertising for the promotion of products
regarded as hazardous to society or to individuals.
Though non-statutory, the ASCI Code is recognized under various Indian laws in addition to being
adopted by advertising-industry bodies.
Q Source: AR: Ch 7: Social and Political Life - II

1. The Equator runs almost through the middle of Africa.
2. Africa is the only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, the Equator and the Tropic of
19
TEST – 1
Capricorn pass.
3. Australia is the smallest continent that lies entirely in the Southern Hemisphere.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Africa is the second largest continent after Asia.
The Equator or 0 degrees latitude runs almost through the middle of the continent. A large part of
Africa lies in the Northern Hemisphere. It is the only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer,
the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn pass.
Australia is the smallest continent that lies entirely in the Southern Hemisphere. It is surrounded on
all sides by the oceans and seas. It is called an island continent
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Q Source: Page 30: 6 NCERT: Geography
21 With reference to medical tourism in India, consider the following statements.

1. A Medical and Wellness Tourism Board is chaired by the Union Health Minister.
2. A visa-on-arrival scheme for tourists has been instituted for all the countries, except Pakistan, which
allows foreign nationals to stay in India for 30 days for medical reasons.
3. According to the recent figures of the Ministry of Tourism, more than half of the medical tourists
were from Nepal and Sri Lanka.
4. The NITI Aayog has identified medical value travel as a major source of foreign exchange earnings.
20
TEST – 1

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
orrect Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Medical and Wellness Tourism Board has been formed to tap the
potential and advantages that India has in the field of medical and wellness tourism. It will be
chaired by the Union Tourism Minister.
Besides the chairman, it will have members representing the related Government Departments,
Tourism & Hospitality sector and experts in the Medical, Wellness and Yoga.
Statement 2: The government has removed visa restrictions on tourist visas that required a two-
month gap between consecutive visits for people from Gulf countries which is likely to boost
medical tourism. A visa-on-arrival scheme for tourists from select countries (not all countries) has
been instituted which allows foreign nationals to stay in India for 30 days for medical reasons. List
can be seen here https://www.immihelp.com/nri/indiavisa/tourist-visa-on-arrival.html In 2016,
citizens of Bangladesh, Afghanistan, Maldives, Republic of Korea and Nigeria availed the most
medical visas.
Statement 3: Bangladeshis constituted about 55% of the total medical tourists coming to the
country from abroad in 2017-18. Other countries, from where substantial numbers of people came
to India for treatment, include Afghanistan (55,681), Iraq (47,640), Maldives (45,355), Oman
(28,157) and Yemen (11,903). Seychelles, from where only five people came on medical visas in
2015, reported 939 medical tourists in 2017.
According to the report, the Indian medical tourism industry gets maximum patients for heart
surgery, knee transplant, cosmetic surgery and dental care, as the cost of treatment here is
considered the lowest in Asia, much lower than Thailand, Indonesia, Singapore and
Hongkong.
The preferred states for medical treatment are Maharashtra, Kerala, Goa, Karnataka and
Gujarat.
Statement 4: The Niti Aayog has identified medical value travel as a major source of foreign
exchange earnings. India currently has about 18% of the global medical tourism market. Its medical
value travel was $2 billion in 2015, according to a report of industry body FICCI. It is estimated that
by 2020 it could be $9 billion and percentage share may become 20%.
Q Source: AR: Page 20: Social and Political Life - II
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TEST – 1
http://tourism.gov.in/wellness-medical-tourism
https://www.sundayguardianlive.com/news/50-medical-tourists-india-bangladesh
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medical_tourism_in_India

1. North America is the second largest continent of the world.
2. North America is linked to South America by a very narrow strip of land called the Isthmus of
Panama.
3. North America lies entirely in the Northern and Western hemisphere of the earth.
4. The Andes, world’s longest mountain range, runs through the length from north to south of North
America.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: North America is the third largest continent of the world. It is linked to South
America by a very narrow strip of land called the Isthmus of Panama. The continent lies completely
in the Northern and Western Hemisphere
South America lies mostly in the Southern Hemisphere. The Andes, world’s longest mountain range,
runs through its length from north to south.
South America has the world’s largest river, the Amazon.
22
TEST – 1
Q Source: AR: Page 33: 6th NCERT: Geography
23 Consider the following statements about India’s scientific investigations in the polar regions.
1. India presently has two research stations at Antarctica namely ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’ to understand
the Polar processes and phenomenon.
2. In Antarctica scientific studies and investigations are undertaken on the continent and contiguous
shelf ice area.
3. Indian Arctic station ‘Himadri’ is located in Norway which was established in the early 1960s.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: India presently has two research stations at Antarctica namely ‘Maitri’
and ‘Bharati’. New station ‘Bharati’ has just been constructed and established in March, 2013. At
both the stations, research and investigations are undertaken to understand the Polar processes
and phenomenon.
Observations and studies are carried out in atmospheric, biological, geological, ecological
sciences etc. Maitri station has been in operation since 1989.
23
TEST – 1
In Antarctica scientific studies and investigations are undertaken on the continental part and
contiguous shelf ice area. Observations in the ocean in austral summer months are made
during the voyage to ‘Maitri’ and ‘Bharati’ on board the chartered vessel hired for transport of
material and personnel to these stations.
Statement 3: Indian Arctic station ‘Himadri’ is located at Ny Alesund, Spitsbergen Island, Norway
and serves as a hub of Indian scientific investigations since 2008. This is a very new station
and therefore the claim that it was established in the 1960s is clearly wrong. You may face many
such questions involving date/year in UPSC exams, you need to be careful that such a critical
project could not have been launched back in the 1960s looking at India’s economic and social
priorities. In fact, climate change itself (being studied at these stations) was not a red flag
back in the 1960s.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=98006
24 Which of the following properties of atmosphere varies with height or altitude?

1. Density
2. Temperature

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: The density of the atmosphere varies with height. is maximum at the
sea level and decreases rapidly as we go up. You know, the climbers experience problems in
breathing due to this decrease in the density of air. They have to carry with them oxygen cylinders
to be able to breathe at high altitudes.
Statement 2: The temperature also decreases as we go upwards. The atmosphere exerts pressure
on the earth. This varies from place to place. Some areas experience high pressure and some areas
low pressure. Air moves from high pressure to low pressure. Moving air is known as wind.
We will cover these in detail in the coming tests. This is only the beginning.
25 With reference to reciprocal trade agreements (RTAs), consider the following statements.
1. RTAs deepen market integration and complement efforts by the WTO to liberalize international
24
TEST – 1
markets.
2. These include not only free trade agreements, but may also include customs unions and common
markets.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
orrect Answer : C
Justification: Countries use bilateral/regional trade agreements to increase market access and
expand trade in foreign markets. These agreements are called reciprocal trade agreements (RTAs)
because members grant special advantages to each other.
They have become an increasingly prominent feature of the multilateral trading system in recent
years, in part, because of stalled global negotiations taking place under the auspices of the World
Trade Organization (WTO). Many observers believe that RTAs deepen market integration and
complement efforts by the WTO to liberalize international markets. While acknowledging that RTAs
can open up markets, other observers contend that these agreements also distort trade and
discriminate against nonmember countries.
RTAs include many types of agreements, such as preferential arrangements, free trade agreements,
customs unions, and common markets, in which members agree to open their markets to each
other’s exports by lowering trade barriers.
Commerce Minister emphasizes on reciprocal market access for Indian goods.
Q Source:
26 With reference to the Chhota Nagpur Plateau in eastern India, consider the following statements.
1. It covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Odisha, West Bengal, Bihar and
Chhattisgarh.
2. Large reserves of iron, coal and manganese are found in the Chhotanagpur plateau.
3. This plateau is unique in that no waterfalls or dams are to be found in this plateau.
4. Sal forests predominate the plateau.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
25
TEST – 1
orrect Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: The plateau covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of
Odisha, West Bengal, Bihar and Chhattisgarh. The Indo-Gangetic plain lies to the north and east of
the plateau, and the basin of the Mahanadi River lies to the south. The total area of the Chota
Nagpur Plateau is approximately 65,000 square kilometres.
Statement 2: Chhota Nagpur plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite,
copper, limestone, iron ore and coal. The Damodar valley is rich in coal and it is considered as the
prime centre of coking coal in the country.
Massive coal deposits are found in the central basin spreading over 2,883 square kilometres. The
important coalfields in the basin are Jharia, Raniganj, West Bokaro, East Bokaro, Ramgarh, South
Karanpura and North Karanpura.
Statement 3: In the plateau areas, there may be several waterfalls as the river falls from a great
height, such as the Hundru falls.
Statement 4: The plateau is covered with a variety of various habitats of which Sal forest is
predominant.
The Chhota Nagpur dry deciduous forests, a tropical and subtropical dry broadleaf forests
ecoregion, encompasses the plateau.
The ecoregion is drier than surrounding ones, including the Eastern Highlands moist deciduous
forests that covers the Eastern Ghats and Satpura Range to the south, and the Lower Gangetic
Plains moist deciduous forests in the lowlands to the east and north.

1. More fish come closer to the shore during the high tide.
2. High tides help in navigation because they raise the water level close to the shores.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
26
TEST – 1
Justification: Statement 1: The high tides also help in fishing. Many more fish come closer to the
shore during the high tide. This enables fishermen to get a plentiful catch. The rise and fall of water
due to tides is being used to generate electricity in some places.
Statement 2: High tides help in navigation. They raise the water level close to the shores. This helps
the ships to arrive at the harbour more easily.
Q Source: Page 36: Our Environment – 7th NCERT
28 Consider the following symptoms and the deficiency of the particular vitamin that is associated with
the same:
1. Wounds take longer to heal: Vitamin D
2. Weak muscles and very little energy to work: Vitamin B1
3. Loss of vision in darkness: Vitamin C

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: This table from your NCERT could be helpful:
th
Q Source: Ch 2: 6 NCERT – Science
27
TEST – 1

Assertion (A): E-cigarettes fall within the ambit of the COTPA Act, 2003.
Reason (R): Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS) (e-cigarettes) emit nicotine.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Correct Answer : D
Justification: As e-cigarettes contain nicotine and not tobacco, they do not fall within the ambit of
the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement and Regulation of Trade
and Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act, 2003 (COTPA), which mandates stringent
health warnings on the packaging and advertisements of tobacco products.
The current unregulated sale of e-cigarettes is dangerous for a country like India where the number
of smokers is on the decline (WHO Global Report, 2015) as it increases the possibility of e-cigarettes
becoming a gateway for smoking by inducing nicotine addiction and perpetuating smoking by
making it more attractive, thereby encouraging persons to become users of tobacco as well as e-
cigarettes.
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has recommended ‘complete’ ban on Electronic
Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS), including e-cigarettes. The recommendation is based on
currently available scientific evidence.
Q Source:
30 Babool is a tree species mainly found in
A. Mangrove plantations
B. Mountainous regions
C. Dry regions
D. Tropical rainforests
Correct Answer : C
Learning: This type of vegetation is found in dry areas of the country.
The leaves are in the form of spines to reduce the loss of water.
28
TEST – 1
Cactus, khair, babool, keekar are important and are found in the states of Rajasthan, Punjab,
Haryana, Eastern slopes of Western Ghats and Gujarat.
th
31 Match the following traditions with their respective regions:

