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OBJECTIVE GEOGRAPHY
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R-712 for Competitive Examinations
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R. Gupta's®
Objective
GEOGRAPHY
A Collection of Highly Useful Questions for
Competitive & Entrance Exams
By
RPH Editorial Board
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Published by
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Book Code: R-712

30th Edition: 1808
ISBN: 978-93-5012-755-1
HSN Code: 49011010
CONTENTS
l Solar Systems and General Geography.................................... 3
l Geomorphology ....................................................................... 21
l Climatology ............................................................................... 57
l Oceanography .......................................................................... 65
l Geographical Thought ............................................................. 73
l Human Geography ................................................................... 99
l Economic Geography ............................................................ 107
l Cartography ............................................................................ 115
l Biogeography ......................................................................... 123
l Asia ......................................................................................... 131
l China ....................................................................................... 140
l Europe .................................................................................... 142
l Africa ...................................................................................... 151
l North America ......................................................................... 158
l South America ........................................................................ 165
l Australia, Antarctica and New Zealand .................................. 167
l India ........................................................................................ 171
(iii)
OBJECTIVE
GEOGRAPHY
1
1 Solar Systems and General Geography
1. Which of the following statements is/are 5. Which one of the following is the time
correct with regard to lines of latitude? required for the earth to return to a given
1. They are concentric circles numbered point in its orbit with reference to fixed
from 0° to 90°. stars called?
2. They are circles on a globe which are A. Lunar year B. Solar year
parallel to the equator. C. Tropical year D. Sidereal year
Select the correct answer using the code 6. How much of a time period 15° of longi-
given below: tudes account for?
A. 1 only B. 2 only A. 4 Minutes B. 15 Minutes
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 C. 30 Minutes D. 60 Minutes
2. Foucault experiment is proof of which one 7. The Sun is visible a little before the actual
of the following? sunrise because of which one of the
A. Revolution of Earth following?
B. Rotation of Earth A. Atmospheric reflection
C. Rotation of Moon B. Atmospheric dispersion
D. Revolution of Moon C. Atmospheric diffraction
3. Which one of the following pairs is not D. Atmospheric refraction
correctly matched? 8. Assertion (A): The tail of comet is
Month Position of Sun always away from the Sun.
A. June Midday Sun over- Reason (R): The tail of comet is made
head at tropic of up of gases and small ice particles.
Cancer. Select the correct answer using the codes
B. December Midday Sun over- given below:
head at tropic of
Capricorn. Codes:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. March Midday Sun over-
head on Equator correct explanation of A
D. September Midday Sun over- B. Both A and R are true but R is not
head on Arctic Circle the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
4. Which of the following statements is/are D. A is false but R is true
correct with regard to Milky way?
9. Which of the following is called a 'red
1. It is a spiral galaxy. planet'?
2. The solar system resides in one of its A. Earth B. Venus
spiral arms. C. Jupiter D. Mars
Select the correct answer using the code 10. Assertion (A): Venus is the brightest
given below: object in the sky after the Sun.
A. 1 only B. 2 only Reason (R): Venus is the second planet
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 more from the Sun in hour solar system.
3
4 H Objective Geography
Codes: C. The universe expands and contracts
A. Both A and R are true and R is the alternately between periods of tens of
correct explanation of A billions of years
B. Both A and R are true but R is not D. All of the above
the correct explanation of A 17. Assertion (A): Jupiter is known as a
C. A is true but R is False cold planet.
D. A is false but R is true Reason (R): Jupiter has temperature
11. If there are four places on the same of –130°C.
meridian 500km apart and the local time A. Both A and R are true and R doest
at one place is 12.00 noon. What will be not explains A
the time at the three other places? B. Both A and R are true but R is the
A. 12.00 noon correct explanation of A
B. 1.00 pm C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
C. 2.00 pm
D. Different time at different places 18. Which is the theory that explains the
origin of universe from a priomordial
12. Which one of the following figures repre-
explosion which broke the condensed
sents the age of the earth?
matter and scattered its fragments into
A. 4.6 million years space at enormous velocities?
B. 4.6 billion years A. Big Bang theory
C. 13.7 billion years B. Infinite time theory
D. 13.7 trillion years C. Steady state theory
13. The moon is showing its same face to the D. Oscillating universe theory
earth because: 19. The study of universe on grandscale is
A. It is not rotating about its own axis called:
B. Its rotation and revolution are opposite A. cosmology B. astronomy
C. Its periods of rotation and revolution C. exbiology D. astrology
are the same 20. Which of the following planets has been
D. Its rotation is faster than its given the name of cruel planet in the
revolution Indian astrology?
14. The difference in the duration of day and A. Mercury B. Saturn
night increases as one moves from: C. Neptune D. Jupiter
A. west ot east
21. The sum total of potentially knowable
B. east and west of the prime meridian
objects is called:
C. poles to equator
A. Universe B. Galaxy
D. equator to poles
C. Earth D. Milkyway
15. Which of the following planets does not 22. The earth is in.....position from the sun
belong to the group of terrestrial planets? in the solar system.
A. Mercury B. Venus A. 3rd B. 2nd
C. Uranus D. Earth C. 4th D. 5th
16. The pulsating universe theory says: 23. Which of the following statements
A. The universe illuminates and correctly explains Andromeda?
darkness alternately between periods A. It is the upper surface of the sun
of billions of years which emits white light
B. The universe enlarges and shrinks B. It is the satellite revolving round the
alternately planets of the sun
Objective Geography H 5
C. It is the nearest galaxy to our earth 3. The earth is the 3rd largest body in
D. It is the gravitational force by which the solar system.
the sun attracts the planets towards 4. The earth is a planet in the process of
its centre being a satellite.
24. Which of the following planets takes 164 A. 1 and 2 are correct
years in making one revolution around B. 2 and 3 are correct
the sun? C. 3 and 4 are correct
A. Neptune B. Mars D. None are correct
C. Saturn D. Uranus 31. An ancient star that has collapsed matter
25. The sun completes one revolution around so dense that it creates gravitational force
the centre of the milky way in.....million so powerful that even light also does not
years. escape. It is called:
A. 250 B. 84 A. Black hole
C. 110 D. 320 B. QSO
26. The term territorial water means: C. Neutron Star
A. the water found within the country D. All the above
in form of rivers and lakes 32. If sun dies it will be transformed into a:
B. the water secured from other countries A. Qusar
C. the water which is supplied to other B. White dwarf
countries C. Black dwarf
D. water of the sea located close to the D. All of the above
cost of a country
33. The sun contains over.....of the total mass
27. More than half of the world’s population of the solar system:
lives in latitudes. A. 2% B. 82.5%
A. 0° – 20°N B. 0° – 20°S C. 98% D. 99.8%
C. 20°N – 40°N D.40° – 60°N
34. Assertion (A): The earth is also known
28. Which of the following planets have as watery planet.
highest density? Reason (R): The earth is the only planet
A. Earth B. Mars of the solar system which contains water
C. Mercury D. Venus in abundance.
29. Which of the following pair of factor is A. Both A and R are true and R is the
responsible for a lag of 52 minutes in correct explanation of A
two direct tides on the earth’s ocean B. Both A and R are true but R is not
surface? correct explanation of A
1. Earth’s rotation C. A is true but R is false
2. Earth’s revolution D. A is false but R is true
3. Moon’s rotation
35. The most important constituent of the
4. Moon’s revolution
Code: sun’s mass is:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 1. Silicon 2. Iron
C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 3. Hydrogen 4. Helium
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
30. Which of the following statement C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
regarding earth is correct?
1. The earth is satellite in the solar 36. All the planets revolve around the sun
system. in an elliptical orbit in the.....direction.
2. The earth is an asteroid in the solar A. variable B. clockwise
system. C. anticlockwise D. same
37. The distance between planets from the A. Earth’s revolution
sun can be described by: B. Earth rotation
A. Newton’s Law C. Earth rotation and inclination of its
B. Bode’s Law axis,
C. Hawkin’s Law D. Earth revolution and inclination of its
D. None of the above axis.
38. Each planet tends to be roughly twice as 44. When the earth is at its maximum
far from the sun as its next sunward distance from the sun it is called:
neighbour. This is called: A. sidereal B. equinox
A. Bgnolds’s Law B. Bode’s Law C. aphelion D. perihelion
C. Playfair’s Law D. All of the above 45. Earth can be the best described as a:
39. When there is winter solstice (Dec 22), A. Geoid
which one of the following angle would B. Oblate sphere
C. Cirde
be formed by the incidence of the sunrays
D. Sphere
over the tropic of cancer?
1 46. The planet which takes the longest time
A. 23 ° B. 43° to complete one revolution around the
2
sun is:
1
C. 47° D. 66 ° A. Neptune B. Saturn
2 C. Uranus D. Jupiter
40. Match the following:
47. The direction of rotation of the earth on
(a) Mercury 1. No Atmosphere its axis is:
(b) Mars 2. River Channel A. East to west B. North to south
(c) Jupiter 3. Planet which C. West to east D. South to north
could have been
star 48. The theories, which suggests that
(d) Saturn 4. Rippling bands planetary systems form as part of the
evolution history of some stars are
Codes: grouped into:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Natural theories
A. 3 4 1 2 B. Catastrophic theories
B. 1 4 4 2 C. Cataclysmic theories
C. 1 2 3 4 D. Meteoritic theories.
D. 2 3 1 4 49. Match the following:
41. Day and night on the surface of the earth (a) Meteorite theory 1. Jeans and Jeffreys
are caused by: (b) Supernova Theory 2. Hoyle
A. inclination of the earth axis. (c) Tidal Theory 3. Ottosmidt
B. rotation of the earth Codes:
C. precession of the equinoxes (a) (b) (c)
D. all of the above. A. 3 1 2
42. On.....the sun rises in the west: B. 3 2 1
A. Venus C. 1 3 2
B. Mercury D. 2 3 2
C. Jupiter 50. Match the following theories of the origin
D. Neptune of the earth and their proponents:
43. Seasonal changes on the earth surface (a) Nebular Hypo- 1. Kant
are caused by: thesis
(b) Proto Planet 2. Von wizsacker 57. Latitudes refers to:
(c) Planetesimal 3. Chamberlin A. angular distance of a point on the
Theory earth’s surface along a Meridian Nor
(d) Binary Star 4. Russel and Little- S of equator.
theory ton B. angular distance of a Meridian in
Codes: relation to sun’s rays
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. angular distance of any elliptical plane
A. 1 2 3 4 in relation to the tilt of the earth
B. 4 3 2 1 D. angular distance of a plane in-relation
C. 3 2 1 4 to angle of sun’s rays
D. 4 1 2 3 58. The meaning of longitude is:
51. Sideral means: A. the angular distance of a line around
A. Pertaining or referring to the stars. central Meridian
B. the angular distance of a point on the
B. Pertaining or referring to the sun
earth’s surface east or west of central
C. Pertaining or referring to the moon.
Meridian.
D. Pertaining or referring to cosmic
C. the linear distance from the central
bodies.
part of the earth measured in angles.
52. In Solar System which two planets are D. the curvilinear distance measured
on either side of earth? from any point in relation to a central
A. Mars and Venus point.
B. Saturn and Jupiter
C. Mars and Saturn 59. The interval of 1° latitude measures:
D. None of these A. 211 kilometres B. 111 km
C. 91 km D. 241 km
53. Which planet if it was to brought on the
ocean will float? 60. There is a continuous day of six months
A. Jupiter B. Uranus and night of six months beyond.
C. Mars D. Saturn 1
A.66 ° Lat. B. 90° Lat.
54. Which planet has the largest equatorial 2
radius? C. 75° Lat D. 45° Lat.
A. Saturn B. Jupiter
61. The linear distance of a degree of latitude
C. Mars D. Earth
on an average is:
55. Latitude of a place is determined by: A. 79 miles B. 69 miles
A. Gnomon. C. 70.6 miles D. 72 miles
B. clinometer.
C. establishing the meridian of a place. 62. Longitudes unlike latitudes are not used
D. dividing the circumference by angular for measuring distance because:
distance. A. longitudes are vertical
B. all the longitudes coverage at poles.
56. The location of place A is at 60°E C. The length of degree of longitude
longitude and 30°S latitude while the outside the tropics vary widely.
location of B is 60°E longitude and 45°N D. Longitudes are Horizontal
latitude. Time at B will be:
A. half-an-hour behind A 63. Every.....degree we go eastward local
B. half-an-hour ahead of A time is.....by one hour.
C. half-an-hour ahead or behind that of A A. 15°, advanced B. 15°, retarted
D. the same as that of A C. 10°, advanced D. 10°, retarded
64. Which of the following statement is true: Codes:
1. The earth rotates 1° in 4 minutes. (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Places east of Greenwich see the sun A. 4 3 2 1
earlier B. 1 2 3 4
3. Longitudes keep changing with C. 3 4 2 1
international agreements D. 4 3 1 2
4. At 75° latitude the longitudes are 18
miles. 72. Match the following:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 1
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4 1. Tropic of cancer (a) 23 ° N
2
65. A place located 74°W of Greenwich will 2. Tropic of (b) 23°S
have time: Capricorn
A. 5 hrs. 42 minutes advanced 3. Prime Meridian (c) 0° Longitude
B. 5 hrs. 42 minutes behind
C. 4 hrs 56 minutes behind Codes.
D. 4 hrs 56 minutes advanced A. 1a, 2b, 3c B. 1c, 2b, 3a
C. 1c, 2a, 3b D. 1a, 2b, 3b
66. In which country, people will have to
adjust their watches maximum times to 73. The first person to say that the earth is
conform to the time zones. sphere was:
A. Russia B. Canada A. Archimedes B. Copernicus
C. USA D. Chile C. Galileo D. Eratosthenes
67. The international date line which is at..... 74. The lengthiest shadow will be found in:
is.....hrs ahead of GMT. A. Vostok B. Archorage
A. 90°W, 12. B. 90°E, 12. C. Spitsbergen D. Teradel feugo
C. 180°W, 24 D. 180°E, 12
75. The asteroidal belt lies between:
68. The earth revolves around the sun in an A. Earth and Mars
elliptical orbit at a speed of .....per second. B. Jupiter and Mars
A. 16.5 km/s C. Mercury and Uranus
B. 22.5 km/s D. Neptune and Venus
C. 18.5 miles or 29.8 km/s
D. 29.5 km/s 76. When the moon is nearest to the earth,
it is called to be in:
69. A leap year consists of:
A. 364 days A. Perigee B. Apogee
B. 365 days C. Penumbra D. Umbra
C. 366 days 77. The ocean of tranquillity is located on:
D. 365 days and an extra night A. Mercury B. Earth
70. The earth takes about.....to complete one C. Moon D. Jupiter
rotation. 78. Which of the following statment is/are
A. 23 hours correct?
B. 24 hours 1. We see only one face of the moon.
C. 24 hours. 6 minutes 2. The moon takes the same time in
D. 23 hours 54 minutes completing one revolution around the
71. Match the following: earth and one rotation on its axis
(a) Summer solstice 1. June 21 3. The gravitational force on the moon
(b) Winter solstice 2. December 22 is 6 times less than that of the earth
(c) Vernal equinox 3. March 21 4. The day and night temperatures vary
(d) Atumnal equinox 4. September 23 widely on the moon.
A. 1 and 2 are correct 85. The name “cross roads of the pacific” is
B. 1, 2 and 4 are correct given to:
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct A. Barmuda B. Fiji
D. All are correct C. Hawaii D. Elice
79. Which planet experiences a day-almost— 86. Rapidly rotating stars emitting intense
(1.00 and 1.03 day) of the same duration radio waves are called:
as that of the earth: A. Neutron stars
A. Mercury B. Saturn B. Pulsars
C. Mars D. Uranus C. Quasuars
D. All of the above
80. A peninsula is:
A. a piece of land surrounded by water 87. Cygnus X – 1 is a:
A. Binary star of a black hole.
on three sides.
B. Black hole
B. a narrow piece of land.
C. X-RAY source
C. a piece of land elongated and surrounded
D. Supernova.
by water.
D. a triangular piece of land surrounded 88. Which of the following statements can
by water. be taken as evidence to show that the
Earth is spherical?
81. Which of the following is a difference A. The rotation of the earth from east to
between a gulf and a bay? west.
A. A gulf occupies the mouth of a river B. Earth’s various parts have night or
a bay occupies the mouth of many day.
rivers C. The horizon of the earth is seen to be
B. A gulf is of large size while bay is of curved when see from satellite.
small size D. The revolution of the earth around
C. A gulf is a lowland region while a bay the sun.
is a highland 89. Solar eclipse takes place when:
D. Bay and gulf are both part of sea that A. The earth comes between the sun and
extended into the land but a gulf has the moon.
a narrow entrance that a bay. B. The moon passes between the sun and
82. A narrow creek of land that connects two the earth
larger land masses is called: C. The sun comes between the earth and
A. Peninsula B. Isthmus the moon.
C. Strait D. Cape D. Planets of the solar system lie on the
same plane.
83. The name given to a widened river.....
90. Which latitude will have longest nights
mouth at the point of a river enters the
in the southern Hemisphere at the
sea is:
summer solstice?
A. Estuary B. Delta
A. 66°S B. 45°S
C. Gulf D. Bay
1
84. .....is a triangular landmass that forms C. 66°N D. 23 °N
at its mouth when a river splits into 2
several branches just before entering 91. The reclaimed portions of the sea in
the sea. Netherlands are called:
A. Gulf B. Delta A. Ria B. Polders
C. Isthmus D. Strait C. Young pits D. Sounds
92. Match the following: 1. Circumnavigation
(a) Isoplesths 1. Similar value of 2. Rotation
particular, pheno- 3. The shadow of the earth on moon
menon during eclips
(b) Isonomal 2. Continuous value 4. Satellite Photographs
on maps. A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
(c) Isochrones 3. Equal travel time C. 1, 2 and 3 D. All of them
from a common 98. Lunar eclipse means:
centre. A. The average angle made by a line
Codes: drawn from the moon to the earth
(a) (b) (c) B. The earth comes between the sun and
A. 3 1 2 the moon and the centres of all the
B. 1 2 3 three come on the same straight line
C. 3 2 1
C. Direction or path of the moon.
D. 2 3 1
D. The moon comes between the sun and
93. Match the following: the earth and it causes shadows of
(a) Isohypes 1. Equ al flowing the moon to fall on the earth.
date.
99. Insular means an area:
(b) Isophene 2. Equ al Seismic
A. surrounded by land on all sides.
activity.
B. surrounded by water on all sides
(c) Isoseismal 3. Equal elevation
C. slightly elevated from the adjoining
above sea.
region.
Codes:
D. drained by rivers from all sides.
(a) (b) (c)
A. 3 1 2 100. Doldrums are:
B. 1 2 3 A. a low pressure belt around the equator
C. 2 3 1 where the winds are very light and
D. 3 2 1 sea very calm,
94. The points in the heavens that is directly B. areas of calm seas.
above the observer is: C. trade wind belts.
A. Apogee B. Perigee D. areas where the sea is very rough
C. Pericline D. Zenith around equator.
95. An imaginary belt of 12 constellations or 101. Horse latitudes are:
group of star is called: A. tones where fodder for horses are
A. Pulsar B. Zodiac grown
C. Stellar group D. Zodiacal light B. latitudinal zones where under some
climatic conditions horses originated.
96. When the sun is shinning vertically over C. subtropical high pressure belts
the tropic of cancer. D. latitudinal zones intermediate between
A. Nights are equal to 24 hours at the equator and tropics.
South Pole.
B. Days and nights are of 16 hours 102. The region lying between tropics of
duration at North Pole. cancer and capricorn is called:
C. Days and nights are equal in northern A. Horse LatitutdesB. Subtropical zone
and southern Hemisphere. C. Torrid zone D. All of the above
D. Nights are longer than days in the 103. An oasis is:
northern Hemisphere. A. the name of an environmental
97. Which of the following is not connected organisation.
with proof of the earth shape? B. farmlands of Australia
C. another name of depression in desert. 112. The basic difference between a lake and
D. a small area of greenery and water in a tank is:
desert A. lake and tank are both land enclosed
104. Which explorer’s expedition conclusively water bodies but tank is man made.
proved that the earth is spherical in B. a tank is big while lake is small.
shape? C. a lake is big while tank is small
A. Christopher Columbus D. a lake can be in oceans as well as
B. Vasco da Gama land, tank is only on land
C. Captain Tasman 113. The southern limit of India (mainland)
D. Megellan is:
105. The height of land is expressed in: A. 6°4' N Lat.
A. feet or metres above sea level B. 7°4' N Lat.
B. metres C. 8°4' N Lat.
C. spot heights D None of these
D. kilometres
114. The shortest distance between two places
106. The period of cycle of solar activity on the globe lies along.
(appearance and disappearance) of sun A. 45°N Lat.
spots is about..... years. B. 45°S Lat.
A. 5 B. 11 C. The prime meridian
C. 8 D. 17 D. The equator
107. The three main is land groups in the 115. Consider the following diagram and
pacific from east to west are: answer the question.
A. Melanesia, Polynesia and Micronesia.
B. Micronesia, Polynesia and Melanesia.
C. Melanesia, Micronesia and Polynesia. the figure indicates:
D. Polynesia, Micronesia and Melanesia. A. Lunar eclipse B. Solar eclipse
108. The name for “Lands end” that is the tip C. Full Moon D. Tidal bore
of the last land that projects into the sea 116. Which of the following options correctly
is: represents the numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4
A. Embayment B. Head land
respectively in the following figure of
C. Cape D. Peninsula
solstices and equinoxes.
109. Had there been equator in place of tropic
of cancer in India, the change caused in
23 2
the climate would be :

1°
N
e quinox
23 2
0° S
A. Low temperature and high rainfall.

1°
B. High temperature and high rainfall.

C. High temperature and low rainfall.
D. Low temperature and low rainfall.
23 1 ° N
110. Which of the following is the largest star? 2
0°
4 23 1 °N W inter
A. Sun B. Silion Aurigae S um m er 2 2
23 1 ° S Sols tice
2
Sols tice 0°
C. Trumpler D. Betelgeuse 23 1 °S
2
111. The tropics extend from north to south

for.....degrees.
3 23 1 ° N
A. 11.75 B. 23.5 e q u in
o x
2
0°
C. 47 D. 30 23 1 ° S
2
A. March 21, December 22, September help of pole star cannot be employed in
23, June 21 the southern hemisphere.
B. December 22, September 23, June, 21, Reason (R): There is no star equivalent
March 21, to pole star in the southern hemisphere.
C. September 23, June 21, March 21, A. Both A and R are true and R is the
December 22. the correct explanation of A
D. June 21, March 21, December 22, B. Both A and R are true but R is not
September 23 correct explanation of A
117. The latitude of a place situated on the C. A is true but R is false
equator is: D. A is false but R is true
1° 123. Halo’ around the sun or moon are
A. 23 B. 0°
2 produced due to:
1° 1° A. Refraction of light by ice crystals
C. 66 D. 33
2 2 B. Refraction of light by stone
C. Reflection of Light by stone
118. Assertion (A): Days and nights all over
D. Reflection of Light by Ice crystals
the globe except the equator and the poles
are of varying lengths at different times 124. Assertion (A): It is inferred that life
of the year. was originated in the ocean.
Reason (R): The earth’s axis is oblique Reason (R): Simpler and lower animals
and it points in the same direction are aquatic and the cells and body fluids
throughout the year. of all animals contain salts
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not B. Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true D. A is false but R is true
119. The earth rotates.....in 24 hours. 125. The primitive atmosphere of the earth
A. 180° B. 90° was devoid of free oxygen but rich in:
C. 60° D. 360° A. Nitrogen and ozone.
120. The Indian standard time is ahead of B. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
G.M.T. by: C. Amonia, methane and hydrogen
A. 1 hour B. 3 hours D. Methane and carbon dioxide.
1 1 126. Assertion (A): Elements like hydrogen,
C. 4 hours D. 5 hours oxygen, carbon and nitrogen could not
2 2
exist in free state on primitive earth
121. When and where was 180th meridian Reason (R): The temperature of
designated as international Date Line by primitive earth was estimated to be
international meridian conference. 5000–6000°C.
A. 1884 Washington D.C. A. Both A and R are true and R is the
B. 1804 Tokyo correct explanation of A
C. 1894 London. B. Both A and R are true but R is not
D. 1824 Dumraon the correct explanation of A
122. Assertio n (A): The method of C. A is true but R is false
determining latitude of a place with the D. A is false but R is true
127. Assertion (A): The organic compounds 133. When it is noon along 82°30'E longitude
that arose on primitive earth were not along what degree of longitude it will be
subjected to degradation. 6.30 am?
Reason (R): The Atmosphere of A. along 165°E
primitive earth was without free-oxygen B. along 67°30'W
(non oxygenic) C. 0°E or W
134. The time taken by the sun to revolve
correct explanation of A
around the centre of our galaxy is:
B. Both A and R are true but R is not
A. 500 million years.
the correct explanation of A
B. 250 million years.
C. 100 million years.
D. 25 million years.
128. If stars are seen to rise perpendicular to
the horizon by an observer, he is located 135. The colour of a star is an indication of
on: its:
A. North Pole B. South Pole A. luminosity
C. Tropic of Cancer D. Equator B. distance from the sun
C. temperature
129. Consider the following astral bodies:
D. distance from the earth
1. Sirus
2. Venus 136. Comet shoemaker-levy, hit the planet.
3. Mars A. Jupiter B. Mars
Correct sequences in decreasing order of C. Saturn D. None of these
their brightness is: 137. A meteor is:
A. 2, 3 and 1 B. 1, 2 and 3 A. a rapidly moving star
C. 3, 2 and 1 D. 2, 1 and 3 B. a piece of matter which has entered
130. An aeroplane takes off from 30°N the earth’s atmosphere from outer
latitude 50° East long and lands at the space
opposite end of the earth where does it C. a slowly moving star
land? D. a piece of matter which has entered
A. 30° North Lat. 50° West long. the earth’s atmosphere from inner
B. 30° South Lat. 50° West long. space
C. 50° North Lat. 30° West long. 138. The standard time of the following
D. 30° South Lat. 130° West long. countries is ahead or behind Greenwich
131. The length of its day and the tilt of its mean time depending on whether they
axis are almost identical to those of the are east and west of the longitude passing
earth. This is true. through Greenwich:
A. Neptune B. Saturn 1. Cuba 2. Greece
C. Mars D. None of these 3. Iraq 4. Costarica
132. The shortest air route from perth to 5. Japan
London is: Which one of the following sequential
A. Perth — Bombay — Rome — London. order gives the correct arrangement of
B. Perth, Aden, Paris, London. the countries according to their standard
C. Perth, Ankara, Paris, London. time from a head to behind G.M.T.?
D. Perth — Mombasa — Rome — A. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 B. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
London C. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 D. 3, 5, 4, 1.2
139. Consider the following statements. A 144. Which one of the following may have
person in a spaceship located halfway alien life because of a very conductive
between the earth and the sun will notice environment to life ?
that the: A. Europa—The Jupiter’s Moon.
1. Sky is jet black. B. Moon—The earth’s Moon.
2. Stars do not twinkle. C. Jupiter
3. Temperature outside the spaceship is D. Mars
much higher than that on the surface
145. On which planet was the space craft
of the earth.
Of these statements “Magellan” sent?
A. 3 alone is correct A. Saturn B. Mars
B. 1 and 2 are correct C. Venus D. Jupiter
C. 1 and 3 are correct 146. What is Hale-Bopp?
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct A. A toy
140. Diamond ring is a phenomenon observed: B. Cartoon character
A. at the start of a total solar eclipse. C. Comet
B. at the end of a total solar eclipse. D. International company
C. only in the central regions of the 147. Assertion (A): The atmosphere receives
totality trail. most of the heat only in directly from
D. only along the peripheral regions of the sun and directly from the earth’s
the totality trail. surface.
141. Which one of the following longitudes Reason (R): The conversion from short-
along with the prime meridian forms a wave terrestrial energy takes place at
great circle on the globe? the earth’s surface.
A. 180° B. 90°E A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. 0° D. 90°W correct explanation of A
142. Captain of a ship moving westward B. Both A and R are true but R is not
records the local time of the 10.00 hrs. the correct explanation of A
Monday at 90°W. If the speed of the ship C. A is true but R is false
is the same as the speed of the rotation D. A is false but R is true
of the earth, which of the following local 148. The shortest distance betweem two places
time and day would be found by the on the globe is along:
captain at international date line. A. 45°N latitude
A. 04.00 Monday B. 10.00 Monday B. 45°S latitude
C. 10.00 Tuesday D. 16.00 Tuesday
C. Prime meridian
143. Consider the following statements and D. International dateline
select the correct answer from the codes
149. Which is a celestial phenomenon?
given below:
A. Bone hole B. Black hole
1. The northern end of the earth’s axis
is called north pole. C. Rainbow D. Comet
2. 45 parallel is half of the length of the 150. At the time of the summer solstice in
equator the northern hemisphere the length of
3. There is parallelism of the earth axis. the day will be twelve hours at the:
4. The earth’s speed of revolution is A. Tropic of cancer
faster in aphelion position. B. Tropic of capricorn
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. Arctic circle
C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 2 D. Equator
151. The planet nearest to the earth is: 157. Consider the following statements
A. Jupiter B. Mars regarding asteroids:
C. Mercury D. Venus 1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying
152. At the winter solstice the noon altitude sites orbiting the Sun.
of the sun at the tropic of cancer is: 2. Most of the asteroids are small but
A. 23.5° B. 43.0° some have diameter as large as 1000
C. 47.0° D. 66.5° k.m.
153. The limit beyond which stars suffer 3. The orbit of steroids lies between the
internal collapse is called: orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.
A. Chandrashekhar Limit Of these statements:
B. Raman Effect A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C. Aurora Borealis B. 2 and 3 are correct
D. Quasan Zone C. 1 and 2 are correct
154. When there is noon at I.S.T. Meridian D. 1 and 3 are correct
people on another place of the earth are 158. About 50% of the world population is
taking their 6 O’ clock morning tea. The concentrated between the latitudes of
longitude of place is? A. 20°S and 40°S B. 40°N and 60°N
A. 17°80' E B. 7°30' W C. 5°N and 20°N D. 20°N and 40°N
C. 172°30' W D. 90° W
159. Which one of the following is the most
155. Match List I with List II and select the
important reason for the establishment
correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists: of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, at
List I List II Thumba?
(Special (Name of A. The sea is near to the place in the
Character) of the planet) east west and south direction
(a) Smallest planet of the 1. Mercury B. It is a place near to a city in India,
solar system which is nearest to the geographic
(b) Largest planet of the 2. Venus equator.
solar system C. It is situated on the geomagnetic
(c) Planet second from 3. Jupiter equator.
the sun in the solar D. Outer space near Thumba exhibits
system queer atmospheric phenomena.
(d) Planet nearest to the 4. Murcury
160. Along which one of the following
Sun. 5. Saturn
meridians did India experience the first-
Codes: lig ht of the sunrise of the new
(a) (b) (c) (d)
millennium:
A. 2 3 5 1
A. 2°30' W B. 82°30' E
B. 3 5 1 2
C. 92°30' W D. 92°30' W
C. 4 1 2 3
D. 4 3 2 1 161. What is the difference between Indian
156. One astronomical unit is the average Standard time and Greenwich standard
distance between: time?
A. Earth and the Sun A. – 4 hours and 30 minutes
B. Earth and the Moon B. – 5 hours
C. Jupiter and the Sun C. + 5 hours and 30 minutes
D. Mars and the Sun. D. + 6 hours and 30 minutes
162. Indian standard time is the local time of B. The Sun will never come over head at
1 either of these places.
82 °E which passes through. C. At Mumbai the Sun can come over-
2
A. Allahabad B. Delhi head, but it will never do so at Delhi
C. Guntur D. Patna D. At Delhi the sun can come overhead
163. Which one of the following places have but it will never do so at Mumbai
their standard time that are the same 168. Indian Standard Meridian passes through
as G.M.T? the states of U.P., Chhattisgarh:
1. Accra 2. Dublin A. A.P. and Karnataka.
3. Madrid 4. bisbon B. A.P. and Tamil Nadu
Choose the correct answer from the codes C. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
given below: D. Odisha and A.P.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 4 169. Tropic of cancer passes through the states
C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4 of Gujarat, M.P., Chhattisgarh:
164. Which one of the following is not as A. Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and
astronomical object? Mizoram
A. Pulsar B. Brittle Star B. Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Sikkim, A.P.
C. Blackhole D. Quasar C. A.P., Karnataka, Kerala, Bihar
165. The North Pole is always in the light: D. W.B., Bihar, Jharkhand, Assam
A. from September 23 to March 21 170. How many times the international date
B. from March 21 to September 23 line deviates from 180° longitude:
C. from June 21 to December 22 A. 4 B. 6
D. None of these C. 8 D. 10
166. The solar eclipse achieves totality only 171. Which of the following is the charact-
in limited geographical regions because: eristic property of magnetic north pole?
A. the size of the shadow of the moon on A. static
the earth is small as compared to the B. shifting fast
cross section of the earth. C. shifting slowly
B. the earth is not smooth flat surface, D. moving at intervals
but has elevations and depressions 172. The longitude determining Indian
C. the trajectories of the earth around
Standard time passes through
the sun and the moon around the
A. Ranchi B. Delhi
earth are not perfect circles.
C. Chennai D. Kolkata
D. sun rays can reach most of the
173. Which of the following planets has the
Peripheral regions of shadow of the
maximum number of satellites?
moon due to atmospheric refraction
A. Venus B. Jupiter
167. The axis of rotation of the earth is tilted C. Saturn D. Uranus
by 23.5° to the plane of revolution around
174. Sun rises at Kolkata (80°35') at 6.15 am.
the Sun. The latitude of Mumbai is less
What will be the time of sunrise at
than 23.5° whereas the latitude of Delhi
Mumbai (72°50'):
is more than 23.5°. Which one of the
A. 7.00 a.m. B. 6.46 a.m.
following statements in this regard is
C. 6.30 a.m. D. 6.25 a.m.
correct.
A. The Sun can come overhead at both 175. Which of the following statements is not
these places. true about “Doldrum”?
A. It is found across all longitudes C. A is true but R is false
B. It is located at the equator D. A is false but R is true
C. It is a zone of feeble westerly winds 180. Assertion (A): All meridians are great
D. It is a high pressure belt circles.
176. Match List I with List II and select the Reason (R): The great circles divide the
correct answer using the codes given earth sphere into two equal parts.
below the lists: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
List I List II correct explanation of A
(Satellite) (Related Planet) B. Both A and R are true but R is not
(a) Ariel 1. Saturn the correct explanation of A
(b) Ganymede 2. Jupiter C. A is true but R is false
(c) Phobos 3. Mars D. A is false but R is true
(d) Titan 4. Uranus 181. Comets are luminous celestial bodies
Codes: moving round the:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Jupiter B. Earth
A. 1 2 3 4 C. Sun D. Moon
B. 2 3 4 1 182. Doldrums are located between:
C. 3 1 2 4 A. 10°N to 15°N B. 5°S to 10°S
D. 4 2 3 1 C. 10°S to 15°S D. 5°N to 5°S
177. Study the following statements regarding 183. The latitude of a place expresses its
‘summer solstice’ and select the correct angular position relative to the place of
answer from the code given below: A. axis of the earth
1. The sun is on the cancer. B. equator
2. The sun is on the capricorn. C. north pole
3. The day is longest and night is D. south pole
shortest in the northern hemisphere. 184. Coriolis Force is occasioned by:
4. The day is longest and night is A. Pressure differences
shortest in the southern hemisphere. B. Temperature differences
Codes: C. Relief obstructions
A. 1 and 2 are correct D. Rotation of the earth
B. 2 and 4 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct 185. The planets between Sun and asteroids
D. 2 and 3 are correct are:
A. Mercury, Earth, Jupiter and Saturn
178. A planet’s farthest point in its orbit from B. Mercury, Venus, Jupiter and Saturn
the sun is known as: C. Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars
A. Apogee B. Perigee D. Mercury, Earth, Venus and Jupiter
C. Aphelion D. Perihelion
186. “Datum” Line denotes.
179. Assertion (A): Directions on the earth A. The boundary between India and
are entirely arbitrary. China.
Reason (R): A spherical surface has no B. An imaginary line which passes
edges, beginning or end. through zero degree meridian.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. An imaginary horizontal line from
correct explanation of A wher e heigh ts and depths are
B. Both A and R are true but R is not measured
the correct explanation of A D. The line across which dates change.
187. Consider: 191. The stars whose brightness suddenly
Assertion (A): There is no atmosphere increases ten to twenty magnitudes or
on moon. more and then fades into normal
Reason (R): Only one part of the moon brightness are called:
can be seen from the earth. A. Explosion stars B. Supernova
Select the correct answer from the code C. Nova D. only B and C
given below. 192. Which of the following planets takes least
A. Both A and R are true and R is the time to complete one revolution around
correct explanation of A the sun?
B. Both A and R are true but R is not A. Mercury B. Earth
the correct explanation of A C. Mars D. Venus
C. A is true but R is false 193. The stars which show varying degrees of
D. A is false but R is true luminosity are called:
188. Consider: A. Double Stars B. Binary Stars
Assertion (A): Hot deserts are situated C. Luminous Stars D. Cephied Stars
on the w estern margins of the 194. Assertion (A): The equatorial section
continents. of the sun takes 25 days and the polar
Reason (R): Rain bearing winds in 30 days to make one rotation about its
horse latitudes change their direction axis.
according to season. Reason (R): All parts of the sun do not
Select the correct answer from the code rotate with the same speed because of
given below: gaseous nature.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not B. Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
189. Equinox is a state in which the duration 195. Which one of the following theories is
of day and night is equal. It falls on: associated with the monistic concept?
A. 10th March and 13th September A. Binary Hypothesis
B. 21st March and 23rd September B. Nebular Hypothesis
C. 25th March and 31st September C. Planetesimal Hypothesis
D. None of these D. Tidal Hypothesis
190. Match the followings: 196. The two planets in the solar system which
List I List II rotate on its axis from east to west are:
(a) Doldrums 1. 5°N to 5°S A. Saturn, Mercury
(b) Horse Latitudes 2. 30°N to 30° S B. Mercury, Jupiter
(c) Torrid Zone 3. 40° N and 50° S C. Saturn, Mars
(d) Roaring Forties 4. 23½° Nand 23½° S D. Venus, Uranus
Codes 197. Which star has the largest percentage
(a) (b) (c) (d) in the universe?
A. 1 2 3 4 A. Binary Stars
B. 1 2 4 3 B. Single Stars
C. 2 1 3 4 C. Multiple Stars
D. 2 1 4 3 D. Cephied stars
198. Which of the following planets was 200. Galaxies are the best described as:
worshipped as the most beautiful goddess A. congregation of dust particles and
by the people of Greece in the ancient stars that are held together by force
times? of gravity
A. Venus B. Mars B. congregation of constellations rotating
C. Saturn D. Jupiter around the nucleus
199. What form does the milky way Galaxy C. congregation of primordial dust
has? particles
1. Spiral 2. Elliptical D. congregation of stars that are held
3. Irregular 4. Crab
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 by molecular attraction of the
C. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4 particles
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B D C D D D C D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C D C C B A D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A C A A D C A D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C D A C C B B C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B A D C A A C A B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A D B A D A B B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B C A B C A D C C B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B A B A B B C D C A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D B B B C B C C B A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B B A D B A D B B A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C C D D A A D C C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C A C C A A B A D D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A A A A C A A D B A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C C C B C A B A C D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A A A D B C A C B D
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
D A A D D A C D C D
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C A A B B A C D A A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
C C B B D D C C A A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
C D C D C C B B B B
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B D A B A B B C A A
2 Geomorphology
1. Which one of the following is produced 8. Which of the following landforms is not
by rain water action? formed by weathering?
A. Gorge B. Cliff A. Rift Valley B. Crevasses
C. Gully D. Dome C. Talus D. Yardang
2. Sand duns form a major topographic fea- 9. Which of the following landforms is
ture of: formed by glacier?
A. Eastern Rajasthan A. Tarn B. Lagoon
B. Western Rajasthan C. Lappies D. Doline
C. Punjab 10. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada
D. Gujarat associated?
3. The deepest lake in the world is: A. Glacial erosion B. Wind erosion
A. Pushkar lake B. Lake superior C. River erosion D. Wind deposition
C. Victoria Lake D. Baikal Lake 11. The example of an intermontane plateau
4. Vindhyan rocks contain large deposits of: is:
A. Lime stone B. Basalt A. The plateau of Bolivia
C. Lignite D. Iron ore B. The plateau of Antrim
5. Which one of the following statements is C. The plateau of Deccan
false? D. The plateau of pantagonia
A. Peninsular region is geologically the 12. Conard Discontinuity is found.
oldest part of India A. between crust and mantle.
B. The Himalayas represent the youngest B. between sial and sima.
folded mountains in the world C. between upper mantle and lower
C. The Western Coast of India has been mantle.
formed by the depositional activity of D. between out and inner core.
rivers 13. Asthenosphere is:
D. The Gondwana rocks have the largest A. The Layer beneath the Lithosphere.
deposits of coal in India. B. The Layer above the Lithosphere.
6. The only landlocked country in south- C. The Layer beneath the hydrosphere.
east Asia is: D. None of the above
A. Laos B. Thailand 14. The term Isostasy was used for the first
C. Malaysia D. Kampuchia time by:
7. Which of the following features is the A. Daly B. Dutton
product of vulcanicity? C. Swess D. None of these
A. Fold Mountain 15. Repetti Discontinuity can be located
B. Escarpment between:
C. Geosynclines A. sial and sima
D. Caldera B. outer core and inner core
21
C. upper mantle and lower mantle 23. The hypothesis of plate-tectonics assumes
D. crust and mantle that the earth is composed of:
16. Pratt theory is related to: A. 10 lithospheric plates
A. sea floor spreading B. 15 lithospheric plates
B. Isostasy C. 20 lithospheric plates
C. continental drift D. 25 lithospheric plates
D. earthquakes 24. Which of follownig statement is true
17. Continental drift refers to the: about Igneous rocks?
A. ver tical as w ell as horizon tal A. They have a little amount of fossils.
movements of the continents on a vast B. They are porous for water.
scale. C. They are crystalline as well as non-
B. horizontal movement of the continents crystalline.
on a vast scale. D. These rocks do not contain silica.
C. vertical movement of the continents 25. Gabbro is an example of:
on a small scale. A. Igneous Rocks
D. horizontal movement of the continents B. Sedimentary rocks
on a small scale. C. Metamorphic rocks
18. In America, the idea of continental drift D. None of these
was developed by: 26. Following are the examples of Igneous
A. F.B. Taylor B. Win Davis rocks except.
C. Daly D. Darwin A. Basalt B. Gabbro
19. Which of the following is known as C. Dolerite D. Dolomite
"Island of Precipitation"? 27. The Batholiths covering small areas are
A. Fault Mountains called:
B. Fold Mountains A. Stocks
C. Dome Mountains B. Dykes
D. Block Mountains C. Sills
20. Who formulated the hypothesis of sea D. Lapoliths
floor spreading for the first time? 28. Airy theory is related to:
A. Prof. Taylor A. Isostasy
B. Prof. W.M. Davis B. volcanoes
C. Prof. Harry Hess C. continental drift
D. None of these D. sea floor spreading
21. Mohorovicic Discontinuity is found 29. Which of the statements is/are true of
between: Igneous Rocks?
A. outer and inner core 1. They are non-porous for water
B. sial and sima 2. These rocks are not subject to strong
C. sima and outer mantle erosion
D. uper mantle and lower mantle 3. These rocks contain silica from 40%
22. Heiskanen theory is related to: to 80%.
A. plate tectonics A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. continental drift B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. Isostasy C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. sea floor spreading D. None of these
30. Lava-obsidian is an example of: A. Arenaceous sediments (sandstone,
A. Sedimentary course siltstone)
B. Igneous B. Argillaceous sediments (siltstone)
C. Metamorphic C. Rudaceous sediments
D. None of these D. Inorganic sediments
31. Following are the example of Igneous 38. Which of the following statement is
rocks except. incorrect?
A. Granite B. Perlite A. Sedimentary rocks are made up of
C. Pumic stone D. Gneiss broken materials of sedimentary
32. Which of the following statement is igneous and metamorphic rocks
correct? B. These rocks are also known as strata
A. About 60% of the surface rocks are rocks.
igneous. C. The planes separating different layers
B. In thick crust of the earth 90% rocks are caused bedding planes
are igneous and 10% sedimentary. D. Bedding planes are always inclined.
C. About 20% of the surface rocks are
igneous and 80% are sedimentary. 39. Thickly bedded sediments are termed
D. About 80% of the surface rocks are ______ while thinly bedded sediments are
igneous and rest are sedimentary. called_____:
A. desiccated, massive
33. When shale is metamorphased it is trans-
B. cemented, desiccated
formed into:
C. massive, laminae
A. slate B. phyllite
C. schist D. all of the above D. lamlnae, massive
34. Rocksalt, anhydrite and gypsum are all: 40. The rock composed mainly of volcanic is
A. lithographic deposits called as:
B. detrital deposits A. Volcanic rocks
C. organic deposits B. Ash rocks
D. evaporite deposits C. Tuff
D. Pyroclastic rock
35. What is the difference between conglom-
erate and Breccia? 41. The broken materials as result of
A. Conglomerate is round, breccia is weathering, which form the source of
angular. sedimentary rock is called:
B. Conglomerate is angular, breccia is 1. clastic sedimentary rock
round. 2. detrital sedimentary rock.
