MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS AND ETHICS

I. DIRECTION. Selection the ONE lettered answer or completion that is BEST in each case.

_____1. This law mandates the Department of health to oversee and monitor the integration,
coordination and supervision of all drug rehabilitation, intervention, after-care and
follow-up programs, projects and activities as well as the establishment, operation,
maintenance and management of privately-owned drug treatment rehabilitation
centers and drug testing networks and laboratories throughout the country, in
coordination with DSWD and other agencies.
A. RA1517 B. R.A. 9165 C. RA7719 D. RA4486
_____2. What government agency is designated as the National Reference Laboratory for
Environmental and Occupational Health, Toxicology and Micronutrient Assay and shall
assure the competence, integrity and stability of drug testing centers nationwide.
A. RITM B. BHFS C. East Ave. Med Center D. San Lazaro Hospital
_____3. This government agency is mandated to formulate and establish the standards for
regulation of hospitals, clinics and other health facilities and to enforce standards that
shall be the basis of issuance of license/accreditation of a facility.
A. RITM B. BHFS C. East Ave. Med Center D. San Lazaro Hospital
_____4. Which of the following are the tasks of the BHFS:
1. Develop policies and guidelines on establishment, operation and monitoring of drug
testing laboratories
2. Conduct accreditation of all private and government drug testing laboratories
3. Conduct training of DOH regulatory officers
4. Conduct research and development on drug testing and other related activities
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____5. Which of the following are the tasks of NRL:
1. Train technical staff of drug testing laboratories
2. Assist DOH designated agencies in the conduct of accreditation of confirmatory
laboratories for drug testing and in the evaluation of test kits and reagents
3. Promote quality assurance program in all drug testing laboratories
4. Resolve conflicting/challenge results among confirmatory laboratories
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____6. Which of the following are the minimum qualifications of the head of a screening
laboratory for drug testing?
1. Licensed physician certified by the Philippine Board of Pathology
2. With two years experience in analytical toxicology
3. Trained in laboratory management and quality assurance program
4. Licensed chemist with Master’s degree
 A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
______7. In case where a drug-testing laboratory is a division of a clinical laboratory, it may be
headed by:
1. License physician 3. Medical technologist
2. Chemist 4. Pharmacist
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____8. The analyst for a drug testing laboratory must be a registered:
1. Chemist 3. Medical technologist
2. Laboratory technician 4. Physician
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____9. Which of the following are the training requirements for the head of the drug testing
laboratory?
1. Theory and practice of the drug testing procedures used in the laboratory
2. Chain of custody, reporting, and record keeping
3. Review and interpretation of test results
4. Quality assurance program
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____10. An analyst for drug testing must have training in all of the following, except?
A. Analytical methods and procedures
B. Maintenance of chain of custody
C. Dangerous drugs regulations and policies
D. Specimen integrity and security
_____11. Given the following personnel in drug testing laboratory, which of the following
function to verify the completeness of CCF?
A. Analyst C. Authorized specimen collector
B. Head of the laboratory D. owner of the drug testing laboratory
_____12. Which of the following are persons who are not authorized to collect specimen:
1. Employer of the client 3. Complainant
2. Investigator at the crime scene 4. Administrator of the establishment

A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____13. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Screening laboratory shall have at least 20 square meters in floor area and 15
square meter work area.
B. Screening laboratory shall have at least 30 square meters in floor area and 20 square
meter work area.
C. Screening laboratory shall have at least 30 square meters in floor area and 15 square
meter work area.
 D. Screening laboratory shall have at least 20 square meters in floor area and 1 square
meter work area.
_____14. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 60sqm in floor area and 30 sqm work
area.
B. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 60sqm in floor area and 40 sqm work
area.
C. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 40sqm in floor area and 30 sqm work
area.
D. Confirmatory laboratory shall have at least 40sqm in floor area and 20 sqm work
area.
_____15. A drug testing laboratory of whatever category shall have within its premise an area
which can accommodate at least how many prospective clients at a given time?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10
_____16. Which of the following specimen and collection device do not match?
A. Urine: 10 mL capacity polyethylene container
B. Scalp hair: 200mg capacity plastic bag
C. Saliva: screw capped 30ml capacity polyethylene container
D. Blood: 10mL capacity plain test tube
_____17. Collection of specimen for drug testing at a temporary/remote facility can only be
conducted at the following locations/conditions:
1. Workplace 2. School 3. Jail 4. Rehabilitation center
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____18. Collection of specimen for all mandatory drug testing shall be done at permanent
facility except for:
1. Crime scene 2. Jail 3. Post accident 4. School
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____19. For remote collection, drug testing laboratory must secure a permit from BHFS prior
to the scheduled activity for at least:
A. 5 days B. 10 days C. 15 days D. 20 days
_____20. For mandatory drug testing the specimen is:
A. Blood B. scalp hair C. tissues D. urine

_____21. Which of the following specimen and minimum quantity do not match?
A. Blood: 5ml C. scalp hair: 100mg
B. Saliva: 1ml D. urine: 60ml
_____22. Which of the following conditions is allowed for unobserved specimen collection for
drug testing?
1. Physically unable to go to the laboratory
2. Involve in crime scene
3. Involve in post-accident
4. Critically ill
 A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____23. Which of the following are the causes of specimen rejection for drug testing?
1. Absence of ID in the specimen
2. Tampered seal
3. Insufficient quantity of specimen
4. No authorized specimen collector’s name in the specimen container
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____24. Which of the following is the cause of specimen rejection for drug testing?
A. Discrepancies of the laboratory name and address
B. Date and time of collection is not indicate
C. Failure of the authorized specimen collector to sign the CCF
D. Unmarked reason for test
______25. In drug testing, the test must be cancelled by the head of the laboratory when:
A. Client signature is missing on the form
B. Client provided a comment that the client refused to sign the form
C. The analyst failed to sign the CCF for a specimen reported as negative
D. Incomplete data elements
______26. A drug testing laboratory must retain a specimen that was reported as either
positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid for a minimum of:
A. 5 days B. 15 days C. one year D. two years
______27. A drug testing laboratory may retain a specimen that was reported as either
positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid for a maximum of:
A. 5 days B. 15 days C. one year D. two years
_____28. All of the following are analytical methods used for screening of drug except:
A. EIA B. EMIT C. GC-MS D. TLC
_____29. The screening laboratory must keep specimens with a negative results for a minimum
of:
A. 5 days B. 15 days C. one year D. 2 years
_____30. For criminal case-related drug testing, the confirmatory result should be released
within how many day/s after the submission of the specimen?
A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 4 days

