Section 12. Removal of Board Members.

- Any member of the Board may be removed by the President of

the Philippines for neglect of duty, incompetency, malpractice or unprofessional, unethical, immoral or
dishonorable conduct after having been given opportunity to defend himself in a proper and
administrative investigation: Provided, that during the process of investigation, the President shall have
the power to suspend such member under investigation and appoint a temporary member in his place.
Section 13. Accreditation of Schools of Medical Technology and of Training Laboratories.- Upon the
recommendation of the Medical Technology Board, the Department of Education and Culture15 shall
approve schools of Medical Technology in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as amended, in
conjunction with the Board of Medical Technology. The Department of Health16 through the Bureau of
Research and Laboratories shall approve laboratories for accreditation as training laboratories for
medical technology students or postgraduate trainees in conjunction with the Board of Medical
Technology. The laboratories shall show satisfactory evidence that they possess qualified personnel and
are properly equipped to carry out laboratory procedures commonly required in the following fields:
Clinical Chemistry, Microbiology, Serology, Parasitology, Hematology, Blood Banking, Clinical
Microscopy, and Histopathologic techniques, and that the scope of activities of said laboratories offer
sufficient training in said laboratory procedures. Section 14. Inhibition Against the Practice of Medical
Technology.- No person shall practice or offer to practice medical technology as defined in this Act
without having previously obtained a valid certificate of registration from the Board provided that
registration shall not be required of the following: a. Duly registered physicians. b. Medical technologist
from other countries called in for consultation or as visiting or exchange professors to colleges or
universities: Provided, they are only practicing the said function. c. Medical technologists in the service
of the United States Armed Forces stationed in the Philippines rendering services as such for members
of the said forces only. Section 15. Examination.- Except as otherwise specifically allowed under the
provision of this Act, all applicants for registration as medical technologist shall be required to undergo
written examination which shall be given by the Board annually in the greater Manila area, Cebu, and
Davao during the month of August or September on such days and places as the Board may designate.
Written notices of such examination shall be published in at least three newspapers of national
circulation by the Secretary of the Board of least thirty days prior to the date of examination. Section 16.
Qualification for Examination.- Every applicant examination under this Act, shall, prior to the date
thereof, furnish the Board satisfactory proof that he or she: a. Is in good health and is of good moral
character; b. Has completed a course of at least four (4) years leading to the degree of Bachelor of
Science in Medical Technology or Bachelor of Science in Public Health conferred by a recognized school,
college or university in accordance with this Decree or having graduated from some other profession
and has been actually performing medical technology for the last five (5) years prior to the date of the
examinations, if such performance began prior to June 21, 1969. Section 17. Scope of Examination.- The
examination questions shall cover the following subjects with their respective relative weights: Clinical
Chemistry ...................................................... 20% Microbiology & Parasitology ......................................
20% Hematology ............................................................... 20% Blood Banking &
Serology ......................................... 20% Clinical Microscopy (Urinalysis and other body
fluids) ...................................………......... 10% Histopathologic Techniques, Cytotechnology, Medical
Technology Laws, Related Laws and its implementing rules, and the Code of Ethics ........................………..
10% The Board shall prepare the schedule of subjects for examination and to submit the same to the
Commissioner of the Professional Regulation Commission for publication at least thirty (30) days before
the date of examination. The Board shall compute the general average of each examinee according to
the above-mentioned relative weights of each subject. Provided, however, that the Board may change,
add to or remove from the list of subjects or weights above as progress in the science of Medical
Technology may require, subject to the prior approval of the Professional Regulation Commission, and
publication of the change or amendment at least three (3) months prior to the date of examination in
which the same is to take effect. Section 18. Report of Rating.- The Board shall, within one hundred and
twenty days after the date of completion of the examination, report the result thereof to the
Commissioner of Civil Service,who shall submit such result to the President of the Philippines for
approval
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A.
Client signature is missing on the form
B.
Client provided a comment that the client refused to sign the
form
C.
The analyst failed to sign the CCF for a specimen reported as
negative
D.
Incomplete data elements
______26. A drug testing laboratory must retain a specimen that
was
reported as either positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid for a
minimum of:
A.
5 days
B. 15 days
C. one year
D. two
years
______27. A drug testing laboratory may retain a specimen that was
reported
as either positive, adulterated, substituted or invalid for a
maximum of:
A.
