Introduction

1. Definative host is one

A. In which sexual multiplication takes place and harbors adult form

B. In which asexual multiplication takes place and harbors adult form
C. In which sexual multiplication takes place and harbors larval form
D. In which asexual multiplication takes place and harbors adult form

2. Autoinfection is seen in all except

A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Taenia solium
D. Ascaris lumbricoides

3. Antigenic variation is exhibited by

A. Entamoeba
B. Schistosoma
C. Trypanosoma
D. Leishmania

4. Which parasite enters, the body by piercing the skin

A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris
C. Necator americanus
D. Plasmodium

5. Which parasitic infection leads to malignacy

A. Babesioses
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Trypanosoma cruzi
D. Schistosoma hematobium

6. Xenodiagnosis is useful in

A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. All of the above

7. The following are zoontic disease except

A. Leishmaniasis
B. Balantidiasis
C. Scabies
D. Taeniasis

8. Two hosts are required in

A. Taenia solium
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Giardia
9. Which of the following parasite passes its life cycle through three hosts

A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Fasciola buski
C. Schistosoma hematobium
D. Clonorchis sinensis

10. Man is the intermediate host for

A. Strogyloides stercoralis
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Enterobious vermiculasis

General Features of Nematodes

1. All of the following nematodes are oviparous except

A. Ascaris
B. Ancylostoma
C. Trichinella
D. Enterobius

2. Nematoda residing in large intestine

A. Necatar
B. Trichinella
C. Strongyloides
D. Trichuris

3. A teenager who plays with dogs developed skin rash,eosinophilia, and an enlarged liver and spleen for
1 year.The most likely cause of this infection is

A. Trichinosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Isceral larva migrans

Ascaris Lumbricoides

1. Which of the following parasites does not penetrate human skin

A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Stronglyoides stercoralis
D. Schistosoma haematobium

2. The common name for Ascaris lumbricodes is

A. Roundworm
B. Hookworm
C. Threadown
D. None of the above
3. The largest intestinal nematode infecting humans is

A. Necator americanus
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. None of the above

4. All of the following are correct regarding fertilized egg of Ascaris except

A. It is always bile-stained
B. Covered by an outer mamilliated coat
C. Floats in saturated solution of salt
D. Does not float in saturated solution of salt

5. All of the following parasites have bile-stained eggs except

A. Ascaris
B. Clonorchis
C. Taenia solium
D. Enterobius

6. Loeffler's syndrome may be seen in infection with

A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Trichuris trichiura

Enterobius Vermicularis

1. Most common presenting symptom of thread worm infection amongst the following is

A. Abdominal pain
B. Rectal prolapse
C. Urticaria
D. Vaginitis

2. Which one of the following does not pass through the lungs

A. Hookworm
B. Ascaris
C. Strongyloides
D. Enterobius vermicularis

3. Infection with which of the following parasites may cause enuresis

A. Ascaris lumbricodes
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

4. History of mild intestinal distress, sleeplessness, itching, and anxiety is seen in preschool child attending
play school. Possible parasite agent causing these manifestations is

A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Necator americanus
5.The common name for Enterobius vermicularis is

A. Threadworm
B. Pinworm
C. Seatworm
D. Whip worm

6. Which of the following nematodes lays eggs contaning larvae

A. Trichinella spiralis
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Brugia malayi
D. Ascaris lumbricoides

Trichuris Trichura

1. Which of the following resides in caecum

A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Strongyloides
D. Ancylostoma

2. The common name for Trichuris is

A. Roundworm
B. Hookworm
C. Whipworm
D. Seatworm

3. Heavy infection of Trichuris is characterized by

A. <10 eggs in stool

B. >10 eggs in stool
C. <50 eggs in stool
D. >50 eggs in stool

4. All of the following statements about Trichuris are correct except

A. It resides in large intestine of man

B. Eggs of Trichuris float in saturated salt solution
C. Eggs of Trichuris do not float in saturated salt solution
D. Embryonated eggs containing rhabditiform larvae are infective to man

Hook Worm

1. Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to

A. Hookworm
B. Thread worm
C. Ascaris
D. Guinea worm

2. The average blood loss per worm in ancylostomiasis is

A. 0.2 mL/day
B. 2 mL/day
C. 0.33 mL/day
D. 1 mL/day
3. Which of the following does not cause biliary tract obstruction

A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Fasciola hepatia

4. Which of the following stages of Ancylostoma duodenale is infective to human beings

A. Rhabditiform larva
B. Filariform larva
C. Eggs
D. Adult worm

5. A 6-year-old girl is emaciated with a haemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. Her face appears puffy with swollen
eyelids and edema over feet and ankles. There are no laboratory facilities available. The most likely cause of
the child’s condition is

A. Schistosomiasis
B. Cercarial dermatitis
C. Ascariasis
D. Hookworm disease

6. All of the following are characteristics of Ancylostoma except

A. Its copulatory bursa has 13 rays

B. Caudal spine is present in females
C. Head is bent in a direction opposite to body
D. Vulval opening is situated in the middle of the body.

Wuchereria Bancrofti

1. All are true regarding filariasis except

A. Man is an intermediate host

B. Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Involves lymphatic system
D. DEC is used in treatment

2. All of the following are true about Brugia malayi except

A. The intermediate host in India is Mansonia mosquito

B. The tail tip is free from nuclei
C. Nuclei are blurred, so counting is difficult
D. Adult worm is found in the lymphatic system

3. Hydrocele and edema in foot occurs in

A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Brugia timori
D. Onchocerca volvulus

4. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in peripheral blood

A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early adenolymphangitis stage
C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
D. Elephantiasis
5. All of the following parasites can be detected in urine sample except

A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Trichomonas vaginals
D. Giardia lamblia

Trichinella Spiralis

1. Larva found in muscle is

A. Trichinella spiralis
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Enterobius vermicularis

2. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite

A. Taenia solium
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Naegleria
D. Trichinella spiralis

3. Which of the following is viviparous

A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Enterobius
D. Ascaris

4. Best site for taking biopsy for diagnosis of trichinellosis is

A. Deltoid muscle
B. Diaphragm
C. Pectoralis major
D. Liver

5. Bachman's test is done to diagnose infections with

A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Ancylostoma duodenale

6. The larval form of Trichinella can be destroyed by

A. Smoking of meat
B. Deep freezing of meat
C. Drying of meat
D. Salting of meat
 Trematodes

1. Which of the following flukes is carcinogenic

A. Fasciola
B. Clonorchis
C. Paragonimus
D. Gastrodiscoides

2. Organism causing biliary tract obstruction

A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Enterobius vermicularis

3. All float in a saturated salt solution except

A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fertilized eggs of Ascaris
C. Larva of Strongyloides
D. Trichuris trichiura

4. Terminal spined eggs are seen in

A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Clonorchis sinensis

5. Largest trematode infecting humans

A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Fasciolopsis buski
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Paragonimus westermani

6. The second intermediate host of Faciola hepatica is

A. Snail
B. Fresh water fish
C. Crab
D. Aquatic plants

7. Schistosoma japonicum resides in

A. Superior mesenteric vein

B. Inferior mesenteric vein
C. Small intestine
D. Gall bladder

8. All of the following lead to bloody diarrhea except

A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Schistosoma hematobium
 Cestodes

1. Autoinfection is a mode of transmission in

A. Trichinella
B. Cysticercosis
C. Ancylostoma
D. Ascaris

2.Pigs are reservoir for

A. Taenia solium
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Ancyclostoma

3. On microscopic examination, eggs are seen, but on saturation with salt solution eggs are not seen. The
eggs are likely to be of

A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Ancylostoma duodenale

4. Which of the following is not a cestode

A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia saginata
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Echinococcus granulosus

5. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic disease

A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Trichuris trichiura

6. All of the following are true about neurocysticerosis, except

A. Not acquired by eating contaminated vegetables

B. Caused by regurgitation of larva
C. Acquired by orofecal route
D. Acquired by eating pork

7. Dwarf tapeworm refers to

A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Loa loa
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Schistosoma mansoni

8. The egg of which of the following parasites consists of polar filaments arising from either end of
the embryophore

A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Hymenolepis nana
9. Larval form of Echinococcus granulosus is seen in

A. Dog
B. Man
C. Wolf
D. Fox

10. The adult worm of Echinococcus granulosus contains

A. 3–4 segments
B. 50–100 segments
C. 100–200 segments
D. 1000–2000 segments

Protozoa

1. Protozoa belong to kingdom

A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Plantae
D. Animalia

2. All are intercellular parasites except

A. Leishmania
B. Plasmodium
C. Toxoplasma
D. None of the above

3. Non-nuclear DNA present in addition to nucleus in protozoan parasite is

A. Chromatid body
B. Karyosome
C. Kinetoplast
D. Basal body

4. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites multiply by

A. Binary fission
B. Schizogony
C. Gametogony
D. All of the above

5. In humans, malarial parasites multiply by

A. Binary fission
B. Budding
C. Gametogony
D. Schizogony

6. Which of the following is not a flagellate

A. Naegleria
B. Leishmania
C. Giardia
D. Dientamoebanj
 Entamoeba Histolytica

1. The main reservoir of Entamoeba histolytica is

A. Man
B. Dirty water
C. Dog
D. Monkey

2. The infective form of Entamoeba histolytica is

A. Trophozoite
B. Binucleate cyst
C. Quadrinucleate
D. None of above

3. The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is indicaded by

A. Zymodeme pattern
B. Size
C. Nuclear pattern
D. ELISA test

4. M/C site for extraintestinal amoebiasis is

A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Brain
D. Spleen

5. Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstrating

A. Cyst in the sterile pus

B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cyst in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces

6. Stool of amoebic dysentry has all of the following charactristics except

A. Charcot-Leyden crystals
B. Pyknotic bodies
C. RBCs
D. Ghost cell

7. The term amoeboma is used to describe

A. Amoebic liver abscess

B. Skin lesion due to draining amoebic abscess
C. Granuloma at ileocaecal junction
D. None of the above

8. True statement regarding Entamoeba histolytica is

A. The trophzoites are infective to man

B. Mature cyst has eccenteric nucleolus
C. It can cause primary amoebic encephalitis
D. Cyst are resistant to chlorine concentration used in drinking water
 Giardia Lamblia

1. Normal habitat of Giardia is

A. Duodenum and jejunum

B. Stomach
C. Caecum
D. Ileum

2. The following is true of giardiasis except

A. Fever and presence of blood and mucus in stool

B. Acute or chronic diarrhea
C. Duodenum and jejunum are the prime sites of involvement
D. Giardia cysts are resistant to dessication

3. Giardia lamblia was discovered by

A. Giard
B. Robert hook
C. Leeuwenhoek
D. Losch

4. Drug of choice in giardiasis is

A. Metronidazole
B. Albendazole
C. Thiabendazole
D. Diloxanide furoate

5. True about Giardia is

A. May cause traveller’s diarrhea

B. Giardia inhabits ileum
C. Trophozoites are infective to man
D. Encystment of trophozoites occur in jejunum

6. Which one following test is used for diagnosis of Giardia lamblia infections

A. Enterotest
B. Casoni’s test
C. Parasight F test
D. Napier’s test

7. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as

A. Amoeboid
B. Jerky
C. Falling leaf
D. Lashing

8. Vaginal discharge in Trichomonas vaginitis is

A. Colorless
B. Yellow
C. Curd–white
D. Blood stained
9. All of the following protozoan can be transmitted by sexual contact except:

A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Enteromonas hominis
D. Giardia lamblia

Hemoflagellates (Leishmania Donovani)

1. Which of the following is most severely affected in Kala-azar

A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Lymphnodes
D. Bone marrow

2. LD bodies are

A. Amastigotes of Leishmania donovani inside RBCs

B. Giant cells seen in leishmaniasis
C. Degenerative lesions seen in leishmaniasis
D. Amastigotes of Leishmania donovani inside macrophages

3. In a case of Kala-azar, aldehyde test becomes positive after

A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 12 weeks

Plasmodium Vivax

1. Old RBCs are preferentially infected by

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Plasmodium ovale

2. The infective form of the malaria parasite is

A. Oocyst
B. Sporozoite
C. Bradyzoite
D. Tachyzoite

3. Prolonged parasitism in malaria is due to

A. Antigenic variation
B. Intracellularity of parasite
C. Immunosuppression
D. Sequestration

4. Malaria pigment is formed by

A. Parasite
B. Bilirubin
C. Hemoglobin
D. All of the above
5. Schuffner's dot in RBCs are sesen in infection with

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale

6. Quartan Malaria is caused by

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale

7. Schizonts of Plasmodium falciparum are not found in peripheral blood because

A. Schizonts are absent in the life cycle

B. Schizonts are killed by antibodies
C. Schizonts develop only in capillaries of internal organs
D. None of the above

8. Crescent-shaped or banana-shaped gametocytes are seen in infection with

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale

9. Malaria is not seen in patients with

A. G6PD deficiency
B. Sickle cell trait
C. Duffy negative blood group
D. All of the above

10. Which plasmodial infection is more often associated with nephritic syndrome

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale

11. Which is the treatment of choice for benign tertian malaria

A. Sulfamethoxazole – pyrimethamine
B. Quinine
C. Mefloquine
D. Chloroquine

12. Gametocidal perinicious malaria may occur in

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
 Toxoplasma Gondii

1. Route of transmission of Toxoplasma

A. Blood
B. Feces
C. Urine
D. None

2. Toxoplasma gondii lives inside the

A. Lumen of small intestine

B. Lumen of large intestine
C. Reticuloendothilial cell and many other nucleated cell
D. RBC

3. Oocyst of toxoplasma is found in

A. Cat
B. Dog
C. Mosquito
D. Cow

4. Toxoplasmosis in the fetus can be best confirmed by

A. IgM antibodies in the mother

B. IgM antibodies in the fetus
C. IgG antibodies in the mother
D. IgG antibodies in the fetus

5. Intermediate hosts of toxoplasmosis are

A. Sheep
B. Cattle
C. Pigs
D. All of the above

6. The following statements regarding congenital toxoplasmosis are correct except

A. Most severe form of congenital infection occurs, if it is acquired in 1st trimester

B. Chorioretinitis and hydrocephalus are common manifestations in congenital infections
C. Presence of Toxoplasma-specific IgM antibodies in an infant are suggestive of congenital
infection
D. Most severe form of congenital infection occur if it is acquired in 3rd trimester

7. Frenkels’ skin test is positive in

A. Spinal cord compression

B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Pemphigus
D. Pemphigoid

8. In humans, cryptosporidiosis presents as

A. Meningitis
B. Diarrhea
C. Pneumonia
D. Asymtomatic infection
9. Which stain demonstrates the oocyst of Cryptosporidium best

A. Hematoxylin-eosin
B. Gram’s stain
C. Kinyoun modified acid fast stain
D. Modified trichrome stain

10. All of the following cause diarrhea except

A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Cyclospora caytanensis