_____31. For confirmatory testing, the results must be released within a maximum of:
A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 5 days d. 4 days
_____32. Which of the following conditions denote that the urine is adulterated?
1. The nitrite concentration is confirmed to be greater than or equal to
500ug/L
2. The pH is less than 3 or greater than or equal to 11
3. The specimen contains an exogenous substance
4. The specimen contains an endogenous substance at a concentration
greater than what is considered a normal physiological concentration
 A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____33. Which of the following conditions denote that the urine is substituted?
1. Creatinine concentration is more than 442umol/L
2. Creatinine concentration is less than 442umol/L
3. Specific gravity is greater than 1.002
4. Specific gravity is less than 1.002
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____35. Which of the following are indicators that the urine specimen is diluted?
1. The creatinine concentration is more than 1768umol/L
2. The creatinine concentration is less than 1768umol/L
3. The specific gravity is more than 1.003
4. The specific gravity is less than 1.003
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____36. In drug testing, the urine specimen is invalid when:
1. Adulterated, substituted and diluted
2. Improperly collected, handled and stored
3. Improperly documented
4. such do not meet the criteria for a substituted or invalid result
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____37. Which of the following analytes may be determined in a validity test on a urine
specimen?
1. Creatinine 2. Specific gravity 3. pH 4. Nitrite
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____38. What laboratory form reflects the actual movement between individuals or
movement to/from temporary storage that are used for handling specimen?
A. Memorandum for Records C. Evidence of Review
B. Chain of Custody D. Confirmatory worksheet
_____39. In drug testing, all specimen submitted shall have a corresponding laboratory result
issued within:
A. 1 day C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
_____40. This is the second analytical procedure performed on a different aliquot of the
original specimen to identify and quantify the presence of a specific
drug/metabolite.
A. Screening test C. cancelled test
B. Confirmatory test D. validity test
_____41. The test used to determine if a specimen is adulterated, diluted or substituted.
A. Screening test C. cancelled test
B. Confirmatory test D. validity test
_____42. A sample with a known drug concentration or an accredited drug free sample used to
evaluate the ability of a laboratory to test a specimen for drugs and/or metabolites.
A. Calibrator C. blind sample
B. Aliqout D. Control
_____43. When a specimen is either adulterated, substituted, or contain a drug/metabolite,
the DOH-accredited laboratory must report it as:
A. Negative C. non-negative
B. Positive D. reconfirmed
_____44. This is the result reported when a laboratory is able to corroborate the original result
reported to the head of the laboratory.
A. Negative C. non-negative
B. Positive D. reconfirmed
_____45. This is the test used to differentiate a negative specimen from one that requires
further testing for drugs or drug metabolites.
A. Screening test C. cancelled test
B. Confirmatory test D. validity test
_____46. The drug test certificates on tests performed by accredited drug testing centers shall
be valid for:
A. One month C. six months
B. Three months D. one year
_____47. Which of the following must be submitted for application for accreditation of a drug
testing laboratory?
1. Letter of endorsement to the Bureau Director
2. DTI registration
3. Floor plan
4. Quality control program
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____48. Application for renewal of accreditation shall be filed within how many days before
the expiration date?
A. 30 days C. 90 days
B. 60 days D. 120 days
_____49. Which of the following acts are considered as violations of the IRR on Drug Testing
Laboratories?
1. Issuance of fraudulent drug test results
2. Refusal to allow survey
3. Failure to refer the positive screening result to a confirmatory laboratory
4. Conviction of the owner or manager for any criminal offense committed even
not incident to the operation of the laboratory.
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____50. All test results for drug testing shall bear the signature of the:
1. Analyst 2. Owner of the lab 3. Head of the lab 4. Donor
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
 B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____51. Under Section 7 of the Administrative Order 118B, s.1992, the person responsible for
the training program for medical technology interns should be a:
A. Licensed physician certified by the Philippine Board of Pathology
B. Chief Medical Technologist
C. Clinical Coordinator
D. Dean
_____52. For every 1 registered medical technologist in each section, the number of interns
allowed should not exceed:
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
_____53. All clinical laboratories shall be monitored regularly and shall be inspected every:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 5 years D. 3 years
_____54. The license to operate a clinical laboratory shall be suspended or revoked when the
following acts are committed:
1. Operation without a registered medical technologist
2. Change of ownership without informing BHFS
3. Refusal to allow inspection
4. Gross negligence
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____55. Which of the following is not a function of a Dean of the College of Medical
Technology?
A. Initiating faculty development program
B. Preparing teaching load
C. Recommending appointment of faculty members
D. Administer general policies of the University
_____56. Who among the following can teach medical technology professional subjects:
1. RMT without master’s degree
2. RMT with master’s degree and 1 year clinical experience
3. RMT with 1 year experience in training medtech interns
4. Licensed physician with minimum of 2 years clinical practice.
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____57. During the internship training program, the intern must render at least 250 hours in
all of the following sections, except?
A. Clinical Chemistry C. Blood Banking
B. CM and Para D. Microbiology
_____58. In histopathology, how many number of hours must an intern render during
internship?
A. 54 hours B. 170 hours C. 250 hours D. 300 hours
_____59. The ratio of textbook to students should be:
A. 1:5 B. 1:10 C. 1:15 D. 1:20
_____60. The ratio of clinical coordinator to interns should be:
A. 1:20 B. 1:30 C. 1:40 D. 1:50
_____61. Which of the following is not a qualification of a clinical coordinator?
A. Registered medical technologist
B. Bonafide member of PAMET and PASMETH
C. Must have one year clinical experience
D. Must have a master’s degree
_____62. In the evaluation of the performance of interns, which of the following should be
applied in computing grade?
A. 40% examination, 60% clinical performance
B. 60% examination, 405 clinical performance
C. 30% examination, 70% clinical performance
D. 70% examination, 30% clinical performance
_____63. Under section 13 of the guidelines and procedures for the implementation of CPE
programs, this shall refer to the gathering of professionals which shall include
among others, conferences, symposia or assemblies for round table discussions.
