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Major04 QP DLP NEET17 (Pmtcorner - In) PDF
Major04 QP DLP NEET17 (Pmtcorner - In) PDF
1. Two rings of the same radius and mass are placed 1.
such that their centres are at a common point and
their planes are perpendicular to each other. The
moment of inertia of the system about an axis
passing through the centre and perpendicular to the
plane of one of the rings is (mass of the ring = m,
radius = r) :–
(
= m, = r) :–
1 3 1 3
(1) mr2 (2) mr2 (3) mr2 (4) 2mr2 (1) mr2 (2) mr2 (3) mr2 (4) 2mr2
2 2 2 2
2. A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in an 2.
(Enclosure)
enclosure as shown in the figure.
20 cm
20 cm
Mercury
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6. A rod of mass M and length L is placed in a 6. M
L
horizontal plane with one end hinged about the
Mg Mg
vertical axis. A horizontal force of F= is
F=
2 2
5L 5L
applied at a distance
6
from the hinged end. The
6
angular acceleration of the rod will be :-
:–
4g 5g 3g 4g 4g 5g 3g 4g
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
5L 4L 4L 3L 5L 4L 4L 3L
7. The sap in tree rises in a system of capillaries of 7. 2.5 × 10–5
radius 2.5 × 10–5 m. The surface tension of sap is 7.28 × 10–2
7.28 × 10–2 N m–1 and the angle of contact is 0°. –1
0°
The maximum height to which sap can rise in a
tree through capillarity action is (sap = 103 kg m–3) ? ( = 103
–3
)
(1) 0.21 m (2) 0.59 m (1) 0.21 m (2) 0.59 m
(3) 0.87 m (4) 0.91 m (3) 0.87 m (4) 0.91 m
8. Which of the following quantities are always 8.
negative in a SHM:-
(1) F.a (2) a.r (3) v.r (4) v.F (1) F.a (2) a.r (3) v.r (4) v.F
9. A convex lens is made up of three different 9.
materials as shown in the figure. For a point object
placed on its axis, the number of images formed
are :-
:-
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12. 3
0.1 m of water at 80° C is mixed with 0.3 m 3
12. 80° C 0.1 m3 60° C 0.3 m3
of water at 60° C. The final temperature of the
mixture is :-
:-
(1) 65° C (2) 70° C (1) 65° C (2) 70° C
(3) 60° C (4) 75° C (3) 60° C (4) 75° C
13. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together 13. m1 m2
by a massless spring of constant K. When the K
masses are in equilibrium, m2 is removed without
m2
disturbing the system; the amplitude of vibration
is:-
:-
m1 m1
m2 m2
1 4 1 3 1 4 1 3
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
2 2 2 2
1 5 1 4 1 5 1 4
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 4 2 5 2 4 2 5
15. Light of frequency falls on a material of 15.
, 0
threshold frequency 0. Maximum kinetic energy
of emitted electron is proportional to:-
:-
(1) – 0 (2) (1) – 0 (2)
(3) 0 (4) 0 (3) 0 (4) 0
16. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls 16. M R
L
without slipping down an inclined plane of length h
L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of
mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom :– :–
3 3
(1) 2 gh (2) gh (1) 2 gh (2) gh
4 4
4 4
(3) gh (4) 4 gh (3) gh (4) 4 gh
3 3
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23. The intensity of sound after passing through a slab 23.