C. Conglomerate is light, breccia is dark. 3. non-clastic sedimentary rock.
D. Conglomerate is porous, Breccia is 4. non detrital sedimentary rock.
compact. A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
36. Red colouration in sedimentary rocks is C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
because of: 42. Arrange the following rocks in a descend-
A. presence of iron-oxide ing order in terms of silica content:
B. presence of red sand 1. Basalt 2. Granite
C. presense of hydrous oxide 3. Andesite 4. Rhyolite
D. all of the above
A. 2, 3, 4, 1 B. 4, 3, 1, 2
37. Siltstone belongs to: C. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 4, 3
43. Identify the following rock: A. 6000 million years
1. It is coarse-grained igneous rock B. 4500 million years
consisting essentially of quartz, C. 9000 million years
feldspar and mica. D. 600 million years
2. It has a high proportion of silica. 50. What is not true about the mantle?
3. It has a less specific gravity. A. It extends from Moho to 2900 km.
4. It ranges in colour from light grey to B. It forms 83 per cent of the earth by
medium grey.
volume and 68 per cent by mass.
A. Andesite B. Peridotite
C. It is every where in semi plastic state.
C. Gabbro D. Granite
D. There is increase in seismic velocity.
44. An intrusive rock is:
51. That is the outer core in liquid is borne
A. volcanic lava solidified before reaching
out by the fact that:
the surface.
1. free earth oscillations give underiable
B. volcanic lava solidified after reaching
evidence of it.
the surface.
2. the p-waves are reflected back.
C. a variety of sedimentary rock.
D. a rock which has resisted erosion. 3. the L-waves are refracted.
4. the S-waves get lost after entering the
45. Which of the follownig characteristics of outer core
a sediment is least likely to change when A. 1 and 2 are correct
it becomes a rock?
A. Density B. Texture
C. 1 and 4 are correct
C. Porosity D. Composition
D. All are correct
46. Rocks with 65 percent silicon oxide are
52. The crust beneath the ocean basins is
better termed as:
composed of:
A. Mafic B. Felsic
A. Granitic rock
C. Silicic D. Alkali
B. Basaltic rock
47. Assertion (A) : The edge of the conti- C. Sedimentary rock
nental level is submerged to a depth of D. Metamorphic rock
about 200 m.
Reason (R) : This zone is called the 53. The most common element in the earth's
continental shelf. crust is:
A. Both A and R are true but R is the A. oxygen B. silicon
correct explanation of A. C. hydrogen D. aluminium
B. Both A and R are true but R is not 54. Which of the following statement is not
the correct explanation of A. true?
C. A is true and R is false. A. The upper continental crust and the
D. A is false but R is true. lower continental crust are seperated
48. The boundary between the mantle and by a discontinuity.
core is called: B. The lower continental crust is
A. Weichart–Gutenberg discontinuity relatively more dense.
B. Lehmann discontinuity C. The lower continental crust is chiefly
C. Zehmann free velocity Zone composed of basalts.
D. None of these D. The upper continental crust is floating
49. The average age of the earth is: on the lower continental crust.
55. Knowledge about the earth's interior can Codes:
be gained by: (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. density differences with depth A. 1 2 3 4
2. seismology B. 3 1 4 2
3. free earth oscillation C. 2 1 3 4
4. composition D. 3 2 4 1
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 61. Match the following:
C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3 (a) Loess 1. River deposits
56. Arrange the following constituents of the (b) Moraines 2. Glacier deposits
earth according to its percentage: (c) Gravels 3. Wind deposits
1. Silica 2. Titanium (d) Sand and clay 4. Sea deposits
3. Aluminium 4. Iron Codes:
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 1, 3, 4 A. 1 2 3 4
C. 1, 3, 2, 4 D. 2, 3, 1, 4 B. 3 2 1 4
C. 4 1 3 2
57. Which of the following is not true? D. 3 4 1 2
A. Rocks often develop cracks produced
62. Assertion (A): The Basalt rocks are
by compression or tension which are
formed over the surface, while granite
called joints.
rocks reach the surface only by being
B. In igneous rocks joints are often at
exposed by erosion.
right angles to the bedding plane.
C. Limestone and sandstone break into Reason (R): Basalt is volcanic rock
blocks while granite rock is plutonic rock.
D. Basalt break into columns A. Both A and R are true and R is the
58. Clay is a type of: B. Both A and R are true but R is not
A. Impermeable rock the correct explanation of A
B. Permeable rock C. A is true but R is false
C. Porous rock D. A is false but R is true
D. Hard rock
63. Clastic sedimentary rocks are largely or
59. Arrange the following sedimentary rocks completely made of particles of:
in ascending order according to their tex- A. eroded rock particles from the land.
ture. B. eroded volcanic matter
1. Gravels C. organic matter
2. Sands D. mostly clay materials
3. Clays 64. The capacity of rock to transmit water
4. Silts is:
5. Breccia A. permeability
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 B. porosity
C. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 D. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 C. oxidation
60. Match the following metamorphosed D. carbonation
forms: 65. Assertion (A): Clay is porous but is
(a) Graphite 1. Clay impermeable.
(b) Slate 2. Lime stone Reason (R): The small air spaces in
(c) Quartzite 3. Coal clay are not arranged in such a way that
(d) Marble 4. Sand stone water can pass through it.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the codes :
correct explanation of A A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. Both A and R are true but R is not B. 1 and 3 are correct
the correct explanation of A C. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C. A is true but R is false D. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
72. Which of the following characteristics is
66. Some igneous rocks contian a high per- not found in igneous rocks?
centage of iron, or aluminium or magne- A. They occur in layers according to the
sium oxides and are called basic rocks. depth of formation
Which of the following is an example of B. They contain crystals
basic rocks? C. They do not contain fossils
A. Gabbro B. Khondalite D. None of these
C. Charnokite D. Microsyenite
73. In tropical humid conditions when
67. What is granite? weathering takes place which of the
A. A common igneous rock that cooled at following is lost from feldspar:
the surface and is composed of feldspar A. Silica B. Calcium
and pyroxene. C. Iron D. Potassium
B. A common igneous rock that cooled
relatively slowly and is made up of 74. Feldspar is silicate of following minerals,
feldspar and quartz. which does not come in the group.
C. An igneous rock type that is a major A. Aluminium (Al) B. Potassium (K)
constituent of lava. C. Sodium (Na) D. Iron (Fe)
D. A common mineral that makes up a 75. The seas on the continental shelf is
large part of the earth's crust called:
68. Soap stone, a massive impure variety of A. arica-sea
talc which tends itself to carving is also B. the epicontinental sea
known as: C. shelt seas
A. Stealite B. Khondalite D. Both B and C
C. Green stone D. Charnockite
76. Find out the correct order, of the compo-
69. Some igneous rocks contain a high per- sition of sedimentary rocks.
centage of silica and are called acid A. limestone, shales, sandstone
rocks. Which of the following is not an B. shales, limestone, sandstone
example of acid rocks? C. shales sandstone, limestone
A. Basalt B. Granite D. sandstone, shales, limestone
C. Rhyolite D. Syenite
77. Loess is:
70. Which of the following pairs is the most A. Ice deposited sedimentary rocks
useful indetermining a rock's origin?
B. wind deposited sedimentary rocks
A. Colour and shape
C. only deposits
B. Size and weight
D. a soil type
C. Composition and texture
D. Density and volume 78. Till is:
71. Magnetism in rocks can be acquired by: A. sedimentary rocks formed of
1. Lightning cementation
2. Deposition of sedimentary rocks B. ice deposited soils
3. Wheathering of rocks C. ice deposited sedimentary rocks
4. Solidification of magma D. None of these
79. Which of the following is a chemically 88. When a mass of magma cuts across the
formed sedimentary rocks? beding plane then it is called:
A. Nitre A. Sill B. Till
B. Breccia C. Dyke D. Laccolith
C. Coal 89. If the lava is of acidic in nature the erup-
D. Limestone tion will be of:
80. Conglomerate is an example of: A. quite type B. explosive type
A. organically formed sedimentary rocks C. mild type D. none of these
B. mechanically formed sedimentary 90. Of all the eruptions, the most violent
rocks type is:
C. chemically formed sedimentary rocks A. plinian type B. vulcanian type
D. none of these C. vesuvian type D. pelean type
81. Breccia is: 91. The characteristic of the Hawaian type
A. an example of igneous rocks. volcano is:
B. an example of metamorphic rocks. A. periodic eruption with little explosive
C. sedimentary rocks formed because of activity
the process of cementation. B. silent effusion of lava with soma
D. none of these explosive activity
C. silent effusion of lava without any
82. Rock salt is an example of chemically
explosive activity
formed sedimentary rocks. Which of the
D. None of these
following is another example?
A. Gypsum B. Breccia 92. The most important constituent of vol-
C. Conglomerate D. Salt petre canic gases, which contributes nearly 90%
of the total content of volcanic gases, is:
83. Which of the following features may oc- A. water vapour B. steam
cur when lava cools at the surface? C. CO2 D. sulphur
A. Basalt plateau B. Sill
C. Batholith D. Laccolith 93. The light house of mediterranean is:
A. Visuvius volcano
84. An intrusion of magma along a bedding B. Etna volcano
plane is known as: C. Stromboli volcano
A. Sill B. Till D. Mauna loa
C. Dyke D. Batholith
94. The nickname 'The valley of ten thou-
85. Which of the following features is the sand smokes' is given to:
product of vulcanicity? A. Katmai valley
A. Caldera B. Atoll B. Hibok-Hibok valley
C. Geosyncline D. Dyke C. Pelee valley
86. When the Lava is viscous, the volcanic D. Pierre valley
eruption will most like be: 95. Mauna loa is an example of:
A. mild B. violent A. active volcano
C. moderate D. not certain B. dormant volcano
87. Following features are related to C. extinct volcano
vulcanicity except: D. plateau in a volcanic region
A. Geyser 96. The "Elastic Rebound Hypothesis" of
B. Fold earth quake was propounded by:
C. Dyke A. E.M. Davis B. H.F. Reid
D. Batholith C. Prof. E. Hess D. S.E. Thompson
97. During the earthquake, the shaking is A. Gabbro B. Rhyolite
the strongest near the: C. Periotite D. Basalt
A. isoseismal line 106. Which of the following statements is/are
B. epicentre correct?
C. focus 1. There is a marked increase in
D. everywhere earthquake velocity from mantle to
98. It is commonly believed that most of the core.
earth quake originates at a depth from: 2. The outer core is solid while the inner
A. 50 to 100 km core is liquid.
B. 75 to 100 km 3. The outer core is liquid where as the
C. 100 km to 150 km inner core is solid.
D. 150 km to 200 km 4. The core is composed chiefly of nickel
99. Which of the following is responsible for and iron.
most of the destructive force of the earth A. 1 and 2 are correct
quake? B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
A. P-waves B. S-waves C. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C. L-waves D. A and B D. All are correct
100. Isodiastrophic represents the line of: 107. Three layers of continental crust from
A. Equal disaster B. Equal damage top to below are:
C. Equal intensity D. Equal epicentre 1. sedimentary layer
2. granite layer
101. Which of the following represents an as-
3. basaltic layer
cending order mountains?
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 2, 1
A. System, chain, cordillera and range
C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1
B. Chain, range, system and cordillera
C. Range, system, chain and cordillera 108. The basic difference between oceanic and
D. System, range, chain and cordillera continental crust is in its:
102. The convection current hypothesis is A. density B. uniformity
related to: C. composition D. structure
A. Mountain building 109. Assertion (A): The crust is floating on
B. Origin of earth the layers beneath them.
C. Earthquake Reason (R): The density of the crust is
D. Volcano greater than water but lesser than the
103. Wheathering is: materials beneath them.
A. the alternate heating and cooling of A. Both A and R are true and R is the
rocks. correct explanation of A.
B. the break up of rocks exposed at the B. Both A and R are true but R is not
surface. the correct explanation of A.
C. the freezing of water in cracks in C. A is true but R is false.
rocks. D. A is false but R is true.
D. none of these. 110. Assertion (A) : The moho is the deepest
104. The density of the earth as a whole is: beneath the highest mountain ranges and
A. 2.5 B. 5.5 shallower beneath regions of lower sur-
C. 6.0 D. 5.0 face elevations.
Reason (R) : The massive portions
105. The asthenosphere over which the reach greater depth to obtain the needed
lithosphere is floating is made up of: buoyancy.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 117. Gypsum, Saltpetre, Pyrite and Haematite
correct explanation of A all can be found in:
B. Both A and R are true and R is not A. sedimentary rocks
the correct explanation of A B. igneous rocks
C. A is true but R is false C. matamorphic rocks
D. A is false but R is true D. sedimentary and igneous rocks
111. The combined rigid portion of mantle and 118. The Red river has very extensive
crust is called: lacustrine plain. it is situated in:
A. lithosphere B. asthenosphere A. S. Asia B. Central Africa
C. hydrosphere D. continental rock C. N. America D. W. Australia
112. The more plastic region of the mantle 119. An example for deltaic plain is:
which is largely composed of peridotite A. Amazon B. Congo
and on which lithosphere floats is called: C. Mississippi D. Bengal
A. soil B. oceanic block
120. The steep mounds that do not emerge
C. asthenosphere D. lithosphere
above the sea level as islands are called:
113. The mobile belts arranged in linear or A. Mantle plume B. Sea mounts
arcuate tracts that have been subjected C. Hot spots D. Volcanic islands
to severe deformation and mountain
121. The most important characteristics of
building and are found near the edges of
the continents are called: Guyots are:
A. orogenic belts A. they are very few in nature.
B. kratogenic belt B. they are formed by deposition of
C. seismic belt sedimentary rocks.
D. None of these C. they are always tilted.
D. they are truncated and have flat tops.
114. Which of the following statement about
orogenic belts is not true? 122. All the islands in the deep ocean basins
A. The young orogenic belts are made of are:
sedimentary rock. A. volcanic in origin
B. The older mountain belt extend to the B. depositional origin
ocean and abruptly term inate at the C. asostatic in origin
continental margin. D. tectonic in origin
C. All the orogenic belts were formed 123. The oldest ocean floor is not older than:
during palaeozoic to cenozoic period. A. Triassic period
D. All the orogenic belts have been B. Tertiary period
formed due to plate collision. C. Cretaceous period
115. The following is not a stable block of the D. Jurassic period
earth. 124. What is not true of mid oceanic ridges?
A. Deccan B. Scandinavia A. They are composed essentially of
C. Baltic D. Himalayas basalt.
116. The Ethiopian plateau is an example of: B. They are remarkably symmetrical.
A. Volcanic plateau C. The age of rocks formed increases
B. uplifted peneplain away from the crest of the ridge
C. regional peneplane D. All the ridges were formed in jurassic
D. peneplain period.
125. A plateau that lies betwen the mountain 131. The bottom topography of an ocean can
and the plain or the oceans are called: be shown by:
A. piedmont plateau A. hypsographic curve
B. continental plateau B. altimetric curve
C. intermontane plateau C. hydrostatic curve
D. oceanic plateau D. contour
126. Which of the following are formed due to 132. A depression in a range of mountain or
the feeling of lakes? hills is not called:
A. Peninsula formation A. Col B. Gorge
B. Piedmont plateau C. Ridge D. Canyon
C. Lacustrine plains
D. Alluvium deposits 133. Which of the following facts about conti-
nents is true?
1. They are connected in the northern
List I List II
hemisphere.
(a) The Patagonian 1. Pidmont plateau
plateau 2. Most continents are roughly triangular
(b) The South 2. Continental in shape.
African plateau plateau 3. Continents consist of rocks that is less
(c) The Bolivian 3. Intermontane dense than the rock in the ocean
plateau plateau basins.
Codes: 4. The Continental rocks are much older.
(a) (b) (c) Codes:
A. 1 2 3 A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 3 1 B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 3 1 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1 3 2 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
128. What is rift valley? 134. A regional surface of low relief having
A. It is a deep valley formed in between an elevation of within a few meters of
the mountains. sea-level and broadly convex is:
B. It is a valley on the sides of which A. Basement complex
are huge mountain. B. Platform
C. It is a sub sided land along a fault C. Shields
leaving a long narrow opening. D. Cratons
D. It is formed between two folds. 135. The essential difference between shields
129. Intermontane plateau are: and platform is:
A. dissected by streams A. Shields are stable part, platform are
B. surrounded by highlands mobile part
C. surrounded by lakes B. Shields are found within the continent
D. followed by two ridges but platform are foun d along
130. _____ is a narrow stretch of sea between continental margins
continental blocks. C. Platforms are covered by horizontal
A. Marginal ocean basins sedimentary strata, which shields are
B. Sea convex in form.
C. Headland D. Shields are made of granite, plateform
D. Lagoon of sedimentary rocks.
136. The world's busiest inland waterway is: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. St. Lawrence correct explanation of A
B. Danube B. Both A and R are true and R is not
C. Rhine the correct explanation of A
D. Nile C. A is true but R is false
137. The general trend of Alps mountain is: D. A is false but R is true
A. East-west 143. A well will always contain water if:
B. North-south A. the bottom of the well is far below the
C. North east–south west water table.
D. South-south east–North-north west B. the bottom of the well is above the
138. Chad basin in North Central Africa is water table.
an example of: C. it is on a spring line
A. internal drainage D. it is sunk into igneous rocks
B. external drainage 144. The formation of a river delta involves
C. intermont plateau the following processes. In what order do
D. tectonic plateau they take place.
139. Arrange the following landforms in se- A. Deposition, Corrasion, Transport
quence from south to north: B. Transport, Corrasion, Deposition
1. Indo-Gangetic plain C. Corrasion, Transport, Deposition
2. Plateau of Tibet D. Deposition, Transport, Corrasion
3. Tarim basin
145. The erosive power of a river depends
4. Altya tagh
mostly upon its:
5. Himalayas
A. speed and volume
Codes:
A. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 B. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 B. gradient and slope
C. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 C. speed and depth
D. slope and density
140. ____ is an intermontane plateau and lies
between the rockies and wasatch moun- 146. Deposition by a river increases when:
tains. A. the river approaches a lake.
A. Colorado plateau B. the volume of water in the river
B. Bolivian plateau increases
C. California C. the volume of water in the river
D. Sierra Navada decreases.
D. none of these
141. The Great basin of U.S.A. is really a
plateau which has been formed by: 147. Following are the landforms produced by
A. upliftment faults except:
B. high rate of erosion A. Graben B. Horst
C. basalt Lava flow C. Drag D. Nappe
D. block faulting 148. Escarpment appears:
142. Assertion (A): Some of depressions of A. when a block moves upward
the great basin of U.S.A. have no external B. when a block slips down along the
drainage. fault
Reason (R): The rate of evaporation is C. when a block moves vertically
very high. D. none of these
149. Hanging wall is a product of fault activ- 158. Tor is:
ity. It is block that: A. weathered block of rocks in round-
A. moves down edged shape.
B. moves up B. weathered block of rocks in sharp-edge
C. slips down along the fault plane shape.
D. none of these C. the joints formed on basalt.
150. The following are the example of exogenic D. cap-shaped structure on relict
forces except one: mountains.
A. rivers 159. Metamorphic rocks are formed under:
B. animals
A. high pressure and low temperature
C. underground water
B. high pressure and high temperature
D. compression
C. low pressure and low temperature
151. Rift valleys are caused by: D. low pressure and high temperature
A. endogenetic forces
B. exogenetic forces 160. Geographical cycle is:
C. volcanoes A. a particular cycle in the evolution of
D. earthquakes land scape.
B. a retrospective cycle in the evolution
152. River deposition can produce:
of land scape.
A. earth pillar B. scree
C. The evolution of landscape in a cycle
C. levee D. loess
which th e various stages of
153. Most favourable conditions for chemical development pass through in a definite
weathering is, when it is: order.
A. cold and dry B. cold and wet D. the evolution of landscape in a cycle
C. hot and cold D. hot and wet which th e various stages of
154. A great anticline which has many small development pass through in an
anticlines and synclines is called: indefinite order.
A. Manifold B. Fan fold
161. The evolution of landforms in three stages
C. Gouge D. Nappe
viz. youth maturity and old stage divided
155. ‘Paired river terraces' are found in: by:
A. arid landforms A. Evans B. Ramsay
B. flood plains C. Davis D. Penck
C. rejuvenated landforms
D. none of these 162. The Chernozem soils are associated with
the:
156. Gouge is:
A. Australians downs
A. a kind of rock-waste, produced by the
movement of blocks. B. American Prairies
B. rough fragments C. African veld
C. an example of igneous rocks D. Russian Steppes
D. none of these 163. A new climate sets in for a short period
157. Freeze-thaw is an example of: during the regime of the climate of an
A. chemical weathering era is called:
B. physical weathering A. climatic accident
C. both phy sical and chemical B. climatic irregularity
weathering C. climatic disturbances
D. cementation through glaciation D. none of these
164. Who used the word pene plain for the 172. Godavari has the drainage pattern as:
fist time? A. rectangular B. annular
A. Davis C. dendritic D. trellis
B. Penck
C. Ramsay 173. The pattern in which tributary streams
D. Kikramay are long was parallel to the main stream
is called:
165. Penck is considered to be forward look-
A. parallel pattern
ing because:
A. he has given less emphasis on B. rectangular pattern
geological aspect C. trellis pattern
B. the basis of his geographical cycle is D. annular pattern
forward-looking 174. A series of rapids are called:
C. the basis of his geographical cycle is A. great rapids B. multi rapids
geological C. cascade D. waterfall
D. all of the above
175. Indian example of river capture is:
166. The cold pole of the earth is located at:
A. Bhagirathi B. Alaknanda
A. Murmansk B. Narvik
C. Verkhoyansk D. Yarkutsk C. Ram Ganga D. Yamuna
167. Slumping: 176. When the stream erodes the overlying
A. broaden the valley at sides cover of strata and flows on the exposed
B. deepens the river valley undrlying strata in the some direction,
C. increases the length of the river such streams are called:
D. none of these A. obsequent B. insequent
168. Rapids and waterfalls are produced on: C. resequent D. super imposed
A. the belt of resistant and soft rocks. 177. The Krishna river has a drainage pat-
B. the slope tern, which can be called:
C. the belt of resistant rocks A. dendritic B. pinnate
D. the belt of soft rock
C. annular D. trellis
169. Inversion of relief represents a situation
when: 178. The Yazoo river is a good example of:
A. synclines are higher than adjoining A. Questa
anticlines B. Defferred junctions
B. anticlines are higher than adjoining C. Discordant junction
synclines D. Kinck point
C. synclines and anticlines are of equal 179. Ox-bow lake occurs in the:
height
A. old stage B. mature stage
D. only relict of a relief remains
C. young stage D. both A and C
170. The inter-montane plateau of Anatolia in
turkey is located between the range of: 180. Identification of ecological types is pri-
A. Pontic and taurus marily based on:
B. Elburz and zagros A. Landforms
C. Caucasus and Elburz B. Climate
D. Caucasus and Carpathian C. Soil and vegetation
171. An drainage pattern which gives a tree D. All the above
like structure is: 181. The delta of ob river is an example of:
A. dendritic B. trellis A. estuarine B. arcuate
C. annular D. pinnate C. digitate D. cuspate
182. The delta of Ganga river is an example 191. Geodes and vugs are:
of: A. depositional features in arid zone.
A. digitate B. depositional features in karst zone.
B. birds’ foot C. erosional features in arid region
C. arcuate D. erosional features in karst regions
D. cuspate 192. The description of cycle-system in karst
region was given for the first time by:
183. When the drainage pattern changes from
A. Cvijic B. W.W. Paris
dendritic to rectangular one, the event C. Penck D. Evans
will be:
193. Polges are the features of Karst
A. rejuvenation B. saltation
landforms found in:
C. weathering D. inversion A. late mature stage
184. Bogas are associated with: B. youth stage
A. glacial region C. old stage
B. limestone region D. mature stage
C. mountainous region 194. Sponting horn is another name of:
D. seabed A. slacks B. uvalas
C. blow holes D. surfs
185. The delta which is formed on the mouth
of vistula river can be called: 195. 'Fulls' or 'swells' are:
A. estuarine B. arcuate A. depositional features of shoreline
C. digitate D. cuspate B. erosional features of shoreline.
C. depositional features in Karst
186. The Mississippi delta is a good example landforms.
of: D. erosional features in Karst topography
A. estuarine B. birds' foot 196. Karrens are:
C. arcuate D. cuspate A. fluvo-glacial landforms
187. The delta of Mekong and the Nile are B. karst landforms
good example of: C. arid landforms
A. Birds foot B. Arcuate D. none of these
C. Cuspate D. Estuarine 197. Bars and barriers are:
A. related to glacial region
188. When the old meanders become incised, B. depositional features
it is to be called: C. erosional features
A. river has finished its course D. associated with Karst features
B. river is getting dry 198. Solifluction is:
C. river is rejuvenated A. the flow of ice-layer in semi frozen
D. all of the above conditions
189. Karst window is associated with: B. the flow of ice
A. sandstone topography C. the flow of ice layer in frozen
B. limestone topography conditions
D. flow of soil creeps
C. desert topography
D. glacial landforms 199. Pocket valley is found in:
A. Peri-glacial region
190. Hums are found in: B. Glacial region
A. arid lands B. flood plains C. Karst region
C. karst land form D. none of these D. Arid region
200. Ria is an example of: A. Patermoster lake
A. deposited land forms B. Tarn lake
B. emerged uplands shorelines C. Cirque lake
C. submerged upland shorelines D. Ribbon lake
D. None of the above
208. Lagoons are found:
201. Karst topography develops very well A. on the sea-ward side of the fringing-
where: reef
A. a moderate amount of rainfall occurs B. between the high water and low water
B. the soluble rocks are located near or line
at the earth surface C. between the coast and off seabar
C. heavy rainfall occurs D. None of these
D. only A and B
209. Dalmation is an example of:
202. Lapies are found in:
A. shoreline of emergence
A. Karst region
B. submerged upland shoreline
B. Fluvo-Glacial region
C. both A and B
C. Arid regions
D. None of these
D. Glacial regions
203. Pepino hills are: 210. Shoreline of emergence occurs due to:
A. depositional features on beaches A. fall in sea level
B. small residual hills found on the sea B. rise in sea level
flow C. decrease in land level
C. small residual hills found on the floors D. increase in land level
of Polyhedron 211. One of the following landforms look like
D. None of these "The back of sitting sheep" which one is
204. Dust-well is found in: that:
A. Glacier region A. Albs
B. Karst region B. Horn
C. Limestone region C. Crag and tail
D. Arid region D. Roche Moutonnes
205. The glacial process in tundra, a little 212. In Roche Moutonnes, plucking action is
distance from the ice-sheets is called: the main activity on the:
A. periglacial process A. lower side
B. ultra glacial process B. ascending side
C. extra glacial process C. descending side
D. None of these D. either side
206. Ablation refers to: 213. Which of the following topography resem-
A. the process of ice-formation bles upturned boats?
B. the process of ice deposition A. Drumlin
C. melting down of glaciers B. Roche Mountanne
D. the frontal parts of the glaciers are C. Eskers
destroyed by melting and the glaciers D. Boulder's Clay
appear to be retreating 214. The productivity of natural vegetation is
207. One of the following lakes of glacier re- the highest in:
gion gives a look of stair case, which one A. Selva region B. Prairie region
is that: C. Monsoon region D. Taiga region
215. Hamada is: A. parabolic dunes
A. combined action of erosion and B. longitudinal dunes
deposition C. whale back dunes
B. a depositional feature D. fore dune
C. an erosional feature 222. Fore dune refers to:
D. a cold wind A. small dune before the actual sand dune
216. The formation of sand-dunes depend on: B. frontal dune
1. availability of sand. C. elongated ridges of sand
2. the direction of wind and its D. ridge like deposits of wind borne sand
Persistance. along the coast of sea or lake.
3. the bed rock. 223. The space between the dunes is known
4. underground water's capacity. as:
Codes: A. Oasis B. Gasis
A. 1 and 4 are correct C. Duasis D. Interdune area
224. Whale back dune is:
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
A. large longitudinal dunes with flat tops
D. All of the above are correct
on which barkhans or seif may occur.
217. Bajada is: B. seif like dunes
A. advanced form of Hamada C. parabolic shaped dunes
B. erosional feature in Arid Land D. none of these
C. wind borne depositional feature
225. Which one of the following causes acid
D. none of these
rain?
218. Bolson is: A. Carbon monoxide
A. depositional feature by the wind B. Carbon dioxide
action C. Sulphur dioxide
B. associated with river bed D. Nitrogen oxide
C. associated with karst landforms 226. Honey-comb-structure is so called:
D. glacial feature A. erosional activity is mainly done by
219. Seif is a sand dune: wind.
A. which is elongated B. these are erosional feature.
B. similar to Barkhan C. because these are rocks consisting of
C. similar to Barkhan except one wing hard and soft parts get differential
is missing abrasion
D. none of these D. all of the above
220. Barkhan are: 227. The Wular-lake of Kashmir is an exam-
A. elongated crescentic shaped dunes ple of:
B. crescentic shaped dunes with wings A. a finger lake B. a tarn lake
directed up wind C. ox-bow lake D. a ribbon lake
C. crescentic shaped dunes with wings 228. The most abundant power resources
directed down wind occur in:
D. None of these A. sedimentary rock
221. The dunes whose horns point towards B. metamorphic rock
direction opposite to that of following wind C. Igneous rock
are: D. volcanic rocks
229. Inversion of temperature usually takes A. similar to waterfall in a river
place in: B. associated with glacier
A. the snow bound areas of mid-latitude C. floating ice-hill on the sea water
B. valleys D. only A and B
C. polar regions 239. Wadies are:
D. all of these A. depositional features in aridland.
230. Which of the following is the product of B. depression formed by wind action.
glacial erosion, transport and deposition? C. associated with glacier.
A. Esker B. Drumlin D. channels formed during rains in desert
C. Nunatak D. Cirque or arid regions.
231. Tides are caused by: 240. Playas are:
A. gravitational force of the moon. A. associated with glaciers.
B. gravitational force of the earth. B. associated with humid region
C. associated with arid region
C. gravitational force of the sun.
D. lakes found in Karst land forms
D. both A and B
241. Strath is:
232. Exfoliation is common in:
A. a small escarpment
A. Deserts B. Mountains
B. when the width of the valley is less
C. Coastal areas D. Arid Lands than the width of the river
233. Salinity of water is highest in the: C. when the width of the valley is greater
A. sub polar region the width of the river
B. temperate region D. none of these
C. tropics 242. Water falls, gorges and canyons are
D. both B and C formed during :
234. Which of the following rocks are known A. initial stage of a river
as primary rock? B. mature stage of a river
A. Igneous rock C. youth stage of a river
B. Metamorphic rock D. old stage of a river
C. Sedimentary rock 243. Sloughs are:
D. Both A and C A. depressions in the arid region.
235. Amphitheatre is another name of: B. another name of playas.
A. cirque B. hums C. depression on the flood plains of
C. arete D. horn meandering rivers.
D. none of these
236. Arete is:
244. Glacial drift refers to:
A. a knife-like ridge where two cirque-
A. drifting in blind valley
walls intersect from opposite side.
B. drifting in Glaciers
B. a sharp ridge produced by glacial
C. all debris deposited in a glacial
erosion.
environment
C. a depression formed by plucking D. none of these
D. both A and B
245. Knock-and-Lochan topography:
237. The higher temperature in the city centre A. associated with glaciation in low land
is called: area
A. Heat dome B. Heat high B. is found is arid region
C. Heat trough D. Heat island C. associated with melt water erosion
238. Serace is: D. none of these
246. Nivation is: 253. Braiding means:
A. melting of snow A. the stream does not have the capacity
B. erosion by snow to transport its load in single channle
C. accumulation of snow be it straight or meandering.
D. none of these B. the stream has lots of sub-streams.
C. the stream become thiner
247. The lowest point at which snow manages D. none of these
to remain each year marks the:
254. Point bars are found in the meandering
A. summer firn line river:
B. mass budget A. inside of bends
C. winter firn line B. pools
D. snow line C. riffles
248. If the folded rocks were covered by hori- D. outer side of bends
zontal layers upon which the river took 255. Which one of the following is related to
its original course and then the river montreal protocol of 1987.
eroded its channel down into the under- A. Reduction in the consumption of
lying ridges, the river is: mineral oil.
A. obsequent B. antecedent B. Reduction in the production of carbon.
C. Reduction in the production and
C. superimposed D. subsequent
consumption of chloro fluorocarbons
249. If the course of the river predates the D. Reduction in the production of
elevation of the mountain or ridge and nitrogen oxides.
yet manage to keep its path, then it is: 256. Helic flow is characteristic of a river when
A. super imposed B. epigenetic it:
C. antecedent D. subsequent A. meanders
250. Insequent stream: B. is in its youth stage
C. is in the old stage
A. demonstrates lack of structural
D. in rejuvenated
control and that to develop homogenous
rock 257. The shallows between the bends in the
B. has no apparent reason why it follows meandering river are called:
A. Riffles B. Pools
the path it takes
C. Point bar D. Shallows
C. is very important stream of any river.
D. A and B 258. The deeps in the meandering river at
bends are called:
251. Resequent rivers are those: A. Point bars B. Pools
A. which flow in the same direction as C. Riffles D. None of these
the consequent streams but at a lower 259. Which one of the following is not related
level to water pollution?
B. which flow in the opposite direction of A. Eutrophication
the main river B. Nitrification
C. with flow parallel to the main stream. C. Biological oxygen demand (BOD)
D. none of these D. Oil Slicks
252. Braiding occurs generally in: 260. The hydraulic slope theory is given by:
A. humid region A. Darwin
B. semi-arid region B. Daly
C. glacial out wash plain C. R.E. Horton
D. B and C D. None of these
261. Raindrops can cause erosion on the sur- C. the main lan dfor m created by
face soil this is called: proglacial deposition.
A. erosion through raindrop D. none of these
B. rain splash 269. Kame and Kettle topography is:
C. splash erosion A. an area of mounds on depressions
D. none of these commonly associated with a stagnant
262. Bog bursts are: glacier.
A. associated with Tsunamis B. an area of moundswith a running
B. found on glaciers glacier.
C. allied to mud flows C. a depression
D. found in mid-oceanic ridges D. none of these
263. Graben is: 270. Fluvo-glacial refers to:
A. a dropped block A. erosion by melt water
B. a geosyncline B. deposition by melt water streams
C. an uplifted block C. deposition by water and ice together.
D. none of these D. deposition by ice
264. Hors is: 271. Eskers are:
A. a dropped block A. long narrow ridges of well sorted
B. an uplifted block materials.
C. an uplifted fold B. long narrow depressions in glaciated
D. a geosynclines regions.
C. small wide ridges.
265. Epeirogenic movements are chara- D. none of these.
cterised by:
A. small scale uplift 272. Involutions are:
B. large scale uplift or submergence of A. periglacial phenomena.
land areas B. contorted vertical structures, usually
C. slow and widespread without any only seen infossil form in pits and
quarries.
obvious folding or fracturing in the
C. the result of the pressure put on the
rocks
active layer in permafrost when it
D. B and C are correct
begins to refreeze from the surface
266. Orogenic movements are responsible for:
down wards.
A. the formation of great fold mountian D. all of the above
ranges of the world.
273. Pingos are:
B. the formation of fault mountian.
A. small ice pebbles
C. the formation of great continents.
B. large ice mounds anything from 10 m
D. A and B
to 70 m in height found in the high
267. Basket-of-eggs topography is: Arctic
A. a glacial deposition C. large ice mounds found in the
B. made up of drumlins usually occur in Antarctic
clusters D. none of these
C. made up of eskers 274. Gulls are:
D. Both A and B A. slope features in periglacial landforms
268. Sandur is: B. found in the sea
A. related to karst topography. C. found in the arid region
B. associated with arid landforms. D. none of these
275. Desert varnish are: 282. Water table theory of cavern development
A. stones in the desert pavement which was given by:
have a black or brown coloured polish. A. Swinnerton B. Davis
B. due to the presence of iron manganese C. Bretz D. Both A and B
oxide. 283. Swell and swall topography is:
C. A and B are correct A. flat till plains made up of claytill.
D. A and B are incorrect B. found in Karst region.
276. Dreikanters: C. a Rejuvenated landform.
A. they are also called as ventifacts. D. none of these
B. are many edged shaped stones due to 284. The salties lake in the world is:
abrasion action of wind. A. Lake Vaon B. Lake Assal
C. are also known as beveled stone. C. Dead Sea D. Caspian Sea
D. all of the above 285. Most of the lakes in the world are:
277. Inselbergs are: A. fresh water lake
A. a plain of eroded bed rock. B. lagoon lake
B. channels formed during rains. C. salt water lake
C. isolated mounds found in the arid D. Ice scoured lakes
regions. 286. Lagoons in Germany and Poland are
D. mountain tops which have round called:
shapes. A. Nehrungs B. Haffs
278. Pediment is: C. Beaver dams D. Cooulces
A. even surface in Karst topography 287. Lake Toba, Philippines is an example of:
B. a plain of eroded bed rock in a humid A. Meteor lake B. Lagoon
region C. Crater lake D. Mining lake
C. a plain of eroded bed rock in an arid 288. Which of the following is not an example
region developed between mountain of rift valley?
and basin areas A. Tanganyika B. Rudolf
D. none of these C. Edward D. Maweru
279. Monadnocks are: 289. Lake Titicaca, a huge depression in the
A. equivalent of inselberg in arid region intermontane plateaus of the indus is the
B. small hillock of hard rocks on the pene result of:
plain A. meteoritic impact
C. associated with glacier region B. tectonic fracture
D. A and B are correct C. caldera formation
280. Mesa are: D. None of these
A. an isolated table land area with steep 290. Basin Like hollows found in glaciated
sides found in a humid region surface is made by burial of ice block
B. An isolated table land area with a and their subsequent melting:
gentle slope found in a humid region A. Pothole B. Kames
C. also known as questa C. Craters D. Kettles
D. none of these 291. Assertion (A) : Extensive areas of land
281. Two cycle theory of cavern development are sometimes turned into myriads of
was propounded by: lakes by morainic deposits.
A. Swinnerton B. Malott Reason (R) : Such lake landscapes offer
C. Davis D. Bretz little scope for development by man.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 300. Plains lie generally below 150 m which
correct explanation of A of the following plains does not conform
B. Both A and R are true and R is not to this criterion.
the correct explanation of A A. Great plains of U.S.A.
C. A is true but R is false B. Great plains of India
D. A is false but R is true C. North China plain
D. Indus plain
292. Which of the following feature is formed
by wind erosion? 301. Which of the following agents causes the
formation of polije?
A. Waterfall B. Yardang
A. Underground water
C. Uvala D. Torn
B. Ocean currents
293. How many times the international date C. Winds
line deviates from 180° longitude? D. Streams
A. 4 B. 6 302. Mid Atlantic Ridge has formed due to:
C. 8 D. 10 A. folding
294. Which of the following is the character- B. faulting
istic property of magnetic north pole? C. accumulation detritus
A. Static D. drifting of plates
B. Shifting fast 303. Match List I with List II and select the
C. Shifting slowly correct match from the code given below:
D. Moving at intervals List I List II
(a) Aravalli 1. Volcanic Mt.
295. Which river forms the bigest delta?
(b) Black forest 2. Relict Mt.
A. Hwang Ho B. Nile (c) Mt. Cata paxi 3. Folded Mt.
C. Irawady D. Mississippi (d) Vindhyas 4. Block Mt.
296. Which one of the following is a tropical Codes:
grassland? (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Lonos B. Prairie A. 1 3 2 4
C. Steppe D. Weld B. 2 4 1 3
C. 3 2 4 1
297. Which one of the following rivers is the D. 3 4 1 2
most important for inland transport?
A. Rhine B. Mississippi 304. Which of the following is an antecedent
river?
C. Amazon D. Hwang Ho
A. Ganga
298. In the Himalayas the most severely B. Brahmaputra
eroded zone is: C. Yamuna
A. High Himalayas D. Sone
B. Middle Himalayas 305. Which of the following soils has a well
C. Sivalik Flanks developed soil profile?
D. Trans Himalayas A. Alluvium B. Loess
299. The trees are tall in equatorial region C. Chernozem D. Till
because: 306. An uplifted landmass undergoes trans-
A. they compete for sunlight formation by the process of land
B. the land is most fertile sculpture ending into a low featureless
C. there is plenty of water plains. The above quotation is associated
D. there is high density of carbon dioxide A. W. Penck B. C.H Crickmay
in the region C. W.M. Davis D. L.C. King
307. Which one of the following landforms is 316. Which of the following statements is
produced by the headward recession of correct?
cirques? A. The Atlas range is a folded mountain.
A. Hanging valley B. Fiord B. Equatorial region is the hottest region
C. Arete D. Esker on the earth.
308. Hudson-Moho wak valley is located in: C. Laterite soils are found along the
A. France B. U.K. malabar coast of India.
C. U.S.A. D. Canada D. Rosewood grows in abundance in
Tamil Nadu.
309. Largest fresh water storage of the world
lies in: 317. Shan plateau is located in:
A. Greenland B. Antarctica A. Thailand B. Cambodia
C. Himalayas D. Alps C. Vietnam D. Myanmar
310. The biggest island in Indian ocean is: 318. Study the following statements:
A. Maldive B. Madagaskar Assertion (A): Rivers meanders in Late
C. Lakshadweep D. Sumatra mature stage.
Reason (R): This stage is marked by
311. Consider the following statements: flat and wide valley.
Assertion (A): Hot deserts are found A. Both A and R are true and R is the
on the western margin of the continents. correct explanation of A.
Reason (R): Shifting pressure belts shift B. Both A and R are true but R is not
North-south according to season. the correct explanation of A.
Select the correct answer from the code C. A is true, R is false.
given below. D. A is false, R is true.
correct answer of A 319. The climatic data given below reflects
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the conditions of which of the following
the correct explanation of A vegetation regions:
C. A is true, R is false Jan April July Oct
D. A is false, R is true Temp. (0°C) 23.5 16.1 9.4 15.6
312. The biggest hot desert of the world is: Rain (c.m.) 7.9 8.9 5.6 8.9
A. Kalahari B. Gobi A. Savana B. Steppe
C. Sahara D. Thar C. Mixed forest D. Taiga
313. Victoria lake is located in: 320. Which one of the following plateaus is
A. United States of America not made of lava?
B. West Australia A. Brazilian B. Patogonian
C. Bolivia C. Deccan D. Columbia
D. E. Africa
321. Which type of soil is represented by the
314. Which one of the following is realted to following diagram.
arid environment?
A. Pater noster B. Playa
C. Pingo D. Torn Slit
Sand
315. Silicon valley is located in:
A. Scotland
B. California Clay
C. Swiss Alps A. Clayey B. Loamy
D. New England states C. Sandy D. Sandy Loamy
322. Stalagmites are formed by: Reason (R) : A spherical surface has
A. Glacial action no edge, beginning or end.
B. Fluvial action/Ground water action Codes:
C. Wind action A. Both A and R are correct and R is the
D. Waves action correct explanation of A
323. Consider the following statements: B. Both A and R are correct but R is not
1. Cirque is found at the head of the the correct explanation of A
glaciated valley C. A is correct but R is false
2. The peak of the swiss Alps is the best D. A is false but R is correct
example 330. The magnetic declination on a map is
A. Both 1 and 2 are true shown by:
B. 1 is true 2 is false A. Seismic lines
C. 1 is false 2 is true B. Hypsometric lines
D. Both 1 and 2 are false C. Plani metric lines
D. Isogonic lines
324. Which of the following is not related to
plate tectonic theory? 331. A dead ground is:
A. Continental drift A. a barren land
B. Pole wandering B. ground not visible from two points
C. Transform fault C. graveyard
D. Sea floor speading D. fallow land
325. Telegraphic plateau is a part of: 332. Which one of the following statement is
A. North Atlantic ridge correct with reference to the tidal hy-
B. South Atlantic ridge pothesis of the origin of the planets?
C. Mid Indian ocean ridge A. Planets were formed due to the
D. North America aggregation of all the matter at nine
knots of nine rings which were
326. Which one of the following is not cor-
separated from the nebula
rectly matched?
B. Planets were formed due to
A. Exfoliation – Onion weathering
aggregation of all the matter of nine
B. Oxidation – Chemical weathering
rings separately which were formed
C. Hydrolysis – Mechanical weathering
due to division of original ring
D. Carbonation – Chemical weathering
separated from the nebula into nine
327. The Brahmaputra is an example of: rings
A. Subsequent river C. Planets were formed due to accretion
B. Obsequent river of planetesimals
C. Antecedent river D. Planets were formed out of filaments
D. Super imposed river 333. Flat topped sea mounts are known as:
328. Which one of the following soils found in A. Monodnocks B. Guyots
India has been derived from material de- C. Inselberg D. Zeugen
posited by fissure eruptions in cretaceous 334. Roche-Mountones (sheep Rocks) found in
period? a glaciated region is:
A. Laterite soil B. Alkaline soil A. terminal morraine
C. Black soil D. Sandy soil B. lateral morraine
329. Assertion (A) : Directions on the earth C. depositional feature
are entirely arbitrary. D. erosional feature
335. Which of the following statement are cor- A. Block mountain
rect regarding the Khadar soils? Select B. Fold mountain
your answer from the code given below: C. Relict mountain
1. They occupy flood plains of the rivers D. Volcanic mountain
2. They are rich in plant nutrients 343. Which of the following is not a soil type?
3. They have sizeable tracts of usar A. Pedalters B. Podzols
Codes: C. Chernozem D. Lemonites
A. Only 1 is correct 344. Assertion (A): Hot deserts are situated
B. Only 1 and 2 are correct on the western margin of the continents.
C. Only 1 and 3 are correct Reason (R): Rain bearing winds in
D. All are correct horse latitudes change their direction
336. Which one of the following rivers of the according to season.
world has the largest delta? Select the correct answer from the code
given below.
