You are on page 1of 12

Wave Guides

Lecture37: Electromagnetic Theory

Professor D. K. Ghosh, Physics Department, I.I.T., Bombay

Rectangular Waveguide

In the last lecture, we have coonsidered the case of guided wave between a pair of infinite conducting
planes. In this lecture, we consdier a rectangular wave guide which consists of a hollow pipe of infinite
extent but of rectangular cross section of dimension 𝑎𝑎 × 𝑏𝑏. The long direction will be taken to be the z
direction.
y x

Unlike in the previous case 𝜕𝜕⁄𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 is not zero in this case. However, as the propagation direction
𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕
is along the z direction, we have → −𝛾𝛾 and → 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖. We can write the Maxwell’s curl
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
equations as
𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
+ 𝛾𝛾𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦 = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
−𝛾𝛾𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥 − = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥
− = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

The second set of equations are obtained from the Faraday’s law, (these can be written down
from above by 𝐸𝐸 ↔ 𝐻𝐻, 𝜖𝜖 → −𝜇𝜇
𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧
+ 𝛾𝛾𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = −𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧
−𝛾𝛾𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 − = −𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥
− = −𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

1
As in the case of parallel plate waveguides, we can express all the field quantities in terms of
the derivatives of 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 and𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 . For instance, we have,

𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝑖𝑖𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 𝛾𝛾𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦 +
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝛾𝛾 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
= �𝛾𝛾𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 + �+
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
which gives,
𝛾𝛾 2 𝛾𝛾 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
�𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − � 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = +
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
so that
𝛾𝛾 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = − − 2 (1)
𝑘𝑘 2 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

where
𝑘𝑘 2 = 𝛾𝛾 2 + 𝜔𝜔2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

The other components can be similarly written down,

𝛾𝛾 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧


𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = − − 2 (2)
𝑘𝑘 2 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 𝛾𝛾 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥 = 2 − (3)
𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑘𝑘 2 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 𝛾𝛾 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦 = − 2 − 2 (4)
𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

As before, we will look into the TE mode in detail. Since 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0, we need to solve for 𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 from
the Helmholtz equation,
𝜕𝜕 2 𝜕𝜕 2
� 2 + 2 + 𝑘𝑘 2 � 𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 (𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦) = 0 (5)
𝜕𝜕𝑥𝑥 𝜕𝜕𝑦𝑦

Remember that the complete solution is obtained by multiplying with 𝑒𝑒 −𝛾𝛾𝛾𝛾 +𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 . We solve
equation (5) using the technique of separation of variables which we came across earlier. Let

𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 (𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦) = 𝑋𝑋(𝑥𝑥)𝑌𝑌(𝑦𝑦)

Substituting this in (5) and dividing by 𝑋𝑋𝑋𝑋 throughout, we get,


1 𝑑𝑑 2 𝑋𝑋 2
1 𝑑𝑑 2 𝑌𝑌
+ 𝑘𝑘 = − ≡ 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2
𝑋𝑋 𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 2 𝑌𝑌 𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦 2
where 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 is a constant. We further define 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 = 𝑘𝑘 2 − 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2

2
We now have two second order equations,
𝑑𝑑 2 𝑋𝑋
+ 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 𝑋𝑋 = 0
𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 2
𝑑𝑑 2 𝑌𝑌
+ 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 𝑌𝑌 = 0
𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦 2

The solutions of these equations are well known


𝑋𝑋(𝑥𝑥) = 𝐶𝐶1 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶2 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥
𝑌𝑌(𝑦𝑦) = 𝐶𝐶3 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐶𝐶4 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦

This gives,
𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 (𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦) = 𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶3 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶4 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
+𝐶𝐶2 𝐶𝐶3 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐶𝐶2 𝐶𝐶4 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦

The boundary conditions that must be satisfied to determine the constants is the vanishing of
the tangential component of the electric field on the plates. In this case, we have two pairs of
plates. The tangential direction on the plates at 𝑥𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑎𝑎 is the y direction, so that the y
component of the electric field
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 0 at 𝑥𝑥 = 0, 𝑎𝑎

. Likewise, on the plates at 𝑦𝑦 = 0 and 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑏𝑏,


𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 0 at 𝑦𝑦 = 0, 𝑏𝑏

We need first to evaluate 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 and 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 using equations (1) and (2) and then substitute the
boundary conditions. Since 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0, we can write eqn. (1) and (2) as
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = − 2
𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = − 2
𝑘𝑘 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = − 2 [−𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶3 k y cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶4 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
𝑘𝑘
−𝐶𝐶2 𝐶𝐶3 k y sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐶𝐶2 𝐶𝐶4 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦

𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = − [−𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶3 k x sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 − 𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶4 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
𝑘𝑘 2
+𝐶𝐶2 𝐶𝐶3 k x cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐶𝐶2 𝐶𝐶4 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦]

Since 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 0 at 𝑥𝑥 = 0, we must have 𝐶𝐶2 = 0 and then we get,


𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = − 2 [−𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶3 k x sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 − 𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶4 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦]
𝑘𝑘
Further, since 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 0 at y=0, we have 𝐶𝐶4 = 0. Combining these, we get, on defining a constant
𝐶𝐶 = 𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶3

3
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 𝐶𝐶𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
𝑘𝑘 2
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 2 𝐶𝐶𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
𝑘𝑘
and
𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 = 𝐶𝐶 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
We still have the boundary conditions, 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 0 at 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑏𝑏 and 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 0 at 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑎𝑎to be satisfied. The
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
former gives 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 = while the latter gives 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 = , where m and n are integers. Thus we have,
𝑏𝑏 𝑎𝑎
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 = 𝐶𝐶 cos � 𝑥𝑥� cos � �
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
and
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2
𝑘𝑘 2 = 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 + 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 = � � +� �
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
However,𝑘𝑘 2 = 𝜔𝜔2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 + 𝛾𝛾 2 , so that,

𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2
𝛾𝛾 = �� � + � � − 𝜔𝜔 2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
For propagation to take place, 𝛾𝛾 must be imaginary, so that the cutoff frequency below which
propagation does not take place is given by

1 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2
𝜔𝜔𝑐𝑐 = �� � + � �
√𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
The minimum cutoff is for TE1,0 (or TE0,1 ) mode which are known as dominant mode. For
these modes 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 (or 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 ) is zero.

TM Modes
We will not be deriving the equations for the TM modes for which 𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 = 0 . In this case, the
solution for 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 , becomes,
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧0 sin � � sin � �
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
As the solution is in terms of product of sine functions, neither m nor n can be zero in this case.
This is why the lowest TE mode is the dominant mode.
For propagating solutions, we have,

𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2
𝛽𝛽 = �𝜔𝜔 2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 − � � − � � = �𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 �𝜔𝜔 2 − 𝜔𝜔𝑐𝑐2
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
where,

1 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2
𝜔𝜔𝑐𝑐 = �� � + � �
√𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏

4
𝛽𝛽 2
We have, 𝜔𝜔2 = + 𝜔𝜔𝑐𝑐2 . Differentiating both sides, we have,
𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 1
𝜔𝜔 = 𝛽𝛽
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

The group velocity of the wave is given by

2
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝛽𝛽 √𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇�𝜔𝜔 2 − 𝜔𝜔𝑐𝑐 1 𝜔𝜔2
𝑣𝑣𝑔𝑔 = = = = �1 − 𝑐𝑐
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 √𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝜔𝜔 2
which is less than the speed of light. The phase velocity, however, is given by
𝜔𝜔 𝜔𝜔 1 1
𝑣𝑣𝜙𝜙 = = =
𝛽𝛽 √𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇�𝜔𝜔 2 − 𝜔𝜔𝑐𝑐2 √𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 2
�1 − 𝜔𝜔 𝑐𝑐2
𝜔𝜔
1
It may be noted that 𝑣𝑣𝜙𝜙 𝑣𝑣𝑔𝑔 = , which in vacuum equal the square velocity of light.
𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
For propagating TE mode, we have, from (1) and (4) using 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0

𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 𝜇𝜇 1


= = =� ≡ 𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇
𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦 𝛾𝛾 𝛽𝛽 𝜖𝜖 𝜔𝜔 𝑐𝑐2
�1 −
𝜔𝜔 2
where 𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 is the characteristic impedance for the TE mode. It is seen that the characteristic
impedance is resistive. Likewise,
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦
= −𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇
𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥
Power Transmission

We have seen that in the propagating mode, the intrinsic impedance is resistive, indicating that
there will be average flow of power. The Poynting vector for TE mode is given by
1
〈𝑆𝑆〉 = Re〈𝐸𝐸�⃗ × 𝐻𝐻 �⃗∗ 〉
2
1
= Re�𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦∗ − 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥∗ �
2
1
= �|𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥2 | + �𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦2 ��
2𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇
Substituting the expressions for the field components, the average power flow through the x y
plane is given by
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
1
〈𝑃𝑃〉 = ∫ 〈𝑆𝑆〉𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = � � �|𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥2 | + �𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦2 ��𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
2𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 0 0
2 2 2
1 𝐶𝐶 𝜔𝜔 𝜇𝜇 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
= 4
�� � � � cos 2 � 𝑥𝑥� sin2 � 𝑦𝑦� 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
2𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑘𝑘 𝑏𝑏 0 0 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
+ � � � � sin2 � 𝑥𝑥� cos 2 � 𝑦𝑦� 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 �
𝑎𝑎 0 0 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏

5
1 𝐶𝐶 2 𝜔𝜔2 𝜇𝜇2 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
= �� � + � � �
2𝜂𝜂 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑘𝑘 4 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 4

Impossibility of TEM mode in Rectangular waveguides


We have seen that in a parallel plate waveguide, a TEM mode for which both the electric and
magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation, exists. This, however is not
true of rectangular wave guide, or for that matter for any hollow conductor wave guide without
an inner conductor.
We know that lines of H are closed loops. Since there is no z component of the magnetic field,
such loops must lie in the x-y plane. However, a loop in the x-y plane, according to Ampere’s
law, implies an axial current. If there is no inner conductor, there cannot be a real current. The
only other possibility then is a displacement current. However, an axial displacement current
requires an axial component of the electric field, which is zero for the TEM mode. Thus TEM
mode cannot exist in a hollow conductor. (for the parallel plate waveguides, this restriction
does not apply as the field lines close at infinity.)

Resonating Cavity

In a rectangular waveguide we had a hollow tube with four sides closed and a propagation
direction which was infinitely long. We wil now close the third side and consider
electromagnetic wave trapped inside a rectangular parallopiped of dimension 𝑎𝑎 × 𝑏𝑏 × 𝑑𝑑 with
walls being made of perfector conductor. (The third dimension is taken as d so as not to confuse
with the speed of light c).
Resonanting cavities are useful for storing electromagnetic energy just as LC circuit does but the
former has an advantage in being less lossy and having a frequency range much higher, above
100 MHz.
The Helmholtz equation for any of the components 𝐸𝐸𝛼𝛼 of the electric field can be written as
∇2 𝐸𝐸𝛼𝛼 = −𝜔𝜔2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇𝐸𝐸𝛼𝛼
We write this in Cartesian and use the technique of separation of variables,
𝐸𝐸𝛼𝛼 (𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦, 𝑧𝑧) = 𝑋𝑋𝛼𝛼 (𝑥𝑥)𝑌𝑌𝛼𝛼 (𝑦𝑦)𝑍𝑍𝛼𝛼 (𝑧𝑧)
Introducing this into the equation and dividing by 𝑋𝑋𝛼𝛼 (𝑥𝑥)𝑌𝑌𝛼𝛼 (𝑦𝑦)𝑍𝑍𝛼𝛼 (𝑧𝑧), we get,
1 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑋𝑋𝛼𝛼 1 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑌𝑌𝛼𝛼 1 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑍𝑍𝛼𝛼
+ + = −𝜔𝜔2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
𝑋𝑋𝛼𝛼 𝜕𝜕𝑥𝑥 2 𝑌𝑌𝛼𝛼 𝜕𝜕𝑦𝑦 2 𝑍𝑍𝛼𝛼 𝜕𝜕𝑧𝑧 2
Since each of the three terms on the right is a function of an independent variable, while the
right hand side is a constant, we must have each of the three terms equaling a constant such
that the three constants add up to the constant on the right. Let,
𝜕𝜕 2 𝑋𝑋𝛼𝛼
= −𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 𝑋𝑋𝛼𝛼
𝜕𝜕𝑥𝑥 2

6
𝜕𝜕 2 𝑌𝑌𝛼𝛼
= −𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 𝑌𝑌𝛼𝛼
𝜕𝜕𝑦𝑦 2
𝜕𝜕 2 𝑍𝑍𝛼𝛼
= −𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧2 𝑍𝑍𝛼𝛼
𝜕𝜕𝑧𝑧 2

such that 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 + 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 + 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧2 = 𝜔𝜔2 𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇.


As each of the equations has a solution in terms of linear combination of sine and cosine
functions, we write the solution for the electric field as

𝐸𝐸𝛼𝛼 = (𝐴𝐴𝛼𝛼 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐵𝐵𝛼𝛼 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥)(𝐶𝐶𝛼𝛼 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐷𝐷𝛼𝛼 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦)(𝐹𝐹 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧 + 𝐺𝐺𝛼𝛼 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧)
Tha tangential component of above must vanish at the metal boundary. This implies,
1. At 𝑥𝑥 = 0 and at 𝑥𝑥 = 𝑎𝑎 , 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 and 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0 for all values of 𝑦𝑦, 𝑧𝑧,
2. At 𝑦𝑦 = 0 and 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑏𝑏, 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 and 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0 for all values of 𝑥𝑥, 𝑧𝑧,
3. At 𝑧𝑧 = 0 and z=d, 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 and 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 0 for all values of 𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦

Let us consider 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 which must be zero at 𝑦𝑦 = 0, 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑏𝑏, 𝑧𝑧 = 0, 𝑧𝑧 = 𝑑𝑑. This is posible if
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 (𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 + 𝐵𝐵𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥) sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
with 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 = and 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 = . Here m and n are non-zero integers.
𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑
In a similar way, we have,

𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 (𝐶𝐶𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 + 𝐷𝐷𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦) sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 (𝐹𝐹𝑧𝑧 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧 + 𝐺𝐺𝑧𝑧 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧)
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
with 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 = , with 𝑙𝑙 being non-zerointeger.
𝑎𝑎
We now use
𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧
∇ ⋅ 𝐸𝐸�⃗ = + + =0
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
This relation must be satisfied for all values of 𝒙𝒙, 𝒚𝒚, 𝒛𝒛 within the cavity. This requires,
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 (−𝐴𝐴𝑥𝑥 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥
+ 𝐵𝐵𝑥𝑥 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥) sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
+ 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥(−𝐶𝐶𝑦𝑦 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦
+ 𝐷𝐷𝑦𝑦 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦) sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧 + 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦(−𝐹𝐹𝑧𝑧 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
+ 𝐺𝐺𝑧𝑧 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧) = 0

Let us choose some special points and try to satisfy this equation. Let 𝑥𝑥 = 0, 𝑦𝑦, 𝑧𝑧 arbitrary,
This requires 𝐵𝐵𝑥𝑥 = 0. Likewise, taking 𝑦𝑦 = 0, x, z arbitrary, we require 𝐷𝐷𝑦𝑦 = 0 and finally, 𝑧𝑧 = 0,
𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦 arbitrary gives 𝐺𝐺𝑧𝑧 = 0.
With these our solutions for the components of the electric field becomes,
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
where we have redefined our constants 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 , 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 and 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧0 .

7
We also have,
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 =
, 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 = , 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 =
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑
the integers 𝑙𝑙, 𝑚𝑚, 𝑛𝑛 cannot be simultaneously zero for then the field will identically vanish.
Note further that since ∇ ⋅ 𝐸𝐸�⃗ = 0 must be satisfied everywhere within the cavity, we must have,
calculating the divergence explicitly from the above expressions,
𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 + 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 + 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧0 = 0
This requires that 𝑘𝑘�⃗ is perpendicular to 𝐸𝐸�⃗ .
One can see that the modes within a cavity can exist only with prescribed “resonant” frequency
corresponding to the set of integers 𝑙𝑙, 𝑚𝑚, 𝑛𝑛
1
1 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 2 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2 2
𝜔𝜔 = �� � + � � + � � �
√𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑

Though there is nothing like a propagation direction here, one can take the longest dimension
(say d) to be the propagation direction.
We can have modes like 𝑇𝑇𝐸𝐸𝑙𝑙,𝑚𝑚 ,𝑛𝑛 corresponding to the set 𝑙𝑙, 𝑚𝑚, 𝑛𝑛 for which 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0. For this set
we get,
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
with 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 + 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦0 = 0. The magnetic field components can be obtained from the Faraday’s
law,

1 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧
𝐻𝐻𝑥𝑥 = �− �= 𝐸𝐸 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
−𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑦𝑦0
1 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧
𝐻𝐻𝑦𝑦 = � �=− 𝐸𝐸 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
−𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑥𝑥0
1 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 𝜕𝜕𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 1
𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 = � − �=− (𝐸𝐸 𝑘𝑘 − 𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥0 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 ) cos 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 𝑥𝑥 cos 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦 sin 𝑘𝑘𝑧𝑧 𝑧𝑧
−𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑦𝑦0 𝑥𝑥

Wave Guides
Lecture37: Electromagnetic Theory

Professor D. K. Ghosh, Physics Department, I.I.T., Bombay

8
Tutorial Assignment

1. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions 8 cm x 4 cm. Determine all the modes that can
propagate when the operating frequency is (a) 1 GHz, (b) 3 GHz and (c) 8 GHz.
2. Two signals, one of frequency 10 GHz and the other of 12 GHz are simultaneously launched in
an air filled rectangular waveguide of dimension 2 cm x 1 cm. Find the time interval between the
arrival of the signals at a distance of 10 m from the common place of their launch.
3. What should be the third dimension of a cavity having a length of 1 cm x 1 cm which can
operate in a TE103 mode at 24 GHZ?

Solutions to Tutorial Assignments

𝑐𝑐 2 2 2 2
1. The cutoff frequency for (m,n) mode is 𝜈𝜈𝑐𝑐 = ��𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 � + �𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 � = 1.5 × 1010 �𝑚𝑚 + 𝑛𝑛 . Some
2𝜋𝜋 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 64 16
of the lowest cutoffs are as under (in GHz) :

m n Cutoff frequency (GHz)


0 1 3.75
0 2 7.5
0 3 11.25
1 0 1.875
1 1 4.192
1 2 7.731
1 3 11.405
2 0 3.75
2 1 5.30
2 2 8.39
3 0 5.625
3 1 6.76
3 2 9.375
4 0 7.5
4 1 8.38
5 0 9.375

9
At 1 GHz, no propagation takes place. At 3 GHz only TE10 mode propagates (recall no TM mode is
possible when either of the indices is zero.) At 8 GHz, we have TE01, TE02, TE10, TE11, TE12, TE20,
TE21, TE30, TE31, TE40, TM11, TM12, TM21 and TM31, i.e. a total of 14 modes propagating.

2. The cutoff frequency is given by

𝑐𝑐 𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛 2
𝑓𝑓𝑐𝑐 = �� � + � � = 7.5 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
2 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏
𝑓𝑓 2
The propagation of the wave is given by the group velocity 𝑣𝑣𝑔𝑔 = 𝑐𝑐 �1 − � 𝑐𝑐 � , which is 1.98x 108
𝑓𝑓
8
and 2.07x10 m/s respectively for f=10 GHz and 12 GHz respectively. Thus the difference in
speed is 9x 106 m/s, resulting in a time difference of approximately 10-5 s in travelling 10m.
3. The operating frequency is given by
1
1 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 2 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2 2
𝜔𝜔 = �� � + � � + � � �
√𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑
Substituting 𝑙𝑙 = 1, 𝑚𝑚 = 0, 𝑛𝑛 = 3, we get 𝑑𝑑 = 2.4 cm.

Wave guides
Lecture37: Electromagnetic Theory

Professor D. K. Ghosh, Physics Department, I.I.T., Bombay

10
Self Assessment Questions

1. A rectangular, air filled waveguide has dimension 2 cm x 1 cm. For what range of
frequencies, there is a “single mode” operation in the guide?
2. The cutoff frequency for a TE10 mode in an air filled waveguide is 1.875 GHz. What would
be the cutoff frequency of this mode if the guide were to be filled with a dielectric of
permittivity 9𝜖𝜖0 ?
3. In an air filled waveguide of dimension 2 cm x 2 cm, the x component of the electric field is
given by
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = −8 sin � � sin(𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − 100𝑧𝑧)
𝑎𝑎
Identify the propagating mode, determine the frequency of operation and find 𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 and 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 .

Solutions to Self Assessment Questions

𝑐𝑐 2 2 2
1. The cutoff frequency for (m,n) mode is 𝜈𝜈𝑐𝑐 = ��𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 � + �𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 � = 1.5 × 1010 �𝑚𝑚 + 𝑛𝑛2 .
2𝜋𝜋 𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏 4
Substituting values, the cutoff for (1,0) mode is 7.5 GHz and for (2,0) is 15 GHz. The frequency
for (0,1) is also 15 GHz. All other modes have higher cut off. Thus in order that only one mode
propagates, the operating frequency should be in the range 7.5 < 𝜈𝜈 < 15 GHz. In this range,
only TE10 mode operates. Recall that there is no TM mode with either of the indices being zero.
1
2. The cutoff frequency is proportional to . Thus the frequency would be reduced by a factor of
√𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
3 making it 625 MHz.
3. Since one of the standing wave factor is missing, one of the mode indices is zero. Thus it is a TE
mode. The electric field of TEmn mode is given by (with a=b)
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 = 2 𝐶𝐶𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 cos � � sin � � sin(𝛽𝛽𝛽𝛽 − 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔)
𝑘𝑘 𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎
𝜔𝜔 2 2𝜋𝜋
Thus the mode is TE02 mode. From the relation 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 + 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 + 𝛽𝛽 2 = . Given 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 = 0, 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 = =
𝑐𝑐 2 0.02
100𝜋𝜋, 𝛽𝛽 = 100,
𝜔𝜔2
= (100𝜋𝜋)2 + (100)2
𝑐𝑐 2

11
the operating frequency is 15.74 GHz.
Since 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥 = 0, 𝐸𝐸𝑦𝑦 = 0 . Further, by definition for TE mode 𝐸𝐸𝑧𝑧 = 0.
Here we have 𝑘𝑘 2 = 𝑘𝑘𝑥𝑥2 + 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 = 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦2 . The ratio
𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 𝑘𝑘 2 𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦
� �= = = 0.0025
𝐸𝐸𝑥𝑥 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔𝑘𝑘𝑦𝑦 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔
so that
2𝜋𝜋
𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧 = 0.020 cos � 𝑦𝑦� cos (𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − 100𝑧𝑧) A/m
𝑎𝑎

12

You might also like