5 days
B. 15 days
C. one year
D. two
years
_____28. All of the following are analytical methods used for
screening of
drug except:
A.
EIA
B. EMIT
C. GC-MS
D. TLC
_____29. The screening laboratory must keep specimens with a
negative
results for a minimum of:
A.
5 days
B. 15 days
C. one year
D. 2 years
_____30. For criminal case-related drug testing, the confirmatory
result
should be released with
in
how many day/s after the submission of
the specimen?
A.
1 day
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
D. 4 days
_____31. For confirmatory testing, the results must be released
within a
maximum of:
A.
1 day
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
d. 4 days
_____32. Which of the following conditions denote that the
urine is
adulterated?
1.
The nitrite concentration is confirmed to be greater than or
equal to 500ug/L
2.
The pH is less than 3 or greater than or equal to 11
3.
The specimen contains an exogenous substance
4.
The specimen contains an endogenous substance at a
concentration greater than what is considered a normal
physiological concentration
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____33. Which of the following conditions denote that the
urine is
substituted?
1.
Creatinine
concentration is more than 442umol/L
2.
Creatinine
concentration is less than 442umol/L
3.
Specific gravity is greater than 1.002
4.
Specific gravity is less than 1.002
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____35. Which of the following are indicators that the urine
specimen is
diluted?
1.
The
creatinine
concentration is more than 1768umol/L
2.
The
creatinine
concentration is less than 1768umol/L
3.
The specific gravity is more than 1.003
4.
The specific gravity is less than 1.003
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____36.
In drug testing, the urine specimen is invalid when:
1.
Adulterated, substituted and diluted
2.
Improperly collected, handled and stored
3.
Improperly documented
4.
such do not meet the criteria for a substituted or invalid result
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____37.
Which of the following
analytes
may be determined in a validity
test on a urine specimen?
1.
Creatinine
2.
Specific gravity 3. pH 4. Nitrite
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____38. What laboratory form reflects the actual movement
between
individuals or movement to/from temporary storage that are used
for handling specimen?
A.
Memorandum for Records
C. Evidence of Review
B.
Chain of Custody
D. Confirmatory worksheet
_____39. In drug testing, all specimen submitted shall have a
corresponding
laboratory result issued within:
A.
1 day
C. 10 days
B.
5 days
D. 15 days
_____40. This is the second analytical procedure performed on a
different
aliquot of the original specimen to identify and quantify the
presence of a specific drug/metabolite.
A.
Screening test
C. cancelled test
B.
Confirmatory test
D. validity test
_____41.
The test used to determine if a specimen is adulterated, diluted or
substituted.
A.
Screening test
C. cancelled test
B.
Confirmatory test
D. validity test
_____42. A sample with a known drug concentration or an accredited
drug
free sample used to evaluate the ability of a laboratory to test a
specimen for drugs and/or metabolites.
A.
Calibrator
C. blind sample
B.
Aliqout
D. Control
_____43. When a specimen is either adulterated, substituted, or
contain a
drug/metabolite, the DOH-accredited laboratory must report it as:
A.
Negative
C. non-negative
B.
Positive
D. reconfirmed
_____44. This is the result reported when a laboratory is able to
corroborate
the original result reported to the head of the laboratory.
A.
Negative
C. non-negative
B.
Positive
D. reconfirmed
_____45. This is the test used to differentiate a negative specimen
from one
that requires further testing for drugs or drug metabolites.
A.
Screening test
C. cancelled test
B.
Confirmatory test
D. validity test
_____46.
The drug test certificates on tests performed by accredited drug
testing centers shall be valid for:
A.
One month
C. six months
B.
Three months
D. one year
_____47. Which of the following must be submitted for application for
accreditation of a drug testing laboratory?
1.
Letter of endorsement to the Bureau Director
2.
DTI registration
3.
Floor plan
4.
Quality control program
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____48. Application for renewal of accreditation shall be filed within
how
many days before the expiration date?
A.
30 days
C. 90 days
B.
60 days
D. 120 days
_____49. Which of the following acts are considered as violations of
the IRR
on Drug Testing Laboratories?
1.
Issuance of fraudulent drug test results
2.
Refusal to allow survey
3.
Failure to refer the positive screening result to a confirmatory
laboratory
4.