30%
decreases by 30%. On passing through two such
slabs, the intensity will decrease by:-
(1) 49% (2) 50% (3) 60% (4) 51% (1) 49% (2) 50%
(3) 60% (4) 51%
24. A point source of light S is placed at a distance 24.
S
20 cm
10 cm infront of the centre of a mirror of width
10 cm
20 cm suspended vertically on a wall. A man 10 cm
20 cm
walks with a speed 10 cm/s infront of the mirror
along a line parallel to the mirror at a distance
20 cm from it as shown in figure. Find the
maximum time during which he can see the image :-
of the source S in the mirror : -
S
20cm
S
20cm 10cm
10cm 20cm
20cm
(1) 6 s (2) 3 s
(1) 6 s (2) 3 s (3) 2 s (4) 1 s (3) 2 s (4) 1 s
25. Neutron decay in free space is given as follows: 25.
:
0
n11H1+–1e0+[ ] n11H1+–1e0+[ ]
0
Then the particle in the bracket is:
:
(1) neutrino (2) photon (1) (2)
(3) antineutrino (4) graviton (3) (4)
26. A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re above 26. m
4R e
the Earth's surface, where Re is the radius of Earth R
e
how much minimum energy be given to the body
so that it may escape :–
(1) mgRe (2) 2mgRe (1) mgRe (2) 2mgRe
Key
Filling
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29. A beam of monochromatic light is incident at 29.
i = 50° on one face of an equilateral prism, the i = 50°
40°
angle of emergence is 40°, then the angle of :-
minimum deviation is :- (1) 30° (2) < 30°
(1) 30° (2) < 30° (3) 30° (4) 30° (3) 30° (4) 30°
30. To measure light intensity we use:- 30.
:-
(1) LED with forward bias (1)
LED
(2) LED with reverse bias (2)
LED
(3) photodiode with reverse bias (3)
(4) photodiode with forward bias (4)
31. A small ball of mass 'm' is released at a height 'R' 31.
R
m
above the Earth surface, as
R M R M
m m
K K
9GMm 7G M m 9GMm 7G M m
(3) (4) (3) (4)
R3 R3 R3 R3
32. Figure shows two flasks connected to each other. 32.
The volume of the flask 1 is twice that of flask 1 2
2. The system is filled with an ideal gas at 100
K
200 K
temperature 100 K and 200 K respectively. If the
mass of the gas in 1 be m then what is the mass 1
m 2
of the gas in flask 2 :- :-
1 2 1 2
(1) m (2) m/2 (3) m/4 (4) m/8 (1) m (2) m/2 (3) m/4 (4) m/8
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33. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 33.
256 Hz
5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a 5
guitar. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per 2 Hz
second when the tension in the guitar string slightly
increased. The frequency of the guitar string before
increasing the tension was:-
:-
(1) 257 Hz (2) 261 Hz (1) 257 Hz (2) 261 Hz
(3) 254 Hz (4) 251 Hz (3) 254 Hz (4) 251 Hz
34. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment 34.
a straight black line of length L is drawn on inside
L
part of objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real
image of this line. The length of this image is I.
I
The magnification of the telescope is :
L L L LI L L L LI
(1) (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) (1) (2) 1 (3) 1 (4)
I I I LI I I I LI
35. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode :– 35.
:
(1) lowers the potential barrier. (1)
(2) raises the potential barrier. (2)
(3) increases the majority carrier current. (3)
(4) increases the minority carrier current. (4)
36. The atmospheric pressure and height of barometer 36.
column is 105 Pa and 760mm respectively on the 10 5
760
Earth surface. If the barometer is taken to the
Moon then column height will be :–
(1) zero (2) 4560 mm (1) (2) 4560
(3) 126.6 mm (4) 760 mm (3) 126.6 (4) 760
37. A gas at 27° C has a volume V and pressure P. 37. 27° C V P
On heating its pressure is doubled and volume
becomes three times. The resulting temperature
:-
of the gas will be :-
(1) 1800°C (2) 162°C (1) 1800°C (2) 162°C
(3) 1527°C (4) 600°C (3) 1527°C (4) 600°C
38. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D 38.
S1 S2
from two coherent sources S1 and S2 is 2I0. The D 2I
0
wave length of the wave is = 8m. Resultant
= 8m
D
intensity at D will be:-
:-
8m D 8m D
S1 S1
6m 6m
S2 S2
(1) 4I0 (2) I0 (3) 2I0 (4) Zero (1) 4I0 (2) I0 (3) 2I0 (4) Zero
1 16 I 1 16 I max
39. If , then max = ? :-
I2 1 I min
39. I 1 , I =
:-
2 min
4 25 25 5 4 25 25 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
1 9 3 3 1 9 3 3
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40. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has 40.
a constant voltage drop of 0.5V at all currents and a 0.5V
maximum power rating of 100 milliwatts. What should 100
be the value of the resistor R, connected in series with
the diode, for obtaining maximum current :-
0.5V 0.5V
R R
I I
1.5V 1.5V
(1) 1.5 (2) 5 (3) 6.67 (4) 200 (1) 1.5 (2) 5 (3) 6.67 (4) 200
41. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young's 41.
moduli of steel and brass wires shown in the figure
p, q
r
are p, q and r respectively. Then the corresponding
?
ratio of increase in their lenghs would be :– 3q
3q (1)
5p2 r
(1) Steel
5p2 r
Steel 5q
5q (2) 2 2m
(2) 2 3p r
3p r 2m Brass
Brass 3q
3q (3)
(3) 5pr 3m
5pr
3m
5q 5q
(4) (4)
3pr 3pr
42. In a thermodynamics process, pressure of a fixed 42.
mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the 20
gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done J
8 J
on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas
30 J
was 30 J. The final internal energy will be :-
:-
(1) 18 J (2) 9 J (3) 4.5 J (4) 36 J (1) 18 J (2) 9 J (3) 4.5 J (4) 36 J
43. Which of the following properties of a sound 43.
wave are not affected by change in the
temperature of air :-
(1) (2)
(1) intensity (2) wave length
(3) frequency (4) velocity (3) (4)
44. The ratio of momentum of an electron and an 44.
100 V
alpha particle which are accelerated from rest by
-
:-
a potential difference of 100V is :-
(1) 1 (2) (1) 1 (2) 2m e / m
2m e / m
(3) (m e / m ) (4) (m e / 2m ) (3) (m e / m ) (4) (m e / 2m )
45. Which of the following gates will have an output of l:- 45.
l
:-
0 0
(1) (2) (1) (2)
1 1
0 0
(3) (4) (3) (4)
0 0
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46. The freezing point depression constant for water 46.
+1.86°C m
–1
OH OH OH OH
OH OH
OH OH OH OH
OH OH
I II III I II III
(1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III (1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III
(3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I (3) III > I > II (4) II > III > I
56. In a face–centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is 56.
shared equally by how many unit cells :-
:-
(1) 4 (2) 2 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 6 (4) 8
57. 2 m aqueous solution of an electrolyte x3y2 is 25% 57. x 3 y 2 2m
ionized. The boiling point of the solution is 25%
(Kb for H2O = 0.52 K kg/mol) :- (Kb for H2O = 0.52 K kg/mol) :-
(1) 375.08 K (2) 374.04 K (1) 375.08 K (2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K (4) 373.25 K (3) 377.12 K (4) 373.25 K
58. Correct match is :- 58.
:-
Ore Process Method
(1) CuFeS2 Concentration Leaching (1) CuFeS2 Leaching
(2) Au Purification Polling (2) Au
(3) Fe2O3 Reduction Electrolysis (3) Fe2O3
(4) PbS Reduction Self reduction (4) PbS
59. Which among the following complex have 59.
maximum number of isomers :- :-
(1) K3 [Co(OX)2 Br2] (1) K3 [CO(OX)2 Br2]
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] (2) [Cr(NH3)6] [CO(CN)6]
(3) [Pt(H2O)3Cl3]+ (3) [Pt(H2O)3Cl3]+
(4) [Pt(py) (NH3) Br Cl] (4) [Pt(py) (NH3) Br Cl]
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O O
HO HO
H 1. LiAH4 H 1. LiAH
60. + A B
2. H
3O
60. + A
2. H
3O
4
B
HO HO
O O
O O
OH OH
OH OH
O O
OH O OH O
YA YA
(3) X <1 (4) YA + X A = 1 (3) X <1 (4) YA + X A = 1
A A
Pt pt
63. NH3 O 2
500K
W H 2O 63. NH 3 O2
500K
W H2O
X
W O 2 X
W O 2
X H2O Y W X H2O Y W
correct statement is :- :-
(1) 'W' is used as anaesthetic (1) 'W'
(2) Conc. Y Cu NO(g) (2)
Y Cu NO(g)
(3) Dil.Y + Zn N2O(g) (3) Y + Zn N2O(g)
(4) Conc. Y + I2 HIO4 (4)
Y + I2 HIO4
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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64. Which one of the following is most reactive 64.
