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Major05 QP DLP NEET17 (Pmtcorner - In) PDF
Major05 QP DLP NEET17 (Pmtcorner - In) PDF
B
B
0999DM610116002 LTS-1/31
Major Test For Target 2017/NEET-UG/26-03-2017
7. The work done by a force F (–6x 3 ˆi)N in 7.
x = 4m x = –2 m
displacing a particle from x = 4m to x = –2m is: F (–6x 3 ˆi)N
:
(1) –240 J (1) –240 J
(2) 360 J (2) 360 J
(3) 420 J (3) 420 J
(4) will depend upon the path (4)
8. A disc initially at rest, is rotated about its axis with 8.
a uniform angular acceleration. In the first 2 s,
it rotates an angle . In the next 2 s, the disc will
2
rotate through an angle:
:
(1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
9. A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity 9. 2 kg ˆ m/s
(iˆ ˆj k)
(iˆ ˆj k)
ˆ m/s collides with another body of mass 5 kg
(iˆ – 2ˆj 3k)
ˆ m/s
5 kg moving with velocity (iˆ – 2ˆj 3k)
ˆ m/s. If they
stick together, the velocity (in m/s) of the
composite body is : (m/s )
:
ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ
(1) i – j – k (2) i – j k (1) i – j – k (2) i – j k
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ ˆ 8 ˆ 17 ˆ
(3) – i – j – k (4) i j k (3) – i – j – k (4) i j k
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
10. If the system is released, then the acceleration of 10.
the centre of mass of the system is :
:
2m 2m
6m 6m
(1) g/4 (2) g/2 (3) g (4) 2g (1) g/4 (2) g/2 (3) g (4) 2g
11. Two long straight conductors with currents I1 and 11.
I1
I2
X
Y
I2 are placed along X and Y-axes. The equation
of locus of points of zero magnetic induction is :-
:-
Y Y
I2 I2
X X
(0,0) I1 (0,0) I1
I2 X I2 X
(1) Y = X (2) Y I (1) Y = X (2) Y I
1 1
I1 X I1 X
(3) Y X (4) Y (3) Y I X (4) Y I I
I2 I1I 2 2 1 2
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12. A copper wire of resistance 10 is in the form 12.
10
of a perfect circle. Two points A and B on it are
A
B
5
connected to a battery of emf 5 V and internal
0.5
resistance 0.5 . The two segments of the circle
have lengths in the ratio 2 : 3. The net magnetic
2 : 3
induction at the centre of the circle is :-
:-
0 0
(1) (2) zero (1) (2)
6 6
0 0
(3) (4) 0/4 (3) (4) 0/4
5 5
13. A charged particle is moving in a circular orbit of 13. 2 × 10–4
radius 6 cm with a uniform speed of 3 × 106 m/s /2
under the action of a uniform magnetic field 6
2 × 10–4 Wb/m2 which is at right angles to the plane
3 × 106 /
of the orbit. The charge to mass ratio of the particle
is :-
:-
(1) 5 × 109 C/kg (2) 2.5 × 1011 C/kg (1) 5 × 10
9
/ (2) 2.5 × 1011
/
(3) 5 × 1011 C/kg (4) 5 × 1012 C/kg (3) 5 × 1011
/ (4) 5 × 1012
/
14. Two capacitors C1 and C2 = 2C1 are connected in 14.
C1
C2 = 2C1
a circuit with a switch between them as shown in
C1
the figure. Initially the switch is open and C1 holds
charge Q. The switch is closed. At steady state,
Q
the charge on capacitors will be :-
:-
Q C1 Q C1
R R
C2 = 2C1 C2 = 2C1
Q 2Q Q 2Q
(1) Q, 2Q (2) , (1) Q, 2Q (2) ,
3 3 3 3
3Q 2Q 4Q 3Q 2Q 4Q
(3) ,3Q (4) , (3) ,3Q (4) ,
2 3 3 2 3 3
15. In the circuit shown in the figure, C = 6 F. The 15.
C = 6 F
C
charge stored in the capacitor of capacity C is :-
:-
2C 10V 2C 10V
C C
E1 E1
P Q P Q
E2 E2
Galvanometer Galvanometer
P P P P
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Q PQ Q PQ
Q PQ Q PQ
(3) (4) (3) (4)
PQ P PQ P
17. The value of current through 20 resistor is :- 17. 20
:-
10 20 10 20
10 10
10V 10V 10V 10V
6V 6V
19. If the force between the electron in the first Bohr 19.
orbit and the nucleus (proton) in hydrogen atom
F
is F, then the force between them when the
:-
electron is in the second orbit is :-
(1) 4F (2) F/4 (1) 4F (2) F/4
(3) F/9 (4) F/16 (3) F/9 (4) F/16
20. In a dc motor, induced e.m.f. will be maximum :- 20. dc
:-
(1) When motor takes maximum speed (1)
(2) When motor starts rotating (2)
(3) When speed of motor increases (3)
(4) When motor is switched off (4)
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21. In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is 1 : 2. A 21.
1 : 2
Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V) is connected across
1.5V)
the primary. The voltage developed in the
:-
secondary would be :-
(1) 3.0 V (2) 0.75 V (1) 3.0 V (2) 0.75 V
E0 E0
(1) H 0 E 0 (2) H 0 (1) H 0 E 0 (2) H 0
c c
0 0 0 0
(3) H 0 E 0 (4) H 0 E 0 (3) H 0 E 0 (4) H 0 E 0
0 0 0 0
23. Two particles of equal mass 'm' go around a circle 23.
'm'
of radius R under the action of their mutual
R
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
with respect to their centre of mass is:-
:-
Gm Gm Gm Gm
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R 4R R 4R
Gm Gm Gm Gm
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3R 2R 3R 2R
24. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, 24.
M
R
R R
a spherical portion of radius is removed, as
2 2
shown in the figure. Taking gravitational
r =
potential V = 0 at r = , the potential at the
V
centre of the cavity thus formed is :
:
(G = gravitational constant) (G =
)
Key
Filling
0999DM610116002 LTS-5/31
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25. A particle of mass m moves along line PC with 25.
m v
PC
velocity v as shown.What is the angular
O
momentum of the particle about O ? C
C
L
L
r
r
P
P O
O
(1) mvL (2) mv (3) mvr (4) zero (1) mvL (2) mv
(3) mvr (4)
26. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube 26.
M
R
of maximum possible volume is cut.
Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to one of its
faces is :-
:-
4MR 2 4MR 2 4MR 2 4MR 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
9 3 3 3 9 3 3 3
MR 2 MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
32 2 16 2 32 2 16 2
27. If S is stress and Y is Young's modulus of material 27. S
Y
of a wire, the energy stored in the wire per unit
volume is-
-
S2 2Y S 2Y
(1) 2S2Y (2) (3) (4) S2 S
2
2Y (1) 2S2Y (2) (3) (4)
2Y S 2Y S2 2Y
28. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. 28. 20
The water rises upto 8 cm. If the entire 8
arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator,
the length of water column in the capillary tube
will be-
-
(1) 8 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 20 cm (1) 8 cm (2) 10 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 20 cm
29. 50 gm of copper is heated to increase its 29. 50 gm
10°C
temperature by 10°C. If the same quantity of heat 10
gm
is given to 10 gm of water, the rise in its
temperature is:
(
=
420 Joule kg–1°C–1)
(Specific heat of copper =420 Joule kg–1°C–1)
(1) 5°C (2) 6°C (1) 5°C (2) 6°C
(3) 7°C (4) 8°C (3) 7°C (4) 8°C
30. If the internal energy of n 1 moles of He at 30. He n1
10T
temperature 10T is equal to the internal energy
of n2 mole of hydrogen at temperature 6T. The
n2
6T
n1 n
ratio of n is 1
2 n2
3 5 3 5
(1) (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) (1) (2) 2 (3) 1 (4)
5 3 5 3
LTS-6/31 0999DM610116002
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31. 5.6 liter of helium gas at STP is adiabatically 31. STP 5.6
compressed to 0.7 liter. Taking the initial (adiabatic)
0.7
temperature to be T1, the magnitude work done T1
in the process is
9 3 9 3
(1) RT1 (2) RT1 (1) RT1 (2) RT1
8 2 8 2
15 9 15 9
(3) RT1 (4) RT1 (3) RT1 (4) RT1
8 2 8 2
32. Energy is being emitted from the surface of a 32. 127°C
black body at 127°C temperature at the rate of 1.0 × 106
1.0 × 106 J/s–m2. Temperature of the black body
at which the rate of energy emission is
16.0×106
16.0×106 J/s–m2 will be:
(1) 254°C (2) 508°C (1) 254°C (2) 508°C
(3) 527°C (4) 727°C (3) 527°C (4) 727°C
33. A body is executing simple Harmonic motion. At 33.
x
a displacement x it's potential energy is E1 and at E1
y
a displacement y, its potential energy is E2. The
Potential energy E at a displacement (x + y) is :- E2
(x + y) E
:-
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
0999DM610116002 LTS-7/31
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37. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I 37. I
4I
interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
The phase difference between the beams is /2 at
A /2
B
A B
point A and at point B. Then the difference
between the resultant intensities at A and B is :
(1) 2I (2) 4I (1) 2I (2) 4I
(3) 5I (4) 7I (3) 5I (4) 7I
38. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass 38.
'd',
through a narrow slit of width 'd' comparable to
their de-Broglie wavelength. They are detected 'D'
on a screen at a distance 'D' from the slit (see
(
)
figure). Which of the following graphs can be
expected to represent the number of electrons 'N'
detected as a function of the detector position 'y'
'y'
(y = 0 corresponds to the middle of the slit) ? 'N'
(
y = 0
)?
d y=0 d y=0
D D
y y y y
y y y y
39. The observer at O views two closely spaced spots 39.
O
on a vertical wall through an angled glass slab as
shown. As seen by observer, the spots appear.
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40. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass 40.
prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum
deviation which of the following is true ?
?
Q R R
Q
S S
P P
A 1 A 1
0 0
B 1 B 1
0 0
1 1
Y0 Y0
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
The logic gate is :-
:-
(1) OR gate (2) AND gate (1) OR (2) AND
(3) NAND gate (4) NOR gate (3) NAND (4) NOR
44. Half-life of radioactive sample, when activity of 44.
material initially was 8 counts and after 3 hours
8
3
1
it becomes 1 count, is
(1) 2 hours (2) 1 hour (3) 3 hours (4) 4 hours (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
45. Which of the following is related with 45.
characteristic emission of X-ray :–
:–
(1) -particle emission (1) -
(2) electron emission (2)
(3) positron emission (3)
(4) K-eletron capturing (4) K-
0999DM610116002 LTS-9/31
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46. What is the value of n-factor of [Fe(CN)6]–4 is 46.
[Fe(CN)6]–4 n-
the given reaction
MnO4 / H MnO4 / H
[Fe(CN)6]–4 Fe+3 + CO2 + NO3– [Fe(CN)6]–4 Fe+3 + CO2 + NO3–
(1) 18 (2) 31 (3) 61 (4) 28 (1) 18 (2) 31 (3) 61 (4) 28
47. If concentration of a first order reaction is increased 47.
'x'
by 'x' times, then rate constant (k) becomes :-
:-
x x
(1) e–k/x (2) (1) e–k/x (2)
k k
(3) k (4) ek/x (3) k (4) ek/x
Br Br
Mg Mg
48.
T.H.F
48.
T.H.F
(2 mole) (2 mole)
Find out the major product :
:
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
50. Which one of the following complexes will have 50.
:-
four isomer :- (1) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl
(1) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl
(2) [Co(PPh3)2(NH3)2Cl2]Cl
(2) [Co(PPh3)2(NH3)2Cl2]Cl
(3) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(3) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(4) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (4) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br
51. The oxidation number of Cr in K3CrO8 is +5 how 51. K3CrO8 Cr
+5
many peroxy linkages are present in this molecule:
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2
52. A liquid is kept in a closed vessel. If a glass plate 52.
(negligible mass) with a small hole is kept on top
of the liquid surface, then the vapour pressure of
:-
the liquid is the vessel is :- (1)
(1) More than what would be if the glass plate
were removed (2)
(2) Same as what would be if the glass plate were
removed
(3)
(3) Less than what would be if the glass plate
were removed
(4)
(4) Cannot be predicted
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
LTS-10/31 0999DM610116002
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/26-03-2017
CH3 CH3
Ph Cl Ph Cl Zn /
53. Ph
Zn /
Cl Product is : 53. Ph Cl
:
CH3 CH3
Ph Me Ph Ph Ph Me Ph Ph
(1) C=C (2) C=C (1) C=C (2) C=C
Me Ph Me Me Me Ph Me Me
Ph Me Ph Me
(3) C=C (4) None (3) C=C (4) None
Ph Me Ph Me
54. Glucose Br2 H 2O
Product; Product is : 54. Br2 H 2O
:
(1) glutaric acid (2) gluconic acid (1) glutaric acid (2) gluconic acid
(3) hexanoic acid (4) bromo hexane (3) hexanoic acid (4) bromo hexane
55. Milk of magnesia is :- 55. Milk of magnesia :-
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Mg(CO3)2 (1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Mg(CO3)2
(3) CaCO3 (4) Ca(OH)2 (3) CaCO3 (4) Ca(OH)2
56. The halide of a metal MX crystalizes as ccp 56. MX ccp
structure (NaCl type). If all the atoms situated at (NaCl type)
one of the tetrad axis are removed then what will
be the simplest molecular formula of halide :
(1) MX (2) M3X4 (3) MX2 (4) MX3 (1) MX (2) M3X4 (3) MX2 (4) MX3
57. Assuming the formation of an ideal solution, 57.
1560 g
determine the boiling point of a mixture containing (= 78) 1125 g
(
1560 g benzene (molar mass = 78) and 1125 g = 112.5)
1000
chlorobenzene (molar mass = 112.5) using the
:-
following against an external pressure of 1000 torr:-
2200
benzene
2200
1800
1800
Vapour 1350 chlorobenzene 1350
1000
Pressure 1000
540
540
400
400 300
300 200
200
90 100 110 120
90 100 110 120
t(c°)
t(c°)
(1) 90°C (2) 100°C (1) 90°C (2) 100°C
(3) 110°C (4) 120°C (3) 110°C (4) 120°C
58. KHSO4
Glycerol LiAlH 4
(A) (B) ;(A) and (B) 58. KHSO4
Glycerol LiAlH4
(A) (B); (A)
(B)
are respectively :
:
(1) acrolein, allyl alcohol (1)
(2) glyceryl sulphate, acrylic acid (2)
(3) allyl alcohol, acrolein (3)
(4) none (4)
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59. -D Glucopyranose and -D Glucopyranose are : 59. -D Glucopyranose -D Glucopyranose
:
(1) Anomers (2) Epimer (1) (2)
(3) Diasteriomers (4) Meso compound (3)
(4)
60. Which of the following order of acidic strength 60.
is correct ? (1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2
(1) SO2 > SO3 > CO2
(2) Cs 2O > K2O > Na2O
(2) Cs 2O > K2O > Na2O
(3) CO2 > N2O5 > B2O3 (3) CO2 > N2O5 > B2O3
(4) SO3 > CO2 > B2O3 (4) SO3 > CO2 > B2O3
61. At what temperature root mean square speed 61.
27°C
of ozone will be equal to root mean square
speed of oxygen at 27°C :
(1) 77°C (2) 177°C
(1) 77°C (2) 177°C
(3) 277°C (4) –77°C (3) 277°C (4) –77°C
62. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of 62. He+
–871.6 × 10–20 J
He + is –871.6 × 10 –20 J. The energy of the
electron in the first orbit of hydrogen would be:-
:-
(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J (1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J
(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J (3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J
63. Arrange these compounds in decreasing order 63.
of reactivity for the nucleophilic addition
:
reactions :
(I) HCHO (II) CH3CHO
(I) HCHO (II) CH3CHO
O
O
(III) (IV) Et–C–Et
(III) Acetone (IV) Et–C–Et
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) I > IV > II > III (3) III > II > I > IV (4) I > IV > II > III
64. Ammonia with excess of Cl2, forms :- 64. Ammonia Cl2
(1) Nitrogen (2) Nitrosyl chloride :-
(1) Nitrogen (2) Nitrosyl chloride
(3) Ammonium chloride (4) Nitrogen trichloride
(3) Ammonium chloride (4) Nitrogen trichloride
65. Which among the following attraction is strongest? 65.
(1) HF----H2O (2) HF----Cl 2 (1) HF----H2O (2) HF----Cl 2
(3) H2O----Cl 2 (4) Cl2----Cl 2 (3) H2O----Cl 2 (4) Cl2----Cl 2
66. 25 g of a solute of molar mass 250 g mol–1 is 66. 250 g mol–1
25g 100
dissolved in 100 ml of water to obtain a solution
whose density is 1.25 g ml–1. The molarity and 1.25 g ml–1
molality of the solution are respectively:-
:-
(1) 0.75 and 1 (2) 0.8 and 1 (1) 0.75 1 (2) 0.8 1
(3) 1 and 0.8 (4) 1 and 1 (3) 1 0.8 (4) 1 1
67. On addition of one mL solution of 10% NaCl 67.
0.025 gm.
10
to 10 mL gold sol in presence of 0.025 g of
10%
1
starch, the coagulation is just prevented. The
gold number of starch is :– (1) 25 (2) 2.5
(1) 25 (2) 2.5 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.025 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.025
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68. Which carbonyl compound has maximum 68.
dipole moment :
:
O O
O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O O O
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Br Br
69. Holme's signals can be obtained by using :- 69. Holme's signal
:-
(1) CaC2 + CaCN2 (2) CaC2 + Ca3P 2 (1) CaC2 + CaCN2 (2) CaC2 + Ca3P 2
(3) CaC2 + CaCO3 (4) Ca3P 2 + CaCN2 (3) CaC2 + CaCO3 (4) Ca3P 2 + CaCN2
70. Compare -bond strength between B & N given 70.
B N -
in two compounds :-
:-
(I) (CH 3)3Si–NBH 2 (II) (CH3)3C–NBH2 (I) (CH 3)3Si–NBH 2 (II) (CH3)3C–NBH2
| | | |
Si(CH3)3 C(CH3)3 Si(CH3)3 C(CH3)3
(1) There is no bond character between B & N (1) B N
(2) Same in I & II (2) I II
(3) I > II (3) I > II
(4) II > I (4) II > I
71. Find out the value of KC for the following reaction 71.
KP
from the value of KP KC
2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
[Given : KP = 8 × 1012 atm at 500 K [Given : KP = 8 × 1012 atm at 500 K
use R = 0.08 L atm mol–1 K–1] use R = 0.08 L atm mol–1 K–1]
(1) 32 × 1013 mol L–1 (2) 8 × 1012 mol L–1 (1) 32 × 1013 mol L–1 (2) 8 × 1012 mol L–1
11
(3) 2 × 10 mol L –1 (4) None of these 11
(3) 2 × 10 mol L –1 (4)
72. The uncertainity in the location of circulating electron 72.
is equal in it's de-Broglie wavelength the minimum
percent error in it's measurement of velocity under
this cicumstances will be approximately : (1) 4 (2) 8
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 18 (4) 22 (3) 18 (4) 22
73. An optically active compound 'X' having molecular 73. 'X'
C4H8O3
formula C4H8O3 it evolves CO2 with NaHCO3.'x'
NaHCO3 CO2
on treatment with LiAlH4 gives achiral compound
'x' LiAlH4
then 'x' is :
'x'
:
O O
OH OH
(3) OH (4) (3) OH (4)
OH O OH O
OH OH
0999DM610116002 LTS-13/31
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74. Water is oxidised to oxygen by :- 74. oxygen
:-
(1) ClO2 (2) KMnO4 (1) ClO2 (2) KMnO4
(3) H2O2 (4) F2 (3) H2O2 (4) F2
75. Consider the following statements for CH3=X and 75. CH3=X CF3=Y
CF3=Y .
(I) X
(I) When X dimerises bond angle decreases
(II) When X dimerises bond angle increases (II) X
(III) In X-Y molecule C–C bond length is less than (III) X-Y
C–C
Y–Y
that in Y–Y molecule
(IV) Bond angle in X is greater than that in Y (IV) X
Y
(1) II, III (2) I, II, III (1) II, III (2) I, II, III
(3) I, IV (4) II, III, IV (3) I, IV (4) II, III, IV
76. One litre of an aqueous solution contain 76. 1 0.15 CH 3COOH
0.15 mole of CH3COOH (pKa = 4.8) and 0.15 mole (pKa = 4.8)
0.15
CH3COONa
of CH3COONa. After the addition of 0.05 mole of
0.05
NaOH pH
solid NaOH to this solution, the pH will be:
?
(1) 4.5 (2) 4.8 (1) 4.5 (2) 4.8
(3) 5.1 (4) 5.4 (3) 5.1 (4) 5.4
77. Different hydrogen in the compound are 77.
represented by alphabets :
:
CH3–CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH(CH3)2 CH3–CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH(CH3)2
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F)
arrange them in decreasing order of reactivity
towards free radical substitution :
(1) C > A > E > D > F > B (1) C>A>E>D>F>B
(2) F > B > A > C > D > E (2) F>B>A>C>D>E
(3) B > C > A > F > D > E (3) B>C>A>F>D>E
(4) A > B > C > D > E > F (4) A>B>C>D>E>F
O O
O O
(1) PhMgBr (Excess) (1) PhMgBr (Excess)
78. (2)H O
78. (2)H O
3 3
CH3 CH3
Ph OH Ph OH
Ph Ph Ph Ph
O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
HO HO
OH CH3 OH CH3
O O O O
Ph Ph
(3) Ph (4) OCH3 (3) Ph (4) OCH3
OH Br OH Br
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79. Which one of the following elements shows 79.
maximum number of different oxidation states in
:-
its compound :- (1) Eu (2) La
(1) Eu (2) La (3) Gd (4) Am (3) Gd (4) Am
80. When Mg burns in air, it produces :- 80. Mg
:-
(1) MgO, MgO2 (1) MgO, MgO2
(2) MgO, Mg3N2, MgO2 (2) MgO, Mg3N2, MgO2
(3) Mg3N2 only (3) Mg3N2
(4) Mg3N2 & MgO (4) Mg3N2 & MgO
81. A gas present in a cylinder, expands against a 81. 1 atm 2
constant pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 6
2 litre to a volume of 6 litre. In doing so, it absorbs
800
800 joule heat from surrounding. The change in
internal energy of process is :
(1) +305.85 joule (2) +796 joule (1) +305.85 (2) +796
(3) +395 joule (4) –463.28 joule (3) +395 (4) –463.28
82. Which of the following will not show optical 82.
activity :
:
(1) Cl-CH=C=CH-Cl (2) Br-CH=C=CH-Br (1) Cl-CH=C=CH-Cl (2) Br-CH=C=CH-Br
H H
COOH Cl COOH Cl
H H
H OH H OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
H H
OH OH
COOH Me Cl COOH Me Cl
Me Me
CH3 CH3
Br /KOH Br2/KOH
83. CH3–CH2–CH–C–NH 2 2 (A) 83. CH3–CH2–CH–C–NH 2 (A)
O (1) CH3I (excess) O (1) CH3I (excess)
(2) AgOH/ (2) AgOH/
(B) (B)
The major product 'B' is : 'B'
:
(1) CH3–CH2–CH = CH2 (1) CH3–CH2–CH = CH2
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
(2) CH3–CH2–CH–C–N (2) CH3–CH2–CH–C–N
CH3 CH3
O O
(3) CH3–CH = CH – CH3 (3) CH3–CH = CH – CH3
CH3 CH CH3 CH
3 3
(4) CH3–CH 2–CH–N (4) CH3–CH 2–CH–N
CH3 CH3
84. The colour of KMnO4 is due to :- 84. KMnO4
:-
(1) Charge transfer from ligand to metal (1)
(2) Charge transfer from metal to ligand (2)
(3) d-d transition (3) d-d
(4) p-d transition (4) p-d
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85. Which of the following is producing H 2O 2 85.
H2O2
:-
on hydrolysis :-
(1) Na2O 2 (2) PbO2
(1) Na2O2 (2) PbO2
(3) BaO2 (4) 1 & 3 both (3) BaO2 (4) 1 3
86. For a chemical reaction, A + 2B C + D, the rate 86.
A + 2B C + D,
of reaction increases three times, when A 9
concentration of A only is increased nine times. 3
B
2
While when concentration of B only is increased
2
2 times, then rate of reaction also increases 2 times.
:-
The order of this reaction is:-
3
3 (1) 3 (2)
(1) 3 (2) 2
2
1
(3)
1
(4) None of these (3) (4)
2 2
O O OH O O OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH O OH O
HO OH OH HO OH OH
(3) (4) O N (3) (4) O N
2 2
O O O O O O
88. Phenol can be converted into salicylic acid by 88.
heating with : :
(1) CO2 (under pressure) and alkali (1) CO2 (
(2) CCl4 and alkali (2) CCl4
(3) CHCl3 and alkali followed by oxidation (3) CHCl3
(4) All of the above (4)
89. Which among the following complexes has square 89.
pyramidal geometry ? (1) Tetra carbonyl nickel (o)
(1) Tetra carbonyl nickel (o)
(2) Hexamine cobalt (II) nitrate
(2) Hexamine cobalt (II) nitrate
(3) Penta carbonyl iron (o)
(3) Penta carbonyl iron (o)
(4) Bis(acetylacetonato) oxovandium (IV) (4) Bis(acetylacetonato) oxovandium (IV)
90. If the impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for 90.
oxygen and is more easily oxidised than the metal,
then the purification of metal may be carried out
by :-
:-
(1) Cupellation (2) Electrorefining (1) (2)
(3) Zone refining (4) Poling (3) (4)
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97. Choose the incorrect statements of following :- 97.
:-
(1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulose plates (1)
on the outer surface.
(2) Euglenoids have two flagella, one lies (2)
longitudinally and the other transversely.
(3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air (3)
current
(4) In diatoms the cell wall form two thin (4)
overlapping shell.
98. Choose incorrect match out of following :- 98.
:-
(1) Albugo - Parasitic fungi on mustard (1)
-
(2) Nerospora - Used in genetics works (2)
-
(3) Penicillium - Source of antibiotics (3) -
(4) Ustilago - Rust on wheat (4) -
99. Identify the following figures and choose the option 99.
which gives correct description about them :-
:-
E E
D D
C C
B B
A A
Transport Transport
Protein Protein
Transported Transported
molecule molecule
Outer Inner side Outer side Inner Outer Inner side Outer side Inner
side of cell of cell side side of cell of cell side
of cell Membrane of cell of cell Membrane of cell
Membrane Membrane
(i) (ii) (i) (ii)
(1) Simple diffusion (1)
(2) Facilitated diffusion (2)
(3) Osmosis (3)
(4) Active transport (4)
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117. How many of the following purpose carried 117.
transpiration ? (i)
(i) Creates transpirational pull for absorption
of water (ii)
(ii) Supplies water for photosynthesis
(iii)Transport minerals in every direction with
(iii)
in a plant
(iv)Cools leaf surface (iv)
(v) Maintains the shape and structure of the (v)
plant (1) (2)
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Three (4) Two (3) (4)
118. Activation for alcohol dehydrogenase and 118.
nitrogenase are respectively :- :-
(1) Zn, Mn (2) Zn, Mo (1) Zn, Mn (2) Zn, Mo
(3) Mo, Zn (4) Mn, Zn (3) Mo, Zn (4) Mn, Zn
119. Find the incorrect match :- 119. :-
(3) Nitrification NH3 NO3 Biological only (3) NH3 NO3
(4) Denitrification NO3 N 2 Biological (4) NO3 N2
120. Low temperature treatment to speed up the 120.
process of flowering is referred to as :-
:-
(1) photoperiodism (2) vernalization (1) (2)
(3) thermoperiodism (4) hydroponics (3) (4)
121. (A) PGRs are complex, organic and inter 121. (A) PGRs
cellular factors.
(B) PGRs are nongenetic factors (B) PGR
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct (1) (A)
(B)
(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (2) (A)
(B)
(3) Only (A) is correct (3) (A)
(4) Only (B) is correct (4) (B)
122. Which one of the following hormone play 122.
important role in seed development, maturation
and dormancy :- (1) ABA (2) IAA
(1) ABA (2) IAA (3) GA (4) CK (3) GA (4) CK
123. Which one of the following is not a source of 123.
CK
natural CK ? (1)
DNA
(1) Herring sperm DNA
(2)
(2) Cercospora
(3) Yeast (3)
(4) Coconut milk (4)
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124. Glucose,galactose and fructose all have the 124.
same molecular size and composition and their
absorption through the mucosal cells takes
:-
place :-
(1)
(1) At the same rate
(2)
(2) Glucose is absorbed most rapidly
(3) Fructose is absorbed most rapidly (3)
(4) Galactose is absorbed most rapidly (4)
125. Surgical removal of gall bladder in human 125.
beings would lead to (1)
(1) Impairment of digestion of fat (2)
(2) Inerease acidity in the intestine
(3)
(3) Jaundice
(4) Decrease acidity of stomach (4)
126. Maximum absorption of digested food takes 126.
place in :- (1) (2)
(1) Stomach (2) Duodenum
(3) Jejunum (4) Ileum (3) (4)
127. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from 127.
body tissues into the blood is present as : (CO2)
(1) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs (1) RBCs
(2) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs (2)
RBCs
(3) Free CO2 in blood plasma (3)
CO2
(4) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as (4) 70%
30%
bicarbonate
128. Which one of the following is the correct match 128.
of digestive enzyme and substrate.
(1) Lactose-Renin (2) Starch-Maltose (1) (2)
(3) Fat-Steapsin (4) Casein-Trypsin (3) (4)
129. In human being, the second cervical vertebral 129.
helps in rotatory movements of head through
knob-like process called :- ?
(1) Metapophysis (2) Prezygapophysis (1) (2)
(3) Postzygapophysis (4) Odontoid process (3) (4)
130. Which statement is wrong ? 130. ?
(1)Postzygapophysis is present in ATLAS (1)
(2)Coronoid fossa is found in humerus (2)
(3)Centrum is absent in ATLAS (3)
(4)Prezygapophysis is absent in 2nd cervical (4)
vertebrae
131. The type of muscles present in our : 131.
(1) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres
fusiform in shape. (1)
(2) heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth (2)
muscles.
(3) intestine are striated and involuntary. (3)
(4) thigh are striated and voluntary. (4)
132. The Tympanic membrane is connected to 132.
?
(1) Stapes (2) Incus (1) (2)
(3) Malleus (4) Cornea (3) (4)
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133. The cavity of mid ear is connected to the 133.
cavities of mouth by a tube called
(1) Nasal cavity (2) Eustachian canal (1) (2)
(3) Perilymph (4) Basilar membrane (3) (4)
134. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect 134.
the secretion of which one of the following
hormone (1)
(1) Aldosterone
(2)
(2) Cartisol
(3) Adrenaline (3)
(4) both Aldosterone and Cartisol (4)
135. Thyroxine is a. 135.
(1) Proteinaceous hormone (1)
(2) Steroidal hormone (2)
(3) Long Peptides (3)
(4) both 1 & 3 (4)
1
3
136. Sensory neurons are found in the dorsal root 136.
of spinal cord. Which is. (1) (2)
(1) Bipolor (2) Multipolor
(3) Pseudounipolor (4) Unipolor (3) (4)
137. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a 137.
structure of maize seed. Identify the parts
A, B, C D
labelled A, B, C and D and select the right
option about them:-
B B
C C
A D A D
A B C D
A B C D
Aleurone Scutellum Colerhiza Coleoptile 1
1
Layer
Scutellum Aleurone Coleoptile Coleorhiza 2
2
Layer
Scutellum Aleurone Coleorhiza Coleoptile
3
3
Layer
Aleurone Scutellum Coleoptile Colerhiza
4 4
Layer
138. Which of the following type of ovule is also 138.
called resupinate ovule ?
(1) orthotropous ovule (1)
(2) Anatropous ovule (2)
(3) Hemianatropous ovule (3)
(4) Campylotropous ovule (4)
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139. Identify the correct match from the Column 139. I, II
III
I, II and III.
-I
-II
-III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
a i
Epigeal a Elongation of i Castor A
A
germination hypocotyl
B
Hypogeal b Elongation of ii Maize b ii
B
germination epicotyl
Vivpary c In-Situ iii Rhizophora
C
germination C c iii
Option - -
(1) A - a - i, B - b - ii, C - c - iii (1) A- a - i, B- b - ii, C - c - iii
(2) B - a - i, A - b - ii, C - b - iii (2) B- a - i, A- b - ii, C - b - iii
(3) C - a - i, C - b - ii, C - b - iii (3) C- a - i, C- b - ii, C - b - iii
(4) A - c - i, B - b - iii, C - a - ii (4) A- c - i, B- b - iii, C - a - ii
140. Which one the correct match from the 140.
following ?
Lever Trap Dcor Fly trap
Mechanism mechanism mechanism
Salvia Yucca Blastophaga 1
1
insect
2
2 Salvia Aristolochia Fig
3
3 Salvia Fig Aristolochia
4 Salvia Aristolochia Rafflesia 4
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143. Correct sequence for milk ejection are : 143.
(1) Mammary tubule - Mammary duct - (1)
-
- -
Lectiferous duct - Ampulla - Nipple -
(2) Mammary duct - Mammary tubule - (2)
- -
-
Ampulla - Lectiferous duct - Nipple -
(3) Mammary tubule - Mammary duct - (3) - -
-
Ampulla - Lectiferous duct - Nipple -
(4) Lectiferous duct - Mammary tubule - (4)
-
-
-
Mammary duct - Ampulla - Nipple -
144. At the time of parturition oxytocin release from. 144.
(1) Foetal Pituitary gland (1)
(2) Maternal Pituitary gland (2)
(3) Placenta (3)
(4) Ovary (4)
145. Menstrual cycle is initiated by :– 145.
:–
(1) A sudden full of FSH from anterior (1)
FSH
pituitary
(2) A increase the level of oestrogen and (2)
decrease the level of progesteron.
(3) Low level of oestrogen and progesteron due (3)
to degeneration of corpus luteum.
(4) Low level of HCG due to degeneration of (4)
HCG
graafian follicle
146. When there is a sudden loss of blood from the 146.
body the organ which supplies blood is :-
(1) Spleen (2) Heart
(3) Liver (4) Lung (1) (2) (3) (4)
147. How many of the following hormones are 147.
secreted by placenta during pregnancy HPL
HPL
,
FSH, ,
estrogen, progesterone FSH, Thyroxin,
, LH,
,
.
Cortisol, LH, Prolactin, relaxin. (1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3 (3) 6 (4) 3
148. Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have 148.
DNA
been developed by introduction of DNA that (
)
produced (in host cells).
(1) a toxic protein (1)
(2) both sense and anti-sense RNA (2)
RNA
(3) a particular hormone (3)
(4) an antifeedant (4) (
)
149. A test cross is carried out to :- 149.
(1) Determine whether two species or varieties (1)
will breed successfully
(2) Assess the number of alleles of a gene (2)
(3) Predict whether two traits are linked (3)
(4)
F2
(4) Determine the genotype of a plant at F 2
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150. Which of the following statements is true of two 150.
50%
genes that show 50% recombination
frequency? (1)
(1) The genes are tightly linked
(2)
(2) If the genes are present on same chromosome
and shows very low crossing over
(3) The genes may be on different chromosome (3)
(4) The genes do not show independent assortment (4)
151. The tendency of population to remain in 151.
genetic equillibrium may be disturbed by :-
(1) Random mating (1)
(2) Lack of migration (2)
(3) Lack of mutation (3)
(4) Natural selection (4)
152. Inulin is :- 152.
:-
(1) Nitrogen containing polysaccheride (1)
(2) Phosphorus containing polysaccheride (2)
(3) Sulphur containing polysaccheride (3)
(4) Polymer of fructose (4)
153. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in 153.
which there is a mis-sense mutation in the lac lac Y mis-sense
Y gene ? (1) -
(1) -galactosidase
(2)
(2) Non-functional lactose permease
(3) Transacetylase (3)
(4) All of these (4)
154. The colonies of non-recombinant bacteria 154.
appers blue in contrast to white colonies of
recombinant bacteria because of :- :-
(1) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta- (1)
galactosidase
(2) Insertional inactivation of alpha- (2)
galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
(3) Insertional inactivation of alpha- (3)
glactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(4) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in (4)
recombinant bacteria
155. A good producer of butyric acid is :- 155.
(1) Aspergillus (1)
Aspergillus
(2) Pseudomonas (2)
Pseudomonas
(3) Clostridium (3)
Clostidium
(4) Sacchromyces (4)
Sacchromyces
156. Which of the following is not a Bt crop ? 156.
Bt
(1) Cotton (1) Cotton
(2) Brinjal (2) Brinjal
(3) Soybean (3) Soybean
(4) Musturd (4) Musturd
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157. Which one of the following represents a 157.
DNA
pallindromic sequence in DNA :-
(1) GATACC (2) GATATC (1) GATACC (2) GATATC
CCTAAG CTATAG CCTAAG CTATAG
(3) CCAATG (4) CATTAG (3) CCAATG (4) CATTAG
GGTTAC GTAATC GGTTAC GTAATC
158. Which of the following is required as inducer 158.
for the expression of lac operon ?
(1) Glucose (1)Glucose
(2) Galactose (2)Galactose
(3) Lactose (3)Lactose
(4) Lactose & galactose (4)Lactose & galactose
159. Functional unit of gene is :- 159.
:-
(1) Operon (2) Recon (1) Operon (2) Recon
(3) Muton (4) Cistron (3) Muton (4) Cistron
160. Which of the following r-RNA acts as ribozyme 160.
r-RNA
in bacteria ?
(1) 23s r-RNA (1) 23s r-RNA
(2) 5.8s r-RNA (2) 5.8s r-RNA
(3) 5s r-RNA (3) 5s r-RNA
(4) 18s r-RNA (4) 18s r-RNA
161. Green revolution in India occured during :- 161.
:-
(1) 1960 (2) 1950 (1) 1960 (2) 1950
(3) 1970 (4) 1980 (3) 1970 (4) 1980
162. Somatic embryogenesis is technique of :- 162.
(1) Micropropagation (1) Micropropagation
(2) Clonal propagation (2) Clonal propagation
(3) Somatic hybridization (3) Somatic hybridization
(4) (1) & (2) both (4) (1) & (2) both
163. Consider the following four statements (a-d) 163.
(a-d)
and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only :
(a)
(a) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the
(b)
universe
(b) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and
dust (c)
(c) Considering the size of universe, earth is
indeed a speck
(d)
(d) The gases condensed under gravitation and
formed the galaxies of the present day
universe.
Options : (1) (b) (c)
(1) Statements (b) and (c) only
(2) (a), (c)
(2) Statement (a), (c) only
(3) Statment (a), (d) only (3) (a), (d)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4)
(a), (b), (c)
(d)
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164. In 1953 S.L. Miller created electric discharge in 164. 1953
a closed flask containing the gaseous mixture
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 300°C (1) CH4, H2, NH3
300°C
temperature
(2) CH4, N2, CO2 and water vapour at 300°C (2) CH4, N2, CO2
300°C
temperature
(3) CH4, H2, CO2 and water vapour at 800°C (3) CH4, H2, CO2
800°C
temperature
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C (4) CH4, H2, NH3
800°C
temperature
165. Analogous organs are : 165.
(1) Similar in origin (2) Similar in structure (1) (2)
(3) Non functional (4) Similar in function (3) (4)
166. Change with desent is the basis of which theory 166.
(1) Recapitulation theory (1)
(2) Oparin's theory (2)
(3) Theory of organic evolution (3)
(4) Cell theory (4)
167. Fill in the blanks respectively 167.
..............acts as an antigen presenting cell ..............
which activates...............which in turn secrete ...............
lymphokine to activate both...........&........ . ...........
..........
Now these cells perform specific cloning .............
known as............. .
(1) Macrophage, T-helper, T-killer, B-cell, (1) , , , ,
Clonal selection
(2) Dendritic cell, T-killer, T-helper, B-cell, (2) , , ,
clonal reaction ,
(3) B-cell, Macrophage, T-killer, T-helper, (3) , , , ,
clonal selection
(4) T-helper, Macrophage, T-killer, B-cell, (4) , , , ,
clonal reaction
168. Pyrogenic toxin secreted in human body during 168.
life cycle of plasmodium ? ?
(1) Tetanospasmine (1)
(2) Haemotoxin (2)
(3) Haemozoin (3)
(4) Aureus toxin (4)
169. Most addictive drug and most potent 169.
hallucinogen respectively ? ?
(1) Heroine, Bhang (1)
(2) Cocaine, hashish (2)
(3) Smack, Amphetamine (3)
(4) Heroine, L.S.D. (4) , L.S.D.
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170. Which of the following condition not 170.
'
'
associated with 'Alcoholic liver disease' ?
?
(1) Liver cirrhosis (1)
(2) Liver fibrosis (2)
(3) Fatty liver (3)
(4) Hyperglycemia (4)
171. Which of the following is an energy source in 171.
ecosystem ? ?
(1) ATP (2) Sunlight (1) (2)
(3) DNA (4) RNA (3) (4)
172. In which ecosystem pyramid of number is 172.
inverted :- :-
(1) Pond ecosystem (1)
(2) Desert ecosystem (2)
(3) Grassland ecosystem (3)
(4) Tree ecosystem (4)
173. Overlapping zone between two ecosystem is 173.
known as :-
:-
(1) Niche (1)
(2) Microhabitat (2)
(3) Ecotone (3)
(4) Limnetic Zone (4)
174. Storage of energy at consumer level known as :- 174.
:-
(1) Gross primary production (1)
(2) Secondary productivity (2)
(3) Net primary productivity (3)
(4) Net community productivity (4)
175. In which biome clear stratification present :- 175.
:-
(1) Tundra Biome (1)
(2) Temperate Biome (2)
(3) Tropical Biome (3)
(4) Savana Biome (4)
176. Veldts in Africa and Pampas in South America 176.
is an example of which Biome :-
:-
(1) Tropical Biome (1)
(2) Grassland Biome (2)
(3) Tundra Biome (3)
(4) Temperate Biome (4)
177. Which of the following is an example of 177.
Sedimentory bio-geo-chemical cycle ? ?
(1) Nitrogen cycle (2) Carbon cycle (1) (2)
(3) Phosphorus cycle (4) Hydrogen cycle (3) (4)
178. Phytotron is a device in which :- 178.
(1) Measurment of electron flow (1)
(2) Measurment of velocity of light (2)
(3) Mutation induced in plant (3)
(4) Plant grow in controlled environment (4)
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179. In "Rivet popper hypothesis " "Rivet" 179. "
"
"
"
:-
indicates :- (1) (2)
(1) Community (2) Species
(3) Ecosystem (4) Biome (3) (4)
180. Water prevention and control of pollution act 180.
apply in India :- :-
(1) 1974 (2) 1972 (1) 1974 (2) 1972
(3) 1976 (4) 1986 (3) 1976 (4) 1986
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Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/26-03-2017
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
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