Conviction of the owner or manager for any criminal offense
committed even not incident to the operation of the
laboratory.
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____50. All test results for drug testing shall bear the signature of
the:
1.
Analyst
2. Owner of the lab 3. Head of the lab 4. Donor
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____51. Under Section 7 of the Administrative Order 118B, s.1992,
the
person responsible for the training program for medical technology
interns should be a:
A.
Licensed physician certified by the Philippine Board of Pathology
B.
Chief Medical Technologist
C.
Clinical Coordinator
D.
Dean
_____52. For every 1 registered medical technologist in each
section, the
number of interns allowed should not exceed:
A.
5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
_____53.
All clinical laboratories shall be monitored regularly and shall be
inspected every:
A.
1 year
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 3
years
_____54. The license to operate a clinical laboratory shall be
suspended or
revoked when the following acts are committed:
1.
Operation without a registered medical technologist
2.
Change of ownership without informing BHFS
3.
Refusal to allow inspection
4.
Gross negligence
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are
correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are
correct
_____55. Which of the following is not a function of a Dean of the
College of
Medical Technology?
A.
Initiating faculty development program
B.
Preparing teaching load
C.
Recommending appointment of faculty members
D.
Administer general policies of the University
_____56. Who among the following can teach medical
technology
professional subjects:
1.
RMT without master’s degree
2.
RMT with master’s degree and 1 year clinical experience
3.
RMT with 1 year experience in training
medtech
interns
4.
Licensed physician with minimum of 2 years clinical practice.
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____57. During the internship training program, the intern must
render at
least 250 hours in all of the following sections, except?
A.
Clinical
C
hemistry
C. Blood Banking
B.
CM and Para
D. Microbiology
_____58.
In histopathology, how many number of hours must an intern
render during internship?
A.
54 hours
B. 170 hours
C. 250 hours D. 300
hours
_____59. The ratio of textbook to students should be:
A.
1:5
B. 1:10
C. 1:15
D. 1:20
_____60. The ratio of clinical coordinator to interns should be:
A.
1:20
B. 1:30
C. 1:40
D. 1:50
_____61.
Which of the following is not a qualification of a clinical coordinator?
A.
Registered medical technologist
B.
Bonafide
member of PAMET and PASMETH
C.
Must have one year clinical experience
D.
Must have a master’s degree
_____62. In the evaluation of the performance of interns, which of
the
following should be applied in computing grade?
A.
40% examination, 60% clinical performance
B.
60% examination, 405 clinical performance
C.
30% examination, 70% clinical performance
D.
70% examination, 30% clinical performance
_____63.
Under section 13 of the guidelines and procedures for the
i
mplementation of CPE programs,
this shall refer to the gathering of
professionals which shall include among others, conferences,
symposia or assemblies for round table discussions.
A.
Seminars
C. fellowship
B.
Conventions
D. In service training
_____64. Under section 13 of the guidelines and
procedures for the
implementation of CPE programs, this shall refer to the gathering of
professionals which shall include among others, workshops,
technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non-degree trai
n
ing
courses and scientific meetings.
A.
Seminars
C. fellowship
B.
Conventions
D. In service training
_____65. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in
order to
gain CPE credit units. As a participant he should be given credit
units equivalent to:
A.
1 credit/hour
C. 3 credit units
B.
2 credit units/hour
D. 5 credit units/hour
_____66. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in
order to
gain CPE credit units. As a speaker he should be given credit units
equivalent to:
A.
1 credit/hour
C. 3 credit units
B.
2 credit units/hour
D. 5 credit units/hour
_____67. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in
order to
gain CPE credit units. As a panelist he should be given credit units
equivalent to:
A.
1 credit/hour
C. 3 credit units
B.
2 credit units/hour
D. 5 credit units/hour
_____68. A medical technologist attended the PAMET convention in
order to
gain CPE credit units. As a facilitator he should be given credit units
equivalent to:
A.
1 credit/hour
C. 3 credit units
B.
2 credit units/hour
D. 5 credit units/hour
_____69. A medical technologist earned master’s units in
medical
technology, he applied for renewal of his license, his 12 earned
master’s units must be credited with an equivalent credit of:
A.
12 units
B. 6 units
C. 24 units
D.
30 units
_____70. A medical technologist earned PhD units in medical
technology, he
applied for renewal of his license, his 12 earned PhD units must be
credited with an equivalent credit of:
A.
12 units
B. 6 units
C. 24 units
D. 30 units
_____71. A medical technologist recently graduated his Master’s in
Medical
Technology. When he will renew his license, his completion of the
degree must be equivalent to:
A.
20 credit units B. 30 credit units
C. 40 credit units D. 45
credit units
_____72. A medical technologist recently graduated his PhD in
Medical
Technology. When he will renew his license, his completion of the
degree must be equivalent to:
A.
20 credit units B. 30 credit units
C. 40 credit units D. 45
credit units
_____73. A medical technologist recently had his externship for 3
years.
When he will renew his license, his externship must be equivalent
to:
A.
20 credit units B. 30 credit units
C. 40 credit units D. 10
credit units
_____74. A medical technologist recently finished his research in
molecular
genetics. When he will renew his license, his completion of the
research must be equivalent to:
A.
20 credit units B. 30 credit units
C. 40 credit units D. 10
credit units
_____75. In renewing medical technology license, the number of
units earned
for the past 3 years must be at least:
A.
20 units
B. 40 units
C. 60 units
D. 90
units
_____76.
A document to be given a CPE credit units at the time
of
application, the document must cover a period not to exceed:
A.
1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
_____77. In filing for application to take the Board examination, which
of the
following statements is not true?
A.
Filing should be done personally
B.
Documents must include photocopy of Certificate of Live Bi
r
th
C.
Marriage contract must be submitted if applicable
D.
Applications with incomplete documents are not accepted.
_____78. This term shall refer to the status of a successful examinee
in a
licensure examination who
, for failure to comply with certain
requirement/s, said successful examinee shall not be registered as
such unless the deficiencies are completed.
A.
Temporary special permit
C. Deferred
B.
Notice of Admission
D. Integration
_____79.
In the revised matrix for the Licensure examination for medical
technology, which of the following sub-topics constitute at least
45% by weight:
A.
CSF
B. urine
C. feces
D. quality control
_____80. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for
medical
technology, microbiology and
parasitology
constitute 20% with
weight specified as:
A.
70% microbiology, 30%
parasitology
B.
30% microbiology, 70%
parasitology
C.
50% microbiology, 50%
parasitology
D.
80% microbiology, 20%
parasitology
_____81. The PAMET was originally organized on:
A. Sept. 15, 1963
C. June 21, 1969
B. Sept. 15, 1969
D. June 21, 1970
_____82.
_____90. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for
medical
technology, blood banking and serology constitute 20% with weight
specified as:
A.
70% blood banking, 30% serology
B.
30% blood banking, 70% serology
C.
50% blood banking, 50% serology
D.
80% blood banking, 20% serology
_____91. In the revised matrix for the licensure examination for
medical
technology, endocrinology and toxicology is specified with that
percentage of the total questions in clinical chemistry?
A.
10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 16%
_____92.
The deadline for filing of application for licensure examination
should is not later than __________ before the first day of
examination.
A.
10 days
B. 20 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
_____93. The program of examination shall be issued by the board at
least
______ before the start of the examinations.
A.
10days
B. 20 days
C. 30 days
d. 45 days
_____94. Under normal circumstances, examinees arriving late may
be
admitted if the tardiness does not exceed:
A.
15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10
minutes
_____95.
As provided in the regulatory laws of the PRC, the Board shall not
register any person who is:
1.
Convicted by a court of any offense
3. Unsound mind
2.
Guilty of immoral conduct
4. With incurable
disease
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____96. A foreign professional licensed in his country to practice
his
profession may be allowed to practice his profession in the
Philippines. This is called:
A.
Consultancy
C. Reciprocity
B.
Unconditional recognition
D. Treaty of professions
_____97.
A person certified and registered with the Board as qualified to
assist a medical technologist and/or qualified pathologist in the
practice of medical technology.
A.
Medical laboratory technician
C. Medical laboratory aide
B.
Phlebotomist
D.
Histopathologic
technician
_____98. The Council of Medical Technology Education is composed
of:
1.
A representative of the Deans of Schools of
MedTech
2.
President of PAMET
3.
Member of the Board
4.
CHEd
representative
A.
Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B.
Only 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
_____99. Who formulate and recommend approval of refresher
course for
applicants who shall have failed the Board Examination for the third
time?
A.
PAMET
C. PASMETH
B.
Board
D.
Council of
MedTech
Education
_____100. Which of the following is not a function of the Council of
MedTech
Education?
A.
Recommend minimum required curriculum C. inspect
medtech
schools
B.
Certify admission to internship
D. administer oath
____10
1. It is a registry of all medical technologists in the Phil. who were
given certificates of
registration.
A.
Board Registered Record
C. Roster of Medical
Technologists
B. Certified Med Tech Record
D. Medical Technology
Registry
____10
2. Successful examinees are required to take a ___ oath before
entering the practice of Medical Technology.
A. PAMET
B. professional
C. PRC
D.
Hippocratic
_____10
3. RA 5527 was made effective on-
A.
June 21, 1969
C
. July 21, 1969
D
. September 21, 1969
D. January 1, 1969
_____104
. An examinee obtained the following ratings in the licensure exams;
what is the rating of the examinee ?
Clin
Chem
= 80
Clin
Micros = 82
BB-
Serol
= 75
Hematology = 70
Micro –
para
= 72
Histopath
an MT laws =
78
A. 75.4
B. 76.17
C. 73.2
D.
78.0
_____10
5. Based o n the above ratings, which of the following conditions is /
are violated :
1. General rating must be 75 % or higher
2. No rating below 50% in any of the major subject
3. Has not failed in more than 60% in the major subjects according to
relative weights
A. 1 and 3
B. only 3
C. 1 and 2
D. none of the provisions violated
____10
6. A requirement for the licensure examination is proof of Filipino
citizenship; which of the following is accepted:
A. Transcript of Records from the school
B. baptismal certificate
C. Birth certificate issued by the NSO
D. Birth certificate from
the Local Registry
_____10
7. A registered medical technologist shall conduct himself/ herself a
reputation of ___.
A. reliability, honesty and integrity
B. fairness, honesty and confidence
C. absolute reliability and accuracy
D. being a professional
_____10
8. Information acquired in the course of work of a medical
technologist should be treated as
A. accurate
B. both accurate and precise
C. fair and valid
D.
strictly confidential
______10
9. Which of the following functions can be performed by the med lab
technician as well as the
reg
med tech ?
1. collection and preservation of the specimen
2. preparation and standardization of reagents and standards
3.
histopath
and
cyto
- technique
4. clinical laboratory quality control
CHOICES: A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C
. 1,2 and 3
D. 1, 2,3
and 4
_____1
10. Which of these is NOT tr
ue of the characteristics of a
medical
technologist:
A. performs the work of a med technologist as def
ined in the practice
of medical
technology
B. graduated from the course of medical technology or public health
C. registered with the Board of Medical Technology
D. serves as head of the clinical laboratory
_____1
11. The licensure examinations for medical technologists is held-
A. March and October
C
. March and September
D
. February and September
D. June and December
_____1
12. Certificate of registration as Med Tech is issued to-
A. anyone who passed the MT licensure examination
B. anyone who applies for the certificate
C. licensure exam passer with 21 years of age or over
D. one who has taken the licensure exam 3 times
_____1
13. The Executive officer of the Board of Medical Technology is-
A. PRC Chair
C
. Board of Med Tech chairperson
B
. Secretary of the Board
D. Associate Commissioner of PRC
_____1
14. The Board of Medical Technology is composed of:
A. a pathologist as chair and three medical technologists as members
B. a pathologist as chair and a medical technologist as member
C. a medical technologist as chair, a pathologist and another med tech
as members
D. a pathologist as chair and two med techs as members
_____1
15. To qualify as member of the Board of Med Tech, one must have
practiced the profession
for not less than –
A. 5 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. 15 years
_____1
16. A school of medical technology is granted permit and recognition
by-
A. Techni
cal Committee for MT Education
C
. CHED
B
. PRC
D. PRC and CHED
_____1
17. Which of the requirements would be considered in order for a
laboratory to be approved for training of medical technology interns:
1. license to operate as tertiary laboratory
2. with adequate staff
3. with appropriate facilities and specimens for testing
4. with training program
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. only 1
_____1
18. Who of the following is the chair of the Technical Com for MT
Education :
A. Pres. of PASMETH
C
. Pres. of PAMET
B
. PRC commissioner
D. Member of the Board of
MT
_____1
19. Which of these is NOT an illegal practice of med technology: