Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Microbiology & Parasitology
Microbiology & Parasitology
1. Many of this type of bacteria do not possess superoxide dismutase and catalase
A. obligate aerobes
B. obligate anaerobes
C. facultative anaerobes
D. microaerophiles
p. 66
2. It is the period when the bacterium is assessing the nutrients present in medium; the
bacterium does not divide but there is an intense metabolic activity. The phase of
bacterial growth is
A. Lag
B. Log
C. Stationary
D. Decline
p. 53
p. 60
4. These are groups of genes that are clustered together in the DNA of some bacterial
species and which may enable them to invade a host
A. Pathogenicity island
B. Episomes
C. Transposons
D. Replicons
p. 98
p. 99
p. 106
1
7. What is the substance primarily responsible for the structural integrity of the bacterial
cell wall and is susceptible to lysozyme?
A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Teichoic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Lipopolysaccharide
p. 22
8. A hospitalized patient with dysuria and suprapubic pain is treated with ciprofloxacin.
What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?
A. It inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B. It inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
C. It inhibits protein subunits by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
D. It inhibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase)
p. 164
p. 98
p. 199
11. Which of the following is the true regarding the bacterial cell?
A. He motility of bacteria is due to flagella, axial filaments or cilia
B. The ability to colonize cell surfaces is dependent on toxic production
C. The ability to survive in soil for a long period of time is dependent on
the production of endospores
D. It has the same ribosomes as that of a eukaryotic cells
p. 35
p. 17
p. 2
2
14. Most pathogenic microorganism grow best at the temperature range of about _____.
A. 15-20ºC
B. 30-37ºC
C. 50-60ºC
D. 80-100ºC
p. 65
15. A 22-year-old woman came in due to meningococcemia. Few hours after the admission,
the patient experienced disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The patient
shock was due to what component of the causative agent?
A. Cell wall
B. Capsule
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Endospores
pp. 155-156
16. Which one of the following antimicrobial agents acts on microorganisms by inhibiting
nucleic acid synthesis?
A. Streptomycin
B. Cefalexin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Erythromycin
p. 189
17. A newborn was diagnosed with neonatal meningitis. The causative agent was found out
to be isolated in the vagina of the mother. Which one of the following microorganisms
can be a part of the normal vaginal flora of the mother and can cause neonatal
meningitis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
p. 199
18. Which of the following is the “C3 activation unit” in the classical complement pathway?
A. C1q
B. C3
C. C4b, C2a
D. C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9
p. 136
p. 136
3
20. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cell must express which one of the
following on their surfaces?
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Class II MHC antigens
p. 139
21. Increased susceptibility with Hepatitis virus and Candida albicans would be expected
with a deficiency of which of the following cells?
A. PMN
B. Eosinophils
C. B cells
D. T cells
p. 138
p. 140
p. 141
p. 129
4
27. Which method will you see to detect antigens directly from tissue?
A. ELISA
B. Ouchterlony technic
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Complement fixation
p. 142
p. 128
29. Which of the following complement cascade does not involve C3b?
A. C5 convertase of the alternative pathway
B. C5 convertase of the classic pathway
C. C3 convertase of the alternative pathway
D. C3 convertase of the classic pathway
p. 136
30. Which of the following cells is a part of the innate immune response?
A. B-lymphocytes
B. T-helper lymphocytes
C. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
p. 123
p. 253
32. Which of the following is true about cholera and its causative agent?
A. A secretory diarrhea due to increases in cGMP in the intestinal cells
B. The stool is described as ‘rice water-like’
C. The causative agent is non-motile, nonfermentative
D. Grows poorly in medium with alkaline pH
p. 271
p. 332
5
34. A 4-year old Asian child develops an infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. How does
infection with this organism cause blindness?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Cataract formation
C. Hemorrhage of the anterior chamber
D. Scarring of the cornea
p.360
p.364
p. 345
37. The only disease that can be diagnosed by demonstration of spirochetes in peripheral
blood smear
A. Relapsing fever
B. Leptopirosis
C. Pinta
D. Lyme disease
p. 335
p.275
p. 259
6
40. Which causes urinary tract infection characterized by alkaline urine and formation of
urinary calculi?
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Enterobacter cloacae
p. 254
41. Which is LEAST acceptable as specimen for the diagnosis of anaerobic infection
A. Transtracheal aspirate
B. Suprapubic aspirate
C. Vaginal swab
D. Sample of tissue from infected site
p. 309
42. Which of the following microorganisms takes up the color of Crystal violet upon properly
performed Gram staining?
A. Neisseria gonorrheae
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas sp.
p. 208
p. 215
p. 283
p. 407
p. 215
7
47. Which of the following is MOST likely acquired from caves?
A. Blastomycosis
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D. Paracoccidioidomycosis
p. 642
p. 634
p. 635
p. 636
p. 642
52. The physician closely monitored the patient’s serum creatinine and ion levels. The
patient is taking certain anti-fungal drug. What possible antifungal agent may affect the
renal function of this patient?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Terbinafine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Amphotericin B
p. 653
p. 487
8
54. Which of the following properties of polioviruses is not shared by rhinovirus?
A. Icosahedral symmetry
B. Resistance to lipid solvents
C. Naked virus
D. Stability at acid pH (pH3.0)
p. 489
pp. 505-507
p. 568
pp. 598-599
58. Which of the following individuals may be at increased risk of acquiring and
HIV infection?
A. A pregnant mother with a seafarers husband
B. A secretary at an AIDS institute
C. A doctor with a colleague that is HIV positive
D. A male celebrity who has multiple sexual partner including a prostitute
pp. 616-617
p. 601
pp. 597-599
9
61. Which of the following virus that can enter a skin through abrasions?
A. Adenovirus
B. Polyomavirus
C. Papillomavirus
D. Rhinovirus
p. 599
62. A 6-year old child had recently had fifth disease. Her 43-year old mother subsequently
developed a rash and arthalgia. Which one of the following best describes the causative
agent?
A. It has the same size as poxvirus
B. It has a helical symmetry
C. Inactivated by ether
D. A single-stranded DNA genome
pp. 414-416
p. 605
p. 466
67. A 23-year-old medical student experienced fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy.
These were accompanied by lymphocytosis and atypical cells in the blood smear. True
statement regarding the causative agent
A. the major target cell of the virus is the T lymphocyte
B. the agent multiplies in the cytoplasm
C. it can be transmitted thru direct contact with the lesion
D. it possess a double-stranded DNA genome
p. 429
10
68. The following hepatitis B marker is indicative of active viral replication
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. Anti- HBs
D. Anti- HBe
p. 468
p. 104
pp. 103-104
pp. 108-109
p. 215
73. Tissue invasion is relatively slow and tends to stimulate granuloma formation
A. Acanthamoeba castellanii
B. Balantidium coli
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Naegleria fowleri
p. 142
p. 164
11
75. There is secondary exo-erythrocytic phase in
A. Benign tertian malaria
B. Malignant tertian malaria
C. Quartan malaria
D. Sub-tertian malaria
p. 177
pp. 184-191
pp. 188-190
p. 243
79. Bachman intradermal test & Xenodiagnosis are use for the diagnosis of infection cause
by
A. Capillaria philippinensis
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Trchuris trichiura
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
p. 239
80. The most common cause of Greeping Eruption or Cutaneous Larva Migran
A. Ancytostoma braziliense
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. toxocara canis
p. 281
p. 325
12
82. Produces autoinfection to man
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Necator americanus
D. Strongyloides stercolaris
p. 256
p. 284
p. 304
85. Graham Scotch tape technique is used for the diagnosis of the infection caused by
A. A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Necator americanus
D. Trichuris trichiura
p. 305
p. 284
p. 317
p. 465
13
89. What parasite is associated with neoplasm of the biliary duct or cancer of the liver?
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Opisthorchis felineus
D. Paragonimus westermani
p. 477
pp. 467-468
p. 417
p. 416
93. Laboratory procedure that makes use of the egg in the test is
A. CFT
B. CHR
C. COPT
D. Casoni test
p. 770
94. The infective of Diphyllobothrium latum to man to produce adult infection is the
A. Cysticercoid larva
B. Cysticercus larva
C. Procercoid larva
D. Sparganum larva
p. 497
p. 518
14
96. Lateral uterine branches in gravid proglottid are counted for diagnosis of infection cause
by
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Teania saginata
p. 522
p. 521
98. Ultrasound and MRI usually help in the diagnosis of the infection cause by
A. Dipylidium caninum
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Hymenolepis diminuta
D. Hymenolepis nan
p. 532
99. This organism produces a blue-green pigment and therefore produces a characteristic
blue-green pus.
A. Staph aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Strep. pyogenes
100. Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct
EXCEPT:
A. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
B. Polysaccharides capsules retard phagocytosis
C. Both gram negative rods and cocci have polysaccharides (endotoxin in their
cell wall)
D. Bacterial flagella are not antigenic in humans
101. The most common site of asymptomatic gonococcal infection in women is the:
A. Vagina
B. Myometrium
C. Urethra
D. Endocervix
15
The columnar epithelial cells here are the ones that are being infected by N.
gonorrhea.(A). Vaginal walls composed of stratified squamous epithelial cells
which are not colonized. (B) and (C) are not affected.
Reference: Zinsser p. 456
102. The following etiologic agents are known to cause diarrhea EXCEPT:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Rotavirus
C. V. cholera
D. Proteus vulgaris
103. A 20 year old male developed a carbuncle with surrounding cellulitis. Gram stain
revealed gram positive cocci, catalase and coagulase positive. Which of the following
antibiotics is initially appropriate for this patient?
A. Vancomycin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Cefriaxone
D. Penicillin
104. Which of the following features help distinguish group A streptococcus from other
streptococcal species?
A. Bacitracin susceptibility
B. Bile solubility
C. Optochin sensitivity
D. Growth inhibition in 6.5 % NaCl
16
106. This gram positive rod is usually associated with bacterial vaginosis producing
malodorous vaginal discharge and "clue cells"
A. Erysipelothrix rhusopathiae
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Gardenella vaginalis
D. Propionibacterium acnes
107. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of the intestinal
mucosa.
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Shigella sonnei
C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
D. Clostridium botulinum
Shigella sonnei is the only invasive, presence of blood and mucus in the
stool. Clostridium botilinum , V. cholera and Enterotoxigenic E. coli causes
diarrhea by producing enterotoxin
Reference: Zinsser p. 561
108. Food poisoning that produces gastrointestinal symptoms approximately 1-2 hours after
eating is most likely to be due to:
A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Staph. aureus
109. A 30 year old pregnant woman had a normal delivery but the fetus was stillborn. CSF
examination showed positive rods. The pathogen is most likely:
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gardenerella vaginalis
C. Group B Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
17
110. Which of these organisms is a major pathogen for nosocomial infections because of its
ubiquitous present in the hospital environment?
A. Staph. Aureus
B. Staph. Epidermidis
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
111. An individual experiences severe diarrhea after eating sushi (raw fish) in a West Coast
restaurant. The most probable etiologic agent is:
A. Yersenia enterocolitica
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
112. When symptoms to typhoid fever first become apparent, Salmonella typhi is most
frequently isolated from:
A. Feces
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. Bone marrow
Blood - on the first week of infection, Feces - second week. Urine - third
week.
Reference: Zinsser p. 563
113. The area in the body where Salmonella typhi resides if one is a chronic carrier
A. small intestine
B. kidney
C. blood stream
D. gall bladder
Gall bladder - where organisms are found and are excreted in the stool and
urine of the chronic carrier of Salmonella.
Reference: Zinsser p. 562
114. A 3 year old boy was diagnose to have meningitis CSF culture on Chocolate agar
showed growth of small gram negative rods. The most probable etiologic agent is:
A. N. meningitides
B. S. aureus
C. Group B Streptococcus
D. H. influenzae type b
18
115. Among the gram negative rods producing gastroenteritis, the most infectious is:
A. V. cholera
B. E. coli (0157)
C. Sal. Typhimurium
D. Shig. Dysenteriae type 1
Shigella - only 200 cells is enough to cause diarrhea while A-C you need to
10 3 - 10 5 cells to produce infection.
Reference: Tortora et al
Pneumococci does not produce toxins and enzymes. Capsules are virulence
factors which interfere with phagocytosis and favoring invasiveness.
Reference: Zinsser p. 435
118. Lyme disease is an endemic inflammatory disorder with this distinctive skin disorder.
A. Chronic dermatitis
B. erythema marginatum
C. erythema chronicum migrans
D. ecthyma gangrenosum
119. Serology in the diagnosis of Syphilis using a non-treponemal tests is the following
EXCEPT:
A. Microhemagglutination assay
B. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory
C. Fluorescent Antibody Tests
D. Reiter Protein Complement Fixation
19
120. Mycoplasmas are very pleomorphic and cannot be classified as to shape because they
lack the following:
A. Peptidoglycan
B. lipid bilayer
C. nucleus
D. lipopolysaccharide
Cultures can detect small numbers of organism in the original sample. The
presence of Acid-fast organism on Ziehl Neelsen cannot distinguish on
morphologic groups M. tuberculosis from the other mycobacteria that are
saprophytic. Nucleic acid amplification utilizes enzymes that rapidly IGS
ribosomal RNA which can be used for patients with positive smears and while
culture results are pending.
Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review for Microbiology p. 251
122. Rifamficin a broad antimicrobial agent is effective treatment for tuberculosis by:
A. selective inhibition of the biosynthesis of the arabinogalactan and lipo-
arabinomannan
B. mediating drug permeability and efflux
C. Inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis by blocking action of D-alanise synthesis
D. binding to RNA polymerase thereby interfering with mRNA synthesis
123. In primary disease, M. tuberculosis survives and grows within these host cells
A. macrophages
B. basophils
C. neutrophils
D. eosinophils
124. Members of the genus Rickettsia are morphologically & biochemically similar to
A. gram-positive bacteria
B. gram negative bacteria
C. clostridia
D. viruses
20
Rickettsias are short-rod shaped or cocci bacillary organisms measuring 0.8
to 2.0 um long
Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review of Microbiology p. 259
The hallmark of viral infection of the cell is the cytopathic effect. This change
begin with a rounding and darkening of the cell and culminates in either lysis
or giant cell formation. Infected cells frequently contain inclusion bodies
which are discrete areas containing viral particles.
Reference: Zinsser p. 943
The Dane particle is the complete form of Hepatitis B whereas the antigens
are subunit forms of the surface and core of the virus.
Reference: Zinsser p. 1040
128. In their multiplication, they produce DNA which is integrated into the cell genome.
A. Hepadnavirus
B. Reovirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Herpesvirus
21
130. Smallpox was eradicated by the global use of vaccine which contains:
A. killed virus
B. attenuated live virus
C. preformed antibodies
D. preformed antibodies and live attenuated virus
131. The most important laboratory test for the detection of early Hepatitis B virus infection is:
A. immunoassay for HBsAg
B. immunoassay for HBeAg
C. immunoassay for Anti HBc
D. immunoassay for Anti HBs
133. The virus that is increasingly being recognized as cause of nonbacterial infant diarrhea
A. Retrovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Orbivirus
D. Calicivirus
134. In the laboratory this protein from Influenza virus agglutinates red blood cells whereas in
vivo, it binds to the surface receptor of the host cell to initiate infection.
A. Hemagglutinin
B. Neuramidase
C. Hemolysin
D. capsid antigen
22
neuramic acid (sialic acid) to release progeny virus from the infected cell.
Hemolysin is from bacterial cells and causes hemolysis of RBC.
Reference: Zinsser p. 778
135. In the prevention of poliomyeletis, the use of oral vaccine is preferred because:
A. induces intestinal IgA
B. induces humoral IgG
C. can produce lifelong immunity
D. can produce immunity to unimmunized adults
136. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease characterized by versicular rash on the hands and feet
and ulcerations in the mouth, mainly in children is caused by:
A. Echovirus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Coxsackie virus Group A
D. Coxsackie virus Group B
139. A 45 year old post kidney transplant patient develop fever and pneumonia with
marked neutropenia. Bronchial washing show dichotomously branching filamentous
fungi. The fungi involved is:
A. sprorothrix
B. cryptococcus
C. candida
D. aspergillus
23
In immunocompromised patient, inhalation of spores of Aspergillus can lead
to pneumonia and are seen as dichotomous branching hyphae
(filamentous).
Reference: Zinsser p. 1127
140. In a 7 year old malnourished boy with multiple nematode infections, the most severe
complication will come from:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Necator americanus
D. Enterobius vermicularis
141. Loeffler’s syndrome can be seen in the following parasitic infections EXCEPT:
A. Ascariasis
B. Strongyloidiasis
C. Necatoriasis
D. Trichuriasis
Man gets H. nana infection by ingesting the eggs directly. All other cestodes
require an intermediate host
Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 192
A more dangerous sequence can occurs when a person ingests the egg of
Taenia solium in contaminated food or water rather than eating raw or
undercooked pork containing the larva cystercus. Cysticercoid larva pertains
to D. caninum and H. nana. Procercoid larva is for D. latum. The ingested
egg hatch in the small intestines and the oncopheres burrow through the wall
into a blood vessel, where they can disseminate to many organs. This
condition is called cysticercosis.
Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 207
24
144. The infective stage to man of Necator americanus is:
A. rhabditiform larva
B. filariform larvae
C. embryonated egg
D. Microfilaria
145. This cestode possess a quadrate scolex with 4 circular suckers and no rostellum or
hooklets:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Taenia saginata
D. Echinococcus granulosus
Spread of amoeba from the large intestines is by the portal vein and deposit
on the right posterosuperior lobe
Reference: Chatterjee p. 25
147. Little Joey was frequently sick of various infectious diseases. He was found to have low
CD4+ lymphocytes titers. Which of the following immune response processes would still
be functional in Joey’s body?
A. T cell help for B lymphocytes
B. Recognition of peptide-MHC complex
C. Phagocytic function for foreign molecules
D. T-dependent antigen recognition
25
149. A killed virus is the major component of the vaccine against this pathogenic organism.
A. measles
B. rubella
C. mumps
D. rabies
Measles, rubella, mumps vaccines contain living but attenuated virus (also for
chickenpox, Sabin polio) Rabies vaccine (also for Hep A, Salk polio,
influenza) contain killed or inactivated viruses. Hep B vaccine contains
antigenic fragments of the virus usually using recombinant technology (yeast-
derived). Subunit vaccines are also used as in pertussis. Tetanus and
diphtheria utilize toxoids which are inactivated toxins or antitoxins, antibodies
against these. H. influenzae type b vaccine is conjugated to a protein which
can be a diphtheria toxoid.
Reference: Tortora p. 502
150. Alkaline pH in urine seen in Proteus is due to its ability to split urea into:
A. NH3 & C02
B. Cl & Ca
C. Ca & Mg
D. Na & Cl
Answer: A (pp.208)
Answer: C (pp.208)
Answer: B (p 209)
153. Initial recognition event for the activation of the alternative pathway
A. C3b
B. C1
C. C4
D. Factor D
Answer: A (p 108)
154. The characteristic morphologic feature of influenza responsible for antigenic changes of
the virus
A. Envelope
B. segmented genome
C. capsid
D. nucleic acid
Answer: B (p 320)
26
155. Replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell
A. Adenovirus
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Poxviruses
D. HIV
Answer: C (p332)
156. The exudative lung parenchymal lesion with lympadenopathy in primary tuberculosis
infection is called
A. tuberculosis
B. granuloma
C. ghon complex
D. fibrotic lesion
Answer: C (p278)
Answer: B (p376)
158. An 18 year old college student developed fever followed by jaundice. Acute viral
hepatitis was entertained. Results of the hepatitis profile are as follows: anti-HAV IgM
(-), anti-HbsAg (-), anti-HBc IgM (+), anti-HBc IgG negative. He most probably has:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis E
Answer: B ( p 410)
159. A 21 y/o male with history of sexual contact 4 days ago resents with painful urination
and purulent penile discharge. Which of the following is most likely?
A. primary syphilis
B. genital herpes
C. gonorrhea
D. lymphogranuloma venerum
Answer: C (p259)
160. A 1 and half y/o boy developed fever, coryza and cough followed 4 days later by
maculopapular rashes starting from the hairline and becoming generalized. Fever
persisted. The most likely etiology is a/an
A. RNA virus
B. DNA virus
C. gram positive coccus
D. gram negative bacillus
Answer: A ( p 470)
27
161. A neonate is born with the following features: microcephaly, jaundice, poor suck and
chorioretinitis. A congenital infection is entertained. The most common congenital
infection is due to:
A. Chlamydia
B. HIV
C. CMV
D. HSV
Answer: C ( p 382)
162. A 2 month old girl was brought to you because of milk curd-like lesions in the mouth
noted for a week. The whitish lesions were adherent to the oral mucosa with pinpoint
bleeding when the mother tried to remove them. This is caused by
A. herpes simplex 1
B. Coxsackie A
C. albicans
D. neoformans
Answer: C ( p 550)
163. A 23 y/o office worker found out that his sexual partner had HIV infection. The screening
procedure of choice for HIV infection is
A. PCR
B. HIV Elisa
C. western blot
D. northern blot
Answer: B (p 525)
164. A 6 month old baby has acute watery diarrhea. Which of the following is the most
common cause of diarrhea in this age group?
A. ETEC
B. Rotavirus
C. EPEC
D. V. cholerae
Answer: B ( p434)
165. A health worker who did not receive prior mumps vaccine developed parotid swelling
and fever. The following belongs to the same virus family as mumps virus
A. A. german measles
B. RSV
C. Influenza
D. Japanese B virus
Answer: B ( p 471)
166. A 25 yr old saleslady developed high fever, chills and cough. On PE she had crackling
rales on the right lung base. The diagnosis is pneumonia. The most common bacterial
cause of this condition in this age group is:
A. S. aureus
B. N. meningitidis
C. S. pneumoniae
D. Hemophilus influenzae
Answer: C ( p 213)
28
167. Infection with this organism is the most common risk factor for cervical CA
A. HIV
B. N. gonorrhea
C. HPV
D. HSV 2
Answer: C ( p512)
Answer: C ( p 219)
169. Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to monitor response to treatment in
syphilis?
A. FTA-ABS
B. VDRL
C. Darkfield microscopy
D. ELISA
Answer: B ( p 287)
Answer: B ( p 552)
Answer: B (p256)
Answer: B (p.199)
173. Toxic shock syndrome secondary to Staphylococcus tend to commonly cause infection
among
A. tampon users
B. asthamtics
C. IV drug users
D. infants
Answer: A (p 201)
29
174. A 14 year old male has high fever for a week, tonsillitis, hepatosplenomegaly and
cervical lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows 10% atypical lymphocytes. The
most likely diagnosis is:
A. Streptococcal sore throat
B. leukemia
C. infectious mononucleosis
D. diphtheria
Answer: C (p 386)
Answer: B (p 210)
176. Which of the following, when positive, indicates an acute Epstein-Barr virus infection?
A. anti-EBNA
B. anti-VCA IgG
C. anti-VCA IgM
D. anti-EBV DNA
Answer: C (p 388)
Answer: C (p 452)
Answer: D ( p 452)
180. A 1 year old girl has high fever for four days, coryza, hacking cough and poor
appetite. On PE, she has congested pharynx and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of
this condition
A. is a DNA virus
B. has three serotypes
C. belongs to the paramyxovirus family
D. has double-stranded RNA
Answer: C ( P482)
30
181. Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable?
A. cytomegalic inclusion disease
B. German measles
C. Dengue fever
D. Hepatitis C
Answer: B ( p 485)
182. A 20 year old male developed fever, vomiting and poor appetite for four days
followed by jaundice. A diagnosis of viral hepatitis is entertained. The results
of the hepatitis profile are as follows: positive anti-HAV IgM, negative anti-
HBsAg, positive HBsAg, negative anti-HBc IgM. Which is correct?
A. The patient has acute Hepatitis A and is most likely a Hepatitis B carrier
B. He has acute Hepatitis B
C. He has acute Hepatitis C
D. He does not have acute viral hepatitis
Answer: A ( p 411)
Answer: C ( p 415)
Answer: D ( p 408)
185. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) is caused by an agent which
has the following characteristic
A. double-stranded DNA
B. single-stranded RNA
C. double-stranded RNA
D. does not contain nucleic acid
Answer: D ( p 500)
186. Human influenza virus which undergoes antigenic shift and can cause pandemics
A. influenza A
B. influenza B
C. influenza C
D. highly-pathogenic avian flu
Answer: A (p 463)
31
187. Fetal hydrops is a prominent complication of maternal infection with
A. rubella
B. parvovirus B19
C. measles
D. cytomegalovirus
Answer: B ( p 357)
188. An 8 month old girl developed high fever for three days but was otherwise playful. On
the fourth day, fever was gone but she had maculopapular rashes on the face
which rapidly spread all over the body. This common disease is caused by
A. measles virus
B. human herpesvirus 6
C. parvovirus B19
D. rubella virus
Answer: B ( p389)
189. A 22 year old sex care worker wanted to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV). What test would you initially recommend?
A. Western blot
B. HIV Elisa
C. CD4:CD8 ratio
D. VDRL
Answer: B ( p 526)
190. HIV infection causes the ratio of CD4 to CD8 T cell ratio to fall. CD4 T cells are also
called
A. T cytotoxic cells
B. cytolytic T cells
C. T helper cells
D. suppressor T cells
Answer: C (p 521)
Answer: A (p 116)
192. A one and a half year old boy has recurrent bacterial pneumonia and middle ear
infection. An antibody deficiency is entertained. Antibodies are produced in large
quantities by
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. plasma cells
D. mast cells
Answer: C (p 125)
32
193. Immunoglobulins aid phagocytosis because they can bind to phagocytes via
A. Fab receptors
B. Fc receptors
C. CD4 receptors
D. C3b receptors
Answer: B ( p 125)
Answer: B (p 378)
Answer: B ( p 386)
196. A 1 year old infant had exposure to a caregiver with cavitary tuberculosis. Chest
x-ray was negative. Mantoux test done showed induration of 12 mm after 2 days.
The Mantoux tuberculin test result is an example of
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. delayed-type hypersensitivity
D. Arthus reaction
Answer: C ( p 130)
Answer: C ( p25)
198. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a late complication of infection with this virus
A. Varicella
B. Rubeola
C. West Nile virus
D. poliovirus
Answer: B ( p483)
33
199. A newborn presents with lethargy, purpura, chorioretinitis and pulmonary infiltrates.
Which of the following could be a cause of this syndrome?
A. Amebiasis
B. Candidiasis
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Human papillomavirus
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz.,23rd edition, page 445
200. Which one of the following is a subcellular structure that is found only in Gram negative
bacteria?
A. endospores
B. lipopolysaccharide
C. mitochondria
D. phosphatidylethanolamine
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 28
201. Which one of the following statements best describes a function of the peptidoglycan
layer in bacteria?
A. The ability of bacteria to survive changes in the osmolarity of their
environment is due to the physical properties of the peptidoglycan
layer.
B. The peptidoglycan layer contains all the enzymes responsible for the
synthesis of membrane phospholipids.
C. The peptidoglycan layer protects bacteria from the effects of ultraviolet
light.
D. The peptidolgycan layer renders Gram negative bacteria resistant to
detergents.
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 22
202. 4. Which one of the following structures is responsible for the passage of low molecular
weight solutes through the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria?
A. capsules
B. endospores
C. flagella
D. porins
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 27
203. Your patient, suffering from a bacterial infection, receives a penicillin injection and
almost immediately experiences respiratory distress and loses consciousness. This
reaction is MOST LIKELY mediated by
A. complement.
B. CD8+ cytolytic T cells.
C. macrophages.
D. mast cells.
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 140
34
204. Which one of these statements explains the origin of Rh antibodies in the blood of an
Rh-negative mother?
A. They are naturally occurring in the blood of all Rh-negative persons.
B. They are received through mis-matched blood transfusions.
C. They are synthesized by the mother in response to Rh-positive cells
from her first child.
D. They are transferred from the Rh-positive father during intercourse.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 135
205. Which one of the following bacterial pathogens requires selective culture conditions for
reliable isolation from the stool, including media with antibiotics and incubation at 42 C
in increased CO2?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella sp.
D. Shigella sp.
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 273
206. 11. Which one of the following is considered facultatively intracellular for human
macrophages?
A. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sp.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 258
207. A 20-year-old female presents with severe pelvic pain, fever, nausea and vomiting. She
was on the second day of her menstrual cycle. A purulent cervical discharge was
detected upon physical examination. Oxidase positive, Gram-negative diplococci were
isolated on Thayer Martin agar from the endocervical swab. What is the MOST LIKELY
identity of this organism?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
208. A large outbreak of food poisoning occurred at a company picnic. Eighty people
reported explosive vomiting and diarrhea within 3 hours after eating. All of the victims
recovered within 24 hours without medical intervention. No known bacterial or viral
pathogens were isolated from the stool of affected individuals. A survey of the food
eaten at the picnic suggested that potato salad was the common source of the
poisoning. The individual who prepared the salad had a sty on her left eye. Which one
of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of this outbreak?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
35
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 223
209. Gram-positive cocci and polymorphonuclear leukocytes are observed on Gram stain of
sputum from a 60-year old alcoholic with pneumonia. Culture of the sputum reveals
alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative bacteria. Which one of the following laboratory tests
is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism?
A. bacitracin sensitivity test
B. beta-lactamase production test
C. ELEK test
D. bile solubility test
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 236
210. A 19-year old female is admitted to an outpatient clinic with suprapubic pain, dysuria
and an urgency to urinate frequently. She is otherwise healthy. A clean catch midstream
urine specimen was collected and sent to the laboratory. Numerous neutrophils are
detected in the urine sample. The bacteriology laboratory reports that less than 102
Gram-positive cocci and greater than 105 Gram-negative bacilli were recovered per
milliliter of urine. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 252
211. A 40-year old male hog farmer complains of intermittent fever, night sweats and
headaches to his physician. The patient is hospitalized and blood and bone marrow
specimens are collected. The physician requests that the laboratory incubate the
cultures for at least 6 weeks. Nine days after admission, Gram negative coccobacilli that
require increased CO2 for growth are isolated from the blood and bone marrow
cultures. The patient is most likely to be suffering from which one of the following
diseases?
A. Brucellosis
B. Bubonic plague
C. Legionnaire’s disease
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 284
212. Which one of the following diseases is most likely to respond favorably to treatment with
a -lactam antibiotic?
A. Legionellosis
B. Mycoplasmosis
C. Syphilis
D. Trachoma
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 334
36
213. A 20-year old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an irritating vaginal discharge.
Upon examination, you find that the cervix and vaginal walls appear normal. The
discharge is thin and milky, pH 5.5, and has a fishy odor when treated with potassium
hydroxide. You are unable to detect pseudohyphae, buds, or flagellates upon
microscopic examination. A Gram stain reveals numerous curved Gram-negative rods,
epithelial cells, and clue cells, but relatively few Gram-positive rods or WBCs. Cervical
and vaginal cultures are negative for STDs. What is your diagnosis?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Cervicitis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Vaginal candidiasis
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 316
214. A 75-year old man in a nursing home is treated with a broad spectrum antibiotic for bed
sores. Two days later he develops bloody diarrhea. A stool specimen from the patient is
positive in an ELISA test for a necrotizing cytotoxin, and his treatment is switched to
vancomycin. The agent MOST LIKELY to be responsible for this clinical syndrome is
A. Bacteroides fragilis.
B. Campylobacter jejuni.
C. Clostridium difficile.
D. Escherichia coli O157:H7.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 209
215. Which one of the following toxins is responsible for scalded skin syndrome?
A. Alpha hemolysin
B. Exfoliatin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Staphylococcal enterotoxin
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 225
216. A 50-year old cancer patient with severe neutropenia became septic two weeks after
being admitted to the hospital. An oxidase-positive, Gram-negative rod that did not
ferment glucose was isolated from the patient’s blood. Which one of the following
organisms is the most likely cause of the patient’s sepsis?
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 262
217. Blood culture from a 12-year old with acute osteomyelitis yields Gram-positive cocci that
are b hemolytic and catalase positive. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the
MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism?
A. Coagulase test
B. Optochin sensitivity test
C. Slide agglutination test for capsular antigen type
D. Test for capacity to grow in bile esculin
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 225
37
218. Activated macrophages are the effector cells in the expression of a protective, cell-
mediated immune response against
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 152
219. A patient recovering from a crushing leg injury suffered during an a motorcycle accident
develops a temperature of 100o F, a rapid pulse, and extreme pain at the site of his the
wound two days after the accident. The skin overlying the patient’s sutured wound is
brownish- white, shiny, and studded with vesicles. Gram stain of the watery exudate
from the wound reveals Gram-positive rods, Gram-negative rods, and Gram-positive
cocci. The Gram-positive rods are MOST LIKELY
A. Bacillus cereus.
B. Bacteroides fragilis.
C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Corynebacterium ulcerans.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 208
220. A 13-year old and her 10-year old brother are seen at an emergency room with
complaints of double vision, difficulty swallowing, and progressive muscular weakness.
A detailed history reveals that both children attended a church picnic three days earlier
but neither child has gastroenteritis. The MOST LIKELY presumptive diagnosis is
A. botulism.
B. Chinese rice syndrome.
C. Guillan-Barré syndrome.
D. salmonellosis.
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 206
221. Epidemics of bacterial meningitis in young, previously healthy adults are MOST LIKELY
caused by
A. Escherichia coli K-1.
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
D. Neisseria meningitidis group A.
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 303
222. A 55-year old woman develops endocarditis following oral surgery. Gram-positive,
alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative cocci are isolated from a blood culture. The MOST
LIKELY agent is
A. Enterococcus faecalis (group D streptococci).
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
D. Viridans streptococci.
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 236
38
223. A 2-month old infant is admitted to the hospital with fever, lymphocytosis, and bouts of
violent coughing that often end in vomiting. The infant’s mother reveals that the child
has not as yet received any immunizations. The attending physician swabs the infant’s
nasopharynx and requests that the swab be plated on routine media as well as a
special medium (Bordet-Gengou) that contains blood and glycerol. No organisms are
found on blood or chocolate agar, but small Gram-negative rods are isolated on Bordet-
Gengou agar. The MOST LIKELY cause of the infant’s illness is
A. Bordetella pertussis.
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae.
C. Moraxella catarrhalis.
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 282
224. Which one of the following viruses establishes a chronic persistent infection in humans?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Herpesvirus
D. Poliovirus
ANSWER: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 475-476
225. Which one of the following viruses is transmitted via the gastrointestinal route?
A. Delta-associated agent
B. Hepatitis A
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis C
ANSWER: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 474
226. A 33-year-old pregnant woman delivered a baby boy via a normal vaginal delivery.
Neither she nor the father has a history of genital or oral herpes. Although she had
chickenpox as a child, she was exposed to a child with chickenpox about 10 days
before delivery. There was no evidence of vesicular skin lesions on either the mother
or the child at the time of delivery. Three days after birth, the baby now develops
vesicular skin lesions on his back, accompanied by a fever. Which one of the following
viruses is MOST LIKELY to be the cause of the baby's infection?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus type 1
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Human herpesvirus 6
ANSWER: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 434
227. Examination by dark-field microscopy of scrapings from a genital ulcer of 19-year old
female reveals mobile, spiral-shaped organisms against a black background. The
MOST LIKELY diagnosis is
A. chancroid.
B. Chlamydia trachomatis infection.
C. gonorrhea.
D. syphilis.
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 333
39
228. Gram-positive cocci are observed on a Gram stain of purulent discharge from a skin
lesion of a 7-year-old. Culture of the exudate reveals beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive
organisms. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the MOST APPROPRIATE
next step in the definitive identification of this organism?
A. Bacitracin sensitivity test
B. Bile solubility test
C. Coagulase test
D. Optochin sensitivity test
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 227
229. Which one of the following species or serovars of Chlamydia can be transmitted as a
zoonotic infection?
A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
B. Chlamydia psittaci
C. Chlamydia trachomatis serovar C
D. Chlamydia trachomatis serovar D
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 365
230. Gram stain of synovial fluid from the knee of a 20-year-old woman with arthritis reveals
Gram-negative cocci. To isolate the MOST LIKELY responsible agent, the specimen
should be plated on
A. Bordet-Gengou agar.
B. Chocolate agar.
C. Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar.
D. MacConkey agar.
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 709
231. The formation of colonic ulcers and absesses during Shigella dysentery is due to
A. ability of bacteria to survive stomach acidity because of the production
of urease.
B. bacterial survival within macrophages.
C. invasion of enterocytes and cell-to-cell spread of the bacteria.
D. production of a superantigen by the bacillus.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 255-256
232. Which one of the following organisms is the MOST COMMON cause of bacterial
traveler’s diarrhea?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella cholerasuis
D. Shigella sonnei
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 252
40
233. Dissemination of Salmonella typhi from the intestine to extraintestinal sites requires
survival of this pathogen in which one of the following host cells?
A. Colonic enterocytes
B. Gastric epithelial cells
C. M cells
D. Macrophages
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 257-258
234. Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid from a 3-year-old child with fever, petechiae, stiff neck
and positive Kernig and Brudzinski's signs reveals PMNs and a few Gram-negative
cocci. The MOST LIKELY agent is
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
C. Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci ).
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 302
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 217
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 652-653
237. A 10-year-old with a dog complains of a “bump” on the back of his head. He says its
redness and itching have increased over the last three weeks. The lesion is several
centimeters in diameter, with hair involvement and scaling. Examination of several of
his hairs in a KOH preparation reveals hyphae in and around the hair shafts. What is
your diagnosis?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Tinea capitis
238. You are assigned to a hospital in Phoenix, Arizona. Several patients have been
admitted in the past week with cough, chest pain, fever, and pneumonitis that has not
responded to antibacterial therapy. You discover that most of the patients are new
arrivals to Arizona who had been working outdoors during the dusty wind storms that
had occurred over the past few weeks. The causative organism is observed in a KOH
preparation of sputum. What is your presemptive diagnosis?
41
A. Blastomycosis
B. Coccidioidomycosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Psittacosis
ANSWER: B, Coccidioidomycosis
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 637-638
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 235
240. A 22-year-old develops an abcess in his peritoneum following rupture of his appendix.
Gram stain of the exudate from his foul-smelling abcess reveals numerous
polymorphonuclear leukocytes, Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive rods, and Gram-
negative rods. Aerobic culture of the exudate at 37o C on blood and MacConkey agar
plates yields only enterococci (group D streptococci). The Gram-negative rods are
MOST LIKELY
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Shigella dysenteriae.
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 309
241. Several people become ill within two hours after leaving a summer reunion picnic. The
majority of people complain of vomiting and diarrhea without fever, and recovered within
24 hours after the onset of symptoms. The contaminated food is determined to be a
bowl of coleslaw prepared by someone with a stye on her left eyelid. Which one of the
following is the MOST LIKELY source of the food poisoning?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Shigella sonnei
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 226
242. A 35-year-old female presents with fever, headache and a non-productive cough. The
patient is prescribed penicillin and sent home. Two weeks later, she returns with similar
symptoms. A Gram stain and routine culture of the patient's sputum reveal only normal
mouth flora. Sputum is then cultured on specialized medium containing sterols, and,
after two days, tiny colonies were visible under a microscope. Which one of the
following organisms does the physician suspect is the cause of the patient's
pneumonia?
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
42
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 345
243. A 70-year-old male, who is a chain-smoker, complains of fever, diarrhea, cough and
chest pain. Evidence of pneumonia is seen by chest X-ray. Due to the inability of the
patient to produce a sputum specimen, a transtrachial aspirate is obtained. No
respiratory bacterial pathogen is isolated from aspirated fluid cultured on blood agar
plates. However, poorly staining Gram-negative rods are isolated on buffered charcoal-
yeast extract (BCYE) agar after three days of incubation. The physician had already
begun treatment with erythromycin due to the detection of bacilli in the aspirated fluid
using a fluorescently-labeled monoclonal antibody specific for the causative agent. The
MOST LIKELY pathogen responsible for this pneumonia is
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides
Answer: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 640
245. An otherwise healthy 35-year-old female florist presented to her primary care physician
complaining of a persistent lesion on the third digit of her left hand. This had been
present for several weeks and showed no sign of resolving. Upon examination, the
patient was found to have a mild fever (1000F), the aforementioned lesion and two
nodules on her left forearm. A biopsy of the lesion was performed, and the pathology
report indicated the presence of numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and a rare
elongated budding yeast. What is the MOST LIKELY etiologic agent?
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Nocardia asteroides
Answer: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 632-633
43
Ans. D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 689
Ans. A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
Ans. D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 336
Ans. B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 271
Ans. A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 550
Ans. D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 466
Ans. D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 235
44
254. Mode of transmission of Rickettsia prowazekii is:
A. Droplet nuclei
B. Direct contact with animals
C. Louse bites
D. Wound infection
Ans. C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 350
Ans. A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 225
257. A 19-year-old soldier develops fever, carditis, and migratory polyarthritis. While taking
her history, the patient remembers that she had a "sore throat" three weeks previously.
A throat culture of the patient yields normal flora only. The laboratory result MOST
CONSISTENT with these findings is that the patient has high titers of antibody to:
A. meningococcal lipooligosaccharide.
B. pneumococcal IgA protease.
C. pneumococcal polysaccharide.
D. streptolysin O.
ANS: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 234
258. A 65-year-old man with a colonic tumor undergoes a bowel resection. Three days later,
the patient develops a fever, and the drainage from the surgical site is foul smelling. The
skin near the site of the drainage is markedly erythematous. Gram stain of the drainage
reveals Gram-positive cocci and Gram-negative rods. Aerobic culture of the drainage
yields streptococci. The Gram-negative rod seen on Gram stain was most likely:
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Escherichia coli
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 306
259. A 50-year-old rancher scrapes his hand with clippers while shearing sheep. Two days
later he notices an ulcer surrounded by vesicles at the site of the wound. Eight days
after the injury, the wound develops a black necrotic center (eschar) surrounded by
edematous fluid. The rancher experiences mild systemic symptoms. The most likely
cause of the infection is:
45
A. Bacillus anthracis.
B. Clostridium tetani.
C. Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 202-203
260. A 19-year-old college sophomore dies 24 hours after the development of fever,
petechiae, purpura, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Culture of
cerebrospinal fluid and blood obtained from the patient on admission to the hospital
MOST LIKELY yielded:
A. Gram-negative, lactose fermenting rods.
B. Gram-negative, oxidase positive diplococci.
C. Gram-positive, catalase negative cocci.
D. Gram-positive, catalase positive cocci.
ANS: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 302
261. The blood culture of a patient with a presumptive diagnosis of endocarditis yields non-
hemolytic colonies of Gram-positive cocci. The isolate is catalase negative, can grow in
6.5% NaCl, and is resistant to penicillin. The isolate is MOST LIKELY:
A. Enterococci.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci).
C. Streptococcus bovis.
D. Streptococcus mutans (Viridans streptoccoci).
ANS: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 233
262. A 25-year-old, previously healthy woman develops fever within 24 hours of delivery of
an infant born 6 weeks prematurely. Blood culture of the mother reveals Gram-positive
cocci that are catalase negative, beta-hemolytic on blood agar, and resistant to
bacitracin. The MOST LIKELY cause of the bacteremia is:
A. Enterococci.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci).
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ANS: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 233
263. An HIV-infected homosexual man presents with Kaposi's sarcoma. Which viral genome
is MOST LIKELY to be present in his tumor biopsy?
A. Herpes simplex virus tupe 1
B. Human cytomegalvirus
C. Human herpesvirus type 6
D. Human herpesvirus type 8
Answer: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 450
264. Which one of the following viral infections is not effectively prevented by vaccination?
A. Hepatitis B virus
46
B. Poliovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Rubella virus
Answer: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 543
Answer: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 584
266. Congenital infection by which one of the following viruses can result in birth defects?
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Answer: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 443
Answer: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 495
268. Several newborns housed in a neonatal intensive care unit have developed nosocomial
pneumonia. Most are wheezing and some have required care such as mechanical
ventilation, increased doses of oxygen, antibiotic therapy, or monitoring for apnea. A
simple, rapid diagnostic test reveals a common viral antigen in nasal wash specimens
from each of the patients. The virus MOST LIKELY to be responsible is
A. Coronavirus
B. Echovirus B2
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Rubeola virus (measles)
Answer: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 558-559
269. A 7 year-old newly adopted Russian child who has been in the United States 10 days
presents with fever, malaise, sore throat, and a grey membrane on the tonsils, uvula,
and soft palate. The child's immunization history is unknown. The physician obtains a
swab of the child's throat which provokes bleeding of the membrane. The swab is sent
to the laboratory for routine throat culture. Two days later the laboratory reports only the
presence of normal flora in the specimen. The MOST LIKELY organism responsible for
this child's illness is:
A. Bordetella pertussis.
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C. Haemophilus influenzae type b.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
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Answer: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 214
270. Soft cheese imported from Mexico was implicated as the vehicle in an outbreak of
meningitis and bacteremia that occurred among attendees of a large company picnic.
Twenty of the 40 affected individuals were pregnant women. One of the victims had
AIDS. Gram positive, non-spore forming rods were isolated from the cheese that had
been stored in the cold. The MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this outbreak is:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 217
271. A 25 year old patient presents at a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic with a
painful genital ulcer. On examination, the ulcer does not appear to be typical of herpes
simplex virus. Dark field microscopy of exudate from the ulcer is negative for spiral-
shaped organisms. However, a small, gram negative rod is isolated from culture of the
exudate on chocolate agar. The organism MOST LIKELY to be responsible for the
lesion is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis.
B. Haemophilus ducreyi.
C. Neisseria gonorrhoae.
D. Treponema pallidum.
Answer: B
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 281
Answer: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 350
273. A young army recruit presents at a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic with acute
urethritis. A Gram-stained preparation of his urethral exudate reveals neutrophils with
intracellular Gram-negative diplococci. The patient is treated with ceftriaxone and sent
home. He is requested to return in one week so that a urethral culture can be obtained
to test for proof of antibiotic cure. Which ONE of the following culture media should be
used for the follow-up culture?
A. Blood agar
B. Bordet Gengou agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. Thayer-Martin agar
Answer: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
274. The growth in the vagina of which ONE of the following bacteria helps maintain a
protective acid pH?
A. Bacteroides
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B. Gardnerella
C. Lactobacillus
D. Mobiluncus
Answer: C
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 307
275. A 25 year-old sexually active woman complains of vaginal itching, odor, and discharge.
The vaginal walls are red and slightly swollen, but the cervix is normal. A sample of her
vaginal discharge is tested with 10% KOH, which produces a strong fishy odor. Upon
microscopic examination of the discharge, you find clue cells but no pear-shaped
flagellates or pseudohyphae. A Gram stain reveals numerous Gram-negative curved
rods. What is your diagnosis?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C. Syphilis
D. Trichomoniasis
Answer: A
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 316
276. A 25 year-old male develops an ulcerative lesion of the hand and several fluctuant
nodules along the lymphatics draining that site. The patient is seen in the dermatology
clinic at the Naval Hospital. Case history reveals that he is a weekend gardener who
cultivates roses as a hobby. What is the MOST LIKELY fungal disease?
A. Chromoblastomycosis
B. Mycetoma
C. Phaeohyphomycosis
D. Sporotrichosis
Answer: D
Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 633
277. A 50 year-old farmer from Sorsogon who is fond of eating freshwater crabs is suffering
from chronic pneumonia with hemoptysis. Which parasite etiology is MOST likely?
A. Capillaria philippinensis
B. Necator americanus
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Schistosoma japonicum
278. Knowing the life cycle of Schistosoma japonicum, a rural health doctor is now tasked
with educating the population of a district in Davao del Sur about prevention of this
disease. Which specific developmental stage of this parasite should be avoided to
prevent initial infection?
A. cercaria
B. metacercaria
C. miracidium
D. schistosomule
279. In relation to question #72 above, which of the following measures would this doctor
teach is most practical for preventing S. japonicum infection?
A. avoid eating raw fresh water snails
B. boil drinking water for 20 minutes
C. clean and cook vegetables well
D. wear protective high boots while wading in streams
280. A preventive measure against parasites is footwear. Which of these parasites enters
through the skin and its infective stage is a filariform larva?
A. Necator americanus
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B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Enterobius vermicularis
281. Some protozoans have organelles which enable them to move around. Which of the
following species possess cilia as motility organelles?
A. Balantidium coli
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Plasmodium malariae
282. Ten year-old Theira has been having vague periumbilical abdominal discomfort for three
months. She does not have diarrhea. Her fecalysis reveals round golden brown tri-
layered eggs with cortication. What is the causative agent of her abdominal infection?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Balantidium coli
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichiura
283. Mrs. Sintas complains to her family doctor that she has been having vague abdominal
pains and bloody diarrhea for the past two days. She had recently arrived from a
business trip to Leyte. Which of the following intestinal parasitic diseases is LEAST
LIKELY to present with bloody diarrhea?
A. Amebiasis
B. Giardiasis
C. Trichuriasis
D. Strongyloidiasis
284. Adult stages of intestinal parasites have their own way of establishing themselves in
their chosen habitat. Which of these species has a long anterior end which penetrates
the mucosa to obtain tissues for its nutrition?
A. A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichiura
285. Except for the Schistosome species, all trematodes have similar life cycles. The
infective stage, for example is which of these developmental stages for the liver, lung,
and intestinal flukes?
A. cercaria
B. metacercaria
C. redia
D. sporocyst
286. Hydatid Disease is endemic in small areas of Southern Luzon and Bicol region where
sheep are raised. What is the causative parasite of this disease?
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Brugia malayi
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Fasciolopsis buski
287. The trophozoite stage of this protozoa has rbc as inclusions in the cytoplasm: (p. 121)
A. Entamoeba coli
B. Entamoeba histolytica
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C. Endolimax nana
D. Entamoeba hartmanii
289. Bachman intradermal test is a highly specific test for this disease. (p. 239)
A. Ascariasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. Trichinosis
D. Amoebiasis
291. A 10-year-old girl, with perianal pruritus, was brought by her mother to her pediatrician.
What is your most probable diagnosis?
A. Ascariasis
B. Trichuriasis
C. Enterobiasis
D. Hookworm infection
292. A 40-year old male overseas worker complaining of muscle pains seek medical
attention upon his arrival to the Philippines. Biochemical tests showed elevated
creatinine, phosphokinase, lactate dehydrogenase and myokinase levels. Results of
complete blood count showed high blood eosinophilia. What is your most probable
diagnosis?
A. Taeniasis
B. Capillariasis
C. Trichinosis
D. Filariasis
293. Sexually active 26-year old woman consulted a VD control clinic for vaginal itching and
purulent discharge. Your tentative diagnosis should include the following:
A. gonorrhea
B. trichomoniasis
C. candidiasis
D. all of the above
294. A 30-year old woman, native of Bulacan, traveled to Palawan for a vacation. After 2
weeks she consulted her doctor with chills and fever as her main complains. What
parasitologic test would you request to establish your diagnosis?
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A. sputum examination
B. stool examination
C. thick blood smear
D. thick and thin blood smear
295. A 6-month old baby was brought in for a fever of one-day duration. She is found to have
a temperature of 38.5°C and with hepatomegaly (3 cm) and splenomegaly (3 cm).
Microscopic examination revealed infected RBC with presence of band form stages.
What is your most probable diagnosis?
A. Not malaria
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Plasmodium malariae
296. Hepatosplenomegaly is the hallmark of this disease which is endemic in Leyte, Samar
and Mindoro. This is caused by:
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Echinostoma ilocanum
C. Pila luzonica
D. Capillaria philippinensis
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 81-82
299. Wearing protective footwear would NOT prevent transmission of which of the following
parasite?
A. Ancylostoma
52
B. Leptospira
C. Trichuris
D. Schistosoma
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. pp. 126
300. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis can be prevented by eating properly cooked:
A. fish
B. pork
C. beef
D. vegetables
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. pp. 185, 111
301. Recommendation for the control of hookworm in endemic areas include the construction
of sanitary facilities and :
A. wearing of footwear
B. reduction of the stray cats population
C. through cooking of meats and fish
D. use of insecticides to control mosquitoes and flies.
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 126
302. Humans become infected when they swallow the eggs and develop cysts in various
organs to cause hydatidosis. This tapeworm is could be best prevented by:
A. reducing larval E. multilocularis in sheep and hogs
B. reducing adult E. granulosus infection in dogs
C. proper and sanitary disposal of waste
D. surgical intervention
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 197
303. Dyspnea in Loeffler’s syndrome caused by larval invasion in massive ascariasis in the
lungs could be best treated with:
A. salbutamol nebulization
B. giving mebendazole to treat the infection
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition.
The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. Pp. 134-135
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