1. Kesar Saga: Ladakh
2. Cheenacatti: Kerala
3. Vallam Kali: Tamil Nadu

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Islam was introduced in the Ladakh region more than four hundred
years ago and there is a significant Muslim population here. Ladakh has a very rich oral tradition of
songs and poems. Local versions of the Tibetan national epic the Kesar Saga are performed and
sung by both Muslims and Buddhists.
Statement 2: Because of all these various historical influences, people in Kerala practise different
religions such as Judaism, Islam, Christianity, Hinduism and Buddhism.
The fishing nets used here look exactly like the Chinese fishing nets and are called cheena-vala.
Even the utensil used for frying is called the cheenachatti, and it is believed that the word cheen
could have come from China.
Statement 3: Vallam Kali is a traditional boat race in Kerala, India. It is a form of canoe racing, and
uses paddled war canoes. It is mainly conducted during the season of the harvest festival Onam in
autumn. Vallam kali includes races of many kinds of paddled longboats, the traditional boats of
Kerala.
Q Source: AR: Page 10: Social and Political Life - I
32 In India, universal adult women suffrage was achieved with the
A. Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, 1919

B. Women's Indian Association (WIA) campaign, 1921
C. In 1947, on its independence from the British empire
D. 1st Constitutional Amendment in the Indian constitution
29
TEST – 1
orrect Answer : C
Justification: Options A and B: The Women's Indian Association (WIA) was founded in 1917. It
sought votes for women and the right to hold legislative office on the same basis as men. These
positions were endorsed by the main political groupings, the Indian National Congress.
In 1919 in the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, the British set up provincial legislatures which had
the power to grant women's suffrage. Madras in 1921 granted votes to wealthy and educated
women, under the same terms that applied to men. The other provinces followed, but not the
princely states (which did not have votes for men either, being monarchies).
In Bengal province, the provincial assembly rejected it in 1921 but Southard shows an intense
campaign produced victory in 1921. Success in Bengal depended on middle class Indian women,
who emerged from a fast-growing urban elite.
Option C: In 1947, on its independence from the United Kingdom, India granted equal voting rights
to all men and women.
Learning: Women who owned property gained the right to vote in the Isle of Man in 1881, and in
1893, the British colony of New Zealand granted all women the right to vote. Most independent
countries enacted women's suffrage in the interwar era, including Canada in 1917; Britain,
Germany, Poland in 1918; Austria and the Netherlands in 1919; and the United States in 1920.
Leslie Hume argues that the First World War changed the popular mood: The women's
contribution to the war effort challenged the notion of women's physical and mental
inferiority and made it more difficult to maintain that women were, both by constitution and
temperament, unfit to vote. If women could work in munitions factories, it seemed both
ungrateful and illogical to deny them a place in the polling booth. But the vote was much
more than simply a reward for war work; the point was that women's participation in the war
helped to dispel the fears that surrounded women's entry into the public arena
33 The advent or development of which of the following was termed as “Neolithic Revolution”?
A. Agriculture
B. Metallurgy
C. Megaliths
D. Hominization
Correct Answer : A
30
TEST – 1
Justification: Option B and C: Metallurgy and megaliths developed much later after the
development of agriculture, which really heralded the beginning of a settled lifestyle of human
beings.
Option D: Hominization, also called anthropogenesis, refers to the process of becoming human, and
is used in somewhat different contexts in the fields of paleontology and paleoanthropology,
archeology, philosophy, and theology.
Anatomically modern humans (AMH, or AMHS) developed within the species Homo sapiens about
200,000 years ago.
Learning: Option A: Taking root around 12,000 years ago, agriculture triggered such a change in
society and the way in which people lived that its development has been dubbed the “Neolithic
Revolution.”
Traditional hunter-gatherer lifestyles, followed by humans since their evolution, were swept aside in
favor of permanent settlements and a reliable food supply. Out of agriculture, cities and civilizations
grew, and because crops and animals could now be farmed to meet demand, the global population
rocketed—from some five million people 10,000 years ago, to more than seven billion today.
Q Source: AR: Page 3: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hominization
https://genographic.nationalgeographic.com/development-of-agriculture/
34 Which of the following characteristics of a polity is NOT essential to a democratic government?
A. Adherence to principles of liberty and equality

B. Maintaining Rule of Law
C. Public participation
D. An elected Head of the State
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Option B: The Indian Constitution lays down the basic rules or laws that have to be
followed by everyone. These laws are for both the government and the people. Conflicts and
differences have to be resolved according to these laws.
Therefore, rule of law is crucial for democracy.
Option A: Under the framework of rule of law, each individual and a group of individuals must have
the liberty to exercise their rights in a democracy and be treated equally so as to empower them to
exercise such rights. These are the fundamentals of democracy.
31
TEST – 1
Option C: Public participation can take many forms – voting, protests, decision-making, questioning
the government etc. These are vital for a thriving democracy.
Option D: Head of State could be ceremonial and need not be elected by direct or indirect elections
(like the Queen in the UK democratic constitutional monarchy). Head of the government, however,
should be elected for the democracy to be legitimate since he manages the day to day functions of
the government.
Q Source: Ch 4: Social and Political Life - I

1. Throughout its orbit, the earth is inclined in the same direction
2. Seasons change on earth due to the change in the relative position of the earth around the sun and
earth’s axial tilt.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Earth's axis remains tilted in the same direction with reference to the
background stars throughout a year (regardless of where it is in its orbit). This means that one pole
(and the associated hemisphere of Earth) will be directed away from the Sun at one side of the
orbit, and half an orbit later (half a year later) this pole will be directed towards the Sun. This is the
cause of Earth's seasons.
Statement 2: Some assume our planet’s changing distance from the sun causes the change in the
seasons. That’s logical, but not the case, for Earth. Instead, Earth has seasons because our planet’s
axis of rotation is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to our orbital plane – the plane of
Earth’s orbit around the sun.
When the Northern Hemisphere is oriented toward the sun, that region of Earth warms because of
the corresponding increase in solar radiation. The sun’s rays are striking that part of Earth at a
more direct angle. It’s summer.
When the Northern Hemisphere is oriented away from the sun, the sun’s rays are less direct, and
that part of Earth cools. It’s winter.
Seasons in the southern hemisphere occur at opposite times of the year from those in the northern
hemisphere. Northern summer = southern winter.
32
TEST – 1
36 The work of a Gram Panchayat may include

1. Construction and maintenance of common property resources in village such as water sources and
drainage
2. Levying and collecting local taxes
3. Executing government schemes related to generating employment in the village

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: A gram panchayat may be empowered by the State legislature within the framework
rd th th
of the 73 constitutional amendment. We will learn more about that when we cover 9 -10 NCERTs
and Laxmikanth, but for now you should know that the GP can lead various kinds of works in the
village such as :
1. The construction and maintenance of water sources, roads, drainage, school buildings and
other common property resources.
2. Levying and collecting local taxes.
3. Executing government schemes related to generating employment in the village.
Sources of funds for the Panchayat may include:
Collection of taxes on houses, market places etc.
Government scheme funds received through various departments of the government –

through the Janpad and Zila Panchayats.
Donations for community works etc.
The Gram Panchayat meets regularly and one of its main tasks is to implement development
programmes for all villages that come under it. As you have seen, the work of the Gram Panchayat
has to be approved by the Gram Sabha.
33
TEST – 1
37 Almost all the weather phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in this layer of the
atmosphere
A. Stratosphere
B. Thermosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Mesosphere
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Troposphere is the most important layer of the atmosphere for human beings. Its
average height is 13 km. The air we breathe exists here.
Almost all the weather phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in this layer.
Stratosphere: Above the troposphere lies the stratosphere. It extends up to a height of 50 km. This
layer is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon, making conditions most ideal
for flying aeroplanes.
One important feature of stratosphere is that it contains a layer of ozone gas. It protects us from the
harmful effect of the sun rays.
38 With reference to Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDMS), consider the following statements.
1. The Scheme presently covers children studying only in Government, Government aided and local
body schools.
2. The scheme has stipulated calories and nutrition norm to be fulfilled for the children per day for a
minimum particular duration of the year.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: In 2001 MDMS became a cooked Mid Day Meal Scheme under which
34
TEST – 1
every child in every Government and Government aided primary school was to be served a prepared
Mid Day Meal with a minimum content of 300 calories of energy and 8-12 gram protein per day for
a minimum of 200 days.
The Scheme was further extended in 2002 to cover not only children studying in Government,
Government aided and local body schools, but also children studying in Education Guarantee
Scheme (EGS) and Alternative & Innovative Education (AIE) centres.
Statement 2: In October 2007, the scheme has been further revised to cover children in upper
primary (classes VI to VIII) initially in 3479 Educationally Backwards Blocks (EBBs).
Around 1.7 crore upper primary children were included by this expansion of the scheme.
From 2008-09 i.e w.e.f 1st April, 2008, the programme covers all children studying in
Government, Local Body and Government-aided primary and upper primary schools and the
EGS/AIE centres including Madarsa and Maqtabs supported under SSA of all areas across the
country.
The calorific value of a mid-day meal at upper primary stage has been fixed at a minimum of
700 calories and 20 grams of protein by providing 150 grams of food grains (rice/wheat) per
child/school day.
The Scheme was extended to all areas across the country from 1.4.2008.
The Scheme was further revised in April 2008 to extend the scheme to recognized as well as
unrecognized Madarsas / Maqtabs supported under SSA .
http://mdm.nic.in/mdm_website/
https://mhrd.gov.in/sites/upload_files/mhrd/files/upload_document/rte_2019.pdf
39 Match the following major waterfalls in India with the region they could be found in:
1. Kunchikal Falls: Odisha
2. Barehipani Falls: Karnataka
3. Dudhsagar Falls: Goa
4. Jog Falls: Meghalaya

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 only
35
TEST – 1
Correct Answer : D
Justification: You need to research major keywords that appear in your NCERT. UPSC picks up
questions is a similar fashion. Here is the list of the waterfalls in India by height:
Q Source: AR: Page 15: Ch 3: Our Environment – 7th NCERT
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_waterfalls_in_India_by_height
40 Implications of Article 15 of the Constitution, i.e. prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex or place of birth - include
1. No citizen can be favoured against the other citizen, by the state, if not on merit.
2. All citizens have an equal right not to be denied entry to places dedicated for use by general public.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The provision says that, “the State shall not discriminate against any
citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”
36
TEST – 1
However, positive discrimination, i.e. which benefits weaker sections is not denied, and the state
can discriminate on grounds of sex/gender if it is not the only criteria. For instance, sometime
before, women were not allowed to work in specific industries and mines after a certain time in the
evening. This restriction, even though, was based on grounds of gender was justified on the
additional ground of safety. The restriction was lifted later, but what is important to know that this
restriction was not unconstitutional under A15.
Statement 2: The sub-clauses of this article provide that:
No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be
subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to –
(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or
(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or
partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
Q Source: Page 14: Social and Political Life - II
41 The Arctic Circle passes through

1. Russia
2. Greenland
3. Sweden
4. U.S.A

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The Arctic Circle passes through the Arctic Ocean, the Scandinavian Peninsula,
North Asia, Northern America, and Greenland. The land within the Arctic Circle is divided among
eight countries: Norway, Sweden, Finland, Russia, the United States (Alaska), Canada (Yukon,
Northwest Territories, and Nunavut), Denmark (Greenland), and Iceland (where it passes through
the small offshore island of Grímsey).
Linear projection of the Arctic circle:
37
TEST – 1
th
Q Source: AR: Page 32: 6 NCERT: Geography
42 With reference to healthcare in India, consider the following statements.

1. According to our Constitution, it is the primary duty of the government to improve public health.
2. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India has proposed a 'Charter of Patient
Rights', adopted by the National Human Rights Commission, to be implemented by state
governments.
3. Presently, India does not have a dedicated regulator, like some other countries, for the healthcare
delivery system.
4. As per Supreme Court, injured persons have the right to get emergency medical care in India, both
in government and private sector hospitals.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: This is provided in the DPSPs (something that we will cover when we
th
cover 9-10 NCERTs and Laxmikanth. Presently, it is sufficient for you to know that the constitution
has such a provision.
In India, there are various other legal provisions related to Patient’s Rights which are scattered
across different legal documents e.g. The Constitution of India, Article 21, Indian Medical Council
(Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations 2002; The Consumer Protection Act 1986;
Drugs and Cosmetic Act 1940, Clinical Establishment Act 2010 and rules and standards framed
38
TEST – 1
therein; various judgments given by Hon’ble Supreme Court of India and decisions of the National
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
Statement 2: This Charter of Patient’s Rights adopted by the National Human Rights Commission
draws upon all relevant provisions, inspired by international charters and guided by national level
provisions, with the objective of consolidating these into a single document, thereby making them
publicly known in a coherent manner.
There is an expectation that this document will act as a guidance document for the Union
Government and State Governments to formulate concrete mechanisms so that Patient’s Rights are
given adequate protection and operational mechanisms are set up 2 to make these rights functional
and enforceable by law.
Statement 3: India does not have a dedicated regulator like other countries and the existing
regulations in the interest of patients, governing the healthcare delivery system is on the anvil,
some States have adopted the national Clinical Establishments Act 2010, certain other States have
enacted their own State level legislations like the Nursing Homes Act to regulate hospitals, while a
few other States are in the process of adopting / developing such regulation.
Statement 4: As per the SC, all hospitals both in the government and in the private sector are duty
bound to provide basic emergency medical care, and injured persons have the right to get
emergency medical care.
Such care must be initiated without demanding payment/advance, and basic care should be
provided to the patient irrespective of paying capacity.
https://mohfw.gov.in/sites/default/files/PatientCharterforcomments.pdf
https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/gk-current-affairs/story/rights-of-patients-drafted-by-gove
rnment-india-1334339-2018-09-07
43 Astronauts have to wear special protective space suits filled with air when they go to the moon or
outer space. This is because of the
1. Lack of air pressure in these regions
2. Very cold temperature in these regions
3. Dangerous radiation in these regions

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : B
39
TEST – 1
Justification: On the moon there is almost no air and hence no air pressure.
If they did not wear these space suits, the counter pressure exerted by the body of the astronauts
would make the blood vessels burst. The astronauts would bleed.
Astronauts must wear spacesuits whenever they leave a spacecraft and are exposed to the
environment of space. In space, there is no air to breath and no air pressure. Space is extremely
cold and filled with dangerous radiation. Without protection, an astronaut would quickly die in
space. Spacesuits are specially designed to protect astronauts from the cold, radiation and low
pressure in space. They also provide air to breathe. Wearing a spacesuit allows an astronaut to
survive and work in space.
th
Q Source: Page 24: Our Environment – 7 NCERT
http://coolcosmos.ipac.caltech.edu/ask/295-Why-do-astronauts-need-spacesuits-

Assertion (A): Igneous rocks are also known as primary rocks.
Reason (R): Fossil deposits are only found in igneous rocks.

D. Both A and R are incorrect.
orrect Answer : C
Justification: When the molten magma cools, it becomes solid. Rocks thus formed are called
igneous rocks. As igneous rocks are formed from magma and begin the rock cycle, they are called
primary rocks.
Since all other rocks are derived from them, they are also referred to as parent rocks on occasion.
Among the three major types of rock, fossils are most commonly found in sedimentary rock. Unlike
most igneous and metamorphic rocks, sedimentary rocks form at temperatures and pressures that
do not destroy fossil remnants. We will discuss more on this in the coming tests.
th
Q Source: AR: Page 8: Our Environment – 7 NCERT
45 Consider the following about the Press Freedom Index.

1. It is released by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR).
2. It measures press freedom, quality of journalism and human rights violations in general, among
40
TEST – 1
other things.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
orrect Answer : D
Justification: The press freedom index is an annual ranking of countries compiled and published by
Reporters Without Borders based upon the organisation's own assessment of the countries' press
freedom records in the previous year.
It intends to reflect the degree of freedom that journalists, news organisations, and netizens have in
each country, and the efforts made by authorities to respect this freedom.
Statement 2: Reporters Without Borders is careful to note that the index only deals with press
freedom and does not measure the quality of journalism nor does it look at human rights violations
in general.
In 2018, the Freedom in the World report by Freedom House gave India a freedom rating of 2.5, a
civil liberties rating of 3, and a political rights rating of 2, earning it the designation of free. The
rating scale runs from 1 (most free) to 7 (least free). Analysts from Reporters Without Borders rank
India 133rd in the world in their 2017 Press Freedom Index, In 2016, the report Freedom of the
Press by Freedom House gave India a press freedom rating of "Partly Free", with a Press Freedom
Score of 41 (0-100 scale, lower is better).
We will cover the issue of media censorship in another test.
46 What is referred to as starch is essentially
A. a dietary fibre
B. pure glucose
C. a form of complex carbohydrate
D. an indicator for iodine
Correct Answer : C
Learning: Carbohydrates are sugars that come in 2 main forms - simple and complex. This is also
41
TEST – 1
referred to as simple sugars and starches.
The difference between a simple and complex carb is in how quickly it is digested and absorbed - as
well as it's chemical structure.
Sugars are found in a variety of natural food sources including fruit, vegetables and milk, and give
food a sweet taste. But they also raise blood glucose levels quickly.
Sugars can be categorised as single sugars (monosaccharides), which include glucose, fructose and
galactose, or double sugars (disaccharides), which include sucrose (table sugar), lactose and
maltose.
Complex carbohydrates, also known as polysaccharides, are starches formed by longer saccharide
chains, which means they take longer to break down.
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47 The average temperature roughly decreases from the equator towards the poles in the same manner
as that of distribution of
A. solar insolation
B. cyclones
C. land mass
D. oceans
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Option A: An important factor that influences the distribution of temperature is

insolation. Insolation is the incoming solar energy intercepted by the earth.
The amount of insolation decreases from the equator towards the poles. Therefore, the temperature
decreases in the same manner. This will be taken up in detail in 11th NCERT.
Option B: This will be discussed when we learn cyclones, but there is no direct connection between
the question statement and cyclones.
Option C and D: Land masses and oceans do affect the micro-climate (or the temperature of the
adjoining regions), but they do not explain the gradual decline of the temperature from the equator
towards the poles.

1. Earth’s atmosphere is only about 1/100th as dense as Mars’.
2. Earth’s gravitational force holds the atmosphere around it.
42
TEST – 1

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 2: The atmosphere is the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth. The
gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it. It protects us from the harmful rays
and scorching heat of the sun.
It consists of a number of gases, dust and water vapour. The changes in the atmosphere produce
changes in the weather and climate.
Statement 1: Fortunately for us, Earth’s gravity is strong enough to hold onto its atmosphere. Mars,
for example, is less than half Earth’s size and around one-tenth Earth’s mass. Less mass means less
gravitational pull. Mars’ atmosphere is only about 1/100th as dense as Earth’s. And, by the way, it is
mostly CO2.
Q Source: AR: Ch 1: Our Environment – 7th NCERT
49 In an Ecosystem
A. All living organisms interact with each other

B. The physical and chemical factors of the ecosystem interact with all its living organisms
C. There is a transfer of energy and material amongst its constituents
D. All of the above occurs.
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Ecosystem is a system formed by the interaction of all living organisms with each
other and with the physical and chemical factors of the environment in which they live, all
linked by transfer of energy and material.
The ecosystem is the set of species in a given area that interact among themselves, through
processes such as predation, parasitism, competition and symbiosis, and with their abiotic
environment to disintegrate and become part of cycles of energy and nutrients. The species of the
ecosystem, including bacteria, fungi, plants and animals, are dependent on each other. The
relationships between species and their environment facilitate the flow of matter and
energy within the ecosystem.
43
TEST – 1
The concept of the ecosystem has evolved since its origin. The term, coined in the 1930s, belongs to
British botanists Roy Clapham (1904-1990) and Sir Arthur Tansley (1871-1955). It was originally
applied to units of diverse spatial scale; from a weathered piece of tree trunk to a pond, a region or
even the entire biosphere of the planet, the only requirement being that organisms, physical
environment and interactions could exist within them.
Learning: More recently, the ecosystem has had a geographical focus and has become
analogous to formations or vegetation types, e.g., scrub, pine forest, grassland, etc. This
simplification ignores the fact that the limits of some vegetation types are indistinct, while the
boundaries of ecosystems are not. The transition zones between ecosystems are known as ecotones.
Ecosystems – such as forests, wetlands and grasslands – are a critical part of the global water
cycle. All freshwater ultimately depends on the continued healthy functioning of ecosystems,
and recognizing the water cycle as a biophysical process is essential to achieving sustainable
water management.
Ecosystems mitigate the effects of floods and drought. ‘Ecosystem services’ can contribute to
wastewater treatment as an alternative or supplement to conventional water treatment
systems. There could be a question on ecosystem services in the coming tests.
th
Q Source: AR: Ch 1: Our Environment – 7 NCERT
https://www.biodiversidad.gob.mx/v_ingles/ecosystems/whatis.html

1. Earth’s crust is the thinnest of all the major layers of earth.
2. Crust is thicker on ocean floors than on the continents.
3. The main mineral constituents of the crust magnesium and iron.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The uppermost layer over the earth’s surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of
all the layers. It is about 35 km. on the continental masses and only 5 km on the ocean
floors.
The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are silica and alumina. It is thus
called sial (si-silica and al-alumina). The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium; it is
44
TEST – 1
therefore called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium).
Just beneath the crust is the mantle which extends up to a depth of 2900 km.
The innermost layer is the core with a radius of about 3500 km. It is mainly made up of nickel and
iron and is called nife (ni – nickel and fe – ferrous i.e. iron). The central core has very high
temperature and pressure.
The crust forms only 0.5 per cent of the volume of the earth, 16 per cent consists of the
mantle and 83 per cent makes the core.
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51 Deccan plateau is largely made of
A. Basalt rocks
B. Slate rocks
C. Limestone rocks
D. Conglomerate rocks
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Deccan plateau is largely made of igneous rocks and Basalt is an igneous rock.
Typically the Deccan Plateau is made up of basalt extending up to Bhor Ghat near Karjat. This is an
extrusive igneous rock. Also in certain sections of the region, we can find granite, which is an
intrusive igneous rock.
The Deccan Traps are a large igneous province located on the Deccan Plateau
They consist of multiple layers of solidified flood basalt that together are more than 2,000 m thick,
cover an area of c. 500,000 km2.
The Deccan Traps are famous for the beds of fossils that have been found between layers of lava.
Q Source: AR: Ch 1: Our Environment – 7th NCERT
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deccan_Traps
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Deccan_Plateau
52 With reference to Cotton production in India, consider the following statements.

1. China and India are the World’s largest producers of Cotton.
2. The Indian textile sector contributes only about 1 per cent of India’s GDP and less than 10 per cent
to India’s exports earnings.
45
TEST – 1
3. Odisha and West Bengal are the largest producers of cotton.

4. The demand for Indian cotton is high in international market, due to its high quality, despite its
prices soaring above the international prices.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. None of the above
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 4: China and India have been World’s leading producers. India was
the largest producer in 2018, and second largest exporter of cotton. Both nations keep reclaiming
each other’s top spot due to variations in cotton output every year.
The demand for Indian cotton is high as prices are almost 10 per cent lower than the international
prices. See
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/cotton-exports-likely-to-jump-43-
in-2018-19/articleshow/64586458.cms?from=mdr
Statement 2 and 3: Cotton plays an important role in the Indian economy as the country's textile
industry is predominantly cotton based. Indian textile industry (cotton) contributes about 11
percent to industrial production, 14 per cent to the manufacturing sector, 4 percent to the GDP and
12 per cent to the country's total export earnings. The cotton cultivation in India in 2013-14 was
estimated at 37 million bales (170 kg each) of cotton, making it the second largest producer of
cotton worldwide.
Statement The states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh (AP), Haryana, Punjab, Madhya
Pradesh (MP), Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (TN) are the major cotton producers in India.
Q Source: AR: Ch 9: Social and Political Life – II
https://www.usda.gov/oce/forum/2019/outlooks/Cotton.pdf

1. Full moon occurs when the ecliptic longitudes of the Sun and Moon differ by 180°.
2. The time interval between two full moons averages about just a little more than 30 days.
3. During a supermoon, the moon comes closer to earth than during a normal full moon.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
46
TEST – 1
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: This implies that Earth is located between the Sun and the Moon.
When the ecliptic longitudes of the Sun and Moon differ by 180°, it means that the lunar
hemisphere facing Earth – the near side – is completely sunlit and appears as a circular disk. The
full moon occurs roughly once a month.
Statement 2: The time interval between a full (or new) moon and the next repetition of the same
phase, a synodic month, averages about 29.53 days. Therefore, in those lunar calendars in which
each month begins on the day of the new moon, the full moon falls on either the 14th or 15th day of
the lunar month. Because a calendar month consists of a whole number of days, a month in a lunar
calendar may be either 29 or 30 days long.
Statement 3: The supermoon of 14 November 2016 was 356,511 km away from the center of Earth,
This occurrence happens yearly with the next one in 2019, the previous being in 2018.
On 12 December 2008, the full moon was closer to the Earth than it had been at any time in the
previous 15 years. This was referred to in popular media as a supermoon.[3]
On 19 March 2011, there was another full "supermoon", closer to the Earth than at any time in the
previous 18 years.
On 14 November 2016, there was another full "supermoon"; this time it was closer to the Earth than
at any time in the previous 68 years.

1. In an earthquake, greatest damage usually occurs closest to the epicentre and the strength of the
earthquake decreases away from the centre.
2. An earthquake event only generates transverse waves by setting in pressure differences across the
crust.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
47
TEST – 1
Justification: Statement 1: When the Lithospheric plates move, the surface of the earth vibrates.
The vibrations can travel all round the earth. These vibrations are called earthquakes. The place in
the crust where the movement starts is called the focus. The place on the surface above the focus is
called the epicentre.
Vibrations travel outwards from the epicentre as waves. Greatest damage is usually closest to the
epicentre and the strength of the earthquake decreases away from the centre.
Statement 2: There are three types of earthquake waves.
1. P waves or longitudinal waves
2. S waves or transverse waves
3. L waves or surface waves
Details will follow in 11th NCERTs.
55 The Right to Education (RTE) Act provides for the Right of children to free and compulsory education
till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school. Consider the following about it.
1. The Act clarifies that ‘compulsory education’ means obligation of the appropriate government to
provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission, attendance and completion of
elementary education to every child in the 6 to 14 age group.
2. It specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local authority and parents
in providing free and compulsory education, and sharing of financial and other responsibilities
between the Central and State Governments.
3. It provides for rational deployment of teachers by ensuring that the specified pupil teacher ratio is
maintained for each school, rather than just as an average for the State or District or Block, thus
ensuring that there is no urban-rural imbalance in teacher postings.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: These statements have been lifted verbatim from the description of the Act given at
MHRD’s website.
48
TEST – 1
The Act clarifies that ‘compulsory education’ means obligation of the appropriate government to
provide free elementary education and ensure compulsory admission, attendance and completion of
elementary education to every child in the six to fourteen age group. ‘Free’ means that no child
shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from
pursuing and completing elementary education.
As per the RTE amendment act, 2019, the appropriate Government may allow schools to hold
back a child in the fifth class or in the eighth class or in both classes, in such manner and
subject to such conditions as may be prescribed, if he fails in the re-examination referred to in
sub-section (2):
Provided that the appropriate Government may decide not to hold back a child in any class till
the completion of elementary education: No child shall be expelled from a school till the
completion of elementary education.
S2 and S3: It makes provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class.
It specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate Governments, local authority and
parents in providing free and compulsory education, and sharing of financial and other
responsibilities between the Central and State Governments.
It lays down the norms and standards relating inter alia to Pupil Teacher Ratios (PTRs),
buildings and infrastructure, school-working days, teacher-working hours.
It provides for rational deployment of teachers by ensuring that the specified pupil teacher
ratio is maintained for each school, rather than just as an average for the State or District or
Block, thus ensuring that there is no urban-rural imbalance in teacher postings. It also
provides for prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational work, other than
decennial census, elections to local authority, state legislatures and parliament, and disaster
relief.
Learning: It prohibits (a) physical punishment and mental harassment; (b) screening procedures
for admission of children; (c) capitation fee; (d) private tuition by teachers and (e) running of
schools without recognition,
It provides for development of curriculum in consonance with the values enshrined in the
Constitution, and which would ensure the all-round development of the child, building on the child’s
knowledge, potentiality and talent and making the child free of fear, trauma and anxiety through a
system of child friendly and child centred learning.
https://mhrd.gov.in/rte
49
TEST – 1
56 Which of the following force(s) are fundamental to the formation of deltas and ox-bow lakes?
A. Erosional forces
B. Depositional forces
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Correct Answer : C
Justification: As the river enters the plain it twists and turns forming large bends known as
meanders. Due to continuous erosion and deposition along the sides of the meander, the ends of the
meander loop come closer and closer. In due course of time the meander loop cuts off from the river
and forms a cut-off lake, also called an ox-bow lake. At times the river overflows its banks.
This leads to the flooding of the neighbouring areas. As it floods, it deposits layers of fine soil and
other material called sediments along its banks. This leads to the formation of a flat fertile
floodplain. The raised banks are called levees. As the river approaches the sea, the speed of the
flowing water decreases and the river begins to break up into a number of streams called
distributaries.
The river becomes so slow that it begins to deposit its load. Each distributary forms its own mouth.
The collection of sediments from all the mouths forms a delta.

1. A receding glacier can leave behind moraines that are visible long after the glacier retreats.
2. Loess is a type of silt which forms fertile topsoil in some parts of the world.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
orrect Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Moraines are accumulations of dirt and rocks that have fallen onto the
glacier surface or have been pushed along by the glacier as it moves. The dirt and rocks composing
moraines can range in size from powdery silt to large rocks and boulders. A receding glacier can
leave behind moraines that are visible long after the glacier retreats. See
50
TEST – 1
https://nsidc.org/cryosphere/glaciers/gallery/moraines.html
Statement 2: Loess is a geologically recent deposit of silt or material which is usually yellowish or
brown in color and consisting of tiny mineral particles brought by wind to the places where they
now lie. It is a product of past glacial activity in an area.
It is a sedimentary deposit of mineral particles which are finer than sand but coarser than
dust or clay, deposited by the wind.
Loess is a type of silt which forms fertile topsoil in some parts of the world. Loess deposits are
usually a few meters thick. One of the key characteristics of these deposits is the ‘cat steps'.
The soil has few clay particles to hold it together.
It is composed mainly of quartz crystals which slide easily against each other, and is therefore
very subject to erosion. Because of this, there are mini-earth slides, which form the steps.
Loess was formed during the time after the Ice Age when glaciers covered a great portion of the
earth.
Pictures: Moraines and Loess
51
TEST – 1
th
Q Source: Ch 3: Our Environment – 7 NCERT
58 Which of the following is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water vapour
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Methane
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option B: Water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas, but importantly, it acts
as a feedback to the climate. Water vapor increases as the Earth's atmosphere warms, but so does
the possibility of clouds and precipitation, making these some of the most important feedback
mechanisms to the greenhouse effect.
Option A: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a minor but very important component of the atmosphere, carbon
dioxide is released through natural processes such as respiration and volcano eruptions and
through human activities such as deforestation, land use changes, and burning fossil fuels. Humans
have increased atmospheric CO2 concentration by more than a third since the Industrial Revolution
began. This is the most important long-lived "forcing" of climate change.
Option D: On a molecule-for-molecule basis, methane is a far more active greenhouse gas than
carbon dioxide, but also one which is much less abundant in the atmosphere.
th
Also, read https://climate.nasa.gov/causes/
52
TEST – 1
59 Consider the following statements about the role of the government servant
Lekhpal/Patwari/Kanungo as assigned in the states.
1. The Patwari maintains and updates the land records of the village.
2. The Patwari is responsible for organising the collection of land revenue from the farmers and
providing information to the government about the crops grown in this area.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Measuring land and keeping land records is the main work of the Patwari. The
Patwari is known by different names in different states – in some villages such officers are called
Lekhpal, in others Kanungo or Karamchari or Village Officer etc.
Each Patwari is responsible for a group of villages.The Patwari maintains and updates the records
of the village.
The map and the corresponding details from the register on the next page are a small part of the
records kept by the Patwari.
The Patwari is also responsible for organising the collection of land revenue from the farmers and
providing information to the government about the crops grown in this area.
This is done from the records that are kept, and this is why it's important for the Patwari to
regularly update these. Farmers may change the crops grown on their fields or someone may dig a
well somewhere, and keeping track of all this is the work of the revenue department of the
government. Senior people in this department supervise the Patwari's work.
Q Source: AR: Page : Social and Political Life - I
60 With reference to the Thermosphere, consider the following statements.

1. In thermosphere temperature rises very rapidly with increasing height.
2. Ionosphere is a part of this layer.
3. This layer helps in radio transmission.
4. The space shuttle and the International Space Station both orbit Earth within the thermosphere.

A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
53
TEST – 1
orrect Answer : D
Justification: It extends between 80-400 km. This layer helps in radio transmission. In fact, radio
waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
The space shuttle and the International Space Station both orbit Earth within the thermosphere!
This is also where you’ll find low Earth orbit satellites. See
https://scied.ucar.edu/shortcontent/thermosphere-overview
It is called the thermosphere because temperatures can reach up to 1,500 degrees Celsius (2,732
degrees Fahrenheit). However, despite the high temperatures, the pressure is very low, so satellites
don't suffer heat damage.
Learning: Although the thermosphere is considered part of Earth's atmosphere, the air density is
so low in this layer that most of the thermosphere is what we normally think of as outer space. In
fact, the most common definition says that space begins at an altitude of 100 km (62 miles), slightly
above the mesopause at the bottom of the thermosphere.
Below the thermosphere, gases made of different types of atoms and molecules are thoroughly
mixed together by turbulence in the atmosphere.
Air in the lower atmosphere is mainly composed of the familiar blend of about 80% nitrogen
molecules (N2) and about 20% oxygen molecules (O2). In the thermosphere and above, gas
particles collide so infrequently that the gases become somewhat separated based on the types of
chemical elements they contain.
th
54
TEST – 1
61 The journals/papers published/edited by Gandhiji included

1. Young India
2. Harijan
3. The Hindu

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Young India was a weekly paper or journal in English published by Mohandas
Karamchand Gandhi from 1919 to 1931. Gandhi wrote various quotations in this journal that
inspired many.
He used Young India to spread his unique ideology and thoughts regarding the use of nonviolence
in organising movements and to urge readers to consider, organise, and plan for India's eventual
independence from Britain.
In 1933 Gandhiji started publishing a weekly newspaper, Harijan, in English. Harijan - which means
"People of God", and was also Gandhi's term for the untouchable caste - lasted until 1948. During
this time Gandhi also published Harijan Bandu in Gujarati, and Harijan Sevak in Hindi. All three
papers focused on India's and the world's social and economic problems.
The journal was reprinted in USA by the India Home Rule League of America.
Q Source: AR: Social and Political Life - I

1. Cyclones are least common in India in the month of June.
2. Most of the cyclones that hit India originate in the Bay of Bengal, rather than the Arabian Sea.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
55
TEST – 1
th th
Justification: We will study the mechanism of cyclones in 9 and 11 NCERT books, for now a brief
exposure will suffice, in the light of cyclone Vayu.
Though cyclones are common in the June, very few of them originate in the Arabian Sea. Most of
them are found in the Bay of Bengal. In the last 120 years for which records are available, just
about 14% of all cyclonic storms, and 23% of severe cyclones, around India have occurred in the
Arabian Sea. Arabian Sea cyclones are also relatively weak compared to those emerging in the Bay
of Bengal.
This, along with the fact that the Gujarat coastline, which is where most of the cyclones emerging in
the Arabian Sea are headed, is not very densely populated, ensures that the damage potential of the
cyclones on the western coast is comparatively low.
Q Source:
63 Which of the following trees largely occur in tropical rain forests of India?
1. Mahogany
2. Rosewood
3. Teak
4. Malabar Kino

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Tropical Rainforests of India, are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the
Western Ghats, which fringe the Arabian Sea, the coastline of peninsular India, and the greater
Assam region in the north-east. Small remnants of rainforest are found in Odisha state.
The Western Ghats monsoon forests occur both on the western (coastal) margins of the ghats and
on the eastern side where there is less rainfall.
Important trees found in these forests are mahogany, ebony and rosewood. Teak and Malabar Kino
are deciduous trees.
64 With reference to the National Defence Fund (NDF), consider the following statements.
1. The fund is being used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces, Para Military forces
56
TEST – 1
and Railway Protection Force, and their dependents.

2. The fund is administered by an Executive Committee with the Union Defence Minister as the
Chairperson and the Finance and Home Ministers as Members.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The National Defence Fund (NDF) was set up in 1962 to take charge of the:
Voluntary donations in cash and kind received for promotion of the national
Defence effort, and to decide on their utilisation.
Currently the fund is being used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces, Para
Military forces and Railway Protection Force, and their dependents.
The fund is administered by an Executive Committee with the Prime Minister as the
Chairperson and the Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members.
Under National Defence Fund major scheme of ‘Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme
(PMSS)’ is being implemented to encourage technical and post-graduate education for the
widows and wards of the deceased/ex-service personnel.
Scholarships are available for education at technical institutions (medical, dental, veterinary,
engineering, MBA, MCA and other equivalent technical professions with suitable AICTE/UGC
approval).
The National Defence Fund accepts online voluntary contributions through the website.
Q Source:
65 Under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi programme, vulnerable landholding farmer families
will be provided direct income support at the rate of Rs. 6,000 per year. The scheme will benefit
57
TEST – 1
A. All farmer families who have been affected by natural calamities

B. All farmer families who are below the poverty line
C. All farmer families who have small or marginal landholdings
D. All farmer families who are landless labourers
Correct Answer : C
Learning: PMKSN is for farmer families who are small and marginal farmers. Landless labourers
are not being covered under PM-KISAN. So, D is wrong.
For the purpose of the calculation of the benefit, the Centre has defined a small and marginal
landholder family as the one comprising of husband, wife and minor children up to 18 years of age,
who collectively own cultivable land up to two hectare as per the land records of the concerned
states.
Income support under the scheme will be transferred directly into the bank accounts of beneficiary
farmers, in three equal installments of Rs. 2,000 each.
The complete expenditure of Rs 75000 crore for the scheme will borne by the Union Government in
2019-20.
Around 12 crore small and marginal farmer families are expected to benefit from this.
Q Source:
66 The level of seawater remains nearly the same everywhere. However, which of the following forces
may prevent the sea surface from being truly level and same everywhere?
1. Wind
2. Ocean currents
3. River discharges
4. Variations in gravity and temperature over the earth

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Because the ocean is one continuous body of water, its surface tends to seek the
58
TEST – 1
same level throughout the world. However, winds, currents, river discharges, and variations in
gravity and temperature prevent the sea surface from being truly level.
River discharges would inflate water level close to the delta. So, 3 is correct. Ocean currents and
waves caused due to the wind would also lead to different water levels of different water parcels
that even lie close to each other. Blowing wind might pul up water from one end and compile it at
the other end changing water height in the ocean at certain points. Gravity pulls down water and
temperature leads to expansion/contraction of water volume, these forces also affect the water
th
level, about which you will learn more when you study the 11 NCERTs. For now, a brief exposure
is enough.
Learning: So that the surface of the ocean can be used as a base for measuring elevations, the
concept of "local mean sea level" has been developed.
Sea level may vary with changes in climate. During past ice ages, sea level was much lower because
the climate was colder and more water was frozen in glaciers and ice sheets. At the peak of the
most recent ice age, about 18,000 years ago, sea level was perhaps 100 meters (300 feet) lower
than it is today.
th
https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/sea-level/
67 Which of following can be characterized as a chemical change?

1. Burning of the wax of a candle
2. Baking a cake
3. Digestion of food
4. Evaporating alcohol

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
orrect Answer : A
Justification: A new compound (product) results from a chemical change as the atoms rearrange
themselves to form new chemical bonds. For e.g. Burning wood; Souring milk; Mixing acid and
base; Digesting food; Cooking an egg; Heating sugar to form caramel; Baking a cake; Rusting of
iron
No new chemical species forms in a physical change. Changing the state of a pure substance
between solid, liquid, and gas phases of matter are all physical changes since the identity of the
matter does not change. For e.g. Crumpling a sheet of aluminum foil; Melting an ice cube; Casting
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TEST – 1
silver in a mold; Breaking a bottle; Boiling water; Evaporating alcohol; Shredding paper; and
Sublimation of dry ice into carbon dioxide vapor.
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68 The climate of a place is NOT necessarily affected by its
A. Latitude
B. Longitude
C. Altitude and Relief
D. Continentality (distance from the sea)
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option B: The factors affecting the climate of a region are location, altitude, distance
from the sea, and relief. Climate isn’t necessarily affected by longitude, but by latitude since it
affects the availability of solar insolation. No geographical factor (pressure, temperature, wind etc.)
depends necessarily on longitude, hence B is the answer.
Therefore, we experience regional differences in the climate of India. Jaisalmer and Bikaner in the
desert of Rajasthan are very hot, while Drass and Kargil in Jammu and Kashmir are freezing cold.
th
We will cover climatic factors in greater detail from 9 NCERT onwards, but for now a brief
exposure is enough.
Option D: Coastal places like Mumbai and Kolkata experience moderate climate due to proximity
from the sea. Being on the coast, these places are very humid.
Option C: Due to their relief and altitude, rain clouds shower heavy rain in Mawsynram in
Meghalaya, while in a particular year it might not rain at all in Jaisalmer in Rajasthan due to
absence of any structures to block rain.
th

1. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune have rings around them.
2. Asteroid belt, where most of the asteroids in our Solar System are found orbiting the Sun, lies
between Jupiter and Saturn.
3. Saturn has the shortest spin time on its axis.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
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TEST – 1
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Four the planets in the Solar System have rings. They are the four giant
gas planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Saturn, which has by far the largest ring system,
was known to have rings for a long time. It was not until the 1970s that rings were discovered
around the other gas planets. The rings around Jupiter, Uranus, and Neptune are much smaller,
darker, and fainter than the rings of Saturn. Rings around gas giants are thought to be transient
over the lifetime of the planetary system.
Statement 2: The asteroid belt is a region of space between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter where
most of the asteroids in our Solar System are found orbiting the Sun. The asteroid belt probably
contains millions of asteroids.
Astronomers think that the asteroid belt is made up of material that was never able to form into a
planet, or of the remains of a planet which broke apart a very long time ago. The asteroids in the
asteroid belt come in a variety of sizes.
Some are very small (less than a mile across), while others are quite large. The largest asteroid is
called Ceres. It is about one-quarter the size of our moon. It is a dwarf planet.
Statement 3: JUPITER - One orbit around sun - 11 years, 11 months about 12 years. One spin on
axis - 9 hours, 56 minutes, number of moons – 16
SATURN - One orbit around sun - 29 years, 5 months. One spin on axis - 10 hours 40 minutes,
number of moons - about 18.
Q Source: Page 2-3: 6th NCERT Geography
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TEST – 1
http://coolcosmos.ipac.caltech.edu/ask/185-What-is-the-asteroid-belt-

1. All sea animals have gills.
2. Semiterrestrial marine animals do not have gills.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: In fish, gills have proved to be a successful system for respiration,
using a network of blood vessels to draw in oxygen from flowing water and diffuse it through gill
membranes.
Some aquatic amphibians also have gills. But, there are some sea animals like dolphins and whales
that do not have gills. They breathe in air through nostrils or blowholes that are located on the
upper parts of their heads. This allows them to breathe in air when they swim near the surface of
water.
Statement 2: Semiterrestrial marine animals such as crabs and mudskippers have gill chambers in
which they store water, enabling them to use the dissolved oxygen when they are on land.
Many microscopic aquatic animals, and some larger but inactive ones, can absorb sufficient oxygen
through the entire surface of their bodies, and so can respire adequately without gills. However,
more complex or more active aquatic organisms usually require a gill or gills. Many invertebrates,
and even amphibians, use both the body surface and gills for gaseous exchange.
th
Q Source: Page 85: AR: Ch 9: 6 NCERT – Science

Assertion (A): The temperature in the regions between the Tropics and Arctic/Antarctica circle is
relatively moderate compared to that of tropical regions.
Reason (R): The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer
and the Tropic of Capricorn.

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TEST – 1
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The mid-day sun never shines overhead on any latitude beyond the Tropic of Cancer
and the Tropic of Capricorn. The angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards the poles.
As such, the areas bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle in the Northern
Hemisphere, and the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle in the Southern Hemisphere,
have moderate temperatures. These are, therefore, called Temperate Zones.
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72 Seas around Japan and the eastern coast of North America have some of the World’s best fishing
grounds because
A. These are the areas where the warm and cold ocean currents meet.
B. These regions have some of the most conservative fishing laws.
C. These areas do not experience strong ocean currents or strong ocean waves.
D. They are not hit by tsunamis or hurricanes.
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The areas where the warm and cold currents meet provide the best fishing grounds of
the world. Seas around Japan and the eastern coast of North America are such examples.
The areas where a warm and cold current meet also experience foggy weather making it difficult for
navigation.
We will cover more on this in the coming tests.
73 A heat wave is a period of excessively hot weather. With reference to the extent of heat waves
recently observed in India, consider the following statements.
#00000
1. Heat waves are not observed in oceanic or marine climatic regions.
2. The frequency of hot days and nights have shown a decline recently compared to the data of last 30
years from Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM).
3. Absence of pre-monsoon showers and the presence of hot and dry winds from western dry zones
can amplify heat waves in India.

A. 2 only
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TEST – 1
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: A heat wave is a period of excessively hot weather, which may be
accompanied by high humidity, especially in oceanic climate countries. While definitions vary, a
heat wave is usually measured relative to the usual weather in the area and relative to normal
temperatures for the season.
Severe heat waves have caused catastrophic crop failures, thousands of deaths from hyperthermia,
and widespread power outages due to increased use of air conditioning.
Statement 2: An Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune study added that another
impact of long spells of heat was an increase in the number of hot days and nights.
An analysis of daily maximum and minimum temperatures of 121 IMD stations distributed across
India between 1970 and 2015 showed the frequency of hot days and nights showed a big jump
whereas that of cold days and nights dropped sharply. “With climate change, the frequency and
intensity of heat waves in India will increase,” as per S Krishnan, a senior scientist at IITM.
Statement 3: In its heatwave bulletins, IMD has pointed out that this year’s hot spell has been
amplified by the absence of pre-monsoon showers, the presence of hot and dry winds from western
dry zones. However, the heatwave spell is likely to cool down this weekend, the IMD heat forecast
on Tuesday said.
Q Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/heatwave-kills-36-people-most-in-andhra-pradesh-6504
9
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-staring-at-longest-heatwave-in-3-decades/story-z
M1sSWQ3p63smxTErFVClJ.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heat_wave

1. Adam's Bridge separates Palk Bay from the Gulf of Mannar.
2. The island of Rameswaram is linked to the Indian mainland by the Pamban Bridge.
3. No Indian river flows into Palk strait.

A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 only
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TEST – 1
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 3: Palk strait connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast with Palk Bay in
the southwest. The strait is 53 to 82 kilometres wide. Several rivers flow into it, including the Vaigai
River of Tamil Nadu.
Statement 1 and 2: Palk Bay is studded at its southern end with a chain of low islands and reef
shoals that are collectively called Adam's Bridge, it has historically been known in Hindu Mythology
as "Ram Setu" i.e. The Bridge of Rama.
This chain extends between Dhanushkodi on Pamban Island (also known as Rameswaram Island) in
Tamil Nadu and Mannar Island in Sri Lanka. The island of Rameswaram is linked to the Indian
mainland by the Pamban Bridge.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palk_Strait
Also read this article:

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/a-bridge-across-the-palk-strait/article6827094.ece

1. More fresh water can be found in the atmosphere than in the rivers on earth.
2. Ice-caps contain less fresh water than the total availability of groundwater in the World.
3. Rivers on earth contain more water than Inland seas and salt lakes.
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TEST – 1
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The division of water resources from your NCERT book:
th
76 Which of the following are important archaeological sites in India?

1. Koldihwa
2. Hallur
3. Inamgaon
4. Burzahom

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: We will cover some of these sites again in 12th NCERT, but for now only an
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TEST – 1
awareness and map location is enough.
th
Q Source: Ch2: Our Pasts I – 6 NCERT

Assertion (A): Deciduous trees are most desirable as pulpwood.
Reason (R): Shorter the cellulose fiber in the pulp of a tree, the more desirable it is for making
paper.

C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The timber resources used to make wood pulp are referred to as pulpwood. While in
theory, any tree can be used for pulp-making, coniferous trees are preferred because the cellulose
fibers in the pulp of these species are longer, and therefore make stronger paper. Coniferous trees
occur in the higher latitudes (50° – 70°) of Northern hemisphere.
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TEST – 1
Some of the most commonly used softwood trees for paper making include spruce, pine, fir, larch
and hemlock, and hardwoods such as eucalyptus, aspen and birch. There is also increasing interest
in genetically modified tree species (such as GM eucalyptus and GM poplar), because of several
major benefits these can provide, such as increased ease of breaking down lignin and increased
growth rate.
th
78 Which of the following diseases are quite prevalent in the eastern states – Bihar and Jharkhand?
1. Kala-Azar
2. Japanese Encephalitis (JE)
3. Dengue

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
orrect Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Kala-azar is a parasitic disease caused by Leishmania donovani

transmitted by sandflies Phlebotomus argentipes.
The disease is prevalent among socio-economically poorer sections of the society living in rural
areas. The disease is chronic and if not treated, leads to death. Kala-azar is endemic in Bihar,
Jharkhand, West Bengal and parts of Uttar Pradesh.
The Central Government initiated Kala-azar control Programme from 1990-91 incorporating
assistance for procurement of insecticides and anti-leishmanial drugs.
Statement 2: Japanese Encephalitis is an acute viral illness with high case fatality and long term
complications. The vector breeds in large paddy fields and similar large water bodies. The vector is
an outdoor rester and feeder.
The disease has acquired serious magnitude in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh,
West Bengal, Assam, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Bihar, Goa, and Haryana.
There is no specific treatment for JE. Efforts were made by states and Govt of India to contain
JE outbreaks by instituting various public heath measures including selective JE vaccination.
Considering the value of vaccination in prevention of JE, the Centre launched a JE vaccination
programme during 2006 for children between 1 and 15 years of age in 11 districts of the 5
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TEST – 1
states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam, Karnataka and West Bengal with using single dose live
attenuated SA-14-14-2 vaccine.
An epidemic of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) has broken out in five north Bihar
districts. It is locally known as Chamki Bukhar in the state.
In India, AES outbreaks in north and eastern India have been linked to children eating unripe
litchi fruit on empty stomachs. Unripe fruit contain the toxins hypoglycin A and
methylenecyclopropylglycine (MCPG), which cause vomiting if ingested in large
quantities. Hypoglycin A is a naturally occurring amino acid found in the unripened litchi that
causes severe vomiting (Jamaican vomiting sickness), while MCPG is a poisonous compound
found in litchi seeds.
Statement 3: Dengue is caused by aedes mosquitos, which breed in stagnant water. Experts
attribute the rise in dengue cases to change in weather, rainfall and water-logging.
The common symptoms of the disease are red mosquito bite marks on the body, high fever, severe
abdominal pain, fatigue and blood from gums or during vomiting in severe cases.
Read about the recent dengue spread in Bihar here

https://www.hindustantimes.com/patna/over-1-300-dengue-cases-reported-in-bihar-maximum-from-p
atna/story-XupRikr8lDEhMzHZ8uYxCL.html
Q Source: AR:
https://archive.india.gov.in/sectors/health_family/index.php?id=8
79 Among the given options, distance between which of these seaports is maximum?
A. Mumbai to Mauritius
B. Dubai to Karachi
C. Mumbai to Aden
D. Mauritius to Seychelles
orrect Answer : A
Justification: This is from your 7th NCERT books. Make sure you make some critical observations
looking at any of the maps in NCERTs. UPSC often picks up question from such maps.
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TEST – 1
80 With reference to the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin, consider the following statements

1. The rivers, that become Ganga and Brahmaputra in India, cover China, Nepal and Bhutan.
2. The basin could be located roughly between 20 degrees to 30 degrees north latitudes and is
dominated by monsoon climate.
3. Chambal and Gandak are the tributaries to Ganges river.
4. The river drains both in the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea.
5. Sorghum, gram and millets are grown in this basin, among other crops.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: The manas river basin in Bhutan forms the part of Ganga-Brahmaputra
basin.
Statement 4: It drains only in Bay of Bengal, see map below.
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TEST – 1
The tributaries of rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra together form the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin in
the Indian subcontinent. The basin lies in the sub-tropical region that is situated between 20°N to
30°N latitudes. The tributaries of the River Ganga like the Ghaghra, the Son, the Chambal, the
Gandak, the Kosi and the tributaries of Brahmaputra drain it.
Wheat, maize, sorghum, gram and millets are the other crops that are grown. Cash crops like
sugarcane and jute are also grown. Banana plantations are seen in some areas of the plain. In West
Bengal and Assam tea is grown in plantations. Silk is produced through the cultivation of silk worms
in parts of Bihar and Assam.
In the mountains and hills, where the slopes are gentle, crops are grown on terraces.
81 Clear and sunny skies are usually associated with
A. High pressure zones

B. Low pressure zones
C. A zone of intense pressure fluctuations
D. A zone which has experienced any pressure fluctuation for a very long time
Correct Answer : A
Justification: In areas having lower temperature, the air is cold. It is therefore heavy. Heavy air
sinks and creates a high pressure area. High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.
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TEST – 1
The air always moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, which is why when air is
heavy air transports clouds etc from the high pressure zone to the low pressure zones located far
apart.
On the contrary, when skies are muddy and cloudy it is a sign that the low pressure zone is being
filled up with clouds from the high pressure zone.
th
82 Arya-siddhanta is a major work of
A. Varahamihira
B. Aryabhatta
C. Valmiki
D. Vajravaraha
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Aryabhata is the author of several treatises on mathematics and astronomy, some of
which are lost.
His major work, Aryabhatiya, a compendium of mathematics and astronomy, was extensively
referred to in the Indian mathematical literature and has survived to modern times.
The mathematical part of the Aryabhatiya covers arithmetic, algebra, plane trigonometry, and
spherical trigonometry. It also contains continued fractions, quadratic equations, sums-of-power
series, and a table of sines.
Learning: The Arya-siddhanta, a lost work on astronomical computations, is known through the
writings of Aryabhata's contemporary, Varahamihira, and later mathematicians and commentators,
including Brahmagupta and Bhaskara I. This work appears to be based on the older Surya
Siddhanta and uses the midnight-day reckoning, as opposed to sunrise in Aryabhatiya. It also
contained a description of several astronomical instruments: the gnomon (shanku-yantra), a shadow
instrument (chhaya-yantra), possibly angle-measuring devices etc.
83 Mediterranean vegetation is most likely to be found in the
A. central Asian and central European regions

B. west and south west margins of the continents
C. countries bordering mediterranean sea only
D. east and north east margins of the continents
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TEST – 1
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Most of the east and north east margins of the continents are covered by temperate
evergreen and deciduous trees (we will learn the reasons in 11th and 12th NCERTs).
The west and south west margins of the continents are different. They have Mediterranean
vegetation. It is mostly found in the areas around the Mediterranean sea in Europe, Africa and Asia,
hence the name. This kind of vegetation is also found outside the actual Mediterranean region
in California in the USA, south west Africa, south western South America and South west Australia.
These regions Let’s do are marked for hot dry summers and mild rainy winters.
Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated here because people
have removed the natural vegetation in order to cultivate what they want to.
th
Q Source: Page 41-42: Our Environment – 7 NCERT
84 Monsoon winds can be best described as
A. Permanent winds
B. Seasonal winds
C. Local winds
D. Easterly winds
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Winds can be broadly divided into three types.
1. Permanent winds – The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies are the permanent winds. These
blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction.
2. Seasonal winds – These winds change their direction in different seasons. For example monsoons
in India.
3. Local winds – These blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area. For
example, land and sea breeze.
th
85 The 2019 edition of the International Institute for Management Development (IMD) Business School
World Competitiveness Rankings has been released. The rankings judge economies on the basis of
which of the following factors/sub-factors?
1. Government efficiency
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TEST – 1
2. Infrastructure
3. Business efficiency
4. Economic performance

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: started in 1989, the report ranks 63 economies on 235 indicators which are
incorporated from each of these economies.
The indicators are used to evaluate country’s ability to foster an environment where
enterprises can achieve desirable sustainable growth, generate employment and increase its
citizen’s welfare.
IMD takes into account a wide range of statistics and hard data such as unemployment, GDP
and government spending on health and education as well as soft data from an international
business executive opinion survey on topics such as social cohesion, globalisation and
corruption.
The economies are judged in four categories:
Economic Performance
Infrastructure
Government Efficiency
Business Efficiency.
Performance of India:
India has moved up one place to rank 43rd (Previously: 44th position in 2018, 45th in 2017 and
41st in 2016.)
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TEST – 1
This improved rank is result of India’s robust economic growth, a large labour force and its
huge market size.
Q Source:
86 Variety of metals such as copper, gold, silver was extensively used by the Harappan metal workers.
Which of the following could be a reason(s) for the same?
1. These materials were easily available locally obviating the need to import other metals from distant
places.
2. The tradition of using alloys in place of metals did not pick up until the very end of the mature
Harappan civilization.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: While some of the raw materials that the Harappans used were
available locally, many items such as copper, tin, gold, silver and precious stones had to be brought
from distant places.
The Harappans probably got copper from present-day Rajasthan, and even from Oman in West Asia.
Tin, which was mixed with copper to produce bronze, may have been brought from present-day
Afghanistan and Iran. Gold could have come all the way from present-day Karnataka, and precious
stones from present-day Gujarat, Iran and Afghanistan.
Statement 2: The field of metal and metallurgy is among the key technologies mastered by the
civilization.
Minor metals like tin, arsenic, lead, antimony etc. were used for alloying.
The earliest evidence of metallurgy in the Indian subcontinent comes forth from the site of
Mehrgarh in Baluchistan dated to circa 6500 BCE, a part of early Harappan civilization. It is
recovered in the form of a tiny copper bead from grave of a child.
Over the centuries, during the Mature Harappan period, the metal workers perfected the
metallurgical skill, so the metallurgical techniques including the alloying technique developed much
before. S2 is wrong.
Q Source: Ch 4: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT
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TEST – 1
https://insa.nic.in/writereaddata/UpLoadedFiles/IJHS/Vol53_3_2018__Art04.pdf

1. A Meteorite is any small piece of debris or rock which moves around the sun.
2. Since asteroids formed at the same time as other objects in our solar system, they can give us a lot
of information about the history of planets and the sun.
3. NASA launched the OSIRIS-REx spacecraft sometime back to study an asteroid near Earth and
bring a sample of the asteroid back to Earth.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: These are meteoroids, not meteorites. A meteorite is a solid piece of
debris from an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that originates in outer space and
survives its passage through the atmosphere to reach the surface of a planet or moon.
When the object enters the atmosphere, various factors such as friction, pressure, and chemical
interactions with the atmospheric gases cause it to heat up and radiate that energy. It then becomes
a meteor and forms a fireball, also known as a shooting star or falling star.
Statement 2 and 3: Since asteroids formed at the same time as other objects in our solar system,
these space rocks can give scientists lots of information about the history of planets and the sun.
Scientists can learn about asteroids by studying meteorites: tiny bits of asteroids that have flown
through our atmosphere and landed on Earth’s surface.
In 2016, NASA launched the OSIRIS-REx spacecraft to study an asteroid near Earth named Bennu
and bring a sample of the asteroid back to Earth! We will cover more on NASA’s missions in the
coming tests.
Q Source: Page 6: 6th NCERT Geography
https://spaceplace.nasa.gov/asteroid/en/
88 Which of the following factor(s) affect the rate of evaporation of a liquid?

1. The exposed surface area of the liquid
2. The change in pressure between a liquid and its surface during evaporation
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TEST – 1
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: S1: As per the conventional understanding of evaporation,
“Some liquids evaporate more quickly than others. There are many factors that affect the
evaporation rate.
The rate of evaporation depends on the liquid's exposed surface area (faster when increased), the
humidity of surroundings (slower when increased), the presence of wind (faster when increased)
and the temperature (faster when increased).
Liquid with high boiling points (those that boil at very high temperatures) tend to evaporate more
slowly than those with lower boiling temperatures.”
S2: But, the change in pressure between a liquid and its surface is more important than the
difference between their temperature in the process of evaporation, the Massachusetts Institute of
Technology (MIT) researchers have found.
The findings demonstrated that the temperature difference between the surface and the liquid, did
not determine how quickly the liquid could evaporate. Rather, it was regulated by the difference in
pressure between the liquid surface and the ambient vapour.
As per the researchers, the actual driving force or driving potential in this process is not the
difference in temperature, but actually the pressure difference.
The findings can act as a guideline to optimise the working conditions for certain kinds of
applications. It can help engineers design new evaporation-based systems, providing information on
both the selection of the best working fluids for a given situation, as well as the conditions of
pressure and removal of ambient air from the system, Lu said.
Q Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/mit-researchers-explore-physics-of-evapor
ation-65023
89 The standard time meridian of India passes through which of the following Asian countries?
1. China
2. Nepal
3. Sri Lanka
4. Bangladesh
5. Bhutan
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TEST – 1

A. 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification:
Q Source: Map based: India
90 NASAMS-II air defence system will be sold by which of these countries to India?
A. Russia
B. China
C. USA
D. Germany
Correct Answer : C
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TEST – 1
Learning: US recently approved sale of NASAMS-II air defence systems to India.
NASAMS-II (National Advanced Surface to Air Missile System – NASAMS) is an upgraded version of
the NASAMS developed by Raytheon in partnership with KONGSBERG Defence and Aerospace of
Norway.
It features new 3D mobile surveillance radars and 12 missile launchers for quicker reaction.
It provides tailor-able, state-of-the-art defence system that can maximise the ability to quickly
identify, engage and destroy current and evolving enemy aircraft, UAV or emerging cruise missile
threats.
NASAMS-II is armed with 3D Sentinel radars, short and medium-range missiles, launchers, fire-
distribution centres and command and control units to quickly detect, track and shoot down
multiple airborne threats.
Q Source:
91 Most of the salt dissolved in the oceans is
A. Sodium chloride
B. Potassium chloride
C. Sodium Iodate
D. Potassium nitrate
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Two of the most prevalant ions in seawater are chloride and sodium. Together, they
make up over 90 percent of all dissolved ions in the ocean. Sodium and Chloride are 'salty.' The
concentration of salt in seawater (salinity) is about 35 parts per thousand, on average.
Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
The rain that falls on the land contains some dissolved carbon dioxide from the surrounding air.
This causes the rainwater to be slightly acidic due to carbonic acid (which forms from carbon
dioxide and water).
As the rain erodes the rock, acids in the rainwater break down the rock. This process creates ions,
or electrically charged atomic particles. These ions are carried away in runoff to streams and rivers
and, ultimately, to the ocean. Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean and are
removed from the water. Others are not used up and are left for long periods of time where their
concentrations increase over time.
th
79
TEST – 1
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/whysalty.html

1. The torrid zone falls between the Tropics and Arctic/Antarctica circle.
2. As we move away from the equator, the length of the parallels of latitude increases.
3. The distance between two meridians of longitude is the maximum at the equator and zero at poles.
4. All meridians of longitude have equal length.

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: The mid-day sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes
in between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This area, therefore, receives the
maximum heat and is called the Torrid Zone.
Statement 2: It decreases since it is maximum at the equator and reduces towards poles.
Statement 3 and 4: The distance between longitudes decreases steadily polewards until it becomes
zero at the poles, where all the meridians meet.
Unlike parallels of latitude, all meridians are of equal length. Thus, it was difficult to number the
meridians.
Q Source: Pages 10-11: 6th NCERT: Geography
80
TEST – 1
93 Emissions Gap Report, 2018 was published by
A. World Economic Forum

B. International Panel for Climate Change
C. United Nations Environment Programme
D. United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change
Correct Answer : C
Learning: In its annual Emissions Gap Report, the UNEP has said that the promises made by 194
countries in Paris in 2015, called ‘nationally determined contributions’ or NDCs, are not enough to
close the ‘emissions gap’ – gap between what the world would end up being and where it would
need to be in the year 2030, in terms of greenhouse gas emissions.
And, if the emissions gap is not closed by 2030, there is little chance of limiting global warming to 2
degrees Celsius, over the average temperatures of the pre-industrialised period.
“ A majority of the countries are not yet on a path that will lead to fulfilling their NDCs for 2030,”
the report observes.
You can read more here in this important article

https://www.wri.org/blog/2018/11/5-things-you-need-know-about-un-emissions-gap-report and this
news report
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/emissions-gap-report-a-week-before-climate-ta
lks-unep-paints-a-grim-picture/article25612436.ece
Q Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/meeting-paris-climate-goals-can-save-lives-her
e-s-proof-65007
94 With reference to the Bombay Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals, consider the following
statements.
1. It was established before India’s independence.
2. To ensure effective operations, it restricts itself to the treatment of vertebrate mammals.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
81
TEST – 1
Justification: The society including the Bai Sakarbai Dinshaw Petit Hospital for Animals was
established in 1874 and is over 144 years in existence. The Bombay SPCA effectively controls
cruelties to animals in Mumbai.
The organization has given service to all types of sick and injured animals. Approximately 9000 to
10000 animals are treated in a year out of which 300 to 400 are in-patients.
For instance, birds in the summer usually fall to the ground due to dehydration and their inability to
find shade. BSPCA helps such birds. This can be attributed to Climate change which is affecting
migration patterns of birds as has been noticed in the last few decades.
The scarcity of water is affecting all organisms alike. Immense dehydration, very low energies and
long flights in the heat break are detrimental to the health of birds. It disturbs their metabolism.
Q Source: http://bombayspca.org/hospital.html
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/as-temperatures-continue-to-rise-birds-st
ruggle-to-survive-65039

1. The Bharat Stage (BS) emission norms are based on the American emission norms.
2. The Government of India has decided to leapfrog from the exiting BS – IV norms to the BS- VI,
thereby skipping the BS – V norms.
3. The major difference in standards between the existing BS-IV and the new BS-VI auto fuel norms is
the presence of NOx emissions.
4. In 2018, the Supreme Court banned the sales of BS IV vehicles from the market starting April 1,
2020.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
orrect Answer : D
Justification and Learning: Statement 1: Bharat Stage norms are the automotive emission norms
(based on European emission norms) which the automotive manufacturers have to comply to sell
their vehicles in India. These norms are applicable to all two wheelers, three wheelers,
fourwheelers and construction equipment vehicles.
BS VI refers to the sixth stage of the Bharat Stage Emission norms that will come into effect from 1
April 2020. The BS emission norms are based on the European emission norms and implement strict
control over the emissions from vehicles. BS I was introduced in 2000 by the Central Pollution
Control Board under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
82
TEST – 1
Statement 2: To curb growing menace of air pollution through the vehicles emission, the
Government of India has decided to leapfrog from the exiting BS – IV norms to the BS- VI, thereby
skipping the BS – V norms, and to implement the BS – VI norms with effect from 1st April 2020.
Only those vehicles will be sold and registered in India from 1st April 2020 onwards, which comply
to these norms. The norms are stringent and at par with global standards.
Statement 3: Referred to as the VI stage of Bharat Stage Emission norms, the main difference
between the BS IV and the BS VI norms is the amount of sulphur content in the emissions. While BS
IV compliant vehicles release 50 ppm (parts per million) sulphur, the BS VI compliant vehicles will
only release 10 ppm sulphur. Also for the light duty diesel vehicles, the BS VI norms cut down the
oxides of nitrogen emission limits. In case of light duty petrol vehicles, the emission of oxides of
nitrogen are reduced by about 25 percent.
Statement 4: In 2018 October, the Supreme Court banned the sales of BS IV vehicles which should
never be seen in the market from April 1, 2020.
The Supreme Court has also said strictly that there will not be any grace time given to the vehicle
manufacturers to sell the vehicles that are not in compliance with the BS VI norms after this
deadline. So we can say the BS VI norms will take effect from April 1, 2020.
In order to comply with the BS VI norms, the vehicle manufacturers need to invest in technology
that will let them upgrade the vehicle they already have with them in stock. Also, they will have to
move to the new technology to make the new vehicles in compliant with the BS VI standards.
ICAT is the premier testing and certification agency authorized by Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways for providing testing and certification services to the vehicle and component
manufacturers in India and abroad.
Q Source:
https://www.businessinsider.in/what-is-bs-vi-norms/articleshow/69286150.cms
96 Consider the following statements. Transhumance

1. is a type of pastoralism or nomadism
2. implies movement between higher pastures in summer and lower valleys in winter

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
83
TEST – 1
Justification: It is a seasonal movement of people. People who rear animals move in search of new
pastures according to changes in seasons.
In montane regions (vertical transhumance), it implies movement between higher pastures in

summer and lower valleys in winter. Herders have a permanent home, typically in valleys.
Generally only the herds travel, with a certain number of people necessary to tend them, while the
main population stays at the base. In contrast, horizontal transhumance is more susceptible to
being disrupted by climatic, economic, or political change.
Traditional or fixed transhumance has occurred throughout the inhabited world, particularly Europe
and western Asia. It is often important to pastoralist societies, as the dairy products of
transhumance flocks and herds (milk, butter, yogurt and cheese) may form much of the diet of such
populations.
97 Identify the following currents and the oceans they could be found in:
1. Gulf Stream: North Atlantic Ocean
2. Agulhas: Indian Ocean
3. Humboldt Current: Pacific Ocean
4. Oyashio: Southern Ocean

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
orrect Answer : C
th th
Justification: In 9 and 11 NCERTs, some of these important currents will be dealt in detail, for
now refer to the map below:
84
TEST – 1
th
98 As per present evidence, which of the following were some of the first crops to be domesticated by
humans?
A. Spinach
B. Peas and Sugarcane
C. Horsegram
D. Wheat and Barley
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Domestication was a gradual process that took place in many parts of the world. It
began about 12,000 years ago. Virtually all the plant and animal produce that we use as food today
is a result of domestication.
Some of the earliest plants to be domesticated were wheat and barley. The earliest domesticated
animals include sheep and goat.
People in other parts of the world, including eastern Asia, parts of Africa, and parts of North and
South America, also domesticated plants. Other plants that were cultivated by early civilizations
included rice (in Asia) and potatoes (in South America).
85
TEST – 1
Plants have not only been domesticated for food. Cotton plants were domesticated for fiber, which
is used in cloth. Some flowers, such as tulips, were domesticated for ornamental, or decorative,
reasons.
Q Source: Page 23: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT
https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/domestication/

1. The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged relief and high
conical peaks.
2. The Aravali range in India is the youngest fold mountain systems in the world.
3. The Appalachians in North America and the Ural mountains in Russia are block mountains with
rounded features.
4. Mt.Kilimanjaro in Africa and Mt.Fujiyama in Japan are examples of Volcanic mountains.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: There are three types of mountains- Fold Mountains, Block Mountains and the
Volcanic Mountains. The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged
relief and high conical peaks.
The Aravali range in India is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, not the youngest.
The range has considerably worn down due to the processes of erosion. The Appalachians in North
America and the Ural mountains in Russia have rounded features and low elevation. They are very
old fold mountains.
Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically. The uplifted
blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben.
The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems.
Volcanic mountains are formed due to volcanic activity. Mt.Kilimanjaro in Africa and Mt.Fujiyama in
Japan are examples of such mountains.
100 Which of these nations lies at meeting point of three major continental plates – the Pacific, the
Eurasian and the Indo-Australian plates?
86
TEST – 1
A. Vietnam
B. Madagascar
C. Indonesia
D. China
Correct Answer : C
Background: The Ring of Fire is a Pacific region home to over 450 volcanoes, including three of
the world’s four most active volcanoes – Mount St. Helens in the USA, Mount Fuji in Japan and
Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines. It is also sometimes called the circum-Pacific belt.
Around 90% of the world’s earthquakes occur in the Ring of Fire, and 80% of the world’s largest
earthquakes.
Learning: Indonesia sits along the Ring of Fire region, an area where most of the world’s volcanic
eruptions occur. The Ring of Fire has seen a large amount of activity in recent days, but Indonesia
has been hit hard due to its position on a large grid of tectonic plates.
This is because Indonesia is at the meeting point of three major continental plates – the Pacific, the
Eurasian and the Indo-Australian plates – and the much smaller Philippine plate.
As a result, several volcanoes on the Indonesian islands are prone to erupting. Indonesia is home to
roughly 400 volcanoes, out of which 127 are currently active, accounting for about a third of the
world’s active volcanoes.
Q Source:
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TEST – 1

Justification: S1: We will take two examples – camels and kangaroos.

Q Source: AR: Ch 9: 6th NCERT – Science

5 The number of star(s) in our solar system is/are only

Q Source: Page 4: 6th NCERT Geography

6 With reference to the Palaeolithic age, consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Ch2: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT

7 Consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

8 Which of the following languages belong to the family of Indo-European languages?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Statement 2 and 3: Sanskrit is part of a family of languages known as Indo-European.

Statement 1 and 4: Sino-Tibetan, in a few sources also known as Trans-Himalayan, is a family of

Q Source: Page 44: Our Pasts I – 6th NCERT

A. Sagittarius A*, at the centre of the milky way galaxy

Q Source: AR: Page 6: 6th NCERT Geography

Which of the above is/are correct?

This North-star has two advantages, known since ancient times.

First of all, it tells the direction of accurate North.

Secondly, it may in an easy way tell your geographical latitude

Your Geographical Latitude = Height of North Star above horizon.

11 Consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

12 Consider the following statements. The regions/states

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Map based: India

2. Hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Learning: Some facts about NCDs:

Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), also known as chronic diseases, tend to be of long

15 As per the recent amendment to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964

Which of the above is/are correct?

Statement 2: Changes proposed as per the amendment:

A. Brazil and South Africa

Q Source: Page 14: 6th NCERT: Geography

17 If the Earth stopped spinning suddenly, the consequence would be that

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Page 14: 6th NCERT: Geography

18 Consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Page 44: Social and Political Life - I

19 Consider the following statements. At present in India,

Which of the above is/are correct?

The code requires advertisements to be:

Truthful and Honest to consumers and competitors.

Against Harmful Products/Situations

Not derogatory to competition. No plagiarism.

Learning: ASCI is a voluntary self-regulatory council established in 1985 to promote responsible

Q Source: AR: Ch 7: Social and Political Life - II

20 Consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Africa is the second largest continent after Asia.

21 With reference to medical tourism in India, consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: AR: Page 20: Social and Political Life - II

22 Consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

South America has the world’s largest river, the Amazon.

Q Source: AR: Page 33: 6th NCERT: Geography

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: AR: Page 33: 6th NCERT: Geography

24 Which of the following properties of atmosphere varies with height or altitude?