A. Seminars C. fellowship
B. Conventions D. In service training
_____64. Under section 13 of the guidelines and procedures for the implementation of CPE
programs, this shall refer to the gathering of professionals which shall include
among others, workshops, technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non-
degree training courses and scientific meetings.
A. Seminars C. fellowship
B. Conventions D. In service training
_____65. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to gain CPE credit
units. As a participant he should be given credit units equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____66. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to gain CPE credit
units. As a speaker he should be given credit units equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____67. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to gain CPE credit
units. As a panelist he should be given credit units equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____68. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in order to gain CPE credit
units. As a facilitator he should be given credit units equivalent to:
A. 1 credit/hour C. 3 credit units
B. 2 credit units/hour D. 5 credit units/hour
_____69. A medical technologist earned master’s units in medical technology, he applied for
renewal of his license, his 12 earned master’s units must be credited with an
equivalent credit of:
A. 12 units B. 6 units C. 24 units D. 30 units
_____70. A medical technologist earned PhD units in medical technology, he applied for
renewal of his license, his 12 earned PhD units must be credited with an equivalent
credit of:
A. 12 units B. 6 units C. 24 units D. 30 units
_____71. A medical technologist recently graduated his Master’s in Medical Technology.
When he will renew his license, his completion of the degree must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 45 credit units
_____72. A medical technologist recently graduated his PhD in Medical Technology. When he
will renew his license, his completion of the degree must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 45 credit units
_____73. A medical technologist recently had his externship for 3 years. When he will renew
his license, his externship must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 10 credit units
_____74. A medical technologist recently finished his research in molecular genetics. When he
will renew his license, his completion of the research must be equivalent to:
A. 20 credit units B. 30 credit units C. 40 credit units D. 10 credit units
_____75. In renewing medical technology license, the number of units earned for the past 3
years must be at least:
A. 20 units B. 40 units C. 60 units D. 90 units
_____76. A document to be given a CPE credit units at the time of application, the document
must cover a period not to exceed:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years
_____77. In filing for application to take the Board examination, which of the following
statements is not true?
A. Filing should be done personally
B. Documents must include photocopy of Certificate of Live Birth
C. Marriage contract must be submitted if applicable
D. Applications with incomplete documents are not accepted.
_____78. This term shall refer to the status of a successful examinee in a licensure
examination who, for failure to comply with certain requirement/s, said successful
examinee shall not be registered as such unless the deficiencies are completed.
A. Temporary special permit C. Deferred
B. Notice of Admission D. Integration
_____79. In the revised matrix for the Licensure examination for medical technology, which of
the following sub-topics constitute at least 45% by weight:
A. CSF B. urine C. feces D. quality control
_____80. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for medical technology,
microbiology and parasitology constitute 20% with weight specified as:
A. 70% microbiology, 30% parasitology
B. 30% microbiology, 70% parasitology
C. 50% microbiology, 50% parasitology
D. 80% microbiology, 20% parasitology
_____81. The PAMET was originally organized on:
A. Sept. 15, 1963 C. June 21, 1969
 B. Sept. 15, 1969 D. June 21, 1970
_____82.
_____90. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for medical technology, blood
banking and serology constitute 20% with weight specified as:
A. 70% blood banking, 30% serology
B. 30% blood banking, 70% serology
C. 50% blood banking, 50% serology
D. 80% blood banking, 20% serology
_____91. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for medical technology,
endocrinology and toxicology is specified with that percentage of the total questions
in clinical chemistry?
A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 16%
_____92. The deadline for filing of application for licensure examination should is not later
than __________ before the first day of examination.
A. 10 days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 45 days
_____93. The program of examination shall be issued by the board at least ______ before the
start of the examinations.
A. 10days B. 20 days C. 30 days d. 45 days
_____94. Under normal circumstances, examinees arriving late may be admitted if the
tardiness does not exceed:
A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10 minutes
_____95. As provided in the regulatory laws of the PRC, the Board shall not register any person
who is:
1. Convicted by a court of any offense 3. Unsound mind
2. Guilty of immoral conduct 4. With incurable disease
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____96. A foreign professional licensed in his country to practice his profession may be
allowed to practice his profession in the Philippines. This is called:
A. Consultancy C. Reciprocity
B. Unconditional recognition D. Treaty of professions
_____97. A person certified and registered with the Board as qualified to assist a medical
technologist and/or qualified pathologist in the practice of medical technology.
A. Medical laboratory technician C. Medical laboratory aide
B. Phlebotomist D. Histopathologic technician
_____98. The Council of Medical Technology Education is composed of:
1. A representative of the Deans of Schools of MedTech
2. President of PAMET
3. Member of the Board
4. CHEd representative
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____99. Who formulate and recommend approval of refresher course for applicants who shall
have failed the Board Examination for the third time?
 A. PAMET C. PASMETH
B. Board D. Council of MedTech Education
_____100. Which of the following is not a function of the Council of MedTech Education?
A. Recommend minimum required curriculum C. inspect medtech schools
B. Certify admission to internship D. administer oath
____101. It is a registry of all medical technologists in the Phil. who were given certificates of
registration.
A. Board Registered Record C. Roster of Medical Technologists
B. Certified Med Tech Record D. Medical Technology Registry
____102. Successful examinees are required to take a ___ oath before entering the practice of
Medical Technology.
A. PAMET B. professional C. PRC D. Hippocratic
_____103. RA 5527 was made effective on-
A. June 21, 1969 C. July 21, 1969
D. September 21, 1969 D. January 1, 1969
_____104. An examinee obtained the following ratings in the licensure exams; what is the
rating of the examinee ?
Clin Chem = 80 Clin Micros = 82 BB- Serol = 75
Hematology = 70 Micro – para = 72 Histopath an MT laws = 78

A. 75.4 B. 76.17 C. 73.2 D. 78.0

_____105. Based o n the above ratings, which of the following conditions is / are violated :
1. General rating must be 75 % or higher
2. No rating below 50% in any of the major subject
3. Has not failed in more than 60% in the major subjects according to relative weights

A. 1 and 3 B. only 3 C. 1 and 2 D. none of the provisions violated

____106. A requirement for the licensure examination is proof of Filipino citizenship; which of
the following is accepted:
A. Transcript of Records from the school B. baptismal certificate
C. Birth certificate issued by the NSO D. Birth certificate from the Local Registry
_____107. A registered medical technologist shall conduct himself/ herself a reputation of ___.
A. reliability, honesty and integrity B. fairness, honesty and confidence
C. absolute reliability and accuracy D. being a professional
_____108. Information acquired in the course of work of a medical technologist should be
treated as
A. accurate B. both accurate and precise C. fair and valid D. strictly confidential
______109. Which of the following functions can be performed by the med lab technician as
well as the reg med tech ?
1. collection and preservation of the specimen
2. preparation and standardization of reagents and standards
3. histopath and cyto- technique
4. clinical laboratory quality control
 CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1, 2,3 and 4
_____110. Which of these is NOT true of the characteristics of a medical technologist:
A. performs the work of a med technologist as defined in the practice of medical
technology
B. graduated from the course of medical technology or public health
C. registered with the Board of Medical Technology
D. serves as head of the clinical laboratory
_____111. The licensure examinations for medical technologists is held-
A. March and October C. March and September
D. February and September D. June and December
_____112. Certificate of registration as Med Tech is issued to-
A. anyone who passed the MT licensure examination
B. anyone who applies for the certificate
C. licensure exam passer with 21 years of age or over
D. one who has taken the licensure exam 3 times
_____113. The Executive officer of the Board of Medical Technology is-
A. PRC Chair C. Board of Med Tech chairperson
B. Secretary of the Board D. Associate Commissioner of PRC
_____114. The Board of Medical Technology is composed of:
A. a pathologist as chair and three medical technologists as members
B. a pathologist as chair and a medical technologist as member
C. a medical technologist as chair, a pathologist and another med tech as members
D. a pathologist as chair and two med techs as members
_____115. To qualify as member of the Board of Med Tech, one must have practiced the
profession for not less than –
A. 5 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. 15 years
_____116. A school of medical technology is granted permit and recognition by-
A. Technical Committee for MT Education C. CHED
B. PRC D. PRC and CHED
_____117. Which of the requirements would be considered in order for a laboratory to be
approved for training of medical technology interns:
1. license to operate as tertiary laboratory
2. with adequate staff
3. with appropriate facilities and specimens for testing
4. with training program

A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. only 1

_____118. Who of the following is the chair of the Technical Com for MT Education :
A. Pres. of PASMETH C. Pres. of PAMET
B. PRC commissioner D. Member of the Board of MT
_____119. Which of these is NOT an illegal practice of med technology:
A. part time teaching in a college of MT while engaged in fulltime work as med tech in a
hosp
B. placing RMT at the end of one’s name when registered as med lab technician
 C. using a suspended license
D. working in a lab which is not headed by a pathologist
_____120. A clinical laboratory is exempt from obtaining a license if-
A. it is fully automated
B. it does only routine lab tests
C. the lab tests are done solely for the patients of the physician
D. it is based in a government hospital
_____121. To which of the following shall apply the license requirement and other revised
regulations of the clinical laboratory law?
1. private clinical laboratories – hospital based
2. private laboratories- non-hospital based
3. government laboratories- hospital based
4. rural health units doing only acid fast bacilli microscopy and malaria screening
CHOICES:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____122. Which of the following tests is NOT done in a secondary category- laboratory ?
A. FBS, BUN, creatinine C. T3,T4, TSH by EIA methods
B. quantitative platelet count D. blood cell morphology
_____123. Records of anatomic and forensic pathology is kept in the laboratory (for) __?
A. 5 years minimum C. 10 years minimum
B. 10 years maximum D. indefinitely or permanently
_____124. The following are confirmatory methods for HIV antibody testing, EXCEPT:
A. Radioimmunoprecipitation assay C. enzyme immunoassay
B. Western Blot D. Immunofluorescence assay
_____125. Who of the following is qualified to head a Blood Bank ?
A. clinical pathologist
B. anatomic pathologist
C. chief medical technologist who has undergone training in BB practice
D. RMT with Master’s degree, with specialty in immunohematology and blood
transfusion medicine
____126. Existing laboratories are inspected __ ?
A. every year B. every 2 years C. every 5 years D. any time as necessary
_____127. The staff permitted to perform HIV testing must be-
A. RMT in the Phil C. ASCP registered (USA)
B. holder of MS degree and RMT D. trained and accredited by the DOH
_____128. The term of office of appointment of the PRC Commissioners is-
A. 5 years with reappointment C. 7 years with reappointment
B. 7 years without reappointment D. 10 years without reappointment
_____129. The National Blood Services Act serves to provide ___ blood and blood products.
1. adequate 2. Safe 3. affordable 4. equitable distribution of supply of-
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1,2, 3 and 4
_____130. Change in the location of a laboratory shall be informed to the DOH at least -
A. 15 days before transfer C. 15 days after transfer
B. 30 days after transfer D. any time right after transfer
_____131. Blood units tested positive for blood-borne diseases should be disposed off within-
A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours
_____132.Whose function is it to monitor the performance of schools in licensure examination
and publish the results of these in a newspaper of nationwide circulation ?
A. PRC C. CHED
D. Professional Regulatory Boards D. Technical Committee
_____133. ProLab is a tertiary, privately owned laboratory whose main lab is situated in Makati.
It has branch labs in -
1. E. Rodriguez Ave., Quezon city, tertiary category
2. Binondo, Manila, tertiary category
3. Taft Ave., Pasay City, secondary category
Which of these would require a license to operate ?
A. only the main lab in Makati C. main lab plus the two tertiary branch labs
B. main lab plus the secondary category lab D. main labs plus all the branch labs
____134. In its function to establish and maintain a high standard of admission to the practice
of the profession, the PRC has the ff functions, EXCEPT:
A. administer and conduct the licensure examination
B. prepare the syllabi of examinations
C. approve results of examination and release of the same
D. to impose penalty upon any examinee violating the rules and regulations governing
licensure examinations.
____135. It is the objective of the RA 7719 to phase out commercial blood banks up to the
year-
A. 1996 B. 1998 C. 2000 D. 2004
_____136. Which of these are considered violations in the operation of a clinical laboratory ?
1. operating without a license
2. no registered medical technologist employed
3. gross negligence resulting to detrimental effect on the public served
4. failure to pass the quality control proficiency one time
CHOICES: A. only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____137. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
A. The closure order of the DOH upon a laboratory can be overruled by a restraining
order of a competent court of law.
B. A license may be revoked, suspended or modified in full or in part as a result of
Inspection by the DOH.
C. Any person who operates a lab illegally is subject to fine or imprisonment or both.
D. The DOH may seek assistance from the police or NBI for the closure order of a clinical
laboratory.
_____138. Whose signatures are seen in the certificates of registration of a professional ?
1. Chair and members of the Board
2. Chairperson of the PRC
3. Commissioners of the PRC
4. Secretary of the Boards
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____139. The PRC shall have the power/ function to
A. appoint the members of the various Boards
B. recommend to the Pres. of the Phil for appointment members of the various Boards
C. remove from Office any member of the Boards
D. determine the compensation of the various Boards
_____140. The former Chairperson of the PRC was replaced by the new and present one based
on one disqualification. Which one is it ?
A. at least 5 years of executive or managerial experience
B. at least 40 years of age
C. holder of a valid certificate of registration or professional license issued by the PRC
D. past Chairperson / member of any PRC Board.
_____141. The syllabi or tables of specification for the subjects in medical technology licensure
examination shall be prepared in consultation with the-
A. academe B. PASMETH C. Technical Committee D. PAMET
_____142. A member of the Board rigs the licensure examination results. What are the
penalties he/ she may suffer ?
1. dismemberment from the Board
2. absolute and perpetual disqualification from holding any public office
3. fine of P50,000 – P100,000
4. imprisonment of 4 to 6 years
CHOICES: A. only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
______143. A corporate body which allows anyone in his employ who is not a registered
medical technologist / med lab technician to practice medical technology is
violating___ of R.A. 5527
A. Sec. 15 B. Sec. 20 C. Sec. 29 D. Sec. 31
______144. In Northern Luzon, the regional offices of the PRC are located in:
A. Baguio City, Tuguegarao City and Santiago City
B. Baguio City, Laoag City, Tuguegarao and Santiago City
C. Baguio City, Tuguegarao City, Dagupan City and Santiago City
D. Baguio City and Tuguegarao City
______145. The physical facilities of the clin lab and of the blood bank shall be required to be
/have-
1. good ventilation, adequate lighting
2. adequate space
3. adequate water supply
4. clean and safe
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____146.The filing for application for licensure examination shall be done by –
A. examinee himself/ herself
B. registrar of the school where examinee graduated
C. representative of review center
D. representative of a group of examinees
_____147. HIV testing accreditation by the DOH is required –
1. of the laboratory that will perform the testing
 2. of the RMT to perform the testing
3. of the reagents to be used in testing
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
_____148. What must be the top priority consideration in the operation of the clin laboratory ?
A. client/ patient satisfaction C. doctors requesting lab tests
B. kinds of lab tests D. lab personnel
_____149. Documents required to be submitted with the application for examination includes-
1. transcripts of records 2. birth certificate from NSO 3. marriage contract from
married female applicant 4. certificates of internship
CHOICES: A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____150. Skills of the manager required in the ability to conceptualize and apply the
management process, systematize work flow, making decisions and communicating
with coworkers.
A. people skills B. organizational C. technical skills D. managerial
_____151. The structure of the organizational plan in the laboratory indicates supervision is a
linear system providing for direct vertical link from the top management to the lowest
level worker; this is referred to as –
A. scalar principle C. unity of command
B. exception principle D. span of control
_____152. Management is defined as the process of coordinating and implementing the
conditions of-
1. stated mission and vision 2. authority and direction 3. optimal use of resources
4. responsibility and accountability
CHOICES: A. 1 only B.1 and 2 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____153. If the manager of the laboratory attends a conference, which of the following parties
does he represent ?
1. owners of the company 2. employees 3. doctors 4. clients
CHOICES: only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2,3 and 4
_____154. A good objective is characterized to be of the following, EXCEPT
A. be clearly defined and understood C. has strict time period to be attained
B. obtainable and realistic D. reduce expenses and wastes
_____155. In Maslow’s hierarcy of needs motivation theory, what consists the highest level ?
A. physiological B. esteem C. self-actualization D. social
_____156. Bloods for transfusion shall be screened for the following viruses, EXCEPT-
A. CMV B. HTLV-1 C. HIV-1 and 2 D. Hepatitis B and C
_____157. The following are functions of the Board of MT, EXCEPT
A. conduct licensure exams C. conduct investigation involving RMTs
B. administer professional oath D. approve schools and trainings for MT education
_____158. A refresher course shall be required of an examinee who shall have failed the
licensure examination for –
A. 2 x B. 3x C. 4x D.nth x
_____159. Effective accounting system provide information –
1. for planning and controlling of current operations
2. for special decision and long-term plan
 3. for external reporting to stockholders, govt and other parties
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
_____160. In a hospital set- up, which of these is a profit-center ?
A. laboratories B. pharmacy C. OPD D. nursing wards
_____161. Which is a feature of fixed cost ?
A. not directly affected by test volume C. may be counted as overhead expense
B. usually supportive in nature D. dependent on workload and volume
_____162. Which of the motivational theories supports the belief that the perceived
expectancy from the effort will actually be realized.
A. McClelland’s achievement motivation C. Vroom’s expectancy
B. Adam’s equity D. Skinner’s reinforcement
_____163. Job description for an employee among other items also include:
1. baseline for the performance tasks
2. employee’s interactions with people
3. how the position integrate into the entire organization
4. working condition
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 an 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____164. Agency which is responsible for licensing and accreditation of the laboratory :
A. BFAD B. BRL C. BHFS D. NRL
_____165. Criterion- reference examinations are used in order to determine :
A. competency of an examinee according to a predetermined standard
B. validity of a test
C. status of one examinee compared to the whole group
D. accuracy of an examination
_____166. Mc Gregor’s X and Y theory advocates :
A. equal pay for equal work
B. a pyramid of attainable goals for satisfaction at work
C. respect for the worker and acknowledgement of his/ her ability to perform a task
D. collective bargaining
_____167. The four essential functions of a manager are:
A. staffing, decision- making, cost analysis, evaluating
B. directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
C. planning, organizing, directing, controlling
D. innovating, designing, coordinating, problem- solving
_____168. Which of the following accounts for the largest portion of the direct cost of a
laboratory ?
A. reagents B. general supplies C. technologist labor D. instrument depreciation
_____169. Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of lab worker’s shift in
order to prevent spread of bloodborne pathogens ?
A. remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat
B. disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands
C. disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove coat
D. remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area
______170. Records of a patient’s test results may not be released without consent to anyone
outside the clin lab except to the :
A. family of the patient C. HMO
B. physician who ordered the test D. employer of patient
______171. A new employee’s performance is to be evaluated at the end of his/ her
probationary period, and must relate to :
A. person’s job description C. verbal instruction given
B. wage and salary policies D. recruitment practices
_____172. The Chairman and members of the Board shall hold office for:
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years
_____173. The Chairman and members of the Board must be in the practice of medical
technology or laboratory medicine for a least:
A. 5 years B. 10 years C. 15 years D. 20 years
_____174. The Chairman and members of the Board must not be a member of any medical
technology school for at least_______ prior to appointment.
A. One year B. two years C. 3 years D. 5 years
_____175. What agency is tasked to conduct specialty examination for medical technologists?
A. PASMETH B. PAMET C. PRC D. CHEd
_____176. In the practice of medical technology, registration is not required for:
1. Licensed physician 3. Medtechs in USAir Force
2. Medtech from other countries 4. Laboratory Technician
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____177. The government agency that approves laboratory for accreditation as training
laboratories for medical technology students is:
A. CHEd B. DOH C. PRC D. NRL
_____178. In the Code of Ethics, a medical technologist can accept a second job only when
there is:
A. No conflict of interest C. No contract allowed
B. Approval of employers D. Available time
_____179. An examinee who failed to obtain a passing grade may be certified as a medical
laboratory technician if the rating obtained is:
A. 65% or less C. 70% or better
B. On the discretion of the Board D. on the discretion of PRC
_____180. The Chairman of the PRC holds the following position in the Council of Medical
Technology Education as stipulated in PD1534:
A. Secretary C. Vice Chairman
B. Chairman D. Treasurer
_____181. The certificate of registration issued to a professional who passed the board
examination is signed by:
A. Board chairman and members
B. PRC chairman and Board members
C. Board chairman and members and PRC Chairman
D. PRC chairman and Board chairman
_____182. The official from the PRC that announces the examinees who passed the Board
Examination in a profession is the:
A. Secretary of the commissioner C. Chairman of the Board
B. Associate Commissioner D. Chairman of PRC
_____183. All information acquired by the medical technologist in his/her work is strictly
confidential and can be divulged only to the:
A. Clinical supervisor C. attending physician
B. Laboratory intern D. patient’s relative
_____184. Drs. Baron Karl Humboldt, William Welch, Burden Sunderson, William Occam had
something in common; which of the ff is it ?
A. brought the practice of laboratory medicine to the Phil.
B. used laboratory investigations / findings to establish diagnosis of disease
C. first practiced laboratory medicine in America
D. bacteriologists
_____185. The Father of PAMET:
A. Crisanto G Almario C. Nardito Moraleta
B. Charlemagene Tamondong D. Felix B. Asprer
_____186. The PAMET has been existent for __ years:
A. 50 B. 35 C. 43 D. 26
_____187. Which of these is NOT expected to be seen in a secondary clin. laboratory ?
A. biosafety cabinet c. spectrophotometer
B. hematocrit centrifuge D. clinical sterilizer
_____188. Which of these is NOT performed in a secondary category of a clinical laboratory ?
A. blood typing C. analysis of toxic drugs and elements
B. glucose, cholesterol, urea tests D. CBC, urinalysis, fecalysis
_____189. A registered med lab technician can perform-
A. histopath and cytotechniques C. specimen collection and processing
B. preparation of reagents for use in the laboratory D. quality control
______190. The med tech course requires an internship in an accredited clin lab for a period of-
A. 6 months B. a semester C. 2 semesters D. 12 months
______191. The President of the Philippines____ the Board of Medical Technology
1. recommends 2. appoints 3. removes from the position4. (is) the Executive Officer
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. only 4 D. 1, 2 and 3
_____192. The roles of the pathologist in the practice of medical technology / laboratory
medicine:
A. chairman of the Board of MT C. head of the clinical laboratory
B. both A and C D. neither of these
_____193. In areas where there are no pathologists, the lab may be headed by a physician who
has undergone training in laboratory management for at least
A. 3 months B. 1 month C. 6 months D. 12 months
_____194. Ms. Marian Tantingco was appointed to the Board of MT; which of the ff qualified
her for the position?
A. ASCP certified*
B. have been in clinical practice as med technologist for more than 20 years
 C. had experience as a member of the faculty of UST in medical technology
D. an active member of the PAMET
_____195. Classify the category of clinical laboratory of the Pangasinan Medical Center:
1. hospital-based 2. non-hospital based
a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary
CHOICES: A. 1c B. 2a C. 2b D. 1c
_____196. The laboratory requests are construed as consultations between-
A. pathologist and the patient C. pathologist and attending physician
B. attending physician and patient D. pathologist and medical technologist
_____197. It is NOT a function of the Technical Committee for MT Education:
A. approve schools of medical technology
B. recommend refresher course for the licensure exam
C. approve the curriculum for med technology
D. regulate the practice of medical technology
_____198. What are evaluated or checked by the representatives of the DOH during inspection
of the laboratory:
1. premises and facilities
2. pertinent records
3. quality assurance program implementation
4. validity of licenses
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 3 and 4
_____199. The laboratory fees/ charges for tests done in the laboratory includes-
1. cost of reagent 2. cost of quality control 3. cost of testing
4. professional fees of physician for special procedures
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____200. The members of the Board are recommended for appointment to the Office of the
Pres.of the Phil by
A. PAMET B. PSP C. PRC D. PASMETH
_____201. Who shall be allowed to engage in the practice of medical technology ?
1. one who has passed the licensure examination for med tech
2. one who holds a current and valid license
3. one who is physically and mentally healthy
4. one who has trained in methods of laboratory medicine
CHOICES: A. only 1 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____202. Which of these is NOT included in the field of study of Clinical Pathology ?
A. Forensic pathology C. Toxicology and therapeutic drug monitoring
B. Immunology- Serology D. Microbiology

_____203. A school, college or university is recognized to offer the BS Medical Technology

program by
A. CHED C. Technical Committee for MT Education
B. PRC and CHED D. DOH and CHED
_____204. The clinical laboratory shall ensure adequate and appropriate safety provisions for
1. lab personnel 2. clientele 3. work environment
 CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
_____205.
_____206.
_____207. The penalty for revocation of license of the medical technologist is implemented
only when there is-
A. the vote of the PRC chair C. 3/3 votes of the members of BMT
B. 3 members of BMT and the PRC chair D. 2/3 votes of the members of BMT
_____208. Which of the following should be informed in writing to the DOH about the clinical
laboratory :
A. new head of the clin lab C. additional med technologist
B. purchase of new equipment D. additional new test
_____209. A separate license aside from the clinical lab license, is required for the
1. blood bank 2. performance of HIV testing
3. performance of dangerous/ abused drugs 4. clinical research lab
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____210.
_____211. To ensure safety and avoid risks to health, the laboratory should provide for
adequate and efficient
A. waste management C. personal protective equipment
B. program for safety D. all of these
_____212. Defined practice of med technology includes the following, EXCEPT?
A. examination of body fluids and tissues by various methods
B. blood banking procedures
C. clinical research
D. teaching in the AHSE curriculum
_____213.
_____214. The certificate of registration is refused to be issued to one who has-
A. failed the licensure examination C. incurable disease
B. TB D. schizophrenia
_____215. The clinical laboratory shall be accredited for training of med tech interns by-
A. DOH B. PRC C. CHED D. Tech Committee for MT Education
_____216. To be seen / displayed in a conspicuous place in the laboratory are the following:
1. license to operate
2. license to perform special tests (e.g. HIV)
3. certificates of registration of med techs/ med lab techns
4. Board of Pathology certification of the pathologist
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1,2,3 and 4
_____217. The appointment of the Board of MT for a term consists of
A. 5 years B. 6 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
_____218.
_____219.
_____220. Internal quality control program for the clinical laboratory includes the following:
1. use of quality control materials and QC charts
2. proper maintenance of equipment
 3. provide appropriate and standard lab methods, reagents and supplies, and equipment
4. documented continuous competency and proficiency assessment of the lab staff
CHOICES: A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____221. The Chair of the Technical Committee for Med Tech Education:
A. President of PAMET C. Director of CHED’s Division on Programs and Standards
B. President of PASMETH D. A member of the Board of Med Tech
_____222. The laboratory report (result) bears the signature (s) and name(s) of-
A. medical technologist B. pathologist C. both A and B D. either A or B
_____223. The practice of medical technology is defined in what section of RA5527?
A. Section 1 B. section 2 C. section 3 D. section 4
_____224. Section 7 of RA5527 contains:
A. Qualification of Examiners C. Composition of the Board
B. Functions of the Board D. Removal of the Board Members
_____225. Which of the following did not serve as President of PAMET?
A. Zenaida Cajucom C. Shirley Cruzada
B. Norma Chang D. Agnes Medenilla
_____226. Which of the following did not serve as President of PASMETH?
A. Norma Chang C. Nini Lim
B. Rodolfo Rabor D. Shirley Cruzada
_____227. Which of the following parties does the manager represent?
A. Financial C. organizational
B. Computer D. technical
_____228. Management is the _______ of coordination and implementation of the mission,
authority, resources and accountability.
A. Task B. Process C. Responsibility D. Job
_____229. What is the first phase of the management process?
A. Setting objectives C. gathering feedback
B. Directing D. Planning
_____230. What phase of management process does the manager together the necessary
resources and people and develop an organizational structure to put the formal
plan into action?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Planning D. Controlling
_____231. What phase of management process involves the day-to-day tasks of running the
laboratory according to the management plan?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Planning D. Controlling
_____232. Which management function is responsible for monitoring the standards and
feedback mechanisms set in place when objectives were established during the
planning stage?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Planning D. Controlling
_____233. This applies to the branch of management that focuses on the directing of a group
of people toward a designated goal.
 A. Motivation C. Behavioral modification
B. Leadership D. Attitude
_____234. This applies to the branch of management that deals with what makes individuals
act the way they do.
A. Motivation C. Behavioral modification
B. Leadership D. Attitude
_____235. Which manager will be participatory in their leadership style?
A. Theory X managers B. Theory Y managers
_____236. Which management function is leadership considered the fulfillment of?
A. Planning C. Directing
B. Organizing D. Controlling
_____237. To qualify for the licensure examination, one has to have completed the BSMT
course. What is the proof of completion of the required course?
A. Board rating C. Internship Grades
B. Official Transcript of Records D. Grade Evaluation form
_____238. Taking the ___ administered by the Board of MT, the new med tech is formally
ushered/ admitted into the practice of the profession.
A. board B. oath C. license D. certificate of registration

_____239. The Clinical Laboratory Law is Republic Act No. ___.

A. AO59 B. RA4688 C. RA5527 D. RA1517
_____240. The Blood bank law is:
A. AO59 B. RA4688 C. RA5527 D. RA1517
_____241. What Administrative order of DOH repealed AO118B s1992?
A. AO59 B. AO 0011 s.2007 C. EO119 D. AO48 s2003
_____242. The classification of the clinical laboratories based on institutional character is
contained in the:
A. AO59 B. AO 0011 s.2007 C. EO119 D. AO48 s2003
_____243. The license of the clin lab is issued by ___( agency under the DOH ):
A. BHFS B. RITM C. NRL D. BRL
_____244. The required space for a primary clin laboratory should at least be ___ sq. meters.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60
_____244. The required space for a secondary clin laboratory should at least be ___ sq.
meters.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60
_____244. The required space for a tertiary clin laboratory should at least be ___ sq. meters.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60
_____245. Refers to a program in the laboratory to provide updating and enhancement of skills
and competence to the staff.
A. Professional devt C. monitoring and evaluation
B. performance analysis D. quality indicator
_____246. The Medical Technology Week is celebrated every ___wk of ___(month).
A. first, sept C. third, sept
B. second, sept D. fourth, sept
_____247. The certificate of registration is issued only to a successful examinee upon the age of
___.
A. 18 B. 21 C. 22 D. 20
_____248. It is a registry of all medical technologists in the Phil. who were given certificates of
registration.
A. Board Registered Record C. Certified Med Tech Record
B. Roster of Medical Technologists D. Medical Technology Registry
_____249.

_____250.
_____251.
_____253.
_____254.
_____255.
_____256.
_____257.
_____258.
_____259.
_____260.

_____261. To qualify as member of the Board of Med Tech, one must have practiced the
profession for not less than –
A. 5 years B. 8 years C. 10 years D. 15 years
_____262. A school of medical technology is granted permit and recognition by-
A. Technical Committee for MT Education B. CHED C. PRC D. PRC and CHED

_____263.
_____264.
_____265. Which of these is NOT an illegal practice of med technology:
A. part time teaching in a college of MT while engaged in fulltime work as med tech in a
hosp
B. placing RMT at the end of one’s name when registered as med lab technician
C. using a suspended license
D. working in a lab which is not headed by a pathologist
_____266. A license is revoked when the vote(s) by the members of the Board of Medical
Technology consist(s) of :
A. 1 out of 3 B. 2 out of 3 C. 3 out of 3 D. 4 out of 4

267- 274: use choices in the right column

____267. Revised R and R governing the collection, processing and A. R.A. 1517
provision of human blood and the establishment B. A.O. 59 s 2001
and operation of blood banks. C. R.A. 8981
____268. National services act of 1994. D. A.O. 57 s 1989
____269. R and R governing the establishment, operation E. R.A. 7719
and maintenance of clinical laboratories in the F. R.A. 4688
Philippines. G. A.O. 55 s. 1989
____270. R and R governing the accreditation of laboratories H. E.O. 102 s. 1999
performing HIV testing.
____271. PRC Modernization Act of 2000

____272. Clinical Laboratory Law

____273. Blood Bank Law

____274. Redirecting the Functions and Operations of the DOH

_____275. Which of the following is not a service capability of a Blood Collection Unit:
A. Issuance of whole blood C. Distribution of whole blood
B. Transport of whole blood D. none of these
_____276. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a Category A non-hospital
based from a Category A hospital-based blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. blood collection
B. Health education and counseling D. compatibility testing
______276. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a Category B non-hospital
based from a Category B hospital-based blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. blood collection
B. Health education and counseling D. compatibility testing
_______277. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a Category A hospital
based from a Category B hospital-based blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. resolution of incompatibilities
B. Health education and counseling D. compatibility testing
______278. Which of the following service capabilities differentiates a Category A non-hospital
based from a Category B non-hospital-based blood bank?
A. Recruitment of voluntary blood donors C. storage of blood products
B. Provision of whole blood D. distribution of all blood products
______279. The head of a blood bank must be a licensed physician with at least _____ months
of training in blood banking services.
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
______280. The medical technologist in a blood bank must be licensed with ____ months of
job experience in blood bank services.
A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
______281. The combination of activities necessary for every blood service facility to ensure
quality blood products and quality blood services for their patients, donors, fellow
employees, hospitals, doctors, the community, and the regulatory agencies.
A. Continuous Quality Improvement C. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control D. Proficiency Testing
_____282. This is an external evaluation of performance by the use of unknown test samples.
 A. Continuous Quality Improvement C. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control D. Proficiency Testing
_____283. A blood service facility with capability to recruit and screen blood donors, collect,
process, store, transport and issue blood for transfusion and provide information
and/or education on blood transmissible diseases.
A. Blood Bank C. Blood Bag
B. Blood Center D. A and B are correct
_____284. A method which documents the performance abilities of the personnel performing
the various tasks within the blood service facility.
A. Competency assessment C. Internal quality assessment
B. External quality assessment D. Standard operating procedure
_____285. The enumeration of steps in a procedure. A set of documents or detailed protocols
of procedures performed within the laboratory/blood bank which should be
compiled in a manual.
A. Competency assessment C. Internal quality assessment
B. External quality assessment D. Standard operating procedure
_____286. This is the assessment of performance done by the staff within the Blood Station
Facility.
A. Competency assessment C. Internal quality assessment
B. External quality assessment D. Standard operating procedure
_____287. This is the sequestration of materials and blood products, whether physically or by a
system, while awaiting a decision on their suitability for further processing or use.
A. Validation C. External control
B. Quarantine D. Decontamination
_____288. A procedure that shows that a piece of equipment or process does what it is
supposed to do. It assures that a process will consistently produce a product
according to requirements.
A. Validation C. External control
B. Quarantine D. Decontamination
_____289. This refers to an agreement to testing which is obtained after informing the blood
donors of processes involved in blood donation, including testing and reporting of
positive test results.
A. Competent C. Quality
B. Informed consent D. Validation
_____290. Records that should be retained for indefinite period include:
1. Written consent 3. Status of deferral
2. Medical history 4. ABO and Rh types
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____291. Records that should be retained for 5 years in a BSF includes:
1. Technical manuals 3. Proficiency testing survey
2. ABO and Rh types 4. Biosafety manual
A. Only 1 and 3 are correct C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Only 2 and 4 are correct D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____292. Records of all laboratory screening tests on blood samples of donors who are
temporarily deferred should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____293. Records of notification for transfusing facility of previous receipt of units from
donors subsequently found positive for HIV should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____294. Records of severe adverse reactions to donation or transfusion should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____295. Records of voluntary blood donors who have been temporarily deferred for the
protection of the potential recipient should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____296. Records of storage and inspection of blood and blood components should be
retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____297. Records of Quality Control and Quality Assessment should be retained:
A. Temporarily C. for 5 years
B. For 1 year D. indefinitely
_____298. MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY IS DEFINED BY _____________ AS THE APPLICATION OF THE
PRINCIPLES OF NATURAL, PHYSICAL, AND BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES TO THE
PERFORMANCE OF LABORATORY PROCEDURES WHICH AID IN THE DIAGNOSIS AND
TREATMENT OF DISEASES.
A. Fagelson B. Heinemann C. John Bernard Henry D. Davidson
_____299. He CONSIDERS MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY TO BE THAT BRANCH OF MEDICINE
CONCERNED WITH THE PERFORMANCE OF THE LABORATORY DETERMINATIONS
AND ANALYSES USED IN THE DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT OF DISEASE AND IN THE
MAINTENANCE OF HEALTH.
A. Fagelson B. Heinemann C. John Bernard Henry D. Davidson
_____300. This is considered as the oldest laboratory procedure.
A. red blood cell count C. urinalysis
B. Hemoglobin assay D. autopsy