A. Yellow river
B. Nile
C. Mahanadi B. Both A and R are true and R is not
D. Mississippi the correct explanation of A
337. In cold wet regions leaching helps in the C. A is true, R is false
formation of: D. A is false, R is true
A. laterites B. podzoles 345. True shape of the earth is:
C. chernozens D. regur A. Ellipsoid B. Geoid
338. The Ross ice-shelf is a part of: C. Spheroid D. None
A. S.Antarctica 346. The Richter scale of earthquake magni-
B. Greenland tude ranges between:
C. Iceland A. 0 to 6 B. 0 to 9
D. Falk island C. 0 to 12 D. 0 to 15
339. Radio active theory of the origin of the 347. Which of the following mountain ranges
mountains is related with: is the youngest?
A. Jolly B. Holmes A. The Urals B. The Aravalli
C. Daly D. Kober C. The Applachian D. The Rockies
348. Match the following pairs of landforms
340. Which one of the following features is
and processes and find the correct answer
not associated with Karst topography?
from the code given below:
A. Blind Valley B. Hanging Valley Land form Processes
C. Polines D. Lappies (a) Fold mountain 1. Fluvial
341. Which of the following land forms de- deposition
velop from erosion on folded beds with (b) Natural levee 2. Earth movement
exposed hard rocks? (c) Roche moutonee 3. Organic activity
A. Cuestas B. Butte (d) Coral reefs 4. Glacial Erosion
C. Mesa D. Hogbacks Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
342. What kind of land feature will result A. 1 2 3 4
under the following circumstances – a B. 4 3 2 1
mass of land is pushed up between the C. 2 1 4 3
cracks in the earth’s crust: D. 3 2 1 4
349. Which of the following soils develops in A. Lahar B. Gelifluction
coniferous forest areas of the world? C. Debris flow D. Debris slide
A. Chernozem B. Laterite 357. Which one of the following is related to
C. Pedocal D. Podzol modification in Devisian cyclic model?
350. Which of the following causes acid rains? A. Law of unequal slope
A. Carbon dioxide B. Law of allometric growth
B. Chlorofluro carbon C. equilibrium model
C. Hydro carbon D. episodic erosion model
D. Sulphur dioxide 358. Which one of the following is dynami-
351. The most productive biome is: cally induced?
A. Equatorial A. Equatorial low pressure belt
B. Savanna B. Subtropical high pressure belt
C. Mediterranean C. Polar high pressure belt
D. Prairie D. None of these
352. In course of biotic succession in a 359. The term peri-glacial was introduced by:
lacustrine ecology, the population and A. Lozinski B. Pe Terra
diversity of flora-fauna: C. Peltier D. Money maker
A. decreases 360. Who amongst the following scholar first
B. increases declared that the earth is spherical?
C. first decreases and then increases A. C. Ptolemy B. S. Munster
D. neither decreases nor increases C. I. Kant D. P. Aplan
353. Which one of the following is the largest 361. The percentage of energy transferred
desert in the world? from one tropic level to another tropic
A. Gobi B. Kalahari level is known as:
C. Arizona D. Sahara A. Ecological niche
354. Which one of the following statements B. Ecological efficiency
C. Ecological pyramid
about the locations of X and Y in the
D. Ecological productivity
given contour maps is correct.
362. Which of the following is not included
within the major objectives of the Bio-
sphere Reserve programme of the
UNESCO?
A. Conservation role
B. Development role
A. Both X and Y are located on spurs. C. Logistic role
B. Both X and Y are located in valleys. D. Regeneration role
C. X is located on a spur while Y is
363. Who amongst the following scientists first
located in valley.
provided evidence of ozone depletion over
D. X is located in a valley and Y is located the Antarctica?
on a spur. A. M. Molina B. S. Rowland
355. The exponent of primarrumpf concept is: C. J. Farman D. M.L. Parry
A. Meyerhoff B. Penck 364. Consider the following statements:
C. Davis D. Saver Assertion (A): Conservation implies
356. Which of the following means mud flow preservation and denial of use of natural
on volcanic cones? resources.
Reason (R): It ensures a continuous C. They are deficient in nitrogen.
supply of resources to man over longest D. They are rich in phosphate.
possible period of time. 368. Soil leaching is a great threat in:
Select the correct answer using the code A. Tropical rainforest regions
given below: B. Tropical savannas
Codes: C. Steppes
A. Both A and R are true and R is the D. Taiga forest
correct explanantion of A. 369. Which of the following letters has been
B. Both A and R are true but R is not used by stamp in his land use survey of
the correct explanation of A. Britain for unproductive land?
C. A is true but R is false. A. B B. R
D. A is false but R is true. C. V D. W
365. Which one of the following statement is 370. Consider the following statements:
correct about la plata low lands? Assertion (A): Conservation is the new
A. Merging with the pampas in the south frontier.
have been formed by deposition of Rea son (R): Th e conservation
alluvium movement originated in regions of dense
B. Merging with the pampas in the south population and advanced technologies.
have been formed by deposition of Select the correct answer using the code
alluminium given below.
C. Merging with the campos in the south Codes:
have been formed by erosion A. Both A and R are true and R is the
D. None of these correct explanation of A
366. Study the following statements about the
characteristics of Artesian basin and se-
lect the correct answer using the code D. A is false but R is true
given below Statements:
1. The name Artesian basin is derived 371. Which one of the following statements
from the region of Arto's in north east about an ecosystem is not correct?
France. A. It is a well structure functional unit.
2. The largest-Artesian basin is in B. The entire bioshpere is an ecosystem.
C. It has a spatial component.
Australia.
D. It is a closed system.
3. Artesian basins are not found outside
Australia. 372. Which of the follownig drainage patterns
4. A well is Artesian if the water ascends is related to domed structure?
under considerable pressure and flows A. Annular B. Pendritic
at the surface without being pumped. C. Trellis D. Pinnate
Codes: 373. The principle of uniformitarianism was
A. 1 and 4 are correct. propounded by:
B. 1 and 3 are correct. A. Arthur Holmes B. Charles lyell
C. 2 and 4 are correct. C. Marcus Reiner D. S.W. Carey
D. 3 and 4 are correct 374. List of following land feature in Europe
367. Which one of the following statements is in descending order of their age:
not true for laterite soils? 1. Alps 2. North plains
A. They are formed due to in situ decay. 3. Scandinavian 4. Spanish Mesata
B. They are decomposed from basalts. Highlands
Select the correct answer using the code Reason (R): Cooling and contraction
given below: helped the earth to assume the form of
Codes: tetrahedron.
A. 4, 3, 1, 2 B. 3, 4, 1, 2 A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. 3, 1, 4, 2 D. 1, 3, 4, 2 correct explanation of A
375. The division of the world into major natu- B. Both A and R are true and R is not
ral regions was first made by: the correct explanation of A
A. Dudley stamp C. A is true but R is false
B. Herbertson D. A is false but R is true
C. Vidal dela Blache 381. Which of the following plates along with
D. Hettener the South American plate is responsible
376. Loess deposits are found extensively in: for the formation of the Andes mountains?
A. North China A. Caribean plate B. Cocosplate
C. Nazca plate D. Scotia plate
B. North Africa
C. Western Australia 382. Which of the following area is occupied
D. Patagonia by the laurentian shield?
A. Northern Asia
377. Which one of the following lakes is
B. Northern Canada and Greenland
located in a rift valley?
C. South America
A. Victoria B. Chad
D. Southern Australia and New Zealand
C. Titicaca D. Baikal
383. Which of the following pair is not cor-
378. Concept of palimpsest topography is
rectly matched?
related to:
A. Soil creep – convex slope
A. Dynamic equilibrium model
B. Frost action – rounded screes
B. Climatic geomorphology
C. Post-land slides – concave slope
C. Cyclic model D. Waterfall – plunge pool
D. Episodic erosion model
384. Match List-I with List-II and select the
379. Fig. depicts the typical model of a hill correct answer using the code given be-
slope. Select the correct answer using low the lists.
the code given below: List I List II
Waxy Theories about Distinctive
Free face the origin of
constant slope the earth
wane
(a) Gaseous 1. Filament
1. A depicts waxing slope hypothesis
2. B depicts waning slope (b) Hoyle & 2. Solar Jets
3. C depicts free face Lyttleton's theory
4. D depicts constant slope (c) Planetesimal 3. Steller explosion
Codes: hypothesis
A. 1 and 4 are correct (d) Tidal hypothesis 4. Rotating Nebula
B. 1 and 3 are correct Codes:
C. 2 and 4 are correct (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. 3 and 4 are correct A. 2 4 3 1
B. 1 3 4 2
380. Assertion (A): Tetrahedral theory well
C. 4 3 2 1
explains the present distribution of con-
D. 4 1 2 3
tinents and ocean basins.
385. Who amongst the following propounded Codes:
the concept of base level of erosion? A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. J.W. Powell B. G.K. Gilbert correct explanation of A
C. W.M. Davis D. M. Morisawa B. Both A and R are true and R is not
386. The polar front theory of the origin of
temperate cyclones have been given by: D. A is false but R is true
A. Lampert B. Bjerkenes
C. Trewartha D. Dana 391. Which one of the following processes of
land formation is the most important in
387. Which one of the following concepts be- Arid lands?
longs to James Hutton? A. Abrasion B. Corrosion
A. Climatic geomorphology C. Deflation D. Ravination
B. Dynamic equilibrium
392. Which one of the following temporal
C. Cyclic nature of the earth's history
scales is related to mega geomorphology?
D. Geomorphic threshold A. Graded time
388. Select the correct chronological order of B. Cyclic time
the following phases of pleistocene ice age C. Steady time
using the code given below: D. Instant a neous time
1. Wurm 2. Mindle 393. Which one of the following is related to
3. Gunj 4. Riss leopold Matrix?
Codes: A. Environmental impact assessment
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 4, 3, 1 B. Environmental stability
C. 1, 4, 2, 3 D. 4, 1, 2, 3 C. Environmental degradation
389. Study the following statements about the D. Network analysis
interior of the earth and select the cor- 394. The higher temperature in the city cen-
rect answer from the code given below: tre is called as:
1. Temperature increases from the A. Heat dome B. Heat nigh
surface towards the earth's interiorate C. Heat trough D. Heat island
the average rate of 1°C for every 395. Which of the following is the correct defi-
32 m. nition of ecology?
2. The upper most layer of the earth is A. Ecology is the study of man
largely composed of silica and environment relationship
aluminium. B. Ecology is the study of environmental
3. The earth's core has a density of 10 management
to 12. C. Ecology is the science which studies
4. Earthquake waves travel at a uniform interrelationship between abiotic and
speed in the earth's interior. biotic components on one hand and
Codes: among biotic components on the other
A. 1 and 2 are correct. hand
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct D. Ecology is the science which studies
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct interrelationships between physical
and biotic components
D. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
396. The layers of the earth's crust are
390. Assertion (A): Maximum biodiversity
distinguished by their:
is found in the equatorial biome.
A. thickness and depth
Reason (R): Equatorial regions have
B. density and temperature
very fertile zonal soils.
C. metallic content and rocks
Select the correct answer from the code.
D. all the above
397. Which one of the following is correct? 401. Which one of the following is related to
A. Ecosystem productivity is the rate of ozone formation?
growth of organic matter per unit, A. Photsynthesis process
time and area by autotrophs. B. Photochemical process
B. Ecosystem productivity is the rate of C. Chemosynthesis process
growth of organic matter per unit time D. Hydrolysis process
and area by chemotrophs . 402. Assertion (A): Deforestation leads to ac-
C. Ecosystem productivity is the rate of celerated rate of soil erosion.
growth of organic matter per unit area Reason (R): Accelerated soil erosion
by phototrophs. causes floods in the rivers.
D. Ecosystem productivity is the weight Codes:
of living materials per unit area. A. Both A and R are true and R is correct
398. Which one of the following is not a cor- explanation of A
rect statement? B. Both A and R are true and R is not
A. Gross primary production is the total the correct explanation of A
amount of energy produced by auto C. A is true but R is false
trophic primary producers at trophic D. A is false but R is true
level. 403. Which one of the following is not instru-
B. Net primary production is the amount mental device to check air pollution?
of energy or organic matter fixed or A. Cinder block
stored at trophic level one. B. Bag fiter
C. The ecosystem productivity, whether C. Wet scrubber
gross or net is generally measured in D. Cyclone separator
gram/m2/day or year.
404. Which one of the following is not related
D. Biomass refers to the wet weight of
to water pollution?
living matter per unit area per unit A. Eutrophication
time in any ecosystem. B. Nitrofication
399. Which one of the following is not related C. Biological oxygen demand
to the Darwin's theory of origin of spe- D. Oil slick
cies? 405. Which one of the following is a preglacial
A. Abrupt speciation land form?
B. Adaptation A. Drumlin B. Esker
C. Natural selection C. Lappies D. Palsa
D. Survival of the fittest
400. Assertion (A): The relative loss of en- correct answer using the code given be-
ergy due to respiration increases with low the lists:
increasing trophic levels. List I List II
Reason (R): The animals have to move (a) Irrawadi 1. Bangkok
an work more for getting food with (b) Red 2. Hanoi
increasing trophic levels. (c) Meenam 3. Yangoon
Codes: (d) Mekong 4. Vientienne
A. Both A and R are true and R is the Codes:
correct explanation of A (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. Both A and R are true and R is not A. 3 4 1 2
the correct explanation of A B. 3 2 1 4
C. A is true but R is false C. 1 2 4 3
D. A is false but R is true D. 2 3 1 4
407. Conservation of natural resources aims 411. Ecosystem productivity means:
at one of the following: A. Quantity of living matter per unit time
A. Total ban on the use of resources for per unit area.
a short duration. B. Net primary production of organic
B. Partial restriction on their use. matter per unit area per unit time.
C. Rational use of natural resources. C. Production of biomass per unit area
D. Profitable use of natural resources. per unit time.
D. Rate of production of organic matter
408. Match List I with List II and select the per unit area per unit time.
correct answer using the codes given be-
low the lists: 412. Which one of the following is a correct
List I List II sequence of ideal hill slope profile of L.C.
King?
Region Economic activity
A. Crest, pediment, scarp, debris slope
(a) Polar 1. Grazing
B. Scarp, crest, debris, slope
(b) Mountain 2. Agriculture
C. Pediment, crest, scarp, debris, slope
(c) Desert and 3. Lumbering D. Crest, scarp, debris slope, pediment
semi desert
(d) Plains and 4. Whaling 413. Which one of the following topographic
river valleys features is different from others on the
basis of its mode of occurrence.
Codes:
A. Dyke B. Lacolith
(a) (b) (c) (d)
C. Sill D. Parasite cone
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 1 2 414. Air pressure is usually the highest when
C. 2 3 4 1 the air is:
D. 3 4 1 2 A. cool and dry B. cool and moist
C. warm and dry D. warm and moist
409. Study the following statements about
415. According to Holmes convection currents
organic farming and select the correct
in a geosyncline:
answer from the code:
A. Diverge
1. It insists on exploiting the ecological
B. Converge
processes for plant growth. C. Neither converge nor diverge
2. It advocates inter-culture. D. Both converge and diverge
3. It recommends higher inputs of
chemical fertilizers. 416. Which one of the following landforms is
not of polycyclic origin?
4. It recommends integrated pest
A. Cirque
management.
B. Interlocking spurs
Codes:
C. Valley-in-valley
A. All the statements are correct D. Nickpoint
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct 417. Study the following statements about the
D. 1, 2 and 4 are correct interior of the earth and select the cor-
rect answer from the code given below:
410. Which one of the following is exclusively 1. Temperature increases from the
related to control of ozone depletion? surface towards the earth interior at
A. Toronto summit the average rate of 1°C for every 32 m
B. Rio Summit 2. The outermost layer of the earth is
C. Montreal protocol largely composed of silica and
D. Kyoto protocol aluminium
3. The core has a density of 10 to 12 Codes:
4. Earthquake waves travel at a uniform (a) (b) (c) (d)
speed A. 3 4 1 2
Codes: B. 4 3 2 1
A. 1 and 2 are correct. C. 3 1 4 2
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. D. 2 4 3 1
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. 421. Which of the following is not a Lava
D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. plateau?
418. Match List I with List II and select the A. Armenia B. Columbia
correct answer using the code given be- C. Darkensberg D. Parana
low the lists: 422. Which of the following features is formed
List I List II by the erosion of the concave banks of
Concept Proposer the river bends?
(a) Uniformit- 1. Powell A. Incised meander
arianism B. Interlocked spur
(b) Base-level 2. Hutton C. V-shaped valley
(c) Continental drift 3. Hess D. Rapid
(d) Sea floor 4. Wegner 423. Match List I with List II and select the
spreading correct answer using the code given be-
Codes: low the lists:
(a) (b) (c) (d) List I List II
A. 1 2 4 3 (a) Belt of calm 1. G.G. Coriolis
B. 2 1 4 3 (b) Deflective force 2. Doctor
C. 4 3 2 1 (c) Roaring forties 3. Equatorial
D. 2 1 3 4 Westerlies
419. Which one of the following is a correct (d) Harmatton 4. Westerlies
sequence of electromagnetic radiation Codes:
from the sun from shortest wavelength (a) (b) (c) (d)
to the longest wavelength? A. 4 2 3 1
A. Visible light rays, ultraviolet rays, B. 2 3 1 4
radio waves, infrared rays. C. 3 1 4 2
B. Ultraviolet rays, infrared rays, D. 1 4 2 3
radiowaves, visible light rays 424. In which of the following areas of the
C. Ultraviolet rays, visible light rays, world, the loess deposits have been
infrared rays, radio waves formed by the accumulation of fine
D. Infrared rays, visible light waves, glacial dust carried away by out blowing
radio waves, ultraviolet rays winds?
420. Match List I with List II and select the A. Central Europe B. Pampas
correct answer using the code given be- C. Southern China D. Southern Australia
low the lists: 425. Match List I with List II and select the
List I List II correct answer using the code given be-
(a) Instrusive 1. Peat low the lists:
igneous List I List II
(b) Extrusive 2. Quartz (a) C.H. Crickmay 1. Etch Plain
igneous (b) L.C. King 2. Pene Plain
(c) Sedimentary 3. Dolerite (c) M.F. Thomas 3. Pan Plain
(d) Metamorphic 4. Basalt (d) W.M. Davis 4. Pediplain
Codes: 430. Study the following statements:
(a) (b) (c) (d) Assertion (A): Tetrahedral theory well
A. 2 4 3 1 explains the present distribution of
B. 3 4 1 2 continents and ocean basins.
C. 4 1 2 3 Reason (R): Cooling and contraction
D. 1 3 2 4 helped the earth to assumes the form of
a terahedron.
426. Which of the following is not correctly
Select the correct answer using the code
matched?
given below.
A. Crag and tail : Glacier
Codes:
B. Gassi : Desert A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Plunge pool : River correct explanation of A
D. Tombolo : Karst B. Both A and R are true R is not the
427. Land form is a function of structure, correct explanation of A
process and time. This was stated by C. A is true but R is false
one of the following: D. A is false but R is true
A. Walter Penck B. L.C. King 431. Which one of the following mineral is
C. W.M. Davis D. Gilbert white not associated with sedimentary rocks?
428. Which of the following two layers of the A. Mica B. Coal
earth's interior are divided by Moho C. Petroleum D. Hematite
discontinuity? 432. Who of the following propounded the con-
A. Crust and core cept of base level of erosion?
B. Crust and mantle A. J.W. Powell B. G.K. Gilbert
C. Mantle and core C. W.M. Davis D. M. Morisawa
D. Inner and outer core 433. Which one of the following pairs is cor-
429. Study the following statements about the rectly matched?
interior of the earth and select the cor- A. Folded structure – Inversion of
relief
rect answer from the code given below:
B. Domed structure – Strike vales
1. Temperature increases from the
C. Uniclinal structure – Antecedent
surface towards the earth's interior
stream
at the average rate of 1°C for every D. Horizontal structure – Anticlinal
32m. valley
2. The upper most layer of the earth is
434. Which one of the following belongs to
largely composed of silica and
pencks model of slope development:
aluminium.
A. Graded waste sheet
3. The earth's core has a density of 10
B. Slope replacement
to 12. C. Pediplanation
4. Earthquake waves travel at a uniform D. Hill slope cycle
speed in the earth's interior.
435. Which one of the following is not an ex-
Codes:
ample of polycyclic relief?
A. 1 and 2 are correct.
A. Incised meander
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
B. Nick point
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. C. Uplifted peneplain
D. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. D. Pediplain
436. The polar front theory of the origin of 443. Which one of the following areas is occu-
temperate cyclone has been given by: pied by the Laurentian shield?
A. Lampert B. Bjerknes A. Northern Asia
C. Tre wartha D. Dana B. Northern Canada
C. South America
437. Which one of the following is a low cloud?
D. Western Australia
A. Stratus B. Cirrus
C. Cumulus D. Cirro stratus 444. Which one of the following causes ozone-
depletion?
438. Which one of the following is not an evi- A. Chlorine B. Fluorine
dence in support of continental drift? C. Carbon D. Methane
A. Topographic fit of continents 445. Which of the following statements is true
B. Palaeo magnetism about sedimentary rocks?
C. Plate tectonics A. They are rocks whose structure is
D. Vulcanicity contingent on heat and pressure.
439. The world famous Grand Canyon has de- B. The rocks are crystalline.
veloped in the: C. The rocks have been deposited in
A. Colorado B. Potaro Layers.
C. Mississippi D. St. Lawrence D. The rocks can not be formed under
water.
440. Select the correct chronological order of
446. The tydal hypothesis of the origin of
the following phases of pleistocene Ice age,
Earth was given by:
using the code given below:
A. Laplace and Jeffreys
1. Wurm 2. Mindel
B. Jeans and Roche
3. Gunj 4. Riss C. Jeans and Jeffreys
Codes: D. Jeans only
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 1, 4, 2, 3 D. 3, 4, 1, 2 447. The Gaseous mass theory of the origin
of Earth was given by:
441. Match List I with List II and select the A. Laplace B. Lockyer
correct answer using the code given be- C. Roche D. E. Kant
low the lists:
448. The Binary star Hypoth esis was
List I List II
propounded by
(a) Panna 1. Finest White A. Russel and Littleton
Marble B. Littleton and Laplace
(b) Makrana 2. Diamond C. Littleton and Roche
(c) Junjhunu 3. Cement Industry D. None of these
(d) Lakheri 4. Copper
449. The origin of a rift valley can be teraced
Codes:
to:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Forces of tension in the valley.
A. 4 1 2 3 B. The over deepening of a valley by ice
B. 2 1 4 3 action.
C. 1 2 3 4 C. Forces of tension in the Earth's crust.
D. 3 2 4 1 D. None of these
442. Who first proposed that mountains have 450. The Meteor Hypothesis of the origin of
deep roots? Earth was given by:
A. Airy B. Pratt A. E. Kant B. Lockyer
C. Hayford D. Joly C. Laplace D. Jeffreys
451. Laplace gave: A. Triassic period
A. The Nebular theory of the origin of B. Jurassic period
Earth C. Cretaceous period
B. The Meteor Hypothesis of the origin D. None of these
of Earth 454. Find out the correct sequence of the Eras.
C. The Gaseous Mass Theory of the origin A. Pre-cambrian, mesozoic, palaeozoic,
of Earth cenozoic
D. None of these B. Palaeozoic, cenozoic, pre-cambrian,
452. Match the following: mesozoic
List I List II C. Palaeozoic, pre-cambrian, cenozoic,
(a) Cenozoic 1. 70 million years mesozoic
(b) Mesozoic 2. 200 million years D. Pre-cambrian, palaeozoic, mesozoic,
(c) Palaeozoic 3. 450 million years cenozoic
(d) Pre Cambrian 4. About 5 billion
455. In palaeozoic Era some movements
years
occurred findout the correct sequence:
Codes: A. Caledonian, Armonican, Taconian,
(a) (b) (c) (d) varicon
A. 1 2 3 4 B. Taconian, Caledonian, Armonican,
B. 2 3 4 1 varicon
C. 1 2 4 3 C. Varicon, caledonian, Armonican,
D. 2 1 3 4 Taconian
453. The Deccan Lava Region was formed D. Taconian, Armonican, Caledonian,
during. varicon
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B D A C A D A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D A B C B B A C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C C C A D A A C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C A D A A B D C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A D A D C B A B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C B A D D D B C C B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B A A A A A B A A C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D A A D C C B B A B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C A A A A B B C B D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B C A A B B A C B
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D A B B C C A A D A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A C A C D A A C D B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D A D D A C A C B A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A C D C C A C A C A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D A A A A B D B C D
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A C D B C A A B B C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C D A A C C A C A A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A C C C A C A B B D
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
A C A B A B B C B C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B A A C A B B A C C
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
D A C A A D A C B A
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
D C A A C B C A C C
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
A D B A C D C A D B
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
C B D A C B A A C D
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
B A C C A B A A C D
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
A D A A C A A B B C
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
C C A B D A D C A B
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
A D B A C D C C D A
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
C A A A A B C D B D
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
B B A C B A A C A A
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
A D D B C C C C B B
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
B C D B B A D A C B
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
D B A A A C C C A D
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
B D B D B B B A A B
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
A A D B B B D C D D
351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
A B D C B A D B A A
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
D C C D A A D A D A
371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
D A B B B A A C D A
381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
C B B C A B C C B C
391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
C B A D C D A D A A
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410
B B D B D B C B D C
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
B D D B B A B B C A
421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430
A B C A B D C B B A
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440
D A A B D B C D A C
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450
B A B A C C D A C B
451 452 453 454 455
A A C D B
3 Climatology
1. Because of which one of the following A. It is found across all longitudes.

factors, clouds do not precipitate in B. It is located astride the equator.
descents? C. It is a zone of feeble westerly winds.
A. Low pressure D. It is a high pressure belt.
B. Low humidity 6. Which of the following does not
C. High wind velocity contribute to the origin of ocean-currents?
D. High temperature A. Rotation of the earth
2. Which of the following statements char- B. Differences in density of ocean water
acterize convectional rainfall? C. Wind direction
A. It occurs daily in the equatorial D. Difference in temperature
regions 7. Consider the following statements:
B. It is of very short duration Assertion (A): The thickness of the
C. It occurs through cumulo-nimbus troposphere is the greatest at the equator.
clouds Reason (R): Near the equator insolation
Select the correct answer using the code is high and convection currents are
given below: strong.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 only correct explanation of A
3. The Tornadoes are very strong tropical
cyclones originating in:
A. Carribean sea B. China sea
C. Arbian sea D. Black sea
8. Study the following statements regarding
4. Match list-I with list-II and select the
summer solstice and select the correct
correct answer using the code given be-
answer from the code given below:
low the lists:
1. The sun is on the cancer
List-I (Country) List-II (Local wind) 2. The sun is on the capricorn
(a) Australia 1. Hurricane 3. The day is longest and night is
(b) China 2. Willy-Willy shortest in the Nothern Hemisphere.
(c) France 3. Typhoon 4. The day is longest and night is
(d) West Indies 4. Mistral shortest in the Southern Hemisphere.
Codes: Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. 1 and 2 are correct
A. 2 3 4 1 B. 2 and 4 are correct
B. 1 2 3 4 C. 1 and 3 are correct
C. 1 3 2 4 D. 2 and 3 are correct
D. 4 1 2 3 9. Consider the following statements:
5. Which of the following statements is not Assertion (A): Isotherms do not run
true about doldrum? parallel to each other.
57
Reason (R): The variation of A. Stratosphere, troposphere, thermo-
temperature in any area is not orderly. sphere, mesosphere.
Select the correct answer from the code B. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesos-
below. phere, thermosphere.
Codes: C. Troposphere, mesosphere,
A. A is true R is false ozonosphere, ionosphere.
B. Both A and R are false D. Troposphere, thermosphere, mesos-
C. R is true A is false phere, exosphere.
D. Both A and R are true 17. In Koppen’s climatic classification ‘AS’
10. Dry warm summers are found in: stands for which region of India?
A. China Sea A. Western desert
B. Mediterranean Sea B. Tamil Nadu coast
C. Red Sea C. Kerala coast
D. Arabain Sea D. Eastern Himalayas
11. Hot dry winds blowing in Sahara are 18. The movement of I.C.C largely governs
known as: the rainfall pattern in:
A. Fohn B. Chinook A. Equatorial climate.
C. Mistral D. Sirocco B. Mediterranean climate.
C. Monsoon climate.
12. In which part of India is found a Amw D. Western maritime climate.
type climate as per K oeppen’s
classification? 19. A majority of arboreal fauna, few grazing
A. S.W. Coast B. N. W. Coast lands, carnivorous animals and abundant
C. N. E Coast D. S. E. Coast aquatic life are characteristic of:
A. Wet-dry tropics
13. Chinook winds descend on the eastern B. Rainy tropics.
slopes of roc ky mountains th eir C. Monsoon lands
temperature is raised according to: D. Tropical desert
A. Normal lapse rate
B. Dry adiabatic rate
correct answer using the code given
C. Wet adiabatic rate
below the lists:
D. Both the normal lapse rate and dry
List I List II
adiabatic rate
(a) Chinook 1. U.S.A.
14. The ratio between actual humidity of air (b) Sirocco 2. Australia
and its maximum moisture holding (c) Brickfielder 3. Europe
capacity at a given temperature is termed (d) Mistral 4. Africa
as: Codes:
A. Absolute humidity (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. Relative humidity A. 1 4 2 3
C. Specific humidity B. 2 3 4 1
D. Dew Point C. 3 2 1 4
15. A planet’s farthest points in its orbit from D. 4 1 3 2
the sun is known as: 21. Consider the following statements:
A. Apogee B. Perigee Assertion (A): The mediterranean
C. Aphelion D. Perihelion region receives rainfall during winter.
16. Which of the following order of the Reason (R): It lies between the
structure of the atmopshere is correct? westerlies and the trade winds.
Select the correct answer from the code C. Mid Latitude coniferous forest
given below. D. Sub tropical deserts.
Codes: 27. In which of the following climate regions
rainfall is affected due to southern
oscilations:
the correct explanation of A A. Sudan type
C. A is true but R is false B. Monsoon type
D. A is false but R is true C. N. W. European type
22. Study the following statements: D. Equatorial type
Assertion (A): The coastal North America 28. Westerlies blow all the year round.....
receives rainfall through out the year. rainfall maximum in winters......some-
Reason (R): It is influenced by onshore times snowfall as well as ports are never
winds for most of the year frozen, frosts may occur on cold nights,
Select the correct answer from the code distinct seasons, comfortable climate.
given below. Which of the following regions do these
Codes: characteristics apply to:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. Western Europe.
correct explanation of A B. South-East Asia.
C. North Latin America.
D. South-East Australia
D. A is false but R is true 29. The category of sources which meets the
23. Which one of the following winds flows largest requirement of commercial
across the Alps mountain? energy in the world at present is:
A. Dust Devils B. Zonda A. Solar energy, geothermal and wind
C. Fohn D. Santa Ana power
B. Dung and vegetation waste
24. Which climate is represented by the
C. Fossil fuel
following data?
D. Hydro power
Jan. April July Oct.
AV. Max. 30. Which of the following winds blows down
Temp. °C 8.0 13.5 24.4 17.2 the leeward slope of the northern Alps in
AV. Rainfall 8.6 Switzerland?
5.0 1.0 11.0 A. Fohn B. Sirocco
mm
C. Mistral D. Chinook
A. China type
B. Mediterranean type 31. In which of the following natural regions
C. Monsoon type dairy industry is best developed?
D. Sudan type A. Monsoon Region
25. Central chile of south America is an B. N.E. Prairie Region
example of: C. Mediterranean Region
A. Equatorial Region. D. Savanna Region
B. Mediterranean Region. 32. Which one of the following is not a factor
C. Savanna Region. in occasioning su mmer monsson
D. Taiga Region. precipitation in India?
26. Koppens ‘CS’ pry summer subtropical A. North Atlantic oscillation
climate is found in: B. Southern oscillation
A. Mediterranean deserts. C. I.T.C
B. Mid Latitude deserts. D. Jet stream
33. Who of the following have divided India 38. Which one of the following notations has
into climatic regions based on range of been used by G.T. Trewartha for the
temperature and amount of rainfall? climate of Ganga plain?
d
A. Koppen A. CA’w B. Caw
B. Stamp and Kendrew C. CB’w D. Cwg
C. Trewartha 39. Relative humidity of the atmopshere is
D. Thornth waite measured by:
34. In the diagram the warm front lies at: A. hydrometer B. hygrometer
a b C. lactometer D. clinometer
A. a B. b
C. c D. d 40. The ozone layer lies in:
A. Ionosphere B. Photosphere
C. Stratosphere D. Troposphere
41. Assertion (A): The Atmosphere receives
most of the heat from the earth’s surface.
Reason (R): The conversion from short
wav e solar en ergy to long w ave
terrestrial energy takes place at the
earth’s surface:
35. Consider the following statements: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
Assertion (A): There is no atmosphere correct explanation of A
on moon. B. Both A and R are true but R is not
Reason (R): Only one part of moon can the correct explanation of A
be seen from the earth C. A is true but R is false
Select the correct answer from the code D. A is false but R is true
given below.
42. In which atmospheric layer are observed,
Codes:
two contrasting trends of temperature.
(increase followed by decrease with
height).
A. Troposphere B. Mesosphere
C. Ionosphere D. Stratosphere
D. A is false but R is true 43. Which one of the following persons has
used evapotranspir ation for the
36. ‘Halo’ around the sun or moon are
classification of the world climate?
produced due to:
A. Koppen B. Trewartha
A. refraction of light by ice crystals.
C. Thorn waite D. Kendrew
B. refraction of light by water droplets.
C. diffraction of light by ice crystals. 44. The weather map of India does not show.
D. diffraction of light by water crystals. A. cloudiness B. wind direction
C. Isobars D. Isotherms
37. Which of the following pairs is correctly
matched? 45. Study the following statements:
A. Monsson Region.....Heavy rainfall Assertio n (A): There is a close
throughout the year. correlation between moisture supply and
B. Mediterranean Region.....summer forests.
rain. Reason (R): Most of the wet regions of
C. Desert Region.....winter rain. the world are tree covered.
D. Equatorial Region.....After noon A. Both A and R are true and R is the
thunder showers. correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not 53. The relatively moderate climate of the
the correct explanation of A British isles is explained by:
C. A is true but R is false A. Labrador current
D. A is false but R is true B. Kuro-siwo
46. Winter rains in Uttar Pradesh are C. Gulf stream
associated with: D. North Atlantic drift.
A. Retreating monsoons 54. EL-Nino flows along the coast of:
B. Thunder storms A. Brazil
C. Temperate cyclones B. Peru
D. Local convection C. Alaska
D. Western Australia
47. The most colourful evening clouds are:
A. cumulus. B. stratus. 55. The hot and dry local winds which blow
C. cirrus. D. nimbus. in the Saharan region are known as:
A. Fohn B. Chinook
48. For the year as a whole the anomalies: C. Mistral D. Sirocco
are negative over the continents from
A. about 30° latitude towards the pole 56. Which type of rainfall does take place in
B. about 40° latitude towards the pole the coastal areas of West Bengal and
C. about 50° latitude towards the pole Orissa in April-May?
D. about 60° latitude towards the pole A. Orographic B. Cyclone
C. Convectional D. Frontal
49. Which one of the following climatic
symbols has been used by C. W. 57. Mistral is:
Thornthwaite to denote the climate of A. Benign wind.
the Southern Ganga Plain. B. Beneficial to the orchard keepers.
A. AA’r B. BA’w C. A very cold and dry wind with high
C. CA’w D. CB’w velocity.
D. Channeled through the Rhine valley
50. Which one of the following is a correct
58. Chinook blows:
sequence of electromagnetic radiation
A. down the east slopes of the Rockies.
from the sun from the shortest wave
B. down the west slope of the Andese.
length to the longest wavelength?
C. down the east slope of the Andese.
A. Visible light-rays, ultraviolet rays,
D. down the west slope of Rockies.
radiowaves, infrared rays.
B. Ultraviolet rays, visible light-rays, 59. Chinook is a:
infrared rays, radiowaves. A. devastating wind.
C. Ultraviolet rays, infrared rays, radio B. hot and dry wind.
waves, visible light. C. cold and dry wind.
D. Infrared rays, visible light-rays, radio D. all of the above.
waves, ultraviolet rays. 60. Fohn is located in:
51. Who of the following introduced the idea A. The Alps B. The Atlas
of precipitation evaporation ratio in C. The Andes D. The Rockies
climatic classification? 61. The areas affected by loo comprise of:
A. Koppen B. Thornwaite A. Pakistan.
C. Critchfield D. Strahler B. Afghanistan.
52. The layer of the atmosphere which C. Plains of Northern India.
D. All of the above.
contains water vapour and dust particles
is called? 62. Local winds develop:
A. Stratosphere B. Troposphere A. as a result of local differences in
C. Ionosphere D. Mesosphere pressure.
B. in the lowest levels of the troposphere. 71. The trade winds due to coriolis force are
C. all of the above deflected:
D. None of these A. to the right in the North ern
63. The valley breeze blows: Hemisphere
A. along the slope B. at night. B. to the right in the South ern
C. during day time D. A and C Hemisphere and to the left in the
64. The land breeze blows: Northern Hemisphere
A. at night C. to the right in the South ern
B. during day Hemisphere
C. during both day and night. D. none of the above
D. None of the above. 72. The trade winds are:
65. Which of the South Asian countries does A. prevailing winds
not get rains from monsoon? B. planetary winds
A. Bhutan C. periodic winds
B. Pakistan D. both A and B
C. Bangladesh 73. The westerly winds are the:
D. Burma A. planetary winds B. trade winds
66. Among the current theories of origin of C. prevailing winds D. both A and B
the monsoon, the widely accepted theory
74. The direction and speed of wind are
is given by:
controlled by:
A. Fohn B. Coriolis
C. Haggard D. None of these A. the pressure gradient force
B. gravity
67. Monsoons are the: C. the coriolis effect
A. periodic winds. D. all of the above
B. best ex amples of larg e sc ale
modification of the planetary wind 75. The vertical or nearly vertical movement
systems of air referred to as:
C. both A and B. A. wind B. air current
D. none of these. C. planetary winds D. global winds
68. Land and sea breeze are example of: 76. The horizontal movement of the air is
A. parochial winds. B. local winds. called:
C. periodic winds. D. None of these. A. wind.
69. The westerlies are the best developed B. air current
between: C. both A and B
A. 20° and 45° North D. None of the above
B. 45° and 70° South. 77. Formation of sub-tropical high pressure
C. 40° and 65° South belts are caused by:
D. 30° and 45° South. A. Thermal mechanism
70. The trade winds in the northern and B. Dynamic control
southern hemisphere are known as: C. Subsidence of cooled air
A. North eastern and South eastern D. Both B and C
trades respectively.
78. Horse Latitudes are:
B. North western and south western
A. belt of calm conditions
trades respectively.
C. North Western and south western B. characterised by variable and feeble
trades respectively. wind
D. North Eastern trades and south C. high pressure belt
western trade respectively. D. all of the above
79. Lowest temperatures are found: B. mainly from below
A. over the tropics C. mainly from space
B. over the poles D. none of these
C. over the equator 89. Distribution of temperature over the
D. None of the above earth:
80. On the earth’s surface. There are in all— A. is uniform
pressure belts. B. is not uniform
A. 5 B. 6 C. var ies h orizontally as well as
C. 7 D. 8 vertically
D. both B and C
81. The density of air depends upon:
A. temperature B. amount of water 90. Conduction is important only in the:
C. gravity D. All of the above A. upper layer of the atmosphere
B. lower layer of the atmosphere
82. Distribution of atmospheric pressure is C. middle layer of the atmosphere
not uniform over the earth’s surface. It D. both A and B
varies.
A. vertically B. horizontally 91. In all latitudes below 40°:
C. both A and B D. none of these A. more solar radiation is received than
is lost of space by the earth
83. For the year as a whole the anomalies B. lesser solar radiation is received than
are positive towards: is lost of space
A. the tropic C. gain and loss in equal
B. the equator D. none of these
C. the poles
D. none of these 92. Heat budget is:
A. the balance of incoming and out going
84. The smallest anomalies of temperature radiation
occur in the: B. the account of only incoming radiation
A. Southern Hemisphere C. the account of incoming and out going
B. Northern Hemisphere radiation
C. Eastern Hemisphere D. none of these
D. Both B and C
93. Temperature contrasts between the
85. The atmosphere is heated: continents and the oceans are:
A. more by terrestrial radiation A. greater during winter than summer
B. more by incoming solar radiation B. minimum during rainy season
C. less by terrestrial radiation C. greater during summer than during
D. none of these winter
86. The reflected amount of radiation is called: D. none of these
A. the heat balance of the earth 94. In many valleys, settlements and
B. the albedo of the earth cultivation are concentrated:
C. the heat budget of the earth A. on the western slopes
D. both A and C B. on the eastern slopes
87. Winds and ocean currents are produced: C. on the southern slopes
A. due to radiation D. on the northern slopes
B. due to imbalance of heat 95. For most places on the earth.....represent
C. due to temperature the seasonal extremes of temperature.
D. due to earth’s movement A. December and July
88. The atmosphere is heated: B. December and June
C. January and August
A. mainly from above
D. January and July
96. A wid-spacing of the isotherms indicates: 100. In summers and winters isotherms
A. a slow change in temperature swerve much north or south over:
B. a rapid change in pressure A. Asian landmass B. Atlantic Ocean
C. a rapid change in temperature C. Australia D. Indian Ocean
D. a slow change in pressure 101. The most important layer for all biological
97. The largest anomalies of temperature activity in the atmospher is:
occur in the: A. Mesosphere B. Ionosphere
A. Northern Hemisphere C. Exosphere D. Troposphere
B. Southern Hemisphere 102. Occasional winter rainfal in northern
C. Oceans India occurs due to the cyclones from:
D. Land A. Bay of Bengal
98. Isotherm generally end east-west because B. Pacific Ocean
of: C. Arabian Sea
A. same latitude B. easy passage D. Mediterranean Sea
C. same longitude D. none of these 103. The climate of which of the following
99. Isotherm shift north and south from natural regions is most affected by the
season to season this is due to: shifting pressure belts:
A. position of sun with respect to earth A. Mediterranean
B. earth’s movement B. Equatorial
C. position of earth with respect to sun. C. Western maritime
D. none of these D. Prarie.
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A A D D A C D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A B B C B B C B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A C B B A B A C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A B B B A D B B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D D D B C C B C B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B D B D C C D B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A C D A A A C C C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A D D D B A D D B C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D C B A A B B B D B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A A C D A A A A A
101 102 103
D D A
4 Oceanography
1. Sunda Trench lies in: C. Deformation of sea floor and vertical

A. Atlantic Ocean B. Pacific Ocean displacement of water
C. Indian Ocean D. Antarctic Ocean D. Sudden change in the monsoon wind
2. Which one of the fallowing is correct? 8. Which of the following factors affect the
A. Along Brazilian coast origin and movement of current:
B. Off south west African coast I. Gravitational Force
C. Off Spanish and North African coast II. Atmospheric pressure and insolation
D. Along West coast of united states III. Salinity and density of water
IV. Direction and Shape of coast
3. Kiel Canal connects: A. I and II B. I, II and IV
A. Baltic sea and North sea C. I, II and III D. All four
B. Red Ocean and Mediterranean sea
9. Grand Banks is one of the important
C. Caribbean sea and Pacific sea
producers of:
D. Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean
A. nitrate B. iron ore
4. Falkland Islands are in: C. marine fish D. bauxite
A. Antarctica B. North Atlantic 10. Which one of the following statements is
C. South Atlantic D. Pacific correct?
5. The main masses of land above sea level A. Salinity decreases with increasing
are called: evaporation
A. Continent B. Islands B. There is inverse relationship between
C. Nations D. Countries precipitation and salinity
C. There is inverse relationship between
6. Assertion (A): Despite low evaporation
atmospheric pressure and salinity
and stable stratification of the atmo-
D. Salinity increases with influx of river
sphere, salinity is high in polar regions.
water in oceans
Reason (R): Sea water freezes leaving
the remaining water saline than before. 11. Name the ocean in which the north
equatorial current changes its direction
Codes: with season:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. North Pacific Ocean
correct explanation of A B. Atlantic Ocean
B. Both A and R are true but R is not C. Indian Ocean
the correct explanation of A D. South Pacific Ocean
C. A is true but R is false 12. Which of the following theory explains
D. A is false but R is true the origin of coral reefs and atolls?
7. The cause for the Tsunami, as deduced A. Sliding continental theory
by the seismologists, is: B. Elastic rebound theory
A. Gravitational pull of the moon C. Continental drift theory
B. Low pressure through in the ocean D. Glacial control theory
65
13. Which one of the following is not a cold A. N.E. monsoon current
current? B. California current
A. Falkland B. California C. Agul has current
C. West Australia D. Agulhas D. East Australian current
14. Which one of the following trench is not 22. The important ocean resource for iodine
located in the Pacific Ocean? and potash is:
A. Mariana B. Tonga A. Green algae
C. Sunda D. Aleutian B. Red algae
15. Which one of the following is a warm C. Brown algae
current? D. Blue green algae
A. Peruvian current 23. Identify the correct sequence of the
B. Canaries current amount of the following minerals present
C. Benguela current in ocean water in descending order using
D. Brazil current
the code given below:
16. Which one of the following does not enjoy Minerals
mediterranean type of climate? 1. Magnesium chloride
A. California B. Cyprus 2. Sodium chloride
C. Bolivia D. Algeria
3. Magnesium sulphate
17. Of the following west European countries 4. Calcium sulphate
the only one with coast lines on three
Codes:
seas is:
A. Portugal B. Belgium A. 1 2 3 4
C. Spain D. France B. 2 3 1 4
C. 4 1 2 3
18. Which of the following theories of the D. 2 1 3 4
formation of coral reefs and atoll was
postulated by Darwin? 24. Assertion (A): Pisciculture has shown
A. Glacial control theory phenomenal growth in monsoon Asia
B. Subsidence theory Reason (R): Monsoon Asia countries are
C. gland still theory the leading exporters of fish
D. composite theory Select the answer from the following code:
19. The density of sea water increases if: Codes:
A. depth and concentration of salt both A. Both A and R are true and R is the
decrease correct explanation of A
B. depth and concentration of salt both B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
increase. correct explanation of A
C. depth decreases but concentration of C. A is true but R is false
salt increases. D. A is false but R is true
D. depth increases but concentration of 25. On the basis of international trade, the
salt decreases. most important ocean route is:
20. Stationary wave theory is related to the A. Atlantic Ocean, Mediterranean Sea,
origin of: Indian ocean via Suej Canal.
A. tides B. Atlantic ocean, Indian Ocean via cape
B. the earth of Good Hope.
C. continents C. North Atlantic route between Europe
D. coral reefs and North America.
21. Which of the following is not a warm D. Western coast of North America-
current? Europe route via Panama Canal.
26. Assertion (A): Mid Oceanic ridges are 3. Convection currents converge under
the nuclei of future continents. the mid oceanic ridges.
Reason (R): There has been divergent 4. Sea floor spreading starts from this
movement of plates along mid-oceanic zone.
ridges. Codes:
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
correct explanation of A C. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
31. The only European country with
coastlines on the Atlantic ocean,
D. A is false but R is true mediterranean sea and North Sea is:
27. Which of the following is not correctly A. Portugal B. Belgium
matched? C. Spain D. France
A. Aleutian trench –– North Pacific 32. Which of the following occur more
B. Tonga trench — South Pacific frequently than
C. Puerto Rico trench — South Atlantic A. Hurricanes B. Willy willies
D. Sunda trench — Indian Ocean C. Tornado D. Typhoons
28. Which of the following pairs are correctly 33. A long wall built on the beach that crosses
matched? shoreline at right angles for the
protection of the shoreline against erosion
1. Oyeshio : South Pacific
is termed as:
2. Falkland : South Atlantic A. Sea wall B. Groyne
Current C. Dockyard D. Harbour
3. Mozambique : Indian Ocean
34. The shallow waters of the continental
Current shelves are rich grounds. An example of
4. Labrador : North Pacific such area is:
current A. Black Sea B. Caspian Sea
Codes: C. Bass Strait D. North Sea
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 35. Along the coasts salinity is:
C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 A. lowered B. increased
29. Which of the following pair of factors is C. stable D. unaffected
responsible for a lag of 58 minutes in two 36. OTEC power plants can be only located in:
direct tides on the earth’s Ocean surface? A. Temperate region
1. Earth’s rotation B. Subtropical zone
2. Earth’s revolution C. Tropical region
3. Moon’s rotation D. Polar zone
4. Moon’s revolution 37. The desalination plant in India is located
Codes: at:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 A. Kavarati B. Chennai
C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 C. Minicoy D. Diu
38. The most common method of desalination
30. Study the following statements about the
in the world is:
mid-oceanic ridges and select the correct A. Flash distillation
answer using the code given below: B. Electrodialysis
1. Mid oceanic ridges are zones of linear. C. Reverse osmosis
2. These are given to up welling of lava. D. Heating
39. The up rush of the tidal waves of certain 46. The periodic appearance of warm water
height through the river mouth is called: off the peruvian coast due to the
A. Seiches B. Tsunamis suppression of trade winds is called:
C. Spring tide D. Tidal bore A. Humboldt current
40. High sea tides occur after an interval of: B. Cromwall current
A. 14 days C. Under toe
B. 12 hours 26 minutes D. None of these
C. 6 hours and 2 minutes 47. Sinking of oceanic water is caused by its
D. 4 hours and 6 minutes increased density. At which of the
following latitudes will sinking occur:
41. Equatorial spring tides occur at an
A. 0° B. 40°
interval of:
C. 60° D. 90°
A. 12 and a half hours
B. 6 hours 48. In the lower latitude warm currents blow
C. 6 months on:
D. 12 months A. the western shore
B. the eastern shore
42. Which one of the following ocean currents C. both A and B
is popularly known as warm planet of D. none of these
Europe?
A. Gulf stream Currents Oceans
B. Agul has currents (a) Falkland current 1. warm current
C. East Australian current (b) Norwegian 2. cold current
D. Falkland current current
43. Spring tides occur on full moon and new (c) Florida current 3. West coast of the
moon days because: U.S.A.
A. moon and earth at right angle (d) Okhotsk current 4. Atlantic Ocean
B. sun and moon are at right angles (e) British columbia 5. West Coast of
C. sun, earth and moon are in a straight current Kamachatka
line Peninsula.
D. sun and earth are at right angle Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
44. Neap tides are smaller because:
A. 2 4 1 5 3
A. the moon’s gravitational force is less B. 2 1 4 5 3
B. the sun and the moon do not act C. 1 2 3 4 5
together. D. 4 2 5 3 1
C. the gravitational attraction of sun and
50. Cobot current is the branch of:
moon tend to cancel each other.
A. labrador current
D. it takes place at night.
B. N. equatorial current
45. A tidal period is: C. Bengula current
A. 12 hour duration period during which D. Brazilian current
high tide and low tide come 51. The Gulf Stream is:
B. duration between the high and the low A. Found in the Pacific Ocean
tide B. Found on the western side of the
C. 12 hour 26 minutes period between Atlantic Ocean
successive high and low tide C. Found near cape of Good Hope
D. duration between two successive crests D. Found in the Arctic Ocean
52. The Sargasso Sea is an area of: 60. The counter equatorial current flows from
A. sea weeds A. west to east
B. warm saline water B. east to west
C. calm conditions C. north to south
D. very cold waters D. south to north
53. The.....current is produced by upwelling 61. Surface currents in the ocean are
of cool water off the coast of Chile and primarily caused by
Peru: A. temperature difference
A. Gulf stream B. density difference
B. Humboldt current C. wind action
C. Benguela current D. coriolis effect
D. None of these
62. An eastward flowing sub surface counter
54. What is the principal cause of surface current in the pacific is:
circulation in the oceans? A. Leeuwin current
A. Wind action B. Abrorhas current
B. Temperature C. Cromwell current
C. Coriolis effect D. equatorial current
D. Density differences
63. The circulation clockwise flow of water is
55. The Okhotsk current washes the shores called a:
of: A. geostrophic current
A. Alaska B. up welling
B. Kamchatka peninsula C. gyre
C. Yellow Sea D. water masses
D. Hokkaido island
56. Sargasso sea is located in the: 64. Corals are generally found in tropical sea
A. Indian Ocean between:
B. Gulf of Mexico A. 20°N and 15°S
C. North Atlantic Ocean B. 30°N and 30°S
D. South Pacific Ocean C. 10°N and 10°S
D. 23.5°N and 23.5°S
57. Which of the following is a cold ocean
current? 65. Which of the following is considered as a
A. Humboldt current marine paradise?
B. Canaries current A. Atoll
C. Falkland current B. Great barrier reef
D. All of these C. Lagoon
58. The sub surface movement between east D. Fringing reef
and west Atlantic takes place through: 66. The coral reefs are mainly found in:
A. Romance trench A. polar regions
B. Walvi & ridge B. tropical regions
C. Guinea trench C. mid latitude regions
D. Wyllie Thompson ridge D. equatorial regions
59. Caballing refers to: 67. The Great Barrier reef is found:
A. movement of water along the slope A. close to Greenland
B. sinking and merging of surface water B. in Persian Gulf
C. current movement off shore C. in the Bay of Bengal
D. upwelling and divergence of water D. off the Australian N.E. Coast
68. The Second Largest Barrier reef after the 76. Which ocean deposits is found in the
Great Barrier reef in the world is: deepest parts of the ocean?
A. Off the coast of Belite between Mexico A. Red clay
and Guatemala B. Terrigenous deposits
B. Off the west coast of India C. Diatom ooze
C. Off the Sahara Coast D. Red mud
D. Off the east coast of Seychelles 77. .....deposits occupies the largest
69. Which of the following conditions are not percentage of bottom surface of oceans.
helpful to the growth of corals? A. Terrigenous B. Biogenous
A. Clear shallow water C. Clay D. Hydrogenous
B. Sediment free water 78. Red clay is chiefly composed of:
C. Photic Zone A. clay minerals derived from wind borne
D. Salinity around dust
70. The maximum development of coral reef B. rock waste dropped by iceberg
formation takes place in: C. wind blown volcanic ash
A. Pacific Ocean B. Arabian Sea D. All of the above
C. Caribbean Sea D. South Atlantic 79. The most widespread pelagic deposits are:
71. The only eastern coast of ocean where A. red clay B. radiolaria
true sclerectinian corals are found is: C. diatom D. pteropod
A. Coast of West Australia 80. The most wide spread ooze deposits are:
B. South East Pacific A. globigerina B. pteropod
C. North East Pacific C. cocolithophore D. Radiolaria
D. Somalian Coast 81. In which of the following locations
72. The reef building corals are called: evaporate deposits form?
A. hermatypic A. Dead Sea B. Gulf of Mexico
B. a hermatypic C. Lake Superior D. L Tanganyika
C. sclerectinian type 82. Black beds form under the conditions of:
D. sessile type A. stagnant water
73. Lime stone deposits are the most B. greater organic matter content
important deposits of: C. presence of little oxygen
A. Deep Sea B. Shallow Sea D. All of the above
C. Deep Sea Plain D. Coastal area 83. Surface salinity of sea water
predominantly depends upon the ratio of
`74. The main components of green mud are:
evaporation to precipitation at which of
A. CaCO3 and FeCO3
the following latitude surface salinity will
B. FeCO3 and PbCO3
be the highest.
C. Glauconite and CaCO3
A. 0° B. 20°
D. Ca(OH)2 and Glauconite C. 30° D. 40°
75. Which of the following is correctly 84. Normal salinity of sea water defined as
matched? the amount of salt per thousand grams
A. Red clay — Pacific Ocean of sea water, which of the following is
B. Pelagic deposits — Only inorganic true for it.
C. Pteropod Ooze — Continental A. 25 gms B. 30 gms
D. Terrigenous deposits— Deep Sea plain C. 35 gms D. 40 gms
85. What is the most common salt in the sea A. Hypsographic curve
water? B. Countour maps
A. Sodium chloride C. Hydrostatic curve
B. Calcium chloride D. Hythergraph
C. Calcium carbonate 94. The Red Sea is an example of:
D. Magnesium sulphate
A. residual structure
86. What is the average salinity between B. volcanic structure
15°S- 20°S latitude? C. folded structure
A. 32 percent B. 30 per cent D. faulted structure
C. 25 per cent D. 35 per cent
95. Guyots were discovered by:
87. The average salinity of sea water is: A. Guyot, A.D.
A. 40 per cent B. 35 per cent B. Guyot A.H.
C. 30 per cent D. 20 per cent C. Guyot W.A.
88. Which one of the following seas/oceans D. Guyot C.S.
has the maximum salinity? 96. Wyville Thompson ridge is located in:
A. North Sea A. north Atlantic Ocean
B. Pacific Ocean B. Indian Ocean
C. Atlantic Ocean
C. north Pacific Ocean
D. Indian Ocean
D. south Pacific Ocean
89. In.....latitudes, salinity.....with depth.
97. Archipelago is:
A. High, increases
A. the shallow part of the sea
B. Low, increases
B. the slowly moving mass of ice down a
C. High, decreases
mountian
D. Low, decreases
C. the ring shaped coral reefs
90. In open ocean in the sub tropical high
D. a group of islands
pressure zone the salinity is.....while in
the enclosed seas in the same latitude, 98. The ninety-East ridge is found in:
salinity is..... A. Indian Ocean
A. Higher, lower B. Atlantic Ocean
B. Lower, higher C. Andes mountain
C. Higher, constant D. Rocky mountain
D. Constant, higher 99. Which of the following seas is located on
91. Bays and headlines are generally found the continental shelf?
in shore line of: A. Tasman Sea
A. submergence B. North Sea
B. emergence C. Caribbean Sea
C. neutral type D. Caspian Sea
D. faulted type
100. Which line joins points of the seas/oceans
92. A narrow coastal inlet is known as: having equal salinity?
A. creek B. cre vasse A. Thermohaline
C. ria D. fiord B. Isohaline
93. How are the bottom topography of an C. Isobars
ocean shown? D. Isotherms
101. In deep seas oozes are formed due to the A. Andhra coastal region
deposition of: B. Gujarat coastal region
A. inorganic materials C. Kerala coastal region
B. volcanic materials D. Orissa coastal region
C. terrigenous materials 105. Largest fresh water storage of the world
D. organic materials lies in:
102. Sargasso sea is located in: A. Greenland. B. Antarctica.
A. Atlantic ocean B. Indian Ocean C. Himalayas. D. Alps.
C. Pacific Ocean D. Arctic Ocean 106. Dolphin-challenger Ridge is located in:
103. Salt is available at sambhar because: A. Atlantic Ocean B. Pacific Ocean
A. exposure of rock salt C. Arctic Ocean D. Indian Ocean
B. a lake with no drainage outlet 107. Which of the following is a cold ocean
C. a lake which receives sea water current?
D. it has a closed lagoon A. Venguela B. Gulf Stream
104. Shrimp culture is highly developed in: C. Kurisio D. Peru
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B A C B D B D C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D D C D C D B B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C D C C B C B D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A B D A C A C D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A C C C D D B A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A B A B C D A B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C C B B B D A D A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A A B C A A B D A A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A D D C A A B C A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D A D B A D A B B
101 102 103 104 105 106 107
D A B C B A A
5 Geographical Thought
1. Who used the method of ranking 9. The world geography was used for the
coefficient for the first time in India in first time by:
order to calculate agricultural productivity? A. Eratosthenes B. Kant
A. Prof. Mohammed shafi C. Aristotle D. Thucydides
B. Prof. Jasbir Singh 10. The first systematic description of world
C. Prof. M.G. Kendall is found in:
D. Prof. Dudley Stamp A. Ges-periodos
2. Which of the following pairs is correct? B. Climata
A. Alfred Wegener - Plate Tectonics C. Outline of Geography
B. Archdeacon Pratt - Continental Drift D. None of the above
Theory 11. Thales and Anaximander are generally
C. William Moris Davis - Geographical recognised as:
Cycle of Erosion A. The founders of cultural geography
D. Walter penck - Theory of Isostasy
B. The founders of regional geography
3. Which one of the following pairs is C. The founders of mathematical
correct? geography
A. Concentric zone Theory - E.W. Burgess D. The founders of historical geography
B. Sector Theory - Alfred Weber
12. For the first time the world landmass
C. Multi-Nuclei Theory - Homer Hoyt
was divided into three continents i.e.,
D. Fused Growth Theory - Griffith Taylor
Europe, Asia and Libya by:
4. The concept of Gnomon was given by: A. Hecataeus B. Herodotus
A. Greeks B. Homes C. Eratosthenes D. Thales
C. Anaximander D. Thales
13. On the basis of latitudes who divided the
5. The modified conical projection for the world into 'climate' (belt of latitudes)?
first time was used by: A. Eratosthenes B. Strabo
A. Ptolemy C. Hipparcus D. Ptolemy
B. Kant
C. Aristotle 14. Who was the first geographer to divide
D. None of the above the circles into 360°, based on Assyrian
arithmetic?
6. Who is know as "Father of geography"? A. Herodotus B. Anaxi mander
A. Thales B. Hipparchus C. Hipparcus D. Hecataeus
C. Hecataeus D. Herodotus
15. The "Astrolabe" turned out to be an
7. Geographia was written by: important instrument, which made
A. Hipparchus B. Eratosthenes possible the measurement of latitude at
C. Polybius D. Posidonius sea by observing the angle of the polar-
8. Ges-Periodos are the work of: star, was invented by:
A. Hipparchus B. Hecatqeus A. Hipparcus B. Hecataeus
C. Herodotus D. Ptolemy C. Anaximander D. Herodotus
73
16. Which among the following is not a Greek D. Physical and political
geographer? 25. One of the earliest to prove that the earth
A. Anaxi mander B. Strabo is spherical were:
C. Thales D. Hecataeus A. Romans B. Arabs
17. Which of the following is a Roman C. Greeks D. Indians
geographer? 26. The most important physical geographers
A. Hipparcus B. Thales among the Greek geographers was:
C. Ptolemy D. Hecataeus A. Possidonius B. Polybius
18. The credit of conversion of a three C. Aristotle D. Anaximander
dimensional sphare into two dimensional 27. The pupil of Aristotle ____ studies the
plane goes to: relationship between the plants and
A. Hipparcus B. Ptolemy climate.
C. Strabo D. None of these A. Thales B. Theophrastus
19. The author of the Alamagast is: C. Herodotus D. Anaximander
A. Strabo B. Hipparcus
28. The book which was authored by Strabo
C. Ptolemy D. None of these
was:
20. The 'Almagast' of ptolemy mainly deals A. Geographia generalis
with: B. Phytogeography
A. Regional geography C. Historia naturalis
B. Complicated problems of latitudes and D. Geographia
longitudes
29. The area of interest of Strabo was:
C. History
A. Human geography
D. Complicated problems of mathematical
B. Historical geography
geography and astronomy.
C. Mathematical geography
21. The “Outline of geography” is a D. Cartography
contribution of:
30. Who is said to have laid the foundation
A. Ptolemy B. Strabo
of regional geography?
C. Kant D. Verenius
A. Hecataeus of miletus
22. The Greek geographer who contributed B. Polybius
to the development of mathematical C. Eratosthenes
Geography was: D. Strabo
A. Anaxi mander B. Thales
C. Eratosthenes D. Unknown
(a) De chorographia 1. Pomponius Mela
23. According to Thales, a Greek philosopher, (b) Geographia 2. Ptolemy
the shape of the earth was: Syntaxis
A. oval (c) Father of 3. Pliny
B. spherical Oceanography
C. flat 4. Possidonius
D. circular Codes:
24. The favourite branch of Greek geographers (a) (b) (c)
was: A. 3 4 2
A. Astronomy and political B. 1 2 4
B. Astronomy and physical C. 1 2 3
C. Astronomy and cultural D. 1 3 4
32. The content of Geographic syntaxis is: visualises production of fuelwood in:
A. Study of cosmological and physical A. First ring B. Second ring
environment C. Third ring D. Fourth ring
B. Tables of latitudes, longitudes and 39. Which of the following statement is true
projections. about “Humboldt and his concept of
C. Interrelations of physical environment whole”?
D. Mathematical calculation of planet A. He was seeking to understand the fact
earth about the elements making up the
33. Which of the following statements is whole.
True? B. Humboldt was philosopher brooding
A. Humboldt founded the Berlin over the whole.
geographical society. C. He and Ritter had identical view over
whole.
B. Humboldt and Ritter differed mainly
on the concept of ‘whole’.
C. Humboldt and Ritter had identical view 40. Who among the following is not a German
on the concept of whole Geographer?
D. Both used inductive method. A. Roxby B. Alfred Hettner
C. Richthofen D. Albrencht Penk
34. Humboldt’s monumental book “Cosmos”
was published in: 41. Who among the following is not a German
A. 1840 B. 1845 geographer?
A. Ratzel B. Humboldt
C. 1835 D. 1850
C. Oscar Paschel D. Herbertson
35. The world ‘climatology’ was first used in
42. Who said “sapce is not a thing or event.
the:
It is a kind of framework for things and
A. 4th International geographical events: something like a system of pigeon
congress in the 1889 holes or a filing system for observation”.
B. 5th International geographical A. Humboldt
congress in 1904 B. Ritter
C. 6th International geographical C. Immanual Kant
congress in 1919 D. Verenius
D. None of these
43. The founder of concept of “Dualism” in
36. Humboldt is considered as the founder of: geography was:
A. Modern geography A. Verenius B. Kant
B. Plant geography C. Ritter D. Hettner
C. Climatology 44. The first map that shows America as a
D. All of these seperate continent was drawn by:
37. In cosmos: A. Martin Waldseemuller in 1567
A. A comparative study of similar forms B. Martin Waldseemullar in 1507
and regions on the surface of earth C. Nicholus Copernicus in 1507
was done. D. Nicholus Copernicus in 1567
B. Humboldt had laid foundation of a 45. The “Heliocentric concept” of the universe
systematic regional descriptions. was estbalished by:
C. A and B A. Nicholus Copernicus
D. None of these B. Kant
38. Proceeding from the central city von C. Verenius
Thunen’s theory of agricultural location D. Humboldt
46. The “Heliocentric concept” of the universe C. the first climatic atlas of the world
means: D. none of the above
A. Sun revolves round the earth. 55. “A book of routes and Realms” was
B. Universe is geocentric
written by:
C. All the planets rotate around the sun.
A. Ibn Khaldun B. Al Masudi
C. Al Maqdisi D. Ibn Hawqul
47. The founder of “space-time concept” was:
56. ‘Baitul Hikma’:
A. Verenius
B. Nicholus Copernicus A. A book written by Al Masudi
C. Immanuel Kant B. was an academy established by caliph
D. None of these Harun-al-Rashid
C. is a memoir written by Al-Maqdisi
48. The first “Globe” of the world was made
D. is a book written by caliph Harun-al-
in the:
Rashid
A. 14th century B. 15th century
C. 16th century D. 17th century 57. ‘Kitabul-Ashkal’ is authored by:
A. Al Masudi B. Al Maqdisi
49. New projections like mercator was
C. Al Balakhi D. Ibn Hawqal
invented in:
A. 1669 B. 1620 58. The first climatic Atlas of the world was
C. 1469 D. 1569 compiled by:
50. The first institute of geography at A. The Arabs B. The Romans
Sargres near Cape St. Vincent was C. The French D. The American
established by: 59. In 1985 AD. Al-Maqdisi offered a new
A. Marco polo division of the world into:
B. Christophor Columbus A. 14 climatic regions
C. Prince Henary B. 16 climatic regions
D. B and C C. 18 climatic regions
51. Ibn Khaldun work “Muqaddimah” deals D. 20 climatic regions
with the: 60. Who were the first to give the idea of the
A. Description and discussion of human periodic nature of the monsoons?
society in its various aspects. A. The French B. The Arabs
B. Climate zones of the world. C. The Greeks D. The Romans
C. Case studies of a particular estate.
D. Regional geography of the world. 61. The “Muqaddimah” was Authored by:
52. Who wrote, “Amusements for Him who A. Ibn-Hawqal B. Al-Idrisi
desires to travel around”? C. Ibn-Khaldum D. Ibn-Maqdisi
A. Al-Biruni B. Al Idrisi 62. During the puranic period, which part of
C. Al Masudi D. Al-Maqdisi the world was not known to them?
53. Kitab-ul-Hind was written by: A. Americas B. Europe
A. Al Maqdisi B. Al Masudi C. S.E. Asia D. Africa
C. Al Biruni D. None of these 63. In Ramayana Valmiki has interpreted six
54. “Kitabul-Ashkal” is: seasons, sisira corresponds to:
A. the first historical account of the Arab A. Magh-Phaguna (Jan-Feb)
world B. Chaitra-Vaisakha (March-April)
B. description and discussion of human C. Asvina-Kartika (Sep-Oct)
society D. Sravan-Bhado (July-Aug)
64. In puranas “Meru” means. 71. One of the following Arabian geographers
A. Southpole B. Northpole visited India during the period of
C. Latitude D. Longitude Mohammed Tughlaq and served as a Kazi:
65. Strabo considered earth as: A. Al-Battani B. Ibn-Yunus
A. an oblong B. floating disc C. Al-Maqdisi D. Ibn-Batuta
C. circular plane D. None of these 72. Which among the following Arabian
66. Who for the first time plotted Bay of geographer provided a good description of
Bengal as the “Gangetic Gulf ”? house types and building materials in
A. Hipparcus desert?
B. Ptolemy A. Jackout B. Al-Masudi
C. Strabo C. Ibn-Yunus D. Ibn-Batuta
D. Verenius 73. ____ was the greatest Arab traveller.
67. Which of the following statements is not A. Ibn-Hawkal B. Ibn-Batuta
true? C. Ibn-Yunus D. Ibn-Khaldun
A. Indian philosophy and Indian writers 74. ____ was the most learned man of his
were specially studied by the Arab age.
geographers
A. Al-Biruni B. Al-Aizaz
B. Arabian map making was more
C. Al-Idrisi D. Ibn-Hawkal
advanced than the Greek
C. The Arabian geographers especially 75. The Arab were mainly interested in
studied the human habitation _________ geographer:
D. Map making was helped by the correct A. Political B. Systematic
measurement of latitude and C. Historical D. Mathematical
longitude 76. Which Arabian geographer can be called
68. One of the main contribution of Arab as political geographer?
geographers was: A. Al-Idrisi B. Ibn-Khaldun
A. they made important contribution to C. Al-Biruni D. Ibn-Yunus
the development of Astronomy 77. The first Arabian geographer to give an
B. they wrote books on geographical account of the periodic wind was:
description A. Al-Idrisi B. Al-Masudi
C. they preserved old geographical C. Ibn-Yunus D. Ibn-Hawkal
knowledge
D. All of these 78. How was the world map represented in
the dark period?
69. Location School in geography is
A. The world was represented as T in O
represented by:
with Jerusalem at the centre
A. R. Peet B. E. William
B. Only Jerusalem was shown on the
C. P. Hagget D. C. Saver
map
70. Name the Arab scholar who described C. It was a flat disc
the monsoons and the relation of D. All of these
evaporation to rainfall.
A. Al-Idrisi 79. Just like Eratosthenes, an Arab
B. Al-Maqdisi geographer calculated the earth
C. Ibn-Hawkal circumference. He was:
D. Al-Biruni A. Al-Kalim B. Al-Kalam
E. Al-Masudi C. Abu Zaid D. Ibn Khaldun
80. From 300 to 1200 AD, the dark age, there 88. Geography must serve the cause of
was the influence of: human welfare. This standpoint is
A. Zorostrians B. Jews represented by the:
C. Christianity D. Islam A. Ecological School
81. The period from 300 AD to 1200 AD is B. Locational School
known as Dark age because: C. Traditional School
A. Roman Empire had declined D. Radical School
B. Geography texts were affected by 89. Identify the following geographer:
Christian holy test 1. He wrote the book Almagest.
C. All the texts of geography were burnt 2. He discovered steoreographic projection.
during this period 3. He modified conical projection.
D. There was no exploration work A. Strabo B. Ptolemy
82. The dark age was from: C. Hipparchus D. Pliny
A. 300 AD to 1200 AD 90. Which of the following is also known as
B. 300 ADto 900 AD the age of exploration and discoveries:
C. 1700 AD t 2100 AD A. 1200 to 1600 AD B. 1200 to 1700 AD
D. 300 BC to 400 AD C. 1100 to 1200 AD D. 1200 to 1300 BC
83. The first geographer to introduce the 91. Which French explorer during louis IX
concept of Gnomon to the Greeks was: took jounrney towards Soviet Russia
A. Eratosthenes B. Anaximander Central Asia and Mangolia?
C. Aristotle D. Steers A. De Martonne
84. Who was the first in the world to suggest B. William Rubereek
use of a grid of latitude and longitude as C. Clauverius
a basic for locating places on the world? D. Per Pillow
A. Hipparchus B. Aristotle 92. Almost all the Portuguese sailors began
C. Eratomines D. Thales their journey towards.
85. Although containing 14% error but still A. South and Southwest
the most accurate calculation of B. West
circumference was made by: C. East
A. Steers B. Eratosthenes D. North and North East.
C. Ptolemy D. Amundesen 93. In 1510, the Portuguese explorer _____
86. The view point that the physical reached india.
environment offers human being arrange A. Al Burgugue
of opportunities from which they are able B. Vasco-da Gama
to select is called: C. Captain Hawkins
A. Environmentalism D. Christopher Columbus
B. Scientific Determinism 94. John Cabot sailed up to:
C. Stop and go determinism A. South Georgia
D. None of the above B. Tierra del Feugo
87. Who is called as the father of C. Cap Race in New foundland
Anthropology? D. Plate river mouth
A. Theophratus 95. The author of “Geography – A modern
B. Pliny synthesis”.
C. Pomponius Mela A. A Schulz B. P. Haggett
D. Ptolemy C. D.M. Smith D. E.A. Ackerman
96. The subject matter of geographia (a) Cape of Good 1. Christopher
Gereralis comprised of Absolute part, Hope Columbus
Relative part and comparative part match (b) America 2. Amerigo Vespucci
the parts and their contents. (c) Brazil 3. Vasco-da-Gama
(a) Absolute part 1. Surface (d) Greenland 4. Hendry Bludson
description of Codes:
Earth (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Relative part 2. Relationship of A. 3 1 2 4
Earth with stars B. 1 2 3 4
(c) Comparative 3. Form and size of C. 2 1 3 4
part the Earth D. 4 3 2 1
Codes: 102. Who among the following do not belong
(a) (b) (c) to heliocentric group?
A. 3 2 1 A. Aristotle B. Galileo
B. 1 2 3 C. Copernicus D. Varenius
C. 2 2 3
103. The political statistical school is represen-
D. 2 3 1 ted by:
97. Which one of the following travellers did A. Varenius
not pass through the cape of Good Hope? B. Vidal dela Blache
A. Columbus B. Cook C. Buschiny
C. Magellan D. Vasco-da-Gama D. None of the above
98. Match the following: 104. The use of natural boundaries rather than
(a) Richard Hokluyt 1. Principal political boundaries for the description of
Navigation regional geography came to be known as:
(b) Giles Fletcher 2. Description of A. Practical geography
Soviet Union B. Systematic geo
(c) Carpenter 3. World geography C. Reine Geography
Codes: D. None of the above
(a) (b) (c) 105. Practical and scientific methods were
A. 1 2 3 developed for the first time by:
B. 2 3 1 A. Minshul
C. 3 2 1 B. Ratzel
D. 2 1 3 C. Forrester Brothers
99. Who for the first time took journey to D. None of the above
the whole world? 106. Raine geography was:
A. Magellan B. Marcopolo A. description of mountain axes
C. Columbus D. Bespuki B. description of natural regions of the
100. Vasco da Gama reached India through: earth than political regions
A. Suez Canal C. description of heavenly bodies
B. Gulf of Slam D. description of Astronomical events
C. Cape Horn 107. The first description of natural regions
D. None of these are found in the works of:
101. Match the following places and persons A. Getterer B. Buache
who discovered them. C. Busching D. Hommeyer
108. Which of the following geographers do 118. The Arid landform theory was postulated
not belong to the Reine geography school? by:
A. Forster A. Daly B. Davis
B. Hommeyer C. Penck D. None of these
C. Buache
119. Match the following geographers and their
D. Zeune
associated universities.
109. Who accompanied “captain cook on his (a) Varenius 1. Koningsberg
voyage” to southern Hemisphere? university
A. Humboldt B. Holt (b) Humboldt 2. Gottingen
C. Immanuel Kant D. Forsters university
110. The German geographer who developed (c) Ritter 3. Berlin university
practical and scientific methods of (d) Ratzel 4. Heildelberg
geography was: university
A. Cluverius B. Forsters Codes:
C. Kant D. Holt (a) (b) (c) (d)
111. Which one of the following countries is A. 4 3 2 1
the Landschaft school associated: B. 1 2 3 4
A. Britain C. 3 2 1 4
B. France D. 2 1 4 3
C. Germany 120. Who said that Geography is the science
D. United States of America of spatial distribution of the world?
112. The cosmos was authored by: A. Humboldt B. Ritter
A. Ritter B. Ratzel C. Ratzel D. Paschel
C. Humboldt D. Hettner 121. Who said “geographical diversity is the
113. “Similar locations lead to similar mode of basis of Historical Diversity”?
life” was said by: A. Fabre B. Ratzel
A. Ellen Semple B. Ratzel C. Ritter D. Varenius
C. Kant D. Hettner
122. What approach the following statements
114. The behavioural approach to human gives, “The dissected coast line of Europe
geography was introduced by: is not accidental rather it has been made
A. Allen Philbrick B. Peter Haggett by God with a specific purpose”.
C. William Kirk D. Brian Berry A. Causal B. Teleological
115. The organic theory of state and society C. Peterministic D. Fatalistic
was propounded by: 123. Who is the person who belongs to the
A. Ritter B. Ratzel idea of environmental Determinism?
C. Hettner D. Houshofer A. Aristotle B. Ratzel
116. Lands chafts kunde (Landscape science) C. Humboldt D. All of these
concept was given by: 124. Match the following:
A. Hettner B. Ritter (a) Alexander von 1. Unity of nature
C. Penck D. Ratzel Humboldt
117. The idea of ‘topographical maps’ was put (b) Carl Ritter 2. Anthropocentric
forward by: view point
A. Thunen B. Penck (c) Oscar Paschel 3. Lander kunde
C. Davis D. Ritter (d) Forebel 4. Vergleichend
Codes: 132. Who observed that achievements in
(a) (b) (c) (d) civilisation are bound by a particular type
A. 1 2 3 4 of climate?
B. 2 3 1 4 A. Davis B. Huntington
C. 3 4 1 2 C. R Mill D. Chisolm
D. 1 2 4 3 133. Match the following:
125. Who amongst the following scholars is (a) Influence of 1. G. Taylor
not associated with the theory of Geographic
Environment
geosyncline?
(b) Pulse of Asia 2. Huntington
A. Dana B. Haug
(c) Geography 3. E.C. Semple
C. Jeffreys D. Kober in the 20th
126. Which one of the following is not the Century
difference in the view points of Humboldt (d) Environment, 4. F. Ratzel
and Ritter? Race and Migration
A. Humboldt applied inductive method Codes:
Ritter deductive. (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. Humboldt was a field geographer, A. 3 2 4 1
Ritter armchair geographer B. 3 4 1 2
C. Humboldt studies phenomenon C. 3 2 1 4
systematically Ritter from regional D. 4 3 2 1
viewpoint 134. Determinism is the most indispensable
facet of Dialectical thought this statement
D. Humboldt believed inherent causality,
was given by:
Ritter took an anthropocentric attitude
A. H. Baranasky B. G. Plakhonov
127. Oscar Paschel's writing gave birth to C. V. Anuchin D. K. Wittofegal
geomorphology in a similar way—writing
135. Who compared environment to a traffic
gave birth to human geography. police?
A. Ratzel B. Ritter A. Teitham B. Herbertson
C. Humboldt D. Fabre C. Taylor D. Chisholam
128. Who said "Earth is an organism made in 136. Which concept (or ism) best-explains the
its minutest details to feet the needs of man and nature relationship?
man to perfection?” A. Determinism B. Possibilism
A. Spencer B. Bluntschilli C. Probabilism D. All of these
C. Hobber D. Ritter 137. Who among the following was not the
129. Who said similar locations lead to similar follower of Deterministic view?
made of life? A. Bunrches B. Ratzel
A. Fleure B. Humboldt C. Semple D. Hipparchus
C. Ratzel D. Semple 138. Philosophy of living space advocates:
130. Who compared state to an organism? A. Everyone has the right to occupy any
A. Haushofer B. Ratzel part of space.
C. Kjellen D. Mckinder B. Everyone in the world has the right
to exist
131. "Man is a product of earth's surface". This C. Sovereign limit of the state.
statement was given by: D. Superior people have the right to
A. Montesque B. Anuchin expand their territory at the expense
C. Semple D. Huntington of the inferior people.
139. Which of the following statement about C. Diet theory
Ritter is untrue? D. Climatic Hypothesis
A. He organised the concept of 146. Who amongst the following made the
relationship in space pioneering effort for delineating the
B. He completely rejected the concept of
population-resource regions of the world:
Reine geography
A. A.E. Ackerman B. J.I. Clarke
C. He adopted Anthropocentric approach
C. G.T. Trewartha D. W. Zelinsky
D. He adopted teleological view
E. None of these 147. The theme of time and evolution was
taken by which of the following geomor-
140. Which of the following statement about
phologist:
Ritter is not true?
A. Humboldt B. Penck
A. He was an armchair geographer
B. He was an teleologist C. Davis D. Kant
C. He wrote regional monographs 148. Who stressed the importance of climate
D. His approach was deductive of human activities?
141. The early geographers believed in the A. Robinson B. Dickinson
philosophy of: C. P.E. James D. Huntington
A. Nomadism 149. The founder of Determinism in human
B. Possibilism geography is:
C. Neodeterminism A. Aristotle B. Hippocrates
D. Determinism C. Strabo D. Carl-Ritter
142. The concept of Climatic energy was 150. The term Social Darwinism was coined
propounded by: by:
A. Huntington B. Davis A. Hartshorne B. Haeckel
C. Kant D. Humboldt C. Darwin D. Spancer
143. That approach of human geography 151. "Die Eerdkunde" was written by:
which describes physical setting as one A. Ritter B. Kant
determining man's mode of life is: C. Humboldt D. Spencer
A. Determinism
B. Possibilism 152. Form of exploration in which phenomena
C. New Determinism and observations are understood as
D. Probabilism outcomes is also known as the philosophy
of:
144. Geographical voluntarism suggest that:
A. Possibilism B. Determinism
A. Man determines his own mode of life
C. Probabilism D. Teleology
B. Man's mode of life is the result of
interaction between man and 153. The person responsible for the develop-
environment. ment of determinism are:
C. Nature is all powerful and it A. Vidal de la Blache and Bruhnes
determines the mode of life of man. B. Ratzel and Semple
D. God is the sole planner of man's C. Humboldt and Ritter
activities. D. Kant and Kjellen
145. The climatic influence of man is 154. Which geographer was most influenced
expressed by: by the ideas of Charles Darwin?
A. Climatic Analogy A. Ratzel B. Ritter
B. Adversity theory C. Kant D. Huntington
155. The person who secured a place for man A. Pierre
in geographical studies is: B. Montesque
A. Demangeon C. Jean Bodin
B. Friedrich Ratzel D. None of the above
C. Paul Vidal de La Blache
D. W.M. Davis 162. Cultural landscape:
A. shows the dominance of nature
156. Human geography can be defined as:
B. is formed by ecological factors
A. the description and explanation of
C. shows a human stamp on environment
locational differences among various
Phenomena, caused by human action, D. shows the effect of language
distributed of the surface of the earth 163. "Generes de vie" means:
B. man's impact on the environment A. Living space
C. the relationship between man and B. Environment
environment C. Life style
D. that branch of geography whihc deals D. Habitat
with the human side of the world.
164. Who introduced the term "compage" in
157. The doctrine that argues that within a
Human geography?
frame work there are a number of choices
A. Whittlesay B. Mackinder
that human beings can make about their
activity, is: C. Spykman D. Herbertson
A. Probabilism 165. Who coined the term "cultural landscape"?
B. New Determinism A. Hartshorne B. Carl O. Sawer
C. Determinism C. Fisher D. Kant
D. Possibilism
166. Who put forward the concept of
158. Who proposed the reduction of geography probabilism?
to social morphology? A. Sawer B. Spate
A. Emile Durkheim
C. Taylor D. Woolridge
B. Vidal de la Blache
C. Jean Brunches 167. ____ attempted to delineate the natural
D. Lunda regions of the world on the basis of surface
159. One French geographer who followed the feature climate and vegetation.
new Kantian philosophy of space was: A. Herberlson B. Stamp
A. De martonne C. Sawer D. Kant
B. Vidal dela Blache 168. The founder of possibilism in Human
C. Brunshes geography is:
D. Baulig A. Febure
160. The concept that it is in man's power to B. Isaiah Bow man
achieve anything in any environment is C. Dickinson
known as: D. Paul Vidal-de-la Blache
A. possibilism B. new determinism
C. determinism D. probabilism 169. Brunsher's facts of destructive exploita-
tion refers mainly to:
161. Though France is credited with develop-
A. Hoe cultivation
ing the concept of possibilism, one of the
earliest to present role of environmental B. Mining
and astrological influence on human life C. Lumbering
was: D. All of above
170. Who used the word "ecology"? Codes:
A. Haeckel B. Odum (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. B. Commoner D. Tansley A. 4 3 1 2
171. The founder of concept of human ecology B. 4 3 2 1
was: C. 4 2 3 1
A. Barrow B. Branasky D. 1 2 3 4
C. Anuchin D. Humboldt 178. Who developed "the principle of least
effort"?
A. Weber B. Haggerstrand
(a) Pragmatic 1. Tatham
C. Christaller D. Zipf
Possibilism
(b) Probabilism 2. Spate 179. The main contribution of Ritchthofen was
(c) Stop and go 3. Fevre in the field of:
Determinism A. Systematic geography
(d) Possibilism 4. G. Taylor B. Geomorphology
Codes: C. Soil science
(a) (b) (c) (d) D. Climatology
A. 2 1 4 3 180. Identify the geographer who was initially
B. 3 1 2 4 a quantitative geographer but as the
C. 1 2 4 3 moved to U.S.A. He became marxist
D. 2 3 1 4 geographer:
173. One German geographer followed the A. Kates
Kantian tradition of space. He is: B. Cole and king
A. Humboldt B. Ritter C. Brian Bery
C. Alfred Hettener D. Richthofen D. David Harvey
181. Who amongst the following made a pio-
174. Who used the world 'ensemble'?
neering attempt of delineating major
A. Prestone James
natural regions of the world:
B. Hartshorne
A. A.J. Herbertson B. D. Whittlesey
C. Henry-Baulig
C. J.N.L. Baker D. H.J. Fleure
D. de Martonne
182. Laboratory conditions are examples of:
175. One British geographer delineated regions
A. Morphological system
from the view point of man's perception.
B. Cascading system
A. Fleure B. Herbertson
C. Closed system
C. Faw cett D. Stamp
D. Open system
176. Which American geographer carried on 183. A theory of what ought to be rather than
the Kant Hettener tradition forward? what actually occurs is called:
A. A. Hartshorne B. P.E. James A. Positive theory
C. Brian Berry D. Walter Isard B. Possibilistic theory
177. Match the following: C. Deterministic theory
(a) Formal region 1. Bhabar D. Normative theory
(b) Functional 2. Sovoks 184. Match the following:
region (a) Landscape studies 1. Tuan
(c) Generic 3. Gangabasin (b) Residential Mobility 2. Clark
region (c) Voting pattern 3. Cox
(d) Specific region 4. Coastal plains (d) Geometry of mind 4. Tobbler
Codes: (c) Physical geography 3. Jean Gott man
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Megalopolis 4. Siegfried
A. 1 2 3 4 Codes:
B. 3 2 4 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. 1 3 2 4 A. 1 2 3 4
D. 4 3 2 1 B. 4 1 2 3
185. One of the first to write on Geography of C. 3 1 2 4
India was: D. 2 3 1 2
A. N.L. Chiber 190. Videl formulated the:
B. S.C. Chatterjee A. Concept of New Determinism
C. Al. Beruni B. Concept of Determinism
D. Spate and Learmonth C. Concept of Possibilism
186. The first Indian Department of geography D. B and C
was established at: 191. The principle of Terrestrial whole was
A. Patna University given by:
B. Delhi University A. Ritter B. Reclus
C. Madras University C. Brunches D. Vidal
D. Aligarh Muslim University 192. Sovereign influence of environment over
187. Match the following books and authors: man is concerned by:
(a) Kitab-ul-Hind 1. Humboldt A. Blache B. Allen Semple
(b) Cosmos 2. Ritter C. Brunches D. None of these
(c) Erd Kunde 3. Oscar Paschel 193. Nature is never more than an adviser
(d) Das Ausland 4. Al-Beruni said by:
Codes: A. Ritter B. Brunches
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Blache D. Semple
A. 4 1 2 3
194. The concept of areal differentiation was
B. 3 2 1 4
expounded by:
C. 1 2 3 4
A. Alfred Hettner
D. 4 2 1 3
B. Carl Saver
188. Match the following: C. Ferdinand Von Ritchtofen
(a) Vidal de la 1. Geography of D. Richard Hartshorne
Blache France
195. The ‘principle of activity’ was propounded
(b) De Mangeon 2. Diccardie
by:
(c) Gallois 3. Regions de paus
A. Reclus B. Ritter
(d) M. Sorre 4. Lespyrennes
C. Brunches D. Vidal
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 196. The principle of interaction was given by:
A. 1 2 3 4 A. Vidal B. Ritter
B. 4 3 2 1 C. Demangeon D. Brunches
C. 3 1 2 4 197. ‘Elisee Reclus’:
D. 3 1 4 2 A. was a disciple of Ratzel
189. Match the following French geographers B. was a french geographer
and their main contributing field. C. used deterministic approach in his
(a) Political geography 1. M. Dubois writings
(b) Colonial geography 2. De martonne D. only B and C
198. Emmanuel Demartonne: 207. Mackinder wrote:
A. wrote La france physique A. The Democratic Ideas and Reality
B. was basically physical geographer B. The Britain and the British seas.
C. was a relative of Vidal de la Blache C. Man and his work.
D. all of the above D. A and B
199. The Royal geographical society of London 208. The Book 'man and his work' was written
was founded in: by:
A. 1930 B. 1845 A. Herbertson
C. 1830 D. 1820 B. Herbertson's wife Dorothy
200. The founder of the British school of C. Both A and B
Geography is: D. Mackinder
A. Mackinder 209. The British Geographer Herbertson's
B. Herbertson biggest contribution in his concept of the
C. Sirpatric Geddes 'major natural regions'. He divided the
D. None of these world into:
201. Mackinder formulated the concept of A. 15 natural regions
"Geographical" pivot of history in: B. 20 natural regions
A. 1943 B. 1919 C. 25 natural regions
C. 1904 D. 1899 D. 30 natural regions
202. The concept of "Geographical pivot of 210. The Races of England and wale’s was
History" is also known as: written by:
A. World island theory A. Dorothy B. H. Robbert Mill
B. Rimland theory C. John Fleure D. Mahan
C. Heartland theory 211. The 'Realm of nature' was written by:
D. Air power theory A. H. Robert Mill B. Mackinder
203. In the Heartland theory, mackinder C. Mahan D. Herbertson
identified a 'world island' which consisted 212. 'The Le play society' England was estab-
of: lished by:
A. The continents of Eurasia and Africa A. H.J. Fleure
B. The continents of Africa B. Mackinder
C. The continents of Eurasia C. Geddes and his followers
D. The Continents of Europe D. All of the above
204. The Britain and the British sea is 213. "The corridors of Time" a monumental
authored by: work of H.J. Fleure written in collabora-
A. E.G.R. Taylor B. Sir Patric Geddes tion with:
C. Herbertson D. Mackinder A. H.J.E. Deake
205. "The Democratic Ideals and Reality". B. P.M. Roxby
A. was published in Britain. C. H.R. Mill
B. was published in 1919 D. Sir Patric Geddes
C. is an account on "world power politics". 214. The founder of British regional studies
D. All of the above especially regional survey, etc. is:
206. The foundation of "Historical Geography' A. Mackinder
in Britain was laid by: B. Mill
A. Geddes B. E.W. Gilbert C. Sir Patric Geddes
C. Herbertson D. Mackinder D. Fleure
215. ‘Locational Analysis in human geography’ 225. Davis presented his “Theory of Cycle of
was authored by: Erosion” in the international geographical
A. Chisolam congress in:
B. Mill A. 1943 B. 1919
C. Peter Hagget C. 1904 D. 1899
D. Mackinder
226. In the Later years of his life, Davis
216. The father of modern economic geography became markedly.
is: A. supporter of religious basis of
A. L.D. Stamp B. A.G. Ogilive
geographical thought
C. Chisolam D. Mahan
B. supporter of Ratzels organistic theory
217. ‘The founder of Modern geography’ are: C. ecological
A. Ritter B. Humboldt D. teleological
C. A and B D. Penck
227. The ‘concept of central places’ was
218. The author of models in human geography
propunded by:
is:
A. Mark Jefferson B. Huntington
A. L.D. stamp B. Peter
C. Hagget D. Mahan C. Davis D. Isaih Bowman
E. R.J. Chorley 228. The ‘pioneer Fringe’ was written by:
219. The author of the economic goegraphy of A. Isaiah Bowman B. Huntington
Britain (1949) is: C. Semple D. Mackinder
A. W. Smith B. Chisolam 229. In the beginning of his carreer he was
C. Ogilive D. Mahan an ‘environmental deterministist’, but
220. The “quantitative Revolution” was started later on he said ‘Man is changing himself
in: as well as the world as he goes along.’
A. Germany B. U.K. Who was he?
C. U.S.A. D. France A. Salisbury B. Thorn bury
221. In the post second world war period C. Isaih Bowman D. Ratzel
geography was recognised as a spatial 230. The geographer who was a close friend of
science in: president Roosewelt of the U.S.A. since
A. Britain B. Germany 1921 and also took a prominent part in
C. France D. Spain the world security conference in 1944 is:
222. The first professor of Geography in the A. Jefferson B. Isaiah Bowman
U.S.A. was: C. Salisbury D. Spate
A. Shaler B. W.M. Davis
C. Arnold Guyot D. Mahan 231. ‘The civiling rails’ concept was given by:
A. Chisolam B. Isaih Bowman
223. “Nature and man in America” was C. Mark Jefferson D. Kant
written by:
A. Mark Jefferson 232. Ellen Semple’s classic work ‘Influence of
B. Arnold Guyot Geographical Environment’ (1911) was
C. Shaler highly influenced by:
D. W.M. Davis A. Ratzel’s political geography
224. ‘The Association of American B. Ratzel’s organic theory of state and
Geographers’ was established in: society.
A. 1934 B. 1924 C. Ratzel’s Anthropogeographie
C. 1914 D. 1904 D. None of these
233. The concept of ‘New Determinism’ was 242. The Desiccation theory of Asia was
put forward by: originally propounded by:
A. Ritter B. Taylor A. Kropotkin B. Huntington
C. Semple D. Huntington C. Hettner D. Ratzel
234. The author of “The main springs of 243. Which one of the following is concerned
civilization” is:
with the study of glaciers?
A. Salisbury
B. Griffith Taylor A. Climatology
C. Ells worth-Huntington B. Pedology
D. Hettner C. Hydrology
235. The author of pulse of Asia is: D. Glaciology
A. Hettner 244. Which of the following book is not written
B. Ritter by Huntington?
C. Huntington
A. The geography of the central Andes.
D. Prince peterkropotkin
B. Weather and health
236. The “concept of hierarchy of central C. The principles of human geography.
places” was formulated by: D. Civilization and climate.
A. Platt B. Whittlesey
C. Saver D. Brown 245. ‘Ells worth Huntington’ was:
237. “Geography may be persued by two A. An environmental determinist
methods or upon two levels which may B. A possibilist
be distingusihed as General Geography C. A Probabilist
and Specific Geography”. Who said this? D. A Determinist
A. Carl Ritter 246. The author of ‘Physiography’ a classic on
B. Woolbridge and East the evolution of land forms is:
C. Humboldt
A. Semple B. Huntington
D. Huntington
C. Salisbury D. Taylor
238. Ellen Semple was a:
A. New determinist 247. The logical explanation of geography as a
B. Determinist distinctive discipline was first advanced
C. Possibilist by:
D. A and C A. Alexander Von Humboldt
239. The migration zone theory of Race B. Immanual Kant
evolution was propounded. C. Ferdinand von Ritchtofen
A. Huntington B. Hettner D. Richard Hartshorne
C. Taylor D. Spate 248. Which of the following books is not
240. The law of primate city was given by: written by Grifith Taylor?
A. Taylor B. Huntington A. Our evolution civilization
C. Mark Jafferson D. Salisbury B. Environment Race and Migration
241. The mountain dwellar is essentially C. Urban Geography
conservative. Hence innovation is D. Mirror of Americans
repugnant to him speaks of:
A. Determinism 249. The founder of the concept of Human
B. Possibilism ecology was:
C. Probabilism A. Barrows B. Platt
D. New determinism C. Taylor D. Brown
250. The propounder of the crop intensity 258. “Nature does not drive man along a
theory Von Thunen belongs to: particular road, but it offers a number of
A. The British School opportunities from among which man is
B. The German School free to select”. This statement implies.
C. The French School A. Possibilistic approach
D. The American School B. Probabilitic approach
C. Deterministic approach
251. Theoretical problems of geography was
D. New Deterministic approach
written by:
A. Hagget B. Anuchin 259. Isaiah Bowman, an American geographer
C. Huntington D. Chorley belongs to:
252. The Statement “the Land where water is A. Possibilist School
abundant, people are gay and humourous B. Determinist School
C. Dualist School
while the people of dry and arid lands
D. New Determinist School
are short tempered” was given by:
A. Al-Maqdisi 260. Possibilism made its presence felt:
B. Al -Masudi A. During interwar period
C. Al-Balakhi B. After the first world war
D. Aristotle C. After the second world war
D. After the 15th century
253. The relationship between man and its
immediate surroundings by standing 261. “Mirror of Americans” was written by:
small homogeneous areas are known as: A. Brown B. Barrow
C. Taylor D. Isaih Bowman
A. cosmos
B. pays 262. The main soure of Ancient Indian
C. Landschafts Kunde geographical concept is:
D. Erdkunde A. The Mahabharata
B. The Vaidikas
254. The “Radical school of geography” was
C. The Ramayan
established by: D. All of the above
A. Semple B. B.J. Alberi
C. R Peat D. Taylor 263. Positive Relationship between forest and
rainfall was given by:
255. Which discipline of geography was de- A. Carl Ritter
scribed as the “core” by vidal de Lablache? B. Ptolemy
A. Physical geography C. Alexander Humboldt
B. Historical geography D. None of these
C. General geography
264. Basalt is conductive to piety was said by:
D. Regional geography
A. Kirchoff B. Humboldt
256. “We have man modifying nature and C. G. Taylor D. Semple
nature modifying man” statement was 265. ‘Paradigm of science’ model was given by:
given by: A. S.T. Kuhn B. L.D. Stamp
A. Semple B. Bukus C. David Harvey D. Davis
C. Kirchoff D. S. Taylor
266. The Life styles were central to the work of:
257. The “geography in the 20th century” was A. Febvre
written by: B. Bowman
A. S.M. Ali B. S. Taylor C. Vidal de lablache
C. P. Hagget D. Semple D. Brunshes
267. The father of historical goegraphy of U.S. 275. Geography as the study of Human-ecology
is: was first of all propounded by:
A. Barrows B. Brown A. Jean Bruhnes B. A.J. Herbertson
C. Platt D. Taylor C. W. Bunge D. H. Barrows
268. “Geography as the study of areal 276. Which of the following statements is not
differentiation” concept was developed by : true about F. Ratzel?
A. Hartshorne B. M. Jafferson A. He wrote a book on political geography.
C. Herbertson D. Spate B. He analysed the process of population
269. The concept of sequent occupance was migration
given by: C. He advanced the concept of
A. Barrows B. Platt lebensraum
C. D. Whittlesey D. Taylor D. He was a stunch determinist
270. I do not deny for a moment, that man 277. ‘Morphology of Landscape’ was written
plays a very important part, but he does by:
not take fertilizer to the barren grounds A. W.M. Davis B. Car O, Sour
was said by: C. E. Huntington D. Patric Geddes
A. Taylor B. Semple 278. One of the scholars in Later half of the
C. Ritter D. Brunshes 19th century the exclusive study of
physical phenomena in geography was:
271. That “The history, culture, Living style
A. E.C. Semple
and stage of development of a social group
B. Gerland
or nation are exclusively or largely
C. Richthofen
governed by the physical factors of
D. Recluse
environment” is the essence of:
A. Possibilistic school of thought 279. The view that the study of relationship
B. Environmentalist school of thought between any cels of phenomena cannot
C. Determinist School of thought form the basis of any scientific discipline,
D. New Determinist school of thought was strongly put forth by:
A. Vidal de la Blache
272. The statement ‘civilization is the product B. H. Barrows
of moderate climatic adversity’, was C. A. Hettner
propounded by: D. G. Taylor
A. E Huntington B. Vidal de lablache
280. The relationship between climate and
C. Dudley Stamp D. E. Semple
Relief was highlighted by:
273. Which of the following pair is not correctly A. Bueschug
matched? B. Kant
Persons Contributions C. Humboldt
A. Humboldt Cosmos D. Ritter
B. Ptolemy Alma gast 281. The concept of landscape in the sense of
C. Ratzel La Terre ‘region’ was given by:
D. Ritter Erd Kunde A. German geographers
274. The concept of ‘isodapane’ to explain the B. French geographers
deviation of plant from the point dedicated C. British geographers
by minimum transportation cost was D. American geographers
advanced by: 282. ‘Geography is the study of spatial
A. A. Webber B. E. Hoover interactions!’ The above definition of
C. W. Isard D. A. Loesch geography was advanced by:
A. E. Huntington A. ABCD
B. Edward Ullman B. BACD
C. W.M. Davis C. BDCA
D. E.C. Semple D. DCBA
283. The cultural patterns of India have been
throughly analysed by: 291. Which one of the following is not correctly
A. A.K. Dutt matched?
B. N.K. Bose A. Hettener – Positivism
C. David Sopher B. Mackinder – Heartland theory
D. P.P. Karan C. Herbertson – Natural regions
D. Saver – Sequent occupance
284. Radio-active theory of the origin of the
mountains is related with: 292. Match List I with List II and select the
A. Jolly B. Holmes correct answer using the code given
C. Paly D. Kober below:
285. The Relief of China was studied in great List I List II
detail by: (a) Mackinder 1. France
A. Jean Bruhnes (b) Demangeon 2. U.K.
B. Ferdinand von Richthofen (c) Kant 3. U.S.A.
C. F Ratzel (d) Trewartha 4. Germany
D. Vidal de-la Blache Codes:
286. In Industrial location theory ‘locational (a) (b) (c) (d)
triangle’ has been used by: A. 3 4 2 1
A. Smith B. Weber B. 2 1 4 3
C. Palander D. Hoover C. 4 3 2 1
287. In agricultural location theory, the D. 1 2 3 4
concept of an ‘isolated estate’ was 293. Who is a protagonist of social Darwinism?
propounded by: A. Semple B. Huntington
A. Whittlesey C. Taylor D. Spencer
B. Farmer 294. Geography was defined as the study of
C. Smith the patterns and processes of spatial
D. Von thunen
organisation in:
288. The principle of ‘Genre de vie’ was A. Romantic Period
propounded by: B. Darwinian Period
A. Jean Brunshes C. Period of Chorology
B. Vidal de-la Blache D. Period of Statistical Revolution
C. De mangean
D. Carl Saver 295. The concept of ecology was elaborated by:
A. Tansley B. Harvey
289. Who established the dictim : “Landscape
C. Hart shorne D. Taylor
is a function of structure, process and
time”. 296. To which of the following is E. Ackerman
A. Hutton B. King associated with:
C. W.M. Davis D. W.K. Davies A. Ecological School
290. What is the correct chronological order B. Deterministic School
of A-Blache, B-Kant, C-Ratzel and D- C. Spatial Organisation School
Ritter. Answer from code below: D. Social (Radical) School
297. Which one of the following time period is A. Koppen B. Trewartha
considered as renaissance in geography: C. Thornth waite D. Kendrew
A. 400 AD – 1000 AD 304. Select the correct chronological order of
B. 700 AD – 1100 AD the following scholars who have
C. 800 AD – 1600 AD contributed to the development of
D. 1100 AD – 1700 AD geography, using the code given below:
298. The exponent of prima rum saver concept Scholars
is: 1. Freidrich Ratzel
A. Meyer hoff B. Penck 2. Alexander Von Humboldt
C. Davis D. Saver 3. Alfred Hettener
299. Match List I with List II and select the 4. Vidal de la Blache
correct answer using the code given below Codes:
the lists: (a) (b) (c) (d)
List I List II A. 1 2 3 4
(a) Present is key 1. L.C. Peltier B. 2 1 4 3
C. 4 2 1 3
to the past
D. 3 1 2 4
(b) Landscape is 2. W.M. Davis
a function of 305. Who amongst the following sholars first
structure, used the word “geographica”?
process and time A. Ptolemy B. Kant
(c) F = f (MP) t 3. K.J. Gregory C. Eratosthenes D. Ratzel
(d) Climatic 4. James Hutton 306. Who amongst the following scientists first
geography provided evidence of ozone depletion over
Codes: the antarctica?
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. M. Molina B. S. Rowland
A. 2 3 4 1 C. J. Farman D. M.L. Parry
B. 4 2 3 1 307. Which one of the following scholars had
C. 4 3 1 2 divided the world into major agricultural
D. 3 1 2 4 regions?
300. Which one of the following is related to A. Kostrowicki B. Von Thunen
modificaiton in Devisian cyclic model? C. Waver D. Whittlesey
A. Law of unequal slope 308. The principle of uniformitarianism was
B. Law of allometric growth propounded by:
C. Equilibrium model A. Arthor Holmes B. Charles Lyell
D. Episodic erosion model C. Markus Reiner D. S.W. Carey
301. The term peri glacial was introduced by: 309. The division of the world into major
A. Lozinski B. De Terra natural regions was first made by:
C. Peltier D. Moneymaker A. Dudley Stamp
302. Who amongst the following scholars first B. Herbertson
declared that the earth is spherical? C. Vidal de la Blache
A. C. Ptolemy B. S. munster D. Hettener
C. I. Kant D. P. Apian 310. Who of the following proposed planning
303. Which one of the following persons has regions of India?
used evapotranspiration for the A. S.C. Chatterji B. S.M. Ali
classification of the world climate? C. V. Nath D. George Kuiyan
311. Who among the following used hair texture A. N.H. Barrows
to classify world races into five major B. R.E. Dickinson
categories? C. Richard Hartshorne
A. A.L. Kroeber B. Bluemen Basve D. Dwhittlesey
C. Txuxley D. Von Eickstedt 317. Assertion (A): Place is the basis of
312. Who amongst the following is associated geography.
with the neo-deterministic school of Reason (R): Geography is primarily
human geography? concerned with spatial relationships.
A. E.C. Semple B. F. Ratzel Codes:
C. J. Brunhes D. R. Smith A. Both A and R are true and R is the
313. Which one of the following scholars is correct explanation of A
associated with the concept of areal B. Both A and R are true but R is not
functional organisation? the correct explanation of A
A. A.K. Philbrick C. A is true but R is false
B. E.K. Sachaefer D. A is false but R is true
C. E.W. Timmerman 318. Which of the following combinations is
D. R.O. Buchanan correctly matched. Select the correct
314. Match List I with List II and select the answer from the code given below:
correct answer using the code given 1. Alexander von — Cosmos
below: Humboldt
List I List II 2. Cart Ritter — Erdkunde
French Books 3. Immanuel Kant — Physical
geographers Geography
(a) Demangeon 1. Les pyrenecs 4. Jean Bruhnes — Principles of
(b) Sorre 2. Les Alpes Human
(c) Demartonne 3. French Alps geography
(d) Blanchard 4. Picardie A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 3 and
Codes: C. 1, 2 and 3 D. All the above
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 4 3 2 1 319. Who of the following has been the best
B. 4 1 2 3 exponent of determinism?
C. 2 1 4 3 A. M. Sorre B. C. Sauer
D. 3 4 2 1 C. G. Taylor D. E. Huntington
315. Which of the following statements is not 320. Who amongst the following propounded
constant with possibilism? the concept of base level of erosion?
A. It believes in full freedom of man's A. J.W. Powell B. G.K. Gilbert
activities. C. W.M. Davis D. M. Morisawa
B. It allows choice of occupation and way 321. The polar front theory of the origin of
of life in a given environment. temperate cyclones has been given by:
C. It relies on the technological A. Lampert B. Bjerkenes
capabilities of man C. Trewartha D. Pana
D. It presupposes absolute in
eneffectiveness of nature’s potential 322. Who amongst the following is the author
and processes of man. of the book “Foundations of Human
geography”?
316. The concept of geography as Human A. C. Saver B. G. Taylor
ecology was propounded by: C. J. Brunhes D. M. Sorre
323. Who amongst the following has used the A. J.A. Garnier — Geography of
standard deviation method for the population
functional classification of urban centres? B. R. Woods — Population geography and
A. C.D. Harris B. G.A. Moser the developing countries.
C. H.J. Nelson D. J.W. Webb C. G.T. Trewartha — The more developed
Realm : A geography of its population
D. W. Zelinsky — A prologue to population
correct answer using the code given below
geography
the lists:
List I List II 329. The concept of organic culture is
Author Book associated to:
(a) A.K. Philbrick 1. Anthropo- A. A. Von Humboldt
geographie B. F. Ratzel
(b) F. Ratzel 2. This human C. C. Ritter
world. D. R. Hartshorne
(c) I. Sowman 3. Geographical 330. Match List I with List II and select the
Introduction to correct answer using the code given
history below:
(d) L. Febvre 4. Geographical List I List II
and social Book Author
sciences (a) Main springs of 1. Carl O. Saver
Codes: civilization
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) Influences of 2. D.M. Smith
A. 2 1 4 3 geographic
B. 1 2 4 3 Environment
C. 2 3 1 4 (c) Morphology of 3. E. Huntington
D. 3 1 2 4 Landscape
325. Which of the following pair is not (d) Where the Grass 4. E.C. Semple
correctly matched? is Greener
A. Ecological approach — H.H. Barrow Codes:
B. Welfare approach — D.R. Stoddart (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. Quantitative approach — D.F. Marble A. 3 4 1 2
D. Functional approach — W. Christaller B. 3 2 1 4
326. "There are no necessities but everywhere C. 1 4 2 3
possibilities". The above statement is D. 4 3 1 2
attributed to: 331. The concept of distinctive ways of life
A. Jean Brunhes B. C.D. Forde (Genre devie) was propounded by:
C. L. Febvre D. G. Taylor A. C.D. Forde
327. The theory of demographic transition was B. E. Reclues
propounded by: C. Vidal de La Blache
A. J. Clarke D. Jean Brunhes
B. G.T. Trewartha 332. Peter Ambrose is the author of:
C. F.W. Notestein A. Analytical Human geography
D. J.J. Spengler B. Human geography : A welfare approach.
328. Which one of the following is not correctly C. The earth and man
matched? D. Mental Map
333. Geography was characterised by 339. Who among the following developed the
"dualism" during: model known as the 'Locational triangle'?
A. Classical (Romantic) Period. A. Walter Christaller
B. Renaissance period B. Alfred Weber
C. Post-Darwanian Period C. August Losch
D. Modern Period (Post World War II) D. Max Weber
334. Geography must serve the cause of 340. Christaller's concept of centrality is based
human welfare. This stand point is on:
represented by: A. Hierarchy
A. The ecological school B. Law of gravitation
B. The locational school C. Principle of "Least effort"
C. The traditional school D. Range of a good
D. The radical school
341. Regionalization of world agriculture on a
335. The nature of geography first published
systematic basis was first attempted by:
in 1939 by the Association of American
A. D. Whittlesey B. L.D. Stamp
geographers was authored by:
C. Griffith Taylor D. Carl Ritter
A. W.M. Davis
B. B.J.L. Berry 342. The author of "The story of integration of
C. Richard-peet Indian States' was:
D. Richard Hartshorne A. K.M. Pannikar B. K.M. Munshi
336. The paper Exceptionalism in geography C. G. Myrdal D. U.P. Menon
which marked a turning point in 343. Who among the following is the author
geographic thought was written by: of the concept of 'stop-and-go determinism'?
A. Z.K. Zipf B. C.D. Harris A. Alfred Hettner B. Griffith Taylor
C. W. Shaefer D. W. Christaller C. L.D. Stamp D. Jean Brunhes
337. The scholar in later half of the 19th 344. The rank size rule is a concept that is
century who pleaded for the exclusive concerned with the study of one of the
study of physical phenomena in following:
geography was: A. Urban Settlements
A. Gerland B. Richthofen B. Rural Settlements
C. E.C. Semple D. Recluse C. Rural-Urban Belt
338. Match List I with List II and select the D. Metropolitan Cities
correct answer from the code given below: 345. Which of the following criteria is not used
List I List II for the classification of human races:
Geographers Nationality
A. Eyes B. Nose
(a) Mackinder 1. France
C. Ear D. Hair
(b) Blache 2. U.K.
346. With which scholar the statement
(c) Ratzel 3. U.S.A.
"present is the key to the past' is
(d) Davis 4. Germany
associated:
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. C.M. King B. W.M. Davis
A. 3 1 4 2 C. James Hutton D. Walter Penck
B. 2 1 4 3 347. The concept of possibilism as opposed to
C. 2 3 1 4 environmental determinism has been
D. 1 4 2 3 propounded by:
A. Ratzel 354. To which of the following paradigms of
B. Hettner geographical thought is Richard peet
C. Semple associated?
D. Vidal de La Blache A. Areal differentiation
348. The principle in which the effect of natural B. Spatial organisation
environment on man is presumed C. Radical geography
paramount. D. Behavioural geography
A. Determinism 355. The concept of 'Geography as Human
B. Possibilism ecology' was advocated by:
C. Neo determinism A. J. Clarke
D. Probabilism B. H.H. Barrows
349. Who amongst the following geographers C. Richard Hartshorne
first used the term "pragmatic D. David Smith
possibilism": 356. Match List I with List II and select the
A. K. Ritter B. G. Tathom correct answer using the code given
C. J. Brunhes D. G. Taylor below the lists—
350. The first detailed map of India was List I List II
Book Authors
prepared by:
(a) Kosmos 1. Carl Ritter
A. D. Anville B. Eratosthenes
(b) Erd Kunde 2. Ratzel
C. Ptolemy D. James Rennel
(c) Anthropo- 3. Von Humboldt
351. 'Cartography includes' the whole Series geographie
of map making from an actual survey of (d) Nature of 4. Hartshorne
the ground to printing of the map'. This geography
definition is given by: Codes:
A. Robinson B. Raisz (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. Monkhouse D. Kellaway A. 4 2 1 3
352. Which one of the follownig groups B. 2 3 4 1
represents the protagonists of possibilism: C. 2 3 1 4
A. Ellsworth Huntington, P. Blasche and D. 3 1 2 4
J. Brunhes. 357. Who was the first map maker?
B. P. Blasche, J Brunhes and I. Bowman A. Eratosthenes
C. J. Brunhes, O.H.K. Spate and P. B. Possidonius
Blasche C. Anaximander
D. O.H.K. Spate, J. Brunhes and G. Taylor D. Thales
353. 'Geography is concerned with accurate, 358. Gnomon is:
orderly and rational description and
A. The name of geographer of greece
interpretation of the variable character
B. Name given to north wind by Homes
of the surface of the earth'. The above
C. An instrument just like a sundial
definition of geography occurs in the book
D. Both B and C
of:
A. Morphology of Landscape 359. Longitude and Latitude term was first
B. Nature of geography used by:
C. Perspective on the nature of geography A. Ptolemy B. Homer
D. Theoratical geography C. Eratosthenes D. None of the above
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A C A C B B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B C C A B C A C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B C B C A B D A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B B B A D C B A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C A B A C C C D C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B C C D B C A A B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A A B A D C D C E
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D D B A D B B A C C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A B A B D C D B B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B A A C B A C A A C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A A C C C B A A D B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C C B C B A B C B A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
C B D D C A A D C B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C B A C C D A D B C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D A A B A A C D A D
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A D C A C A D A B A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C C C A B B A D B A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A C C A A A B D A D
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
A C D A A D A A B C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
D A C D C D D B C A
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
C C C D D D D C A B
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
A C A C C C C D A C
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
A C C D D C A A C B
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
C C B C C A B B C C
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
A A D A A C B D A B
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
B B B C D B B A A C
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
A A C A A C B A C A
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
C A C A D B B C B C
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
D B B A B B D B C C
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
A B D D A C D B B A
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
A A D B C C D B B C
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
C B D B D A A C D A
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
B D C A C C C B B A
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
C A C D D C A B B A
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
A A B A C C D A B C
351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359
C B C C B D C C A
6 Human Geography
1. Which of the following countries has (a) Vedda 1. Food gathering

attained replacement level population (b) Kukis 2. Shifting cultivation
growth? (c) Bhotias 3. Transhuman
A. France B. China (d) Todas 4. Sedentary Cultivation
C. Sudan D. Iran
Codes:
2. Kirghiz is a wandering tribe of: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Central Asia B. S.E. Asia A. 1 2 3 4
C. Western Asia D. South Asia B. 1 3 4 2
3. The settlements of desert areas are C. 2 3 4 1
characterised by: D. 1 2 3 4
A. evenly distributed population 9. Which of the following is the typical
B. dispersed population feature of the Negroid race?
C. nucleated population A. Black skin
D. scattered population B. Broad nose
4. In which of the following regions are the C. Prognathous jaw
pygmies found? D. Scanty hair on the bow
A. Sahara
10. The concept of Pemographic transition is
B. Kalahari
C. Equatorial Forests based on the trends in:
D. Pampas A. fertility rate.
B. birth and death rate.
5. The biggest city in China in terms of C. life expectancy.
population is: D. rural, urban migration.
A. Beijing B. Canton
C. Mukden D. Shanghai 11. Semang tribes are the inhabitants of:
A. Malaya Peninsula.
6. Which one of the following is not a major
B. Central Hills of Sri Lanka.
human agglomeration in the world?
C. Great Desert of Australia.
A. East Asia B. South Asia
C. Western Europe D. South America D. Eastern Highlands of Africa.
7. The correct desending order of the 12. Match List I with List II and select the
following countries in terms of their total correct answer using the code given below
population is: the lists:
A. Bangladesh, Brazil, Indonesia, Japan List I List II
B. Bangladesh, Maxico, Japan, Ethiopia Australian States Cities
C. Japan, Brazil, Bangladesh, Indonesia (a) Queensland 1. Adelaide
D. Indonesia, Brazil, Japan, Bangladesh (b) South Australia 2. Brisbane
(c) Victoria 3. Kalgoorlie
8. Which of the following pairs is correctly
matched? Select the correct answer from (d) Western Australia 4. Melbourne
the code given below: 5. Sydney
99
Codes: 4. They do so to protect themselves from
(a) (b) (c) (d) insects.
A. 2 5 4 1 Codes:
B. 3 1 2 4 A. 1 and 3 are correct
C. 2 1 4 3 B. 2 and 4 are correct
D. 1 5 2 3 C. 3 and 4 are correct
13. Match List I with List II and select the D. 1 and 2 are correct
correct answer using the code given below 16. Which one of the following countries has
the lists: the lowest birth rate?
List I List II A. France B. Japan
(a) Compact 1. Chile C. Germany D. U.S.A.
(b) Elongated 2. U.S.A. 17. In which of the following countries the
(c) Quadrangular 3. Hungary sex ratio is calculated as number of males
(d) Fragmented 4. India per hundred females?
Codes: A. India B. New Zealand
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Russia D. U.S.A.
A. 3 1 4 2 18. According to the U.N. population division
B. 1 4 2 3 the lowest fertility rate is in:
C. 4 3 2 1 A. Australia. B. France.
D. 2 3 1 4 C. Italy. D. Sweden.
14. Given figure depicts the typical model of 19. In terms of total population the correct
community-dwellings of a tribe. Select the descending order of the given countries
correct answer from the code given below: is:
A. C.I.S., Germany, U.K., France
B. C.I.S., UK, France, Germany
C. France, U.K., Germany, CIS
D. C.I.S., France, U.K., Germany
20. Study the following statements.
Assertion (A): The main habitat of the
mikir tribe is the mikir hills of Asom.
Reason (R): The principal occupation of
Code: the mikirs is hunting.
A. Dwellings of Boro Select the correct answer using the code
B. Dwellings of Badawin given below.
C. Dwellings of Masai Codes:
D. Dwellings of Nagas A. Both A and R are true and R is the
15. Study the following statements about correct explanation of A
Bushmen of Kalahari desert and select B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
the correct answer using the code given correct explanation of A
below: C. A is true but R is false
Statments: D. A is false but R is true
1. They are fruit gatherers. 21. The incidence of poverty in rural India,
2. They never kill animals. is because:
3. They smear their bodies with a thick A. the people are engaged in agriculture.
paste. B. the people are not hard working.
C. of rural unemployment and under A. Animal population
employment B. Human settlements
D. of lack of the means of transportation. C. Prainage density.
22. The primitive people of Japan are: D. Transportation network.
A. Ainu. B. Bantu. 27. Transnumance is practiced by the:
C. Sakai. D. Vedda. A. Bhils B. Bhotias.
C. Kukis. D. Nagas.
23. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched? 28. Which one of the following denotes the
A. Heidelbergman — South Africa. crude birthrate during a year?
B. Soloman — Germany. A. No. of born children per 1,000 females.
C. Cromagnon man — France B. No. of born children per 1,000 persons.
D. Rhodesian Man — Java C. No. of born live children per 1,000
females.
24. Given fig. the curve shows the rate of D. No. of born live children per 1,000
natural increase of population, which of persons.
the following shall cause the curve to move
downward. 29. Urbanization is normally defined as:
A. a demographic phenomenon.
B. economic changes due to industrial-
ization.
C. process of social change.
D. all the above three.
30. Which of the following criterion is not
used in the Indian census for the
identification of urban centres?
A. Population size
B. Population-function
1. Decline in birth rate.
C. Population density
2. Stable death rate.
D. Population behaviour
3. Rise in death rate.
4. Out-migration. 31. Assertion (A): In the geographical study
Select the correct anser using the code of human settlements both form and
given below process are important.
Codes: Reason (R): Ameitzen put emphasis on
A. 1 and 2 are correct. genetic approach in settlement geography.
B. 1 is correct. Select correct answer using the code given
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. below.
D. All are correct Codes:
25. Rural Peasant markets represent: correct explanation of A
A. a two way trade between production B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
consumption areas correct explanation of A
B. a one-way trade from production to C. A is true but R is false
consumption areas D. A is false but R is true
C. a complex system of trade
32. The theory of demographic transition was
D. No system at all propounded by:
26. Near Neighbour statistic is applied to test A. J. Clarke. B. G. T. Trewartha.
the randomness in: C. F. W. Notestein D. J. J. Spengler.
33. Among the SAARC countries the highest A. Urban settlements
density of population is found in: B. Rural settlements
A. Bangladesh B. India C. Rural-urban belt
C. Pakistan D. Sri Lanka D. Metropolitan cities
34. Which one of the following is not correctly 40. Which of the following criteria is not used
matched? for the classification of human races?
A. J. A. Garnier – Geography of popul- A. Eyes B. Nose
ation C. Ear D. Hair
B. R Woods – Population geography
41. Which one of the following regions is most
and the develping
countries urbanised?
C. G. T. – The more developed A. East Asia
Trewartha Realm : A Goegraphy B. South Asia
of its population C. Europe
D. W. Zelinsky – A prologue to D. Australia-New Zealand
population geography 42. Hierarchy of urban places is determined
35. Assertion (A): Two percent of the world’s on the basis of:
people live outside their country of birth. A. population size B. area
Reason (R): Rural urban migrations are C. functions D. growth rate
primarily a response to economic motives. 43. Match List I with List II and select the
Codes: correct answer using the code given below
A. Both A and R are true and R is the the lists:
correct explanation of A List I List II
B. Both A and R are true but R is not People Location
the correct explanation of A (a) Mullato 1. Japan
C. A is true but R is false (b) Ainu 2. Scandinavia
D. A is false but R is true (c) Lapps 3. Brazil
36. The concept of “Geography as Human (d) Mestizo 4. Mexico
ecology” was advocated by: Codes:
A. J. Clarke (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. H. H. Barrows A. 4 3 1 2
C. Richard Hartshorne B. 3 1 2 4
D. David Smith
C. 2 4 3 1
37. Which of the following is the correct D. 1 2 4 3
sequence of cities in descending order of 44. Consider the following statements and
their population? choose your answer from the code given
A. Tokyo, Mumbai, Beijing, Seoul below:
B. Beijing, Mumbai, Seoul, Tokyo Assertion (A): The three aspects of
C. Mumbai, Tokyo, Seoul, Beijing distribution of agrarion settlements are
D. Seoul, Tokyo, Beijing, Mumbai dispersion, density and pattern.
38. Which one of the following capital cities Reason (R): Compact settlements,
was initially built in the form of puzzle predominate, in the most parts of the
box? world.
A. Beijing B. Rome Codes:
C. Tokyo D. Vatican city A. Both A and R are true and R is the
39. The rank-size rule is a concept that is correct explanation of A
concerned with the study of one of the B. Both A and R are true but R is not
following: the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false 49. Which one of the following countries is
D. A is false but R is true not a member of SAARC?
45. Crude death rate is exhibiting an A. Nepal B. Thailand
increasing trend in: C. Pakistan D. Bangladesh
A. Africa B. Europe 50. Which one of the following is called
C. South America D. Oceania Europort?
46. The Egyptian type of population Resource A. London B. Amsterdam
Region is characterised by: C. Hamburg D. Rotterdam
A. high technology, low population- 51. More than half of the world’s population
resource ratio lives in latitudes:
B. high technology, high population- A. 0° – 20°N
resource ratio B. 0° – 20°S
C. low technology, high population- C. 20°N – 40°N
resource ratio D. 40°N – 60°N
D. low technology, low population-resource 52. The main occupation of lapps is:
ratio A. hunting and food gathering.
47. Match List I with List II and select the B. herding and fishing.
correct answer using the code given below C. pastoral, nomadism.
the lists: D. shifting cultivation.
List I List II 53. Which one of the following is not a major
Hunting Tribes Habitat human agglomeration in the world?
(a) Bush men 1. Greenland A. East Asia B. South Asia
(b) Boro 2. Congo basin C. Western Europe D. South America
(c) Pygmy 3. Amazon basin 54. The father of Human Geography is:
(d) Eskimo 4. Kalahari A. Herodotus
Codes: B. Hecataeus
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Vidal de la Blache
A. 1 2 3 4 D. Brunhes
B. 4 3 2 1 55. ‘Strong point settlement’ occurs near the:
C. 2 3 4 1 A. Passes B. Hill tops
D. 4 2 3 1 C. Bridge sites D. All of the above
48. Consider the following statements: 56. Environmental determinism maintains
Assertion (A): There is close correlation that:
between education and population control. A. the physical environment dtermines
Reason (R): The decline in fertility rate man’s economic activities.
in Kerala provides the best example. B. the economic resources determine
Select the correct answer using the code man’s cultural activities.
given below. C. the physical environment partially
Codes: determines man’s social and cultural
A. Both A and R are true and R is the activities.
correct explanation of A D. none of the above
B. Both A and R are true but R is not 57. The author of the principles of Human
the correct explanation of A geography is:
C. A is true but R is false A. Huntington. B. Semple.
D. A is false but R is true C. La Blache. D. None of these.
58. Man is a habitant tool-maker from history 66. Hunting and gathering is the main
because: occupation of which tribe?
A. he is a thinker unlike other animals. A. Turks B. Bushman
B. he is intrinsically lazy C. Negroes D. None of these
C. he wanted to increase productivity. 67. Urban growth is now taking place at a
D. he did not want to use his limbs. faster rate in the:
59. The reduction in international migration A. tropics than in the North America
can be attributed to: B. western world than in the tropics
A. restrictions imposed by the C. western world
government D. None of these
B. changed altitudes of the people 68. The villages of Lorraine (France) are
C. feeling of nationalism notable for their:
D. decrease of economic prospects A. linear pattern
60. Low population density in some developed B. star shaped pattern
nations like Australia, has resulted in: C. square and compact
A. slow development of resources D. rectangular pattern
B. high per capita income 69. Which of the following settlement is of
C. better health conditions relatively recent date?
D. export of food products A. Star type B. Dispersed type
61. Problems de Geographie Humaine is C. Linear type D. Nucleated type
written by: 70. Zone of contact settlement occurs:
A. Jean Brunhes A. between village and towns
B. Ratzel B. between hill tops and low lands
C. Martonne C. between forests and cultivated lands
D. Albert Demangeon D. Only B and C
62. Geographie Humaine is authored by: 71. Hyper markets are shopping centres
A. La Blache B. Ratzel located:
C. Miss Semple D. Jean Brunhes A. near the C.B.D.
63. Pinciples de Geographie Humaine is B. near rail-road junction
written by: C. out of town
A. Martonne D. none of these
B. Jean Brunhes 72. Christaller’s K = 4 represents:
C. La Blache A. Marketing principle
D. Albert Demangeon B. Traffic principle
64. Most universally accepted criterion to de- C. Administrative principle
fine a town is: D. All of these
A. population density 73. The rank size rule of the spacing of cities
B. population size was given by:
C. municipally administered A. C. D. Harris B. Ulman.
D. function C. G. K. zip D. G. Sjoberg
65. Which of the following are not pastoral 74. The sector theory of urban structure was
nomads? given by:
A. Pygmies B. Kazaks A. H Hoyt B. M. R. Davie
C. Masai D. Lapps C. Both A and B D. None of these
75. The Radiant city idea of city planning B. F. L. Wright
was propounded by: C. Harris
A. Clarence Perry (American) D. None of the above
B. Le Corbusier. (French) 85. The pioneer study of the CBD was done
C. A. S. Mata. (Spanish) by:
D. F. L. Wright (American) A. Burges
76. The concentric or zonal theory was B. Murphy and Vane
porpounded by: C. C. D. Harris and Ullman
A. Burgess B. Vance D. None of the above
C. Murphy D. Ullman
86. The book pre industrial city was written
77. The multiple nuclei theory of town by:
planning was given by: A. G. S. Joberg B. J. Gottman
A. C. D. Harris B. Ullman C. G. K. Zipf D. Ullman
C. Burges D. Both A and B
87. The law of primate city was propounded
78. The term megalopolis was coined by: by:
A. J. Gottman B. Burgess A. M. Jafferson B. G. K. Zipf.
C. H. Hoyt D. C.D. Harris C. Burgess D. Christaller
79. Hinter Land is frequently applied to: 88. The idea of Garden cities was given by:
A. the area in the middle of the plateau A. G. T. Ranner B. Semple
B. the area commanding a central C. Howard D. P. Hall
position
C. the areas served by a port 89. In all the urban settlements in an area
D. None of the above are ranked in descending order of
population. The population of then town
80. The central place theory of town planning will be 1/4th that of the largest.
was given by: A. Central place theory
A. M. Jafferson B. Christaller
B. Hierarchy of towns
C. Burgess D. None of these
C. Rank-size rule
81. Shanty town refers to:
D. Law of primate city
A. extreme poverty, backing in menities
and exceptionally high morality rate 90. The tone of discard is the:
B. a district of temporary, squatter A. CBD of present B. CBD of past
dwellings C. CBD of future D. None of these
C. Generally over crowded 91. The prairie settlement of N. America are
D. All of the above of:
82. Christaller’s k = 7 represents: A. Linear type
A. marketing principle B. Dispersed type
B. administrative principle C. Sometimes both nucleated and
C. traffic principle dispersed
D. None of these D. Always nucleated type
83. Wet point settlement occurs near the: 92. Permating is:
A. source of water B. coastal plains A. a dry point settlement in Malaysia
C. deltas D. passes B. a wet point settlement in the Nether-
84. The dispersed city has idea of city lands
planning was given by: C. a dry point settlement in Indonesia
A. Ullman D. none of these
93. Dry point settlements are: 97. Jengka triangle is located in:
A. always nucleated type A. Malaysia
B. always dispersed type B. Indonesia
C. sometimes both nucleated and C. the Netherlands
dispersed D. none of these
D. Neither nucleated nor dispersed type 98. The peasant Chalets are a type of
settlement common in:
94. Terpen is: A. Germany B. Hungary
A. a rural settlement built on a man C. the Netherland D. Switzerland
made mounds in the Netherlands
99. Who divided any urban area into three
B. a rural settlement in Malaysia zones, namely, a core area, outer area
C. a rural settlement in Indonesia and a fringe area:
D. none of these A. J.H. Johnson B. Dickinson
95. Who divided any urban area into three C. A.E. Smailes D. Harris
zones? 100. The major theme in human geography
A. A. E. Smailes B. Dickinson in the 1960s was:
C. J. H. Johnson D. Harris A. the study of Spatial System
B. the study of Spatial Organization of
96. Who presented an important modification Society
of Christallers’s central place theory C. the study of Spatial Organization of
A. Ullman B. Murphy Society
C. Losch D. J. Watson D. None of these
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C C D D B B C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C A B C B C C A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A C C A B B B D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B C A B B B B D A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A B B A C B A B D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C B D C C A A C A B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D D A D A B A A B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C B C A B A D A C B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D B A B B A A C A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B A A A A A A D C C
7 Economic Geography
1. Which of the following pairs is not cor- 8. Which country of the world is the largest
rectly matched? exporter of cardamom?
A. Apiculture – Honey bee A. Guatemala B. China
B. Sericulture – Silk worm C. Brazil D. Sri Lanka
C. Pisciculture – Lac-insects 9. Which is the best combination in descend-
D. Horticulture – Flowers ing order of the corn producing countries?
2. Which one of the following is the largest A. U.S.A, China, Brazil, Argentina
Canal of the world? B. China, U.S.A. France, Brazil
A. Suez Canal C. U.S.A., Argentina, China, Yugoslavia
B. Panama Canal D. China, Brazil, U.S.A., Argentina
C. Kra Canal
10. Which of the following countries is largely
D. Bhakra Canal
dependent on indigenous iron as well as
3. Which of the following are connected by coal for iron-steel production?
Suez Canal? A. Sweden B. Ukrain
A. Red sea and Dead sea C. Germany D. Great Britain
B. Red sea and Arabian sea
11. The concept of isodapane to explain the
C. Red sea and Mediterranean sea
D. Red sea and Black sea deviation of plant from the point dictated
by minimum transportation cost was
4. Webber’s theory of industrial location is advanced by:
based on the premise of: A. A. Weber B. E. Hoover
A. Minimisation of total cost C. W. Isard D. A. Loesch
B. Maximisation of profit
C. Capture of maximum market area 12. The major source of graphite of the world
D. Locational interdependence of firms is located in:
A. China B. Brazil
5. The Donetz basin is famous for the: C. India D. Philipine
A. Oil and Oil shale
B. Coal deposits 13. The top motor vehicle producer in the
C. Limestone and dolomite world is ............
D. Iron ore A. Japan B. U.S.A.
C. France D. China
6. Which of the following is not a member
of O.E.C.D.? 14. Most industrialised country in Asia is:
A. Japan B. Germany A. Philippines
C. Canada D. India B. Thailand
C. Malaysia
7. Flanders industrial region is world
renowned for: D. Singapore
A. Iron-Steel industry 15. New England states have lost their promi-
B. Car manufacturing nence in textile industry because of:
C. Textile manufacturing A. shortage of electric power
D. Electronics B. scarcity of water
107
C. growing cost of labour and raw 25. Proceeding from the central city Von
material Jhunen’s theory of agriculture location
D. Dearth of capital visualises production of fuel wood in:
16. Largest producer of silver in the world A. first ring B. second ring
is: C. third ring D. fourth ring
A. Mexico B. U.S.A. 26. The largest exporter of tea in the world
C. Laos D. South Africa is:
17. Hawai Islands are major producer of: A. Sri lanka B. India
A. Tea B. Sugarbeet C. Indonesia D. China
C. Sugarcane D. Wheat 27. The body monitoring international trade
18. Plantation agriculture is most widespread is known as:
in: A. UNESCO B. APEC
A. Nile Valley C. SAARC D. WTO
B. Mississippi Valley 28. Pampas and steppes are charcterized as:
C. California A. Mid—latitude grassland
D. Carribeans B. Low—latitude grasslands
19. Grozny is famous for the production of: C. High—latitude grassland
A. Petroleum B. Uranium D. Tropical grass lands
C. Gold. D. Thorium 29. Which one of the following countries is
20. Fruits and vegetables are grown for not a member of G-7?
export in A. Britain B. China
A. Israel B. Holland C. Japan D. Germany
C. Egypt D. Mauritius 30. COME CON Trade Block consists of:
21. The world’s largest producer of A. countries of East Europe
nitrogenous fertilizer is: B. countries of West Europe
A. China B. U.S.A. C. countries of North America
C. Japan D. France D. countries of common-wealth
22. The national economy of New Zealand is 31. Which one of the following is not cor-
based on: rectly matched?
A. Export oriented agriculture A. South Africa — Velds
B. Heavy industries B. Australia — Downs
C. Tourist industry C. Argentina — Pampas
D. Electronic industries D. Brazil — Steppes
23. Commercial grain farming is character- 32. The main agricultural producer of Ukrain
istic of: is:
A. North China Plains A. corn B. sun flower
B. Pampas Plain C. wheat D. sugar beet
C. Volga Basin 33. Which of the folloiwng methods is mostly
D. Danu be Basin used for mining iron ore, limestone and
24. The main wheat belt of the U.S.A lies in: gravels?
A. The Great Plains A. Alluvial mining
B. The Imperial Valley B. Opencast mining
C. The Atlantic Sea Bound C. Underground mining
D. The tennesee Valley D. All of these
34. Mesabi region of USA is major producer 42. The largest cocoa producing region in the
of: world is:
A. Copper B. Coal A. Brazil Plateau
C. Iron ore D. Uranium B. Guinea Coast
35. The economy of New Zealand is based on: C. Malabar Coast
A. export oriented agriculture D. Eastern highlands of Africa
B. tourist industry 43. Kanat system of irrigation is adopted in:
C. heavy industry A. U.S.A. B. Western Europe
D. small scale industry C. Middle East D. China
36. In industrial location theory locational 44. The country with the largest popualtion
triangle has been used by:
in Africa is:
A. Smith B. Weber
A. Egypt B. Ethiopia
C. Palander D. Hoover
C. Nigeria D. South Africa
37. In agricultural location theory, the con-
cept of an isolated estate was propounded 45. Match List I with List II and select the
by: correct answer using the code given be-
A. Whittlesey B. Farmer low the lists:
C. Smith D. Von Thunen List I List II
(Industry) Location
38. Which of the following is not correctly
(a) Iron and Steel 1. Ports mouth
matched?
(b) Automobile 2. Sparrow point
A. Mexixo —— Silver
B. Russia —— Bauxite (c) Ship Building 3. Tolouse
C. Bolivia —— Tin (d) Aircarft 4. Detroit
D. U.S.A —— Copper Codes:
39. 'Kiel' canal joins: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Baltic sea to Mediterranean Sea A. 1 2 3 4
B. Red sea to Mediterranean Sea B. 2 1 4 3
C. North Sea to Black Sea C. 4 3 2 1
D. None of these D. 2 4 1 3
40. Canada is a very important producer of 46. Live stock rearing occupies a significant
spring wheat because: place in:
1. Here the soil is regur A. mixed farming
2. The moisture is obtained from the B. intensive subsistence farming
melting of snow C. plantation agriculture
3. It grows during warm sunny D. shifting cultivation
summers
47. Which one of the following is the least
4. The ground is much undulating
important for fruit production in
Codes:
California?
B. 2 and 3 are correct A. Educated farmers
C. 3 and 4 are correct B. Mediterranean type of climate
D. 1 and 4 are correct C. Air transport facility
41. Which of the following is not a member D. Availability of slopy land
of the newly formed IOR — ARC? 48. Assertion (A): In Australia cattle
A. South Africa B. Zimbabwe rearing is done more for meat than for
C. Yemen D. Madagaskar milk.
Reason (R): Australians are non- 55. Which one of the following is another
vegetarian by tradition. name of truck farming?
Select your answer according to the codes: A. Sericulture
Codes: B. Viticulture
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Fruit farming
correct explanation of A D. Market gardening
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 56. Which one of the following crops is grown
correct explanation of A on large farms located on the fertile soils
of the world for the purpose of feeding
animals?
49. For which of the following is Kargan da A. Barley B. Oats
Basin famous? C. Rye D. Maize
A. Petroleum B. Coal
57. In the Corn Belt of U.S.A large portion of
C. Manganese D. Iron ore.
the farmer’s income is derived from the
50. The forests most suitable from the view sale of:
point of economic exploitation are: A. corn
A. Equatorial. B. Monsoon. B. wheat and corn
C. Mixed. D. Taiga. C. beef cattle
51. Read the following statements: D. fresh fruits and vegetables
Assertion (A): Special steal is produced 58. Mixed farming involves:
in Ruhr region of Germany. A. both crops and live stock
Reason (R): Iron ore is available from B. growing a series of different crops
Westphalia region. C. specialised cultivation of vegetables
Select your answer from the codes: and fruits
Codes: D. pooling land voluntarily and managing
A. Both A and R are true and R is the it jointly under a democratic
correct explanation of A constitution.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A 59. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given be-
52. The word isodapene is used in:
low the lists:
A. industrial location
List I List II
B. demarcation of agriculture regions
Major pro. country Agri produce
C. classification of climatic zones
(a) Egypt 1. Coffee
D. classification of vegetation zone
(b) Brazil 2. Cotton
53. Which one of the following is not related (c) Nigeria 3. Diamond
to intensive agriculture? (d) South Africa 4. Tea.
A. Vegetable farming in Netherlands
B. Rice farming in S.E. Asia Codes:
C. Wheat farming in Canada (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. Fruit farming in California A. 2 1 4 3
B. 4 1 2 3
54. Which one of the following elements does C. 1 2 3 4
not held for extensive farming? D. 2 3 4 5
A. High yield per hectare
B. High yield per man 60. Which one of the following pairs is not
C. Large area per farm correctly matched?
D. High income per farm A. Val paraiso — Brazil
B. Texas — U.S.A. 69. Which of the following minerals is clas-
C. Witwatersrand — South Africa sified as ferro alloy?
D. Harare — Zimbabwe A. Bauxite B. Molybdenum
61. Which of the following industries is C. Tin D. Uranium
prominent at Kiel? 70. Assertion (A): France in European un-
A. Automobiles B. Iron-steel ion exports over 70,000 million Kwh of
C. Ship-building D. Textiles electricity annually.
62. Which one of the following is not correctly Reason (R): France is the largest
matched? producer of hydro-electricity in European
A. Akron — Synthetic rubber union.
B. Osaka — Ship-building Find out the correct answer from the code
C. Magnitogorsk — Iron steel below :
D. Baku — Oil refinery Codes:
63. Which one of the following iron mining correct explanation of A
centres does not belong to the lake B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
superior iron ore regions? correct explanation of A
A. Gogebic B. Mesabi C. A is true but R is false
C. Vermilion D. Krivoirog D. A is false but R is true
64. Find out the correct match: 71. Which of the following petroleum produc-
Commodity Leading producer ing countries is not a member of the
of World OPEC?
A. Wheat — China A. Indonesia B. Iran
B. Steel — U.S.A. C. Norway D. Venezuela
C. Bauxite — Guinea
72. Identify the correct descending order of
D. Paper — Canada
countries producing iron ore:
65. Which of the following states of Australia A. China, Brazil, Australia, Russian
is a major producer of coal? Federation
A. New South Wales B. China, Australia, Brazil, India
B. Northern territory C. Australia, Brazil, China, U.S.A.
C. Queens land D. Russian Federation, China, Brazil
D. Victoria Australia
66. Which type of activity is road construc- 73. Which of the following is a source of pri-
tion? mary electricity generation?
A. Primary B. Secondary A. Coal B. Petroleum
C. Tertiary D. Quaternary C. Natural gas D. Wind
67. The leading exporter of Rice in the world 74. The largest producer of uranium in the
is: world is:
A. Pakistan B. U.S.A. A. Port Radium in Canada
C. Thailand D. Vietnam B. Radio Hill in Australia
68. Watershed management involves: C. Sinkolowbe in Central African Republic
A. building large dams on rivers D. Angerica in Portugal
B. constructing barrages on rivers 75. Silicon valley is famous for:
C. erecting dykes on streams A. Computer chips
D. constructing network of canals B. Silica production
C. Headquarters of Coca-Cola 82. Yerba mate is a stimulating beverage of:
D. Chemicals A. Panama B. Saudi Arabia
76. The famous corn belt of the U.S.A is C. Brazil D. New Guinea
located in its: 83. Fazendas are associated with:
A. North-eastern part A. Cattle ranching
B. North-western part B. Rubber plantation
C. South central part C. Dairying
D. South-western part D. Commercial grain faming
77. Which of the following countries of 84. Which one of the following iron and steel
Africa has no rail route? producing areas of U.S.A. illustrates
A. Chad B. Tanzania break point location?
C. Zambia D. Zimbabwe A. Pitsburg region
B. Atlantic sea board region
78. Which one of the following countries is
C. Lake Erie region
not a member of any of the world’s
D. Alabama region
formal trade blocks?
A. Mexico B. France 85. Consider the following statements:
C. Indonesia D. Japan Assertion (A): Most of the raising of
the U.S.A. are produced in the Fresno
79. Kanal irrigation system is prevalent in: region of California.
A. Khirgizstan B. Iran Reason (R): Nearly eighty percent of
C. Egypt D. Greece the grapevines of California are irrigated.
80. Which of the following countries is desig- Select the correct answer using the code
nated as one of the Asian tigers? given below:
A. Japan Codes:
B. Malaysia A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Korean Republic correct explanation of A
D. Philippines B. Both A and R are true but R is not
81. Match List I with List II and select the the correct explanation of A
correct answer using the code given C. A is true but R is false
below the lists: D. A is false but R is true
List I List II 86. In which of the following country is main
(Ecosystem) (Vegetation type) producer of wind power?
(a) Tropical 1. Selvas A. Japan B. China
grassland C. Russia D.USA
(b) Temperate 2. Taiga 87. Which one of following crops is grown in
forests areas having 200 frost-free days, 500-1000
(c) Tropical forests 3. Savana mm. rain and 20°C temprature?
(d) Temperate 4. Pampas A. Jute B. Cotton
grasslands C. Wheat D. Rice
Codes: 88. Ras tanura oil refinery is located along
(a) (b) (c) (d) the:
A. 3 2 1 4 A. Eastern coast of Saudi Arabia
B. 1 2 3 4 B. Western coast of Saudi Arabia
C. 4 3 2 1 C. North-eastern coast of Saudi Arabia
D. 2 1 4 3 D. North-western coast of Saudi Arabia
89. Which one of the following scholars has 98. Which one of the following statements
divided the world into major agricultural about the great plains of the U.S.A is not
regions? correct?
A. Kosowicki B. Von Thunen A. They have a cover of high grade short
C. Weaver D. Whittlesey grasses.
90. To which one of the following categories B. They are the most extensive grazing
the agricultural land belongs to a lands.
resource? C. They are largely not suitable for
A. Commonalities B. Rarities cultivation because of low and erratic
C. Ubiquities D. Uniquities rainfall.
91. Which of the following two countries are D. They are akin to the Great Australian
connected through the oriental express Desert.
railway?
99. Which of the following sequence of vege-
A. China and Mongolia
tation on zones would be noticed while
B. France and Turkey
C. Myanmar and Thailand travelling from the equator to the North
D. Poland and Ukraine Pole?
A. Evergreen, Deciduous, Prairie,
92. Ladang is a migratory system of agricul-
coniferous
ture in:
B. Deciduous, Evergreen, coniferous,
A. Africa B. Malaysia
C. Central India D. South America prairie
C. Prairie, evergreen deciduous,
93. In which one of the following countries coniferous
are Fenlands found
D. Coniferous, Deciduous, Prairie,
A. U.S.A B. France
evergreen
C. New Zealand D. England
94. In the concentric zone theory the zone II 100. The world’s longest under sea tunnel
is: connects:
A. Residential zone A. China and Hainan Island
B. Workingmen zone B. China and Hongkong
C. Commuter zone C. Hokkaido and Honshu
D. Business zone D. Malya Peninsula and Sumatra
95. Savanna grass lands in Brazil are called: 101. Match List I with List II and select the
A. Campos B. Powns correct answer using the code given below:
C. Pampas D. Prairies the lists:
List I List II
96. The two sea ports on either ends of the
(a) Pittsburg 1. Iron-steel
Suez Canal are:
1. Alexandria 2. Cairo (b) Chicago 2. Paper Pulp
3. Port Said 4. Suez (c) Quebec 3. Motor car
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 (d) Detroit 4. Agricultural
C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4 machinery
97. Which one of the following countries of Codes:
Africa is the largest producer of copper? (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Union of South Africa A. 1 2 3 4
B. Congo B. 1 4 2 3
C. Kenya C. 2 4 3 2
D. Tanzania D. 4 1 2 3
102. Which one of the following is a tropical D. Chicago : Flour mills
grassland? 104. Which among of the folloiwng is the major
A. Lanos B. Prairie industry in Pittsburg?
C. Steppe D. Weld A. Meat packing
B. Flour packing
103. Which one is wrongly matched? C. Iron and steel industry
A. Osaka : Cotton textile D. Textile industry
B. Milan : Silk
C. Windsor : Automobiles
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D C A B D C A A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A D D C A C D A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A B A B D D A B A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A B C A B D C C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B C C D A C A B D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D A C A D D C A A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B D A A C C C B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C B A A A C A D B C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A C B D A B B C D A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B B D A A B B D A C
101 102 103 104
B A D C
8 Cartography
1. In which projection the distribution of Reason (R): The great circle divides the
wheat production in the world can be earth sphere into two equal parts.
better shown? A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. Mercator’s B. Bonne’s the correct explanation of A
C. Molle weide’s D. Gnomonic B. Both A and R are true but R is not
2. If the distance on the map between A correct explanation of A
and B is 7 cm. and the R.F of the map C. A is true but R is false
is 1: 3,25,000 then what will be the D. A is false but R is true
distance between the two places? 6. The length of equator is not correctly
A. 18.60 km. B. 21.50 km. shown on:
C. 22.75 km. D. 26.25 km. A. Cylindrical equal area projection
3. Match List I with List II and select the B. Mercator’s projection
correct answer using the code given below C. Molle weide projection
the lists: D. Sinusoidal projection
List I List II 7. The weather map of India is drawn on:
(Proejections) (Chief Characteri- A. Bonne’s projection
stics) B. Polly conic projection
(a) International 1. Equal area C. Mercator’s projection
(b) Molle weide 2. True direction D. International projection
(c) Mercator 3. True Scale
8. Which of the following properties are true
(d) Gall’s 4. None
for Bonne’s projection? Select the correct
Code: answer from the code given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. It is an equal area projection.
A. 3 2 4 1 2. It’s parallels are concentric curves.
B. 3 1 2 4 3. Only the central meridian is a straight
C. 2 4 3 1 line.
D. 1 2 4 3 Codes:
4. The following symbol in a geological map A. Only 1 and 2 are correct
indicates B. Only 1 and 3 are correct
C. Only 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
9. In a map 1 c.m. represents 10 km. Its
R.F. is:
A. undulating strata A. 1/100,000 B. 1/1,000,000
B. syncline C. 1/10,000 D. 1/1000
C. horizontal starta 10. In a prismatic compass survey bearings
D. vertical strata are measured with reference to:
5. Assertion (A): All meridians are great A. Geographic north
circle. B. Grid north
115
C. Magnetic north 17. International projection is the modified
D. Assumed north version of:
11. All parallels are standard parallels on the: A. Polyconic
A. Cylindrical equal area projection B. Bonne’s
B. Mercator’s projection C. Sinusoidal
C. Molleweide projection D. Simple Conical with two standard
D. Sinusoidal projection. parallels
12. Loxodrome is related to: 18. Which projection is the most appropriate
A. Cylindrical projection for defecting Trans Siberian railway?
B. Mercator projection A. Mercator projection
B. Simple conical with two standard
C. Molleweide projection
parallel
D. Bonne projection
C. Cylindrical equal area projection
13. The curve drawn to represent total area D. Polar Zenithal gnomonic
of land above each contour line as a per-
19. The proportion of the area of the surface
centage of the total map area is known as:
at various elevations above or depths
A. Area height curve
below a given datum is properly
B. Altimetric frequency curve
represented by:
C. Clinographic curve
A. Hypsometric curve
D. Hypsometric curve
B. Lorentz curve
14. Which one of the following is not depicted C. S. curve
on the daily Indian weather map? D. Frequency curve
A. Temperature B. Cloud 20. Which one of the following is the most
C. Rainfall D. Wind suitable method for representing the
15. Match List I with List II and select the constituents as well as the sum total over
correct answer using the code given below a consecutive period of time?
the lists: A. Band graph
List I List II B. Compound bar diagram
(Index Number (Scale of the C. Multiple line graph
of Topo Sheets) Topo Sheets) D. Wheel diagram
(a) 63 1. 1" to a mile 21. Which of the following pairs is not
(b) 63 K 2. 1" to 16 miles correctly matched?
(c) 63K/15 3. ½” to a mile List I List II
(d) 63K/NE 4. Quarter inch to a mile. Projection Use
Codes: (a) Mercator 1. Navigation
(a) (b) (c) (d) (b) Mollweide 2. World Distribution
A. 1 2 3 4 (c) Gnomonic 3. Area measurement
B. 2 4 1 3 (d) International 4. Topographical map
C. 3 4 2 1 22. Which one of the following is the most
D. 4 3 1 2 suitable for the depiction of distribution
16. Which one of the following is a large scale of rural population on a map?
map? A. Dot method B. Shade method
A. An Atlas map C. Circle method D. Spehere method
B. Wall map 23. The most suitable map projection for the
C. Topographical map map of Uttar Pradesh is:
D. Cadastrol map A. Bonne’s projection.
B. International projection 31. Ergograph was designed by:
C. Interrupted sinusoidal projection A. G. P. Kellaway
D. Mollweide projection B. K. P. Dhurandhar
C. E Raise
24. The weather map of India does not show:
D. A. Geddes
A. Cloudiness B. Wind direction
C. Isobars D. Isotherms 32. On which of the following map projections
the Great circle is shown as a straight
25. Which one of the following projection is a line?
non-perspective projection? A. Cylindrical equal area
A. Zenithal Gnomonic B. Bonne
B. Zenithal Streographic C. Mercator
C. Zenithal equidistant D. Polar Gnomonic streographic
D. Zenithal orthomorphic 33. Using the following code select the correct
26. The name of map projection where in a properties on sinusoidal projection.
portion of the globe is projected upon a 1. Area will be correct
plane tangent to it is: 2. Shape will be correct
A. Polyconic projection 3. Direction will be correct
4. Shape will be distorted
B. Zenithal projection
Codes:
C. Cylindrical projection
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
D. Globular projection C. 1 and 4 D. 3 and 4
27. Which one of the following scales is 34. Which of the following symbols is used
suitable for drawing town guide maps? for overcast sky by high clouds?
A. 1: 20,000 B. 1: 50,000
C. 1: 63,360 D. 1: 1,000,000 A. B.
28. The most consistent measure of nodal C. . D.
accessibility is:
A. T matrix B. Valued matrix 35. Which of the following diagram is the
C. Graded matrix D. Morpho-matrix best suited for depictiny soil classification?
A. Bar diagram
29. In the circle ‘0’ is the centre. It AB = 10 B. Circle diagram
the area of the circle is: C. Triangular graph
D. Circular graph
36. Assertion (A): A map is a true
representation of the earth’s surface
pattern.
Reason (R): It is drawn to scale.
A. 10 p B. 25 p B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
C. 50 p D. 100 p
30. The scale of 1: 10 million can represent D. A is false but R is true
the real globe by a sphere with a diameter
37. Who was the pioneer in the use of map
of: projection?
A. 63.5 c.m. B. 75.0 c.m. A. Cassini B. Adrisi
C. 127.0 c.m. D. 150 c.m. C. Mercator D. Ptolemy
38. A graph in which means monthly A. 1/20,000 B. 1/40,000
temperature is plotted against the C. 1/80,000 D. 1/200,000
monthly rainfall is known as: 45. In the map the contours represent:
A. Hythergraph B. Climograph
C. Ergograph D. Hypsograph
39. For showing the intensity of cropping in
different districts of a state which of the
following maps will be most suited?
A. Isopleths map
B. Choropleth map
C. Chorochromatic map
D. All of these
40. “Dot method” is used for showing:
A. Distribution of crops on the field A. Concave slope B. Uniform slope
B. Distribution of population on the map C. Convex slope D. Undulating slope
C. Distribution of mineral and means of
power 46. Cartography includes the whole series of
map making from an actual survey of
D. None of these
the ground to printing of the map. This
41. What is the least count of a diagonal definition is given by:
scale if secondary and 10 diagonal A. Robinson B. Raisz
division? C. Monk house D. Kellaway
A. 5 c.m. B. 10.cm.
C. 15 c.m. D. 20 c.m. 47. Match List I with List II and select the
42. Match List I with List II and select the the lists:
correct answer by using the code given List I List II
below the lists: (Books) (Authors)
List I List II (a) Elements of 1. By gott
(Books) (Authors) cartogrpahy
(a) Block diagram 1. Mon Khouse and (b) An introduction 2. Bowyer
Wilkinson of the study of
(b) Map projection 2. Robinson map projections
(c) Elements of 3. Kellaway (c) A guide to map 3. Steers
Cartogrpahy projection
(d) Maps and 4. Lobeck (d) An Introduction 4. Robinson
Diagrams to map work
Codes: and practical
(a) (b) (c) (d) Geography
A. 4 3 1 2 Codes:
B. 4 3 2 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. 1 4 2 3 A. 4 3 2 1
D. 4 2 3 1 B. 1 2 3 4
43. The first detailed map of India was C. 4 1 2 3
prepared by: D. 1 3 4 2
A. P. Anville B. Eratosthenes 48. The age-sex composition of population is
C. Ptolemy D. James Rennel the best represented by:
44. When on a map one c.m. represents 2 A. Simple bar diagram
kms., the R. F. is? B. Compound bar diagram
C. Pyramidal diagram D. 4 3 3 1
D. Multiple linegraph 55. A twelve -sided figure showing the
49. Which of the following has no match? average monthly temperature and
A. Shower Ñ B. Hail rainfall condi-tions at a particular station
C. Sand storm D. Fog º is known as:
A. Thermograph B. Hythergraph
50. Which one of the following statements
C. Climograph D. Ergograph
about sinusoidal projection is not true?
A. It is an equal - area projection 56. Which of the following projection is
B. The scale is correct on all the parallels suitable to show cape-cairo rail route?
C. The scale is correct on all the meridians A. Mercator B. Polyconic
D. Shape is distorted away from the C. Bonne D. Sinusoidal
central meridian 57. Which one of the following is not correctly
51. The interval of 1° latitude measures: matched?
A. 211 kilometers B. 11 kilometers A. Graveyard
C. 91 kilometers D. 241 kilometers B. Mine
C. Permanent Hut
52. Which one of the following is the most D. Spring X
suitable map projection for showing the
58. When the R.F. = 1/80,000, one c.m.
world distribution of rice cultivation?
represents:
A. Bonne projection
A. 80 metres B. 800 metres
B. Cylindrical equal area projection
C. 4,000 metres D. 8,000 metres
C. Mollweide projection
D. Simple cylindrical projection 59. What is the least count of a diagonal
scale if its one primary division,
53. The weather map of India is drawn on:
A. Bonne projection measuring 10 m, has been divided into
B. Polyconic projection 10 secondary and 10 diagonal divisions?
C. Mercator projection A. 5 cm. B. 10 cm.
D. Molleweide projection C. 15 cm. D. 20 cm.
54. Match List I with List II and select the 60. Match the following pairs of cultural
correct answer using the code given below features and symbols, and select the
the lists: correct answer from the given code:
List I List II Cultural features Symbols
(a) Chorochromatic 1.Atlas map on a (a) Lined well 1.
map very small scale. (b) Unlined well 2.
(b) Choroschematic 2.Different objects (c) Graveyard 3.
map are shown by diff- (d) Fort 4.
rent colour. Codes:
(c) Choropleth map 3.Distribution of (a) (b) (c) (d)
objects by vari- A. 1 2 3 4
ous symbols. B. 2 1 4 3
(d) Chorographical 4.Different shading C. 3 1 4 2
map by horizontal and D. 3 1 2 4
vertical lines.
61. Which one of the following is not correctly
Codes: matched?
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Fog º
A. 1 2 3 4 B. Mist =
B. 2 3 4 1 C. Rain
C. 4 3 2 1 D. Thunderstorm
62. What are the advantages of mapping and A. Both x and y are located in v-shaped
monitoring of natural resources using depressions
satellite remote sensing techniques? B. Both x and y are located in wedge
A. Satellite data provide a synoptic view areas
over a wide areas coverage C. x is located in V-shaped depression and
B. Satellite data can be acquired of any y in wedge area
geographical area repeating at regular D. x is located in wedge area and y in V-
intervals shaped depressions
C. It represents an unbiased record 68. Proportional compasses are used in the:
D. All of these A. measurement of flat land
63. Cadastral maps are meant for: B. reduction and elargement of maps
A. Showing the boundaries of fields and C. Measurement of undulating land
D. Measurement of Mountains
buildings
B. Distribution of crops 69. The lines showing the depth of the sea
C. Showing urban areas bed are called:
D. Relief and drainage A. Isobars B. Isobaths
C. Contours D. Cliff
64. International projection is a modified from 70. The science of constructing maps and
of: charts, it includes the making of original
A. Cylindrical equal area projection survey. Selection of suitable map
B. Sinusoidal projection projections and decision of colours, layer
C. Polyconic projection and other visual representation is called:
D. Bonne's projection A. Cartography
65. Pie diagram is best example for B. Topography
representation of: C. Techniques of map constructing
A. Land use D. All of these
B. Distribution of population 71. Vellums are:
C. Spot heights A. Equipment used in measurement of
D. crop production an area
66. The ergograph shows the relationship B. Equipments used in surveying
between: C. Plastic media
A. temperature and rainfall D. Semi transparent papers to be used
B. temperature and rainfall for colour maps
C. climate and growing season of crops 72. The standard colour for forest is:
D. Wet bulb temperature and humidity A. Yellow B. Light green
C. Brown D. Dark green
67. Which one of the following statements
about x and y marked on the Isobaric 73. The standard colour for grass lands is:
sketch-map given below is correct? A. Dark brown B. Dark green
C. Light green D. Blue
74. The length of a Guntar chain is:
A. 76 feet B. 100 feet
C. 66 feet D. 56 feet
75. The standard colour for cultivated area
on the map is:
A. Brown B. Yellow
C. Light green D. Dark green
76. In order to adopt to metric system our 84. A diagram showing the frequency and
country uses chains of: direction of wind is known as:
A. 30 mts. and 15 mts. A. Wind vane
B. 20 mts. and 10 mts. B. Wind Rose
C. 30 mts. and 60 mts. C. Frequency diagram
B. 20 mts. and 40 mts. D. None of these
77. In the setting of a map, the north point 85. A narrow elevated tract of ground
should correspond to: separating water flowing in opposite
A. the North Pole directions is known as:
B. the magnetic north A. Lagoon B. Archipelago
C. the true north C. Watershed D. Landscape
D. none of these 86. Relief features on the topographic map
78. Wall maps are: can be shown by:
A. circles B. Hachures
A. small scale maps
C. Contours D. Layer colouring
B. large scale maps
C. large scale maps with inter polations 87. The amount of rainfall of a given place
D. small scale maps intended to convey over a fixed duration can be measured by
the main feature in bold manner A. Rain Rod B. Rain Rose
C. Rain Vane D. Rain Guage
79. Topographic maps are:
A. large-scale maps 88. Cadastral maps are
B. small-scale maps A. Topographical maps
C. intermediate between small scale and B. Large scale maps
C. Medium scale maps
large-scale maps
D. Small scale maps
D. none of the above
89. The instrument to measure area on a
80. Which among the following is a common
map is known as:
scale of topographic maps or topo sheets?
A. planimeter B. Opisometer
A. 1:62,500 B. 1:40,000
C. Bonnemeter D. Both A and B
C. 1:30,000 D. 1:20,000
90. The instrument to measure distance on
81. Drawing contours, with the help of spot a map is called:
height given on the map is known as: A. Planimeter B. Opisometer
A. Interpretation of contours C. Hygrometer D. Pantometer
B. Interpolation of contours
C. Intermission of contours 91. A drainage pattern can be shown on:
D. None of these A. Mercator projection
B. Cylindrical projection
82. Pantogrpah is used for: C. Azimuthal projection
A. reduction of maps only D. None of the above
B. enlargement of maps only
92. Which of the following is a characteristic
C. enlargement for reduction of maps with
of simple cylindrical projection?
accuracy
A. All parallels are equal to the equator
D. recording map’s direction and all meridians are half of the
83. Ranging Rod, isused in: equator in length
A. map making B. It is also known as Azimuthal
B. shading projection
C. measurement of an area C. It is also known as mercator
D. surveying projection
D. The pole is projected as an area of a C. Amount of Slope D. Direction of Slope
circle 97. Aerial photography is:
93. Parallels and meridians are spaced at A. Two dimensional optical model of the
equal intervals is a characteristic of: terrain
A. Parallel projection B. One dimensional optical model of the
B. Mercator projection terrain
C. Azimuthal projection C. Three dimensional optical model of the
D. Simple cylindrical projection terrain
94. Azimuthal projections are: D. All of these
A. Mercator projection 98. Automatic recording of pressure can be
B. False bearing projection done by
C. True bearing projection A. Barometer
D. All of the above B. Pressometer
95. In flow maps the flow or movement of C. Hygrometer
people and commodities is represented by: D. None of the above
A. Ribands B. Suitable scale 99. Wind direction can be found out by:
C. Circles D. Contours A. Wind vane B. Hygrometer
96. Spacing of contour lines is supposed to C. Barometer D. Anemometer
indicate: 100. Ergograph was devised by:
A. Land use B. Settlement A. Geddes B. Kellaway
C. Mercator D. Rait
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B A A C B D B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B D A B D A B A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A A D C B A A D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C C D C D D A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B C D C C C C C C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B B B B D D B B C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C D A C A C D B B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D D C C B A C A C A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C D B C C D B A A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A D C A D C A D A
9 Biogeography
1. The factors which contribute to the 7. The black cotton soil contains:
greater amount of soil erosion or soil A. Small cell particles
impoverishment is: B. Compounds of iron and aluminium
A. Multiple cropping C. Barium salts
B. Monoculture D. Compound of iron and manganese
C. Overgrazing 8. Regosols are:
D. All of these A. Recently exposed rock surfaces
2. Leaching is the process by which: B. Site with excessive water supply
A. the lands are sprayed with fine ones C. Recent calcareous alluvium
B. course soil particles are broken into D. Earthy top soil
fine ones 9. Soil that is a mixture principally of
C. the soil fertility is lost Kaolin hydratedoxides and Quartz is
D. fertile soluble part of the soil is known as:
dissolved and carried away by water A. Oxisol B. Spodosol
3. Which soil contains maximum amount C. Vertisol D. Histosol
of organic matter?
10. Soils found under cold climates which
A. Laterite B. Mountain
inhibit bacterial action.
C. Podzol D. Chernozem
A. Terra Rosa B. Podzol
4. A soil type contains 50 to 70 percent sand C. Chernozem D. Regosols
and 10 to 20 percent caly is called:
11. Which of the following is an important
A. Sandy loam
soil of the equatorial region?
B. Clayey loam
A. Laterite B. Alluvial
C. Silty loam
C. Red soil D. Podzol
D. Red soil
12. A special type of soil which yields a char-
5. The property of some desert soils have
acteristic sticky mud when wet is:
been influenced primarily by high soil
A. Gumbo B. Chesnut
temperature as a dominant soil forming
C. Prairie D. Bog
factor, such soils are also known as:
A. Xeromorphic soil 13. The soils of peninsular India have been
B. Halomorphic soil formed by:
C. Thermogenic soil A. deposition of alluvium
D. None of these B. erosion and deposition
C. weathering and marginal displacement
6. Where evaporation is the dominant proc-
ess and where the sporadic rainfall has D. weathering and gradation
been in sufficient to reach the soluble 14. Texture of clayey soil is fine gained and
salts in the soils then it forms? the particles are have a diameter.
A. Podzols B. Alkaline A. 1 mm B. 2 mm
C. Acidic D. Laterite C. 1-3 mm D. 0.15-2 mm
123
15. Lateritic soil are found in: B. drainage system and age
A. Meghalaya B. Asom C. vegetation of that area
C. Kerala D. All of above D. Both A and C
16. With the increasing acidity of soil, the 24. What is the name given to a hard layer
water stability of the aggregates decreases of calcium and magnesium compounds
because of: found in the subsurface zone of the
A. Translocation calcimorphic soils?
B. Deflocculation A. A hard pan
C. Mineralisation of humid acids B. A concretion layer
D. Both B and C C. A peaty layer
17. The capacity of a soil to retain water D. A pebble horizon
depends on: 25. Fluviation is a process of:
A. Texture A. Accumulation of colloids
B. Structure B. Accumulation of hydroxides
C. Colour C. Accumulation of soluble minerals in
D. Horizon development lower soil layers
18. The A and B horizons together are re- D. Removal of soluble minerals from
ferred to as: upper soil layers
A. Top soil
26. Humus can be best defined as:
B. True soil
A. fully decomposed organic matter
C. Sub soil
B. leaves and twigs of plants
D. Top horizon
C. partly decomposed organic matter
19. Porosity is the greatest in: D. living organic matter
A. Shale B. Gravel
27. Texture of the soil implies:
C. Clay D. Sandstone
A. particle size
20. The ability of rock to allow liquids to B. arrangement of particles
enter is called: C. moisture content of soil
A. Aeration B. Permeability D. colour of the soil
C. Capillarity D. Solubility
28. Where is the Gulf of Mannar located?
21. Which of the following factors helps in
A. West of Gujarat
soil formation?
B. East of Tamil Nadu
A. Time factor
C. West of Kerala
B. Climatic factor
D. South of Kanyakumari
C. Topograhic of the region
D. All of these 29. The approximate pH value of an acidic
soil is:
22. A good soil is one which:
A. below 7 B. above 7
A. allow limited amount of water
B. allows to percolate the water slowly C. about 10 D. about 13
form it 30. Permeability of a soil is a function of its:
C. allow to pass water very quickly 1. porosity 2. structure
D. holds the whole water entering into 3. depth colour
it Codes:
23. The colour of the soil depends on: A. 1 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 3
A. composition C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2.
31. Leaching is a process of: C. Agpian, Spring tail
A. removal of organic matter D. None of the above
B. changes through organismic activity 39. Desalination that is carried out in arid
C. removal of debris by streams etc. regions basically means:
D. removal of soluble matter by A. removal of sodium by chemical means
percolating water B. flash distillation process
32. The process of podzolization occurs typi- C. Removal of salt from soil to make it
cally in: agriculturally productive
A. Tropical monsson regions D. Removal of salt from water tomake it
B. Chapparal region of a suitable quality for industrial and
C. Temperate deciduous forest domestic use
D. Coniferous forests 40. Which of the following is not a char-
33. pH of a soil indicates: cateristic of black soil or regur?
A. its fertility A. It is the most fertile soil
B. its maturity B. It is generally clayey and imperme-
C. its age able
D. its chemical reaction C. It lacks in phosphorous, nitrogen and
34. Alluvial soils form in areas of: organic matters
A. stream deposition D. Lime potash and iron are essential
B. high temperature and low humidity constituent of black soil
C. wind erosion and deposition 41. Khadar is the name given to the:
D. limestone regions A. swampy land of deltas
35. Which of the following term is used for B. black soil of trap region
artificially formed soil mass? C. lowland alluvial soil
A. Ped B. Clod D. upland alluvial soil
C. Concentration D. Pedon 42. Podzols refer to:
36. The smallest volume that can be called A. soils of coniferous forest
soil or smallest three dimensional soil B. soils found in dry regions
unit which can represent the nature and C. a very fertile river alluvium
arrangements of horizon is: D. soils with very fertile A-Horizon
A. Pedocals B. Pedon 43. The soils of the tropical rainy land are
C. Yeralfs D. Ustalfs known as:
37. Results when trubulent water causes soil A. Podzols
particles to seep or skip as they move B. Chernozem
downward C. Laterites
A. Vaultation/saltation D. Pedalfers
B. suspension 44. Identify the soil which occurs under
C. Surface creep decidiuous woodland or grassland in the
D. None of the above world’s humid area where there is some
38. Soil is inherently a multiphase system leaching and alluviation with some colour
consisting of a mineral phase called changes.
the.....plus a fluid phase called.....respec- A. Affisol B. Podzol
tively. C. Aridosol D. Oxisols
A. Mineral skeleton, Pore fluid 45. The soil which is characterised by a very
B. Pore fluid, Mineral skeleton high organic content in its upper horizon
and by its high degree of water loggin C. Contour bunding
occupied in cool humid climatic regions D. Basin Listing
is: E. Both A and C
A. Xeralfs B. Udalfs 54. The use of Ammonium Sulphate and
C. Histosols D. Alfisols Ammonium Nitrate:
46. In the tundra region the top soil is: A. decreases soil acidity
A. always frost free B. increasing soil acidity
B. free of frost for six months in the year C. remains same soil acidity
C. frost free for 3 months in the year D. none of these are correct
D. never gets frost free 55. The advantages of crop rotation are:
47. The improper use of land: 1. a varied range of crops is provided
A. renders land useless for ever 2. this type of system is quite cheap
B. pollutes the environment: 3. attacked by insects and fungi is
C. causes nutisance to the people minimized
D. increases cost of maintenance 4. weeds are kept down
48. As the water continues to carry away 5. many crops produce mineral residues
the top soil the productivity of land: at their root tips which may be harmful
A. Decreases to themselves but not to the other
B. Increases crops
C. Remains constant Codes:
D. Sometimes increased and on the other A. 1 and 2 are correct
decreases B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
49. The process of removal of ca++ (calcium C. 1, 3 4, and 5 are correct
ion) from the soil either by biological or D. All are correct
chemical mechanism is called the proc- 56. A region which has a long cold winter
ess of and a short-cool summer and whose sub-
A. Laterisation B. Nitrification soil are frozen for most of the year will
C. De calcification D. Rendzina have natural vegetation of:
51. Soil erosion is always enhanced when the A. Lichen and sedge
cleared area of land is on the steep slope. B. Sage bush and cacti
Thus soil erosion can be stopped by: C. Acacia and sal
A. Contour Ploughing D. Macquis and low scrub
B. Terracing 57. The temperate grasslands of the interior
C. Strip Cropping of Eurasia are called:
D. All of these A. Veldt B. Steppe
52. Which of the following methods help us C. Prairie D. Downs
conserve soil affected by overgrazing? 58. A forest whose broad-leafed evergreen
A. Scientific grazing trees grow to great heights and which
B. Strip cropping are testooned with parasitic plants and
C. Contour ploughing emphytes and beneath which the under
D. Bunding growth is verysparse is known as:
53. On slopy land, soil erosion is often mini- A. Equatorial forest
mised by which of the following methods? B. Temperate evergreen forest
A. Terracing C. Coniferous forest
B. Subsoiling D. Mediterranean forest
59. All of the following are essential to the 67. The semi-arid scrub vegetation mainly of
proper growth of green plants except. Acacia in Australia is called:
A. water A. Mulga B. Mallee
B. sunlight C. Chapparal D. Brigalow scrub
C. high humidity 68. The plant which tolerates and flourishes
D. high temperatures on acid soil is called:
60. Cork-oak is found in.....type of vege- A. Acidophile B. Hydrophile
tation: C. Crosere D. None of the above
A. Mediterranean B. Monsoon 69. The equatorial forests present problems
C. Tundra D. Desert in the exploitation:
61. The typical vegetation of the desert re- A. Trees are not found in pure stands
gion is: B. They have hardwood trees which are
A. thorny bushes and deep rooted plants not useful for the manufacture of paper
B. scattered trees with tall grasses and pulp
C. epiphytes and parasitic plants C. The dense impenetrable forest makes
D. none of these transport difficult
62. Treeless grassland are called: D. All the above reasons
A. Steppes B. Campos 70. Coniferous forests are evergreen because:
C. Lanos D. Savanna A. a large number of species in the forests
63. Arrange the following incorrect order shed their leaves at different times of
from high moisture to low moisture the year
region: B. precipitation is both in the form of
1. Grassland savanna rain and snow
2. Woodland savanna C. trees do not shed all their leaves
3. Scrub savanna together during a specific period of
4. Desert savanna time, but have a continuous process
Codes: of shedding leaves and getting new
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 1, 3, 4 ones
C. 4, 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 1, 4, 3 D. All of the above
64. A plant that grows only in a mountain- 71. A geographical area supporting a distinc-
ous environment is called: tive plant or animal life specially in for-
A. Orophytes C. Altiphyte est, grassland, savannah and desert is
B. Acrephyte D. None of these called:
A. Fragipan B. Frazil
65. The scruby vegetation type called mulga, C. Duripan D. Biochore
composed largely of spiny Acacia is found
in: 72. A plant which adopts alternative growth
A. Central Australia B. Chile pattern actingas xerosere in dry season
C. California D. All of these and hydrosere in wet season is known as:
A. Tropophytes B. Prteidophytes
66. A climbing vine like plant with a woody C. Halophytes D. Saprosere
stem that entwines itself around forest
trees in tropical rainforest and equato- 73. The slow replacement of one group of plant
rial rain forests and which is strong community in a particular vegetation
enough to be used as rope is called: zone by another group over lengthy period
A. Epiphytes B. Lianas of time because of climatic change is
C. Stiff plants D. All of the above called:
A. Clisere D. have short life cycle
B. Hydrosphere 80. Which of the following is not a charac-
C. Land pit teristic of Savanna region?
D. None of the above A. Animals use the same food at different
74. Phytoplankton, the food of the fishes flour- times
ish well in: B. Animals display remarkable
A. shallow water of the continental camouflage
shelves C. Animals are swift looted
B. deep water of continental slope D. It has large number of birds
C. bright sunrays 81. The large number of 1st order consum-
D. fresh water ers in the Savanna region is because of
75. Match the following developments in A. migration that takes periodically from
plant and their nutrients: deserts
(a) Strong roots and 1. Nitrates B. less number of carnivores
stems C. availability of easily digestible food
(b) Development of 2. Phosphates D. All of the above
green leaves
82. An equatorial forest may contain all of
(c) High yields 3. Potash
the following trees except:
Codes: A. Ebony B. Iron wood
(a) (b) (c) C. Baobab D. Green heart
A. 1 2 3
83. What type of vegetation occurs where the
B. 3 2 1
following conditions prevail?
C. 2 3 1
1. Podzol soils
D. 2 1 3
2. Annual temperature range 38°C
76. The floors of which biome is covered by 3. Annual precipitation about 300 mm
carpet of needless and leaf litter. which is fairly evently distributed
A. Taiga biome through the year.
B. Mediterranean biome A. Thorn scrub
C. Tropical monsoon biome B. Coniferous forest
D. Tropical rain forest biome C. Temperate grassland
77. Identify the organism from the following D. Monsoon forest
characteristic. It moves sideways not 84. Which of the following is associated with
straight, it is a reptile, it always looks a savanna climate?
for shade, this organism is: A. Shallow-rooted trees
A. Jack rabbit B. Kitfox B. Trees that grow throughout the year
C. Sidewinder D. Rattler C. Scrub
78. Most of the animals living the deserts. D. Dense evergreen forest
A. Escape drought 85. The buttress roots of the trees in the
B. Have nocturnal habits tropical rainforest is because:
C. Migrate seasonally A. the trees have to bear the mechanical
D. All of the above load of hard woods.
79. Ephermal plants are those plants that B. Buttresses help to provide eration to soils.
A. evade drought C. Some organism found in the bittresses
B. endure drought have symbiotic relationship.
C. practice aestivation D. The trees belong to graminae family.
86. Identify the creature from the following A. Dingo B. Wiper
facts. C. Fox D. Wolf
1. It is found in tropical rainforests. 93. Trees are not common in Tundra because
2. It is the longest snake of the world. A. the climatic conditions are too cold
3. It is non-poisonous. B. the wind velocity is very high
A. Anaconda B. Python C. Roots do not go deep enough
C. ASP D. Sidewinder D. All of the above
87. The limiting facts of the savanna biome 94. Trees in Tundra are found only:
is: A. along rivers
A. light. B. nutirents. B. near coniferous forests
C. shade. D. water. C. in association with lichens
88. Despite large number of animals the com- D. after summer thaw
petition for food is not very fierce because 95. The surface in the coniferous forest re-
of: gion is mostly covered by:
A. elaborate specialisation A. lichens, mosses, sedger and grasses
B. large number of termites B. small spiny, shrubs
C. recurrence of fire at various times C. stunted conical shaped trees
D. the gregarious habit of the animals D. All of the above
89. Identify the plant from the following char- 96. Most of the birds in the tundra region are:
acteristics. A. nocturnal
1. They evade drought B. hibernating birds
C. migratory
2. They developvigorously
D. camouflaging birds
3. Produce large number of fruits and
flowers during rain. These are: 97. The animals survive the harsh tundra
A. Xerophytes B. Perennials winter evironment because:
C. Ephermals D. Succulents A. sub cutaneous fat which acts as
insulator
90. Which of the following statements regard- B. hoer is raised to vertical position to
ing temperate grasslands is not true: trap air
A. Temperate grasslands are almost C. their metabolic rate increases
treeless D. All of the above
B. In the drier regions, the grasses are
98. Which of the following Indian state has
shorter, tougher and coarse
the largest forest area?
C. Most of the grasses die in autumn
A. Arunachal Pradesh
through the year B. Karnataka
D. Along water margins dense forests C. Jammu & Kashmir
consisting of Chapparals are found D. Madhya Pradesh
91. One of the features of the taiga biome 99. The secondary growth of forests consist-
that makes it prone to pests and diseases ing of short trees and dense undergrowth
is that: is called as—in Malaysia.
A. species diversity is low A. Belukar B. Masole
B. trees occur in pure stands C. Milpa D. Ladany
C. most species are deciduous
100. Quebracho will be found in:
D. leaves are trembling and deciduous A. Gulf of states of USA
92. The deer caribou and moose population B. Brazil
are subject to eruption. Their population C. S. E. China
is checked by: D. Argentina
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D D A A B D D D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D D D D A B A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B D A D A A C A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D D A B B A A C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C A C A C C A A C A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D A E D C A B A B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A A B A A B A A D C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D A A A C A C D A D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C C B C A A D A C D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A D D A C C D D A B
10 Asia
1. The largest producer of Rubber in the 10. The Trans-Iranian Railroad extends
world is: from:
A. Malaysia B. Indonesia A. Persian Gulf to Zagros mountains
C. Thailand D. Phillipines B. Persian Gulf to Caspian Sea
2. The biggest producer of ship in the world C. Persian Gulf to Elburz mountains
is: D. Persian Gulf to Mediterranean Sea
A. U.S.A. B. Germany 11. Shatt al Arab is:
C. China D. Japan A. a river formed by the junction of Tigris
3. Which one of the following countries is and Euphrates
most urbanised? B. Port on the Persian Gulf.
A. Bangladesh B. Bhutan C. Oil refining centre of Iraq.
C. India D. Pakistan D. Oil field in Iran.
4. The Mineral resource which has made 12. Which is the biggest oil refining centre
Middle East of vital importance of the in Iran?
world today is: A. Bushehr B. Shiraz
A. Coal B. Tin C. Abadan D. Dezful
C. Oil D. Silver
13. With which countries does Iraq have a
5. OPEC stands for:
common border on its south?
A. Oil Producing European Countries
B. Organisation of Petroleum Exporting A. Kuwait and Iran
Countries B. Syria and Jordan
C. Oil and Petroleum Explor ing C. Jordan and Saudi Arabia
Countries D. Saudi Arabia and Kuwait
D. Organisation of Pacific Exploring 14. Which country forms a small archipelago
Countries between the Quatar peninsula and Saudi
6. Grand Bank is a major producer of: Arabia?
A. Rice B. Marine fisheries A. Kuwait B. Bahrain
C. Iron-ore D. Tea C. Oman D. Yemen
7. The most important river of Afghanistan 15. Which countries border the Sea of Galilee?
is: A. Israel, Jordan and Syria
A. Helmand river B. Kabul river B. Israel. Jordan and Egypt
C. Indus river D. Darya river C. Lebanon, Syria and Israel
8. Which among the following is a land D. Lebanon, Jordan and Israel
locked country? 16. The famous island in the Arabian Sea
A. Iraq B. Turkey which is a part of Yemen is:
C. Afghanistan D. Greece A. Aden
9. The capital of Greek—Cyprus is: B. Socotra
A. Byzantine B. Acre C. Abdal Kuri
C. Nicosia D. Erosis D. Kuria Muria
131
17. Rub-al-Khali desert also called the Empty 26. Which valley lies between the Lebanon
Quarte is in: and Anti-Lebanon ranges?
A. Iran B. Iraq A. Damascus B. Horns
C. Syria D. Saudi Arabia C. Tripoli D. Bekka
18. .....is the largest exporter of natural gas 27. Jeddah is the port of which city?
in the world. A. Mecca B. Medina
A. Saudi Arabia B. Iraq C. Dahran D. Riyadh
C. Iran D. Egypt
28. Iraq’s most important rivers are:
19. The largest product passing through Suez A. Tigris and Litani
Canal is: B. Tigris and Euphrates
A. Wheat B. Petroleum C. Orontes and Euphrates
C. Coal D. Sugar D. Orontes and Tigris
20. Name the two straits that a ship has to 29. The strait of Hormuz separates:
pass through while going from the A. Oman and Iran
Mediterranean to the Black Sea. B. Bahrain and Quatar
A. Marmara and Aegean Sea C. U.A.E. and Oman
B. The Dardanelles and the Bosporous D. Iran and U.A.E.
C. Istanbul and Rhodes
D. Istanbul and Aegeans Sea 30. The largest single item by value in exports
of Israel is accounted for by:
21. Which sea separates European and Asian A. Gold B. Diamond
Turkey? C. Food grains D. Oil
A. Sea of Marmara
B. Mediterreanean Sea 31. Name the Peninsula which is a Gulf
C. Black Sea Nation?
D. Dead Sea A. Quatar B. Oman
C. Kuwait D. Bahrain
22. Which part of Egypt is in Asia?
A. Gaza B. Sinai Peninsula 32. Dead Sea is between:
C. Suez D. The Bitter Lakes A. Egypt and Sinai Peninsula
B. Sinai Peninsula and Jordan
23. Which of the statement is NOT true
C. Jordan and Saudi Arabia
about the people of Jordan?
D. Israel and Jordan
A. They have a religious tradition of
Christianity 33. Which among the following countries does
B. Culturally they are more like not have petroleum and natural gas
Americans resources?
C. They speak one of the related Indo- A. Libya B. Kuwait
European language C. Egypt D. Turkey
D. They are caucasoids 34. Tibesti Mountains are located in:
24. Chena cultivation is found in: A. Rub al khali. B. Gobi.
A. China B. Indonesia C. Sahara. D. Iranian desert.
C. Thailand D. Sri Lanka 35. Which of the following countries have
25. Mesopotamia is now known as: tropical Savannah climate?
A. Lebanon B. Saudi Arabia A. Sudan B. Ethiopia
C. Iran D. Iraq C. Somalia D. All the above
36. What is the name of pass that links the 45. What is the fourth island of Japan after
Northern Peninsula with the rests of Sri Shikoku, Hokkaido and Honshu?
Lanka? A. Kuriles B. Kyushu
A. Mannar Bridge C. Ryukyu D. Sakhalin
B. Mallaitivu 46. The manufacturing belt of Japan owes
C. Point Pedro Cause way its location chiefly to:
D. Elephant Pass A. abundant local supply of raw materials
37. The Mountain which is the most sacred B. availability of skilled labour
to people of all faiths in Sri Lanka is: C. accessibility to imports of raw materials
A. Adam’s Peak. B. Hutton. D. the large cities around the Inland Sea
C. Pidrutlagola D. Nuwara Eliya 47. After rubber which of the following crop
38. The major portions of population of Sri is the most important in Malaysia?
Lanka is made up of: A. Rice B. Wheat
A. Tamils C. Coconut D. Tea
B. Buddhist Sinhalese 48. Today Malayasia has become the home
C. Guerrilla of rubber, but it was originally brought
from:
D. Roman Catholics and Muslims
A. The Cango Basin B. Java
39. Ho Chi Minh city is also the name of:
C. Sri Lanka D. Amazon Basin
A. Manchuria
B. Saigon 49. On which island is Nagasaki located?
C. Hong Kong A. Kyushu B. Honshu
D. None of the above C. Okinawa D. Shikoku
40. Bhumipal Dam is in: 50. In Japan, the most densely populated
A. India. B. Myanmar areas are in the.....part.
C. Indonesia. D. Thailand. A. Eastern B. Western
C. Southern D. Both A and C
41. Shanxi and Shenxi regions are famous
for: 51. What is the familiar name of China’s
A. Coal deposits longest river?
A. Red River B. Yangtze-Kiang
B. Gold deposits
C. Yellow River D. Amur River
C. Petroleum deposits
D. Iron ore deposits 52. In China suitable climate, ideal conditions
for agriculture, good. Soils are the factors
42. The south east of the Tibetan plateau is
which have led to high concentration of
cut into ridge canyon country by the
population in:
upper courses of: A. North China Plain
A. Tsangpo B. Mekong B. Yangtse Basin
C. Yangtze Kiang D. All of these C. Sinkiang Basin
43. The first railway was build in Japan in D. All of these
A. 1842 B. 1872 53. The factor responsible for rich
C. 1895 D. 1902 agricultural lands in Java is:
44. The most important raw silk producing A. suitable climate which is neither too
regions of China is: hot nor too dry
A. Manchuria B. people concentrate on agriculture as
B. Shantung chief economic activity
C. North China Plain C. rich volcanic soil
D. Helong Jiang D. It is accessible from all directions
54. .....forms the border between Laos and Codes:
Thailand. A. All of these B. 1 and 2 only
A. Meham Chao Praya C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. Rajang 64. The Chinese civilization was born in the
C. Mekong valley of:
D. Red River A. Hwang Ho B. Sinkiang
55. The main religion of Myanmar is: C. Yangzte D. Wei Ho
A. Buddhism of Mahayana School. 65. Kalimantan and Sulawasi are separated
B. Buddhism of Hinayana School. by:
C. Jainism A. Sunda Strait B. Johore Strait
D. Confucism C. Makasar Strait D. Malacca Strait
56. The Mount Saramati Peak is in: 66. Which is the southernmost of the major
islands in the Philippines?
A. Thailand B. Myanmar
A. Mindanao B. Luzon
C. Indonesia D. Malaysia
C. Leyte D. Negros
57. .....are numerically dominant in China. 67. The largest island of Philippines is:
A. Manchus B. Han Chinese A. Luzon B. Visayan
C. Mongols D. Tibetan C. Mindanas D. Palawan & Sulu
58. .....is the leading iron and steel producing 68. What separates Sumatra and Malaysia?
centre of China. A. The Mergui Archipelago
A. Anshan B. Beijing B. The Gulf of Siam
C. Shenshi D. Shanghai C. The Java Sea
59. What is Mongolia’s great desert called? D. The Malacca Straits
A. Great Mongolian Desert 69. Which is known as the spice island?
B. Gobi Desert A. Sumatra B. Java
C. China Desert C. Malacca D. Sulawasi
D. Siberian Desert 70. Which island of Indonesia has the
60. Of which country is Ulan Bator the largest proportion of Hindus?
capital? A. Bali B. Sumatra
A. Indonesia B. Mongolia C. Java D. Kali Mantan
C. North Korea D. Laos 71. The strait of Johore separates:
A. Vietnam and Singapore
61. Lop Nor in China is famous for:
B. Laos and Singapore
A. Hydro-Electricity Project C. Borneo and Singapore
B. Nuclear Activity D. Malaya and Singapore
C. Silk Production
72. The strait of Malacca separates Malaya
D. Coal
from:
62. What is the chief agricultural activity of A. the island of Sumatra
Mongolia? B. the island of Java
A. Stock-raising B. Wheat-growing C. the island of Kalimantan
C. Horticulture D. Sheep-farming D. the island of Celebes
63. Which of the following deserts is/are in 73. Which of the following is/are the
China? aboriginals of Malaysia?
1. Takla Makan 2. Alashan 1. Ainu 2. Fula
3. Ordos 4. Shen-Chei 3. Sakai 4. Semang
Codes: C. Salween
A. only 1 and 3 B. only 2 and 3 D. Nanking
C. only 3 and 4 D. All of these 84. Which major river in Myanmar forms
74. The term “boat people” referred to the part of the boundary with Thailand?
migrants from: A. Sittang B. Salween
A. Vietnam to Thailand C. Chindwin D. Irrawaddy
B. Sri Lanka to India 85. In which country is phuket, a well known
C. Taiwan to Mainland China tourist resort located?
D. Vietnam to the U.S.A. A. Thailand B. Indonesia
75. Which is the most fertile island of Indo- C. Malaysia D. Cambodia
nesia? 86. The main railway junction of Myanmar
A. Kalimantan B. Sumatra is:
C. Java D. Bali A. Mandalay B. Rangoon
76. The Siwaliks stretch between...... C. India D. Moulmein
A. Indus and Sutlej 87. Rubber is grown chiefly in the area of:
B. Potwar Basin and Teesta A. Windward side of Arakan Yoma
C. Sutlej and Kali B. Central lowland
D. Sutlej and Teesta C. Shan plateau
77. The major contributor of Brunei’s export is: D. Tonnaserum
A. oil B. coconut 88. What is the main crop of Myanmar?
C. rice D. rubber A. Rice B. Rubber
78. The sole commercial crop of any impor- C. Oilseed D. Cotton
tance in Brunei is: 89. Where is Lashio and why is it significant?
A. coconut B. oil seed A. An oil town in Myanmar.
C. pineapple D. rubber B. A ruby mining centre in Myanmar.
79. Lake Tonle Sap is in: C. A rail terminus in Myanmar from
A. Thailand B. Malaysia which a World War II highway leads
C. Kampuchea D. Indonesia to China.
80. The mountain range in S.W. Kampuchea D. A major port on the Irrawaddy.
is: 90. Hiroshima-Kobe region of Japan is an
A. cardamom B. dangrek important region for:
C. elephant D. kampot A. Ship building
81. The ethnic minority of Thailand is: B. Large iron and steel factories
A. Chinese B. Christian C. Lumbering
C. Muslim D. None of these D. None of these
82. Island of Phuket in Thailand is famous 91. Which is the biggest city in central
for: Myanmar?
A. tin B. silver A. Pegu B. Prome
C. gold D. zinc C. Mandalay D. Myitkyina
83. The great alluvial lowland of Thailand is 92. The rivers Irrawaddy and Sitang are
drained by: separated by:
A. Menamchaopraya A. Arakan Yoma B. Peguyoma
B. Mekong C. Chin Hills D. Pidarutalayala
93. River Irrawady drains into the: 103. The urban population of the world is
A. Gulf of Martaban growing faster than its rural population.
B. Gulf of Tonkin This is mainly because of:
C. Gulf of Thailand A. high birth rate in towns
D. Celebes Sea B. rural-urban migration
94. Which of the following is correct about C. high death rate in rural areas
Myanmar? D. low death rate in towns
A. Mountain zone is in the west 104. Which of the following is the major tribe
B. The central part is a basin of Japan?
C. Eastern Myanmar is made up of a A. Fula B. Eskimo
highland plateau C. Ainu D. None of these
D. All of these 105. Which one is the most densely populated
95. On which island is George town? area of the world?
A. Penang B. Phuket A. Nile valley and delta
C. Langkawi D. Singapore B. East Asia
C. Southern Europe
96. .....is the land of Annamites.
D. Western Europe
A. Vietnam B. Thailand
C. Malaysia D. Myanmar 106. The East Asian population cluster
accounts for about ------------ of the total
97. With which country does laos have a world population.
common eastern border? A. 25 percent B. 30 percent
A. China B. Thailand C. 26 percent D. 10 percent
C. Cambodia D. Vietnam
107. Which country has a less than 1%
98. The only S. E. Asian country which does population growth rate?
not have a coastline? A. Iraq B. China
A. Myanmar B. Laos C. Pakistan D. Japan
C. Cambodia D. Thailand
108. A higher density of population is
99. Which is the northernmost of the major favourable to:
Indonesian islands? A. Capital formation
A. Sulawesi B. Java B. Agricultural growth
C. Sumatra D. Kalimantan C. Industrial growth
100. Mekha and Malekha are the source riv- D. Labour supply
ers of the river: 109. The higher density of agricultural
A. Chindwin B. Meham population is found in:
C. Perak D. Irrawaddy A. Java B. India
101. Which of the following is the major C. Philippines D. China
populated region in the world? 110. Oyster-fishing is practised in:
A. South Asia A. Peru and Chile B. North America
B. North-West Europe C. Japan D. China
C. East Asia 111. Fish farming in paddy fields is practised
D. All of these in:
102. Which of the following is the most densely A. China
populated country of the world? B. Africa
A. China B. India C. Peru & Brazil
C. Singapore D. Canada D. None of these
112. In which one of the following countries is Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Lake Balkhash situated? matched?
A. Iran B. Kazakhstan A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only
C. Afganistan D. Oman C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only
113. The most effective farming method for 119. Consider the following countries:
returning minerals to the soil is: 1. Brunei Darussalam
A. Contour ploughing 2. East Timor
B. Croprotation 3. Laos
C. Furrowing Which of the above is/are member/
D. None of these members of ASEAN?
114. Assertion (A): Water in fields for paddy A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
cultivation should not be stagnant. C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Reason (R): Soil aeration and nitrate 120. Which are amongst the following has the
formation are impeded in stagnant water largest livestock population in the world?
and this decreases yield. A. Brazil B. China
A. A and R are both correct but R does C. India D. USA
not explain A
121. Which one of the following cities is nearest
B. A and R are correct and R explains A
to the equator?
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. Both A and R are wrong A. Colombo B. Jakarta
C. Manila D. Singapore
115. Which one of the following is known as
the land of white elephants? 122. Which two countries follow China and
A. India B. China India in the decreasing order of their
C. Indonesia D. Thailand populations?
A. Brazil and USA
116. Which river is called the 'Yellow river'? B. USA and Indonesia
A. Ganga B. Mahanadi
C. Canada and Malaysia
C. Hwang Ho D. Damodar
D. Russia and Nigeria
117. Consider the following statements:
123. Among the following South Asian
1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur
Countries, which one has the highest level
along the western margins of continents
of urbanisation?
within the trade wind belt.
A. Sri Lanka B. Bangladesh
2. In India, the East Himalayan region
C. Pakistan D. Nepal
gets high rainfall from north-east
winds. 124. In which one of the following basins is
A. 1 only B. 2 only Taklamakan desert located?
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. Tarim basin B. Lopnor basin
C. Kerulin basin D. Red basin
118. Consider the following pairs:
Organisation Location of HQ 125. In which one of the following countries
1. Asian Development : Tokyo do the ethnic communities called Karen,
Bank Kachin and Chin live?
2. Asia-Pacific : Singapore A. Australia B. Indonesia
Economic Cooperation C. Myanmar D. Sri Lanka
3. Association of South : Bangkok 126. Among the following countries, which one
East Asian Nations has the highest total fertility rate?
A. India B. Pakistan 131. Which mediterranean island is considered
C. Nepal D. Bangladesh an independent Asian country?
127. In which one of the following countries is A. Malta B. Cyprus
C. Crete D. Rhodes
Barail Range located?
A. Afghanistan B. Sri Lanka 132. Good deposits of coal are rare in Middle-
C. Pakistan D. India East countries, which is found in
A. Afghanistan. B. Iran.
128. Which one of the following pairs is
C. Turkey. D. Saudi Arabia.
correctly matched?
A. Gulf of Martaban : Yangon 133. Armenian knot joins two mountain ranges:
B. Gulf of Tong King : Shanghai A. Taurus and Anti Taurus
B. Anti Taurus and Elburz
C. Gulf of Mannar : Trincomalee
C. Elburz and Zagros
D. Gulf of Aqaba : Cairo
D. Hindukush and Elburz
129. Consider the following pairs:
134. Khyber Pass connects:
1. Biwa Ko : Largest lake in Japan
A. Indian and Afghanistan
covering about 670 B. Afghanistan and Pakistan
km2. C. Pakistan and India
2. Sichuan Pendi : One of China's rice D. Iran and Afghanistan
producing areas.
135. The dry areas of Afghanistan are being
Which of the pairs given above is/are
recalimed are resettled by providing
correctly matched?
irrigation water from the irrigation and
A. 1 only B. 2 only
power projects of:
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. Darya river. B. Helmand river.
130. Among the following South Asian C. Kabul river. D. Indus river.
Countries, in which one is the Maternal 136. Which country connects Russia with
Mortality Rate lowest? India ?
A. Nepal B. India A. Pakistan B. Tibet
C. Bangladesh D. Pakistan C. Afghanistan D. None of them
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D C B B B C C B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C C B A B D C B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B B D D D A B A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D D C D D A B B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D A B B C A D A C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B C C A B B A B B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B A C D C A A D C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D A C A C B A D C C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A A B A A D A C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B A D A A D B C D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C C B C B A D D A C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A B B B D C A B C C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D B C A C B D A C A
131 132 133 134 135 136
B C B B B C
11 China
1. China is the largest producer in the world A. Canton B. Nanking

of: C. Sanghai D. Sichuan
A. Tinned fish B. Salted fish 9. More than half of the total silk produc-
C. Frozen fish D. All of the above tion in China comes from the:
2. In China, sheep are kept on extensive A. Yangtize and Sikiang deltas
farms in: B. Wang Ho delta
A. the western province of sinkiang C. Sikiang delta only
B. the inner Mongolia D. from the Yangtize delta only
C. Both A and B 10. China is the leading producer of.....in the
D. None of the above world.
3. Hwang Ho Basin is the famous for the A. Rice and Wheat
production of: B. Maize, Potato
A. Sugar cane C. Soyabeans and Oats
B. Rice D. Pulses, vegetables
C. Wheat 11. Agriculture in China is:
D. Maize A. extensive
4. A part from canton the other silk produc- B. intensive
ing centres of China is/are: C. primitive
A. Central and southern China D. None of the above
B. Shandong peninsula 12. More than 75% of Chinese population is
C. Northern China engaged in agriculture but only.....of the
D. Both A and B total land of China is suitable for cultiva-
5. China Tea is sometimes called as: tion.
A. Black tea B. Green tea A. 15% B. 20%
C. Brown tea D. None of these C. 30% D. 40%
6. China ranks.....in the world production 13. China has a:
of maize. A. Continental climate
A. First B. Second B. Mediterranean climate
C. Third D. Fourth C. Tropical Monsoon Climate
D. Modified form of Monsoon climate
7. Highest density of population in China is
found in: 14. Summer rainfall in China is mainly
caused by:
A. Sikiang Valley
A. the south-west monsoon
B. Yangtize Kiang Valley B. the south-east monsoon
C. Hwang Ho Valley C. the north-east monsoon
D. None of these D. the north-west monsoon
8. The biggest cotton textile centre of China 15. The Sikiang China third great river flows
is located in: through the:
140
A. Great Northern Plain of China C. barren desert in the north—west
B. Central part of the China China
C. Southern part of China D. none of the above
D. None of the above 21. The Tien Shan mountain range is located
16. The Hwang Ho river drains into: in the:\
A. Yellow sea A. Central Plain
B. The bay of Bengal B. Northern China
C. The Gulf of Mannar C. North-west China
D. None of the above D. Southern China
17. The Yangtize Kiang flows: 22. The Gobi is a famous desert of China,
A. from east to west located in:
B. from west to east A. the interior
C. from north to south B. the extreme south
D. from south to north C. the extreme north
18. The Yangtize Kiang is: D. the extreme west
A. China’s most important river
23. The river often called yellow river:
B. the longest river in Asia
A. the Hwang Ho
C. the longest river in China
B. the Sikiang
D. all of the above
C. the Yangtize
19. The Hwang Ho is often called the yellow D. none of these
river because:
A. it carries huge amount of yellow silt 24. The roof of the world is name given to:
B. the colour of the bed on which the A. Leh
river flows is yellow B. Pamir
C. of the skin colour of the people in C. Tienshan
habiting on the bank D. None of these
D. none of the above 25. The Nan Shan mountain range is located
20. Takla makan is a: in China in the:
A. mountain range in the south China A. North B. South
B. mountain range in the north China C. East D. West
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C C D B B C C A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A D B C A B D A C
21 22 23 24 25
C A A B A
12 Europe
1. The largest city of Europe is: 11. Which of the following countries is well
A. Paris B. Belgium known for its Linen (manufactured from
C. London D. Vienna flax)?
2. Manchester is known for: A. France B. Iceland
C. Belgium D. Ireland
A. Silk Industry B. Woolen Textile
C. Cotton Textile D. None of these 12. The country which has its one-third part
in the north of the arctic circle is:
3. Which of the following ports is not situ-
A. Norway B. Sweden
ated at pacific coast?
C. Spain D. Belgium
A. Vancouver B. Los Angeles
C. San Francisco D. Miami 13. Assertion (A): In spite of complete ab-
sence of any sunlight for two and a half
4. Which of the following airports is not months, Norway does not experience se-
situated at New York-Tokyo air route? vere Arctic winters.
A. London B. Paris
Reason (R): Norway current (a branch
C. Rome D. Panama
of the north Atlantic drift) influences the
5. The busy port of Rotterdam is situated climate of Norway.
in: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. The NetherlandsB. Belgium correct explanation of A
C. Denmark D. Germany B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
6. The highest peak in the British Isles is: correct explanation of A
A. Ben Nevis B. Mt. Blank C. A is true but R is false
C. Mt. Elbrus D. Apennine D. A is false but R is true
7. The river Thames rises in the: 14. Kirkenes iron-field is situated in:
A. Cumbrian hills B. Catswold hill A. Belgium B. Norway
C. Cheviot hills D. Ben Nevis C. Finland D. Iceland
8. Beef cattle like the Aberdeen, Angus and 15. Which of the following places/cities has
the distinction of being the most north-
Here fords are reared in:
erly city in the world?
A. U.K. B. Portugal
A. Hammerfest B. Oslo
C. Norway D. Belgium
C. Stockholm D. Helsinki
9. Which one of the following is the largest
16. Which of the following physiographic
oil field of U.K.?
divisions is regarded as the garden of
A. Forties B. Brent Sweden?
C. Piper D. Thistle A. Berglagen B. Svealand
10. Wedgwood Chinaware is produced by: C. Norrland D. Gotaland
A. France B. U.K. 17. Which of the following cities is often called
C. Italy D. Spain the venice of the north?
142
A. Stockholm B. Oslo 27. The compine is a low Sandy and marshy
C. Helsinki D. Lisbon region which has been reclaimed from
18. In which of the following countries the the Sea by:
shortness of the summer is compensated A. Portugal B. Belgium
by length of the days as the sun shines C. Spain D. Italy
for 18 or 19 hours during the day? 28. The national flower of Netherlands is:
A. Portugal B. Finland A. Lotus B. Sun-flower
C. Spain D. Germany C. Rose D. Tulip
19. Sauna baths (dry heat baths) are charac- 29. The wine lacrimae Christi (the tears of
teristics of: Christi) is manufactured by small grapes
A. Belgium B. Finland cultivated on the volcanic soil of the slopes
C. Austria D. Poland of the Mt. Vesuvius in:
20. Zea Land is an island situated on the A. Milan B. Rome
east coast of: C. Helsinki D. Paris
A. Russia B. Netherlands 30. The rail tunnels such, as St. Gothard
C. Denmark D. Belgium and simplon, and road tunnels such as
St. Bernard have been constructed to over-
21. Which of the following countries consists
come the mountain barrier in:
of dry infertile plateau, the meseta?
A. Switzerland B. Greece
A. Spain B. Denmark
C. Austria D. Portugal
C. Greece D. Italy
31. As polder is to Netherlands, so is
22. Sherry, a world famous wine, is manu-
marschen to:
factured in:
A. Germany B. Switzerland
A. Portugal B. Iceland
C. Poland D. Italy
C. Denmark D. Spain
32. The Rhine Westpharia region is regarded
23. Which of the following cities was formely
as the heart of Germany because of its:
spoken of as “an enormous lion crouched
A. sheep rearing farms
between the Atlantic and the mediterra-
B. pairy products
nean”?
C. wheat cultivation
A. Barcelona B. Helsinki
D. Industries
C. Gibralter D. Madrid
33. The internationally famous Dresden
24. Port is the famous wine of:
Chinaware is a product of:
A. Portugal B. Spain
A. Germany B. Poland
C. Germany D. Austria
C. Russia D. Hungary
25. Reds, Roses and Whites are the premium 34. The world famous Ikrus trucks and buses
quality wines, manufactured by: are manufactured by:
A. Netherland B. France A. Italy B. Hungary
C. Germany D. Italy C. Czech D. Slovak
26. Which of the following is main coal field 35. Corinth Canal is situated in:
of France that supplies 50% of its total A. Greece B. France
coal production? C. Germany D. Poland
A. The Lorraine 36. The ancient temple, parthenon is situated
B. The Nord in:
C. The Lower Rhone Valley A. Greece B. Italy
D. The Lacq C. Germany D. Switzerland
37. The Romanian firs growing on the high C. A is true but R is false
mountain slopes provide wood which is D. A is false but R is true
prized for the manufacture of: 44. Which of the following European
A. cricket bats countries has the honour of having the
B. musical instrument highest tractor density in the world?
C. riffle parts A. U.K. B. Portugal
D. railway carriage C. Norway D. Belgium
38. The oil fields such as craiova and ploesti 45. Convent Garden in.....is the best known
are situated in: fresh vegetable market in Britain.
A. Romania B. Bulgaria A. Glasgow B. Liverpool
C. Hungary D. Germany C. London D. Belfast
39. Romania is self-sufficient practically in 46. Which of the following is correctly
all industrial minerals except: matched?
A. iron B. coal 1. Ford — Dagenham
C. petroleum D. natural gas 2. Morris — Oxford
40. Which of the following cities has the 3. Rolls-Royce — Derby
magnificent harbour known as Golden Codes:
Horn? A. only 1 B. 1 and 2
A. Gib ralter B. Lisbon C. 2 and 3 D. All of these
C. Constanta D. Istambul 47. Cut a glassware and Beleck Chinaware
41. To the east, which of the following ranges are the two specialized industries of:
separates Europe from Asia? A. Iceland B. Ireland
A. Vesuvius range B. Ural range C. Spain D. Germany
C. Etna range D. Elbrus range 48. The largest glacier of Europe, Jos
42. Assertion (A): The mediterranean lands tedalsbre is situated in:
of Europe fall under the influence of the A. Finland B. Norway
dry trade winds in summer. C. Sweden D. Iceland
Reason (R): The Doldrums move the 49. Which of the following places/cities calls
north towards the tropic of cancer with itself the herriny capital of the world?
the migrating overhead sun. A. Alesund B. Trondheim
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Bergen D. Trosmo
correct explanation of A 50. Which of the following physiographic
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the divisions is regarded as the garden of
correct explanation of A Sweden?
C. A is true but R is false A. Skane B. Svealand
D. A is false but R is true C. Norrland D. Berglagen
43. Assertion (A): The three hot regions of 51. Which of the following cities on the Gulf
the world—equatorial forests, savannah of Bothopia is often called the Gateway to
lands and hot deserts are not found any the west?
where within the borders of Europe. A. Tampere B. Tapiola
Reason (R): Europe is situated entirely C. Turku D. Helsinki
outside the tropics. 52. Which of the following is the only country
A. Both A and R are true and R is the which has no army, no navy and has
correct explanation of A never fought a war?
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the A. Iceland B. Denmark
correct explanation of A C. Netherlands D. Spain
53. La Mancha (the thirsty land) is situated 61. Which of the following can be regarded
in: as the best known industry of Switzer-
A. Denmark B. Russia land?
C. Portugal D. Spain A. Sugar industry
54. Bull ring is the national sport of: B. Leather industry
A. Austria B. Denmark C. Watch and clock industry
C. Spain D. Italy D. Beverage industry
55. Assertion (A): France, Belgium and 62. Assertion (A): The Erzgebirge range
Netherlands come with the influence of (Germany) on the borders of czech and
the south-westerlies in all seasons. Slovak is known as the ore mountain.
Reason (R): These three countries lie Reason (R): Variety of minerals are
between 43°N and 53°N. found in the Erzgebirge range.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
56. Brittany in France is famous for the cul-
63. The source of river Danube is:
tivation of:
A. Black Forest mountain
A. wheat B. barley
B. Harz mountain
C. sugarcane D. sugarbeet
C. Bavarian Alps
57. Which of the following countries has no D. Zugspiyze peak
rival in the production of top quality
wines? 64. Emsland, situated in the north-west of
A. France B. Germany Germany, is famous for its:
C. Russia D. Denmark A. coalfield B. iron field
C. copper field D. oil field
58. Which of the following countries has
given the lead by the construction of the 65. Assertion (A): The little plain area
first tidal power station of the world? around the Gyor region is the richest ag-
A. France B. Russia ricultural region of Hungary.
C. Germany D. U.K. Reason (R): The little plain is favoured
by the equable climate and fertile alluvial
59. Which of the following options correctly
soil.
explains the terms polder?
A. It is a land which has been reclaimed
from the sea correct explanation of A
B. It is the place where rivers meet the B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
Sea or Ocean correct explanation of A
C. It is a warm water current of Indian C. A is true but R is false
Ocean D. A is false but R is true
D. It is an instrument which measures 66. Grete and Rhodes are the largest inhab-
the depth of ocean ited islands scattered on the blue waters of
60. Most of the people of Europe belong to: the Aegean Sea under the sovereignty of
A. Mongoloid B. Dinaric A. Hungary B. France
C. Caucasoid D. Alpnoid C. Greece D. Italy
67. Assertion (A): The soil of Greece is 74. Match List I with List II and select the
mostly infertile. correct answer using the code given be-
Reason (R): Physical feature of Greece low the lists:
is mountainous. List I List II
A. Both A and R are true and R is the (Fruit) (Area)
correct explanation of A (a) Apples 1. Aquitaine
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the (b) Plums 2. Provence
correct explanation of A (c) Peaches 3. Rhone valley
C. A is true but R is false (d) Mediterranean 4. Brittany
fruits
68. As wine is to France, so is at far of
Codes:
roses to:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Austria B. Romania
A. 4 1 3 2
C. England D. Bulgaria
B. 1 4 2 3
69. Which of the following countries is C. 3 2 4 1
second only to Russia both as a producer D. 2 3 1 4
and as an exporter of oil and natural
gas? 75. Which of the following areas in France is
A. Bulgaria B. Romania noted for having enormous quantity of
C. Germany D. France natural Gas?
A. The Lower Rhone Valley
70. The plain of trace is the best cultivated
region of: B. The Lorraine
A. Hungary B. Romania C. The Nord
C. Albania D. Turkey D. The Lacq
71. The valley of the fallen, a sad memorial 76. The boundary between Germany and
is situated in: Poland is called the:
A. Barcelona B. Avila A. Hindenburg line B. Maginot line
C. Gibralter D. Madrid C. Durand line D. 17th paralled
72. Assertion (A): Portugal has an abun- 77. Palders are charcteristics of:
dance of trees and plants of both the A. Netherlands B. Russia
northern and the southern European C. U.K. D. Bulgaria
varieties. 78. The people of which of the following coun-
Reason (R): The climate of portugal is tries were once called Angles of the mud
influenced by both the Atlantic Ocean and due to their determination to save the
the mediterranean sea.
precious documents and works of art
which were completely covered by water,
mud and oil as a result of flood caused by
the river?
C. A is true but R is false A. Italy B. France
D. A is false but R is true C. Spain D. Austria
73. The Paris Basin and flanders in France 79. Which of the following rivers separates
are well-known for the cultivation of: Germany from Poland?
A. sorghum B. sugarcane A. The Oder B. The Danube
C. sugarbeet D. wheat C. The Elb D. The Rhine
80. In which of the following countries mili- A. The Rhine B. The Elb
tary training at regular periods is essen- C. The Oder D. The Danube
tial for all men between 20 and 50 years? 90. The shaded area in the map of Germany
A. Switzerland B. France represents:
C. Belgium D. Austria
81. Which of the following European coun-
tries is a land locked country?
A. Hungary B. Portugal
C. Netherlands D. Norway
82. Which of the following capital cities is
noted for its thermal springs?
A. Budapest B. Lisban
C. London D. Paris
83. Pindus mountain range lies in
A. Poland. B. Germany.
A. Potash B. Coal
C. France. D. Greece.
C. Manganese D. Iron
84. Assertion (A): The soil of Greece is
91. In the following map the X mark
mostly infertile.
represents
Reason (R): Physical feature of Greece
is mountainous. English Channel
85. The most important industry of Greece is:
A. fishing Bay
B. wine manufacturing of
Biscay
C. ship building
D. sheep rearing
MEDITERRANEAN
86. Transylvanian Plateau is situated in: SEA
A. Hungary B. Romania
C. Bulgaria D. Iceland A. Pyrenees mountains
87. Which of the following is the highly B. Cantabarian mountains
industrial region of Europe? C. Pennine mountains
A. Ruhr B. Rhine D. Central Massif
C. Lorraine D. None of these 92. The island of Sardinia belongs to which
country?
88. Tirana is the capital of
A. Italy B. France
A. Albania B. Turkey C. Spain D. Malta
C. Romania D. Bulgaria
93. France has great mountain ranges on its
89. Which of the following river separates south and east. Name these ranges on
Germany from Poland? map as marked a, b, c, d.
1. Vosages mountain 95. In the following map the shaded areas
2. Jura mountain are places that are:
3. Pyrenees mountain
4. Alps mountain
l
nne
Cha
lish
Eng
b
c A. unsuited to vegetation growth

B. zone of mixed farming
Bay C. zone of intensive cultivation
of d D. mixed coniferous forests
Biscay
96. Name the mountain range marked X in
the map.
a
MEDITERRANEAN
SEA
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 3 1 2 4
B. 1 2 3 4
C. 2 3 2 4
D. 4 1 2 3
94. In the given map name the rivers A. Alps mountains
marked as a, b, c, d respectively are: B. pennine mountains
1. Ebro 2. Douro C. Carpathian mountains
3. Tagus 4. Guadina D. Kjolan mountains
97. In the following map the X mark
represent:
Bay of
Biscay
b
a
c
d
MEDITERRANEAN
SEA
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Rhone B. Rhine
A. 1 2 3 4
C. Danube D. Seine
B. 2 1 3 4 98. Which is the resort city/town of France?
C. 1 4 2 3 A. Nice B. Life
D. 3 2 1 4 C. Marscilles D. Monaco
99. France’s main mediterranean naval base Reason (R): Europe is composed of
is: several important peninsulas.
A. Lyons B. Nice A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Toulon D. Marscilles correct explanation of A
100. Britanny is a part of which country?
A. France B. Belgium
C. Britain D. Ireland correct explanation of A
101. The largest inland water body in Europe C. A is true but R is false
is: D. A is false but R is true
A. Lake Leman B. Arab Sea 107. Europe is located between:
C. Caspian D. Lake Constance A. 18° to 30°N latitude
102. Balearic islands are located in the:
A. Arctic Ocean B. 20° to 45°N latitude
B. Adriatic Sea C. 35° and 70°N latitude
C. Atlantic Ocean D. 45° to 80°N latitude
D. Arctic Ocean 108. Which country is experiencing practically
E. Mediterranean Sea. no growth in its population?
103. Another island besides Malta, which
A. Switzerland
froms the maltese state is:
A. Gozo B. Corsica B. Italy
C. Sardinia D. Sicily C. U.K.
104. Portugal is drained by river: D. None of these
A. Gaudalquiver B. Ebro 109. Europe has only.....of the land surface of
C. Tagus D. All the above
the earth
105. Which country does not share a boundary
with Germany? A. 3% B. 7%
A. Poland C. 11% D. 15%
B. Hungary 110. Which of the following mountain range
C. Luxembourgh in Europe has the fame of having the
D. Switzerland loftiest peak, MFEL brus?
106. Assertion (A): The continent of Europe
A. Caucasus B. Ural
can be described as a peninsula of
Peninsulas. C. Balkan D. Pyrene
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D D A A B A A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A A B A A A B B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D C A B B B D A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D A B A A B A A D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B A A A C D B B A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C A D C A D A A A C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A A D A C A D B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D A D A D A A A A A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A D A C B A A C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D A A A C C B A C A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C E A C B A C A B A
13 Africa
1. The second largest producer of diamond Reason (R): The climate of central
in the World is: Africa is of mediterranean type
A. Zaire (now Congo) A. Both A and R are true and R is the
B. Botswana correct explanation of A
C. Namibia B. Both A and R are true but R is not
D. Ethiopia the correct explanation of A
2. Kimberlay mine in South Africa is the C. A is true but R is false
World largest mine of: D. A is false but R is true
A. Gold B. Silver
C. Diamond D. Pearl 9. Which of the following diseases has
traditionally limited the keeping of
3. Bushman is associated with:
Livestock in many parts of Africa?
A. Kalahari desert
A. Cattle fever B. Anthrax
B. Congo basin
C. Himalaya Mountains C. Nagana D. Rinderpest
D. Malwa Plateau 10. Which of the following African countries
4. Which of the following breeds of sheep produces about half (51%) of the world’s
has put south Africa on the top (second) cobalt production?
of the world in the production of high- A. Congo B. South Africa
quality wool? C. Sudan D. Zambia
A. Merino B. Swaledale 11. Match List I with List II and select the
C. Lincoln D. Leicester
5. Which of the following countries in the lists:
Africa leads in the production of palm oil List I List II
and palm kernels? (Sobriquet) (Metal)
A. Mali B. Chad
(a) Metal of hope 1. Copper
C. Mauritania D. Nigeria
(b) Versatile metal 2. Chromium
6. Which of the following regions in Africa (c) Conductivity Metal 3. Nickel
has been devoted to cocoa cultivation? (d) Stainless metal 4. Uranium
A. Gulf of Guinea
B. Plateau of Ethiopia Codes:
C. The valley of Zambezi (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. The valley of orange A. 1 2 3 4
7. The water of which of the following lakes B. 2 1 4 3
has been used for irrigation as well as C. 3 4 2 1
generating hydro-electricity in Egypt? D. 4 3 1 2
A. Lake Rudolf B. Lake Victoria 12. Assertion (A): Though Egypt accounts
C. Lake Nyasa D. Lake Nassar for only 3% of the world’s raw cotton
8. Assertion (A): Major part of central production, its importance in the world
Africa is thickly afforested. trade is greater than this figure suggests.
151
Reason (R): Egyptian cotton is of Long B. Namibia and Botswana
Staple type which is used for the C. Zaire and Zambia
manufacture of high quality textiles and D. Morocco and Mauritania
cotton thread for sewing. 19. Which one is the most important copper
A. Both A and R are true and R is the mines of Zaire (Africa)?
correct explanation of A A. Witwatersrand B. Kimberley
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the C. Katanga region D. Johansburg
correct explanation of A 20. The major producers of Rubber in Africa
C. A is true but R is false are:
D. A is false but R is true A. Namibia, Zambia and Zimbabwe
13. Assertion (A): Cape province in South B. Algeria, Libya and Egypt
Africa is the only area in Africa where C. Somalia, Ethiopia and Sudan
viticulture is practised. D. Liberia, Nigeria and Ivory Coast
Reason (R): Mediterranean type of 21. Which of the following countries of
climate in Africa is found only in cape Africa is known all over the world for its
province pyramids and the sphinx?
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. Kenya B. Algeria
correct explanation of A C. Morocco D. Egypt
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 22. Which of the following is the largest
correct explanation of A desert of the world?
C. A is true but R is false A. The Atacama B. The Gobi
D. A is false but R is true C. The Sahara D. The Kalahari
14. Which of the following African countries 23. Assertion (A): High quality temperature
is a major producer of tea? cattle breeds cannot be kept usually in
A. Ethiopia B. Kenya tropical regions of Africa.
C. Egypt D. Morocco Reason (R): Temperate cattle breeds do
15. As Nile Valley is to Egypt, so is orange not posses resistance to certain tropical
valley to:
diseases.
A. Libya. B. Nigeria.
C. South Africa. D. Sudan.
16. Assertion (A): In June-July it is
summer in the north and winter in the
south of Africa while in December-
January case is reversed.
Reason (R): The continent of Africa lies
24. Hassi R’mel one of the largest natural
on either side of the Equator.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the gas fields of the world is situated in:
correct explanation of A A. Nigeria B. Libya
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the C. Algeria D. Somalia
correct explanation of A 25. Which of the following African cities has
C. A is true but R is false the distinction of being the largest gold
D. A is false but R is true mining centre in the world?
17. The largest producer of diamond in Africa A. Lagos B. Dodoma
is: C. Khartoum D. Johannesburg
A. Zaire B. Namibia 26. Which of the following countries is
C. South Africa D. Botswana traditionally known as the gift of the Nile?
18. Copper Belt of Katanga lies in: A. Egypt B. Zaire
A. Ethiopia and Somalia C. Somalia D. Sudan
27. Match List I with List II and select the 33. Which of the following African countries
correct answer using the code given below was formely known as Bechuanaland?
the lists: A. Namibia B. Angola
List I List II C. Botswana D. Ethiopia
(Lakes) (Countries) 34. Match List I with List II and select the
(a) Rudolf 1. Mozambique correct answer using the code given below
(b) Kiogo 2. Zimbabwe the lists:
(c) Kariba 3. Kenya List I List II
(d) Cobora Bassa 4. Uganda (a) Abyssinia 1. Grambia
(b) Moanda Manganese 2. Mozambique
Codes: deposit
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) The smallest 3. Ethiopia
A. 4 2 1 3 African country
B. 3 4 2 1 (d) Bantutribe 4. Gabon
C. 2 1 3 4 Codes:
D. 1 3 4 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
28. Assertion (A): Much of the central and A. 3 2 1 4
southern Africa is poor in oil. B. 1 2 3 4
Reason (R): Central and southern Africa C. 4 3 2 1
consist of ancient crystalline rocks? D. 3 4 1 2
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 35. Where in Africa would you find Mahgreb?
correct explanation of A A. Moorish Africa, Morocco, Algeria and
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the Tunisia
correct explanation of A B. Along the mediterranean coast of
C. A is true but R is false Africa
D. A is false but R is true C. In the Nile valley
29. Which of the following African countries D. Libya and Egypt
is the largest producer of Vanadium, 36. Which of the following lake is situated in
which is used as a scavenging agent Ghana?
(removing non-metallic impurities) in A. Lake Victoria
making steel, in the world. B. Lake Malawi
A. South Africa B. Zaire C. Lake Volta
C. Morocco D. Zambia D. Lake Tanganyika
30. Dohra, Beda and Zelten oil fields are 37. In cape province which crop is the most
important?
situated in:
A. Sugarcane B. Banana
A. Libya. B. Zaire
C. Grapes D. Pinapples
C. Tanzania D. Botswana 38. Witwatersrand is famous for:
31. Which of the following waterfall is A. uranium B. coal
situated in South Africa? C. diamond D. gold
A. Gavarnie B. Tugela 39. Diamond in the South Africa is mined at:
C. Guaria D. Khon A. Transvaal B. Cape province
32. Which of the following is the highest C. Namibia D. All of them
mountain in Africa? 40. Swahili is a:
A. Kilimanjaro A. Mountain in the west Africa
B. Drakensberg B. Kind of African food
C. Atlas C. Tribe of the west Africa
D. Ruwenzori D. Bantu Language
41. Owen falls dam is on river: A. Gold B. Diamond
A. Nile C. Uranium D. Niobium
B. Orange 53. East African Highlands have which type
C. Congo of soil?
D. Niger A. Desert soil B. Volcanic soil
42. The highest mountain of Africa is: C. Laterite soil D. Alluvial soil
A. Mt. Kilimanjaro 54. Another name applied especially to the
B. Mt. Ngorogoro crater steppe portions of Africa is:
C. Mt. Ruwenzori A. Sahel B. Savannah
D. Mt. Kirinyaga C. Inga D. Welwitschia
43. Where is the Nubian desert located? 55. The largest single potential source of hydro
A. Egypt B. Sudan electricity in Africa is the stretch of rapids
C. Nigeria D. Ethiopia on:
44. The Shaba region is world’s largest A. Congo river B. Niger river
producer of: C. Nile river D. Zambezi river
A. Diamond B. Copper
C. Cobalt D. Silver 56. With which river do you associate the
45. Pagalu is linked with which west African colours blue and white?
country? A. Nile B. Zaire
A. Equatorial Guinea C. Zambezi D. Orange
B. Cameroon 57. Which of the following rivers do not make
C. Gabon a delta?
D. Congo A. Zambezi B. Niger
46. Which is the largest lake in the west C. Limpopo D. Nile
Africa? 58. The largest lake in Africa is:
A. Lake Faguibire B. Lake Kainji A. Lake Victoria
C. Lake Volta D. Cameroon Lake B. Lake Tanganyika
47. The western most major city in Africa is C. Lake Chad
A. Dakar B. Banjul D. Lake Malawi
C. Nouakchott D. Casablanca 59. In the middle of which country is
48. What is Nigeria’s main export? Timbuktu (Tomboctou)?
A. Oil B. Gold A. Niger B. Mauritania
C. Iron ore D. Diamond C. Algeria D. Mali
49. On which river delta is port Harcourt 60. Uganda is surrounded by 5 countries
located? which of the following is one of them?
A. Niger B. Zaire A. Kenya B. Somalia
C. Orange D. Mali C. Ethiopia D. Burundi
50. The coast of which country is called the 61. The earliest visitors to sub-saharn Africa
Gold Coast? were:
A. Nigeria B. Ethiopia A. English B. French
C. Mali D. Ghana C. Americans D. Portuguese
51. Shaba, which is mineral rich region is 62. Following are the densely populated
in? pockets of Africa. Mark the odd one out.
A. South Africa B. Zambia A. Surrounding of Johannesburg
C. Zimbabwe D. Zaire B. the Nile Valley
52. Which of the following mineral is not C. Sudan
found in South Africa? D. Highlands of Ethiopia
63. Which country is completely land located A. Uganda B. Somalia
in South Africa? C. Tanzania D. Kenya
A. Lesotho B. Swaziland 74. Lake Tanganyika was formed as a result
C. Zimbabwe D. Botswana of:
64. Assertion (A): The transvaal region A. volcanic explosion
produce citrus fruits in large amounts. B. syncline formation
Reason (R): It has long-free season. C. deflation
A. Both A and R are true and R is the D. rifting
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 75. Two neighbouring African countries get
correct explanation of A their names from a river they share.
C. A is true but R is false What is the name of the river?
D. A is false but R is true A. Niger B. Zaire
C. Orange D. Zambezi
65. The northern part of the transvaal is an
area of woodlands and savanna grasses. 76. Africa’s greatest shipping port of Bauxite
It is also known as: and Alumina—commodities is:
A. Savannah veld B. Bush veld A. Accra B. Queen mary
C. High veld D. Great karoon C. Conakry D. Lagos
66. The Giant Kariba Dam is located on..... 77. Ghana’s new modern deep water-port has
river. been developed as:
A. Orange B. Congo A. Abidyan B. Accra
C. Zambezi D. Niger C. Tema D. Kumasi
67. The comoro islands are of.....river.
78. The largest urban centre in the west-
A. Glacial B. Mauritius
C. Coral D. Sand deposits Africa is:
A. Ibadan B. Lagos
68. Zambia’s largest city and capital is: C. Accra D. Abidjan
A. Lusaka B. Livingstone
C. Nodola D. Kabwe 79. Which country in Africa is the largest
producer of Natural rubber?
69. Which island nation lies between
A. Ghana B. Liberia
Madgascar and the African mainland?
C. Nigeria D. Ivory Coast
A. Comoros B. Zanzibar
C. Seychelles D. Mali 80. Which African country leads in coffee
70. Which island is known as clove island? export?
A. Zanzibar B. Pemba A. Ethiopia B. Ghana
C. Medagascar D. Comoro C. Liberia D. Nigeria
71. The island of Zanzibar and Pemba are a 81. What is not true about Bushmen?
part of which country. A. They are dependent upon agriculture.
A. Mozambique B. Somalia B. They are found primarily in the
C. Kenya D. Tanzania Kalahari region
72. The largest and most important industrial C. They are also called San
centre in the east Africa is: D. They are taller than Pygmies
A. Nairobi B. Bujumbura 82. Match the following:
C. Jinja D. Mogadishu (a) Nigeria 1. Petroleum
73. Which of the following country does not (b) Liberia 2. Iron ore
lie between the Congo basin and the (c) Guinea 3. Bauxite
Indian Ocean? (d) Ghana 4. Diamonds
Codes: C. Kalahari desert
(a) (b) (c) (d) D. Namib desert
A. 1 2 3 4 89. What is true about tropical soils?
B. 2 3 1 4 A. They are poor in plant nutrients
C. 1 3 2 4 B. They tend to lose their fertility quickly
D. 4 3 1 2 when used for crops
83. Principal African mineral producing C. They are usually low in humus
countries are the following except and D. All of these
Alumina—commodities is: 90. Which national park has been made to
A. Somalia B. Namibia conserve the remaining wildlife in the
C. Libya D. South Africa extreme north-east of South Africa?
84. In Africa the hippopotamus are mainly A. Kruger National Park
found in the: B. Serengeti National Park
A. Temperate grasslands C. Accra National Park
B. Savanna D. Keoladeo National Park
C. Tropical rain forests 91. What is not true about pygmies?
D Tropical grassland A. Average height is around 41/2 feet.
85. Match the following: B. They are found principally in the
(a) South Africa 1. Copper tropical rainforests of the Congo basin.
(b) Morocco 2. Oil and Natural gas C. They lived by hunting and gathering
(c) Zaire 3. Uranium D. They have settled in lands previously
(d) Libya 4. Phosphate occupied by Bantus.
Codes: 92. In slave trading days which place had a
(a) (b) (c) (d) notorious reputation had the largest west
A. 3 2 1 4 African port for the slave traffic to the
B. 2 1 3 4 new world?
C. 3 4 1 2 A. Dakar B. Conakry
D. 3 4 1 2 C. Lagos D. Freetown
86. Which nation of island is to the west of 93. The most important commercial and ad-
the Central African Coast? ministrative centre of Nigeria which has
A. Sao Tome E. Principe also been a major West African focus of
B. Pagalu Islamic culture is:
C. Cabinda A. Kano B. Lagos
D. Equatorial Guinea C. Abuja D. Ibadan
87. Which was the occupying power in 94. Which island is/are located in the east of
the Western Sahara and which is the Medagascar?
present power? A. Seychelles B. Reunion
A. Germany and Morocco C. Mauritius D. Both A and B
B. France and Algeria 95. Lake Chad seasonally extends into other
C. France and Mauritania countries they are:
D. Spain and Morocco A. Libya and Niger
88. Which of the following desert is not in B. Central African Republic and Sudan
Africa? C. Niger, Nigeria and Cameroon
A. Sonoran desert D. Cameroon, Central African Republic
B. Sahara desert and Sudan
96. In South Africa the plateau surface is 100. Where are the Makarikari salt pans
the highest towards: found?
A. West B. East A. Botswana B. Namibia
C. South D. North C. South Africa D. Zambia
97. Vaal is a tributary of river: 101. As champagne is to France, so is vin
A. Limpopo B. Niger ordinaire to:
C. Orange D. Congo A. Algeria B. Tanzania
98. Which of the following mineral resources C. Zaire D. Mali
are not found in transvaal? 102. Which of the following African countries
A. Bauxite B. Coal is an industrially developed country?
C. Manganese D. Iron ore A. Sudan B. Egypt
99. Cape Town, Pretoria and Bloemtontein C. Zambia D. South Africa
are South African cities with some thing
in common what is it? 103. Tanzara Railway, built with Chinese aid,
A. All are gold mining centres is now under the control of:
B. All cities are located on coasts A. Mozambique and Somalia
C. All are national capitals (adminis- B. Tanzania and Zaire
trative, legislative and judicial) C. Nigeria and Cameroon
D. All are provincial capitals D. Namibia and Botswana
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A A D A D C C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A A B C A D C C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C A C D A B A A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A C D A C A B D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A A C A C A A A D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D D B A A A C A D A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D C A D D B A D A A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C A B D A C C B D A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A A C D A D A D A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D C A C A C D C D A
101 102 103
A D B
14 North America
1. Which continent of the World has the 9. In how many time zones is Canada
maximum known coal reserves? divided?
A. North America B. South America A. Two B. Three
C. Australia D. Africa C. Four D. Five
2. Which one of the following has maximum 10. Edmonton and Crow’s Nest passes,
farmhouses? situated in the province, Alberta are the
A. India B. USA principle.....producing sites.
C. China D. Japan A. Zinc B. Iron
3. Which pair is incorrect? C. Coal D. Copper
A. Fohn – Dry and warm wind 11. The strong and cold winds in the northen
B. Chinook – Snow eater
parts of Canada which are accompanied
C. Mistral – Winter season
by snow storms are called:
D. Bora – North America
A. Mistrals B. Chinooks
4. The magnificent and still active volcano C. Westerlies D. Blizzards
momotombo is situated in:
A. Nicaragua B. Guatemala 12. Assertion (A): The climate of the interior
C. El Salvador D. U.S.A. of North America is warmer in summner
and colder in the winter than
5. Chicle, the juice of the Sapodill a which
corresponding latitudinal positions on the
is used for the manufactured of chewing
coasts.
gum, is a major export item of:
Reason (R): The interior of North
A. Nicaragua B. Honduras
America is beyond oceanic influences.
C. Mexico D. Belize
6. Henequen which yields valuable fibres is correct explanation of A
chiefly grown in: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. Mexico B. Nicaragua
C. El-salvador D. Cuba
7. Which of the following cities of U.S.A. D. A is false but R is true
was formely known as New Amsterdam?
13. Which of the following rivers is famous
A. San Francisco B. Chicago
C. Pittsburg D. New York for its mighty canyon?
A. Colombia B. Colorado
8. In which of the following regions, C. Skeena D. Yukon
aeroplanes often make use of Lakes and
rivers for landing? 14. Golden Gate, the longer (1.6 km) single
A. Northern Canada span suspension bridge in the world, is
B. Northen Mexico situated in
C. Southern U.S.A. A. New York B. San francisco
D. Eastern U.S.A. C. Los Angles D. Washington D.C.
158
15. Match List I with List II and select the A. Hydro-electricity
correct answer using the code given below B. Coal reserves
the lists— C. Fish processing
List I List II D. Pulp and paper manufacturing
(a) Pico de Orizaba 1. U.S.A. 23. British Columbia is noted for its.....
(b) Death valley 2. Nicaragua fisheries:
(c) Italco 3. El-Salvador A. Lobster B. Herring
(d) Gulf of Fonseca 4. Mexico C. Cod D. Salmon
Codes: 24. Assertion (A): In north America the
(a) (b) (c) (d) west and east flowing rivers are suited
A. 1 2 3 4 for the generation of hydro-electricty.
B. 1 3 2 4 Reason (R): East and west flowing rivers
C. 2 4 1 3 in North America are long and slow
D. 4 1 3 2 flowing.
16. Which of the following items of Havana A. Both A and R are true and R is the
is world famous? correct explanation of A
A. Perfume B. Cheese B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
C. Cigar D. Chocolate correct explanation of A
17. Which of the following capital cities is
designed in the shape of across owing to
the meaning of its name—Holy Saviour 25. Richardson Range of Rockey mountains
or Christ? lie in:
A. San salvador B. Tegu cigalpa A. Cuba B. Canada
C. Guatemala city D. Belmopan C. Mexico D. U.S.A.
18. The term depths is used for which of the 26. Assertion (A): Central Californian Coast
following countries? receives rain during the winter months.
A. Honduras B. Nicaragua Reason (R): Central Californian Coast
C. Guatemala D. Mexico lies under the influence of rain-bearing
westerlies.
19. The popocatepti (smoking mountain) and A. Both A and R are true and R is the
ixtacihuati (sleeping woman) ranges are correct explanation of A
situated in: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. Canada B. Cuba correct explanation of A
C. Mexico D. El Salvador C. A is true but R is false
20. Hibbing iron-ore mines are situated in: D. A is false but R is true
A. Mexico B. Canada 27. Assertion (A): Much of the Jamaican
C. U.S.A. D. Cuba bauxite is exported to U.S.A. and Canada
21. Sudbury, situated north of Lake Huron for large aluminium works.
in Canada, is the richest mining area of: Reason (R): Jamaica does not produce
A. Asbestos and Tin sufficient amount of hydro-electricity.
B. Uranium and Gold A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Silver and Zinc correct explanation of A
D. Nickel and Copper B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
22. Beauharnois and Keman in Canada are C. A is true but R is false
the principal—producing sites of: D. A is false but R is true
28. As Momotombo is to Nicaragua, so is 37. Assertion (A): The climate of the interior
Volcan Poas to: of North America is warmer in summer
A. Costa Rica B. Honduras and colder in the winter than
C. Guatemala D. Panama corresponding Latitudinal positions on the
29. The famous volcano, Izalco, which is coasts.
calledthe light house of Central America Reason (R): The interior of North
is situated in: America is beyond oceanic influences.
A. U.S.A. B. Canada
C. El. Salvador D. Guatemala
30. Which of the following cities is known as correct explanation of A
the iron and the steel capital of Mexico? C. A is true but R is false
A. Monterrey B. Tampico D. A is false but R is true
C. Guadalajara D. Veracrut 38. Which of the following rivers is famous
31. Hoover Dam, constructed on the river for its mighty canyon?
colorado, has solved the major problem of A. Colorado B. Fraser
water shortage of: C. Yukon D. Skeena
A. Chicago B. Washington 39. Assertion (A): Southern California
C. Los Angeles D. New York receives little or no rain.
32. Niagara falls is an important source of Reason (R): Southern California falls
hydro-electricity for both: under the rain-shadow area.
A. El Salvador and Nicaragua A. Both A and R are true and R is the
B. Mexico and Cuba correct explanation of A
C. Jamaica and Haiti B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
D. Canada and U.S.A. correct explanation of A
33. The world largest asbestos mines are
situated in Canada near:
A. Schefferville B. Thet ford 40. Assertion (A): In costa Rica the rate of
C. Buchans D. Ontario Literary is high.
Reason (R): Education is free and
34. Soo canal is situated in: compulsory for all in Costa Rica.
A. U.S.A. B. Canada A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Cuba D. Mexico correct explanation of A
35. Which of the following Canadian regions B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
is noted for its apple orchard? correct explanation of A
A. Alberta, the St. Lawrence Lowland C. A is true but R is false
B. The Annapolis valley D. A is false but R is true
C. The St. Lawrence Lowland
41. The shrine of the virgin of Guadalupe is
D. Alberta
situated at:
36. Which of the following rivers serves as a A. Mexico city B. New York
natural boundary between U.S.A. and C. Chicago D. Washington D.C.
Mexico? 42. Which of the following cities of U.S.A.
A. Yukon has been called by its nickname—“The
B. Mackenzie Windy City”?
C. Riogrande A. Chicago B. Pittsburg
D. Mississippi-Missouri C. San Francisco D. New York
43. Silos in Canada are used to store—prior C. Cotton cultivation
to its distribution and export to the D. Meat packing
various markets of the world: 52. Assertion (A): The film making industry
A. Grain B. Fish product
is centred around Los Angeles.
C. Skin D. Fish
Reason (R): Los Angeles has brilliant
44. In Canada, every type of mineral is found sunshine and long spells of dry weather
in one or other of its provinces with the besides beautiful natural scenary.
exception of: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. Tin B. Nickel correct explanation of A
C. Zinc D. Platinum B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
45. Hicking Horse pass is situated in: correct explanation of A
A. Mexico B. Nicaragua C. A is true but R is false
C. Canada D. U.S.A. D. A is false but R is true
46. Sonora desert is situated in: 53. Catun Lake, one of the biggest man-made
A. Mexico and USA B. USA and Canada lakes of the world is situated in:
C. Canada D. Cuba A. Mexico B. Canada
47. The main export of Nicaragua is: C. U.S.A. D. Cuba
A. wheat B. rice 54. Jamaica is the world’s leading producer
C. sugarcane D. cotton of:
48. Which of the following countries has been A. Silver B. Phosphorous
given the name—The land of wood and C. Copper D. Bauxite
water due to expanses of forest—covered 55. Lumbering is associated with:
moutains and sparkling streams and A. sheep-rearing B. hunting
waterfalls? C. forest activities D. bee-keeping
A. Guatemala B. Jamaica
C. Costa Rica D. Haiti 56. In Canada the extensive type of farming
is mainly confined to the:
49. In mineral wealth, Mexico leads the world A. Cultivated areas of British Columbia
in the production of:
B. St. Lawrence lowlands
A. tin B. silver
C. Great lakes region
C. copper D. phosphorous
D. Prairie provinces
50. Assertion (A): The majority of buildings
57. Which of the following states of U.S.A is
in managua, the capital of Nicaragua are
known as the sunshine state?
not very high.
A. Florida B. Kansas
Reason (R): Managua is subject to
C. Louisiana D. Texas
frequent earthquakes.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 58. The rivers St. Lawrence, Hudson and
correct explanation of A Potomac flow into the:
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the A. Bering Strait B. Arctic Ocean
correct explanation of A C. Atlantic Ocean D. Hudson Bay
C. A is true but R is false 59. The highest peak in the North America is
D. A is false but R is true A. Mt. Mackenzie
51. Fall line (U.S.A.) is associated with: B. The Sierra Neveda
A. Hydro-electricity generation C. Mt. Mckinley
B. Cattle-rearing D. Mt. Cascade
60. Which of the following crops accounts for A. Central highlands
70% of the revenue of Guatemala? B. The Applachian coal fields
A. Sugarcane B. Rice C. Rockies
C. Coffee D. Tobacco D. None of these
61. The largest producer of solar cells in the 71. The most important iron-ore mining area
world is .......... lies around the:
A. The U.S.A. A. Lake Michigan B. Lake Ontario
B. Canada C. Lake Superior D. Lake Erie
C. Guatemala 72. Canada is the.....largest country in the
D. Mexico world.
62. Copper in the U.S.A. is mined in the A. Third B. Fifth
states of: C. Second D. Fourth
A. Arizona B. Montana 73. The Canada’s topography is dominated
C. New Mexico D. All of these by the:
63. Salmon is the main fish catched on the: A. Rockies
A. Pacific Coast of the U.S.A. B. The Applachian highlands
B. North Sea of Norway C. Canadian shield
C. Grand Banks of the Atlantic Coast D. None of the above
D. None of these 74. On the pacific coastal belt the winters
64. The direction of St. Lawrence river of are mild because:
Canada is: A. of the influence of the warm North
A. Southwards B. Eastwards Pacific drift
C. Northwards D. Westwards B. of the influence of the rain shadow
area of the Rockies
65. The Colorado river of the U.S.A. flows: C. of the influence of the warm Atlantic
A. Northwards current
B. Southwards D. None of the above
C. North-eastwards
75. The leading fur market of Canada is:
D. Eastwards
A. Hamilton B. Windsor
66. The river Yokon in the U.S.A. flows: C. Montreal D. Toronto
A. Eastwards B. Northwards
76. The main catch on the Grand Bank is:
C. Westwards D. Southwards
A. Cod B. Solmon
67. The federal capital of the U.S.A. is: C. Tuna D. Sardines
A. Washington D.C. 77. Winnipeg is a big centre of:
B. New York A. wheat trade
C. Boston B. lumbering
D. Los Angeles C. fur trade
68. In the U.S.A. about 75% people live in the: D. None of these
A. Western half B. Northern part 78. Canada leads the world in the production
C. Southern part D. Eastern half of:
69. Most of the industries of the U.S.A. are A. Uranium B. Gypsum
concentrated in the: C. Iron-ore D. Coal
A. North-east B. South 79. Dairy farming is an important industry
C. North D. South-east in:
70. Around 3/4th of coal of the U.S.A. is A. The humid region of the Great Lakes
mined in: B. The St. Lawrence Valley
C. Both A and B B. in the south and the west
D. Winnipeg C. in the north and the west
80. About 3/4 of Canada’s present power D. in the north and the east
needs are met by energy: 89. The St. Lawrence River lies in the:
A. generated from coal A. north west of Canadian shield
B. generated from petroleum B. north-east of the Canadian shield
C. generated from nuclear power plants C. south east of the Canadian shield
D. generated from water power D. None of the above
81. Windsor in Canada is noted for its: 90. Small stunted coniferous trees begin to
A. Automobile industry appear in Canada in:
B. Tyre-making industry A. south of Taiga
C. Both A and B B. south of Tundra
D. Iron and steel industries C. north east of Tundra
82. The chief industry of Kingston in Canada D. north of the Canadian shield
is:
91. Felling of trees in Canada is done by the
A. ship-building
Lumber Jacksin:
B. aircraft manufacturing
A. late winter B. spring
C. electrical engineering
C. autumn D. early winter
D. locomative manufacturing
E. both C and D
83. The largest city of Canada is:
A. Kingston B. Montreal 92. More than.....% of Canada’s farmland lies
C. Toronto D. Hamilton in western Canada.
A. 80% B. 50%
84. The 3/4 of the Canadian population live C. 40% D. 20%
in only two cities which are they? 93. The Birmingham of Canada is:
A. Montreal and Ontario A. Quebec B. Montreal
B. Quebec and Montreal C. Toronto D. Hamilton
C. Quebec and Ontario
94. Malton in Canada specialises in:
D. Montreal and Quebec
A. cotton textiles
85. Alaska is a part of: B. automobiles
A. Canada C. aircraft manufacturing
B. The U.S.A. D. fur industry
C. both Canada and the U.S.A.
D. independent state 95. Vancouver on the Pacific coast is a cen-
tre for:
86. The coast ranges are located in: A. lumbering
A. The western part of the U.S.A. B. timber industries
B. The eastern part of the U.S.A. C. fish canning
C. The U.S.A. D. all of the above
D. Canada
96. The Sierra Nevada is in:
87. The Grand Canyon Waterfall is located on:
A. north-eastern part of the U.S.A.
A. The Snake River
B. south-western part of the U.S.A.
B. The Colombia River
C. south-eastern part of the U.S.A.
C. The Mississippi River
D. None of these
D. The Colorado River
97. The Colombia and Colorado Plateaus are
88. Canada has a very long border with the drained by:
United States: A. the Snake and the Mississippi rivers
A. in the south and east respectively
B. the Snake and the Colorado rivers A. The Statue of Liberty
respectively B. The Golden Gate
C. the Colorado and the Snake rivers C. The Iron Gate
D. The Mississippi and the Snake rivers D. The Hoover Dam
respectively 102. Match List I with List II and select the
98. Why is the Akron region of U.S.A. correct answer using the code given below
famous? the lists:
A. Chemical industry List I List II
B. Wheat milling (a) Volcan irazu 1. Mexico
C. Automobile industry (b) Ejidos 2. Haiti
D. Food processing (c) Sanpedrosula 3. Costa Rica
99. The driest part of the U.S.A. is: (d) Descendants of 4. Honduras
A. The south-east Slaves
B. The north west Codes:
C. The south west (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. The north east A. 3 1 4 2
100. The most important cereal crop of the B. 4 3 2 1
U.S.A. is: C. 1 4 3 2
A. maize B. wheat D. 2 1 4 3
C. rice D. none of these 103. Ungava Peninsula is a part of:
101. Which of the following is associated with A. Canada B. USA
New York? C. Mexico D. Honduras
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B D A D A D A D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A D C B A A A C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D B B B C A A A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D B B B C A A A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A A A C A D B B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A D D C D A C C C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A D A B B C A D A B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C C C A C A A A C D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C D B C B A D B C B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C A D C D B B C B A
101 102 103
A A A
15 South America
1. The longest river of South America– A. Bolivia and Paraguay

A. Nile B. Amazon B. Brazil and Uruguay
C. Mississippi D. Colombia C. Argentina and Chile
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the D. Chile and Bolivia
correct answer using the codes given 6. Assertion (A): South America together
below the lists: with Central America and Mexico is called
List-I (Country) List-II (Capital City) Latin America.
(a) Argentina 1. Buenos Aires Reason (R): The main languages of these
(b) Brazil 2. Caracas lands are Spanish and Portuguese which
(c) Peru 3. Lima are derived from Latin.
(d) Venezuela 4. Sao Paulo A. Both A and R are true and R is the
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 1 3 4 2
B. 1 4 3 2
C. 2 3 4 1 C. A is true but R is false
D. 2 4 3 1 D. A is false but R is true
3. Match List I with List II and select the 7. The coast of Peru and Chile are famous
correct answer using the code given below for.....fish.
the lists— A. Catla B. Cod
List I List II C. Herring D. Anchovies
(Mineral) (Country) 8. Guano, a manure found on the islands of
(a) Copper 1. Brazil the coast of Chile, which contains all the
(b) Tin 2. Surinam ingredients of plant food, is derived from
(c) Bauxite 3. Bolivia. A. Cow dung
(d) Iron ore 4. Chile B. Bird’s faecal matter
Codes: C. Bones of animal
(a) (b) (c) (d) D. Green algae
A. 2 1 4 3 9. The highest mountain peak of the Andes is:
B. 1 4 3 2
A. A concagua B. Huascaran
C. 4 3 2 1
C. Chimborazo D. An co huma
D. 3 2 1 4
4. Which of the following is the highest 10. Which of the following South American
active volcano in the world? countries leads the continent in the
A. Guallatiri (chile) production and export of Beef?
B. Cotopaxi (Equator) A. Brazil B. Argentina
C. Nevado del Ruiz (Colombia) C. Peru D. Chile
D. Lascar (Chile) 11. An argentina slaughter-houses are called:
5. Which of the following South American A. Frigorificos B. Gauchos
countries are land-locked? C. Chacras D. Tasajos
165
12. The large plantation farms of coffee are A. Carnauba palm B. Parana pine
known as—in Brazil. C. Yerba D. Quebracho
A. Corrals B. Fazendas 19. Which of the following trees is an
C. Estancia D. Paddocks important source of tannic acid used in
13. Which of the following countries of South tanning leather?
America are non Latin: A. Quebracho B. Parana Pine
A. Guyana and Surinam C. Yerba D. Carbauba palm
B. Brazil and Argentina 20. Assertion (A): There is a very little trade
C. Venezuela and Colombia on the east-west South Atlantic route
D. Chile and Bolivia between Riode Janeiro and Cape Town.
Reason (R): Both Africa and South
14. Fishing is an important industry of: America have similar products and
A. Bolivia B. Praguay resources.
C. Peru D. Venezuela A. Both A and R are true and R is the
15. The forests along the eastern slopes of correct explanation of A
the high Andes are known as: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. Montana B. A cadian correct explanation of A
C. Boreal D. Thuriringean C. A is true but R is false
16. The leading producer of wheat in South
America is: 21. Match List I with List II and select the
A. Argentina B. Colombia correct answer using the code given below
C. Chile D. Brazil the lists—
List I List II
17. Which of the following is not correctly (Physical feature) (Region)
matched? (a) Lionos 1. North Chile
A. An ancient mammal of South (b) Selvas 2. Orinoco Basin
America..... Armadillo (c) Campos 3. Equatorial region
B. An animal of prey of South of Amazon Basin
America..... Jaguar (d) Atacama Desert 4. Brazilian High
C. A very large python of South Lands
America..... Rhea Codes:
D. The largest bird of prey in the (a) (b) (c) (d)
world..... Candor A. 1 2 3 4
18. Which of the following trees of South B. 4 1 2 3
America yields leaves which are brewed C. 2 3 4 1
like tea? D. 3 4 1 2
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B C B A A D B A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A C A A C C A A
21
C
16 Australia, Antarctica And New Zealand
1. Maoris are the original inhabitants of: 9. The highest peak of Australia is:
A. Greenland B. Canada A. Blue mountain B. Mt. Woodroffe
C. Newzealand D. Java Island C. Mt. Ord D. Mt. Kosciusko
2. Great Barrier Reef is situated near: 10. The largest reserves of coal in Australia
A. South America B. Europe occur in:
C. Australia D. Africa A. Victoria
3. Dakshin Gangotri is located in: B. Tasmania
A. Uttarakhand B. Aractic C. Queensland
D. New South Wales
C. Himalaya D. Antarctica
11. Assertion (A): No animal or plant life
4. Which one among the following countries is found on the mainland of Antarctica.
is the largest producer of Bauxite? Reason (R): The main land of Antarctica is
A. Australia B. Brazil covered with huge masses of snow and ice.
C. West Indies D. India A. Both A and R are true and R is the
5. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie in Australia are correct explanation of A
famous for: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. Gold fields B. Iron fields correct explanation of A
C. Coal fields D. Copper fields C. A is true but R is false
6. The highest mountain peak of New Zea- D. A is false but R is true
land is: 12. Which of the following is the highest peak
A. Mt. Eg Mont B. Mt. Isa of Antarctica?
C. Mt. Tongariro D. Mt. Cook A. Vinson Massif B. Mt. Levick
7. Bauxite deposits in Australia are found C. Mt. Emundson D. Mt. Christensen
mainly in: 13. The coldest place in the world which lies
A. Tasmania and Victoria. in Antarctica and recorded a tempera-
B. New South Wales and Queensland. ture of 127° F is:
C. Northern teritory and South Australia. A. Vostok station B. Ifrane
D. North western Australia and Cape
C. Charlottle pass D. Ojmyakon
York peninsula.
14. The first Indian expedition on Antarctica
8. Assertion (A): In Australia most of the
Agricultural work is done by machines. in 1981-82 under the leadership of Dr.
Reason (R): The population of Australia S. L. Qasim landed near.....and named it
is very small. as Dakshin Gangotri (Mt. Indira).
A. Both A and R are true but R is the A. Byrd land B. Queenmaud land
correct explanation of A C. Palmer land D. Drygalski
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 15. Antarctica contains about.....fresh water
correct explanation of A reserves of the world.
C. A is true but R is false A. 30% B. 10%
D. A is false but R is true C. 45% D. 60%
167
16. Which of the following birds dominates B. the eastern half
the Antarctica? C. the northern half
A. King fisher B. Ostrich D. the western half
C. Kiwi D. Penguin 25. What continent would you meet. If you
17. Which of the following oceans does not were to sail directly east of Australia?
surround the Antarctica? A. Asia B. Africa
A. Arctic Ocean B. Indian Ocean C. South America D. North America
C. Pacific Ocean D. Atlantic Ocean 26. The typical tree of Australia.
18. Which of the following bays are located A. Eucalyptus B. Teek
along both sides of the Vinson Massif, C. Oak D. Pine
the highest peak in Antarctica?
27. The western part of Australia is:
A. Red Sea and Baltic Sea.
A. highland B. lowland
B. North Sea and Black Sea
C. plateau D. mountain
C. Bering Sea and Sea of Okhotsk
D. Ross Sea and Weddel Sea. 28. Why is Australia an important exporter
of wheat?
19. In area, Antarctica ranks.....among the
continents of the world A. It produces large amount of wheat
A. First B. Third B. only what is produced by agriculture
C. Fourth D. Fifth C. Wheat is not a staple food in Australia
D. They produce wheat more than their
20. Assertion (A): The whole continent of consumption
Antarctica remains covered with
very thick layer of ice throughout the year. 29. The largest number of.....are found in the
Reason (R): The temperature of downs of Australia.
Antarctica hardly rises above 4°C A. Sheep B. Cows
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Goats D. Camel
correct explanation of A 30. Ires rock is a part of:
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the A. great dividing range
correct explanation of A B. eastern highland
C. A is true but R is false C. great divide
D. A is false but R is true D. none of these
21. What ocean is on Australia’s west coast 31. Where opens Bay of Carpentria?
A. Indian Ocean B. Atlantic Ocean A. Timor Sea B. Tasman Sea
C. Antarctica D. Pacific Ocean C. Luibin Isthumus D. Arafura Sea
22. Which one of these would you not find on 32. Western coast of Australia is high.
New Zealand’s south island? A. Luibin to Perth
A. Fiords B. Glaciers B. Perth to Disco
C. Mountains D. Jungle C. Perth to Bay of Arafura
23. Which one of the following is Australia’s D. Himarsali to Mackdonal range
most important agriculture product?
33. Where is located the highest peak of
A. Wheat B. Beef
Australia?
C. Wool D. Corn
A. Australian Alps
24. Which part of Australia contains the B. Tasmania
greatest desert area? C. Eastern highlands
A. the southern half D. Great dividing range
34. Major problems are Australian agriculture: Codes:
A. lack of water in internal part of (a) (b) (c) (d)
Australia A. 1 2 3 4
B. Continuous and irregular rain B. 2 4 1 3
C. Soil hrass C. 3 1 2 4
D. all of the above D. 4 1 3 2
35. Kimberley Plateau is situated in which 41. Who is the origin of the New Zealand?
part of Australia? A. A borigines B. Maoris
A. Queensland C. Kolas D. Wombat
B. New South Wales
C. Western Australia 42. What is the wordly meaning of New Zealand?
D. South Australia A. New Mt. Land B. Maorikis Land
C. New Sea Land D. Desert
36. Where wool doesn’t produce?
43. Moonie in Northern Territory, port
A. Western Australia
B. Queenceland Headland in western Australia and Bass
C. South Australia strait are associated with:
D. New South Wales A. oil B. iron
C. coal D. tin
(a) Sugarcane 1. Victoria 44. Assertion (A): The island of Tasmania
(b) Cotton 2. Queenceland receives plenty of rainfall througout the
(c) Tobacco 3. Western Australia year.
Codes: Reason (R): Tasmania lies under the
(a) (b) (c) influence of the westerlies.
A. 1 2 3 A. Both A and R are true and R is the
B. 2 3 1 correct explanation of A
C. 3 1 2 B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
D. 4 1 3 correct explanation of A
38. Gipsland is known for:
A. Manganese B. Iron ore D. A is false but R is true
C. Lignite D. Tin 45. Assertion (A): Cattle-rearing is mainly
39. Match the following: confined to north island in New Zealand.
(a) Bauxite 1. Broken Hill Reason (R): North island receives
(b) Iron ore 2. Vipa moderate rainfall through out the year
(c) Nickel 3. Mt. Goldsworthy which makes the grass juicy.
(d) Lead and Zink 4. Green well A. Both A and R are true and R is the
Codes: correct explanation of A
(a) (b) (c) (d) B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. 1 2 3 4 correct explanation of A
B. 2 3 4 1 C. A is true but R is false
C. 3 4 1 2 D. A is false but R is true
D. 1 4 2 3 46. Assertion (A): Air transport is of great
40. Match the following: importance in Australia.
(a) Pilbara 1. Mangnese Reason (R): Air transaport provides
(b) Merini 2. Iron ore immediate medical help to distant sheep
(c) Mt. Sydney 3. Lead and Zinc stations and other farming settlements
(d) Kober 4. Petroleum through the air ambulance system.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the D. A is false but R is true
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D A A D D A D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A A B D D A D D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A A A D C A C D A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A A D C D B C B B
41 42 43 44 45 46
B C A A A A
17 India
1. The most important mineralized rock A. Bengaluru B. Earnakulam

system of India: C. Hyderabad D. Lucknow
A. Cuddapa system
10. Gujarat is not the biggest producer of
B. Dharwar system
C. Gondwana system which of the following in the country?
D. Vindhyan system A. Salt B. Soda
C. Pea-nut D. Pulses
2. The correct group of cities through which
National Highway No.8 passes is: 11. The state which ranks first in the pro-
A. Bikaner, Ajmer, Kota duction of petrochemicals is:
B. Jodhpur, Jaipur, Bikaner A. Gujarat B. Tamil Nadu
C. Jaipur, Udaipur, Ahmedabad C. Maharashtra D. Kerala
D. Jaipur, Pune, Udaipur 12. Which of the following research reactors
3. Which state possesses biggest coal re- is not located in Trombay (Maharashtra)?
serve? A. Apsara B. Zerlina
A. Bihar B. Jharkhand C. Dhruva D. FBTR
C. Madhya PradeshD. Orissa
13. Which of the following is incorrectly
4. The coastal tract of Andhra Pradesh and
matched?
Tamil Nadu is called:
Institute Situation
A. Konkan B. Coromandel
C. East Coast D. Malabar Coast A. National Institute New Delhi
of Immunology
5. The highest Indian waterfall is:
B. National Centre Pune
A. Gokak B. Gersoppa
for Cell Science
C. Shivasamudram D. Yenna
C. Centre for DNA Hyderabad
6. Which one of the following does not cause Fingerprinting and
soil erosion?
Diagnostics
A. River B. Deforestation
D. National Brain Dehradun
C. Weathering D. Over grazing
Research Centre
7. Jaduguda, Bhaten, Narwapahar and
Turamdih are famous for: 14. Hubli in Karnataka is the headquarters
A. Copper mines B. Iron-ore mines of which of the following railway
C. Gold mines D. Uranium mines zones?
8. KAMINI the thorium based reactor is A. South Western Railway
situated at: B. South Eastern Railway
A. Tarapore B. Narora C. South Northern Railway
C. Kalpakkam D. Kakrapar D. Southern Railway
9. Shapoorji Pallonji Biotech Park Genome 15. Which of the following is not correctly
valley is located at: matched?
171
Waterways Location/Situation 21. In which one of the following islands of
A. National water From Allahabad to India is and active volcano found?
Way-1 Haldia A. Car nicobar Island
B. National water From Sadia to B. Nancowry Island
Way-2 Dhubri C. Barren Island
C. National water From Kottapuram D. Maya Bunder Island
Way-3 to Kollam 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the
D. National water From Ajmer to correct answer using the codes given
Way-4 Ahmedabad below the lists:
16. Consider the following statements: List-I List-II
Assertion (A): India is a Monsoon coun- (Pass) (State)
try. (a) Zojila Pass 1. Sikkim
Reason (R): The high Himalayas im- (b) Baralacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand
part it climatic distinctiveness. (c) Jelepla Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir
given below: Codes:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. 4 1 3 2
correct explanation of A B. 2 3 1 4
B. Both A and R are true but R is not C. 4 3 1 2
the correct explanation of A D. 2 1 3 4
C. A is true but R is false 23. Which one of the following is the oldest
D. A is false but R is true mountain range in India?
17. Which one of the following is the A. Himalayas B. Aravalli
first National Park established in India? C. Satpura D.Nilgiri
A. Bandipur B. Corbett 24. Which one of the following is the longest
C. Velavadar D. Periyar National highway in India?
18. Consider the following regions of India: A. NH-2 B. NH-44
1. Western Ghats C. NH-8 D. NH-31
2. Aravalli Hills 25. Which one of the following sequences of
3. Eastern Himalayan the oil refineries of India as they occur
Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot from south to north is correct?
spot/hot spots? A. Kochi - Mangalore - Mumbai - Koyali
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only B. Koyali - Mumbai - Mangalore - Kochi
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 C. Kochi - Mumbai - Mangalore - Koyali
D. Mangalore - Kochi - Mumbai - Koyali
19. Which one among the following states
has the highest gender disparity: 26. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
A. Orissa B. Uttar Pradesh
National Park State
C. Haryana D. Maharashtra
A. Kanha National Madhya
20. Which one of the following pairs is not Park Pradesh
correct by matched? B. Sultanpur National Haryana
River City Park
A. Gomti Lucknow C. Ranthambore National Gujarat
B. Saryu Ayodhya Park
C. Alaknanda Badrinath D. Bandipur National Karnataka
D. Narmada Satna Park
27. Which one of the following states of India Codes:
is the largest producer of lignite coal? (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Maharashtra A. 3 4 2 1
B. Gujarat B. 1 2 4 3
C. Madhya Pradesh C. 3 2 4 1
D. Tamil Nadu D. 1 4 2 3
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the 33. Which one of the following is the oldest
correct answer using the codes given industry of India?
below the lists: A. Jute B. Cotton Textile
List-I (River) List-II (Tributary) C. Tea D. Sugar
(a) Brahmaputra 1. Musi 34. Golden Quadrilateral project is associated
(b) Krishna 2. Tawa with the development of:
(c) Narmada 3. Bhavani A. Highways B. Ports
(d) Cauvery 4. Dikhow C. Power Grids D. Tourism Network
Codes: 35. In India, the state with the lowest popu-
(a) (b) (c) (d) lation density is:
A. 4 2 1 3 A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. 4 1 2 3 B. Himachal Pradesh
C. 3 2 1 4 C. Mizoram
D. 3 1 2 4 D. Sikkim
29. Which one of the following oil fields of 36. The state having the highest scheduled
India is the oldest and still producing caste population in India is:
oil? A. Rajasthan B. Maharashtra
A. Bombay High B. Digboi C. Madhya PradeshD. Uttar Pradesh
C. Ankleshwar D. Naharkatiya 37. Which one of the following crops is the
30. Which one of the following states is the major food grain in India?
largest producer of black pepper in India. A. Wheat B. Rice
A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala C. Maize D. Pulses
C. Karnataka D. Andhra Pradesh 38. More than one fourth (1/4) of India’s Ur-
31. The approximate age of the Aravalli range ban population lives in the two states of:
is: A. Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
A. 370 million years B. Maharashtra and Gujarat
B. 670 million years C. Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
C. 470 million years D. Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
D. 570 million years 39. The largest producer of pulses in India
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the is:
correct answer using the codes given A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar
below the lists: C. Madhya Pradesh D. Rajasthan
List-I (Multipurpose List-II (Hydel 40. Which one of the following statements is
River Project) Power station) fake?
(a) Rihand 1. Hirakund A. Peninsular region is geologically the
(b) Gandak 2. Balimikinagar oldest part of India
(c) Chambal 3. Pipri B. The Himalayas represent the youngest
(d) Mahandi 4. Kota folded mountain in the world
C. The Western Coast of India has been 49. Coastline of which of the following states
formed by the depositional activity of is known as the Coromondal coast?
rivers A. Karnataka B. Kerala
D. The Gondwana rocks have the largest C. Orissa D. Tamil Nadu
deposits of coal in India
50. The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
41. Which one of the following regions of A. Andhra Pradesh B. Uttar Pradesh
India, is highly affected by soil erosion? C. Maharashtra D. Madhya Pradesh
A. Malwa Plateau
B. U.P. Tarai 51. Himalayas are:
C. Andhra Coast A. Young fold mountains
D. Chambal Valley B. Residual mountains
C. Volcanic mountains
42. Which one of the following states has the
D. Block mountains
maximum number of wildlife sanctuar-
ies (National Park and sanctuaries)? 52. Chhota Nagpur plateau is made up to:
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Rajasthan A. Old igneous and metamorphic rocks
C. