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a. Requires energy
b. Is at equilibrium
c. Is spontaneous
Question2
A solution with a pH of 5 is:
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question3
Alcohols contain a _________ group.
a. Hydroxyl
b. Sulfur
c. Phenol
Question4
Biologically important noncovalent bonds include:
Choose one answer.
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Electrostatic interactions
Question5
Entropy is ______________.
Question6
The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is stored within the _____________.
a. Lysosome
b. Nucleus
c. Ribosome
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum
Question7
The term "kinetics" refers to:
d. The pH of a solution
Question8
______ is the process by which the information in DNA is transferred to RNA.
a. Translation
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Ubiquitination
Question9
The strongest bonds that are present in biochemical compounds are ______________.
a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds
Question10
A chiral compound _________________.
c. Is inorganic
Question11
A zwitterion ________________.
Question12
All amino acids contain both a(n) ______ and a(n) ________ group.
a. Hydrogen, carbohydrate
c. Sulfur, amine
Question13
Essential amino acids:
d. Include proline
Question14
The first reaction of amino acid degradation is?
a. Deamination
b. Decarboxylation
c. Cyclization
Question15
The only amino acid without a chiral center is _____________.
a. Proline
b. Methionine
c. Alanine
d. Glycine
Question16
There are ______ common amino acids.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
Question17
______ is the initiating amino acid of most newly synthesized proteins.
a. Proline
b. Alanine
c. Glycine
d. Methionine
Question18
_____________ is an example of a hydrophilic amino acid.
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Methionine
d. Tryptophan
Question19
_____________ is an example of a hydrophobic amino acid.
a. Glutamic acid
b. Lysine
c. Arginine
d. Leucine
Question20
Nonessential amino acids are:
b. Synthesized by mammals
c. Both A and B
Question21
A(n) _________ is a short protein tag that attaches to and targets proteins for degradation.
a. Peptide
b. Ubiquitin
c. Alanine
d. Urea
Question22
Protein secondary structures include:
a. Loops
b. alpha helices
c. beta sheets
Question23
Protein synthesis is carried out by __________.
Choose one answer.
a. Mitochondria
b. Chromosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Lysosomes
Question24
The amino acid _______ places certain constraints on the protein backbone.
a. Leucine
b. Alanine
c. Proline
d. Glycine
Question25
The difference between a peptide and a protein is ____________.
a. Length
b. Bond formation
c. Subunits
Question26
The formation of a dimer refers to a protein’s ___________.
b. Tertiary structure
c. Secondary structure
Question27
The tertiary structure of a protein refers to its __________.
a. Overall 3D shape
b. Multisubunit composition
Question28
The ______ carries out protein degradation.
a. Proteosome
b. Lysosome
c. Ribosome
d. Chromosome
Question29
________ aid in protein folding.
a. Chromosomes
b. Chaperones
c. Proteosome
Question30
Amino acids are linked by a(n) _______ bond to form a protein.
a. Hydrophobic
b. Peptide
c. Ionic
Question31
Each of the following is one of the six classes of enzyme catalysts, except:
a. Ligases
b. Kinases
c. Transferases
d. Isomerases
Question32
Enzymes within metabolic pathways can be regulated by ____________.
a. Allosteric enzymes
Question33
In competitive inhibition, the competitor binds to ________________.
a. The substrate
Question34
kcat refers to _________________.
Question35
Kinases are enzymes that add a(n) _____ group to proteins.
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Phosphoryl
d. Alcohol
Question36
The rate of an enzymatic reaction can be regulated by __________.
a. pH
b. Temperature
c. Concentration
Question37
_______ are derived from vitamins and are necessary for the function of some enzymes.
a. Helicases
b. Cofactors
c. Carbohydrates
Question38
________ is an example of a post translational modification of a protein.
a. Acetylation
b. Phosphorylation
c. Ubiquitination
Question40
An important product of glycolysis is ____________.
a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Lectins
d. Both A and B
Question41
Carbohydrates are also known as ____________.
a. Sugars
b. Starches
c. Fats
d. A and B
Question42
Carbohydrates are commonly used as ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. A source of energy
c. A source of nitrogen
Question43
Disaccharides are formed by ______________.
b. Hydrolysis of a polysaccharide
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question44
In animals, the process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the __________.
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Gall bladder
Question45
Lectins are ____________.
Question46
Protein glycosylation takes place in the ____________.
a. Nucleus
b. Cell membrane
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Lysosome
Question47
Starch is an example of a ___________.
a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Trisaccharide
Question48
Sucrose, aka table sugar, is composed of ____________.
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question49
Fischer projections convey useful information about _____________.
a. Electron positions
b. 3D structural positioning
c. Resonance
d. Bond lengths
Question50
ATP facilitates the occurrence of energetically unfavorable reactions via ___________.
a. Phosphoryl transfer
b. Energy coupling
Question51
Both DNA and RNA are composed of three important parts, which are:
Question52
Cytosine makes _______ with guanine when base paired in DNA.
Question53
DNA is synthesized in a _____ direction.
a. 3' to 5'
b. 5' to 3'
c. Top to bottom
d. Left to right
Question54
Double stranded DNA takes on a __________ structure.
a. Beta sheet
b. Looped
c. Double helix
d. A-form helix
Question55
In the cell, _____ is used as energy currency.
a. UTP
b. Fat
c. ATP
d. AMP
Question56
The correct pairing of bases in DNA is __________.
a. A-G; C-T
b. A-C; G-T
c. A-T; C-G
d. A-U; C-G
Question57
The DNA chromosome of bacteria consists of ___________.
a. Guanine
b. Uracil
c. Thymine
d. Cytosine
Question59
What type of base is adenine?
a. Purine
b. Pyrimidine
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A and B
Question60
The sugar used in RNA is ____________.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Dideoxyribose
c. Ribose
d. Glucose
Question61
Fatty acids contain ________________.
Choose one answer.
Question62
Glycerolphospholipids create a double layer lipid membrane, such as the cell membrane, because of _____________.
Question63
Lipids are the starting material of important biological molecules, including ___________.
a. Steroids
b. DNA
c. Carbohydrates
Question64
Lipids play a role in which of the following?
b. Membrane structure
c. Cell signaling
Question65
Phospholipids can be composed of _______________.
a. Fatty acids
b. Glycerol
c. Sphingomyelin
Question66
The difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is ______________.
Question67
The fluidity of the cell membrane is determined by ___________.
Question68
Triacylglycerol is composed of ___________.
Question69
Which of the following are composed of lipids?
a. Waxes
b. Cholesterol
c. Triacylglecerols
Question70
Glycolysis gives a net yield of __________.
Question71
Glycolysis takes place in the _________.
a. Cytosol
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Golgi
Question72
In the citrate cycle, energy from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA is converted to _____________.
Question73
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the _______.
a. Nucleus
b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
Question74
The complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O results in a yield of __________.
a. 38 ATP/glucose
b. 42 ATP/glucose
c. 60 ATP/glucose
d. 32 ATP/glucose
Question75
The electron transport system links oxidation of NADH and FADH2 to _____________.
a. Glucose synthesis
b. Ethanol fermentation
c. ATP synthesis
d. GTP synthesis
Question76
The input and output of glycolysis is ____________.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Glucose
c. Cholesterol
d. Ribose
Question78
The __________ is a hub of cellular metabolism because it links the oxidation of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and proteins to ATP synthesis.
a. TCA/citrate cycle
b. Urea cycle
c. Glycolysis cycle
d. Pentose pathway
Question79
True or False: Glycolysis requires oxygen.
a. True
b. False
Question80
Under aerobic conditions, the pyruvate produced during glycolysis can go on to ________.
Question81
Rank the following, from highest to lowest, in terms of energy: AMP, ATP, ADP?
Question82
A Holliday Junction structure occurs during which process?
a. Recombination
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Translation
Question83
DNA is synthesized in a _______ direction.
a. Left to right
b. Top to bottom
c. 5' to 3'
d. 3' to 5'
Question84
DNA replication is carried out by a ________ enzyme.
a. Helicase
b. Polymerase
c. Kinase
d. Topoisomerase
Question85
DNA replication is semi-conservative. What does this mean?
Question86
DNA serves as a template for which type of RNA?
a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. All of the above
Question87
There are three types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells. RNA polymerase I transcribes ______, RNA polymerase II transcribes _______, and RNA polymerase III mainly transcribes
_________.
Question88
Which of the following are post-transcriptional modifications of RNA?
a. Cap addition
c. Intron removal
Question89
_________ enzymes maintain the torsional stress of DNA.
a. Helicase
b. Topoisomerase
c. Kinase
d. Restriction
Question90
Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases results in ____________.
Question91
Intracellular pathways are altered through extracellular molecules binding to __________.
a. Polymerases
b. Ligases
c. Receptors
Question92
Molecules that play an important role in cell adhesion and structure include _________.
a. Integrins
b. Cadherins
c. Selectins
Question93
Steroids act as signaling molecules by __________________.
Choose one answer.
Question94
True or false: Ligand binding to receptors can result in wide-spread gene expression changes via signal amplification.
a. True
b. False
Question95
Stimulation of a G protein coupled receptor results in __________.
Question96
ELISAs use __________, enabling the measurement of specific proteins in a solution.
a. PCR
b. Purification
c. Antibodies
Question97
In a Southern blot, probes are used to _________________.
Question98
PCR is a valuable tool for analyzing DNA because ___________________.
Question99
During SDS-PAGE, proteins are primarily separated according to their _______________.
a. Mass
b. Shape
c. Charge
d. All of the above
1
A reaction with a delta G of zero:
a. Requires energy
b. Is at equilibrium
c. Is spontaneous
Question2
A solution with a pH of 5 is:
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question3
Alcohols contain a _________ group.
a. Hydroxyl
b. Sulfur
c. Phenol
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Electrostatic interactions
Question5
Entropy is ______________.
Question6
The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is stored within the _____________.
a. Lysosome
b. Nucleus
c. Ribosome
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum
Question7
The term "kinetics" refers to:
d. The pH of a solution
Question8
______ is the process by which the information in DNA is transferred to RNA.
a. Translation
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Ubiquitination
Question9
The strongest bonds that are present in biochemical compounds are ______________.
a. Ionic bonds
b. Covalent bonds
c. Hydrogen bonds
Question10
A chiral compound _________________.
c. Is inorganic
Question11
A zwitterion ________________.
Question12
All amino acids contain both a(n) ______ and a(n) ________ group.
a. Hydrogen, carbohydrate
c. Sulfur, amine
Question13
Essential amino acids:
d. Include proline
Question14
The first reaction of amino acid degradation is?
a. Deamination
b. Decarboxylation
c. Cyclization
Question15
The only amino acid without a chiral center is _____________.
a. Proline
b. Methionine
c. Alanine
d. Glycine
Question16
There are ______ common amino acids.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
Question17
______ is the initiating amino acid of most newly synthesized proteins.
a. Proline
b. Alanine
c. Glycine
d. Methionine
Question18
_____________ is an example of a hydrophilic amino acid.
a. Lysine
b. Leucine
c. Methionine
d. Tryptophan
Question19
_____________ is an example of a hydrophobic amino acid.
a. Glutamic acid
b. Lysine
c. Arginine
d. Leucine
Question20
Nonessential amino acids are:
b. Synthesized by mammals
c. Both A and B
Question21
A(n) _________ is a short protein tag that attaches to and targets proteins for degradation.
a. Peptide
b. Ubiquitin
c. Alanine
d. Urea
Question22
Protein secondary structures include:
a. Loops
b. alpha helices
c. beta sheets
Question23
Protein synthesis is carried out by __________.
b. Chromosomes
c. Ribosomes
d. Lysosomes
Question24
The amino acid _______ places certain constraints on the protein backbone.
a. Leucine
b. Alanine
c. Proline
d. Glycine
Question25
The difference between a peptide and a protein is ____________.
a. Length
b. Bond formation
c. Subunits
Question26
The formation of a dimer refers to a protein's ___________.
a. Primary structure
b. Tertiary structure
c. Secondary structure
Question27
The tertiary structure of a protein refers to its __________.
a. Overall 3D shape
b. Multisubunit composition
Question28
The ______ carries out protein degradation.
a. Proteosome
b. Lysosome
c. Ribosome
d. Chromosome
Question29
________ aid in protein folding.
a. Chromosomes
b. Chaperones
c. Proteosome
Question30
Amino acids are linked by a(n) _______ bond to form a protein.
a. Hydrophobic
b. Peptide
c. Ionic
Question31
Each of the following is one of the six classes of enzyme catalysts, except:
a. Ligases
b. Kinases
c. Transferases
d. Isomerases
Question32
Enzymes within metabolic pathways can be regulated by ____________.
a. Allosteric enzymes
c. Localization
d. All of the above
Question33
In competitive inhibition, the competitor binds to ________________.
a. The substrate
Question34
kcat refers to _________________.
Question35
Kinases are enzymes that add a(n) _____ group to proteins.
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Phosphoryl
d. Alcohol
Question36
The rate of an enzymatic reaction can be regulated by __________.
a. pH
b. Temperature
c. Concentration
Question37
_______ are derived from vitamins and are necessary for the function of some enzymes.
a. Helicases
b. Cofactors
c. Carbohydrates
Question38
________ is an example of a post translational modification of a protein.
a. Acetylation
b. Phosphorylation
c. Ubiquitination
Question39
Enzymes act as catalysts to ___________________.
Question40
An important product of glycolysis is ____________.
a. Glucose
b. ATP
c. Lectins
d. Both A and B
Question41
Carbohydrates are also known as ____________.
a. Sugars
b. Starches
c. Fats
d. A and B
Question42
Carbohydrates are commonly used as ___________.
a. A source of energy
b. An amino acid source
c. A source of nitrogen
Question43
Disaccharides are formed by ______________.
b. Hydrolysis of a polysaccharide
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question44
In animals, the process of gluconeogenesis occurs in the __________.
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Gall bladder
Question45
Lectins are ____________.
Question46
Protein glycosylation takes place in the ____________.
a. Nucleus
b. Cell membrane
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Lysosome
Question47
Starch is an example of a ___________.
a. Monosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Polysaccharide
d. Trisaccharide
Question48
Sucrose, aka table sugar, is composed of ____________.
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B
Question49
Fischer projections convey useful information about _____________.
a. Electron positions
b. 3D structural positioning
c. Resonance
d. Bond lengths
Question50
ATP facilitates the occurrence of energetically unfavorable reactions via ___________.
a. Phosphoryl transfer
b. Energy coupling
Question51
Both DNA and RNA are composed of three important parts, which are:
Question52
Cytosine makes _______ with guanine when base paired in DNA.
Question53
DNA is synthesized in a _____ direction.
a. 3' to 5'
b. 5' to 3'
c. Top to bottom
d. Left to right
Question54
Double stranded DNA takes on a __________ structure.
a. Beta sheet
b. Looped
c. Double helix
d. A-form helix
Question55
In the cell, _____ is used as energy currency.
b. Fat
c. ATP
d. AMP
Question56
The correct pairing of bases in DNA is __________.
a. A-G; C-T
b. A-C; G-T
c. A-T; C-G
d. A-U; C-G
Question57
The DNA chromosome of bacteria consists of ___________.
Question58
What is the base that is used by RNA but not DNA?
a. Guanine
b. Uracil
c. Thymine
d. Cytosine
Question59
What type of base is adenine?
a. Purine
b. Pyrimidine
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A and B
Question60
The sugar used in RNA is ____________.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Dideoxyribose
c. Ribose
d. Glucose
Question61
Fatty acids contain ________________.
Question62
Glycerolphospholipids create a double layer lipid membrane, such as the cell membrane, because of _____________.
Question63
Lipids are the starting material of important biological molecules, including ___________.
a. Steroids
b. DNA
c. Carbohydrates
Question64
Lipids play a role in which of the following?
a. Energy storage
b. Membrane structure
c. Cell signaling
d. All of the above
Question65
Phospholipids can be composed of _______________.
a. Fatty acids
b. Glycerol
c. Sphingomyelin
Question66
The difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids is ______________.
Question67
The fluidity of the cell membrane is determined by ___________.
Question68
Triacylglycerol is composed of ___________.
Question69
Which of the following are composed of lipids?
a. Waxes
b. Cholesterol
c. Triacylglecerols
Question70
Glycolysis gives a net yield of __________.
Question71
Glycolysis takes place in the _________.
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleus
d. Golgi
Question72
In the citrate cycle, energy from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA is converted to _____________.
Question73
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the _______.
a. Nucleus
b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
Question74
The complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O results in a yield of __________.
a. 38 ATP/glucose
b. 42 ATP/glucose
c. 60 ATP/glucose
d. 32 ATP/glucose
Question75
The electron transport system links oxidation of NADH and FADH2 to _____________.
a. Glucose synthesis
b. Ethanol fermentation
c. ATP synthesis
d. GTP synthesis
Question76
The input and output of glycolysis is ____________.
Question77
The sugar on ATP is _______________.
a. Deoxyribose
b. Glucose
c. Cholesterol
d. Ribose
Question78
The __________ is a hub of cellular metabolism because it links the oxidation of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and proteins to ATP synthesis.
a. TCA/citrate cycle
b. Urea cycle
c. Glycolysis cycle
d. Pentose pathway
Question79
True or False: Glycolysis requires oxygen.
a. True
b. False
Question80
Under aerobic conditions, the pyruvate produced during glycolysis can go on to ________.
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
Question81
Rank the following, from highest to lowest, in terms of energy: AMP, ATP, ADP?
Question82
A Holliday Junction structure occurs during which process?
a. Recombination
b. Replication
c. Transcription
d. Translation
Question83
DNA is synthesized in a _______ direction.
a. Left to right
b. Top to bottom
c. 5' to 3'
d. 3' to 5'
Question84
DNA replication is carried out by a ________ enzyme.
a. Helicase
b. Polymerase
c. Kinase
d. Topoisomerase
Question85
DNA replication is semi-conservative. What does this mean?
Question86
DNA serves as a template for which type of RNA?
a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
Question87
There are three types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells. RNA polymerase I transcribes ______, RNA polymerase II transcribes _______, and RNA polymerase III mainly transcribes
_________.
Question88
Which of the following are post-transcriptional modifications of RNA?
a. Cap addition
c. Intron removal
Question89
_________ enzymes maintain the torsional stress of DNA.
a. Helicase
b. Topoisomerase
c. Kinase
d. Restriction
Question90
Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases results in ____________.
Question91
Intracellular pathways are altered through extracellular molecules binding to __________.
a. Polymerases
b. Ligases
c. Receptors
Question92
Molecules that play an important role in cell adhesion and structure include _________.
a. Integrins
b. Cadherins
c. Selectins
Question93
Steroids act as signaling molecules by __________________.
Question94
True or false: Ligand binding to receptors can result in wide-spread gene expression changes via signal amplification.
a. True
b. False
Question95
Stimulation of a G protein coupled receptor results in __________.
Question96
ELISAs use __________, enabling the measurement of specific proteins in a solution.
a. PCR
b. Purification
c. Antibodies
Question97
In a Southern blot, probes are used to _________________.
Question98
PCR is a valuable tool for analyzing DNA because ___________________.
Question99
During SDS-PAGE, proteins are primarily separated according to their _______________.
a. Mass
b. Shape
c. Charge
Organic chemistry
1
Which of the following accurately represents the hybridizations for the carbon atoms in C 2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Question2
Which of the following accurately represents the molecular geometry for the carbon atoms in C2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.
Question3
What are the formal charges on the nitrogen and boron atoms in H3N - BH3, respectively?
A. +1, -1
B. +1, +1
C. -1, -1
D. -1, +1
Question4
What is the term used to describe the electrostatic attraction of the electrons of one molecule or atom for the nuclei of another?
C. Ionic bonding
D. Covalent bonding
Question5
Fill in the blank. The strongest type of intermolecular force occurring between neutral molecules is the __________________.
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
Question6
When the products of a chemical reaction are more stable energetically than the reactants, energy is released as heat. This type of reaction is referred to as which of the following?
A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic
C. Analgesic
D. Endodermic
Question7
Fill in the blank. A high energy transition state must be reached for chemical bonds to be broken and products formed in a chemical reaction. The amount of energy needed to reach this transition
state is known as the _________________.
B. Static energic
C. Kinetic energy
D. Activation energy
Question8
A. Bronsted acids
B. Lowry Bases
C. Bronsted-Lowry Acids
D. Bronsted-Lowry Bases
Question9
In general, what is the strongest effect on the acidity of a molecule, even more important than bond strength?
Choose one answer.
A. Anion effect
B. Cation effect
C. Hydrogen effect
D. Hydroxide effect
Question10
In a chemical reaction, what is the species that supplies a pair of electrons to form a covalent bond called?
Choose one answer.
A. Lewis acid
B. Hydrogen species
C. Lewis protons
D. Lewis base
Question11
The molecular formula CnH2n-2 is the general formula for which group of hydrocarbons?
Choose one answer.
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Cycloalkanes
D. Alkynes
Question12
The prefixes eth-, but-, hex-, and hept, represent hydrocarbon chains having how many carbon atoms?
Choose one answer.
A. 2, 4, 6, 7, respectively
B. 2, 6, 4, 7, respectively
C. 4, 2, 7, 6, respectively
D. 2, 7, 6, 4, respectively
Question13
In which reaction type does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate decrease as new π-bonds are formed?
A. Elimination
B. Substitution
C. Addition
D. Combustion
Question14
In the which of the following reaction types does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate molecule increase? In addition, in this reaction type, one or more π-bonds are usually lost.
A. Elimination
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Combusion
Question15
Which type of reaction is characterized by replacement of an atom or group by another; in this reaction type, the number of bonds does not change except for the added groups?
A. Elimination
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Free radical
Question16
What is the product of a rearrangement reaction called?
A. A free radical
B. A carbocation
C. An isotope
D. An isomer
Question17
Carbon radicals are characterized by a lone electron on the carbon atom and have a total of how many valence electrons?
A. Seven
B. Four
C. Eight
D. One
Question18
Question19
Nucleophiles are electron rich species or groups. Which of the following is an example of a nucleophile?
A. NH4+
B. H3O+
C. NH3
D. CH3OH
Question20
A base is defined by its ability to accept which of the following?
A. An electron
B. A free radical
C. A neutron
D. A proton
Answer:
See Section 3.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)CC
Question22
Answer:
Question23
Answer:
See Section 3.1
Correct answer: CCCC(C)CC(CC)CC
Question24
Which of the followingis the correct formula for sec-butylcyclobutane?
Answer:
See Section 3.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)C1CCC1
Question25
Answer:
See Sections 3.3 and 3.4
Correct answer: C[C@@H]1CC[C@@H](C)C1
Question26
Answer:
See Sections 3.3 and 3.4
Correct answer: C[C@@H]1CCCC[C@@H]1Cl
Question27
Which of the following statements is true concerning conformations of ethane?
Choose one answer.
C. The staggered and the eclipsed form have the same energy.
D. There are three stable staggered forms and two unstable eclipsed forms.
Question28
What is the reactivity order of halogens from most reactive to least reactive?
A. Cl, F, Br, I
B. Cl, Br, I, F
C. F, Cl, Br, I
D. I, Br, Cl, F
Question29
Which of the following is the most stable conformationof ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. Anti
B. Gauche
C. Eclipsed
D. Fully eclipsed
Question30
The product of the reaction of CH4 + O2 + heat yields which of the following?
Question31
What is the major product from the reaction of butane with chlorine gas in the presence of heat or light?
Answer:
See Sections 3.5
Correct answer: CCC(C)Cl
Question32
2-isopropylpentane reacts with Br2 + energy to produce several monohalogenated isomeric products. What is the least stable product produced?
Answer:
See Sections 3.5
Correct answer: CC(C)C(C)CCBr
Question33
Carbocation intermediates can react further to do which of the following?
Question34
Complete the sentence: Elimination from 2-iodobutane produces all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer:
See Section 4.2.4
Correct answer: CC=CC
Question35
Complete the sentence. The SN2 mechanism is favored by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Question36
Which of the following nucleophilic mechanisms is bimolecular and occurs via a single step with an inversion of configuration at the alpha carbon?
A. SN3
B. SN1
C. SN2
D. E2
See 4.2.3
Question37
What is the correct molecular structure for isobutylbromide?
Answer:
See Section 4.1.1
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)Br
Question38
What is the molecular structure of 1,2-dibromocyclohexane?
Answer:
See Section 4.1.1.
Correct answer: BrC1CCCCC1Br
Question39
The SN1 reaction mechanism is unimolecular, goes through a carbocation intermediate, and follows a rate law equation that is of what order?
A. First order
B. Zero order
C. Third order
Question40
Fill in the blank. Compounds that have the same sequence of covalent bonds but differ in the relative position of the atoms in space are __________________.
A. Constitutional isomers
B. Stereoisomers
C. Tautomers
D. Stable structural isomers
Question41
Which of the following are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images?
A. Diastereomers
B. Meso compounds
C. Enantiomers
D. A racemic mixture
Question42
What are stereoisomers that are NOT enantiomers called?
A. Meso compounds
B. Racemates
C. Diastereoisomers
D. Chiral centers
Question43
What are molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images called?
A. Enantiomers
B. Diastereoisomers
C. Meso compounds
D. Racemates
Question44
Fill in the blank. An achiral compound having chiral atoms is a(n) __________________.
A. Chiral compound
B. Achiral compound
C. Racemic mixture
D. Meso compound
Question45
What is a mixture containing equal parts of each enantiomer of a pair called?
A. An achiral mixture
B. A stereoisomeric mixture
C. A meso compound
D. A racemate
Question46
Which of the following statements about optically active compounds is false?
Question47
Which of the following structures is chiral?
Answer:
See Section 4.1.3
Correct answer: C[C@@]1(Cl)CCCC(Br)C1
Question48
Which of the following carbocations is the most stable?
Answer:
See 4.2.1
Correct answer: CCC[C+](C)C
Question49
This secondary carbocation, (CH3)3 CC+CH2CH3, rearranges to which of the following tertiary carbocations that is the most stable?
Answer:
See 4.2.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)[C+](C)C
Question50
What are the products of the reaction of CH3Br + NaSH?
A. CH3SH + NaBr
B. CH3SH only
C. CH3OH + NaBr
D. NaBr only
Question52
The reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with magnesium in ether yields which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 4.2.6
Correct answer: C=CCCC
Question53
What is the molecular structure for 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol?
Answer:
See section 5.1
Correct answer: CCC(C)(C)CO
Question54
What is the molecular structure for 1-cyclopenten-1-ol?
Answer:
See Section 5.1
Correct answer: OC1=CCCC1
Question55
B. Because the electronegativity of oxygen is substantially greater than that of carbon and hydrogen
C. Because the covalent bonds of the alcohol functional group are polarized
Question56
What is the product of the addition of (CH3)2C=CH2 to H20 in the presence of H+ (strong acid)?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)O
Question57
What does the reaction of CH3(CH2)2CH2OH + TsCl with pyridine and then NaBr yield?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCCCBr
Question58
What is the product of the reaction of (CH3)3C(CH2)2 Br with PBr3?
Answer:
See Section 4.3
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)CCBr
Question59
What is the major product of the reaction of (CH3)3-CH(OH)CH2CH3 plus H3PO4?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCC(C)=C(C)C
Question60
What is the product for the reaction of (CH3)3COH with H3PO4?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: C=C(C)C
Question61
The products of the reaction of (CH3)2CHCH(OH)CH3 + HBr are H2O and which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCC(C)(C)Br
Question62
The products of the reaction of (CH3)3CBr + CH3CH2OH are HBr plus which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCOCC(C)(C)C
Question63
The reaction of 4-hexen-4-methyl-1-ol with PCC in CH2Cl2 yields which of the following?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CC=C(C)CCC=O
Question64
What does the reaction of 3-ethyl-cyclohexanol with H2CrO4 and acetone (Jones Reagent) yield?
Answer:
See Section 5.3
Correct answer: CCC1CCCC(=O)C1
Question65
What is the structure for 3-ethyl-2-pentene?
Answer:
See Section 6.1.1
Correct answer: CC=C(CC)CC
Question66
What is the structure for trans-3-nonane?
Answer:
See Section 6.1.2
Correct answer: CCC=CCCCCC
Question67
What is the molecular structure of E-1-bromo-1-chloro-2-methyl-1-butene?
Answer:
See Section 6.1.2
Correct answer: CCC(C)=C(Cl)Br
Question68
What is the C=C double bond in alkenes made of?
A. Two pi bonds
Question69
Complete the sentences. Two degrees of unsaturation could be equivalent to all of the following EXCEPT:
C. Two rings.
Question70
What is the major alkene product synthesized through the reaction of
2-methyl-2-butanol in the presence of H2SO4 at 80 degrees?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC=C(C)C
Question71
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclohexene with H2 gas in the presence of Pd/C yield?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@@H]1CCCC[C@@]1([H])C
Question72
In disubstituted alkenes, why are cis isomers less stable than trans isomers?
B. Because of hyperconjugation
Question73
What is the product of the reaction of 2-methyl-propene with HBr in the presence of H2O2 ?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC(C)CBr
Question74
When the carbene methylene reacts with cis-2-pentene, what are the resulting products?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC[C@@H]1C[C@@H]1C
Question75
The reaction of 2-butene with Br2 in CCl4 yields?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@](C)(Br)[C@]([H])(C)Br
Question76
The reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene with HCl occurs via the most stable carbocation. What is the product of this reaction?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H]C(C)(C)C(C)(C)Cl
Question77
What is the two-step reaction of 1-methyl-cyclobutene with BH3 and then H2O2 in NaOH and H2O yield?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC1CCC1O
Question78
The reaction of trans-2-hexene with MCPBA CH2Cl2 yields a pair of entantiomers with what formula?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@]1(C)O[C@]1([H])CCC
Question79
What is one of the products of the reaction of 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene with O3 followed by reductive workup?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CCC(C)=O
Question80
Which of the following is NOT a step in the allylic bromination mechanism?
A. Propagation
B. Initiation
C. Bromine preparation
D. Termination
Question81
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclopentene with Osmium tetroxide in H2S produce?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: [H][C@]1(O)CCC[C@@]1(C)O
Question82
What is the major product of the reaction of 4-methyl-1-cyclohexane with NBS?
Answer:
See Section 6.2
Correct answer: CC1CC=CC(Br)C1
Question83
Which of the following statements about hydroboration reactions of alkenes is false?
Question84
At room temperature, alkenes can exist in which of the following phases?
Question85
Which of the following line drawings represents 3-methyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
See Section 7.1
Correct answer: [H]C#CC(C)C
Question86
What is the correct formula for 1-cyclopentyl-3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
See Section 7.1
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C#CC1CCCC1
Question87
Alkynes are the most acidic hydrocarbon due to which of the following?
Question88
The triple bond of alkynes contributes to the which of the following characteristics?
C. Acidity
Question89
What is the structure of the alkyne produced produced by the reaction of 2,2-dimethyl-5,6-dichloroheptane with RO-?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: CC#CCCC(C)(C)C
Question90
What does the reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with 3 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by H2O yield?
Answer:
Question91
What does the reaction of acetylene with nBuLi in THF and HMPA followed by chloroethane yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: [H]C#CCC
Question92
What is a good starting material to produce 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne in the lab?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C(Br)CBr
Question93
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Catalyst yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: [H]C(C)=C([H])C
Question94
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Na/NH3 Catalyst yield?
Answer:
See
Correct answer: [H]C(C)=C([H])C
Question95
What does the reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne with two equivalents of Br2 in a slow reaction yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CC(C)(C)C(Br)(Br)C(Br)Br
Question96
The reaction of 3-hexyne with H20, H+ and HgSO4 produces two products in equilibrium with each other. What is the more stable of the two products?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CCCC(=O)CC
Question97
What does the reaction of 4-cyclopropyl-1-pentyne with BH3 followed by H2O2 in NaOH yield as a final product?
Answer:
Correct answer: CC(CCC=O)C1CC1
Question98
Alkynes can be oxidized by reacting with KMnO4 in the presence of H2O or ozone to produce carboxylic acids. What does the oxidation of 3-hexyne in this manner yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CCC(=O)O
Question99
What does the reaction of acetylene with 2 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by the addition of 2 moles of 1-bromopropane yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2.
Correct answer: CCCC#CCCC
Question100
What does the reaction of HC≡C-CH2CH2Br + Mg (in ether) yield?
Answer:
See Section 7.2
Correct answer: CCC#C[MgBr]
1
Which of the following accurately represents the hybridizations for the carbon atoms in C2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.
A. sp, sp3 and sp2, respectively
Question2
Which of the following accurately represents the molecular geometry for the carbon atoms in C2H6 (ethane), C2H4 (ethene), and C2H2 (ethyne)?
Choose one answer.
A. Linear, tetrahedral, and planar, respectively
Question3
What are the formal charges on the nitrogen and boron atoms in H3N - BH3, respectively?
Choose one answer.
A. +1, -1
B. +1, +1
C. -1, -1
D. -1, +1
Question4
What is the term used to describe the electrostatic attraction of the electrons of one molecule or atom for the nuclei of another?
Choose one answer.
A. Van der Waals attraction
B. Hydrogen bonding
C. Ionic bonding
D. Covalent bonding
Question5
Fill in the blank. The strongest type of intermolecular force occurring between neutral molecules is the __________________.
B. Ionic bond
D. Hydrogen bond
Question6
When the products of a chemical reaction are more stable energetically than the reactants, energy is released as heat. This type of reaction is referred to as which of the following?
B. Endothermic
C. Analgesic
D. Endodermic
Question7
Fill in the blank. A high energy transition state must be reached for chemical bonds to be broken and products formed in a chemical reaction. The amount of energy needed to reach this transition
state is known as the _________________.
B. Static energic
C. Kinetic energy
D. Activation energy
Question8
Fill in the blank. In an acid-base reaction, proton donors are __________________.
B. Lowry Bases
C. Bronsted-Lowry Acids
D. Bronsted-Lowry Bases
Question9
In general, what is the strongest effect on the acidity of a molecule, even more important than bond strength?
B. Cation effect
C. Hydrogen effect
D. Hydroxide effect
Question10
In a chemical reaction, what is the species that supplies a pair of electrons to form a covalent bond called?
B. Hydrogen species
C. Lewis protons
D. Lewis base
Question11
The molecular formula CnH2n-2 is the general formula for which group of hydrocarbons?
B. Alkenes
C. Cycloalkanes
D. Alkynes
Question12
The prefixes eth-, but-, hex-, and hept, represent hydrocarbon chains having how many carbon atoms?
B. 2, 6, 4, 7, respectively
C. 4, 2, 7, 6, respectively
D. 2, 7, 6, 4, respectively
Question13
In which reaction type does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate decrease as new π-bonds are formed?
B. Substitution
C. Addition
D. Combustion
Question14
In the which of the following reaction types does the number of σ-bonds in the substrate molecule increase? In addition, in this reaction type, one or more π-bonds are usually lost.
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Combusion
Question15
Which type of reaction is characterized by replacement of an atom or group by another; in this reaction type, the number of bonds does not change except for the added groups?
B. Addition
C. Substitution
D. Free radical
Question16
What is the product of a rearrangement reaction called?
Choose one answer.
A. A free radical
B. A carbocation
C. An isotope
D. An isomer
Question17
Carbon radicals are characterized by a lone electron on the carbon atom and have a total of how many valence electrons?
B. Four
C. Eight
D. One
Question18
Electrophiles are attracted to which of the following molecules?
Question19
Nucleophiles are electron rich species or groups. Which of the following is an example of a nucleophile?
B. H3O+
C. NH3
D. CH3OH
Question20
A base is defined by its ability to accept which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. An electron
B. A free radical
C. A neutron
D. A proton
Question21
Which of the followingis the correct line formula for3-methylpentane?
Answer:
Question22
Which of the followingis the correct line formula for tert-butylcyclopentane?
Answer:
Question23
WWhich of the followingis the correct formula for 3-ethyl-5-methyloctane?
Answer:
Question24
Which of the followingis the correct formula for sec-butylcyclobutane?
Answer:
Question25
The stereoisomer trans-1,3-dimethylcyclopentane is represented by which of the following structures?
Answer:
Question26
In which of the following cyclohexane structures is a Cl group cis to a methyl group?
Answer:
Question27
Which of the following statements is true concerning conformations of ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. The staggered conformation is the most stable.
C. The staggered and the eclipsed form have the same energy.
D. There are three stable staggered forms and two unstable eclipsed forms.
Question28
What is the reactivity order of halogens from most reactive to least reactive?
Choose one answer.
A. Cl, F, Br, I
B. Cl, Br, I, F
C. F, Cl, Br, I
D. I, Br, Cl, F
Question29
Which of the following is the most stable conformationof ethane?
Choose one answer.
A. Anti
B. Gauche
C. Eclipsed
D. Fully eclipsed
Question30
The product of the reaction of CH4 + O2 + heat yields which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. 2 CO2+ 2H2O + heat
Question31
What is the major product from the reaction of butane with chlorine gas in the presence of heat or light?
Answer:
Question32
2-isopropylpentane reacts with Br2 + energy to produce several monohalogenated isomeric products. What is the least stable product produced?
Answer:
Question33
Carbocation intermediates can react further to do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. Give a substitution product when the cation bonds to a nucleophile
Question34
Complete the sentence: Elimination from 2-iodobutane produces all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer:
Question35
Complete the sentence. The SN2 mechanism is favored by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Primary alkyl halides
Question36
Which of the following nucleophilic mechanisms is bimolecular and occurs via a single step with an inversion of configuration at the alpha carbon?
Choose one answer.
A. SN3
B. SN1
C. SN2
D. E2
Question37
What is the correct molecular structure for isobutylbromide?
Answer:
Question38
What is the molecular structure of 1,2-dibromocyclohexane?
Answer:
Question39
The SN1 reaction mechanism is unimolecular, goes through a carbocation intermediate, and follows a rate law equation that is of what order?
Choose one answer.
A. First order
B. Zero order
C. Third order
Question40
Fill in the blank. Compounds that have the same sequence of covalent bonds but differ in the relative position of the atoms in space are
__________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Constitutional isomers
B. Stereoisomers
C. Tautomers
Question41
Which of the following are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images?
Choose one answer.
A. Diastereomers
B. Meso compounds
C. Enantiomers
D. A racemic mixture
Question42
What are stereoisomers that are NOT enantiomers called?
Choose one answer.
A. Meso compounds
B. Racemates
C. Diastereoisomers
D. Chiral centers
Question43
What are molecules that are non-superimposable mirror images called?
Choose one answer.
A. Enantiomers
B. Diastereoisomers
C. Meso compounds
D. Racemates
Question44
Fill in the blank. An achiral compound having chiral atoms is a(n) __________________.
Choose one answer.
A. Chiral compound
B. Achiral compound
C. Racemic mixture
D. Meso compound
Question45
What is a mixture containing equal parts of each enantiomer of a pair called?
Choose one answer.
A. An achiral mixture
B. A stereoisomeric mixture
C. A meso compound
D. A racemate
Question46
Which of the following statements about optically active compounds is false?
Choose one answer.
A. Racemates are not optically active.
Question47
Which of the following structures is chiral?
Answer:
Question48
Which of the following carbocations is the most stable?
Answer:
Question49
This secondary carbocation, (CH3)3 CC+CH2CH3, rearranges to which of the following tertiary carbocations that is the most stable?
Answer:
Question50
What are the products of the reaction of CH3Br + NaSH?
Choose one answer.
A. CH3SH + NaBr
B. CH3SH only
C. CH3OH + NaBr
D. NaBr only
Question51
Why are the functional carbons of organolithium and Grignard reagents effective as reducing agents?
Choose one answer.
A. Because they are basic and nucleophilic
B. Because they are basic and electrophilic
Question52
The reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with magnesium in ether yields which of the following?
Answer:
Question53
What is the molecular structure for 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol?
Answer:
Question54
What is the molecular structure for 1-cyclopenten-1-ol?
Answer:
Question55
Why are alcohols are much stronger acids than alkanes?
B. Because the electronegativity of oxygen is substantially greater than that of carbon and hydrogen
C. Because the covalent bonds of the alcohol functional group are polarized
Question56
What is the product of the addition of (CH3)2C=CH2 to H20 in the presence of H+ (strong acid)?
Answer:
Question57
What does the reaction of CH3(CH2)2CH2OH + TsCl with pyridine and then NaBr yield?
Answer:
Question58
What is the product of the reaction of (CH3)3C(CH2)2 Br with PBr3?
Answer:
Question59
What is the major product of the reaction of (CH3)3-CH(OH)CH2CH3 plus H3PO4?
Answer:
Question60
What is the product for the reaction of (CH3)3COH with H3PO4?
Answer:
Question61
The products of the reaction of (CH3)2CHCH(OH)CH3 + HBr are H2O and which of the following?
Answer:
Question62
The products of the reaction of (CH3)3CBr + CH3CH2OH are HBr plus which of the following?
Answer:
Question63
The reaction of 4-hexen-4-methyl-1-ol with PCC in CH2Cl2 yields which of the following?
Answer:
Question64
What does the reaction of 3-ethyl-cyclohexanol with H2CrO4 and acetone (Jones Reagent) yield?
Answer:
Question65
What is the structure for 3-ethyl-2-pentene?
Answer:
Question66
What is the structure for trans-3-nonane?
Answer:
Question67
What is the molecular structure of E-1-bromo-1-chloro-2-methyl-1-butene?
Answer:
Question68
What is the C=C double bond in alkenes made of?
Choose one answer.
A. Two pi bonds
Question69
Complete the sentences. Two degrees of unsaturation could be equivalent to all of the following EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. One ring and one double bond.
C. Two rings.
Question70
What is the major alkene product synthesized through the reaction of
2-methyl-2-butanol in the presence of H2SO4 at 80 degrees?
Answer:
Question71
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclohexene with H2 gas in the presence of Pd/C yield?
Answer:
Question72
In disubstituted alkenes, why are cis isomers less stable than trans isomers?
Choose one answer.
A. Because alkenes have pi bonds
B. Because of hyperconjugation
Question73
What is the product of the reaction of 2-methyl-propene with HBr in the presence of H2O2 ?
Answer:
Question74
When the carbene methylene reacts with cis-2-pentene, what are the resulting products?
Answer:
Question75
The reaction of 2-butene with Br2 in CCl4 yields?
Answer:
Question76
The reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene with HCl occurs via the most stable carbocation. What is the product of this reaction?
Answer:
Question77
What is the two-step reaction of 1-methyl-cyclobutene with BH3 and then H2O2 in NaOH and H2O yield?
Answer:
Question78
The reaction of trans-2-hexene with MCPBA CH2Cl2 yields a pair of entantiomers with what formula?
Answer:
Question79
What is one of the products of the reaction of 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene with O3 followed by reductive workup?
Answer:
Question80
Which of the following is NOT a step in the allylic bromination mechanism?
Choose one answer.
A. Propagation
B. Initiation
C. Bromine preparation
D. Termination
Question81
What does the reaction of 1-methyl-1-cyclopentene with Osmium tetroxide in H2S produce?
Answer:
Question82
What is the major product of the reaction of 4-methyl-1-cyclohexane with NBS?
Answer:
Question83
Which of the following statements about hydroboration reactions of alkenes is false?
Choose one answer.
A. The reaction is a one-step reaction.
Question84
At room temperature, alkenes can exist in which of the following phases?
Choose one answer.
A. Solids and liquids
Question85
Which of the following line drawings represents 3-methyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
Question86
What is the correct formula for 1-cyclopentyl-3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne?
Answer:
Question87
Alkynes are the most acidic hydrocarbon due to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
A. sp2 hybridation of the carbons
Question88
The triple bond of alkynes contributes to the which of the following characteristics?
Choose one answer.
A. The nonpolar bonding strength
C. Acidity
Question89
What is the structure of the alkyne produced produced by the reaction of 2,2-dimethyl-5,6-dichloroheptane with RO-?
Answer:
Question90
What does the reaction of 1,2-dibromopentane with 3 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by H2O yield?
Answer:
Question91
What does the reaction of acetylene with nBuLi in THF and HMPA followed by chloroethane yield?
Answer:
Question92
What is a good starting material to produce 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne in the lab?
Answer:
Question93
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Catalyst yield?
Answer:
Question94
What does the reaction of 2-butyne with Lindlar Na/NH3 Catalyst yield?
Answer:
Question95
What does the reaction of 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne with two equivalents of Br2 in a slow reaction yield?
Answer:
Question96
The reaction of 3-hexyne with H20, H+ and HgSO4 produces two products in equilibrium with each other. What is the more stable of the two
products?
Answer:
Question97
What does the reaction of 4-cyclopropyl-1-pentyne with BH3 followed by H2O2 in NaOH yield as a final product?
Answer:
Question98
Alkynes can be oxidized by reacting with KMnO4 in the presence of H2O or ozone to produce carboxylic acids. What does the oxidation of 3-hexyne
in this manner yield?
Answer:
Question99
What does the reaction of acetylene with 2 NaNH2 in NH3(l) followed by the addition of 2 moles of 1-bromopropane yield?
Answer:
Question100
What does the reaction of HC≡C-CH2CH2Br + Mg (in ether) yield?
Answer:
Organiz 2
1
Alcohols react using both acid and base catalysis: please elaborate.
a. Acids catalyze hydrolysis and ether formation from alcohols. Bases polarize the OH bond, even to the point of
forming an alkoxide salt.
b. Acids are used as catalysts in the Williamson ether synthesis and for hydrolysis of ethers. Bases dissolve in
ethers for use in other reactions.
c. Acids and bases will react in alcohols to form salts that are useful for ether synthesis.
Question2
The Williamson ether synthesis involves which of the following?
a. The two Williamson reagents normally used in combination with heat and light.
b. An alkyl alcohol heated up with acid to distill off water.
d. An alkoxide salt of an alcohol reacted with the alcohol it was made from.
Question3
Epoxides are a special kind of ether that:
Question4
Ethers can react with which of the following?
b. With acid and another alcohol to give transetherification- another ether and a different alcohol from the starting one.
c. With ethyl bromide to give an ethyl ether and a new alkyl bromide.
Question5
Alcohols are unique in forming ethers because:
a. they can react with themselves in the presence of heat and acid to give ethers.
Question6
Ether alcohols (molecules with both an ether and a beta alcohol) can best be made by:
a. acid catalyzed reaction of an epoxide and an alcohol with maybe a little heat.
c. acid catalyzed addition of water to a vinyl ether (ether with a double bond next to the oxygen).
Question7
There are many ways to make an ether including:
Question8
Pick the synthetic conditions that will make an ether.
b. Conversion of an alcohol with base catalysis and heat, distilling off the ether as it forms.
Question9
An epoxide reacts with an alkoxide to give an ether plus something else:
Question10
Ethers are pretty good solvents for:
a. alkyl halides.
c. alcohols.
Question11
Why are thiols and their anionic conjugate bases more reactive than their oxygen analogs?
a. They aren't really, since alcohols and acids are more reactive.
b. Because the sulfur is big, and the bigger an atom is with unpaired outer shell electrons, the more reactive it is.
d. Because it's smaller than oxygen and has more localized outer shell electrons which are more nucleophilic.
Question12
Why does sulfur oxidize so easily to sulfoxides, sulfones, sulfonic and sulfuric acid?
b. Oxygen is more electron rich, and wants to share electrons with any atom it can bind to.
c. Oxidation is just "burning," and we know that sulfur burns well (high sulfur coal?).
d. Sulfur just loves to share its outer shell electrons, and the more sharing it does, the happier it is.
Question13
Do eletrophilic compounds always react at the sulfur, no matter what?
a. Yes, except when oxygens are attached to the sulfur, then the oxygens react first.
b. Yes, except when carbons are attached to the sulfur, then substitution occurs at the carbon.
d. Pretty much, yes, even when oxygens are attached to the sulfur.
Question14
The Swern oxidation involves using DMSO (remember this great solvent?) to do what?
Question15
What is the difference between a thiol and a mercaptan?
b. A thiol is the sulfur analog of an ether; a mercaptan is like an alcohol (SH bond).
Question16
It's possible to make a polymer from a conjugated double bond diene. Pick the right diene below and the polymer that it forms.
a. 1, 5-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two-carbon pendent group).
b. 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene (also called isoprene), gives polyisoprene like the natural rubber used in tires.
c. 2, 4-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two pendent methyl groups).
Question17
Diels-Alder reactions usually involve:
a. some kind of diene with pendent ester groups reacting with some kind of alkene to give a substituted
cyclohexene.
d. some kind of alkene with pendent ester groups (e.g., maleic acid diethyl ester) reacting with some kind of diene (like
1, 3-hexadiene) to give a substituted cyclohexene.
Question18
Dienes can react with bromine (the diatomic molecule, that is) to give a product; which combination below is correct?
Question19
Dienes will readily react with chlorine, especially under the right conditions: which is the best answer below?
a. 2, 4-hexadiene with chlorine gas under a strong uv light to give the dichlorohexene.
c. 1equivalent of frozen chlorine (solid) added to cold 1, 4-cyclohexadiene to give 2, 5-dichloro-1, 4-cyclohexadiene..
d. chlorine gas dissolved in cold water with 1, 3-butadiene added dropwise to give dichlorobutanediols.
Question20
Conjugated double bonds in dienes often lead to an especially stable intermediate during reactions; pick a good explanation below for why.
a. Any reactive species whether radical, cationic or anionic will give a resonance stabilized "allylic" intermediate.
b. The first step in the reaction of conjugated double bonds is the same as for isolated double bonds, and the radical,
cation or anion formed will be stabilized by the alkyl substituent.
c. The intermediate will have both the 1- and the 4-carbons of the starting conjugated double bonds attached to the
attacking electrophile.
d. Actually, the reactions are so fast that no intermediate is expected no matter what electrophile is involved.
Question21
Reaction of 1, 3-butadiene with maleic anhydride gives a single product that is:
b. 3-(3-butenyl)succinic anhydride.
Question22
You unexpectedly are given hundreds of tons of 1, 3-cyclohexadiene. You decide to convert it to benzene by:
a. first reacting with chlorine gas and UV light followed by KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with NaOH in water to make the alcohol followed by distillation from concentrated sulfuric acid.
Question23
You can make butene alcohol by:
Question24
How would you best make a conjugated diene?
b. Take any 4-carbon alkene, add bromine across the double bond and dehydrohalogenate twice with KOH in alcohol.
c. React a four carbon (at least) linear alkane with two equivalents of chlorine under UV light, then dehydrohalogenate twice
with KOH in alcohol.
d. First chlorinate and dehydrochlorinate butane, then deprotonate with butyl lithium or concentrated KOH in alcohol, and
pour the mixture into dilute acid to neutralize the base.
Question25
You decide to make 1, 3-cyclopentadiene from cyclopentene you happen to have by:
a. first reacting with one equivalent of chlorine gas and uv light followed by treating with KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with concentrated NaOH in water followed by dehydration with concentrated sulfuric acid.
c. adding one equivalent of bromine and treating the product with two equivalents of KOH in alcohol.
d. reacting it with HOCl (bleach) to give the halohydrin, and dehydrating with concentrated sulfuric acid.
Question26
Please name the diene that is a cyclic six-carbon ring with two double bonds (conjugated).
a. 1, 2-cyclohexadiene.
b. 1, 4-cyclohexadiene.
c. 1, 5-cyclohexadiene
d. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene
Question27
Huckel was one of the first scientists to describe aromaticity, and he used which simple rule?
Question28
Aromatic molecules include which of the following?
a. Benzene, naphthalene and higher analogs with 4n + 2 electrons in the conjugated pi-bonds.
b. Furan which has four carbons and one sp2 hybridized oxygen totalling five atoms and 6 pi or non-bonded electrons.
c. Cycloheptatriene possessing 7 carbon atoms with three conjugated pi-bonds containing 6 pi electrons.
d. Cyclopentadiene cation with 5 carbons, two pi-bonds and one sp2 carbon containing 0 electrons in a p-orbital.
Question29
Naphthalene (10 carbons with two fused benzene rings) is aromatic according to Huckel because:
a. there is a continuous array of p-orbitals from pi-bonds around the outside of the fused rings AND there are
4n + 2 electrons in them (10).
c. 10 carbons are an even number and there are 5 double bonds with 8 pairs of electrons in them.
Question30
Cyclopropene has three carbons in a ring with one double bond: is it aromatic?
Question31
Substituents on aromatic molecules can have long-range effects: explain why.
b. Resonance causes spreading of the electronic effects of various substituents throughout the ring through
sigma bonds.
c. Resonance of the electron donating or withdrawing affects of a substituent can stabilize or destabilize charge
at ortho and para positions.
d. Through space interactions of a substituent with sigma bonds in the ring affect individual carbon electron
densities.
Question32
A good explanation of aromatic stabilization involves which of the following?
b. Rapid resonance of pi electrons spreads the electron density over more atoms.
c. The molecular orbitals that form from a conjugated cyclic array of p-orbitalswith just the right number of
electrons in them are substantially lower in energy than for non-conjugated systems.
d. There is no good explanation that we know of, it's just a fact of nature.
Question33
Because of their unique resonance stabilization and molecular structures, aromatic molecules possess unique properties: select the best description below.
b. They react with unique mechanisms such as electrophilic aromatic substitution and nucleophilic aromatic
substitution.
c. They do not undergo simple addition reactions that occur with simple alkanes.
Question34
Benzene possess a unique structure: select from those below.
a. It has six carbons like cyclohexane and therefore has both chair and boat confirmations.
c. The six carbons in the ring all occupy the same plane with pi bond orbitals above and below that plane.
d. Benzene has carbons connected by six sigma and three pi bonds, with the pi bonds being significantly shorter than the
ordinary sigma bonds in the benzene ring.
Question35
Heteroatom's and charges on atoms can affect aromaticity in what way?
a. Their orbitals can be hybridized in such a way as to participate in the cyclic array of p-orbitals needed for
4n+2 electrons.
c. They modify the behavior of the ring in strange and mysterious ways.
d. They decrease the reactivity of the rings in which they are located.
Question36
Substituents on aromatic ring can affect each other: Pick the answer that best illustrates this.
b. 3, 4-Dinitrobenzoic acid is readily made by nitration of benzoic acid with excess fuming nitric acid.
c. The order of acidity of substituted benzoic acid increases for para-substituents nitro, chloro, hydroxy.
d. The more electron withdrawing groups on the ring, the more acidic is benzoic acid; i.e., trichloro more than dichloro more
than monochlorobenzoic acid.
Question37
Phenol is an aromatic alcohol and differs from aliphatic alcohols in what ways?
a. The OH group is less acidic and less easily exchanged with deuterium because of resonance.
b. The OH Group has an enormous effect on reactivity and aliphatic alcohols but not in phenols.
c. Reactions on carbons alpha or beta to the OH in phenols is strictly controlled by electronegativity affects.
d. Because of resonance stabilization of intermediates, phenols are more easily brominated and nitrated.
Question38
The reactivities of substituents on aromatic rings are affected by the aromatic ring as illustrated by which of the following answers?
a. The methyl group of toluene readily undergoes free radical reaction and oxidation.
Question39
The acidity of phenol is greater than cyclohexanol because:
a. an aromatic ring is inherently electron withdrawing, pulling electrons away from the O-H bond.
b. resonance stabilization of the ring bond to oxygen makes the bond between O and H weaker.
c. resonance stabilization of the conjugate base (phenolate anion) is greater than is stabilization of the
cyclohexanol alkoxide by the attached ring.
d. alkyl carbons are electron donating compared to an aromatic ring, baking the cyclohexanol OH bond
stronger than that of phenol.
Question40
Compare the reactivity of the oxygen to acetylation with acetic anhydride for phenol versus cyclohexanol by picking the best answer below.
a. Electron donation by the cyclohexane ring increases nucleophilic attack by the oxygen of cyclohexanol versus
phenol.
b. Resonance is greater for the phenol acetyl oxonium intermediate than for the cyclohexanol analog.
c. Base catalyzed formation of the phenolate is faster than for cyclohexanol due to resonance stabilization, and
the anion formed is more reactive.
Question41
You find to your surprise that the reaction of phenol with acetic anhydride and aluminum trichloride gives a mixture of two disubstituted products. Pick the best reason for why.
c. The first acylation product is in the ortho and para positions which deactivates the ring and causes meta-substitution with
the second acetyl group to give ortho-meta and meta-para diacetylphenols.
d. The first reaction is at the oxygen to give phenyl acetate followed by acetylation in the ortho and para positions to give a
mixture of products.
Question42
EAS reactions involve attack by something seeking:
b. electrons, and those are almost always relatively "available" ones in pi-orbitals.
d. a one-step reaction involving loss of leaving group at the same time the attacking group makes a new
bond.
Question43
All EAS reactions involve a "tetrahedral" or Td intermediate. Which of the following is true of this statement?
a. Can't happen with an aromatic ring carbon which by definition is sp2 or trigonal planar.
c. No, the leaving group leaves at the same time the attacking group forms a bond.
Question44
The best way to describe the "arrow" showing the mechanism of EAS is:
a. it goes from the attacking atom (electrophile) to the carbon being attacked.
b. it goes from the attacking atom to the new bond being formed.
c. it goes from the electron pair in the pi-bond on the ring to the new sigma bond being formed.
d. it involves a half-head arrow from the attacking species and a half-head arrow from the pi-bond to the new
sigma bond to be formed.
Question45
In general, electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) happens:
Question46
EAS with chlorine gas bubbled into chlorobenzene containing aluminum trichloride would:
Question47
47. Fuming nitric acid converts phenol into:
a. pure trinitrophenol (also called "picric acid" which has a really low pKa for a phenolic compound).
c. para-nitrophenol since the OH group on an aromatic ring is activating and ortho-para directing.
d. a complex mixture of ortho- and para-substituted phenols with di- and trinitro derivatives predominating.
Question48
48. Friedel-Crafts acylation of ortho-nitrotoluene with acetyl chloride and aluminum trichloride gives:
a. a mixture of acetophenones with the nitro group always ortho or para to the carbonyl.
b. almost exclusively a single product, 3-nitro-4-methyl-acetophenone.
Question49
49. Common explosives developed by Alfred Nobel use trinitro-aromatics such as:
c. 2, 5-dinitro-1, 4-dichlorobenzene made by chloronating the dinitrobenzene with ferric chloride as catalyst.
Question50
50. Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene with 1-chloro-2-methylpropane and aluminum trichloride gives:
d. paramethylpropylbenzene.
Question51
51. You decide to make meta-nitrophenol by doing which of the following steps?
b. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid, then reacting the product with chlorine/iron, and last heating with
NaOH in water.
c. Reacting benzene with chlorine/iron, then reacting the product with nitric acid followed by NaOH in water.
d. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid to make trinitrobenzene and then with NaOH in water.
Question52
52. You acquire a mixture of meta- and para-fluoronitrobenzene and want to react it with a nucleophile. What should you do first?
a. You pick sodium methoxide because it's more reactive than a sulfur anion, sodium hydrosulfide
(NaSH).
b. You choose NaCl in ethanol since that's a pretty good nucleophile system.
c. You decide on sodium methoxide dissolved in water to make the para-nitrophenyl methyl ether.
d. You mix NaSH with ethanol and then add the aromatic molecule to make the aryl sulfide.
Question53
53. You want to make para-hydroxybenzoic acid, so you decide to do both EAS and NAS as follows:
a. You react para-chlorotoulene with hot KMnO4, isolate the product and then react it with hot methanol and HCl
catalyst. The product of this you react with neat NaOH in the melt.
b. You react toluene with concentrated NaOH in water at reflux to do NAS formation of the hydroxide, and then
oxidize the methyl group with hot permanganate to give the acid.
c. You first react toluene with hot permanganate to make benzoic acid, then react that with chlorine/iron to make
the para-chlorobenzoic acid which you heat with NaOH in water.
d. You react benzoic acid with chlorine and iron catalyst, then treat with concentrated NaOH in water and
heat.
Question54
54. There are two components to a nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction with the order of reactivity of:
a. halide leaving groups on the aromatic ring being F>Cl>Br, I not reactive.
b. the nature of the attacking nucleophile being unimportant.
c. other activating groups that are NOT displaced but stay on the ring such as ester, nitro, sulfone and carbonyl.
Question55
55. The Kolbe and Riemer-Tieman reactions are special types of EAS reaction in which:
a. chloroform is the electrophile and it reacts with the sodium salt of phenol (sodium phenolate).
b. bubbling carbon dioxide through a solution of phenol in water generates the para-hydroxybenzoic acid.
c. sodium phenolate (sodium salt of phenol) reacts directly with carbon dioxide (high temperature and pressure) to
give ortho- and para-hydroxybenzoic acids as their sodium salts.
d. phenol dissolved in ethanol with iron chloride reacts rapidly with carbonic acid to form the ortho- and para-
hydroxybenzoic acids.
Question56
56. The key intermediate in electrophilic aromatic substitution (e.g., bromination of benzene) can be described best by which answer below?
a. Bezene-derived anion adduct with delocalization of the charge around the ring.
b. Bezenonium ion, the cation formed by attack of the electrophile (e.g., bromine cation) on the ring to give an sp3
hybridized carbon.
c. There is no intermediate, just a transition state with the H-atom leaving as the electrophile forms a bond to that
carbon.
d. A complex salt with the catalyst bound to the pi-cloud of the ring while the electrophile is attached to one of the
bezene hydrogens.
Question57
57. Almost all EAS reactions require a catalyst because (pick the best answer below):
b. The catalyst complexes with the aromatic ring to activate it for attack.
c. The catalyst brings the aromatic ring and the electrophile together so that they can react.
Question58
58. Nucleophilic aromatic substitution (NAS) is very similar to Sn2 substitution of alkanes because:
b. It is a process involving an attacking species and a leaving group, although for NAS there is also an intermediate.
Question59
59. The NAS mechanism is special in what regard?
a. It requires a much more nucleophilic attacking species than in alkyl substitution reactions.
b. The aromatic nucleus being attacked must have electron donating groups attached.
c. A 3-center Intermediate exists involving the catalyst, nucleophile and aromatic ring.
d. It involves nucleophilic attack at an sp2 carbon which only occurs with strong electron withdrawing groups
attached at or in resonance with the substituted carbon.
Question60
60. The two types of aromatic substitution reactions (electrophilic and nucleophilic) are complementary in that (pick the best answer):
b. The arrow showing electron motion in both cases always starts at one of the pi bonds on the ring.
c. EAS is enhanced by electron donating groups on the ring while NAS is enhanced by electron withdrawing
groups.
d. Both use Lewis acid catalysts like iron chloride or aluminum chloride.
Question61
Based on the outer shell hybridization of the nitrogen, amines have what geometry?
a. Modified structure with three sp2 orbitals in a trigonal planar array and one p-orbital with 2 electrons.
b. Two electrons in the 2s orbital and three bonding pairs of electrons in the three 2p orbitals.
d. Tetrahedral, just like carbon and oxygen, with four energetically equivalent orbitals pointing at the apexes of a
tetrahedron.
Question62
Amines are "basic" in a Bronstead scheme because of what?
a. They have a lone pair of electrons in an sp3 orbital just sitting there waiting for something to happen, like
protonation.
c. A proton can bind to one of the attached atoms through the excess electron density in the bonding orbital.
Question63
Amines can be made from aldehydes by doing what?
b. Protonating the oxygen of the aldehyde and attacking with a neutral amine of some kind in an Sn2
reaction.
c. Mixing ammonia or a primary or secondary amine with the aldehyde, forming the imine and reducing with
hydrogen and a nickel catalyst.
d. Reduce the aldehyde to the alcohol with hydrogen and a catalyst, then reacting with an amine or ammonia at
high temperature in an Sn2 reaction.
Question64
How would you convert a carboxylic acid to an amine?
a. First reduce the acid with lithium aluminum hydride to the alcohol, convert to an alkyl chloride with thionyl
chloride, then heat with excess amine.
b. Heat the acid with ammonium hydroxide under high pressure and temperature, isolate the amide and reduce
it with lithium aluminum hydride.
c. Convert the acid to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and heat, add sodium cyanide to form the nitrile
and reduce with lithium aluminum hydride.
d. All three of the above but with careful consideration of conditions and structure of the reactants.
Question65
Aniline is an aromatic amine that can be made how?
a. Reacting benzene with chlorine gas and iron chloride catalyst, then nitrating with nitric acid in sulfuric acid,
isolating the product and reducing with hydrogen using a palladium catalyst.
b. Heating benzene with ammonia under high heat and pressure; once the first amine adds, further reaction stops
because the amine is such a strong electron donator.
c. Reacting phenol with thionyl chloride to form chlorobenzene, then heating with ammonia under high temperature
and pressure.
d. By treating benzene with nitric acid in sulfuric acid, isolating the nitrobenzene and reducing with hydrogen and a
palladium catalyst.
Question66
In terms of basicity, what is the order for alkyl amines?
a. Secondary > tertiary > primary > ammonia due to steric effects for the tertiary putting it "out of order."
b. Tertiary amine > secondary > primary > ammonia due to electron donating ability of alkyl substituents.
c. Ammonia > primary amine > secondary > tertiary due to electron withdrawing ability of any heteroatom.
d. It will depend on whether we're talking about Lewis or Bronstead acid-base chemistry.
Question67
Reaction of isopropyl bromide (2-bromopropane) with amines varies how with amine structure?
a. In a non-regular manner, with secondary amines often being more reactive than either primary or tertiary
amines.
b. Only primary and secondary amines react due to steric inhibition with tertiary amines.
c. Because of steric inhibition caused by the huge isopropyl group, there is no reaction with any amines.
d. It doesn't vary at all since all amines and ammonia have the same basic reactivity.
Question68
Pyridine is an aromatic amine: what is its structure and is it basic?
a. Pyridine is a benzene ring with an NH2 group attached that is basic like any amine.
b. It is a seven-membered ring with the six sp2 hybridized carbons accounting for the aromaticity and the
nitrogen in the ring providing basicity.
c. It is like benzene with one carbon replaced with nitrogen that also has a lone pair of electrons (basic) in an
sp2 orbital within the plane of the ring.
d. Pyridine is one of the nucleic acid bases possessing two nitrogens in the aromatic (benzene-like) ring and
one nitrogen NH2 attached.
Question69
Quanidine (CN3H5 with three nitrogens attached to the carbon) is a very strong base for protonation for what reason?
a. Each of the amines has a lone pair of electrons making it three times more likely that a proton can
bond to one pair.
b. Once one of the nitrogens is protonated, hydrogen bonding with the other nitrogens stabilizes the
charge.
c. The proton in the protonated quandinium ion sits on top of and bonded to all three nitrogens at the
same time.
d. Mainly because the protonated form has a positive charge resonance delocalized onto all three
nitrogens through the central carbon.
Question70
Nitrogen is similar to carbon and oxygen (adjacent 2nd row elements) in what unique way?
b. It combines outer shell s and p electrons into four sp3 orbitals that are tetrahedral in shape.
Question71
Amines and acids both have:
a. basic characters- they make water have a higher pH value when dissolved in it.
b. acidic characters- they make water have a lower pH value when dissolved in it.
c. exchangable hydrogens that can be converted to deuterium with heavy water (D2O).
Question72
Amines can be made from:
a. the reaction of ammonia with alkyl chloride with maybe heat to speed it up.
c. two-step reaction involving imine formation (amine plus aldehyde) followed by hydrogen reduction (with
catalyst).
Question73
There are three types of amines that include:
a. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to the type of carbon directly attached to the nitrogen.
b. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to how many alkyl carbons are directly attached to the
nitrogen.
Question74
An alkyl carboxylic acid can be made by:
Question75
Butyl amine and acetic acid will react:
Choose one answer.
Question76
The name of a tertiary amine with one butyl and two methyl groups is:
c. dimethylaminobutane.
Question77
The carboxylic acid made by oxidation of n-butanol is called:
a. butanoic acid.
c. carbonic acid.
d. benzoic acid.
Question78
Reacting 2-butene with peracetic acid (a peroxy acid) would lead to:
c. 2-butanol.
Question79
Carboxylic acids can be converted to primary amines by:
a. decarboxylation with HBr and peroxide, then reaction of the alkyl bromide with ammonia.
b. reduction of the acid to the alcohol with NaOH/formaldehyde, then reaction with ammonium chloride and heat.
c. a two-step conversion, first to the amide with ammonia and heat, and then by reduction with litium aluminum hydride or
hydrogen plus catalyst.
Question80
Primary amines of primary alkanes can be converted to alcohols using the Hoffman-type reaction involving:
a. reaction first with the Hoffman reagent and then heat with NaOH.
b. Exhaustive methylation with methyl iodide followed by heat with NaOH in water.
c. Conversion of the amine to an acetamide with acetic anhydride followed by reduction with hydrogen and
catalyst.
d. Exhaustive ethylation with ethyl bromide followed by heat with KOH in ethanol.
Question81
Why is a hydrogen attached to the carbon next to a carbonyl so reactive?
b. In the anionic intermediate formed, delocalization of charge onto the more electronegative oxygen occurs through
pi-bonds.
d. The double bond to oxygen from the alpha carbon is conjugated to the intermediate carbanion through a double
bond to that carbon as well.
Question82
The acidity of a proton (hydrogen) alpha to most carbonyl compounds is around pKa = 25, but drops to what with two carbonyls attached to the same sp3 carbon with a hydrogen?
b. Less than 14 or so which means that aqueous base can deprotonate such compounds.
Question83
What is the best way to draw (describe) the sodium salt of 2, 4-pentadione (two acetyls on the same methylene)?
a. Since only one hydrogen on the carbon is lost to form this, the sodium cation should be on the alpha
carbon.
b. Since only one of the oxygens can undergo enol-keto tautomerism, the sodium cation should be on one
oxygen.
c. Since both oxygens can equilibrate with the carbanion, why not put the sodium cation between them in a
chelate?
d. Since the carbonyl oxygen lone pairs repel each other, one carbonyl will be twisted out of plane with the
other, and will have the sodium attached.
Question84
Reaction of almost any aldehyde or ketone with ethylene glycol (1, 2-ethanediol) and acid catalyst with water distillation does what?
b. Dehydrates the glycol to vinyl alcohol which forms a C-C bond to the carbon alpha to the carbonyl.
c. Transfers one of the hydroxyl groups from the glycol to the carbonyl to form a hydrate (two OH groups on the same
carbon).
d. Well, if you're careful, in the end you form the acetal or ketal with no change in oxidation state.
Question85
A fairly general synthesis of a ketone would involve what steps?
a. Reaction of an alkane with chlorine and UV light to form an alkyl chloride, conversion to an alcohol with NaOH
and water, and oxidation with CrO3 in sulfuric acid.
b. Treating an alkane with peroxide and acid to give an alcohol, followed by in situ (one-pot) oxidation to the
carbonyl with the same reagents.
d. Reacting an alkyl carboxylic acid with thionyl chloride followed by treating the product with an alcohol and
aluminum trichloride.
Question86
A neat way to make a symmetrical dialdehyde from cyclohexene is done how?
a. Reacting the alkene with hydrogen peroxide in acetic acid followed by adding water plus heat to give a
glycol that is then cleaved with more peroxide and heat.
b. Treating first with osmium tetroxide in pyridine, then adding hydrogen sulfide and extracting the
product.
c. Reacting the alkene with ozone (O3) in chloroform (CHCl3) followed by treatment with peroxide.
Question87
In a different problem (somewhere here) you oxidized an alcohol to an aldehyde or ketone; now you want the alcohol back so you:
Choose one answer.
a. Add concentrated NaOH in water and heat to drive off the water, then extract with methylene chloride to obtain
the alcohol.
b. Add to the carbonyl compound in ethanol concentrated sulfuric acid containing sodium borohydride, then
neutralizing and extracting with ether.
c. Dissolve the ketone or aldehyde in ethanol (maybe with a little water and NaOH added) and then slowly adding
sodium borohydride followed by neutralization and extraction.
d. Treat with hot potassium permanganate (KMnO4) in aqueous acid, then neutralize and extract.
Question88
The Claissen-Schmidt reaction is a simple reaction (cyclohexanone plus 1 equivalent formaldehyde and sodium ethoxide catalyst) that forms what product?
a. Since the formaldehyde is more reactive, it adds the ethoxide and the resulting carbanion adds to the ketone carbonyl followed by loss
of water to give cyclohexenylmethanal.
b. Abstraction of proton alpha to the ketone followed by attack at the formaldehyde carbonyl followed by a two-step proton exchange
and water loss to form the alpha methylene of cyclohexanone.
c. The cyclohexanone dimerizes and then formaldehyde donates a hydride to reduce the remaining ketone to give the diol.
d. The ethoxide attacks the formaldehyde first (more reactive carbonyl) and the adduct attacks the ketone to form the acetal.
Question89
Ketones and aldehydes react with HCN to give what?
a. Poisonous materials that are extremely dangerous due to reversible release of the HCN.
b. A member of the family of adducts called cyanohydrins, which can be hydrolyzed to the alpha-hydroxy
acid.
c. The dicyano compound with both CN's attached to the carbonyl carbon and one equivalent of water
released.
d. Reaction at the alpha-position of the enol form of the carbonyl to give a beta-cyano ketone or aldehyde.
Question90
The aldol reaction of acetaldehyde (2 carbons) with sodium ethoxide catalyst gives what?
a. Addition of two equivalents of the ethoxide to the carbonyl carbon to form the acetal.
b. No reaction- ethoxide is not a strong enough base to actually catalyze any reaction of acetaldehyde.
c. A dimer joined at what were the carbonyl carbons, the product named as 2, 3-butandiol.
Question91
Cyclopentanone reacts with the non-nucleophilc but very strong base NaH to form an anion that then reacts with methyl iodide to give what product?
a. The base removes an alpha proton to give the enolate anion which nucleophilically attacks MeI to displace the iodide and form the
alpha-methylcyclopentanone.
b. The initial enolate anion formed adds the iodine to the alpha carbon while the methyl ends up on the oxygen.
c. Initial enolate anion abstracts a proton from the methyl iodide carbon, which then attacks the carbonyl to form alpha- iodomethyl-
hydroxycyclopentane.
d. No reaction occurs- NaH is not a strong enough base to deprotonate a carbon alpha to a carbonyl.
Question92
You try to react 1, 5-cyclooctadione with chlorine using NaH as catalyst. You forget to weigh the NaH and end up using 2 equivalents which gives you a product with no chlorine but different
from the starting material: what is it?
a. The first step goes fine to give 2, 6-dichloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione. The second NaH dehydrohalogenates to give a double bond
conjugated to each of the ring carbonyls.
c. The first step gives 2-chloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione but the second NaH reduces off the chlorine to give back the starting
material.
d. The first step works fine, with deprotonation alpha to one carbonyl followed by reaction with chlorine to give the alpha-
chloro species. However, the second NaH dehydrochlorinates to give the cyclooctadione with a double bond conjugated to one
of the ketones.
Question93
Why are carboxamides are such wonderful and useful derivatives of carboxylic acids?
a. Didn't know they were, but if you say so, it must be because they are so reactive.
b. Well, if nature uses them in peptides and proteins, they most offer something useful, like maybe hydrolytic
stability and intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
c. The sp3 hybridized nitrogen is almost as basic as a simple amine but with the added contribution of the
attached carbonyl to enhance metal binding.
d. There so easy to make that all living creatures can just ingest amines from food and convert them to amides in
the stomach.
Question94
Which of the following statements is true about a carboxylic derivative or reaction?
a. Nitriles have a carbon-nitrogen "double bond" and are also called Shiff bases.
c. The key atoms of an amide bond (carbon and oxygen of the carbonyl plus the amide of the nitrogen and its
hydrogen) all lie in the same plane making for a rigid, conformationally restrained segment (like in an enzyme).
d. Nature uses acid chlorides (acyl halides) in the body to make natural amides such as peptides.
Question95
Even without a topic on polymers, can you pick out which of the following is not true?
b. Polyester used in clothing and soda bottles is made from terephthalic acid and ethlene glycol (the same chemical
used in antifreeze).
c. Lipids are long-chain alkyl esters (of fatty acids) found in many living organisms.
d. RNA and DNA are polyesters made from inorganic phosporic acid and substituted sugar molecules.
Question96
Carboxylic acids can react by:
b. nucleophilic attack of the polarized central carbon of the acid group on alcohols and amines.
c. conversion to acid chlorides with thionyl chloride, a high-energy and very reactive inorganic acid chloride.
Question97
Synthesis of a carboxylic acid can occur by:
Question98
Amides are derivatives of carboxylic acids that:
b. first reacting the amine with thionyl chloride and then adding the acid.
c. first reacting the acid with sodium hydroxide and then adding the amine.
d. first reacting the acid with thionyl chloride and then adding the amine.
Question99
Carboxylic acids have a unique combination of:
a. a central sp2 hybridized carbon, one sp2 hybridized oxygen and one sp3 hybridized oxygen.
b. an sp2 hybridized carbon that can accept a proton from another acid's sp3 hybridized OH moiety.
Question100
Carboxylic acids can react to:
c. form amides by reaction with amines, heat and water removal by distillation.
Question101
A general synthesis of carboxylic acids involves:
a. first conversion of an alcohol to an alkyl iodide and then reaction with oxygen.
b. alcohol reaction with strong oxidizing agents like hydrogen gas and platinum catalyst.
c. conversion of an alkyl iodide to a Grignard reagent with magnesium followed by quenching with dry ice.
Question102
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids by:
b. mixing the acid with excess primary alcohol and distilling off water.
c. mixing an acid with a tertiary alkyl bromide and KOH in t-butyl alcohol.
d. first converting to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and then adding alcohol and dilute base.
Question103
Ketones can be made from carboxylic acids by:
a. first converting the acid to an acid chloride then mixing with toluene and iron chloride, and heating for a
while.
d. reacting the acid with KOH and then heating with phenyl bromide.
Question104
Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids that can:
Question105
The basic order of stability of carboxylic acids is (pick one).
Choose one answer.
a. acids > acyl halides > esters > anhydrides > amides
c. esters > amides > acids >> anhydrides > acyl halides
d. amides >> acids > esters > acyl halides > anhydrides
Question106
Which is the best way to make an amide from a carboxylic acid derivative?
c. Use an anhydride with two equivalents of amine, one for each of the acid equivalents (oh, and add heat).
d. Use the classic Shotten-Baumen conditions of one equivalent of acid chloride in an organic solvent and one equivalent of
amine plus one equivalent of dilute inorganic base in water, stir rapidly, chill as needed.
Question107
Carboxylic acids form salts with amines that can be useful how?
a. They're more water soluble as the salt, and if one is a medication, this can help in delivery.
b. You can heat the salt up under vacuum and form an amide (usually).
c. You can extract impurities away using water plus an organic solvent.
Question108
Under what conditions can hydrolysis of a carboxylic ester or amide lead back to the acid?
Question109
Which acid derivative and what reaction conditions would give an aryl ketone?
a. Heating an anhydride with the aromatic in refluxing water containing a strong acid catalyst.
b. Slowly adding a carboxylic acid to a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and the aromatic compound.
c. Carefully adding an aryl Grignard reagent to a carboxylic acid dissolved in an organic solvent.
d. Reaction of an acid chloride with a reasonably activated aromatic using a strong Lewis acid catalyst.
Question110
What is the key intermediate(s) of the reactions of many acid derivatives?
a. That would have to be the Td or tetrahedral intermediate involved in the most common type, the addition-
elimination mechanism.
c. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn2 reaction with simultaneous bond-formation and bond-
breaking.
d. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn1 mechanism with the loss of the leaving group occurring first to
give an acylonium ion.
Question111
How would you most efficiently (key word) convert an acid derivative to a primary amine?
b. Make a primary-nitrogen amide and then reduce with excess hydrogen and a very reactive transition metal
catalyst.
c. Mix ammonia and a carboxylic acid together with rapid stirring in water, then distill the water under
vacuum.
Question112
Carboxylic acids are different than alcohols because:
Question113
The genetic code of all plants and animals is composed of what polymer?
a. Natural (what else?) polyamides called DNA and RNA which contain nucleic acid bases in the repeat units.
c. Lipid polymers that contain nucleic acid bases organized in three-unit sequences.
d. Polymers of nucleic acid bases with phophoric acid to give complex polyesters abbreviated RNA and DNA.
Question114
Sucrose is an excellent example of what kind of natural material?
b. Oligomers and polymers of glucose, the most common of the sugars, with sucrose composed of two glucose
monosaccharides.
c. An artificial sweetener made of glucose and fructose units with non-natural stereochemistry at the anomeric carbons.
d. The monosaccharide that forms part of the polymer chain in RNA and DNA.
Question115
Proteins are complex oligomers and polymers made up of what?
a. Sugar units (ribose with pendent nucleic bases) joined to each other with phosphate ester linkages to make
RNA and DNA molecules.
b. Complex carbohydrates containing both saccharide units linked with amino acid groups.
c. Oligomers and polymers of the group of 23 or so natural amino acids linked through amide bonds.
d. Ester- and amide-linked units of various combinations of the natural materials we ingest in our diets such as
citric acid and lysine.
Question116
Trees and cotton are made of what natural polymer?
a. The polysaccharide of glucose called starch; it's also found in legumes and potatoes.
b. The polysaccharide of glucose called cellulose, a polymer with strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds that give
these materials such excellent physical properties.
c. Proteins such as collagen that are strong and have extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding holding them
together.
d. The polysaccharide with sucrose repeat units, which is why sucrose is so cheap and readily available.
Question117
Hair and skin are made of the same natural polymer as rhino horns: what is it?
Choose one answer.
a. A complex carbohydrate containing both saccharides and amino acids in the polymer repeat units.
c. A complex mixture of inorganic phosphate and cellulose that has extremely strong intermolecular forces
holding the chains together.
d. A natural polyamide or protein with a unique arrangement intra- and intermolecular hydrogen bonds along the
chains.
Question118
If you wanted to make your own soap, how would you do it?
a. Take cotton fibers and mix with a strong base such as lye, add water, boil till the fibers dissolve,
filter and evaporate the water.
b. Add fur or wool to water containing strong acid, boil till everything dissolves, filter and evaporate
the water to give the slippery crude soap.
c. Start with animal fat or a plant oil, mix with lye (strong inorganic base) and water, heat till all the fat
or oil dissolves, filter and evaporate the water to give the fatty acid salt (soap).
d. Clot cream with acetic acid, mix the curds you get with yeast and let ferment until the bubbling
stops; evaporate the water to get soap.
Question119
There are 23 or so natural amino acids: name a few.
b. Serine, glutamic acid, thymine and adenine are the less common ones.
c. Steric acid, glucose, alanine and citric acid are the most common ones.
d. Lipoic acid, proline, lysergic acid and pyridine are the essential amino acids, meaning we must have
them in our diet or we get sick.
Question120
RNA is fundamentally different from DNA in what ways?
a. RNA is the genetic material passed from parents to offspring while DNA transfers that genetic code into
components of cells and human bodies.
b. RNA uses different nucleic acid bases (different than adenine and thymine, for example) to carry the
genetic information to the enzymes that construct our bodies.
c. The sugar in RNA is ribose and the one in DNA is deoxyribose, but more important, DNA makes up our
genes while RNA does other stuff.
d. There is no chemical difference in terms of nucleic acid bases and sugar units, although DNA is a much
higher molecular weight polymer than RNA.
Question121
Of the 20 natural amino acids listed in the reading, 10 are called "essential", meaning what?
b. You must take vitamins to make sure you get enough of these essential amino acids to survive.
c. Your body doesn't really need or use the non-essential ones, while the essential ones make up all the proteins
your body needs.
d. While your body can "manufacture" the non-essential ones from what you eat, it can't make the essential ones
so you have to make sure you eat the right balance of foods to get them in your diet.
Question122
Peptides and proteins are polymers of amino acids, and what is their basic structure?
a. Peptides and proteins contain alpha-amino acids forming a two-carbon plus one-nitrogen polyamide with
each repeat unit usually having a pendent or attached side chain of some kind.
b. The amine group of each amino acid is protonated by the acid group of the one next to it forming a long
chain of ammonium-carboxylate salts.
c. The acid groups react with alcohol groups of other amino acids to form polyesters with amine-containing
pendent groups along the chains.
d. The amines, alcohols and thiols of the pendent groups all react with the acid groups to form complex 3D
structures that each have unique properties such as in enzymes.
Question123
The amide groups of peptides, proteins and enzymes have what unique property?
a. The nitrogen group is basic and can form ammonium salts with carboxylic acids of other amino acids.
b. Like ketones, they can tautomerize to switch the hydrogen on nitrogen over onto the carbonyl oxygen,
leading to enhanced hydrogen bonding.
c. Because of the sp2 hybridization of the carbonyl and attached nitrogen, the amide group is "flat" and
capable of strong hydrogen bonding with other amide groups.
d. The free rotation around the carbonyl bond to the nitrogen allows these amino acid polymers to flex and
bend as needed in the body.
Question124
Lipids can best be described as what?
a. The main constiuents of natural oils (e.g., canola oil) that are polymers of long-chain hydroxyacids.
c. Unsaturated long-chain aliphatic alcohols that form organized structures such as cell walls in plants and animals.
d. The main components of animal fats (ours included), milk fats and butter.
Question125
Basically, all spectroscopic methods can be described as what?
a. Using the interaction of radio waves with molecules to understand molecular structure and properties.
b. Using energy to force molecules to change shape or structure in such a way that we can observe it with a microscope.
c. Using visible or ultraviolet light to illuminate molecules so we can see them with a microscope.
d. Exciting molecules with heat and light so that they emit vibrational energy that can be detected and analyzed with
spectrometers.
Question126
The relative energies used in various kinds of spectroscopic methods vary how?
a. From low energy ultraviolet rays to infrared and then to microwaves used in NMR analysis and finally high energy
electrons in mass spectrometry.
b. From high frequency radio waves to lower frequency electrons for NMR to infrared to UV to mass spectrometry.
c. You can't really compare the energies since each type of spectroscopy uses a unique mixture of frequencies.
d. It's not really the energy used, since this can vary independently of frequency or wavelength.
Question127
Mass spectroscopy can best be described as:
a. mass analysis of whole molecules that have been given a static electricity charge using a voltameter.
c. breakdown and ionization of molecules with high energy electrons followed by magnetic separation and analysis of mass-to-
charge ratios of the ions.
d. careful weighing of the molecules with super-sensitive nano-balances constructed with microlithography.
Question128
Fragmentation "patterns" in mass spectrometry tell us what about the molecules?
a. What kinds of impurities were present and how much of each was there.
b. How many atoms of each kind were present in the original molecule.
c. What functional groups were present so that we can determine the functionality of the original molecules.
d. The atomic compositions of segments of the molecule that we re-assemble virtually to determine the original
structure.
Question129
Ultraviolet spectroscopy looks at what kinds of molecular segments?
a. All types of bonding from sigma bonds to pi bonds to conjugated and aromatic bonding.
b. Double bonds, aromatic rings and conjugated unsaturation, and non-bonded heteroatoms all absorb in the
UV spectrum and can be detected.
c. We can see the fragments that give us broad peaks or humps in the spectrum and this tells us what kinds of
bonds are involved.
d. It is most sensitive to carbonyl bonds and less to aromatic and conjugated double bonds.
Question130
UV spectroscopy generally shows a combination of broad peaks and sharper ones that tell us what?
c. The degree of conjugation (pi electron delocalization) and something about substitution patterns.
Question131
Infrared is used mainly for determining what about a molecule?
a. What kinds of functional groups like amides, ethers and alkene double bonds are present in the molecule.
b. Its purity and what kinds of impurities are present in the mixture.
c. The exact kind and number of each functional group comprising the molecular composition.
d. The total number of atoms and what kind of each are in the molecule.
Question132
Infrared was one of the first spectroscopic methods and is still widely used today to characterize molecules because:
a. You can sample solids, liquids or gases although the information obtained isn't useful without combining with
other techniques of analysis.
b. It tells you more about the molecule than any other technique we've studied.
c. It is easy to do, takes very little sample and gives specific information about what functional groups are
present in the molecule.
Question133
How is infrared spectroscopy is different from UV and NMR?
a. It uses a different energy range from UV but the same range differently from NMR.
b. Infrared overlaps with UV in the electromagnetic spectrum providing complimentary information on functional
groups while NMR looks at electronic configuration and bonding.
c. They all see different parts of the molecule, and specifically, different atoms and how they're joined together.
d. Infrared detects vibrational motions of functional groups while UV "sees" electronic transitions and NMR looks at
the nuclei and infers bonding based on reference tables.
Question134
NMR involves what kind of analysis?
a. Spinning nuclei in such a way that they can be seen with infrared radiation and functional groups determined from
the frequency.
b. Using radio waves to detect nuclei present in a molecule (such as H or C) and based on extensive data bases of
"chemical shifts, " determine what each type is bonded to.
c. Magnetizing the molecules so they can be separated by traveling through a vacuum down a long tube surrounded
by static magnets.
d. Using high energy beams to excite the electrons so they can be detected by magnetic field fluctuations.
Question135
Proton NMR tells you what about a molecule?
a. What kind of hydrogens are present (what each kind is bonded to) and exactly how many there are relative to each
other.
b. Whether there are any hydrogens present in the molecule and what their chemical shift is with respect to a standard
(TMS).
d. What kind of heteratoms are near the hydrogens you observe in the spectrometer.
Question136
Carbon NMR is harder to do than proton NMR because:
a. It has a higher atomic mass which makes it slower to move and relax on the NMR time scale.
b. The mechanism of interaction of the isotopes of carbon (number 13) with a magnetic field is dependent on
how many hydrogens are attached to it.
c. The actual atoms of carbon observed (the isotope we can detect) is of lower relative abundance than for
hydrogen.
d. The gyromagnetic ratio (NMR sensitivity factor) is much less for carbon 13 than for hydrogen 1.
Question137
The chemical shift range for carbon 13 in NMR is different from proton NMR how?
a. It's about the same but the relative intensity of the peaks are less, making it much harder to detect.
b. Carbon covers about a 200 pm range while hydrogen has a range of only about 10 ppm and this makes carbon
more sensitive to its chemical environment (groups present).
c. It's more sensitive to solvation and hydrogen bonding which provides key information about molecular motion and
interactions.
d. It's actually much less, and thus provides less specific information about what kinds of functional groups are present
in the molecule.
1
Alcohols react using both acid and base catalysis: please elaborate.
a. Acids catalyze hydrolysis and ether formation from alcohols. Bases polarize the OH bond, even to the
point of forming an alkoxide salt.
b. Acids are used as catalysts in the Williamson ether synthesis and for hydrolysis of ethers. Bases dissolve
in ethers for use in other reactions.
c. Acids and bases will react in alcohols to form salts that are useful for ether synthesis.
Question2
The Williamson ether synthesis involves which of the following?
a. The two Williamson reagents normally used in combination with heat and light.
d. An alkoxide salt of an alcohol reacted with the alcohol it was made from.
Question3
Epoxides are a special kind of ether that:
Question4
Ethers can react with which of the following?
b. With acid and another alcohol to give transetherification- another ether and a different alcohol from the starting one.
c. With ethyl bromide to give an ethyl ether and a new alkyl bromide.
Question5
Alcohols are unique in forming ethers because:
a. they can react with themselves in the presence of heat and acid to give ethers.
c. they have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons or ethers with the same number of carbon atoms.
Question6
Ether alcohols (molecules with both an ether and a beta alcohol) can best be made by:
a. acid catalyzed reaction of an epoxide and an alcohol with maybe a little heat.
c. acid catalyzed addition of water to a vinyl ether (ether with a double bond next to the oxygen).
d. addition of an alcohol to a ketone in the presence of acid and heat.
Question7
There are many ways to make an ether including:
Question8
Pick the synthetic conditions that will make an ether.
b. Conversion of an alcohol with base catalysis and heat, distilling off the ether as it forms.
Question9
An epoxide reacts with an alkoxide to give an ether plus something else:
Question10
Ethers are pretty good solvents for:
a. alkyl halides.
c. alcohols.
Question11
Why are thiols and their anionic conjugate bases more reactive than their oxygen analogs?
a. They aren't really, since alcohols and acids are more reactive.
b. Because the sulfur is big, and the bigger an atom is with unpaired outer shell electrons, the more
reactive it is.
d. Because it's smaller than oxygen and has more localized outer shell electrons which are more
nucleophilic.
Question12
Why does sulfur oxidize so easily to sulfoxides, sulfones, sulfonic and sulfuric acid?
b. Oxygen is more electron rich, and wants to share electrons with any atom it can bind to.
c. Oxidation is just "burning," and we know that sulfur burns well (high sulfur coal?).
d. Sulfur just loves to share its outer shell electrons, and the more sharing it does, the happier it is.
Question13
Do eletrophilic compounds always react at the sulfur, no matter what?
b. Yes, except when carbons are attached to the sulfur, then substitution occurs at the carbon.
d. Pretty much, yes, even when oxygens are attached to the sulfur.
Question14
The Swern oxidation involves using DMSO (remember this great solvent?) to do what?
Question15
What is the difference between a thiol and a mercaptan?
a. There is none; they're the same and they both have SH bonds.
b. A thiol is the sulfur analog of an ether; a mercaptan is like an alcohol (SH bond).
Question16
It's possible to make a polymer from a conjugated double bond diene. Pick the right diene below and the polymer that it forms.
a. 1, 5-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two-carbon pendent group).
b. 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene (also called isoprene), gives polyisoprene like the natural rubber used in tires.
c. 2, 4-hexadiene (gives a polymer with four carbon backbone and two pendent methyl groups).
Question17
Diels-Alder reactions usually involve:
a. some kind of diene with pendent ester groups reacting with some kind of alkene to give a substituted
cyclohexene.
d. some kind of alkene with pendent ester groups (e.g., maleic acid diethyl ester) reacting with some kind of diene
(like 1, 3-hexadiene) to give a substituted cyclohexene.
Question18
Dienes can react with bromine (the diatomic molecule, that is) to give a product; which combination below is correct?
Question19
Dienes will readily react with chlorine, especially under the right conditions: which is the best answer below?
a. 2, 4-hexadiene with chlorine gas under a strong uv light to give the dichlorohexene.
d. chlorine gas dissolved in cold water with 1, 3-butadiene added dropwise to give dichlorobutanediols.
Question20
Conjugated double bonds in dienes often lead to an especially stable intermediate during reactions; pick a good explanation below for why.
a. Any reactive species whether radical, cationic or anionic will give a resonance stabilized "allylic"
intermediate.
b. The first step in the reaction of conjugated double bonds is the same as for isolated double bonds, and the
radical, cation or anion formed will be stabilized by the alkyl substituent.
c. The intermediate will have both the 1- and the 4-carbons of the starting conjugated double bonds attached
to the attacking electrophile.
d. Actually, the reactions are so fast that no intermediate is expected no matter what electrophile is involved.
Question21
Reaction of 1, 3-butadiene with maleic anhydride gives a single product that is:
b. 3-(3-butenyl)succinic anhydride.
Question22
You unexpectedly are given hundreds of tons of 1, 3-cyclohexadiene. You decide to convert it to benzene by:
a. first reacting with chlorine gas and UV light followed by KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with NaOH in water to make the alcohol followed by distillation from concentrated sulfuric acid.
Question23
You can make butene alcohol by:
Question24
How would you best make a conjugated diene?
a. Starting with a linear alkane with at least four carbons, first halogenate once and dehydrohalogenate to an alkene; do
radical allylic halogenation to give an allyl halide; then dehydrohalogenate again with KOH in alcohol to the diene.
b. Take any 4-carbon alkene, add bromine across the double bond and dehydrohalogenate twice with KOH in alcohol.
c. React a four carbon (at least) linear alkane with two equivalents of chlorine under UV light, then dehydrohalogenate twice
with KOH in alcohol.
d. First chlorinate and dehydrochlorinate butane, then deprotonate with butyl lithium or concentrated KOH in alcohol, and
pour the mixture into dilute acid to neutralize the base.
Question25
You decide to make 1, 3-cyclopentadiene from cyclopentene you happen to have by:
a. first reacting with one equivalent of chlorine gas and uv light followed by treating with KOH in alcohol.
b. treating with concentrated NaOH in water followed by dehydration with concentrated sulfuric acid.
c. adding one equivalent of bromine and treating the product with two equivalents of KOH in alcohol.
d. reacting it with HOCl (bleach) to give the halohydrin, and dehydrating with concentrated sulfuric acid.
Question26
Please name the diene that is a cyclic six-carbon ring with two double bonds (conjugated).
a. 1, 2-cyclohexadiene.
b. 1, 4-cyclohexadiene.
c. 1, 5-cyclohexadiene
d. 1, 3-cyclohexadiene
Question27
Huckel was one of the first scientists to describe aromaticity, and he used which simple rule?
Question28
Aromatic molecules include which of the following?
a. Benzene, naphthalene and higher analogs with 4n + 2 electrons in the conjugated pi-bonds.
b. Furan which has four carbons and one sp2 hybridized oxygen totalling five atoms and 6 pi or non-bonded electrons.
c. Cycloheptatriene possessing 7 carbon atoms with three conjugated pi-bonds containing 6 pi electrons.
d. Cyclopentadiene cation with 5 carbons, two pi-bonds and one sp2 carbon containing 0 electrons in a p-orbital.
Question29
Naphthalene (10 carbons with two fused benzene rings) is aromatic according to Huckel because:
c. 10 carbons are an even number and there are 5 double bonds with 8 pairs of electrons in them.
Question30
Cyclopropene has three carbons in a ring with one double bond: is it aromatic?
Question31
Substituents on aromatic molecules can have long-range effects: explain why.
b. Resonance causes spreading of the electronic effects of various substituents throughout the ring through
sigma bonds.
c. Resonance of the electron donating or withdrawing affects of a substituent can stabilize or destabilize charge
at ortho and para positions.
d. Through space interactions of a substituent with sigma bonds in the ring affect individual carbon electron
densities.
Question32
A good explanation of aromatic stabilization involves which of the following?
c. The molecular orbitals that form from a conjugated cyclic array of p-orbitalswith just the right number of
electrons in them are substantially lower in energy than for non-conjugated systems.
d. There is no good explanation that we know of, it's just a fact of nature.
Question33
Because of their unique resonance stabilization and molecular structures, aromatic molecules possess unique properties: select the best description below.
a. They are more stable and less reactive then non-aromatic molecules.
b. They react with unique mechanisms such as electrophilic aromatic substitution and nucleophilic aromatic
substitution.
c. They do not undergo simple addition reactions that occur with simple alkanes.
Question34
Benzene possess a unique structure: select from those below.
a. It has six carbons like cyclohexane and therefore has both chair and boat confirmations.
c. The six carbons in the ring all occupy the same plane with pi bond orbitals above and below that plane.
d. Benzene has carbons connected by six sigma and three pi bonds, with the pi bonds being significantly shorter
than the ordinary sigma bonds in the benzene ring.
Question35
Heteroatom's and charges on atoms can affect aromaticity in what way?
a. Their orbitals can be hybridized in such a way as to participate in the cyclic array of p-orbitals
needed for 4n+2 electrons.
d. They decrease the reactivity of the rings in which they are located.
Question36
Substituents on aromatic ring can affect each other: Pick the answer that best illustrates this.
a. Meta-nitrobenzoic acid is more acidic than the para-nitro isomer because the nitro is closer to the acid group.
b. 3, 4-Dinitrobenzoic acid is readily made by nitration of benzoic acid with excess fuming nitric acid.
c. The order of acidity of substituted benzoic acid increases for para-substituents nitro, chloro, hydroxy.
d. The more electron withdrawing groups on the ring, the more acidic is benzoic acid; i.e., trichloro more than dichloro more
than monochlorobenzoic acid.
Question37
Phenol is an aromatic alcohol and differs from aliphatic alcohols in what ways?
a. The OH group is less acidic and less easily exchanged with deuterium because of resonance.
b. The OH Group has an enormous effect on reactivity and aliphatic alcohols but not in phenols.
c. Reactions on carbons alpha or beta to the OH in phenols is strictly controlled by electronegativity affects.
d. Because of resonance stabilization of intermediates, phenols are more easily brominated and nitrated.
Question38
The reactivities of substituents on aromatic rings are affected by the aromatic ring as illustrated by which of the following answers?
a. The methyl group of toluene readily undergoes free radical reaction and oxidation.
Question39
The acidity of phenol is greater than cyclohexanol because:
a. an aromatic ring is inherently electron withdrawing, pulling electrons away from the O-H bond.
b. resonance stabilization of the ring bond to oxygen makes the bond between O and H weaker.
c. resonance stabilization of the conjugate base (phenolate anion) is greater than is stabilization of the
cyclohexanol alkoxide by the attached ring.
d. alkyl carbons are electron donating compared to an aromatic ring, baking the cyclohexanol OH bond
stronger than that of phenol.
Question40
Compare the reactivity of the oxygen to acetylation with acetic anhydride for phenol versus cyclohexanol by picking the best answer below.
a. Electron donation by the cyclohexane ring increases nucleophilic attack by the oxygen of cyclohexanol versus
phenol.
b. Resonance is greater for the phenol acetyl oxonium intermediate than for the cyclohexanol analog.
c. Base catalyzed formation of the phenolate is faster than for cyclohexanol due to resonance stabilization, and
the anion formed is more reactive.
Question41
You find to your surprise that the reaction of phenol with acetic anhydride and aluminum trichloride gives a mixture of two disubstituted products. Pick the best reason for why.
c. The first acylation product is in the ortho and para positions which deactivates the ring and causes meta-
substitution with the second acetyl group to give ortho-meta and meta-para diacetylphenols.
d. The first reaction is at the oxygen to give phenyl acetate followed by acetylation in the ortho and para positions to
give a mixture of products.
Question42
EAS reactions involve attack by something seeking:
b. electrons, and those are almost always relatively "available" ones in pi-orbitals.
d. a one-step reaction involving loss of leaving group at the same time the attacking group makes a new bond.
Question43
All EAS reactions involve a "tetrahedral" or Td intermediate. Which of the following is true of this statement?
a. Can't happen with an aromatic ring carbon which by definition is sp2 or trigonal planar.
c. No, the leaving group leaves at the same time the attacking group forms a bond.
Question44
The best way to describe the "arrow" showing the mechanism of EAS is:
a. it goes from the attacking atom (electrophile) to the carbon being attacked.
b. it goes from the attacking atom to the new bond being formed.
c. it goes from the electron pair in the pi-bond on the ring to the new sigma bond being formed.
d. it involves a half-head arrow from the attacking species and a half-head arrow from the pi-bond to the new
sigma bond to be formed.
Question45
In general, electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) happens:
a. between any aromatic molecule and an appropriate electrophile, assuming aromaticity follows the 2(n +
2) rule.
Question46
EAS with chlorine gas bubbled into chlorobenzene containing aluminum trichloride would:
Question47
47. Fuming nitric acid converts phenol into:
a. pure trinitrophenol (also called "picric acid" which has a really low pKa for a phenolic compound).
c. para-nitrophenol since the OH group on an aromatic ring is activating and ortho-para directing.
d. a complex mixture of ortho- and para-substituted phenols with di- and trinitro derivatives predominating.
Question48
48. Friedel-Crafts acylation of ortho-nitrotoluene with acetyl chloride and aluminum trichloride gives:
Question49
49. Common explosives developed by Alfred Nobel use trinitro-aromatics such as:
c. 2, 5-dinitro-1, 4-dichlorobenzene made by chloronating the dinitrobenzene with ferric chloride as catalyst.
Question50
50. Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene with 1-chloro-2-methylpropane and aluminum trichloride gives:
d. paramethylpropylbenzene.
Question51
51. You decide to make meta-nitrophenol by doing which of the following steps?
c. Reacting benzene with chlorine/iron, then reacting the product with nitric acid followed by NaOH in water.
d. Reacting benzene with fuming nitric acid to make trinitrobenzene and then with NaOH in water.
Question52
52. You acquire a mixture of meta- and para-fluoronitrobenzene and want to react it with a nucleophile. What should you do first?
a. You pick sodium methoxide because it's more reactive than a sulfur anion, sodium hydrosulfide (NaSH).
b. You choose NaCl in ethanol since that's a pretty good nucleophile system.
c. You decide on sodium methoxide dissolved in water to make the para-nitrophenyl methyl ether.
d. You mix NaSH with ethanol and then add the aromatic molecule to make the aryl sulfide.
Question53
53. You want to make para-hydroxybenzoic acid, so you decide to do both EAS and NAS as follows:
a. You react para-chlorotoulene with hot KMnO4, isolate the product and then react it with hot methanol and HCl
catalyst. The product of this you react with neat NaOH in the melt.
b. You react toluene with concentrated NaOH in water at reflux to do NAS formation of the hydroxide, and then
oxidize the methyl group with hot permanganate to give the acid.
c. You first react toluene with hot permanganate to make benzoic acid, then react that with chlorine/iron to make
the para-chlorobenzoic acid which you heat with NaOH in water.
d. You react benzoic acid with chlorine and iron catalyst, then treat with concentrated NaOH in water and heat.
Question54
54. There are two components to a nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction with the order of reactivity of:
a. halide leaving groups on the aromatic ring being F>Cl>Br, I not reactive.
Question55
55. The Kolbe and Riemer-Tieman reactions are special types of EAS reaction in which:
a. chloroform is the electrophile and it reacts with the sodium salt of phenol (sodium phenolate).
b. bubbling carbon dioxide through a solution of phenol in water generates the para-hydroxybenzoic acid.
c. sodium phenolate (sodium salt of phenol) reacts directly with carbon dioxide (high temperature and pressure) to
give ortho- and para-hydroxybenzoic acids as their sodium salts.
d. phenol dissolved in ethanol with iron chloride reacts rapidly with carbonic acid to form the ortho- and para-
hydroxybenzoic acids.
Question56
56. The key intermediate in electrophilic aromatic substitution (e.g., bromination of benzene) can be described best by which answer below?
a. Bezene-derived anion adduct with delocalization of the charge around the ring.
b. Bezenonium ion, the cation formed by attack of the electrophile (e.g., bromine cation) on the ring to give an sp3
hybridized carbon.
c. There is no intermediate, just a transition state with the H-atom leaving as the electrophile forms a bond to that
carbon.
d. A complex salt with the catalyst bound to the pi-cloud of the ring while the electrophile is attached to one of the
bezene hydrogens.
Question57
57. Almost all EAS reactions require a catalyst because (pick the best answer below):
a. EAS is a difficult reaction since your going uphill energetically from an aromatic molecule, and the catalyst
helps do this by forming a more reactive electrophile.
b. The catalyst complexes with the aromatic ring to activate it for attack.
c. The catalyst brings the aromatic ring and the electrophile together so that they can react.
Question58
58. Nucleophilic aromatic substitution (NAS) is very similar to Sn2 substitution of alkanes because:
b. It is a process involving an attacking species and a leaving group, although for NAS there is also an intermediate.
Question59
59. The NAS mechanism is special in what regard?
a. It requires a much more nucleophilic attacking species than in alkyl substitution reactions.
b. The aromatic nucleus being attacked must have electron donating groups attached.
c. A 3-center Intermediate exists involving the catalyst, nucleophile and aromatic ring.
d. It involves nucleophilic attack at an sp2 carbon which only occurs with strong electron withdrawing groups
attached at or in resonance with the substituted carbon.
Question60
60. The two types of aromatic substitution reactions (electrophilic and nucleophilic) are complementary in that (pick the best answer):
a. The same types of substituents on the aromatic ring are activators in both cases.
b. The arrow showing electron motion in both cases always starts at one of the pi bonds on the ring.
c. EAS is enhanced by electron donating groups on the ring while NAS is enhanced by electron withdrawing
groups.
d. Both use Lewis acid catalysts like iron chloride or aluminum chloride.
Question61
Based on the outer shell hybridization of the nitrogen, amines have what geometry?
a. Modified structure with three sp2 orbitals in a trigonal planar array and one p-orbital with 2 electrons.
b. Two electrons in the 2s orbital and three bonding pairs of electrons in the three 2p orbitals.
d. Tetrahedral, just like carbon and oxygen, with four energetically equivalent orbitals pointing at the apexes of a
tetrahedron.
Question62
Amines are "basic" in a Bronstead scheme because of what?
a. They have a lone pair of electrons in an sp3 orbital just sitting there waiting for something to happen,
like protonation.
c. A proton can bind to one of the attached atoms through the excess electron density in the bonding
orbital.
Question63
Amines can be made from aldehydes by doing what?
b. Protonating the oxygen of the aldehyde and attacking with a neutral amine of some kind in an Sn2 reaction.
c. Mixing ammonia or a primary or secondary amine with the aldehyde, forming the imine and reducing with
hydrogen and a nickel catalyst.
d. Reduce the aldehyde to the alcohol with hydrogen and a catalyst, then reacting with an amine or ammonia at
high temperature in an Sn2 reaction.
Question64
How would you convert a carboxylic acid to an amine?
a. First reduce the acid with lithium aluminum hydride to the alcohol, convert to an alkyl chloride with thionyl
chloride, then heat with excess amine.
b. Heat the acid with ammonium hydroxide under high pressure and temperature, isolate the amide and
reduce it with lithium aluminum hydride.
c. Convert the acid to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and heat, add sodium cyanide to form the nitrile
and reduce with lithium aluminum hydride.
d. All three of the above but with careful consideration of conditions and structure of the reactants.
Question65
Aniline is an aromatic amine that can be made how?
a. Reacting benzene with chlorine gas and iron chloride catalyst, then nitrating with nitric acid in sulfuric acid,
isolating the product and reducing with hydrogen using a palladium catalyst.
b. Heating benzene with ammonia under high heat and pressure; once the first amine adds, further reaction stops
because the amine is such a strong electron donator.
c. Reacting phenol with thionyl chloride to form chlorobenzene, then heating with ammonia under high temperature
and pressure.
d. By treating benzene with nitric acid in sulfuric acid, isolating the nitrobenzene and reducing with hydrogen and a
palladium catalyst.
Question66
In terms of basicity, what is the order for alkyl amines?
a. Secondary > tertiary > primary > ammonia due to steric effects for the tertiary putting it "out of order."
b. Tertiary amine > secondary > primary > ammonia due to electron donating ability of alkyl substituents.
c. Ammonia > primary amine > secondary > tertiary due to electron withdrawing ability of any heteroatom.
d. It will depend on whether we're talking about Lewis or Bronstead acid-base chemistry.
Question67
Reaction of isopropyl bromide (2-bromopropane) with amines varies how with amine structure?
a. In a non-regular manner, with secondary amines often being more reactive than either primary or
tertiary amines.
b. Only primary and secondary amines react due to steric inhibition with tertiary amines.
c. Because of steric inhibition caused by the huge isopropyl group, there is no reaction with any
amines.
d. It doesn't vary at all since all amines and ammonia have the same basic reactivity.
Question68
Pyridine is an aromatic amine: what is its structure and is it basic?
a. Pyridine is a benzene ring with an NH2 group attached that is basic like any amine.
b. It is a seven-membered ring with the six sp2 hybridized carbons accounting for the aromaticity and
the nitrogen in the ring providing basicity.
c. It is like benzene with one carbon replaced with nitrogen that also has a lone pair of electrons
(basic) in an sp2 orbital within the plane of the ring.
d. Pyridine is one of the nucleic acid bases possessing two nitrogens in the aromatic (benzene-like)
ring and one nitrogen NH2 attached.
Question69
Quanidine (CN3H5 with three nitrogens attached to the carbon) is a very strong base for protonation for what reason?
a. Each of the amines has a lone pair of electrons making it three times more likely that a proton can
bond to one pair.
b. Once one of the nitrogens is protonated, hydrogen bonding with the other nitrogens stabilizes the
charge.
c. The proton in the protonated quandinium ion sits on top of and bonded to all three nitrogens at the
same time.
d. Mainly because the protonated form has a positive charge resonance delocalized onto all three
nitrogens through the central carbon.
Question70
Nitrogen is similar to carbon and oxygen (adjacent 2nd row elements) in what unique way?
b. It combines outer shell s and p electrons into four sp3 orbitals that are tetrahedral in shape.
Question71
Amines and acids both have:
a. basic characters- they make water have a higher pH value when dissolved in it.
b. acidic characters- they make water have a lower pH value when dissolved in it.
c. exchangable hydrogens that can be converted to deuterium with heavy water (D2O).
Question72
Amines can be made from:
a. the reaction of ammonia with alkyl chloride with maybe heat to speed it up.
c. two-step reaction involving imine formation (amine plus aldehyde) followed by hydrogen reduction
(with catalyst).
Question73
There are three types of amines that include:
Choose one answer.
a. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to the type of carbon directly attached to the nitrogen.
b. primary, secondary, and tertiary, referring to how many alkyl carbons are directly attached to the nitrogen.
Question74
An alkyl carboxylic acid can be made by:
Question75
Butyl amine and acetic acid will react:
Question76
The name of a tertiary amine with one butyl and two methyl groups is:
c. dimethylaminobutane.
Question77
The carboxylic acid made by oxidation of n-butanol is called:
a. butanoic acid.
c. carbonic acid.
d. benzoic acid.
Question78
Reacting 2-butene with peracetic acid (a peroxy acid) would lead to:
a. 2, 3-butanediol.
c. 2-butanol.
Question79
Carboxylic acids can be converted to primary amines by:
a. decarboxylation with HBr and peroxide, then reaction of the alkyl bromide with ammonia.
b. reduction of the acid to the alcohol with NaOH/formaldehyde, then reaction with ammonium chloride and heat.
c. a two-step conversion, first to the amide with ammonia and heat, and then by reduction with litium aluminum hydride or
hydrogen plus catalyst.
Question80
Primary amines of primary alkanes can be converted to alcohols using the Hoffman-type reaction involving:
a. reaction first with the Hoffman reagent and then heat with NaOH.
b. Exhaustive methylation with methyl iodide followed by heat with NaOH in water.
c. Conversion of the amine to an acetamide with acetic anhydride followed by reduction with hydrogen and
catalyst.
d. Exhaustive ethylation with ethyl bromide followed by heat with KOH in ethanol.
Question81
Why is a hydrogen attached to the carbon next to a carbonyl so reactive?
a. The carbonyl polarization pushes electrons onto the alpha-carbon and hydrogen through sigma bonds.
b. In the anionic intermediate formed, delocalization of charge onto the more electronegative oxygen occurs through
pi-bonds.
d. The double bond to oxygen from the alpha carbon is conjugated to the intermediate carbanion through a double
bond to that carbon as well.
Question82
The acidity of a proton (hydrogen) alpha to most carbonyl compounds is around pKa = 25, but drops to what with two carbonyls attached to the same sp3 carbon with a hydrogen?
b. Less than 14 or so which means that aqueous base can deprotonate such compounds.
Question83
What is the best way to draw (describe) the sodium salt of 2, 4-pentadione (two acetyls on the same methylene)?
a. Since only one hydrogen on the carbon is lost to form this, the sodium cation should be on the alpha
carbon.
b. Since only one of the oxygens can undergo enol-keto tautomerism, the sodium cation should be on one
oxygen.
c. Since both oxygens can equilibrate with the carbanion, why not put the sodium cation between them in a
chelate?
d. Since the carbonyl oxygen lone pairs repel each other, one carbonyl will be twisted out of plane with the
other, and will have the sodium attached.
Question84
Reaction of almost any aldehyde or ketone with ethylene glycol (1, 2-ethanediol) and acid catalyst with water distillation does what?
a. Reduces the carbonyl to an alcohol while oxidizing the ethylene glycol to acetaldehyde.
b. Dehydrates the glycol to vinyl alcohol which forms a C-C bond to the carbon alpha to the carbonyl.
c. Transfers one of the hydroxyl groups from the glycol to the carbonyl to form a hydrate (two OH groups on the
same carbon).
d. Well, if you're careful, in the end you form the acetal or ketal with no change in oxidation state.
Question85
A fairly general synthesis of a ketone would involve what steps?
a. Reaction of an alkane with chlorine and UV light to form an alkyl chloride, conversion to an alcohol with NaOH
and water, and oxidation with CrO3 in sulfuric acid.
b. Treating an alkane with peroxide and acid to give an alcohol, followed by in situ (one-pot) oxidation to the
carbonyl with the same reagents.
a. Reacting the alkene with hydrogen peroxide in acetic acid followed by adding water plus heat to give
a glycol that is then cleaved with more peroxide and heat.
b. Treating first with osmium tetroxide in pyridine, then adding hydrogen sulfide and extracting the
product.
c. Reacting the alkene with ozone (O3) in chloroform (CHCl3) followed by treatment with peroxide.
Question87
In a different problem (somewhere here) you oxidized an alcohol to an aldehyde or ketone; now you want the alcohol back so you:
a. Add concentrated NaOH in water and heat to drive off the water, then extract with methylene chloride to obtain
the alcohol.
b. Add to the carbonyl compound in ethanol concentrated sulfuric acid containing sodium borohydride, then
neutralizing and extracting with ether.
c. Dissolve the ketone or aldehyde in ethanol (maybe with a little water and NaOH added) and then slowly adding
sodium borohydride followed by neutralization and extraction.
d. Treat with hot potassium permanganate (KMnO4) in aqueous acid, then neutralize and extract.
Question88
The Claissen-Schmidt reaction is a simple reaction (cyclohexanone plus 1 equivalent formaldehyde and sodium ethoxide catalyst) that forms what product?
a. Since the formaldehyde is more reactive, it adds the ethoxide and the resulting carbanion adds to the ketone carbonyl followed
by loss of water to give cyclohexenylmethanal.
b. Abstraction of proton alpha to the ketone followed by attack at the formaldehyde carbonyl followed by a two-step proton
exchange and water loss to form the alpha methylene of cyclohexanone.
c. The cyclohexanone dimerizes and then formaldehyde donates a hydride to reduce the remaining ketone to give the diol.
d. The ethoxide attacks the formaldehyde first (more reactive carbonyl) and the adduct attacks the ketone to form the acetal.
Question89
Ketones and aldehydes react with HCN to give what?
a. Poisonous materials that are extremely dangerous due to reversible release of the HCN.
b. A member of the family of adducts called cyanohydrins, which can be hydrolyzed to the alpha-hydroxy acid.
c. The dicyano compound with both CN's attached to the carbonyl carbon and one equivalent of water released.
d. Reaction at the alpha-position of the enol form of the carbonyl to give a beta-cyano ketone or aldehyde.
Question90
The aldol reaction of acetaldehyde (2 carbons) with sodium ethoxide catalyst gives what?
a. Addition of two equivalents of the ethoxide to the carbonyl carbon to form the acetal.
b. No reaction- ethoxide is not a strong enough base to actually catalyze any reaction of acetaldehyde.
c. A dimer joined at what were the carbonyl carbons, the product named as 2, 3-butandiol.
Question91
Cyclopentanone reacts with the non-nucleophilc but very strong base NaH to form an anion that then reacts with methyl iodide to give what product?
a. The base removes an alpha proton to give the enolate anion which nucleophilically attacks MeI to displace the iodide and form
the alpha-methylcyclopentanone.
b. The initial enolate anion formed adds the iodine to the alpha carbon while the methyl ends up on the oxygen.
c. Initial enolate anion abstracts a proton from the methyl iodide carbon, which then attacks the carbonyl to form alpha- iodomethyl-
hydroxycyclopentane.
d. No reaction occurs- NaH is not a strong enough base to deprotonate a carbon alpha to a carbonyl.
Question92
You try to react 1, 5-cyclooctadione with chlorine using NaH as catalyst. You forget to weigh the NaH and end up using 2 equivalents which gives you a product with no chlorine but different
from the starting material: what is it?
a. The first step goes fine to give 2, 6-dichloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione. The second NaH dehydrohalogenates to give a double bond
conjugated to each of the ring carbonyls.
c. The first step gives 2-chloro-1, 5-cyclooctadione but the second NaH reduces off the chlorine to give back the starting
material.
d. The first step works fine, with deprotonation alpha to one carbonyl followed by reaction with chlorine to give the alpha-
chloro species. However, the second NaH dehydrochlorinates to give the cyclooctadione with a double bond conjugated to one
of the ketones.
Question93
Why are carboxamides are such wonderful and useful derivatives of carboxylic acids?
a. Didn't know they were, but if you say so, it must be because they are so reactive.
b. Well, if nature uses them in peptides and proteins, they most offer something useful, like maybe hydrolytic
stability and intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
c. The sp3 hybridized nitrogen is almost as basic as a simple amine but with the added contribution of the
attached carbonyl to enhance metal binding.
d. There so easy to make that all living creatures can just ingest amines from food and convert them to amides in
the stomach.
Question94
Which of the following statements is true about a carboxylic derivative or reaction?
a. Nitriles have a carbon-nitrogen "double bond" and are also called Shiff bases.
c. The key atoms of an amide bond (carbon and oxygen of the carbonyl plus the amide of the nitrogen and its
hydrogen) all lie in the same plane making for a rigid, conformationally restrained segment (like in an enzyme).
d. Nature uses acid chlorides (acyl halides) in the body to make natural amides such as peptides.
Question95
Even without a topic on polymers, can you pick out which of the following is not true?
b. Polyester used in clothing and soda bottles is made from terephthalic acid and ethlene glycol (the
same chemical used in antifreeze).
c. Lipids are long-chain alkyl esters (of fatty acids) found in many living organisms.
d. RNA and DNA are polyesters made from inorganic phosporic acid and substituted sugar molecules.
Question96
Carboxylic acids can react by:
b. nucleophilic attack of the polarized central carbon of the acid group on alcohols and amines.
c. conversion to acid chlorides with thionyl chloride, a high-energy and very reactive inorganic acid chloride.
Question97
Synthesis of a carboxylic acid can occur by:
Question98
Amides are derivatives of carboxylic acids that:
b. first reacting the amine with thionyl chloride and then adding the acid.
c. first reacting the acid with sodium hydroxide and then adding the amine.
d. first reacting the acid with thionyl chloride and then adding the amine.
Question99
Carboxylic acids have a unique combination of:
a. a central sp2 hybridized carbon, one sp2 hybridized oxygen and one sp3 hybridized oxygen.
b. an sp2 hybridized carbon that can accept a proton from another acid's sp3 hybridized OH moiety.
Question100
Carboxylic acids can react to:
c. form amides by reaction with amines, heat and water removal by distillation.
Question101
A general synthesis of carboxylic acids involves:
b. alcohol reaction with strong oxidizing agents like hydrogen gas and platinum catalyst.
c. conversion of an alkyl iodide to a Grignard reagent with magnesium followed by quenching with dry ice.
Question102
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids by:
b. mixing the acid with excess primary alcohol and distilling off water.
c. mixing an acid with a tertiary alkyl bromide and KOH in t-butyl alcohol.
d. first converting to the acid chloride with thionyl chloride and then adding alcohol and dilute base.
Question103
Ketones can be made from carboxylic acids by:
a. first converting the acid to an acid chloride then mixing with toluene and iron chloride, and heating
for a while.
d. reacting the acid with KOH and then heating with phenyl bromide.
Question104
Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids that can:
Question105
The basic order of stability of carboxylic acids is (pick one).
a. acids > acyl halides > esters > anhydrides > amides
c. esters > amides > acids >> anhydrides > acyl halides
d. amides >> acids > esters > acyl halides > anhydrides
Question106
Which is the best way to make an amide from a carboxylic acid derivative?
c. Use an anhydride with two equivalents of amine, one for each of the acid equivalents (oh, and add heat).
d. Use the classic Shotten-Baumen conditions of one equivalent of acid chloride in an organic solvent and one
equivalent of amine plus one equivalent of dilute inorganic base in water, stir rapidly, chill as needed.
Question107
Carboxylic acids form salts with amines that can be useful how?
a. They're more water soluble as the salt, and if one is a medication, this can help in delivery.
b. You can heat the salt up under vacuum and form an amide (usually).
c. You can extract impurities away using water plus an organic solvent.
Question108
Under what conditions can hydrolysis of a carboxylic ester or amide lead back to the acid?
Question109
Which acid derivative and what reaction conditions would give an aryl ketone?
a. Heating an anhydride with the aromatic in refluxing water containing a strong acid catalyst.
b. Slowly adding a carboxylic acid to a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and the aromatic compound.
c. Carefully adding an aryl Grignard reagent to a carboxylic acid dissolved in an organic solvent.
d. Reaction of an acid chloride with a reasonably activated aromatic using a strong Lewis acid catalyst.
Question110
What is the key intermediate(s) of the reactions of many acid derivatives?
a. That would have to be the Td or tetrahedral intermediate involved in the most common type, the addition-
elimination mechanism.
c. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn2 reaction with simultaneous bond-formation and bond-
breaking.
d. Acid reaction mechanisms are very much like an Sn1 mechanism with the loss of the leaving group
occurring first to give an acylonium ion.
Question111
How would you most efficiently (key word) convert an acid derivative to a primary amine?
a. Reduce an acid to an alcohol, treat with thionyl chloride and add excess ammonia.
b. Make a primary-nitrogen amide and then reduce with excess hydrogen and a very reactive transition
metal catalyst.
c. Mix ammonia and a carboxylic acid together with rapid stirring in water, then distill the water under
vacuum.
Question112
Carboxylic acids are different than alcohols because:
Question113
The genetic code of all plants and animals is composed of what polymer?
a. Natural (what else?) polyamides called DNA and RNA which contain nucleic acid bases in the repeat
units.
c. Lipid polymers that contain nucleic acid bases organized in three-unit sequences.
d. Polymers of nucleic acid bases with phophoric acid to give complex polyesters abbreviated RNA and
DNA.
Question114
Sucrose is an excellent example of what kind of natural material?
a. Natural monosaccharides such as hexoses and pentoses, although sucrose is a dimer sugar with two different
monosaccharides.
b. Oligomers and polymers of glucose, the most common of the sugars, with sucrose composed of two glucose
monosaccharides.
c. An artificial sweetener made of glucose and fructose units with non-natural stereochemistry at the anomeric carbons.
d. The monosaccharide that forms part of the polymer chain in RNA and DNA.
Question115
Proteins are complex oligomers and polymers made up of what?
a. Sugar units (ribose with pendent nucleic bases) joined to each other with phosphate ester linkages to make
RNA and DNA molecules.
b. Complex carbohydrates containing both saccharide units linked with amino acid groups.
c. Oligomers and polymers of the group of 23 or so natural amino acids linked through amide bonds.
d. Ester- and amide-linked units of various combinations of the natural materials we ingest in our diets such as
citric acid and lysine.
Question116
Trees and cotton are made of what natural polymer?
a. The polysaccharide of glucose called starch; it's also found in legumes and potatoes.
b. The polysaccharide of glucose called cellulose, a polymer with strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds that give
these materials such excellent physical properties.
c. Proteins such as collagen that are strong and have extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonding holding them
together.
d. The polysaccharide with sucrose repeat units, which is why sucrose is so cheap and readily available.
Question117
Hair and skin are made of the same natural polymer as rhino horns: what is it?
a. A complex carbohydrate containing both saccharides and amino acids in the polymer repeat units.
c. A complex mixture of inorganic phosphate and cellulose that has extremely strong intermolecular forces
holding the chains together.
d. A natural polyamide or protein with a unique arrangement intra- and intermolecular hydrogen bonds along the
chains.
Question118
If you wanted to make your own soap, how would you do it?
a. Take cotton fibers and mix with a strong base such as lye, add water, boil till the fibers dissolve,
filter and evaporate the water.
b. Add fur or wool to water containing strong acid, boil till everything dissolves, filter and evaporate
the water to give the slippery crude soap.
c. Start with animal fat or a plant oil, mix with lye (strong inorganic base) and water, heat till all the
fat or oil dissolves, filter and evaporate the water to give the fatty acid salt (soap).
d. Clot cream with acetic acid, mix the curds you get with yeast and let ferment until the bubbling
stops; evaporate the water to get soap.
Question119
There are 23 or so natural amino acids: name a few.
b. Serine, glutamic acid, thymine and adenine are the less common ones.
c. Steric acid, glucose, alanine and citric acid are the most common ones.
d. Lipoic acid, proline, lysergic acid and pyridine are the essential amino acids, meaning we must
have them in our diet or we get sick.
Question120
RNA is fundamentally different from DNA in what ways?
Choose one answer.
a. RNA is the genetic material passed from parents to offspring while DNA transfers that genetic code into
components of cells and human bodies.
b. RNA uses different nucleic acid bases (different than adenine and thymine, for example) to carry the
genetic information to the enzymes that construct our bodies.
c. The sugar in RNA is ribose and the one in DNA is deoxyribose, but more important, DNA makes up our
genes while RNA does other stuff.
d. There is no chemical difference in terms of nucleic acid bases and sugar units, although DNA is a much
higher molecular weight polymer than RNA.
Question121
Of the 20 natural amino acids listed in the reading, 10 are called "essential", meaning what?
b. You must take vitamins to make sure you get enough of these essential amino acids to survive.
c. Your body doesn't really need or use the non-essential ones, while the essential ones make up all the proteins
your body needs.
d. While your body can "manufacture" the non-essential ones from what you eat, it can't make the essential ones
so you have to make sure you eat the right balance of foods to get them in your diet.
Question122
Peptides and proteins are polymers of amino acids, and what is their basic structure?
a. Peptides and proteins contain alpha-amino acids forming a two-carbon plus one-nitrogen polyamide
with each repeat unit usually having a pendent or attached side chain of some kind.
b. The amine group of each amino acid is protonated by the acid group of the one next to it forming a
long chain of ammonium-carboxylate salts.
c. The acid groups react with alcohol groups of other amino acids to form polyesters with amine-
containing pendent groups along the chains.
d. The amines, alcohols and thiols of the pendent groups all react with the acid groups to form complex
3D structures that each have unique properties such as in enzymes.
Question123
The amide groups of peptides, proteins and enzymes have what unique property?
Choose one answer.
a. The nitrogen group is basic and can form ammonium salts with carboxylic acids of other amino acids.
b. Like ketones, they can tautomerize to switch the hydrogen on nitrogen over onto the carbonyl oxygen,
leading to enhanced hydrogen bonding.
c. Because of the sp2 hybridization of the carbonyl and attached nitrogen, the amide group is "flat" and
capable of strong hydrogen bonding with other amide groups.
d. The free rotation around the carbonyl bond to the nitrogen allows these amino acid polymers to flex and
bend as needed in the body.
Question124
Lipids can best be described as what?
a. The main constiuents of natural oils (e.g., canola oil) that are polymers of long-chain hydroxyacids.
c. Unsaturated long-chain aliphatic alcohols that form organized structures such as cell walls in plants and animals.
d. The main components of animal fats (ours included), milk fats and butter.
Question125
Basically, all spectroscopic methods can be described as what?
a. Using the interaction of radio waves with molecules to understand molecular structure and properties.
b. Using energy to force molecules to change shape or structure in such a way that we can observe it with a
microscope.
c. Using visible or ultraviolet light to illuminate molecules so we can see them with a microscope.
d. Exciting molecules with heat and light so that they emit vibrational energy that can be detected and analyzed
with spectrometers.
Question126
The relative energies used in various kinds of spectroscopic methods vary how?
b. From high frequency radio waves to lower frequency electrons for NMR to infrared to UV to mass
spectrometry.
c. You can't really compare the energies since each type of spectroscopy uses a unique mixture of frequencies.
d. It's not really the energy used, since this can vary independently of frequency or wavelength.
Question127
Mass spectroscopy can best be described as:
a. mass analysis of whole molecules that have been given a static electricity charge using a voltameter.
c. breakdown and ionization of molecules with high energy electrons followed by magnetic separation and analysis of
mass-to-charge ratios of the ions.
d. careful weighing of the molecules with super-sensitive nano-balances constructed with microlithography.
Question128
Fragmentation "patterns" in mass spectrometry tell us what about the molecules?
a. What kinds of impurities were present and how much of each was there.
b. How many atoms of each kind were present in the original molecule.
c. What functional groups were present so that we can determine the functionality of the original molecules.
d. The atomic compositions of segments of the molecule that we re-assemble virtually to determine the
original structure.
Question129
Ultraviolet spectroscopy looks at what kinds of molecular segments?
a. All types of bonding from sigma bonds to pi bonds to conjugated and aromatic bonding.
b. Double bonds, aromatic rings and conjugated unsaturation, and non-bonded heteroatoms all absorb in the
UV spectrum and can be detected.
c. We can see the fragments that give us broad peaks or humps in the spectrum and this tells us what kinds
of bonds are involved.
d. It is most sensitive to carbonyl bonds and less to aromatic and conjugated double bonds.
Question130
UV spectroscopy generally shows a combination of broad peaks and sharper ones that tell us what?
c. The degree of conjugation (pi electron delocalization) and something about substitution patterns.
Question131
Infrared is used mainly for determining what about a molecule?
a. What kinds of functional groups like amides, ethers and alkene double bonds are present in the molecule.
b. Its purity and what kinds of impurities are present in the mixture.
c. The exact kind and number of each functional group comprising the molecular composition.
d. The total number of atoms and what kind of each are in the molecule.
Question132
Infrared was one of the first spectroscopic methods and is still widely used today to characterize molecules because:
a. You can sample solids, liquids or gases although the information obtained isn't useful without
combining with other techniques of analysis.
b. It tells you more about the molecule than any other technique we've studied.
c. It is easy to do, takes very little sample and gives specific information about what functional groups
are present in the molecule.
Question133
How is infrared spectroscopy is different from UV and NMR?
a. It uses a different energy range from UV but the same range differently from NMR.
b. Infrared overlaps with UV in the electromagnetic spectrum providing complimentary information on functional
groups while NMR looks at electronic configuration and bonding.
c. They all see different parts of the molecule, and specifically, different atoms and how they're joined together.
d. Infrared detects vibrational motions of functional groups while UV "sees" electronic transitions and NMR looks at
the nuclei and infers bonding based on reference tables.
Question134
NMR involves what kind of analysis?
a. Spinning nuclei in such a way that they can be seen with infrared radiation and functional groups determined
from the frequency.
b. Using radio waves to detect nuclei present in a molecule (such as H or C) and based on extensive data bases of
"chemical shifts, " determine what each type is bonded to.
c. Magnetizing the molecules so they can be separated by traveling through a vacuum down a long tube
surrounded by static magnets.
d. Using high energy beams to excite the electrons so they can be detected by magnetic field fluctuations.
Question135
Proton NMR tells you what about a molecule?
a. What kind of hydrogens are present (what each kind is bonded to) and exactly how many there are relative to
each other.
b. Whether there are any hydrogens present in the molecule and what their chemical shift is with respect to a
standard (TMS).
c. Whether electron donating or withdrawing groups are present in the molecule.
d. What kind of heteratoms are near the hydrogens you observe in the spectrometer.
Question136
Carbon NMR is harder to do than proton NMR because:
a. It has a higher atomic mass which makes it slower to move and relax on the NMR time scale.
b. The mechanism of interaction of the isotopes of carbon (number 13) with a magnetic field is dependent on
how many hydrogens are attached to it.
c. The actual atoms of carbon observed (the isotope we can detect) is of lower relative abundance than for
hydrogen.
d. The gyromagnetic ratio (NMR sensitivity factor) is much less for carbon 13 than for hydrogen 1.
Question137
The chemical shift range for carbon 13 in NMR is different from proton NMR how?
a. It's about the same but the relative intensity of the peaks are less, making it much harder to detect.
b. Carbon covers about a 200 pm range while hydrogen has a range of only about 10 ppm and this makes
carbon more sensitive to its chemical environment (groups present).
c. It's more sensitive to solvation and hydrogen bonding which provides key information about molecular
motion and interactions.
d. It's actually much less, and thus provides less specific information about what kinds of functional groups
are present in the molecule.
Anal chem
1
When potassium iodide reacts with lead(II) nitrate, a yellow precipitate (PbI 2) is produced. If 0.78 g of lead(II) iodide was produced, how many grams of lead(II) nitrate was used? You may
assume the reaction yield was 100%, and an excess of potassium iodide was used.
A. 0.78 g
B. 1.6 g
C. 0.46 g
D. 0.56 g
Question2
If 4.94 grams of KOH is dissolved in water to make a final volume of 2.0 L, what is the molarity of the solution?
A. 0.088 M
B. 0.044 M
C. 2.5 M
D. 0.025 M
E. 0.18 M
Question3
If 21.3 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is dissolved in 5.00 L of deionized water, what is the molality of the solution? (The density of water is 1.00 g/mL.)
A. 0.0237 m
B. 0.592 m
C. 0.118 m
D. 4.26 m
E. 0.00426 m
Question4
Which of the following is the equivalent of 4.3 ppm sodium ion (Na +) concentration?
A. 0.0043 ppb
B. 0.043 ppb
C. 430 ppb
D. 4300 ppb
Question5
How many milliliters of a 0.100 M potassium permanganate stock solution would be needed to make 100 mL of 0.0250 M potassium permanganate?
A. 10.0 mL
B. 4.00 mL
C. 40.00 mL
D. 2.50 mL
E. 25.0 mL
Question6
The concentration of a solution is known to be 0.101 M. A student determines the concentration to be 0.088 M, 0.087 M, and 0.089 M for each titration performed. Which of the following best
describes these results?
E. The results are not enough information is given to determine accuracy or precision.
Question7
Concentrated hydrochloric acid is 12 M and has a density of 1.18 g/mL. What is the weight percent (% w/w) of concentrated HCl?
A. 14%
B. 5.1%
C. 12%
D. 98%
E. 37%
Question8
A stock solution of sodium acetate is 1.0 M. To make Solution A, 2.00 mL of the stock solution is transferred and diluted to a total volume of 100 mL. Solution B is made by transferring 5.0 mL
of Solution A and diluting it to a total volume of 250 mL. Solution C is made by transferring 1.0 mL of Solution B and diluting it to a total volume of 25 mL. What is the concentration of
solution C?
A. 1.6 µM
B. 16 µM
C. 1.6 mM
D. 0.16 mM
Question9
The equation for a normal calibration curve for the detection of iron(II) is determined experimentally to be: S = 12.93 M - 1 * C + 0.0017. Analysis of a sample with unknown concentration
gives an absorbance reading of 0.106. What is the concentration of iron(II) in the unknown?
A. 1.37 M
B. 6.50 mM
C. 9.90 mM
D. 8.06 mM
E. 8.83 mM
Question10
When performing calculations for standard additions, which of the following must be true?
A. The volume of the standard added must be added with the volume of the sample used to give a new sample
volume.
B. The volume of the standard added is subtracted from the total volume of the sample used.
D. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because volumes are not used in the calculations.
E. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because it is part of the blank correction.
Question11
Which of the following statements about the sensitivity of an analytical method is true?
B. The sensitivity of an analytical method is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
experimental results are significant.
C. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the response of the instrument to human error.
Question12
Which of the following statements is true of the detection limit of an instrument?
B. The detection limit of an instrument is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
experimental results are significant.
C. The detection limit of an instrument is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The detection limit of an instrument is the ability of the instrument to respond to an error.
Question13
Fill in the blank. Precipitation, volatilization, and particulation are all types of ____________________.
Question14
Fill in the blank. Gravimetric analysis relies heavily on the principle of __________________.
B. Conservation of mass
C. Constant compostition
D. Definite proportions
Question15
Coprecipitates (inclusions, occlusions, and surface adsorbates) are a common problem in gravimetric analysis, but can be controlled by which of the following?
Question16
Volatilization gravimetry would be most useful in determining which of the following?
Question17
Which of the following statements about the equivalence point of an acid-base titration is true?
A. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the same as the indicator endpoint.
B. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the point where there is an equivalent amount of titrant and
titrand.
D. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is where the entire volume of the buret has been used.
E. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the average value of the dissociation constants.
Question18
What is the stoichiometry of EDTA with metal ions?
A. It is 1:6, because EDTA is a hexaprotic weak acid with six distinct acid dissociation values.
B. It is 1:4, because EDTA has four binding sites upon loss of the four carboxylic acid protons.
C. It is 1:2, because EDTA has two binding sites upon loss of the two ammonium protons.
D. It is 1:1, because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion.
Question19
A 58.3 mg sample containing Sn2+ is dissolved in 1.0 M HCl. If 23.6 mL of 0.010 M Tl3+ was required to titrate to endpoint, what is the mass percent (w/w%) of tin in the original sample?
A. 48%
B. 28%
C. 24%
D. 40%
E. 14%
Question20
A 0.357 g sample contains only lead(II) iodide and sodium iodide in 100 mL of distilled water. Titration to the Fajan's end point requires 22.37 mL of 0.050 M silver nitrate. What is the mass
percent (w/w%) of lead(II) iodide in the sample?
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 1.6%
D. 53%
E. 47%
Question21
Which variable in Beer's law represents how well a chemical species absorbs light at a given wavelength?
A. c - concentration
C. A - absorbance
E. λ - wavelength
Question22
According to Beer's Law, what happens to the absorbance reading if the concentration of the solution is halved?
E. There is no way to tell, because concentration and absorbance are not a linear relationship.
Question23
Why must solutions with high concentrations be diluted prior to analysis via Beer's Law?
A. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentrations.
E. There is no need to work with dilute concentrations; any concentration will work.
Question24
Which of the following transitions is NOT possible in UV-Vis absorption?
A. σ → σ*
B. σ → n
C. σ → π*
D. n → π*
Question25
Which of the following typically exhibits the largest molar absorptivities?
B. σ → n absorbances
C. σ* → π* absorbances
D. π → π* absorbances
Question26
Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through a UV-Vis spectrometer?
Question27
What is the purpose of a monochromator?
D. To allow only light of a certain wavelength to pass from the source to the sample
Question28
The regression line from a plot of absorbance vs. concentration yields: A = 2.31 c + 0.002. If the absorbance of an unknown is measured to be 0.124, what is the concentration of the analyte?
A. 0.29 M
B. 0.053 M
C. 1.86 M
D. 0.093 M
E. 2.43 M
Question29
The method of continuous variations, also known as Job's method, uses the intersection of the ligand-line and the metal-line to determine which of the following?
A. The concentration at which the detector can no longer respond to the signal
Question30
Ultraviolet and visible radiation affect which of the following?
A. Core electrons
B. Valence electrons
C. Nuclear spin
D. Molecular vibrations
E. Molecular rotations
Question31
Infrared radiation affects which of the following?
A. Core electrons
B. Valence electrons
C. Molecular vibrations
D. Molecular rotations
E. Nuclear spin
Question32
Complete the sentence. All of the following are used to describe the bending modes in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
A. In-plane rocking.
B. In-plane scissoring.
C. Assymetric stretching.
D. Out-of-plane twisting.
E. Out-of-plane wagging.
Question33
What is the advantage of using a silver chloride sample cell rather than a sodium chloride sample cell for IR spectroscopy?
Question34
In order for a compound to be IR active, it must undergo which of the following?
A. A change in polarizability
C. Emission of an electron
D. Transfer of an electon
Question35
Complete the sentence. All of the following are infrared sources, EXCEPT:
C. An incandescent wire.
D. A pyroelectric glower.
Question36
Complete the sentence. All of the following are detectors used in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
B. A thermocouple.
C. A pyroelectric detector.
D. A photoelectric detector.
Question37
Fill in the blank. NMR affects a molecule's ________________.
A. Nuclear spin
B. Valence electrons
C. Core electrons
D. Molecular vibrations
E. Molecular rotations
Question38
In 1H-NMR spectroscopy, if a CH2 neighbors a CH3, the hydrogen nuclei of the CH3 will appear as which of the following?
Question39
Where does spin-lattice relaxation occur?
Choose one answer.
A. It occurs between neighboring nuclei with identical frequencies but different quantum states via energy
transfer.
B. It occurs between the excited nuclei and nuclei within the sample matrix.
D. It occurs between the nuclei of the sample and the signal source.
Question40
The value of the chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy is directly related to which of the following?
Question41
Fluorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Question42
Phosphorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Question43
Why are flourescence and phosphorescence spectra measured at a 90 degree angle to the source?
D. Because the process of fluorescence and phosphorescence are too intense to observe directly
Question44
Complete the sentence. Fluorescence and phosphorescence can be used for detection of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Vitamins.
B. Environmental pollutants.
C. Uncomplexed metal ions.
D. Pharmaceuticals.
Question45
A fluorescence quantum yield of 0.93 would suggest that most excited state molecules are doing which of the following?
Question46
Why are photomultiplier tubes often used in fluorescence spectroscopy?
A. Because the photon sources are too weak to vibrationally excite the samples
Question47
Why is fluorescence spectroscopy often carried out in a liquid nitrogen environment?
C. The monochromator slows down the radiation before it hits the sample.
Question48
How does turbidimetry differ from nephelometry?
A. Turbidimerty measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; nephelometry measures the intensity of
scattered radiation.
B. Nephelometry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; turbidimetry measures the intensity of
scattered radiation.
C. Nephelometry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; turbidimetry measures total organic content.
D. Turbidimetry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; nephelometry measures total organic content.
Question49
Turbidimetry and nephelometry are analytical methods based on which of the following?
A. Light scattering
B. Photon emission
C. Photon absorption
D. Nuclear repulsion
E. Paramagnetism
Question50
What is the advantage of an inductively coupled plasma source rather than a flame?
Question51
Atomic absorption spectroscopy results are highly reproducible but have low sensitivity and efficiency. This is due to which of the following?
C. The amount of dilution due to mixing with large volumes of combustion gases
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
Question52
Fill in the blank. The relationship between the analyte concentration and the intensity of measured radiation from thermal excitation methods, such as a flame or plasma, is
________________.
A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Parabolic
D. Polynomial
E. Asymptopic
Question53
Flame atomic absorption measures absorption of radiation of analytes in which phase?
A. Solid phase
C. Gas phase
D. Aquesous phase
E. Plasma phase
Question54
Why is a hollow cathode tube lamp necessary in atomic absorption?
Question55
Fill in the blank. Background correction in flame atomic absorption spectroscopy can minimize the effect of ___________________.
Question56
Chemical interferences in atomic absorption that cannot be accounted for using a background correction, but can be minimized, include which of the following?
E. A and B only
Question57
Which of the following are forms of radiationless deactivation of an excited state?
A. Intersystem crossing
B. Internal conversion
C. External conversion
D. Vibrational relaxation
Question58
When does intersystem crossing occur?
B. When a molecule moves to a lower vibrational energy level in the same electronic state
C. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with the same spin
E. When energy is passed to the solvent or to another component of the sample’s matrix
Question59
Fill in the blank. The lowest vibrational energy level of the lowest electronic singlet state (S0) is referred to as the ___________________.
A. Ground state
B. Zero state
C. Newtonian state
D. Bohring state
E. Non-excited state
Question60
Whether an electron is in the triplet state or singlet state depends on which of the following?
A. Yes, 0.54
B. No, 0.54
C. Yes, 1.09
D. No, 1.09
Question62
The "void peak" in a chromatogram corresponds to which of the following?
Question63
If a compound has a retention time of 5.30 minutes with a baseline width of 0.64 minutes on a 2.0 m silica gel column, what is the average height of a theoretical plate?
A. 1.8 mm/plate
B. 15 mm/plate
C. 29 mm/plate
D. 0.24 mm/plate
E. 2.7 mm/plate
Question64
Which of the following statements about columns containing more theoretical plates is true?
B. Columns containing more theoretical plates take a long time to perform separations.
C. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.
D. Columns containing more theoretical plates interact irreversibly with the analyte.
Question65
"Tailing" of a chromatographic peak is a result of which of the following?
Question66
Question67
Band broadening in column chromatography is a result of which of the following?
C. Longitudinal diffusion
Question68
Complete the sentence. All of the following are common carrier gases from gas chromatography, EXCEPT:
A. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Helium.
D. Argon.
E. Carbon dioxide.
Question69
When using gas chromatography, how is optimum column efficiency obtained?
Choose one answer.
Question70
What is the most common support material for a packed GC column?
A. Silica gel
B. Alumina
C. Fused silica
D. Glass
E. Diatomaceous earth
Question71
WCOT, SCOT, PLOT, and FSOT are all types of which of the following?
B. Capillary GC columns
C. Packed GC columns
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
Question72
Which of the following GC detectors would most likely allow recovery of a sample after analysis?
E. Nitrogen-phosphorus detector
Question73
Which of the following GC detectors would be least affected by the carrier gas?
Question74
In size exclusion chromatography, what happens to the larger particles?
Question75
Fill in the blank. Ion exchange chromatography is best suited to separate ___________________.
A. Hydrophilic molecules
B. Hydrophobic molecules
Question76
Which of the following statements about the mobile phase in Supercritical fluid chromatography (SFC) is false?
Question77
The stationary phase in ion exchange chromatography is a cross-linked polymer resin with covalently attached functional groups. Which of the following is NOT a typical functional group used
for IEC?
D. Amine (-NH3+)
E. Hydroxyl (-OH-)
Question78
Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of the following?
Question79
Which of the following would elute first when using capillary zone electrophoresis?
A. Ca2+
B. CH3NH3+
C. Cl-
D. HCOO-
E. CH3COO-
Question80
How are separations by electrophoresis carried out?
Question81
Fill in the blank. Cd wire used to measure the concentration of cadmium ion is an example of a _______________________.
D. Reference electrode
Question82
Fill in the blank. Ag wire used to measure the concentration of Br- ion is an example of a ______________________.
Question83
What is the process of the loss of an electron called?
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Transference
D. Sublimation
E. Neutralization
Question84
What is the process of the gain of an electron called?
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Sublimation
D. Transference
E. Neutralization
Question85
Which of the following is a substrate that is oxidized?
A. Cationic species
B. Anionic species
C. Neutral species
D. Reducing agent
E. Oxidizing agent
Question86
Which of the following is a substrate that is reduced?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Cationic species
D. Anionic species
E. Neutral species
Question87
What is the purpose of the salt bridge in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?
Question88
If a redox couple is at equilibrium in an electrochemical cell, then which of the following statements about the current and potential is most accurate?
E. The potential is zero, and the current is given by the Nernst equation.
Question89
Complete the sentence. The basic setups for electrochemical measurement include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Question90
Which of the following is a static (i = 0) electrochemical technique?
A. Potentiometry
B. Controlled-current coulometry
C. Controlled-potential coulometry
D. Cyclic voltammetry
E. Amperometry
Question91
Where does the reduction reaction occur?
A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
Question92
Where does the oxidation reaction occur?
C. At the anode
D. At the cathode
Question93
The use of the Nerst equation to calculate potentials is really a simplistic model. Which of the following does it ignore?
A. Matrix effects
B. Temperature effects
C. Junction potentials
Question94
Fill in the blank. The potential that develops at the interface of two solutions due to differences in concentrations and ionic mobility is called the _________________ potential.
A. Osmotic
B. Bridging
C. Coulombic
D. Reference
E. Junction
Question95
Which of the following statements about the standard hydrogen electrode, the calomel electrode, and the silver/silver chloride electrode is true?
Question96
A pH meter is an example of which type of membrane electrode?
E. Gas-sensing electrode
Question97
In a cyclic voltammogram, the peak current(i) is directly related to which of the following?
Question98
One electrochemical technique involves first depositing an analyte on the surface of an electrode, then using an applied current to remove the analyte via a reduction or oxidation reaction.
What is this method called?
A. Hydrodynamic voltammetry
B. Stripping voltammetry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Cyclic voltammetry
Question99
Which of the following is NOT a variable in voltammetric methods?
Question100
Fill in the blank. Coulometric techniques result in a plot of ____________________.
D. Current only
E. Potential only
1
When potassium iodide reacts with lead(II) nitrate, a yellow precipitate (PbI 2) is produced. If 0.78 g of lead(II) iodide was produced, how many grams of lead(II) nitrate was used? You may
assume the reaction yield was 100%, and an excess of potassium iodide was used.
B. 1.6 g
C. 0.46 g
D. 0.56 g
Question2
If 4.94 grams of KOH is dissolved in water to make a final volume of 2.0 L, what is the molarity of the solution?
A. 0.088 M
B. 0.044 M
C. 2.5 M
D. 0.025 M
E. 0.18 M
Question3
If 21.3 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is dissolved in 5.00 L of deionized water, what is the molality of the solution? (The density of water is 1.00 g/mL.)
A. 0.0237 m
B. 0.592 m
C. 0.118 m
D. 4.26 m
E. 0.00426 m
Question4
Which of the following is the equivalent of 4.3 ppm sodium ion (Na +) concentration?
A. 0.0043 ppb
B. 0.043 ppb
C. 430 ppb
D. 4300 ppb
Question5
How many milliliters of a 0.100 M potassium permanganate stock solution would be needed to make 100 mL of 0.0250 M potassium permanganate?
A. 10.0 mL
B. 4.00 mL
C. 40.00 mL
D. 2.50 mL
E. 25.0 mL
Question6
The concentration of a solution is known to be 0.101 M. A student determines the concentration to be 0.088 M, 0.087 M, and 0.089 M for each titration performed. Which of the following best
describes these results?
Question7
Concentrated hydrochloric acid is 12 M and has a density of 1.18 g/mL. What is the weight percent (% w/w) of concentrated HCl?
A. 14%
B. 5.1%
C. 12%
D. 98%
E. 37%
Question8
A stock solution of sodium acetate is 1.0 M. To make Solution A, 2.00 mL of the stock solution is transferred and diluted to a total volume of 100 mL. Solution B is made by transferring 5.0 mL
of Solution A and diluting it to a total volume of 250 mL. Solution C is made by transferring 1.0 mL of Solution B and diluting it to a total volume of 25 mL. What is the concentration of
solution C?
A. 1.6 µM
B. 16 µM
C. 1.6 mM
D. 0.16 mM
Question9
The equation for a normal calibration curve for the detection of iron(II) is determined experimentally to be: S = 12.93 M - 1 * C + 0.0017. Analysis of a sample with unknown concentration
gives an absorbance reading of 0.106. What is the concentration of iron(II) in the unknown?
A. 1.37 M
B. 6.50 mM
C. 9.90 mM
D. 8.06 mM
E. 8.83 mM
Question10
When performing calculations for standard additions, which of the following must be true?
A. The volume of the standard added must be added with the volume of the sample used to give a new
sample volume.
B. The volume of the standard added is subtracted from the total volume of the sample used.
D. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because volumes are not used in the calculations.
E. The volume of the standard added can be ignored, because it is part of the blank correction.
Question11
Which of the following statements about the sensitivity of an analytical method is true?
B. The sensitivity of an analytical method is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
experimental results are significant.
C. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The sensitivity of an analytical method is the response of the instrument to human error.
Question12
Which of the following statements is true of the detection limit of an instrument?
Choose one answer.
B. The detection limit of an instrument is a measure of ability to determine whether slight differences in
experimental results are significant.
C. The detection limit of an instrument is the smallest amount of analyte that the instrument is able to
measure.
D. The detection limit of an instrument is the ability of the instrument to respond to an error.
Question13
Fill in the blank. Precipitation, volatilization, and particulation are all types of ____________________.
Question14
Fill in the blank. Gravimetric analysis relies heavily on the principle of __________________.
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of mass
C. Constant compostition
D. Definite proportions
Question16
Volatilization gravimetry would be most useful in determining which of the following?
Question17
Which of the following statements about the equivalence point of an acid-base titration is true?
A. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the same as the indicator endpoint.
B. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the point where there is an equivalent amount of
titrant and titrand.
E. The equivalence point of an acid-base titration is the average value of the dissociation constants.
Question18
What is the stoichiometry of EDTA with metal ions?
A. It is 1:6, because EDTA is a hexaprotic weak acid with six distinct acid dissociation values.
B. It is 1:4, because EDTA has four binding sites upon loss of the four carboxylic acid protons.
C. It is 1:2, because EDTA has two binding sites upon loss of the two ammonium protons.
D. It is 1:1, because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion.
Question19
A 58.3 mg sample containing Sn2+ is dissolved in 1.0 M HCl. If 23.6 mL of 0.010 M Tl3+ was required to titrate to endpoint, what is the mass percent (w/w%) of tin in the original sample?
A. 48%
B. 28%
C. 24%
D. 40%
E. 14%
Question20
A 0.357 g sample contains only lead(II) iodide and sodium iodide in 100 mL of distilled water. Titration to the Fajan's end point requires 22.37 mL of 0.050 M silver nitrate. What is the mass
percent (w/w%) of lead(II) iodide in the sample?
B. 36%
C. 1.6%
D. 53%
E. 47%
Question21
Which variable in Beer's law represents how well a chemical species absorbs light at a given wavelength?
A. c - concentration
C. A - absorbance
E. λ - wavelength
Question22
According to Beer's Law, what happens to the absorbance reading if the concentration of the solution is halved?
E. There is no way to tell, because concentration and absorbance are not a linear relationship.
Question23
Why must solutions with high concentrations be diluted prior to analysis via Beer's Law?
A. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentrations.
E. There is no need to work with dilute concentrations; any concentration will work.
Question24
Which of the following transitions is NOT possible in UV-Vis absorption?
A. σ → σ*
B. σ → n
C. σ → π*
D. n → π*
Question25
Which of the following typically exhibits the largest molar absorptivities?
A. σ → σ* absorbances
B. σ → n absorbances
C. σ* → π* absorbances
D. π → π* absorbances
Question26
Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through a UV-Vis spectrometer?
Question27
What is the purpose of a monochromator?
D. To allow only light of a certain wavelength to pass from the source to the sample
Question28
The regression line from a plot of absorbance vs. concentration yields: A = 2.31 c + 0.002. If the absorbance of an unknown is measured to be 0.124, what is the concentration of the analyte?
A. 0.29 M
B. 0.053 M
C. 1.86 M
D. 0.093 M
E. 2.43 M
Question29
The method of continuous variations, also known as Job's method, uses the intersection of the ligand-line and the metal-line to determine which of the following?
A. The concentration at which the detector can no longer respond to the signal
Question30
Ultraviolet and visible radiation affect which of the following?
A. Core electrons
B. Valence electrons
C. Nuclear spin
D. Molecular vibrations
E. Molecular rotations
Question31
Infrared radiation affects which of the following?
A. Core electrons
B. Valence electrons
C. Molecular vibrations
D. Molecular rotations
E. Nuclear spin
Question32
Complete the sentence. All of the following are used to describe the bending modes in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
A. In-plane rocking.
B. In-plane scissoring.
C. Assymetric stretching.
D. Out-of-plane twisting.
E. Out-of-plane wagging.
Question33
What is the advantage of using a silver chloride sample cell rather than a sodium chloride sample cell for IR spectroscopy?
B. There is no advantage.
Question34
In order for a compound to be IR active, it must undergo which of the following?
C. Emission of an electron
D. Transfer of an electon
Question35
Complete the sentence. All of the following are infrared sources, EXCEPT:
C. An incandescent wire.
D. A pyroelectric glower.
Question36
Complete the sentence. All of the following are detectors used in infrared spectroscopy, EXCEPT:
A. A charge-coupled diode.
B. A thermocouple.
C. A pyroelectric detector.
D. A photoelectric detector.
Question37
Fill in the blank. NMR affects a molecule's ________________.
B. Valence electrons
C. Core electrons
D. Molecular vibrations
E. Molecular rotations
Question38
In 1H-NMR spectroscopy, if a CH2 neighbors a CH3, the hydrogen nuclei of the CH3 will appear as which of the following?
Question39
Where does spin-lattice relaxation occur?
A. It occurs between neighboring nuclei with identical frequencies but different quantum states via energy
transfer.
B. It occurs between the excited nuclei and nuclei within the sample matrix.
D. It occurs between the nuclei of the sample and the signal source.
Question40
The value of the chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy is directly related to which of the following?
Question41
Fluorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Question42
Phosphorescence occurs as a result of which of the following?
Question43
Why are flourescence and phosphorescence spectra measured at a 90 degree angle to the source?
D. Because the process of fluorescence and phosphorescence are too intense to observe directly
Question44
Complete the sentence. Fluorescence and phosphorescence can be used for detection of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Vitamins.
B. Environmental pollutants.
D. Pharmaceuticals.
Question45
A fluorescence quantum yield of 0.93 would suggest that most excited state molecules are doing which of the following?
Question46
Why are photomultiplier tubes often used in fluorescence spectroscopy?
A. Because the photon sources are too weak to vibrationally excite the samples
Question47
Why is fluorescence spectroscopy often carried out in a liquid nitrogen environment?
C. The monochromator slows down the radiation before it hits the sample.
Question48
How does turbidimetry differ from nephelometry?
B. Nephelometry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; turbidimetry measures the intensity of
scattered radiation.
C. Nephelometry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; turbidimetry measures total organic content.
D. Turbidimetry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; nephelometry measures total organic content.
Question49
Turbidimetry and nephelometry are analytical methods based on which of the following?
A. Light scattering
B. Photon emission
C. Photon absorption
D. Nuclear repulsion
E. Paramagnetism
Question50
What is the advantage of an inductively coupled plasma source rather than a flame?
Question51
Atomic absorption spectroscopy results are highly reproducible but have low sensitivity and efficiency. This is due to which of the following?
C. The amount of dilution due to mixing with large volumes of combustion gases
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
Question52
Fill in the blank. The relationship between the analyte concentration and the intensity of measured radiation from thermal excitation methods, such as a flame or plasma, is
________________.
A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Parabolic
D. Polynomial
E. Asymptopic
Question53
Flame atomic absorption measures absorption of radiation of analytes in which phase?
A. Solid phase
C. Gas phase
D. Aquesous phase
E. Plasma phase
Question54
Why is a hollow cathode tube lamp necessary in atomic absorption?
Question55
Fill in the blank. Background correction in flame atomic absorption spectroscopy can minimize the effect of ___________________.
Question56
Chemical interferences in atomic absorption that cannot be accounted for using a background correction, but can be minimized, include which of the following?
E. A and B only
Question57
Which of the following are forms of radiationless deactivation of an excited state?
A. Intersystem crossing
B. Internal conversion
C. External conversion
D. Vibrational relaxation
Question58
When does intersystem crossing occur?
A. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with a different spin
B. When a molecule moves to a lower vibrational energy level in the same electronic state
C. When a molecule transfers to a higher vibrational energy level of a lower energy electronic state
with the same spin
E. When energy is passed to the solvent or to another component of the sample's matrix
Question59
Fill in the blank. The lowest vibrational energy level of the lowest electronic singlet state (S 0) is referred to as the ___________________.
A. Ground state
B. Zero state
C. Newtonian state
D. Bohring state
E. Non-excited state
Question60
Whether an electron is in the triplet state or singlet state depends on which of the following?
Question61
In a chromatographic analysis of an unknown mixture, compound A has a retention time of 5.56 minutes and a baseline width of 0.87, and compound B has a retention time of 6.32 minutes
and a baseline width of 0.53 minutes. Are these peaks resolved, and what is the resolution between the two peaks?
A. Yes, 0.54
B. No, 0.54
C. Yes, 1.09
D. No, 1.09
Question62
The "void peak" in a chromatogram corresponds to which of the following?
Choose one answer.
Question63
If a compound has a retention time of 5.30 minutes with a baseline width of 0.64 minutes on a 2.0 m silica gel column, what is the average height of a theoretical plate?
A. 1.8 mm/plate
B. 15 mm/plate
C. 29 mm/plate
D. 0.24 mm/plate
E. 2.7 mm/plate
Question64
Which of the following statements about columns containing more theoretical plates is true?
B. Columns containing more theoretical plates take a long time to perform separations.
C. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.
D. Columns containing more theoretical plates interact irreversibly with the analyte.
Question66
Question67
Band broadening in column chromatography is a result of which of the following?
C. Longitudinal diffusion
Question68
Complete the sentence. All of the following are common carrier gases from gas chromatography, EXCEPT:
A. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Helium.
D. Argon.
E. Carbon dioxide.
Question69
When using gas chromatography, how is optimum column efficiency obtained?
Question70
What is the most common support material for a packed GC column?
A. Silica gel
B. Alumina
C. Fused silica
D. Glass
E. Diatomaceous earth
Question71
WCOT, SCOT, PLOT, and FSOT are all types of which of the following?
B. Capillary GC columns
C. Packed GC columns
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
Question72
Which of the following GC detectors would most likely allow recovery of a sample after analysis?
E. Nitrogen-phosphorus detector
Question73
Which of the following GC detectors would be least affected by the carrier gas?
Question74
In size exclusion chromatography, what happens to the larger particles?
Question75
Fill in the blank. Ion exchange chromatography is best suited to separate ___________________.
A. Hydrophilic molecules
B. Hydrophobic molecules
Question76
Which of the following statements about the mobile phase in Supercritical fluid chromatography (SFC) is false?
Question77
The stationary phase in ion exchange chromatography is a cross-linked polymer resin with covalently attached functional groups. Which of the following is NOT a typical functional group used
for IEC?
D. Amine (-NH3+)
E. Hydroxyl (-OH-)
Question78
Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of the following?
Question79
Which of the following would elute first when using capillary zone electrophoresis?
A. Ca2+
B. CH3NH3+
C. Cl-
D. HCOO-
E. CH3COO-
Question80
How are separations by electrophoresis carried out?
Question81
Fill in the blank. Cd wire used to measure the concentration of cadmium ion is an example of a _______________________.
D. Reference electrode
Question82
Fill in the blank. Ag wire used to measure the concentration of Br- ion is an example of a ______________________.
e. Reference electrode
Question83
What is the process of the loss of an electron called?
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Transference
D. Sublimation
E. Neutralization
Question84
What is the process of the gain of an electron called?
B. Reduction
C. Sublimation
D. Transference
E. Neutralization
Question85
Which of the following is a substrate that is oxidized?
A. Cationic species
B. Anionic species
C. Neutral species
D. Reducing agent
E. Oxidizing agent
Question86
Which of the following is a substrate that is reduced?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Cationic species
D. Anionic species
E. Neutral species
Question87
What is the purpose of the salt bridge in a galvanic (voltaic) cell?
Question88
If a redox couple is at equilibrium in an electrochemical cell, then which of the following statements about the current and potential is most accurate?
A. The current is zero, and the potential is given by the Nernst equation.
E. The potential is zero, and the current is given by the Nernst equation.
Question89
Complete the sentence. The basic setups for electrochemical measurement include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Question90
Which of the following is a static (i = 0) electrochemical technique?
A. Potentiometry
B. Controlled-current coulometry
C. Controlled-potential coulometry
D. Cyclic voltammetry
E. Amperometry
Question91
Where does the reduction reaction occur?
A. At the anode
B. At the cathode
Question92
Where does the oxidation reaction occur?
D. At the cathode
Question93
The use of the Nerst equation to calculate potentials is really a simplistic model. Which of the following does it ignore?
A. Matrix effects
B. Temperature effects
C. Junction potentials
Question94
Fill in the blank. The potential that develops at the interface of two solutions due to differences in concentrations and ionic mobility is called the _________________ potential.
A. Osmotic
B. Bridging
C. Coulombic
D. Reference
E. Junction
Question95
Which of the following statements about the standard hydrogen electrode, the calomel electrode, and the silver/silver chloride electrode is true?
Question96
A pH meter is an example of which type of membrane electrode?
E. Gas-sensing electrode
Question97
In a cyclic voltammogram, the peak current(i) is directly related to which of the following?
Question98
One electrochemical technique involves first depositing an analyte on the surface of an electrode, then using an applied current to remove the analyte via a reduction or oxidation reaction.
What is this method called?
A. Hydrodynamic voltammetry
B. Stripping voltammetry
C. Amperometry
D. Polarography
E. Cyclic voltammetry
Question99
Which of the following is NOT a variable in voltammetric methods?
Question100
Fill in the blank. Coulometric techniques result in a plot of ____________________.
D. Current only
E. Potential only
PhysicL CHEM
1
A 5.00 L sample of N2(g) is held at a pressure of 2.00 atm and a temperature of 315 K. Assuming ideal-gas behavior, how many moles of N2(g) are present in this sample?
a. 2.69 mol
b. 0.208 mol
c. 0.387 mol
d. 0.004 mol
Question2
At a temperature of 500oC and a pressure of 699 Torr, sulfur vapor has a density of 3.71 g/dm 3. What molecular formula for sulfur is compatible with this set of conditions?
a. S2
b. S3
c. S8
d. (S2)3
Question3
Consider a gas for which the equation of state P(Vm – b) = RT (with b = 0.04 dm3/mol) can be used to describe its P-V-T behavior. Suppose a 2-mol sample of this gas is compressed
isothermally and reversibly from an initial volume of 10 dm 3 to a final volume of 1 dm3. How much work (w) is done on the gas sample in this compression process, and how much is the
internal energy (U) of the gas changed?
b. w = 11.9 kJ and ∆U = 0
d. w = 5.85 kJ and ∆U = 0
Question4
Consider a process in which a sample of water vapor expands reversibly and adiabatically from a state in which its pressure is 60 Torr and its volume is 0.5 dm 3 to a state in which its volume
is 3 dm3. If it is assumed that the water vapor behaves as an ideal gas (with respect to its P-V-T properties) and that the ratio of its Cp,m and Cv,m heat-capacity quantities is given by γ =
Cp,m/Cv,m = 1.3, what will be the final pressure of the vapor sample?
a. 5.83 bar
b. 230 Torr
c. 5.84 Torr
Question5
Consider a process in which exactly 107 J of heat is added to 1 mol of CH 3OH(g) under constant-volume conditions. If the initial temperature of the methanol vapor sample is 298 K, what will
be the temperature of the vapor after the 107 J of heat is added? You may assume ideal-gas behavior and use a value of 43.89 J/K-mol for Cp,m (the molar heat capacity of methanol vapor
under constant-pressure conditions).
a. 301.0 K
b. 300.4 K
c. 295.0 K
d. None of the above answers is correct.
Question6
If a person breathes at a rate of 14 respirations per minute, and each respiration involves 0.5 dm 3 of air, what will be the total mass of air breathed in a day? (Take T = 300 K and P = 101.3
kPa, and assume that the air behaves as an ideal gas with a molar mass of 0.029 kg/mol).
a. 11.9 kg
b. 119 g
c. 238 g
d. 14.6 kg
Question7
If you have 1.55 mol of F2(g) at 1.11 atm pressure and a temperature of 0oC, what is the volume of this gas sample, assuming ideal-gas behavior?
a. 31.3 L
b. 22.4 L
c. 3170 L
d. 0.0821 L
Question8
The density of ice, H2O(s), at 273 K, is 0.915 kg/dm3, and that of liquid water is 0.99987 kg/dm3. How much thermodynamic work must be done to melt 1 mol of ice at 1 bar pressure?
a. 0.167 J
b. 0.167 kJ
c. 1.67 J
d. 39.9 cal
Question9
The heat capacity of a substance can be measured under either constant-volume or constant-pressure conditions. Which of the following sets of relationships between C v (heat capacity under
constant-volume conditions) and Cp(heat capacity under constant-pressure conditions) are always true?
d. Cp approaches a value of 0 as the sample temperature approaches 0 K but increases without bound as the sample
temperature is increased.
Question10
The Van der Waals equation-of-state for real gases may be written as P = RT(Vm – b)-1 – a(Vm)-2, where P denotes pressure, T is temperature, Vm denotes molar volume, and ‘a’ and ‘b’ are
parameters (sometimes referred to as the Van der Waals coefficients) that reflect properties of the individual molecules (or atoms) in the gas. Which of the following statements regarding the
‘a’ and ‘b’ parameters is not true?
a. The Van der Waals ‘a’ parameter reflects the existence and strength of attractive intermolecular interactions in
the gas, and the value of ‘a’ is always ≥0.
b. The van der Waals ‘b’ parameter is related to the physical sizes of the constituent molecules (or atoms) of the
gas.
c. The magnitude of the ‘a’ parameter for N2(g) is expected to be greater than that for NH3(g).
d. The magnitude of the ‘b’ parameter for Ar(g) is larger than that for He(g).
Question11
Which of the following corresponds to a concise statement of the zeroth law of thermodynamics?
a. Three solid bodies that are all in thermal equilibrium will have the same temperature.
b. Gas molecules in motion tend to stay in motion in the absence of applied forces.
c. Two material bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third body are in thermal equilibrium with each
other.
d. Molecules can be treated as non-interacting point-masses when contained in gaseous samples at very low pressures
and number densities.
Question12
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The most probable value of a velocity component is equal to the most probable speed of the molecules in a dilute
gas.
b. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas is independent of the molecular mass.
c. The ratio of the most probable speed to the mean speed has the same value for all gases at all temperatures.
d. Derivation of the ideal-gas equation-of-state from the kinetic-molecular theory of gases requires that the gas molecules
be treated as non-interacting point masses.
Question13
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The molar heat capacities of He(g) and Ne(g) have identical values at T = 500 K.
b. The average kinetic energy of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average kinetic energy
of the atoms in an Ne(g) sample.
c. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average speed of the atoms in
an Ne(g) sample.
d. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is greater than the average speed of the atoms in
an Ar(g) sample.
Question14
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
d. The energy of the universe (encompassing system + surroundings) is always conserved in any physical or
chemical process.
Question15
A 1.50-mol sample of an ideal gas at 245 K and 0.75 bar pressure is altered by some process that takes it to a state in which its temperature is increased to 295 K and its pressure is increased
to 0.90 bar. What will be the enthalpy change (∆H) of the gas in this process?
a. 1.56 kJ
b. 1.40 kJ
c. -1.56 kJ
d. 0.62 kJ
Question16
A process in which there is no thermal energy exchanged between a system and its surroundings is called:
a. An isothermal process
b. An isobaric process
c. A diathermic process
d. An adiabatic process.
Question17
Consider 0.1 mol of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder of volume 2.5 dm 3 at a pressure of 1 bar and a temperature of 301 K. Next, suppose you consider three different processes for
changing the state of the gas sample to one in which the volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3, the pressure is increased to 10 bar, and the temperature is 301 K (the same as the temperature in
the initial state). The paths of the three alternative processes are specified as follow:
Process #1 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first heated at constant volume until the pressure reaches a value of 10 bar, and then the gas is cooled under constant pressure
(10 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3 and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #2 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first cooled under constant pressure (1 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm3, and then the gas is heated under
constant volume conditions until its pressure reaches a value of 10 bar and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #3 is a single-step process in which the gas is isothermally compressed from its initial state to its final state at a fixed temperature of 301 K.
Which of the three processes above would require the least amount of work in effecting the specified change of state, and what would be the ∆U (change in internal energy) for this process?
a. Process #1; ∆U = 0
b. Process #2; ∆U = 0
d. Process #3; ∆U = 0
Question18
Consider a cyclic process in which a system performs a net amount of work on its surroundings (i.e., w net < 0, corresponding to the net work done by the system). Would this process be
endothermic (qnet > 0), exothermic (qnet < 0), or adiabatic (qnet = 0) with respect to the net heat (qnet) exchange between system and surroundings? And what would be the relationship
between qnet and wnet?
Question19
Consider a process in which a gas is expanded adiabatically and reversibly under constant-pressure conditions, and the amount of work done by the gas in this process is 10 kJ. What changes
in the internal energy (U) and entropy (S) of the gas will accompany this process?
a. ∆U = -10 kJ and ∆S = 0
b. ∆U = 10 kJ and ∆S = 0
c. ∆U = 0 and ∆S = 10 J/K
Question21
Consider the reaction 2 C(s) + Cl2(g) + 2 F2(g) → CF2ClCF2Cl(g), for which the standard reaction enthalpy has a value of ∆ rH0 = -890.4 kJ/mol at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of
∆rU0 for this reaction at T = 298 K?
a. 4064 kJ/mol
b. -895.4 kJ/mol
c. -890.4 kJ/mol
d. -885.4 kJ/mol
Question22
In a free expansion (or Joule expansion) of a gas, no work is done either on or by the gas system. If the gas in such a process behaves as an ideal gas, which of the following statements is
also true for the free-expansion process?
Note: In the answer options below, U denotes the internal energy of the gas, S denotes the entropy of the gas, q denotes the heat exchanged between the gas and its
surroundings, Vinitial denotes the initial volume of the gas (before expansion), and Vfinal denotes the final volume of the gas (after expansion).
d. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = 0
Question23
Suppose a 1-mol sample of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 20 L at a temperature of 298 K. How much work (w) is done in this
process, and what are the changes in the internal energy (∆U) and entropy (∆S) of the gas?
Question24
Suppose you want to cool a sample of N2(g) from 25oC to -195oC by a one-step process involving a Joule-Thomson expansion in which the final pressure is 1 bar. The Joule-Thomson
coefficient for N2(g) over the specified temperature range may be taken to be μJ-T = 0.75 K/bar. Calculate the enthalpy change (∆H) associated with this cooling process and determine what
the initial pressure (Pinitial) of the gas must be in order to realize the desired temperature change. Which of the following equations gives correct results for Pinitial and ∆H?
Question25
The Joule-Thomson experiment involves an isenthalpic thermodynamic process, and the measurements performed in a Joule-Thomson experiment permit evaluation of the quantity μJ-T =
(∂T/∂P)H ≈ ∆T/∆P. The observed values of μJ-T are:
d. independent of the initial temperature and pressure of the gas undergoing the Joule-Thomson expansion
process.
Question26
The standard heat of combustion of solid glucose (C6H12O6) at 298 K is ∆cH0(298 K) = -2801 kJ/mol. What is the value of ∆cU0(298 K) for glucose (where ∆cU0 denotes the change in internal
energy accompanying the combustion of glucose at 1 bar pressure)?
a. -2801 kJ/mol
b. 3455 kJ/mol
c. 2801 kJ/mol
d. 0
Question27
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. In cyclic thermodynamic processes, it is always true that the net changes in internal energy (∆U), entropy (∆S),
and enthalpy (∆H) of a system are zero (i.e., ∆Unet = ∆Snet = ∆Hnet = 0).
b. The entropy of a system always increases with an increase in temperature under either constant-volume or
constant-pressure conditions.
Question28
Consider a heat engine that operates on a Carnot cycle and uses an ideal gas as a working fluid. Suppose that the heat reservoir of the engine supplies 1 kJ of heat to the system during an
isothermal expansion process at a temperature of 900 K, and the system subsequently gives up heat to heat sink during an isothermal compression process at a temperature of 300 K. What
would be the maximum efficiency (ηmax) achievable with this engine, and what would be the maximum net work (w net,max) that one could derive from this engine?
Question29
Consider the following chemical reactions and their standard reaction enthalpies (∆ rHo) at 298 K.
Use this thermochemical data to calculate the standard heat of reaction for the synthesis of hydrogen chloride gas from H 2(g) and Cl(g) at a temperature of 298 K. The value of ∆rHo (at 298
K) for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) is:
a. -242 kJ/mol
b. -897 kJ/mol
c. -185 kJ/mol
d. 391 kJ/mol
Question30
Consider the reaction C6H5COOH(s) + (15/2) O2(g) → 7 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l), for which the standard reaction enthalpy is ∆rHo = -3228.2 kJ. Calculate the ∆rUo for this reaction and determine
whether any thermodynamic work would be done on (w > 0) or by (w < 0) the reaction system if the reaction is carried out at a constant pressure. (Assume that the gases in this reaction
exhibit ideal-gas behavior at T = 298.15 K and P = 1 bar.)
Question31
Consider the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), and the following thermodynamic data: standard heat of formation of NH 3(g), ∆fHo = -46.11 kJ/mol; standard molar entropy of N2(g),
SSmo = 191.61 J/K-mol; standard molar entropy of H2(g), Smo = 130.684 J/K-mol; and standard molar entropy of NH3(g), Smo = 192.45 J/K-mol. Calculate the ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G for this reaction
carried out under standard pressure and temperature conditions. Which of the following are the correct values for ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G?
Question32
The Carnot heat engine operates on a thermodynamic cycle comprised of the following sequence of processes:
Question33
The standard heat of reaction for the decomposition of ZnO(s) is ∆ rHo = 348 kJ/mol. What does this information tell you about the formation of ZnO(s) under standard STP conditions?
Question34
Which of the following statements regarding a Carnot-cycle engine is incorrect?
a. Increasing the temperature of the hot reservoir (i.e., the heat source) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
b. Decreasing the temperature of the cold reservoir (i.e., the heat sink) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
d. Since the Carnot cycle is a cyclic process, the net work done is zero.
Question35
Consider a 2-mol sample of an ideal gas, with a molar heat capacity Cv,m = 12.5 J/K-mol, confined to a volume of 5 dm3 at a temperature of 300 K. If this gas sample is heated to 373 K and
its volume is allowed to expand to 10 dm3, how much heat (q) is required to perform this process, and what is the entropy change (of the gas) that accompanies this process?
a. ∆S = 16.97 J/K; the value of q depends on whether the process is carried out reversibly or irreversibly
Question36
Consider a container with rigid, adiabatic walls that is fitted with a partition that separates the container into two chambers (one having twice the volume of the other). The larger chamber
contains a 2-mol sample of N2(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure, and the smaller chamber contains a 1-mol sample of He(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure. Now suppose that the partition
between the chambers is removed and the N2 and He gases are allowed to mix. This mixing process is isothermal and also adiabatic. Assuming that the gases behave ideally, what would be
the ∆U (change in internal energy), ∆H (enthalpy change), and ∆S (entropy change) that accompany this mixing process?
a. ∆U = ∆H = ∆S = 0
d. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = 15.88 J/K
Question37
Consider a process in which a 2-mol sample of a certain gas is heated reversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar, and the entropy change for the gas is ∆S = 13.3 J/K.
What will be the value of ∆S for a process in which the same gas sample is heated irreversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a fixed pressure of 1 bar?
b. ∆S = 13.3 J/K
Question38
Suppose 2 moles of water at 333 K are added to 4 moles of water at 293 K. What would be the entropy change associated with this process, assuming that there is no exchange of heat with
the surroundings? (The heat capacity of water is C p,m = 75.3 J/K-mol and may be considered to be independent of temperature.)
a. 26 J/K
b. 0.8 J/K
c. -12.6 J/K
d. -0.8 J/K
Question39
The enthalpy of vaporization of methanol is 35.27 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point of 64.1 oC. What is the entropy of vaporization of methanol at this temperature, and what is the entropy
change in the surroundings when a mole of methanol is vaporized at a temperature of 64.1 oC and a pressure of 1 bar?
Question40
The heat of fusion for H2O at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 6.008 kJ/mol; the heat of vaporization for H2O at 373.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 40.656 kJ/mol; and the molar heat capacity
(Cp,m) of liquid water between 273 K and 373 K has a nearly constant value of 75.29 J/K-mol (under a pressure of 1 bar). Given these conditions, which of the following processes will result in
the largest increase in entropy of a 1-mol sample of H2O?
d. Melting H2O(s) at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure, and then heating the liquid water from 273.15 K to just
short of the boiling point at 373.15 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar
Question41
Two 1-mol blocks of aluminum, one at 273 K and the other at 373 K, are brought into thermal contact. What will be the temperature of the two blocks when they have reached thermal
equilibrium, and what will be the total entropy change (∆S tot) that accompanies the thermal equilibration process? (Assume that the two blocks of aluminum are in a container with walls that
keep them completely isolated from outside surroundings, and take the heat capacity of the aluminum blocks to be C p,m = 24.35 J/K-mol.)
Question42
What is the change in the molar entropy of Ar(g) when it undergoes the following process: Ar(298 K, 1 bar) → Ar(100 K, 10 bar)? (You may assume that the argon behaves as an ideal gas
and its heat capacity has a fixed value of Cp,m = 20.8 J/K-mol.)
a. 41.8 J/K-mol
b. -17.5 J/K-mol
c. -41.8 J/K-mol
d. 24.2 kJ/mol
Question43
Which of the following processes carried out on a 1-mol sample of a monatomic gas (assumed to exhibit ideal-gas P-V-T behavior) will result in the greatest increase in the entropy of the gas?
Question44
Which of the following provides a succinct statement of the Clausius Inequality?
a. dS ≥ dq/T for all isothermal processes carried out reversibly or irreversibly at a constant temperature
T.
Question45
Which of the following represents a necessary condition for a chemical reaction to proceed from reactants to products spontaneously?
d. The standard entropy change, ∆rS0, for the chemical reaction must be ≥ 0.
Question46
Which of the following statements is correct?
Question47
Identify the FALSE statement among the following choices:
a. Calorimetry involves the measurement of heat transfer during a physical or chemical process.
b. According to the third law of thermodynamics, the entropies of all perfectly crystalline substances must be the same at
the absolute zero of temperature (i.e., at T = 0 K).
c. For any given change of state, the work done by a system in an irreversible process is always greater than that in a
reversible process.
d. The Joule-Thompson effect relates to the temperature change occurring in a gas during an isenthalpic expansion of
the gas.
Question48
The translational motions of the molecules in a gas contribute to the total entropy of the gas. What is the translational contribution to the total entropy of a 1-mol sample of N2(g) at a
temperature of 298 K and a pressure of 1 bar?
a. 15.03 J/K
b. -15.03 J/K
c. 150.3 J/K
d. 198.1 J/K
Question49
What is the standard molar entropy (Sm0) of oxygen atoms at 298 K (assumed to behave as an ideal gas)?
a. 143.4 J/K-mol
b. 1.43 J/K-mol
c. 1550 J/K-mol
d. -143.4 J/K-mol
Question50
Which of the following played a significant role in developing the concept of entropy and in formulating the second law of thermodynamics?
c. The formulation and analysis of the Carnot cycle and heat engine
Question51
Which of the following statements does NOT conform to the laws of thermodynamics?
b. The energy of the universe always remains constant in any change-of-state process.
c. The entropy of a system always decreases with a decrease in the temperature of the system.
d. The entropy of any chemically pure substance approaches a value of zero as the temperature of the
substance approaches a value of 0 K, and at T = 0 K, S = 0.
Question52
Among the following processes, which would have a ∆Gm value > 0?
Question53
At what pressure will (G – G0) be 2000 J/mol for an ideal gas at 25oC?
a. 2.1 kPa
b. 21 atm
c. 2.24 Pa
d. 2.24 bar
Question54
Calcium carbonate can exist in two distinctly different crystalline forms, called calcite and aragonite. The standard Gibbs free energy of formation for calcite at 298 K is ∆fG0 = -1128.79 kJ/mol,
and the standard Gibbs free energy of formation for aragonite at 298 K is ∆fG0 = -1127.75 kJ/mol. Which crystalline form is the more thermodynamically stable at a temperature of 298 K and
a pressure of 1 bar, and what would be the value of ∆rG0 for the calcite → aragonite transformation at 298 K?
Question55
Consider a chemical reaction that is exothermic. If you increase the temperature of the reaction mixture, how will this action change the equilibrium constant for the reaction?
Question56
Consider a process in which 1 mol of an ideal gas is isothermally expanded from 0.01 m 3 to 0.10 m3 at a temperature of 25oC. What is the ∆G for this process?
a. 5.7 kJ
b. -479 J
c. -5.70 kJ
d. 479 J
Question57
Consider the dimerization reaction 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g). This reaction is exothermic, since the major chemical change is the formation of a new bond (the N-N bond). The value of ∆rH0 for this
reaction carried out at a temperature of 298 K is -57.2 kJ. The standard molar capacity of N2O4(g) is Cp,m = 77.28 J/K-mol, and the standard molar heat capacity of NO2(g) is Cp,m = 37.2 J/K-
mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆rH0 for the dimerization reaction carried out at a temperature of 1298 K?
a. -54.3 kJ
b. -60.1 kJ
c. -43.2 kJ
d. 12.2 kJ
Question58
Consider the exothermic reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g) at equilibrium at 500 K and 10 bar. Which of the following actions would lead to a decrease in the amount of methanol in the
equilibrium reaction mixture?
c. An inert (unreactive) gas is pumped into the reaction mixture under constant-volume conditions.
Question59
Consider the following reaction between glycine and nitrous acid in an aqueous solution: NH2CH2COOH(aq) + HNO2(aq) ↔ HOCH2COOH(aq) + N2(g) + H2O(l). What would be the difference
between the ∆rG0 and ∆rA0 for this reaction at 298 K, assuming that the N2(g) product can be treated as an ideal gas?
a. 2478 J
b. -2478 kJ
c. 12.22 kJ
Question60
Consider the following reaction for the decomposition of sodium bicarbonate:
The ∆rH0 and ∆rS0 for this reaction have values of 85.2 kJ/mol and 215 J/K-mol, respectively. What is the minimum temperature required for an NaHCO 3(s) sample to spontaneously
decompose into the products shown above (under 1 bar pressure conditions)?
a. 275 K
b. 396 K
c. 479 K
d. 301 K
Question61
Consider the following two reactions: (1) glutamate + NH 4+ ↔ glutamine, for which ∆rG0 = 15.7 kJ/mol at 37oC; and (2) ATP ↔ ADP + Pi, for which ∆rG0 = -31.0 kJ/mol at 37oC. (In reaction
(2), ATP denotes adenosine triphosphate, ADP denotes adenosine diphosphate, and Pi represents inorganic phosphate.) These two reactions can be coupled by an enzyme catalyst (glutamine
synthetase), which leads to the following reaction: (3) glutamate + NH4+ + ATP ↔ glutamine + ADP + Pi. What is the equilibrium constant for reaction (3) at a temperature of 37 oC?
a. 2.3 x 10-3
b. 1.1
c. 3.8 x 102
Question62
Consider the reaction Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) ↔ Cu(NH3)42+(aq), for which ∆rG0 = -70.54 kJ at 298 K. Now suppose you make up a reaction mixture in which the activities ( a) of the various
species have the following values: a(Cu2+) = 0.01; a(NH3) = 0.01; and a(of the cupric complex product) = 0.01. What will be the value of ∆ rG (at 298 K) for the reaction in the mixture you
have prepared?
a. -116 kJ
b. -24.9 kJ
c. 24.9 kJ
Question63
Consider the reaction glycerol(aq) + HPO42-(aq) ↔ DL-glycerol-1-phosphate2-(aq) + H2O(l). The equilibrium constant for this reaction at 37 oC is 0.012, and the value of ∆rG0 at 25oC is 9.37 kJ.
Given this information, what is the equilibrium constant (K eq) for the reaction at 25oC, and what is the value of ∆rH0 for the reaction? (You may assume that the ∆rH0 of the reaction is
independent of temperature.)
Question64
Consider the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) → 2 HI(g). It is reported that an equilibrium mixture of this reaction system contains the following concentrations of the reacting species: [H 2] = 1.14 x 10-
2
M; [I2] = 1.2 x 10-3 M; and [HI] = 2.52 x 10-2 M. Given this information, the equilibrium constant for this reaction may be calculated to have a value of:
a. 1842
b. 46.4
c. 18.4
d. 12.6
Question65
Consider the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g). The equilibrium constant for this reaction has a value of 2.5 x 10 -3 at a temperature of 2400 K. What would be the partial pressure of NO in an
equilibrium mixture that is at 2400 K and contains N2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar and O2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar?
c. 0.2 bar
Question66
For the process H2O(l) → H2O(s), occurring at a temperature of -10oC, the ∆Sm has a value of -20.54 J/K-mol. Which of the following would reflect the values of ∆H m and ∆Gm associated with
the freezing of water at a temperature of -10oC?
Question67
Methanol boils at a temperature of 337.2 K under standard pressure (P = 1 bar) conditions, and its standard enthalpy of vaporization is ∆ vapH0 = 35.27 kJ/mol. What is the standard entropy of
vaporization of methanol?
a. 104.6 kJ/K-mol
b. 104.6 J/K-mol
c. -104.6 J/K-mol
Question68
Suppose you wanted to shift the equilibrium position of the reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) in the direction that favors more dimer formation. Which of the following changes in reaction
conditions would help achieve that goal?
a. An increase in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
b. An increase in the temperature of the reaction mixture, with total pressure held constant
c. A decrease in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
Question69
The enzyme catalase catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide by the exothermic reaction H2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + ½ O2(g). Suppose that a small amount of solid catalase is added to a
0.1 M aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide in a calorimeter, with the initial temperature of the solution being 25 oC. If all the heat liberated in the reaction is retained by the solution, what
will be the final temperature of the solution after the reaction mixture has reached its final equilibrium state? (The relevant heats of formation for H2O2(aq) and H2O(l) are: ∆fH = -191.17
kJ/mol (for aqueous H2O2) and ∆fH = -285.83 kJ/mol (for liquid H2O). (The heat capacity of the solution may be taken as having a value of 4.18 kJ/K-L (i.e., 4.18 kJ/K per liter of solution).)
Choose one answer.
a. 47.6oC
b. 27.3oC
c. 25.2oC
d. 22.7oC
Question70
The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate is 1.67 x 10 5 mol/dm3 at 37oC, and the ∆rH0 for this reaction
has a value of -20.1 kJ/mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆rS0 for the reaction?
a. 35.1 J/K-mol
b. 35.1 J/mol
c. 295 J/K-mol
d. -35.1 J/K-mol
Question71
The equilibrium constant for the dimerization reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) has a value of 6.75 at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of ∆rG0 for this reaction at 298 K?
a. 4.73 kJ
b. 9.46 kJ
c. -4.73 kJ
d. -2.85 kJ
Question72
The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + ½O2(g) ↔ H2O(l) is reported to have a value of 3.5 x 1041 at a temperature of 298 K. Given this information, what is the value of ∆ rG0 for
this reaction at 298 K?
b. -237 kJ
c. 237 J
d. -116 kJ
Question73
What is the equilibrium pressure of NH3(g) over a sample of NH4Cl(s) as a result of decomposition at 25hoC, given that ∆rG0 = 91.12 kJ for the reaction NH4Cl(s) ↔ NH3(g) + HCl(g)?
c. 0.65 bar
d. 0.81 bar
Question74
What is the equilibrium pressure of O2(g) over a sample of NiO(s) at 298 K, given that ∆rG0 = 211.7 kJ for the reaction NiO(s) ↔ Ni(s) + ½O2(g)?
a. 0.843 bar
Question75
What is the pressure of CO2(g) over a sample of CaCO3(s) at a temperature of 1000 K, given that ∆rG0 = 22.9 kJ for the reaction CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
a. 0.99 bar
b. 15.7 bar
Question76
Consider a process in which liquid water is vaporized under constant pressure and temperature conditions, with P = 1 atm and T = 373.15 K. Which of the following would be true for the
∆Am and ∆Gm quantities associated with this process? (Note that Am denotes the molar Helmholtz free-energy function and Gm denotes the molar Gibbs free-energy function.)
c. ∆Am = 0; ∆Gm = 0
Question77
Consider the phase transformation process C(graphite) → C(diamond). The ∆G for this process at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 298 K has a value of 2.900 kJ/mol, and the ∆S for the
process under these same pressure and temperature conditions has a value of -3.36 J/K-mol. If you raised the temperature from 298 K to 1000 K, but kept the pressure constant at 1 bar,
would this increase, decrease, or not change the thermodynamic stability of graphite versus diamond?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Not change
Question78
For H2O(s) at 0oC and 1 atm and H2O(l) at 0oC and 1 atm, which of the following quantities must be equal for the two phases?
Question79
The equilibrium vapor pressure of water at 298 K is 24 Torr. Is the chemical potential of H 2O(l) at 298 K and 20 Torr less than, equal to, or greater than the chemical potential of H 2O(g) at the
same temperature and pressure?
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Less than
Question80
The molar enthalpy of sublimation of CO2(s) is 25.23 kJ/mol at the standard sublimation temperature, 194.6 K. What is the molar entropy of sublimation of CO 2(s) at the standard sublimation
temperature?
a. 0.13 J/K-mol
b. 129.7 J/K-mol
c. -129.7 J/K-mol
Question81
The normal boiling point of Br2 is 331.9 K, and its vapor pressure at 298 K is 0.287 bar. Within the approximations inherent to the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, what value of ∆vapHm (the
molar enthalpy of vaporization) for Br2would be compatible with this data?
a. -30.7 kJ/mol
b. 30.7 kJ/mol
c. 70.6 kJ/mol
d. -12.6 kJ/mol
Question82
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. For a one-component system, the maximum number of phases that can coexist in equilibrium is three.
b. When three phases coexist in equilibrium in a one-component system, one of the phases must be a gas, one must be
a liquid, and one must be a solid.
c. For a one-component system, the most stable phase at a given T and P is the phase with the lowest G m (molar Gibbs
free energy).
d. For a pure substance, the vapor pressure of the solid is equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid at the triple-point
temperature.
Question83
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
b. The maximum number of phases that can coexist in a system composed of four components is equal to six.
c. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation can be used in the characterization of solid-liquid phase equilibria.
Question84
Consider a 0.01 M aqueous solution of KCl. How will the vapor pressure of this solution compare with the vapor pressure of pure liquid water?
a. It will be higher.
b. It will be lower.
Question85
Consider a binary liquid solution in which the constituent species are labeled A and B. Suppose that the A-B pairwise attractive interactions are stronger than the average of the A-A and B-B
pairwise attractive interactions. Which of the following statements about the properties of this solution is incorrect?
a. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit negative deviations from Raoult’s law behavior.
b. The vapor pressure of the solution will be less than ½(PA* + PB*) when species A and B are present in equimolar
amounts (where PA* and PB* denote the vapor pressures of pure liquid A and pure liquid B, respectively).
c. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit positive deviations from Raoult’s law behavior.
d. If the mole-fraction of species A (XA) is much larger than the mole-fraction of species B (XB), then the vapor pressure
of B will follow Henry’s law behavior.
Question86
Consider a dilute benzene-in-ethanol solution in which the mole-fraction of benzene is 0.013. The partial vapor pressure of the benzene component of this solution has a value of 12.8 Torr.
Given this information, what would be the value of the Henry’s law constant for the benzene in this solution?
a. 0.166 Torr
b. 1.02 L-atm
c. 985 Torr
d. 985 Torr/mol
Question87
Consider a dilute liquid solution comprised of solvent A and solute B. For this system, which of the following statements is incorrect?
b. Additions of more solute to the solution will always lower the chemical potential of the solvent.
c. Additions of a nonvolatile solute to the solution will always lower the vapor pressure of the solution.
d. At any given temperature, the vapor pressure of the solution will always be less than the vapor pressure of the pure
solvent.
Question88
Consider a process in which 0.2 mol of liquid acetone is mixed with 0.8 mol of liquid chloroform at a temperature of 35oC and a pressure of 1 bar. Under these conditions, measurements show
that the activity coefficients of the acetone and chloroform constituents of the mixture have the values 0.544 (for acetone) and 0.957 (for chloroform). Given this information, what would be
the ∆G associated with the mixing process?
a. 1683 J
b. -1683 J
c. -1282 J
d. 440 J
Question89
Consider a real gas which, at a temperature of 298 K and some particular pressure P, has a fugacity coefficient with a value of 1.75. At the given pressure P, what is the difference between
the chemical potential of the real gas versus that of an ideal gas? That is, what is the value of μ(real gas) – μ(ideal gas)?
a. -1.39 kJ/mol
b. 0
c. 1.39 kJ/mol
Question90
Consider a solution made by dissolving 342 g of sucrose in 127 ml of water at 45 oC. The vapor pressure of water at 45oC is 0.095 atm and the density of water at 45oC is 0.992 g/ml. What is
the vapor pressure of the sucrose/water solution? (Note: The molar mass of sucrose is 180.2 g/mol.)
Choose one answer.
a. 0.075 atm
b. 0.115 atm
c. 0.224 atm
d. 0.008 atm
Question91
Consider a toluene-benzene solution in which the mole-fraction of toluene is 0.33. At a temperature of 300 K, the total vapor pressure of this solution is 7.89 kPa, and the partial pressures of
the toluene and benzene constituents of the vapor are P toluene = 1.214 kPa and Pbenzene = 6.677 kPa, respectively. At 300 K, the vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene is P* = 3.572 kPa and the
vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene is P* = 9.657 kPa. What are the activities (a) and activity coefficients (γ) of the toluene and benzene constituents of the solution?
Question92
If 5.0 g of glucose, C6H12O6, is dissolved in 1.0 L of water at 300 K, what osmotic pressure will the solution exhibit?
a. 0.69 bar
b. 0.012 atm
c. 6.9 atm
d. 69 Pa
Question93
If a 1-molal solution of NaCl in water shows a freezing-point depression of 3.7oC, what is the freezing-point depression observed for a 1-molal solution of CaCl2 in water? (Recall that both NaCl
and CaCl2 are completely dissociated in aqueous solution.)
Choose one answer.
a. 5.55oC
b. 11.1oC
c. 2.47oC
Question94
The solubility of argon in water is 5.15 x 10 -3 g of Ar per 100 g of H2O at 25oC and an argon pressure of 1 atm. Given this information, what is the value of the Henry’s law constant for an
argon-water mixture at 25oC?
a. 4.31 atm
b. 4.31 x 105 Pa
c. 12.4 bar/mol
Question95
The vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene at 300 K is P* = 3.572 kPa, and the vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene at 300 K is P* = 9.657 kPa. Assuming that mixtures of toluene and
benzene behave as ideal solutions, what will be the total vapor pressure (P T) of a toluene-benzene mixture containing 0.60 mole-fraction of toluene at a temperature of 300 K, and what will
be the mole-fraction of toluene (Xtoluene) in the vapor over this mixture?
Question96
When 2.8 x 10-4 kg of a certain chemical compound is dissolved in 0.579 L of water at 27 oC, the osmotic pressure of the resultant solution is measured and found to have a value of 0.1625
atm. What is the molar mass of the chemical compound?
Choose one answer.
a. 107.5 g/mol
b. 6.602 g/mol
c. 73.3 g/mol
d. 57.9 g/mol
Question97
When 6.29 g of a certain nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 500 g of water, the freezing point of the resultant aqueous solution is 0.646oC lower than that of pure water. The cryoscopic
constant for water is Kf = 1.856 K-kg/mol. Given this information, what is the molar mass of the solute species?
a. 36.1 g/mol
b. 72.2 g/mol
c. 36.1 kg/mol
d. 18.1 g/mol
Question98
Which of the following will have the highest boiling-point temperature?
Question99
Which of the following will have the lowest boiling-point temperature?
Question100
Which of the following will have the lowest freezing-point temperature?
Question101
Among the following statements, which one is incorrect?
c. The molar entropy of a molecular gas depends on the molar mass of the constituent molecules.
d. The entropy of a molecular system depends on the spacings between the rotational and vibrational energy levels of
the constituent molecules.
Question102
Consider two systems that are identical in all respects, except that in one the molecules are distinguishable, whereas in the other the molecules are indistinguishable. What would be the
difference between the molar entropies of these two systems?
b. 53.8 J/K-mol
c. There is no difference.
Question103
The electronic ground state of molecular oxygen is three-fold degenerate, and the first electronic excited state is two-fold degenerate and is located at an energy 15.72 x 10 -20 J above the
ground state. In a sample of O2(g), maintained at an equilibrium temperature of 298 K, what would be the ratio of the populations of O2 molecules in the first electronic excited state versus
the electronic ground state?
a. 2.50 x 10-17
b. 3.75 x 10-17
c. 1.67 x 10-17
d. 1.67 x 1017
Question104
The fundamental vibrational frequency of an oxygen molecule (O2) is 4.741 x 1013 s-1. What would be the value of the vibrational partition function for O 2 at a temperature of 1000 K,
assuming that the molecular vibrational motion can be treated in the harmonic oscillator approximation?
a. 1115
b. 1.115
c. 10.15 s-1
d. 10.15 J
Question105
The ground electronic state of atomic oxygen is five-fold degenerate, the first electronic excited state is three-fold degenerate and is located 3.142 x 10-24 J above ground, and the second
electronic excited state is nondegenerate and is located 4.498 x 10 -24 J above ground. No other electronic excited states of atomic oxygen are thermally accessible at 300 K. Given this
information, what is the value of the electronic partition function for atomic oxygen at a temperature of 300 K?
Choose one answer.
a. 9
b. 6.74 x 10-24
c. 4.03 x 10-24
d. 6.743
Question106
What is the value of the molecular translational partition function for the nitrogen molecules in a sample of N2(g) confined to a container of volume 1 m3 and a temperature of 300 K?
a. 2.41 x 108
b. 1.45 x 1032
1
A 5.00 L sample of N2(g) is held at a pressure of 2.00 atm and a temperature of 315 K. Assuming ideal-gas behavior, how many moles of N2(g) are present in this sample?
a. 2.69 mol
b. 0.208 mol
c. 0.387 mol
d. 0.004 mol
Question2
At a temperature of 500oC and a pressure of 699 Torr, sulfur vapor has a density of 3.71 g/dm 3. What molecular formula for sulfur is compatible with this set of conditions?
a. S2
b. S3
c. S8
d. (S2)3
Question3
Consider a gas for which the equation of state P(Vm - b) = RT (with b = 0.04 dm3/mol) can be used to describe its P-V-T behavior. Suppose a 2-mol sample of this gas is compressed
isothermally and reversibly from an initial volume of 10 dm 3 to a final volume of 1 dm3. How much work (w) is done on the gas sample in this compression process, and how much is the
internal energy (U) of the gas changed?
b. w = 11.9 kJ and ∆U = 0
d. w = 5.85 kJ and ∆U = 0
Question4
Consider a process in which a sample of water vapor expands reversibly and adiabatically from a state in which its pressure is 60 Torr and its volume is 0.5 dm3 to a state in which its volume
is 3 dm3. If it is assumed that the water vapor behaves as an ideal gas (with respect to its P-V-T properties) and that the ratio of its Cp,m and Cv,m heat-capacity quantities is given by γ =
Cp,m/Cv,m = 1.3, what will be the final pressure of the vapor sample?
a. 5.83 bar
b. 230 Torr
c. 5.84 Torr
Question5
Consider a process in which exactly 107 J of heat is added to 1 mol of CH 3OH(g) under constant-volume conditions. If the initial temperature of the methanol vapor sample is 298 K, what will
be the temperature of the vapor after the 107 J of heat is added? You may assume ideal-gas behavior and use a value of 43.89 J/K-mol for Cp,m (the molar heat capacity of methanol vapor
under constant-pressure conditions).
a. 301.0 K
b. 300.4 K
c. 295.0 K
Question6
If a person breathes at a rate of 14 respirations per minute, and each respiration involves 0.5 dm 3 of air, what will be the total mass of air breathed in a day? (Take T = 300 K and P = 101.3
kPa, and assume that the air behaves as an ideal gas with a molar mass of 0.029 kg/mol).
a. 11.9 kg
b. 119 g
c. 238 g
d. 14.6 kg
Question7
If you have 1.55 mol of F2(g) at 1.11 atm pressure and a temperature of 0oC, what is the volume of this gas sample, assuming ideal-gas behavior?
a. 31.3 L
b. 22.4 L
c. 3170 L
d. 0.0821 L
Question8
The density of ice, H2O(s), at 273 K, is 0.915 kg/dm3, and that of liquid water is 0.99987 kg/dm3. How much thermodynamic work must be done to melt 1 mol of ice at 1 bar pressure?
a. 0.167 J
b. 0.167 kJ
c. 1.67 J
d. 39.9 cal
Question9
The heat capacity of a substance can be measured under either constant-volume or constant-pressure conditions. Which of the following sets of relationships between C v (heat capacity under
constant-volume conditions) and Cp(heat capacity under constant-pressure conditions) are always true?
d. Cp approaches a value of 0 as the sample temperature approaches 0 K but increases without bound as the sample
temperature is increased.
Question10
The Van der Waals equation-of-state for real gases may be written as P = RT(Vm - b)-1 - a(Vm)-2, where P denotes pressure, T is temperature, Vm denotes molar volume, and 'a' and 'b' are
parameters (sometimes referred to as the Van der Waals coefficients) that reflect properties of the individual molecules (or atoms) in the gas. Which of the following statements regarding the
'a' and 'b' parameters is not true?
a. The Van der Waals 'a' parameter reflects the existence and strength of attractive intermolecular interactions in
the gas, and the value of 'a' is always ≥0.
b. The van der Waals 'b' parameter is related to the physical sizes of the constituent molecules (or atoms) of the
gas.
c. The magnitude of the 'a' parameter for N2(g) is expected to be greater than that for NH3(g).
d. The magnitude of the 'b' parameter for Ar(g) is larger than that for He(g).
Question11
Which of the following corresponds to a concise statement of the zeroth law of thermodynamics?
a. Three solid bodies that are all in thermal equilibrium will have the same temperature.
b. Gas molecules in motion tend to stay in motion in the absence of applied forces.
c. Two material bodies that are separately in thermal equilibrium with a third body are in thermal equilibrium
with each other.
d. Molecules can be treated as non-interacting point-masses when contained in gaseous samples at very low
pressures and number densities.
Question12
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The most probable value of a velocity component is equal to the most probable speed of the molecules in a
dilute gas.
b. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas is independent of the molecular mass.
c. The ratio of the most probable speed to the mean speed has the same value for all gases at all temperatures.
d. Derivation of the ideal-gas equation-of-state from the kinetic-molecular theory of gases requires that the gas
molecules be treated as non-interacting point masses.
Question13
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The molar heat capacities of He(g) and Ne(g) have identical values at T = 500 K.
b. The average kinetic energy of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average kinetic
energy of the atoms in an Ne(g) sample.
c. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is the same as the average speed of the
atoms in an Ne(g) sample.
d. The average speed of the atoms in an He(g) sample is greater than the average speed of the
atoms in an Ar(g) sample.
Question14
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
d. The energy of the universe (encompassing system + surroundings) is always conserved in any physical or
chemical process.
Question15
A 1.50-mol sample of an ideal gas at 245 K and 0.75 bar pressure is altered by some process that takes it to a state in which its temperature is increased to 295 K and its pressure is increased
to 0.90 bar. What will be the enthalpy change (∆H) of the gas in this process?
a. 1.56 kJ
b. 1.40 kJ
c. -1.56 kJ
d. 0.62 kJ
Question16
A process in which there is no thermal energy exchanged between a system and its surroundings is called:
a. An isothermal process
b. An isobaric process
c. A diathermic process
d. An adiabatic process.
Question17
Consider 0.1 mol of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder of volume 2.5 dm 3 at a pressure of 1 bar and a temperature of 301 K. Next, suppose you consider three different processes for
changing the state of the gas sample to one in which the volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3, the pressure is increased to 10 bar, and the temperature is 301 K (the same as the temperature in
the initial state). The paths of the three alternative processes are specified as follow:
Process #1 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first heated at constant volume until the pressure reaches a value of 10 bar, and then the gas is cooled under constant pressure
(10 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3 and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #2 is a two-step process in which the gas sample is first cooled under constant pressure (1 bar) until its equilibrium volume is reduced to 0.25 dm 3, and then the gas is heated under
constant volume conditions until its pressure reaches a value of 10 bar and its temperature is 301 K.
Process #3 is a single-step process in which the gas is isothermally compressed from its initial state to its final state at a fixed temperature of 301 K.
Which of the three processes above would require the least amount of work in effecting the specified change of state, and what would be the ∆U (change in internal energy) for this process?
a. Process #1; ∆U = 0
b. Process #2; ∆U = 0
d. Process #3; ∆U = 0
Question18
Consider a cyclic process in which a system performs a net amount of work on its surroundings (i.e., w net < 0, corresponding to the net work done by the system). Would this process be
endothermic (qnet > 0), exothermic (qnet < 0), or adiabatic (qnet = 0) with respect to the net heat (qnet) exchange between system and surroundings? And what would be the relationship
between qnet and wnet?
Question19
Consider a process in which a gas is expanded adiabatically and reversibly under constant-pressure conditions, and the amount of work done by the gas in this process is 10 kJ. What changes
in the internal energy (U) and entropy (S) of the gas will accompany this process?
a. ∆U = -10 kJ and ∆S = 0
b. ∆U = 10 kJ and ∆S = 0
c. ∆U = 0 and ∆S = 10 J/K
Question20
Consider a process in which a system undergoes a change from some initial thermodynamic state (1) to some final thermodynamic state (2). Suppose that the thermodynamic variables of
state are well-characterized for both the initial and final states, but the path (through the variable space) between the two states is not well-characterized. Which of the following quantities
associated with the (1) → (2) change-of-state process cannot be determined without a detailed specification of path?
Question21
Consider the reaction 2 C(s) + Cl2(g) + 2 F2(g) → CF2ClCF2Cl(g), for which the standard reaction enthalpy has a value of ∆ rH0 = -890.4 kJ/mol at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of
∆rU0 for this reaction at T = 298 K?
a. 4064 kJ/mol
b. -895.4 kJ/mol
c. -890.4 kJ/mol
d. -885.4 kJ/mol
Question22
In a free expansion (or Joule expansion) of a gas, no work is done either on or by the gas system. If the gas in such a process behaves as an ideal gas, which of the following statements is
also true for the free-expansion process?
Note: In the answer options below, U denotes the internal energy of the gas, S denotes the entropy of the gas, q denotes the heat exchanged between the gas and its
surroundings, Vinitial denotes the initial volume of the gas (before expansion), and Vfinal denotes the final volume of the gas (after expansion).
c. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = nR ln (Vfinal/Vinitial)
d. ∆U = 0; q = 0; and ∆S = 0
Question23
Suppose a 1-mol sample of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 20 L at a temperature of 298 K. How much work (w) is done in this
process, and what are the changes in the internal energy (∆U) and entropy (∆S) of the gas?
Question24
Suppose you want to cool a sample of N2(g) from 25oC to -195oC by a one-step process involving a Joule-Thomson expansion in which the final pressure is 1 bar. The Joule-Thomson
coefficient for N2(g) over the specified temperature range may be taken to be μJ-T = 0.75 K/bar. Calculate the enthalpy change (∆H) associated with this cooling process and determine what
the initial pressure (Pinitial) of the gas must be in order to realize the desired temperature change. Which of the following equations gives correct results for Pinitial and ∆H?
Question25
The Joule-Thomson experiment involves an isenthalpic thermodynamic process, and the measurements performed in a Joule-Thomson experiment permit evaluation of the quantity μJ-T =
(∂T/∂P)H ≈ ∆T/∆P. The observed values of μJ-T are:
d. independent of the initial temperature and pressure of the gas undergoing the Joule-Thomson expansion
process.
Question26
The standard heat of combustion of solid glucose (C6H12O6) at 298 K is ∆cH0(298 K) = -2801 kJ/mol. What is the value of ∆cU0(298 K) for glucose (where ∆cU0 denotes the change in internal
energy accompanying the combustion of glucose at 1 bar pressure)?
a. -2801 kJ/mol
b. 3455 kJ/mol
c. 2801 kJ/mol
d. 0
Question27
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. In cyclic thermodynamic processes, it is always true that the net changes in internal energy (∆U), entropy (∆S),
and enthalpy (∆H) of a system are zero (i.e., ∆Unet = ∆Snet = ∆Hnet = 0).
b. The entropy of a system always increases with an increase in temperature under either constant-volume or
constant-pressure conditions.
Question28
Consider a heat engine that operates on a Carnot cycle and uses an ideal gas as a working fluid. Suppose that the heat reservoir of the engine supplies 1 kJ of heat to the system during an
isothermal expansion process at a temperature of 900 K, and the system subsequently gives up heat to heat sink during an isothermal compression process at a temperature of 300 K. What
would be the maximum efficiency (ηmax) achievable with this engine, and what would be the maximum net work (w net,max) that one could derive from this engine?
Question29
Consider the following chemical reactions and their standard reaction enthalpies (∆ rHo) at 298 K.
Use this thermochemical data to calculate the standard heat of reaction for the synthesis of hydrogen chloride gas from H2(g) and Cl(g) at a temperature of 298 K. The value of ∆rHo (at 298
K) for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) is:
a. -242 kJ/mol
b. -897 kJ/mol
c. -185 kJ/mol
d. 391 kJ/mol
Question30
Consider the reaction C6H5COOH(s) + (15/2) O2(g) → 7 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l), for which the standard reaction enthalpy is ∆rHo = -3228.2 kJ. Calculate the ∆rUo for this reaction and determine
whether any thermodynamic work would be done on (w > 0) or by (w < 0) the reaction system if the reaction is carried out at a constant pressure. (Assume that the gases in this reaction
exhibit ideal-gas behavior at T = 298.15 K and P = 1 bar.)
Question31
Consider the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), and the following thermodynamic data: standard heat of formation of NH 3(g), ∆fHo = -46.11 kJ/mol; standard molar entropy of N2(g),
SSmo = 191.61 J/K-mol; standard molar entropy of H2(g), Smo = 130.684 J/K-mol; and standard molar entropy of NH3(g), Smo = 192.45 J/K-mol. Calculate the ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G for this reaction
carried out under standard pressure and temperature conditions. Which of the following are the correct values for ∆H, ∆S, and ∆G?
Question32
The Carnot heat engine operates on a thermodynamic cycle comprised of the following sequence of processes:
Question33
The standard heat of reaction for the decomposition of ZnO(s) is ∆ rHo = 348 kJ/mol. What does this information tell you about the formation of ZnO(s) under standard STP conditions?
Question34
Which of the following statements regarding a Carnot-cycle engine is incorrect?
a. Increasing the temperature of the hot reservoir (i.e., the heat source) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
b. Decreasing the temperature of the cold reservoir (i.e., the heat sink) will increase the efficiency of the
engine.
d. Since the Carnot cycle is a cyclic process, the net work done is zero.
Question35
Consider a 2-mol sample of an ideal gas, with a molar heat capacity C v,m = 12.5 J/K-mol, confined to a volume of 5 dm3 at a temperature of 300 K. If this gas sample is heated to 373 K and
its volume is allowed to expand to 10 dm3, how much heat (q) is required to perform this process, and what is the entropy change (of the gas) that accompanies this process?
a. ∆S = 16.97 J/K; the value of q depends on whether the process is carried out reversibly or
irreversibly
Question36
Consider a container with rigid, adiabatic walls that is fitted with a partition that separates the container into two chambers (one having twice the volume of the other). The larger chamber
contains a 2-mol sample of N2(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure, and the smaller chamber contains a 1-mol sample of He(g) at 298 K and 1 bar pressure. Now suppose that the partition
between the chambers is removed and the N2 and He gases are allowed to mix. This mixing process is isothermal and also adiabatic. Assuming that the gases behave ideally, what would be
the ∆U (change in internal energy), ∆H (enthalpy change), and ∆S (entropy change) that accompany this mixing process?
c. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = -15.88 J/K
d. ∆U = 0; ∆H = 0; ∆S = 15.88 J/K
Question37
Consider a process in which a 2-mol sample of a certain gas is heated reversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar, and the entropy change for the gas is ∆S = 13.3 J/K.
What will be the value of ∆S for a process in which the same gas sample is heated irreversibly from 275 K to 375 K under a fixed pressure of 1 bar?
b. ∆S = 13.3 J/K
Question38
Suppose 2 moles of water at 333 K are added to 4 moles of water at 293 K. What would be the entropy change associated with this process, assuming that there is no exchange of heat with
the surroundings? (The heat capacity of water is C p,m = 75.3 J/K-mol and may be considered to be independent of temperature.)
a. 26 J/K
b. 0.8 J/K
c. -12.6 J/K
d. -0.8 J/K
Question39
The enthalpy of vaporization of methanol is 35.27 kJ/mol at its normal boiling point of 64.1 oC. What is the entropy of vaporization of methanol at this temperature, and what is the entropy
change in the surroundings when a mole of methanol is vaporized at a temperature of 64.1 oC and a pressure of 1 bar?
Question40
The heat of fusion for H2O at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 6.008 kJ/mol; the heat of vaporization for H 2O at 373.15 K and 1 bar pressure is 40.656 kJ/mol; and the molar heat capacity
(Cp,m) of liquid water between 273 K and 373 K has a nearly constant value of 75.29 J/K-mol (under a pressure of 1 bar). Given these conditions, which of the following processes will result in
the largest increase in entropy of a 1-mol sample of H2O?
d. Melting H2O(s) at 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure, and then heating the liquid water from 273.15 K to just
short of the boiling point at 373.15 K under a constant pressure of 1 bar
Question41
Two 1-mol blocks of aluminum, one at 273 K and the other at 373 K, are brought into thermal contact. What will be the temperature of the two blocks when they have reached thermal
equilibrium, and what will be the total entropy change (∆S tot) that accompanies the thermal equilibration process? (Assume that the two blocks of aluminum are in a container with walls that
keep them completely isolated from outside surroundings, and take the heat capacity of the aluminum blocks to be C p,m = 24.35 J/K-mol.)
Question42
What is the change in the molar entropy of Ar(g) when it undergoes the following process: Ar(298 K, 1 bar) → Ar(100 K, 10 bar)? (You may assume that the argon behaves as an ideal gas
and its heat capacity has a fixed value of Cp,m = 20.8 J/K-mol.)
b. -17.5 J/K-mol
c. -41.8 J/K-mol
d. 24.2 kJ/mol
Question43
Which of the following processes carried out on a 1-mol sample of a monatomic gas (assumed to exhibit ideal-gas P-V-T behavior) will result in the greatest increase in the entropy of the gas?
Question44
Which of the following provides a succinct statement of the Clausius Inequality?
a. dS ≥ dq/T for all isothermal processes carried out reversibly or irreversibly at a constant temperature T.
Question45
Which of the following represents a necessary condition for a chemical reaction to proceed from reactants to products spontaneously?
c. The total entropy of the reacting chemical system and its surroundings must increase.
d. The standard entropy change, ∆rS0, for the chemical reaction must be ≥ 0.
Question46
Which of the following statements is correct?
Question47
Identify the FALSE statement among the following choices:
a. Calorimetry involves the measurement of heat transfer during a physical or chemical process.
b. According to the third law of thermodynamics, the entropies of all perfectly crystalline substances must be the same at
the absolute zero of temperature (i.e., at T = 0 K).
c. For any given change of state, the work done by a system in an irreversible process is always greater than that in a
reversible process.
d. The Joule-Thompson effect relates to the temperature change occurring in a gas during an isenthalpic expansion of
the gas.
Question48
The translational motions of the molecules in a gas contribute to the total entropy of the gas. What is the translational contribution to the total entropy of a 1-mol sample of N2(g) at a
temperature of 298 K and a pressure of 1 bar?
a. 15.03 J/K
b. -15.03 J/K
c. 150.3 J/K
d. 198.1 J/K
Question49
What is the standard molar entropy (Sm0) of oxygen atoms at 298 K (assumed to behave as an ideal gas)?
a. 143.4 J/K-mol
b. 1.43 J/K-mol
c. 1550 J/K-mol
d. -143.4 J/K-mol
Question50
Which of the following played a significant role in developing the concept of entropy and in formulating the second law of thermodynamics?
c. The formulation and analysis of the Carnot cycle and heat engine
Question51
Which of the following statements does NOT conform to the laws of thermodynamics?
b. The energy of the universe always remains constant in any change-of-state process.
c. The entropy of a system always decreases with a decrease in the temperature of the system.
d. The entropy of any chemically pure substance approaches a value of zero as the temperature of the
substance approaches a value of 0 K, and at T = 0 K, S = 0.
Question52
Among the following processes, which would have a ∆Gm value > 0?
Question53
At what pressure will (G - G0) be 2000 J/mol for an ideal gas at 25oC?
a. 2.1 kPa
b. 21 atm
c. 2.24 Pa
d. 2.24 bar
Question54
Calcium carbonate can exist in two distinctly different crystalline forms, called calcite and aragonite. The standard Gibbs free energy of formation for calcite at 298 K is ∆ fG0 = -1128.79 kJ/mol,
and the standard Gibbs free energy of formation for aragonite at 298 K is ∆fG0 = -1127.75 kJ/mol. Which crystalline form is the more thermodynamically stable at a temperature of 298 K and
a pressure of 1 bar, and what would be the value of ∆rG0 for the calcite → aragonite transformation at 298 K?
Question55
Consider a chemical reaction that is exothermic. If you increase the temperature of the reaction mixture, how will this action change the equilibrium constant for the reaction?
Question56
Consider a process in which 1 mol of an ideal gas is isothermally expanded from 0.01 m 3 to 0.10 m3 at a temperature of 25oC. What is the ∆G for this process?
a. 5.7 kJ
b. -479 J
c. -5.70 kJ
d. 479 J
Question57
Consider the dimerization reaction 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g). This reaction is exothermic, since the major chemical change is the formation of a new bond (the N-N bond). The value of ∆rH0 for this
reaction carried out at a temperature of 298 K is -57.2 kJ. The standard molar capacity of N2O4(g) is Cp,m = 77.28 J/K-mol, and the standard molar heat capacity of NO2(g) is Cp,m = 37.2 J/K-
mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆rH0 for the dimerization reaction carried out at a temperature of 1298 K?
a. -54.3 kJ
b. -60.1 kJ
c. -43.2 kJ
d. 12.2 kJ
Question58
Consider the exothermic reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) ↔ CH3OH(g) at equilibrium at 500 K and 10 bar. Which of the following actions would lead to a decrease in the amount of methanol in the
equilibrium reaction mixture?
c. An inert (unreactive) gas is pumped into the reaction mixture under constant-volume conditions.
Question59
Consider the following reaction between glycine and nitrous acid in an aqueous solution: NH 2CH2COOH(aq) + HNO2(aq) ↔ HOCH2COOH(aq) + N2(g) + H2O(l). What would be the difference
between the ∆rG0 and ∆rA0 for this reaction at 298 K, assuming that the N2(g) product can be treated as an ideal gas?
a. 2478 J
b. -2478 kJ
c. 12.22 kJ
Question60
Consider the following reaction for the decomposition of sodium bicarbonate:
The ∆rH0 and ∆rS0 for this reaction have values of 85.2 kJ/mol and 215 J/K-mol, respectively. What is the minimum temperature required for an NaHCO3(s) sample to spontaneously
decompose into the products shown above (under 1 bar pressure conditions)?
a. 275 K
b. 396 K
c. 479 K
d. 301 K
Question61
Consider the following two reactions: (1) glutamate + NH4+ ↔ glutamine, for which ∆rG0 = 15.7 kJ/mol at 37oC; and (2) ATP ↔ ADP + Pi, for which ∆rG0 = -31.0 kJ/mol at 37oC. (In reaction
(2), ATP denotes adenosine triphosphate, ADP denotes adenosine diphosphate, and Pi represents inorganic phosphate.) These two reactions can be coupled by an enzyme catalyst (glutamine
synthetase), which leads to the following reaction: (3) glutamate + NH 4+ + ATP ↔ glutamine + ADP + Pi. What is the equilibrium constant for reaction (3) at a temperature of 37oC?
a. 2.3 x 10-3
b. 1.1
c. 3.8 x 102
Question62
Consider the reaction Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) ↔ Cu(NH3)42+(aq), for which ∆rG0 = -70.54 kJ at 298 K. Now suppose you make up a reaction mixture in which the activities ( a) of the various
species have the following values: a(Cu2+) = 0.01; a(NH3) = 0.01; and a(of the cupric complex product) = 0.01. What will be the value of ∆ rG (at 298 K) for the reaction in the mixture you
have prepared?
a. -116 kJ
b. -24.9 kJ
c. 24.9 kJ
Question63
Consider the reaction glycerol(aq) + HPO42-(aq) ↔ DL-glycerol-1-phosphate2-(aq) + H2O(l). The equilibrium constant for this reaction at 37 oC is 0.012, and the value of ∆rG0 at 25oC is 9.37 kJ.
Given this information, what is the equilibrium constant (K eq) for the reaction at 25oC, and what is the value of ∆rH0 for the reaction? (You may assume that the ∆rH0 of the reaction is
independent of temperature.)
Question64
Consider the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) → 2 HI(g). It is reported that an equilibrium mixture of this reaction system contains the following concentrations of the reacting species: [H2] = 1.14 x 10-
2
M; [I2] = 1.2 x 10-3 M; and [HI] = 2.52 x 10-2 M. Given this information, the equilibrium constant for this reaction may be calculated to have a value of:
a. 1842
b. 46.4
c. 18.4
d. 12.6
Question65
Consider the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g). The equilibrium constant for this reaction has a value of 2.5 x 10-3 at a temperature of 2400 K. What would be the partial pressure of NO in an
equilibrium mixture that is at 2400 K and contains N2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar and O2(g) at a partial pressure of 0.1 bar?
c. 0.2 bar
Question66
For the process H2O(l) → H2O(s), occurring at a temperature of -10oC, the ∆Sm has a value of -20.54 J/K-mol. Which of the following would reflect the values of ∆H m and ∆Gm associated with
the freezing of water at a temperature of -10oC?
Question67
Methanol boils at a temperature of 337.2 K under standard pressure (P = 1 bar) conditions, and its standard enthalpy of vaporization is ∆vapH0 = 35.27 kJ/mol. What is the standard entropy of
vaporization of methanol?
a. 104.6 kJ/K-mol
b. 104.6 J/K-mol
c. -104.6 J/K-mol
Question68
Suppose you wanted to shift the equilibrium position of the reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) in the direction that favors more dimer formation. Which of the following changes in reaction
conditions would help achieve that goal?
a. An increase in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
b. An increase in the temperature of the reaction mixture, with total pressure held constant
c. A decrease in the total pressure of the reaction mixture, with temperature held constant
Question69
The enzyme catalase catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide by the exothermic reaction H 2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + ½ O2(g). Suppose that a small amount of solid catalase is added to a
0.1 M aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide in a calorimeter, with the initial temperature of the solution being 25oC. If all the heat liberated in the reaction is retained by the solution, what
will be the final temperature of the solution after the reaction mixture has reached its final equilibrium state? (The relevant heats of formation for H2O2(aq) and H2O(l) are: ∆fH = -191.17
kJ/mol (for aqueous H2O2) and ∆fH = -285.83 kJ/mol (for liquid H2O). (The heat capacity of the solution may be taken as having a value of 4.18 kJ/K-L (i.e., 4.18 kJ/K per liter of solution).)
a. 47.6oC
b. 27.3oC
c. 25.2oC
d. 22.7oC
Question70
The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate is 1.67 x 10 5 mol/dm3 at 37oC, and the ∆rH0 for this reaction
has a value of -20.1 kJ/mol. Given this information, what is the value of ∆ rS0 for the reaction?
a. 35.1 J/K-mol
b. 35.1 J/mol
c. 295 J/K-mol
d. -35.1 J/K-mol
Question71
The equilibrium constant for the dimerization reaction 2 NO 2(g) → N2O4(g) has a value of 6.75 at a temperature of 298 K. What is the value of ∆rG0 for this reaction at 298 K?
a. 4.73 kJ
b. 9.46 kJ
c. -4.73 kJ
d. -2.85 kJ
Question72
The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + ½O2(g) ↔ H2O(l) is reported to have a value of 3.5 x 1041 at a temperature of 298 K. Given this information, what is the value of ∆ rG0 for
this reaction at 298 K?
a. 237 kJ
b. -237 kJ
c. 237 J
d. -116 kJ
Question73
What is the equilibrium pressure of NH3(g) over a sample of NH4Cl(s) as a result of decomposition at 25hoC, given that ∆rG0 = 91.12 kJ for the reaction NH4Cl(s) ↔ NH3(g) + HCl(g)?
c. 0.65 bar
d. 0.81 bar
Question74
What is the equilibrium pressure of O2(g) over a sample of NiO(s) at 298 K, given that ∆rG0 = 211.7 kJ for the reaction NiO(s) ↔ Ni(s) + ½O2(g)?
a. 0.843 bar
Question75
What is the pressure of CO2(g) over a sample of CaCO3(s) at a temperature of 1000 K, given that ∆rG0 = 22.9 kJ for the reaction CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
a. 0.99 bar
b. 15.7 bar
Question76
Consider a process in which liquid water is vaporized under constant pressure and temperature conditions, with P = 1 atm and T = 373.15 K. Which of the following would be true for the
∆Am and ∆Gm quantities associated with this process? (Note that Am denotes the molar Helmholtz free-energy function and Gm denotes the molar Gibbs free-energy function.)
c. ∆Am = 0; ∆Gm = 0
Question77
Consider the phase transformation process C(graphite) → C(diamond). The ∆G for this process at 1 bar pressure and a temperature of 298 K has a value of 2.900 kJ/mol, and the ∆S for the
process under these same pressure and temperature conditions has a value of -3.36 J/K-mol. If you raised the temperature from 298 K to 1000 K, but kept the pressure constant at 1 bar,
would this increase, decrease, or not change the thermodynamic stability of graphite versus diamond?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Not change
Question78
For H2O(s) at 0oC and 1 atm and H2O(l) at 0oC and 1 atm, which of the following quantities must be equal for the two phases?
Question79
The equilibrium vapor pressure of water at 298 K is 24 Torr. Is the chemical potential of H 2O(l) at 298 K and 20 Torr less than, equal to, or greater than the chemical potential of H 2O(g) at the
same temperature and pressure?
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Less than
Question80
The molar enthalpy of sublimation of CO2(s) is 25.23 kJ/mol at the standard sublimation temperature, 194.6 K. What is the molar entropy of sublimation of CO 2(s) at the standard sublimation
temperature?
a. 0.13 J/K-mol
b. 129.7 J/K-mol
c. -129.7 J/K-mol
Question81
The normal boiling point of Br2 is 331.9 K, and its vapor pressure at 298 K is 0.287 bar. Within the approximations inherent to the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, what value of ∆vapHm (the
molar enthalpy of vaporization) for Br2would be compatible with this data?
a. -30.7 kJ/mol
b. 30.7 kJ/mol
c. 70.6 kJ/mol
d. -12.6 kJ/mol
Question82
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. For a one-component system, the maximum number of phases that can coexist in equilibrium is three.
b. When three phases coexist in equilibrium in a one-component system, one of the phases must be a gas,
one must be a liquid, and one must be a solid.
c. For a one-component system, the most stable phase at a given T and P is the phase with the lowest
Gm (molar Gibbs free energy).
d. For a pure substance, the vapor pressure of the solid is equal to the vapor pressure of the liquid at the
triple-point temperature.
Question83
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
b. The maximum number of phases that can coexist in a system composed of four components is equal to six.
c. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation can be used in the characterization of solid-liquid phase equilibria.
Question84
Consider a 0.01 M aqueous solution of KCl. How will the vapor pressure of this solution compare with the vapor pressure of pure liquid water?
a. It will be higher.
b. It will be lower.
Question85
Consider a binary liquid solution in which the constituent species are labeled A and B. Suppose that the A-B pairwise attractive interactions are stronger than the average of the A-A and B-B
pairwise attractive interactions. Which of the following statements about the properties of this solution is incorrect?
a. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit negative deviations from Raoult's law behavior.
b. The vapor pressure of the solution will be less than ½(PA* + PB*) when species A and B are present in
equimolar amounts (where PA* and PB* denote the vapor pressures of pure liquid A and pure liquid B,
respectively).
c. The vapor pressure of the solution will exhibit positive deviations from Raoult's law behavior.
d. If the mole-fraction of species A (XA) is much larger than the mole-fraction of species B (XB), then the vapor
pressure of B will follow Henry's law behavior.
Question86
Consider a dilute benzene-in-ethanol solution in which the mole-fraction of benzene is 0.013. The partial vapor pressure of the benzene component of this solution has a value of 12.8 Torr.
Given this information, what would be the value of the Henry's law constant for the benzene in this solution?
a. 0.166 Torr
b. 1.02 L-atm
c. 985 Torr
d. 985 Torr/mol
Question87
Consider a dilute liquid solution comprised of solvent A and solute B. For this system, which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The chemical potential of A in solution is always less than the chemical potential of pure liquid A (at fixed
values of pressure and temperature).
b. Additions of more solute to the solution will always lower the chemical potential of the solvent.
c. Additions of a nonvolatile solute to the solution will always lower the vapor pressure of the solution.
d. At any given temperature, the vapor pressure of the solution will always be less than the vapor pressure of
the pure solvent.
Question88
Consider a process in which 0.2 mol of liquid acetone is mixed with 0.8 mol of liquid chloroform at a temperature of 35 oC and a pressure of 1 bar. Under these conditions, measurements show
that the activity coefficients of the acetone and chloroform constituents of the mixture have the values 0.544 (for acetone) and 0.957 (for chloroform). Given this information, what would be
the ∆G associated with the mixing process?
a. 1683 J
b. -1683 J
c. -1282 J
d. 440 J
Question89
Consider a real gas which, at a temperature of 298 K and some particular pressure P, has a fugacity coefficient with a value of 1.75. At the given pressure P, what is the difference between
the chemical potential of the real gas versus that of an ideal gas? That is, what is the value of μ(real gas) - μ(ideal gas)?
a. -1.39 kJ/mol
b. 0
c. 1.39 kJ/mol
Question90
Consider a solution made by dissolving 342 g of sucrose in 127 ml of water at 45 oC. The vapor pressure of water at 45oC is 0.095 atm and the density of water at 45oC is 0.992 g/ml. What is
the vapor pressure of the sucrose/water solution? (Note: The molar mass of sucrose is 180.2 g/mol.)
a. 0.075 atm
b. 0.115 atm
c. 0.224 atm
d. 0.008 atm
Question91
Consider a toluene-benzene solution in which the mole-fraction of toluene is 0.33. At a temperature of 300 K, the total vapor pressure of this solution is 7.89 kPa, and the partial pressures of
the toluene and benzene constituents of the vapor are P toluene = 1.214 kPa and Pbenzene = 6.677 kPa, respectively. At 300 K, the vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene is P* = 3.572 kPa and the
vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene is P* = 9.657 kPa. What are the activities (a) and activity coefficients (γ) of the toluene and benzene constituents of the solution?
Question92
If 5.0 g of glucose, C6H12O6, is dissolved in 1.0 L of water at 300 K, what osmotic pressure will the solution exhibit?
a. 0.69 bar
b. 0.012 atm
c. 6.9 atm
d. 69 Pa
Question93
If a 1-molal solution of NaCl in water shows a freezing-point depression of 3.7oC, what is the freezing-point depression observed for a 1-molal solution of CaCl2 in water? (Recall that both NaCl
and CaCl2 are completely dissociated in aqueous solution.)
a. 5.55oC
b. 11.1oC
c. 2.47oC
Question94
The solubility of argon in water is 5.15 x 10 -3 g of Ar per 100 g of H2O at 25oC and an argon pressure of 1 atm. Given this information, what is the value of the Henry's law constant for an
argon-water mixture at 25oC?
a. 4.31 atm
b. 4.31 x 105 Pa
c. 12.4 bar/mol
Question95
The vapor pressure of pure liquid toluene at 300 K is P* = 3.572 kPa, and the vapor pressure of pure liquid benzene at 300 K is P* = 9.657 kPa. Assuming that mixtures of toluene and
benzene behave as ideal solutions, what will be the total vapor pressure (P T) of a toluene-benzene mixture containing 0.60 mole-fraction of toluene at a temperature of 300 K, and what will
be the mole-fraction of toluene (Xtoluene) in the vapor over this mixture?
Question96
When 2.8 x 10-4 kg of a certain chemical compound is dissolved in 0.579 L of water at 27 oC, the osmotic pressure of the resultant solution is measured and found to have a value of 0.1625
atm. What is the molar mass of the chemical compound?
a. 107.5 g/mol
b. 6.602 g/mol
c. 73.3 g/mol
d. 57.9 g/mol
Question97
When 6.29 g of a certain nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 500 g of water, the freezing point of the resultant aqueous solution is 0.646 oC lower than that of pure water. The cryoscopic
constant for water is Kf = 1.856 K-kg/mol. Given this information, what is the molar mass of the solute species?
a. 36.1 g/mol
b. 72.2 g/mol
c. 36.1 kg/mol
d. 18.1 g/mol
Question98
Which of the following will have the highest boiling-point temperature?
Question99
Which of the following will have the lowest boiling-point temperature?
Question100
Which of the following will have the lowest freezing-point temperature?
Question101
Among the following statements, which one is incorrect?
c. The molar entropy of a molecular gas depends on the molar mass of the constituent molecules.
d. The entropy of a molecular system depends on the spacings between the rotational and vibrational energy
levels of the constituent molecules.
Question102
Consider two systems that are identical in all respects, except that in one the molecules are distinguishable, whereas in the other the molecules are indistinguishable. What would be the
difference between the molar entropies of these two systems?
a. 446.9 J/K-mol
b. 53.8 J/K-mol
c. There is no difference.
Question103
The electronic ground state of molecular oxygen is three-fold degenerate, and the first electronic excited state is two-fold degenerate and is located at an energy 15.72 x 10 -20 J above the
ground state. In a sample of O2(g), maintained at an equilibrium temperature of 298 K, what would be the ratio of the populations of O2 molecules in the first electronic excited state versus
the electronic ground state?
b. 3.75 x 10-17
c. 1.67 x 10-17
d. 1.67 x 1017
Question104
The fundamental vibrational frequency of an oxygen molecule (O2) is 4.741 x 1013 s-1. What would be the value of the vibrational partition function for O 2 at a temperature of 1000 K,
assuming that the molecular vibrational motion can be treated in the harmonic oscillator approximation?
a. 1115
b. 1.115
c. 10.15 s-1
d. 10.15 J
Question105
The ground electronic state of atomic oxygen is five-fold degenerate, the first electronic excited state is three-fold degenerate and is located 3.142 x 10-24 J above ground, and the second
electronic excited state is nondegenerate and is located 4.498 x 10 -24 J above ground. No other electronic excited states of atomic oxygen are thermally accessible at 300 K. Given this
information, what is the value of the electronic partition function for atomic oxygen at a temperature of 300 K?
a. 9
b. 6.74 x 10-24
c. 4.03 x 10-24
d. 6.743
Question106
What is the value of the molecular translational partition function for the nitrogen molecules in a sample of N2(g) confined to a container of volume 1 m3 and a temperature of 300 K?
b. 1.45 x 1032
Gen chem
1
A certain reaction is zero order in reactant A and second order in reactant B. What happens to the reaction rate when the concentrations of both reactants are doubled?
Question2
A rate law relates which of the following?
Question3
Determine the overall balanced equation for a reaction that has the following proposed mechanism. Which of the following is the acceptable rate law?
Step 1: B2 + B2 → E3 + D slow
Step 2: E3 + A → B2 + C2 fast
a. B2 + B2 → E3 + D and R = [B2]2
c. A + B2 → C2 + D and R = [B2]2
Question4
Fill in the blank. A species that changes the rate of a reaction but is neither consumed nor changed in that reaction is a(n) ________________.
a. Catalyst
b. Activated complex
c. Intermediate
d. Reactant
Question5
If two molecules collide softly, what will most likely happen to the molecules?
Question6
The decomposition of nitrogen dioxide 2 NO2 → 2 NO + O2 occurs in a two-step sequence at elevated temperatures. The first step is NO2 → NO + O. Which of the following accurately predicts
the second step that, when combined with the first step, gives the complete reaction?
a. NO2 + O → NO + O2
b. O → NO + O2
c. NO2→ NO
d. O2→ NO + 3 O2
Question7
To be effective, a collision requires which of the following?
a. Enough energy
b. Favorable orientation
c. A reaction mechanism
d. Both A and B
Question8
What is the slowest step in a reaction mechanism called?
Question9
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the energy of the activated complex also called transition state?
a. The transition state is lower than the energy of the reactants but higher than the energy of the
products.
b. The transition state is lower than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
c. The transition state is higher than the energy of the reactants but lower than the energy of the
products.
d. The transition state is higher than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
Question10
Fill in the blank. The sequence of steps that occurs in a reaction process is called the _____________.
b. Reaction mechanism
c. Overall reaction
d. Rate law
Question11
A silver chloride solution is prepared with the following ion concentrations [Ag +] = 1.0 x 10-6 M and [Cl-] = 1.0 x 10-2 M. If Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10-10, then which of the following is true?
Question12
Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte, because it does which of the following?
Question13
How can one prepare a 1.00 L of a 0.125 M H2SO4 solution?
Question14
How many grams of Na3PO4 are there in 500. mL of a 0.250 M solution of Na3PO4 (molar mass = 163.94 g/mol)?
a. 2.05 g
b. 20.5 g
c. 0.125 g
d. 0.168 g
Question15
Solution A contains 0.1 mol of sucrose, C12H22O11, dissolved in 500 g of water. Solution B contains 0.1 mol of sodium chloride, NaCl, in 500 g of water. Which of the following statements about
these solutions is true?
Question16
The solubility of AgCl is 1.22 x 10-8 mol/L. What is the value of Ksp for AgCl?
a. 1.1 x 10⁻4
b. 1.2 x 10⁻8
c. 5.7 x 10⁻2
d. 1.5 x 10⁻16
Question17
To make a water-soluble salt using the silver cation, Ag+, what anion should be chosen?
a. NO3⁻
b. CO32⁻
c. Cl⁻
d. PO43⁻
Question18
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is insoluble in water?
a. NaBr
b. NH4Cl
c. FeS
d. (NH4)2S
Question19
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is soluble in water?
a. Fe(OH)3
b. AgCl
c. CaCl2
d. BaSO4
Question20
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of nickel(II) chloride and sodium phosphate to give nickel(II) phosphate and sodium chloride?
Question21
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum sulfate with sodium hydroxide?
Question22
What is the correct expression for the solubility product constant, K sp, for FePO4?
b. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][P5⁻][O2⁻]3
c. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][PO43⁻]
Question23
What is the molality of a 0.907 M Pb(NO3)2 solution? (Molar mass of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.252 g/mL.)
a. 0.953 m
b. 0.724 m
c. 0.907 m
d. 1.98 m
Question24
What is the molality of a solution containing 5.67 g glucose, C 6H12O6, dissolved in 25.2 g of water? (Molar mass of C6H12O6 = 180.2 g/mol.)
a. 0.00125 m
b. 0.225 m
c. 1.25 m
d. 0.762 m
Question25
What is the molarity of a 0.273 m KCl? (Molar mass of KCl = 74.6 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.011 g/L.)
a. 20.6 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 0.273 M
d. 0.271 M
Question26
What is the new concentration of a nitric acid made by diluting 50. mL of a 12.0 M solution to 250. mL?
a. 2.4 M
b. 60. M
c. 10. M
d. 24 M
Question27
What is the total concentration of ions in a 0.0360 M solution of Na3PO4?
Choose one answer.
a. 0.108 M
b. 0.144 M
c. 0.0360 M
d. 0.0720 M
Question28
What volume in mL of 0.453 M NaCl solution contains 25.0 g of NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol)?
a. 193 mL
b. 1000 mL
c. 943 mL
d. 453 mL
Question29
Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?
a. Molality
b. Vapor-pressure lowering
c. Boiling-point elevation
d. Osmotic pressure
Question30
Which one of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when dissolved in water?
b. Calcium chloride
c. Copper sulfate
d. Sugar
Question31
A buffer is prepared by adding 45.0 mL of 0.15 M NaF to 35.0 mL of 0.10 HF. What is the pH of the final solution? The value of Ka for HF is 6.8 x 10-4.
a. 4.65
b. 2.20
c. 7.00
d. 3.45
Question32
A solution contains 0.0128 g of HCl in 450. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
a. 1.00
b. 7.00
c. 3.10
d. 10.89
Question33
A solution contains 0.384 g of KOH in 250. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
a. 1.56
b. 12.44
c. 2.67
d. 11.33
Question34
An important component of blood is the buffer combination of dihydrogen phosphate ion and the hydrogen phosphate ion. The pH of blood is 7.44. What is the pH of blood, if 25% of the
hydrogen phosphate is converted to dihydrogen phosphate? The value of Ka for H2PO4- is 6.2 x 10-2.
a. 2.90
b. 6.59
c. 7.44
d. 7.16
Question35
At 10 °C, Kw = 2.9 x 10-15. What is [OH-] in neutral water at 10 °C?
a. 4.44 x 10⁻6 M
b. 1.00 x 10⁻7 M
c. 1.70 x 10⁻7 M
d. 5.39 x 10⁻8 M
Question36
At 50 °C, Kw = 5.48 x 10-14. What is [OH-] in water of pH = 3 at 50 °C?
a. 1.00 x 10⁻3 M
b. 5.48 x 10⁻11 M
c. 5.48 x 10⁻7 M
d. 2.74 x 10⁻7 M
Question37
HC2Cl3O2 is a stronger acid than HCHO2. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
HC2Cl3O2(aq) + CHO2-(aq) → C2Cl3O2-(aq) + HCHO2(aq)
Question38
H3PO4 is a stronger acid than NH4+. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
NH4+(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H3PO4(aq)
Question39
The following solutions are mixed in equimolar portions. Will the resulting solution be acidic, basic, neutral, or is there not enough information given?
HCl(aq) + NaHCO3(aq) → ?
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question40
What are the products of the following acid-base reaction?
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → ?
a. H3O⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq)
b. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq)
c. H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)
Question41
What is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
Question42
What is a Lewis acid?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
Question43
What is a Lewis base?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
Question44
What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.15 M chloroacetic acid and 0.10 M sodium chloroacetate? The value of K a for chloroacetic acid is 1.3 x 10-3.
a. 11.3
b. 3.76
c. 2.68
d. 3.91
Question45
What is the pH of the buffer solution that consists of 0.15 M pyridine and 0.10 M pyridinium bromide? The value of K b for pyridine is 1.4 x 109.
a. 6.60
b. 3.50
c. 5.32
d. 7.00
Question46
What is the [OH-] of a 5.43 x 10-4 M solution of HNO3 at 25 °C?
a. 1.84 x 10⁻11 M
b. 5.43 x 10⁻10 M
c. 5.43 x 10⁻4 M
d. 3.67 x 10⁻8 M
Question47
What will happen to the pH a solution of NH3 by adding HCl?
Question48
Which of the following is an acid-base conjugate pair?
a. HF and F⁻
Question49
Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
Choose one answer.
Question50
What is a Brønsted-Lowry base?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
c. A hydroxide donor
Question51
A particular voltaic cell operates on the following reaction.
Zn(s) + Cl2(g) → Zn2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq)
Given an emf of 0.853 V, calculate the maximum electrical work generated when 20.0 g of zinc metal is consumed.
a. -8.23 x 104 J
b. -1.65 x 105 J
c. -5.03 x 104 J
d. -2.51 x 104 J
Question52
A voltaic cell has the following reaction.
Zn(s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Zn2+(aq) E° = 0.72 V
What is the maximum electrical work that can be obtained from this cell per mole of iron (III) ion?
Choose one answer.
a. +69 kJ
b. -140 kJ
c. -69 kJ
d. 1.4 J
Question53
Cadmium reacts spontaneously with copper(II) ion.
Cd(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + Cu(s)
What are the half reactions for this reaction?
Question54
Calculate the emf for a cell operating with the following reaction:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 6 I-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 I2(s) + 7 H2O(l),
where [Cr2O72-] = 0.020 M, [I-] = 0.015 M, [Cr3+] = 0.20 M and [H+] = 0.50 M, using the following standard reduction potentials:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l) E° = +1.33 V
I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) E° = +0.54 V
a. +1.87 V
b. -1.87 V
c. +0.79 V
d. +0.64 V
Question55
Calculate the equilibrium constant K for the following reaction at 25 °C.
2 Fe3+(aq) + Cu(s) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Cu2+(aq) E° = +0.43 V
a. 7.26
b. 0.43
c. 3.4 x 1014
d. 1.7 x 107
Question56
Calculate ΔG° for the following reaction at 25 °C.
3 Cu(s) + 2 NO3-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 3 Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 4 H2O(l) E° = +0.62 V
a. -3.6 x 105 J
b. -6.0 x 104 J
c. 3.6 x 105 J
d. 1.2 x 105 J
Question57
Fill in the blank. When a piece of iron is left outside, it will rust. In this situation, the iron atoms are _______________.
a. Losing electrons
b. Gaining electrons
c. Staying neutral
Question58
Given the following two half reactions,
Cd2+(aq) + 2e- → Cd(s) E° = -0.40 V
2 Ag+(aq) + 2e- → 2 Ag(s) E° = 0.80 V
determine E° and the spontaneity of the following reaction:
2 Ag+(aq) + Cd(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Cd2+(aq)
Question59
Given the two following half reactions,
Cl2(g) + 2e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = +1.36 V
I2(g) + 2e- → 2 I-(s) E° = +0.54 V
calculate ΔG° for the following reaction:
2 I-(aq) + Cl2(g) → 2 Cl-(aq) + I2(s).
a. -1.6 kJ
b. -7.9 x 104 J
c. -1.6 x 105 J
d. -79 kJ
Question60
Given the two following half reactions,
Sn2+(aq) + 2e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.14 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s) E° = +0.34 V
calculate the standard emf for the following reaction:
Sn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Sn2+(aq) + Cu(s).
a. 0.96 V
b. -0.48 V
c. +0.20 V
d. 0.48 V
Question61
Given the two following half reactions,
Cr3+(aq) + 3e- → Cr(s) E° = -0.74 V
Hg22+(aq) + 2e- → Hg(l) E° = +0.80 V
calculate the standard emf for the following cell:
Cr | Cr3+|| Hg22+| Hg
a. -0.06 V
b. -1.54 V
c. +1.54 V
d. +0.06 V
Question62
How many coulombs of charge are required to form 1.00 pound of Al(s) from an Al 3+ salt?
a. 4.87 x 106
b. 50.5
c. 1.62 x 106
d. 454
Question63
If we wish to convert 1.00 g of Au3+(aq) ion into Au(s) in a “gold-plating" process, how long must we electrolyze a solution if the current passing through the circuit is 2.00 amps?
b. 0.50 sec
c. 0.015 sec
d. 735 sec
Question64
Of the following four reactions, how many are oxidation-reduction reactions?
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Cu + 2 AgNO3 → 2 Ag + Cu(NO3)2
Mg(OH)2 → MgO + H2O
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question65
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+| Ni has an E° of 0.170 V. If the standard reduction potential of Ni 2+/Ni is E° = -0.23 V, what is the standard reduction potential for Cd2+/Cd?
a. +0.06 V
b. -0.06 V
c. -0.40 V
d. +0.40 V
Question66
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+ (1.0M)| Ni has an electromotive force of 0.240 V at 25 °C. What is the concentration of cadmium ion? (Please note that E° = 0.170 V.)
b. 0.04 M
c. 0.004 M
d. 1.0 M
Question67
What are the half reactions for the electrolysis of LiCl(l)?
Question68
What is the cell notation for a voltaic cell with the following equation?
Pb2+(aq) + Cd(s) → Pb(s) + Cd2+(aq)
a. Pb | Pb2⁺|| Cd2⁺| Cd
b. Pb2⁺ | Pb || Cd | Cd2⁺
c. Cd | Cd2⁺|| Pb2⁺ | Pb
d. Cd | Pb2⁺|| Pb | Cd2⁺
Question69
What is the correct balanced equation for the following oxidation-reduction reaction?
Cr2O72- + C2O42- → Cr3+ + CO2
Question70
What is the overall cell reaction for the following voltaic cell?
Fe | Fe2+|| Ag+| Ag
Question71
Fill in the blank. In the reaction Cu(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 2H2O(l), copper is __________.
a. Reduced
b. Electrolyzed
c. Synthesized
d. Oxidized
Question72
b. Ac
c. Pa
d. U
Question73
Sodium is a very reactive metal. Its ion is found in table salt. While non-radioactive sodium is abundant, there exists a radioactive isotope of sodium, Sodium-24. Its half life is 15 hours. If
after 60 hours, about 6 grams remain, then what was the original mass of the sodium-24 sample?
a. 50 g
b. 40 g
c. 100 g
d. 60 g
Question74
Technetium-99 has a half-life of 6.0 hrs. What fraction of Technetium-99 in the sample will remain undecayed after 36 hours?
a. 1/8
b. 1/64
c. 1/32
d. 1/16
Question75
The half life of Colbalt-60 is 5.2 years. What happens to an aliquot of cobalt-60 after 5.2 years?
Question76
What are beta particles?
Question77
What is the amount of radioactive sample that has NOT decayed after three-half lives have elapsed?
Question78
What is the correct alternate notation for gold-197?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question79
What is the half-life of a radioactive nuclide?
a. The period of time in which 25% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay
c. The period of time in which 50% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive
Question80
Which nuclide contains 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 14 neutrons?
a. Silicon-11
b. Silicon-14
c. Sodium-11
d. Sodium-25
Question81
Which of the following best describes how the atomic number changes when a nucleus captures an electron?
Question82
Which of the following elements is the daughter nuclide for the alpha decay of polonium-212?
a. Lead-208
b. Lead-216
c. Radon-208
d. Radon-216
Question83
Which type of radiation has the most penetrating ability?
a. An alpha particle
b. A beta particle
c. A gamma ray
d. A neutron
Question84
Which of the following processes is NOT an example of a spontaneous radioactive process?
a. Alpha-decay
b. Auto ionization
c. Positron production
d. Beta-decay
Question85
Fill in the blank. CH3CH2CH2C≡CCH2CH2Cl is named __________.
a. 7-chloro-4-heptyne
b. 5-chloro-2-heptene
c. 1-acetylenenyl-3-chloropropane
d. 1-chloro-3-heptyne
Question86
How many structural isomers does butane have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Question87
How many types of alkyl groups can arise from propane?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question88
Kira was doing some organic chemistry nomenclature problem. She gave a molecule the following name: 2-Methyl-4-methylhexane. While one can correctly draw the molecule from the name
she gave, the name violates the IUPAC rules. What is the IUPAC name of the molecule?
a. 2,4-dimethylhexane
b. 3-Methyl-5-methylhexane
c. 3,5-dimethylhexane
d. 1-isopropyl-2-methylbutane
Question89
Nylon is an example of which of the following?
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question90
Teflon is an example of which of the following?
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question91
The name methanal is the IUPAC name for which of the following?
a. Acetone
b. Formaldehyde
c. Water
d. Rubbing alcohol
Question92
What is the general name given to hydrocarbons with double bonds?
a. Alkenes
b. Alkynes
c. Alkanes
d. Aromatic hydrocarbons
Question93
What is the name of the following molecule?
CH3-(CH2)7-CH3
a. Heptane
b. Hexane
c. Octane
d. Nonane
Question94
Which of the following accurately provides the generalized molecular formulas for alkanes and alkenes respectively?
Choose one answer.
Question95
Which of the following CANNOT form alkenes?
a. Methane
b. Ethane
c. Propane
Question96
Which of the following has the greatest number of C-O bonds?
a. Ketone
b. Ester
c. Alcohol
d. Amine
Question97
Which of the following has the least number of C-O bonds?
b. Alcohol
c. Ether
d. Ester
Question98
Which of the following is known as rubbing alcohol?
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question99
Which of the following is known as wood alcohol?
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question100
In a triple bond, how many electrons are shared?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
1
A certain reaction is zero order in reactant A and second order in reactant B. What happens to the reaction rate when the concentrations of both reactants are doubled?
Question2
A rate law relates which of the following?
Question3
Determine the overall balanced equation for a reaction that has the following proposed mechanism. Which of the following is the acceptable rate law?
Step 1: B2 + B2 → E3 + D slow
Step 2: E3 + A → B2 + C2 fast
a. B2 + B2 → E3 + D and R = [B2]2
c. A + B2 → C2 + D and R = [B2]2
Question4
Fill in the blank. A species that changes the rate of a reaction but is neither consumed nor changed in that reaction is a(n) ________________.
a. Catalyst
b. Activated complex
c. Intermediate
d. Reactant
Question5
If two molecules collide softly, what will most likely happen to the molecules?
a. NO2 + O → NO + O2
b. O → NO + O2
c. NO2→ NO
d. O2→ NO + 3 O2
Question7
To be effective, a collision requires which of the following?
a. Enough energy
b. Favorable orientation
c. A reaction mechanism
d. Both A and B
Question8
What is the slowest step in a reaction mechanism called?
Question9
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the energy of the activated complex also called transition state?
Choose one answer.
a. The transition state is lower than the energy of the reactants but higher than the energy of
the products.
b. The transition state is lower than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
c. The transition state is higher than the energy of the reactants but lower than the energy of
the products.
d. The transition state is higher than the energy of both the reactants and the products.
Question10
Fill in the blank. The sequence of steps that occurs in a reaction process is called the _____________.
b. Reaction mechanism
c. Overall reaction
d. Rate law
Question11
A silver chloride solution is prepared with the following ion concentrations [Ag +] = 1.0 x 10-6 M and [Cl-] = 1.0 x 10-2 M. If Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10-10, then which of the following is true?
Question12
Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte, because it does which of the following?
Question13
How can one prepare a 1.00 L of a 0.125 M H2SO4 solution?
Question14
How many grams of Na3PO4 are there in 500. mL of a 0.250 M solution of Na3PO4 (molar mass = 163.94 g/mol)?
a. 2.05 g
b. 20.5 g
c. 0.125 g
d. 0.168 g
Question15
Solution A contains 0.1 mol of sucrose, C12H22O11, dissolved in 500 g of water. Solution B contains 0.1 mol of sodium chloride, NaCl, in 500 g of water. Which of the following statements about
these solutions is true?
Question16
The solubility of AgCl is 1.22 x 10-8 mol/L. What is the value of Ksp for AgCl?
a. 1.1 x 10⁻4
b. 1.2 x 10⁻8
c. 5.7 x 10⁻2
d. 1.5 x 10⁻16
Question17
To make a water-soluble salt using the silver cation, Ag+, what anion should be chosen?
a. NO3⁻
b. CO32⁻
c. Cl⁻
d. PO43⁻
Question18
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is insoluble in water?
a. NaBr
b. NH4Cl
c. FeS
d. (NH4)2S
Question19
Use the solubility rules. Which salt is soluble in water?
a. Fe(OH)3
b. AgCl
c. CaCl2
d. BaSO4
Question20
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of nickel(II) chloride and sodium phosphate to give nickel(II) phosphate and sodium chloride?
Question21
What is the balanced, net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum sulfate with sodium hydroxide?
Question22
What is the correct expression for the solubility product constant, Ksp, for FePO4?
b. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][P5⁻][O2⁻]3
c. Ksp = [Fe3⁺][PO43⁻]
Question23
What is the molality of a 0.907 M Pb(NO3)2 solution? (Molar mass of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.252 g/mL.)
a. 0.953 m
b. 0.724 m
c. 0.907 m
d. 1.98 m
Question24
What is the molality of a solution containing 5.67 g glucose, C 6H12O6, dissolved in 25.2 g of water? (Molar mass of C6H12O6 = 180.2 g/mol.)
a. 0.00125 m
b. 0.225 m
c. 1.25 m
d. 0.762 m
Question25
What is the molarity of a 0.273 m KCl? (Molar mass of KCl = 74.6 g/mol; density of the solution = 1.011 g/L.)
a. 20.6 M
b. 1.0 M
c. 0.273 M
d. 0.271 M
Question26
What is the new concentration of a nitric acid made by diluting 50. mL of a 12.0 M solution to 250. mL?
a. 2.4 M
b. 60. M
c. 10. M
d. 24 M
Question27
What is the total concentration of ions in a 0.0360 M solution of Na3PO4?
a. 0.108 M
b. 0.144 M
c. 0.0360 M
d. 0.0720 M
Question28
What volume in mL of 0.453 M NaCl solution contains 25.0 g of NaCl (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol)?
b. 1000 mL
c. 943 mL
d. 453 mL
Question29
Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?
a. Molality
b. Vapor-pressure lowering
c. Boiling-point elevation
d. Osmotic pressure
Question30
Which one of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when dissolved in water?
a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium chloride
c. Copper sulfate
d. Sugar
Question31
A buffer is prepared by adding 45.0 mL of 0.15 M NaF to 35.0 mL of 0.10 HF. What is the pH of the final solution? The value of Ka for HF is 6.8 x 10-4.
a. 4.65
b. 2.20
c. 7.00
d. 3.45
Question32
A solution contains 0.0128 g of HCl in 450. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
a. 1.00
b. 7.00
c. 3.10
d. 10.89
Question33
A solution contains 0.384 g of KOH in 250. mL of solution. What is the pH of this solution at 25 °C?
a. 1.56
b. 12.44
c. 2.67
d. 11.33
Question34
An important component of blood is the buffer combination of dihydrogen phosphate ion and the hydrogen phosphate ion. The pH of blood is 7.44. What is the pH of blood, if 25% of the
hydrogen phosphate is converted to dihydrogen phosphate? The value of K a for H2PO4- is 6.2 x 10-2.
a. 2.90
b. 6.59
c. 7.44
d. 7.16
Question35
At 10 °C, Kw = 2.9 x 10-15. What is [OH-] in neutral water at 10 °C?
a. 4.44 x 10⁻6 M
b. 1.00 x 10⁻7 M
c. 1.70 x 10⁻7 M
d. 5.39 x 10⁻8 M
Question36
At 50 °C, Kw = 5.48 x 10-14. What is [OH-] in water of pH = 3 at 50 °C?
a. 1.00 x 10⁻3 M
b. 5.48 x 10⁻11 M
c. 5.48 x 10⁻7 M
d. 2.74 x 10⁻7 M
Question37
HC2Cl3O2 is a stronger acid than HCHO2. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
HC2Cl3O2(aq) + CHO2-(aq) → C2Cl3O2-(aq) + HCHO2(aq)
Question38
H3PO4 is a stronger acid than NH4+. What is the direction of the equilibrium of the following reaction?
NH4+(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) → NH3(aq) + H3PO4(aq)
Question39
The following solutions are mixed in equimolar portions. Will the resulting solution be acidic, basic, neutral, or is there not enough information given?
HCl(aq) + NaHCO3(aq) → ?
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
Question40
What are the products of the following acid-base reaction?
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → ?
a. H3O⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq)
b. Na⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq)
c. H2O(l) + NaCl(aq)
d. No reaction takes place.
Question41
What is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
Question42
What is a Lewis acid?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
Question43
What is a Lewis base?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
Question44
What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.15 M chloroacetic acid and 0.10 M sodium chloroacetate? The value of K a for chloroacetic acid is 1.3 x 10-3.
a. 11.3
b. 3.76
c. 2.68
d. 3.91
Question45
What is the pH of the buffer solution that consists of 0.15 M pyridine and 0.10 M pyridinium bromide? The value of K b for pyridine is 1.4 x 109.
a. 6.60
b. 3.50
c. 5.32
d. 7.00
Question46
What is the [OH-] of a 5.43 x 10-4 M solution of HNO3 at 25 °C?
a. 1.84 x 10⁻11 M
b. 5.43 x 10⁻10 M
c. 5.43 x 10⁻4 M
d. 3.67 x 10⁻8 M
Question47
What will happen to the pH a solution of NH3 by adding HCl?
Question48
Which of the following is an acid-base conjugate pair?
a. HF and F⁻
Question49
Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
Question50
What is a Brønsted-Lowry base?
a. A proton donor
b. A proton acceptor
c. A hydroxide donor
Question51
A particular voltaic cell operates on the following reaction.
Zn(s) + Cl2(g) → Zn2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq)
Given an emf of 0.853 V, calculate the maximum electrical work generated when 20.0 g of zinc metal is consumed.
a. -8.23 x 104 J
b. -1.65 x 105 J
c. -5.03 x 104 J
d. -2.51 x 104 J
Question52
A voltaic cell has the following reaction.
Zn(s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Zn2+(aq) E° = 0.72 V
What is the maximum electrical work that can be obtained from this cell per mole of iron (III) ion?
a. +69 kJ
b. -140 kJ
c. -69 kJ
d. 1.4 J
Question53
Cadmium reacts spontaneously with copper(II) ion.
Cd(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + Cu(s)
What are the half reactions for this reaction?
Question54
Calculate the emf for a cell operating with the following reaction:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 6 I-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 I2(s) + 7 H2O(l),
where [Cr2O72-] = 0.020 M, [I-] = 0.015 M, [Cr3+] = 0.20 M and [H+] = 0.50 M, using the following standard reduction potentials:
Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+(aq) + 6 e- → 2 Cr3+(aq) + 7 H2O(l) E° = +1.33 V
I2(s) + 2 e- → 2 I-(aq) E° = +0.54 V
a. +1.87 V
b. -1.87 V
c. +0.79 V
d. +0.64 V
Question55
Calculate the equilibrium constant K for the following reaction at 25 °C.
2 Fe3+(aq) + Cu(s) → 2 Fe2+(aq) + Cu2+(aq) E° = +0.43 V
a. 7.26
b. 0.43
c. 3.4 x 1014
d. 1.7 x 107
Question56
Calculate ΔG° for the following reaction at 25 °C.
3 Cu(s) + 2 NO3-(aq) + 8 H+(aq) → 3 Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO(g) + 4 H2O(l) E° = +0.62 V
Choose one answer.
a. -3.6 x 105 J
b. -6.0 x 104 J
c. 3.6 x 105 J
d. 1.2 x 105 J
Question57
Fill in the blank. When a piece of iron is left outside, it will rust. In this situation, the iron atoms are _______________.
a. Losing electrons
b. Gaining electrons
c. Staying neutral
Question58
Given the following two half reactions,
Cd2+(aq) + 2e- → Cd(s) E° = -0.40 V
2 Ag+(aq) + 2e- → 2 Ag(s) E° = 0.80 V
determine E° and the spontaneity of the following reaction:
2 Ag+(aq) + Cd(s) → 2 Ag(s) + Cd2+(aq)
Question59
Given the two following half reactions,
Cl2(g) + 2e- → 2 Cl-(aq) E° = +1.36 V
I2(g) + 2e- → 2 I-(s) E° = +0.54 V
calculate ΔG° for the following reaction:
2 I-(aq) + Cl2(g) → 2 Cl-(aq) + I2(s).
a. -1.6 kJ
b. -7.9 x 104 J
c. -1.6 x 105 J
d. -79 kJ
Question60
Given the two following half reactions,
Sn2+(aq) + 2e- → Sn(s) E° = -0.14 V
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s) E° = +0.34 V
calculate the standard emf for the following reaction:
Sn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Sn2+(aq) + Cu(s).
a. 0.96 V
b. -0.48 V
c. +0.20 V
d. 0.48 V
Question61
Given the two following half reactions,
Cr3+(aq) + 3e- → Cr(s) E° = -0.74 V
Hg22+(aq) + 2e- → Hg(l) E° = +0.80 V
calculate the standard emf for the following cell:
Cr | Cr3+|| Hg22+| Hg
a. -0.06 V
b. -1.54 V
c. +1.54 V
d. +0.06 V
Question62
How many coulombs of charge are required to form 1.00 pound of Al(s) from an Al 3+ salt?
a. 4.87 x 106
b. 50.5
c. 1.62 x 106
d. 454
Question63
If we wish to convert 1.00 g of Au3+(aq) ion into Au(s) in a "gold-plating" process, how long must we electrolyze a solution if the current passing through the circuit is 2.00 amps?
a. 245 sec
b. 0.50 sec
c. 0.015 sec
d. 735 sec
Question64
Of the following four reactions, how many are oxidation-reduction reactions?
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Cu + 2 AgNO3 → 2 Ag + Cu(NO3)2
Mg(OH)2 → MgO + H2O
N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question65
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+| Ni has an E° of 0.170 V. If the standard reduction potential of Ni 2+/Ni is E° = -0.23 V, what is the standard reduction potential for Cd2+/Cd?
a. +0.06 V
b. -0.06 V
c. -0.40 V
d. +0.40 V
Question66
The voltaic cell Cd | Cd2+|| Ni2+ (1.0M)| Ni has an electromotive force of 0.240 V at 25 °C. What is the concentration of cadmium ion? (Please note that E° = 0.170 V.)
a. 0.06 M
b. 0.04 M
c. 0.004 M
d. 1.0 M
Question67
What are the half reactions for the electrolysis of LiCl(l)?
Question68
What is the cell notation for a voltaic cell with the following equation?
Pb2+(aq) + Cd(s) → Pb(s) + Cd2+(aq)
a. Pb | Pb2⁺|| Cd2⁺| Cd
b. Pb2⁺ | Pb || Cd | Cd2⁺
c. Cd | Cd2⁺|| Pb2⁺ | Pb
d. Cd | Pb2⁺|| Pb | Cd2⁺
Question69
What is the correct balanced equation for the following oxidation-reduction reaction?
Cr2O72- + C2O42- → Cr3+ + CO2
Question70
What is the overall cell reaction for the following voltaic cell?
Fe | Fe2+|| Ag+| Ag
Question71
Fill in the blank. In the reaction Cu(s) + 4HNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2(g) + 2H2O(l), copper is __________.
a. Reduced
b. Electrolyzed
c. Synthesized
d. Oxidized
Question72
a. Ra
b. Ac
c. Pa
d. U
Question73
Sodium is a very reactive metal. Its ion is found in table salt. While non-radioactive sodium is abundant, there exists a radioactive isotope of sodium, Sodium-24. Its half life is 15 hours. If
after 60 hours, about 6 grams remain, then what was the original mass of the sodium-24 sample?
a. 50 g
b. 40 g
c. 100 g
d. 60 g
Question74
Technetium-99 has a half-life of 6.0 hrs. What fraction of Technetium-99 in the sample will remain undecayed after 36 hours?
a. 1/8
b. 1/64
c. 1/32
d. 1/16
Question75
The half life of Colbalt-60 is 5.2 years. What happens to an aliquot of cobalt-60 after 5.2 years?
Question76
What are beta particles?
Question77
What is the amount of radioactive sample that has NOT decayed after three-half lives have elapsed?
Question78
What is the correct alternate notation for gold-197?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Question79
What is the half-life of a radioactive nuclide?
a. The period of time in which 25% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay
c. The period of time in which 50% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive
Question80
Which nuclide contains 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 14 neutrons?
a. Silicon-11
b. Silicon-14
c. Sodium-11
d. Sodium-25
Question81
Which of the following best describes how the atomic number changes when a nucleus captures an electron?
c. It will not change, because the electron has such a small mass.
Question82
Which of the following elements is the daughter nuclide for the alpha decay of polonium-212?
a. Lead-208
b. Lead-216
c. Radon-208
d. Radon-216
Question83
Which type of radiation has the most penetrating ability?
a. An alpha particle
b. A beta particle
c. A gamma ray
d. A neutron
Question84
Which of the following processes is NOT an example of a spontaneous radioactive process?
a. Alpha-decay
b. Auto ionization
c. Positron production
d. Beta-decay
Question85
Fill in the blank. CH3CH2CH2C≡CCH2CH2Cl is named __________.
a. 7-chloro-4-heptyne
b. 5-chloro-2-heptene
c. 1-acetylenenyl-3-chloropropane
d. 1-chloro-3-heptyne
Question86
How many structural isomers does butane have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Question87
How many types of alkyl groups can arise from propane?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Question88
Kira was doing some organic chemistry nomenclature problem. She gave a molecule the following name: 2-Methyl-4-methylhexane. While one can correctly draw the molecule from the name
she gave, the name violates the IUPAC rules. What is the IUPAC name of the molecule?
a. 2,4-dimethylhexane
b. 3-Methyl-5-methylhexane
c. 3,5-dimethylhexane
d. 1-isopropyl-2-methylbutane
Question89
Nylon is an example of which of the following?
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question90
Teflon is an example of which of the following?
a. Copolymer
b. Homopolymer
c. Dimer
Question91
The name methanal is the IUPAC name for which of the following?
a. Acetone
b. Formaldehyde
c. Water
d. Rubbing alcohol
Question92
What is the general name given to hydrocarbons with double bonds?
a. Alkenes
b. Alkynes
c. Alkanes
d. Aromatic hydrocarbons
Question93
What is the name of the following molecule?
CH3-(CH2)7-CH3
b. Hexane
c. Octane
d. Nonane
Question94
Which of the following accurately provides the generalized molecular formulas for alkanes and alkenes respectively?
Question95
Which of the following CANNOT form alkenes?
a. Methane
b. Ethane
c. Propane
Question96
Which of the following has the greatest number of C-O bonds?
a. Ketone
b. Ester
c. Alcohol
d. Amine
Question97
Which of the following has the least number of C-O bonds?
a. Ketone
b. Alcohol
c. Ether
d. Ester
Question98
Which of the following is known as rubbing alcohol?
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question99
Which of the following is known as wood alcohol?
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Isopropanol
Question100
In a triple bond, how many electrons are shared?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6