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CM Test 2 - Class Xi - CPT 1 (Paper PT 2)
CM Test 2 - Class Xi - CPT 1 (Paper PT 2)
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
BATCH – 2023-2025
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(ii) Part-A (05-10) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions with partial marking, which have ONE or
MORE THEN ONE correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result
in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(iii) Part-C (01-08) contains eight (08) Numerical based questions with Single Digit Integer, as answer,
(Ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive). Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks
for wrong answer.
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_2
SECTION – I
PHYSICS
PART-A
(Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2
1 5 1 2 5 2h
Sol.: (100) = mv v = ; x=v = 1m
2 100 2 2 g
(a) 40 m (b) 49 m
(c) 59 m (d) 109 m
2. C
1 m 6 t 4
(a) m 4 t 2 (b)
8 162
m 6 t 4 m 4 t 2
(c) (d)
81 2
3. B
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_3
Sol.: v = s 2 / 3
ds
= s 2 / 3
dt
s t
ds
0 s 2 / 3 = 0 dt 3s = t
1/ 3
3 3 3 2
s= t ds = t dt
27 9
3 2
v= t
9
2
1 1 3t 2 m 6 t 4
W = mv 2 = m =
2 2 9 162
4. C
4 1
= tan 37 0 = = 0.5
6 2
k (0.2) = −(2 g cos 37 0 )(5) + 2 g (5 sin 37 0 )
1 2 370
and
2
k (0.04) = −0.5 20 5 + 20 5
1 4 3
2 5 5
0.02 k = 20
k = 1000 N/m
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_4
6. A particle of mass m is given a velocity v0 on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction
between the particle and surface is . There is also a variable external force acts on the particle
given as | F |= k | v | where k is a positive constant and v is instantaneous velocity. The
directions of force at any instant is perpendicular to velocity. The particle moves in an
instantaneously circular path of variable radius then
kv2
tan 30 =
mg
mg
v2 =
3k
v1 − v 2 m 2
=t =
g k 3
1 2
mv 0 = mgs
2
2
v0
s=
2g
v2 m
R= = (v0 − gt)
ac k
B C
9
(a) Normal force applied by the spheres on the bottom of the box is mg .
4
15
(b) Normal force applied by the spheres on the bottom of the box is mg .
4
(c) Normal force between spheres A and B is 2 3 mg .
5mg
(d) Normal force between spheres A and B is .
4 3
8. B, D N
N 30° 30°
Net upward force on three spheres applied by bottom =
g/4
mg 5mg A
For sphere A, N 3 = mg + , N =
4 4 3
mg
1 F=kt
9. Two block A and B each of mass kg is B A
2
connected by a massless inextensible string and k= 0.2 k= 0.2
kept on horizontal surface. Coefficient of friction s= 0.2 s= 0.4
between block and surface shown in figure. A force
F = kt (where k = 1 N/s and t is time in second)
applied on A. Then (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) work done by friction force on block B is zero in time interval t = 0 to t = 3s.
(b) work done by friction force on block A is zero in time interval t = 0 to t = 3s.
(c) work done by tension on B is also zero in time interval t = 0 to t = 3s.
(d) speed of blocks at t = 10s is 27.5 m/s.
9. A, B, C F=t
B A
When t = 3s block just about to move and fk= 1N fk= 1N
t −2
acceleration of block given by a = t>3 fs= 1N fs= 2N
1
v 10
dv = (t − 2)dt
0 3
10
t2 9
v = − 2t = (50 − 20 ) − − 6
2 3 2
= 30 + 1.5 = 31.5 m/s
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_6
10. A, B, D
PART – C
Numerical Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).
1. 2
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_7
x3 9x 2
2. Potential energy of a particle moving along x-axis is given by U = − + 20x . Find out
3 2
position of stable equilibrium state. (Only conservative forces are acting on the particle)
2. 5
du
Sol.: = 0 x = 4, 5
dx
d2u
2 > 0 at x = 5
dx
3. 4
4. A particle is released from rest at origin. It moves under the influence of potential field
U = x 2 − 3 x , where U is in Joule and x is in metre. Kinetic energy in J, at x = 2 m will be
4. 2
U
Sol.: F =− = −2 x + 3
x
2 2
W = F dx = (−2 x + 3) dx = [− x 2 + 3x]02 = 2 J
0 0
5. A body moves with velocity v = ln x m/s, where x is its position in metre. The net force acting on
body is zero at x (in m) equal to
5. 1
dv 1
Sol.: v = ln x, a = v = ln x
dx x
If a = 0 ln x = 0
or x=1m
6. 4
mg − mg
Sol.: a= = 4 m/s2
2m
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_8
m2
7. 1 T T
8. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with initial velocity v0. If half of its velocity is
decreased due to friction in time t0, then coefficient of friction between the particle and the ground
nv0
is . Find the value of n.
4gt 0
8. 2
v0
Sol.: Its velocity becomes under a retardation of g in time t0.
2
v0 v v
= v 0 − g t 0 or g t 0 = 0 or = 0
2 2 2g t0
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_9
SECTION – II
CHEMISTRY
PART-A
(Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. A
2. How many number of nodal planes are formed during the formation of antibonding molecular
orbital?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) None of these
2. B
Sol. Two nodal planes are produced during formation of -antibonding molecular orbital.
3. Which pair of atomic numbers do not belong to the same group of the periodic table?
3. D
Sol. Atomic numbers 57 and 75 belong to the same period of the periodic table. Other pairs belong to
the same group.
4. In which choice are the sodium halides listed in order of increasing lattice energy?
(Consider magnitude of lattice energy only)
4. B
Sol. For sodium halides lattice energy decreases down the group
(B) Cl-atoms occupy equatorial position in case of (I) and F-atoms occupy equatorial position in
case of (II)
(C) Cl-atoms occupy axial position in case of (I) and F-atoms occupy equatorial position in case of (II)
(D) Cl and F atoms occupy axial and equatorial positions in case of (I) and (II) respectively.
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_10
5. A, B, C, D
OCH 3 F
Cl OCH 3
Sol. Cl OCH 3
OCH 3 F
6. B, C, D
−
Sol. CHCl3 is more acidic than CHF3 . C Cl3 is more stable due to p − d bonding.
7. For which of the following electron affinity order of the elements or ions is shown correctly?
(A) S O− (B) P N−
(C) O− S− (D) N− P
7. A, B
Sol. Factual
8. Dihydrogen can be prepared both in laboratory and industry which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct regarding hydrogen preparation?
(A) Highly pure hydrogen is obtained by electrolysing warm aqueous Ba ( OH)2 solution between
nickel electrode.
(B) Reaction of steam on hydrocarbons or coke at high temperature produces H2 gas.
(C) H2 gas can be produced by action of Zn on NaOH
(D) Hydrogen gas obtained as by-product in manufacture of H2O2 by electrolysis of sulphate
solution at high current density.
8. A, B, C, D
Sol. Factual
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_11
9. A.B
Sol. The blue colour of highly diluted solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is due to the presence of
ammoniated electrons and the electrical conductance of such a solution is due to the presence of
ions
M ⎯⎯→M+ + e−
i.e Na ⎯⎯ →Na+ + e−
+
→ Na (NH3 ) X
Na + + xNH3 ⎯⎯
→ e (NH3 )y
e− + yNH3 ⎯⎯
+ −
Na + ( x + y ) NH3 ⎯⎯
→ Na (NH3 )x + e (NH3 )
y
( ammoniatedcatio) (ammoniatedelectrons( anion) )
Sodium is liquid ammonia is quite stable and forms NaNH2 and H2 only in presence of a catalyst
such as platinum black, iron oxide.
− 1
e (NH3 ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
catalyst
→NH2− + H2 + ( y − 1) NH3
y
2
10. Which of the following metal (s) reacts with hydrogen directly to form hydrides?
(A) Na (B) Li
(C) Ba (D) Be
10. ABC
PART – C
Numerical Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).
Total number of compounds in which central atom uses their all the 3 p-orbitals in hybridisation?
1. 8
Sol. IF5 ( sp3 d2 )
(
ICI−4 sp3 d2 )
XeO2F2 sp3 d ( )
(
NH2− sp3 )
B ( OH)3 sp2 ( )
AsCl sp +
4 ( 3
)
( )
NO2− sp2
ClO ( sp )
+
2
2
SbF ( sp d )
2− 3 2
5
PCl ( sp )
+ 3
4
PCl ( sp d )
6
3 2
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_12
2. 1
Sol.
3. No. of molecules which are non-linear among the following molecules will be
ICl2+ , AsF2+ , NOF, N3− , CO2 , COS, H2O, OF2 , SCl2 ,SO2
3. 7
4. Fermium (Fm) atomic number 100 belongs to period X and group Y of the modern periodic table
Find X–Y?
4. 4
5. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If bond length is 1.0 A , the percentage of
electronic charge exists on each atom is Z, than Z/5 is
5. 5
6. How many of the following bear unpaired electron in sp3 hybridised orbitals?
ClO2 ,ClO3 ,NO2 ,NO,CH3 ,CF3 ,ICI2
6. 2
7. 1
8. 9
N 5 1.016
Sol. = 2
1000 254
N = 1.6
Volume strength = 8.96 9
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_13
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS
PART-A
(Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. If A (3, 1+ sin ) and B ( −1, 1+ cos ), R are two points and P is a point on the line x – y = 0.
Then minimum value of PA + PB is
1. A
2. If the point P ( 2cos , 2sin ) for (0, 2) lies in the region between the lines x + y = 2 2 and
x − y = 2 2 and containing origin, then complete set of is
3 7 3 3 5
(A) ( 0, 2) (B) , (C) ( 0, 2 ) − , (D) , − ,
2 2 4 4 2 2 4 4
2. C
3. If 14x2 – 37xy + 5y2 = 0, represent two sides of a triangle whose centroid is (2, 3). Then the
equation of third side is
3. A
( 7x − y )( 2x − 5y ) = 0 0 (0, 0)
2x 2
x1 + x 2 7x1 + 5
Sol. G ,
3 3
7x - y = 0 2x - 5y = 0
A (1, 7 ) and B ( 5,2 )
A B
(x1, 7x1) (x2, 2x2/5)
4. Let a, b R – {– 2} such that a3 + b3 + 6ab = 8. Then the line ax + by = 1 with respect to circle x 2
+ y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 is
4. A
1 1
Sol. If a + b – 2 = 0. Then line ax + by = 1 always passes through point , .
2 2
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_14
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE OR MORE are correct.
5. A pair of tangents PA and PB are drawn from point P to the circle having centre at C and Radius
5. If chord of contact AB subtend right angle at point P. Then which of the following options are
correct
(A) length of PA is 5 2
(B) length of Chord of contact is 5 2
(C) Area of Quadrilateral PACB is 25
(D) Radius of circumcircle of triangle PAB is 5 2
5. B, C
A
Sol. PABC is a square of side length 5 5
P C
6. Let there exist two points P and Q lying on the line y = mx + 8 such that APB = AQB = ,
2
where point A(–4, 0) and B(4, 0). If exhaustive set of values of m is given by (–, a) (b, ) – {c,
d}. Then which of the following is correct
6. A, B, D
7. From a point A on x-axis, two tangents are drawn to x2 + y2 = 16 meets y-axis at P and Q, Then
(A) minimum value of AP2 + AQ2 is 64.
(B) minimum value of AP2 + AQ2 is 128.
(C) minimum Area of APQ is 32
(D) Area of APQ is minimum only for A 4 2, 0 ( )
7. B, C
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_15
8. An equation of a circle which touches the y-axis at (0, 2) and cuts off an intercept 3 on the x-axis
is
(A) x2 + y2 + 4x − 5y + 4 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 5x − 4y + 4 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 − 5x − 4y + 4 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 − 5x + 4y + 4 = 0
8. B, C
Sol. As the required circle touches the y-axis at (0, 2), let its equation be
(x − )2 + (y – 2)2 = 2 or x2 + y2 – 2x − 4y + 4 = 0.
This circle meets the x-axis at the points where x2 – 2x + 4 = 0, which gives two values of x, say
x1, x2, such that x1 + x2 = 2 and x1x2 = 4. Now, we are given that |x1 – x2| = 3.
25 5
(x1 + x2 )2 − 4x1x2 = (x1 − x2 )2 = 9 42 − 16 = 9 2 = =
4 2
Hence the equation of the required circle is x2 + y2 ± 5x – 4y + 4 = 0.
9. From a point P on the circle x2 + y2 – 100x – 200y + 12300 = 0, pair of tangents PA and PB are
drawn on the circle x2 + y2 – 100x – 200y + 12400 = 0, then the locus of centre of circumcircle of
triangle PAB is circle
(A) is of radius 5 2 (B) has centre at (50, 100)
(C) passes through the point (50 + 5 2 , 100) (D) has centre at (0, 50)
9. A, B, C
10. ABC is any triangle inscribed in the circle x2+y2=r2 such that A is a fixed point. If the external and
internal bisectors of A intersect the circle at D and E,then which of the following statement is
true about ADE .
(A) Its centroid is a fixed point. (B) Its circum centre is a fixed point.
(C) Its ortho centre is a fixed point. (D) It is a right angled triangle.
10. A, B, C, D
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_16
PART – C
Numerical Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive).
1. 9
2
x −2 x −2
Sol. − ( m1 + m2 ) + m1m2 = 0
y + 2 y +2
1 1
, represent slope of tangents drawn from (2, – 2) to the circle.
m1 m2
3. Let slope of sides BC, CA and AB of triangle ABC whose orthocentre is at origin are – 1,
– 2 and – 3 respectively. If locus of the circumcentre of triangle ABC is px = qy. (where p
and q are relatively prime) Then find q – p.
3. 5
4. 2
Sol. Power of point (a, b) w.r.t circle C is a2 + b2 – 2(t2 – 3t + 1) a – 2(t2 + 2t) b + t = constant
–2(a + b)t2 + (6a – 4b + 1)t + (a2 + b2 – 2a) = constant
a + b = 0 and 6a – 4b +1 = 0
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CM TEST-2_PAPER-2_17
5. Let P(h, k) be the centre of a circle of minimum radius which contain the three circles
c1 : x2 + y2 − 2x − 2y − 7 = 0 , c2 : x2 + y2 − 6x − 8y + 16 = 0
c3 : x2 + y2 − 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 . Then |h – k| is equal to
5. 2
c1 : ( x − 1) + ( y − 1) = 32
2 2
c 2 : ( x − 3 ) + ( y − 4 ) = 32
2 2
Sol.
c 3 : ( x − 4 ) + ( y + 1) = 32
2 2
6. Let A(3, 2), B(6, 4) and C(0, 3) be the vertices of a triangle ABC. If P is a point inside the
triangle ABC such that triangles APC, APB and BPC have equal areas. Then find
maximum distance of point P from x2 + y2 + 2x = 0
6. 6
7. If D is the absolute difference of minimum and maximum distances of origin from the
locus of image of the point (2, 3) about the line (2x – 3y + 4) + k(x – 2y + 3) = 0, k R.
Then find the value of D2 .
7. 8
8. Let radius of the circle passing through the vertices of the triangle formed by a pair of
straight lines 23x2 + 26xy + 5y2 = 0 and 3x + y – 1 = 0 is R, then R is equal to
8. 5
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