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
(1) CH2 = CH – Cl (2) C6H5Cl (1) CH2 = CH – Cl (2) C6H5Cl
(3) CH3CH = CH – Cl (4) ClCH2 – CH = CH2 (3) CH3CH = CH – Cl (4) ClCH2 – CH = CH2
65. Compound (x) C4H8O gives positive haloform 65.
x C4H8O + ve
test but does not give 2, 4-DNP test is : 2, 4-DNP
O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH H OH H
OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
O O
66. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid 66.
A
components, A and B, respectively of an ideal B
pA
pB
A
binary solution. If xA represents the mole fraction
xA
of component A, the total pressure of the solution
will be.
(1) pB + xA (pB – pA) (2) pB + xA (pA – pB)
(1) pB + xA (pB – pA) (2) pB + xA (pA – pB)
(3) pA + xA (pB – pA) (4) pA + xA (pA – pB) (3) pA + xA (pB – pA) (4) pA + xA (pA – pB)
67. An alloy of gold and copper crystallizes in a cube 67.
lattice in which the gold atom occupy the lattice
point at the corner of a cube and copper atoms
occupy the centres of each of the cube faces.
Determine the formula of this compound :- :-
(1) AuCu (2) AuCu2 (1) AuCu (2) AuCu2
(3) Au2Cu (4) AuCu3 (3) Au2Cu (4) AuCu3
68. Correct statement about phosphine is /are :- 68.
:-
(a) It has rotten egg like small (a)
(b) In aquous solution and presence of light it (b)
yields white phosphorous and hydrogen
(c) It explodes with Br2 (c) Br2
(d) In pure form it is non inflammable (d)
(1) only c & d (2) only b, c, & d (1) only c & d (2) only b, c, & d
(3) only d (4) All are right (3) only d (4)
MgCl Cl MgCl Cl
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CCl4 CCl4
70. RCOOAg + Br2
R – Br + AgBr + CO2. 70. RCOOAg + Br2
R – Br + AgBr + CO2.
This reaction is called :
(1) Wurtz reaction (1)
(2) Hunsdiecker reaction (2)
(3) Friedel - Crafts reaction (3) -
(4) Kolbe reaction (4)
71. A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the 71.
fcc
unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is
404 pm.
2.72 g cm–3
2.72g cm–3. The molar mass of the metal is :-
:-
(NA Avogadro constant= 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) (NA
= 6.02 × 1023 mol–1)
(1) 20g mol–1 (2) 40g mol–1 (1) 20g mol–1 (2) 40g mol–1
(3) 30g mol–1 (4) 27g mol-1 (3) 30g mol–1 (4) 27g mol-1
72. Mole fraction of O2 in O2 and O3 mixture is 72. O2 O3
O2
0.25
w w
0.25. Hence percentage concentration % of
O2
W %
:-
W
O2 in mixture is :-
(1) 18.18 (2) 1.81 (3) 81.82 (4) 8.18 (1) 18.18 (2) 1.81 (3) 81.82 (4) 8.18
73. Correct statement regarding halogen is/are :- 73.
:-
(1) Normally interhalogen compounds are more (1)
reactive than fluorine
(2) Oxidising power order HClO4 > HClO3 > (2) HClO4 > HClO3 >
HClO2 > HClO HClO2 > HClO
(3) Chlorine shows bleaching action by reducing (3)
coloured substance
(4) Stability order of oxides I > Cl > Br (4)
I > Cl > Br
(3) CH3—CH2—NH2 (4) All of these (3) CH3—CH2—NH2 (4)
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76. An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong 76.
electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:-
(1) Increase in number of ions (1)
(2) Increase in ionic mobility of ions (2)
(3) 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal (3)
100%
dilution
(4) Increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic (4)
mobility of ions
77. NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4
P(gas) 77. NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4
P(gas)
CH3COOH CH3COOH
'R' (
NaOH NaOH
Q 'R' (ppt) Q )
Pb(CH3COO)2 Pb(CH3COO)2
correct statement is :- :-
(1) 'P' is yellow cloured gas (1) 'P'
(2) 'Q' is orange red solution (2) 'Q'
(3) 'R' is yellow ppt (3) 'R'
(4) None (4)
78. Correct statement for 3d-series is :- 78. Correct statement for 3d-series is :-
(1) Sc shows stable + 3 oxidation state (1) Sc + 3
(2) Zn has maximum I.E. (2) Zn I.E.
(3) Metallic radius of Mn > Fe (3) Mn > Fe
(4) All are correct (4)
79. The order of rectivity of following alcohols 79. HCl
toward HCl is :
(3) (4) OH
(3) (4) OH
Ph Ph
OH OH
(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4 (1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
(3) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (4) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (3) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (4) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2
80. Which of the following amines reacts most 80.
rapidly with
O O
O2 N O — C — CH3 ? O2N O — C — CH3 ?
Cl NO2 Cl NO 2
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
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81. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.75 × 10–5 81. 1.75 × 10–5
and oCH3COOH = 370.6 × 10–4 mho m2 mol–1. The oCH COOH = 370.6 × 10–4 mho m2 mol–1, 0.01
3
specific conductance of 0.01 molar acetic acid :-
solution will be :-
(1) 1.55 × 10–4 Scm2 mol–1
(1) 1.55 × 10–4 Scm2 mol–1
(2) 1.55 × 10–5 Scm2 mol–1 (2) 1.55 × 10–5 Scm2 mol–1
(3) 1.55 × 10–6 Scm2 mol–1 (3) 1.55 × 10–6 Scm2 mol–1
(4) 1.55 × 10–8 Scm2 mol–1 (4) 1.55 × 10–8 Scm2 mol–1
Cu Cu
Blue solution
Conc.
H2SO4
Brown fumes
H2SO4
(1) Cu(NO3)2 (2) KNO3 (1) Cu(NO3)2 (2) KNO3
(3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) AgNO3 (3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) AgNO3
83. Which of the following order is not correct :- 83.
:-
(1) Zn > Cd > Hg Heat of atomisation (1) Zn > Cd > Hg
(2) Mn2O7 > MnO2 > MnO Acidic strength (2) Mn2O7 > MnO2 > MnO
(3) CrO3 > MoO3 > WO3 oxidising nature (3) CrO3 > MoO3 > WO3
(4) HgCl2 > CdCl2 > ZnCl2 Ionic character (4) HgCl2 > CdCl2 > ZnCl2
OH OH
conc. H 2SO 4
84.
Major product : 84. conc. H 2SO 4
:
.. ..
NH CH3 NH2 NH NH2
CH3
(1) O (2) (1) (2)
O
CH3 CH3
NH2 NH2 NH2
NH2
HO HO
(3) (4) (3) (4)
H3C O H3C O
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86. Select the correct statement :- 86. :-
(1) Schottky defect is shown by CsCl (1) CsCl
(2) Frenkel defect is shown by ZnS (2) ZnS
(3) hcp and ccp structures have the same (3) hcp ccp
12
co-ordination number 12
(4) All of these (4)
Passage 87 - 89 Passage 87 - 89
The Ellingham diagram for zinc, magnesium and Zn, Mg
Carbon
carbon converting into corresponding oxides is Ellingham
shown below.
0
0
–200 2C + O2 2CO
–200 2C + O2 2CO
–400
–400 2Zn + O 2 2ZnO b.p
2Zn + O 2 2ZnO b.p
G°, kJ
–600
G°, kJ
–600 m.p
m.p
–800
–800 2Mg + O2 2MgO
2Mg + O2 2MgO b.p
b.p –1000 m.p
–1000 m.p
0 500 1000 1500 2000
0 500 1000 1500 2000 Temperature, ºC
Temperature, ºC
87. At what temperature, zinc and carbon have equal 87. Zn
carbon
affinity for oxygen?
(1) 1000º C (2) 1500º C (1) 1000º C (2) 1500º C
(3) 500º C (4) 1200º C (3) 500º C (4) 1200º C
88. To make the following reduction process 88.
spontaneous, temperature should be : ZnO + C Zn + CO
ZnO + C Zn + CO
(1) 1000º C (2) > 1100º C
(1) 1000º C (2) > 1100º C
(3) < 500º C (4) < 1000º C (3) < 500º C (4) < 1000º C
89. At 1100ºC, which reaction is spontaenous to a 89. 1100ºC,
maximum extent?
(1) MgO + C Mg + CO (1) MgO + C Mg + CO
(2) ZnO + C Zn + CO (2) ZnO + C Zn + CO
(3) MgO + Zn Mg + ZnO (3) MgO + Zn Mg + ZnO
(4) ZnO + Mg MgO + Zn (4) ZnO + Mg MgO + Zn
90. D-Glucose and L-Glucose are
90. D-
L-
(1) Diastereomer
(1)
(2) Epimers
(2)
(3) Enantiomers
(3)
(4) (i) and (ii) both
(4) (i)
(ii)
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91. With ever-increasing population of the world 91.
which of the following is a major necessity :-
(1) Enhancement of food production
:-
(2) Population control (1)
(2)
(3) Development in Education system
(4) Enhancement in silk production (3)
(4)
92. Ruminate endosperm occur in seed of :- 92.
:-
(1) Maize (2) Pea (1) (2)
(3) Castor (4) Betelnut (3) (4)
93. Read the following statements carefully and 93.
answer the question given below.
(A) estrogen increase the protein anabolism and (A)
its modrate level inhibit the FSH and LH. FSH LH
(B) Progesterone secreted by corpus luteum (B)
and its modrate level inhibit the secretion
GnRh
of GnRh.
(C) Inhibin is secreted by corpus luteum and (C)
FSH
it inhibit the secretion of FSH and Lesser
LH
extent LH.
(D) Relaxin Release by corpus luteum and its (D)
modrate level inhibit the secretion of GnRh, GnRh, FSH LH
FSH, LH
How many statements are correct?
(1) A & B (2) C and D (1) A B (2) C D
(3) A, B & C (4) B, C & D (3) A, B C (4) B, C D
94. A child has blood group O. If the father has 94.
O
A
blood group A and mother blood group B. the B
possible genotype of the other offsprings.
(1) IAIA, IBIB, IAIB
(1) IAIA, IBIB, IAIB
(2) IAIB, IAIO, IBIO (2) IAIB, IAIO, IBIO
(3) IAIB, IAIO, IBIB (3) IAIB, IAIO, IBIB
(4) IAIB, IAIA, IOIO
95. Satellite DNA is:- (4) IAIB, IAIA, IOIO
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106. Read following statements :- 106.
:-
(a) made crops more tolerant to biotic stress (a)
such as cold, drought, salt and heat
(b) reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (b)
(c) helped to reduce post-harvest losses (c)
(d) increased effciency of mineral uses by
plants
(d)
(e) enhanced nutritional value of food
How many statement incorrect for application (e)
of GM crops. GM
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (1) (2) (3) (4)
107. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, 107.
(A, B, C
D)
represent four different types of fore limbs of
mammals, which one of the these is correctly
identified in the option given along with its
correct function and adaption :-
:-
A B C D A B C D
Fore limb Function Adaptation
(1) (A)
(1) (A) Man Running Carnivore
(2) (B) Whale Swimming Aquatic (2) (B)
(3) (C) Cheetah Running Carnivore (3) (C)
(4) (D) Bat Flying Aerial (4) (D)
(ii)
Vector borne
(b) Swine flu
disease (ii) (b)
Bacterial
(iii) fecoral route (c) Pneumonia
(iii)
Infection (c)
Bacterial
(iv) droplet (d) Typhoid (iv)
infection
(d)
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125. Failure of cytokinesis after telophage stage of 125.
cell division results in an increase in a whole
set of chromosomes in a organism and, this
:-
phenomenon is known as :- (1) (2)
(1) Aneuploidy (2) Polyploidy
(3) Trisomy (4) Nullsomy (3) (4)
126. Whisky, brandy, wine, rum, beer. 126. Whisky, brandy, wine, rum, beer.
How many Beverages are produced by
?
distillation?
(1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) Five (1) (2) (3) (4)
127. During evolution of human, the 1st man who 127.
believed in "immortality of soul" was
(1) Cromagnon man (2) Neandarthal man (1) (2)
(3) Australopithecus (4) Ramapithecus (3) (4)
128. Which of the following part of immunity works 128.
only against virus :-
:-
(1) Inflammation (1)
(2) Interferons (2)
(3) Cell mediated Immunity (3)
(4) NK Cells (4)
129. Smallest angiospermic parasite is :- 129.
:-
(1) Lemna (2) Arceuthobium (1) (2)
(3) Wolfia (4) Hydrilla (3) (4)
130. Insectivorous plant is :- 130.
:-
(1) Producer (2) Consumer (1) (2)
(3) 1 & 2 both (4) Decomposer (3) 1
2 (4)
131. Which of the following option is correct ? 131.
:-
(1) In about 60% of angiosperm, pollination (1) 60%
occur at 3- celled stage.
(2) In about 40% of angiosperm, pollination (2) 40%
occur at 2- celled stage.
(3) Generative cells divides meiotically to form (3)
two male gametes.
(4) In about 60% of an angiosperm, pollination (4) 60%
occur when a pollen grain at least forms a
vegetative cell and generative cell.
132. Read following statements carefully :- 132.
:-
(a) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably (a)
autogamous.
(b) Plants use two abiotic and one biotic agents (b)
to achieve pollination
(c) Wind pollination in quite common in (c)
grasses
(d)
(d) Pollination by water is quite rare in
flowering plant.
How many of the above statements are correct. (1) (2)
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) (4)
(3) Three (4) One
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133. Hyperplesia takes place in endometrium in the 133.
presence of.:-
(1) Oestrogen (2) Progesterone (1) (2)
(3) FSH (4) LH (3) FSH (4) LH
134. When a man with hypertrichosis marries a 134. hypertrichosis
normal woman, what percentage of their sons
would be expected to hairy ears? ?
(1) 50% (2) 100% (1) 50% (2) 100%
(3) 0% (4) 25% (3) 0% (4) 25%
135. Which of the following sequence is most likely 135.
to be a restriction enzyme recognization site? ?
(1) CGGCTT (2) CGCCGC (1) CGGCTT (2) CGCCGC
(3) GTAATG (4) GTCGAC (3) GTAATG (4) GTCGAC
136. Pick up the wrong statement:- 136.
:-
(1) Antibiotics are chemical substances, which (1)
,
are produced by some microbes
(2) Antibiotics can kill or retard the growth of
other microbes (2)
(3) Penicilline was first antibiotic to be
discovered
(4) Penicilline discovered by Ernest chain and (3)
Howard florey (4)
137. Find the correct match from table :- 137.
:-
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146. Match the columns and identify the correct 146.
option:-
:-
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157. The correct order of operation of genetic drift 157.
in the following population (represented by
circle as their size) is :- :-
A B C D A B C D
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164. Which property of DNA double helix led 164.
watson and crick to hypothesise semi-
conservative mode of DNA replication?
(1) Antiparallel polarity (1)
(2) Complementary (2)
(3) Helical form (3)
(4) All of these (4)
165. Which of the following statement is correct 165. DNA
about DNA cloning?
?
(1) Making multiple non-identical copies of any
(1)
template DNA
(2) Making multiple identical copies of any
template DNA (2)
(3) Making multiple identical copies of any
plant tissue
(4) Making multiple identical copies of Animal (3)
tissue (4)
166. What is callus? 166. (callus)
(1) Undifferentiated Mass of cells (1)
(2) Dedifferentiated Mass of cells (2)
(3) Redifferentiated Mass of cells (3)
(4) (1) & (2) both (4) (1) (2)
167. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by: 167.
:
(1) Ability to defend itself (1)
(2) Strategy to obtain food (2)
(3) Number of offspring (3)
(4) Dominance over other individuals (4)
168. Eichhornia plant is an example of :- 168.
:-
(1) Free floating plant (1)
(2) Phytoplankton (2)
(3) Rooted hydrophytes (3)
(4) Xerophytes (4)
169. Which of the following forest present near to 169.
equator of earth ?
(1) Temperate coniferous forest (1)
(2) Tropical rain forest (2)
(3) Alpine tundra (3)
(4) Temperate decidous forest (4)
170. Which of the following is an example of 170.
polluted water indicator ?
?
(1) Daphnia (1)
(2) Trout fish (2)
(3) E.coli (3) .
(4) Larva of stone fly (4)
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171. Meiosis occur in :- 171.
:-
(1) Archesporial cell (1)
(2) Micropore (2)
(3) Megaspore (3)
(4) Megaspore mother cell (4)
172. Which structure are homologous to penis :- 172.
(1) Clitoris (1)
(2) Labia Majora (2)
(3) Labia Minora (3)
(4) Mons Pubis (4)
173. A diploid organism is heterzygous for 4 loci, 173.
4
,
how many types of gametes can be produced
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 16 (3) 8 (4) 16
174. Which enzyme removes the RNA primer in 174.
prokaryotic DNA repication ?
?
(1) DNA polymerase III (1) DNA polymerase III
(2) DNA polymerase II (2) DNA polymerase II
(3) DNA polymerase I (3) DNA polymerase I
(4) DNA polymerase-B (4) DNA polymerase-B
175. The linking of desired gene with the plasmid 175.
vector became possible with the special
enzyme, which acts on cut DNA molecules and
joins their ends. this enzyme is called :- :-
(1) Restriction enzyme (1)
(2) DNA polymerase-I (2)
-I
(3) DNA ligase (3)
(4) Endonuclease (4)
176. Pusa gaurav is improved variety of :- 176.
:-
(1) Flat bean (1)
(2) Brassica (2)
(3) Okra (3)
(4) Chilli (4)
177. Which of the following defence activity against 177.
entry of pathogen, when person got injured by
:-
knife is incorrect :-
(1)
(1) Phagocytic cells reaches active site and
performs phagocytosis
(2)
(2) Exudation of fluid from blood vessels resist
entry of pathogen inside blood.
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178. Which of the components form ecosystem ? 178.
(1) Producer only
(2) Consumer only (1)
(3) Decomposer only (2)
(4) Producer, consumer, decomposer and (3)
abionic factors. (4)
179. In which ecosystem maximum producer found 179.
in per unit area ?
(1) Grassland ecosystem (1)
(2) Pond ecosystem (2)
(3) Forest ecosystem (3)
(4) Desert ecosystem (4)
180. Concentration of Pb (lead) in human blood is 180.
:-
alarming stage is :- (1) 20 µg/100ml
(1) 20 µg/100ml (2) 10 µg/100ml
(2) 10 µg/100ml
(3) 100 µg/100ml
(3) 100 µg/100ml
(4) 50 µg/100ml (4) 50 µg/100ml
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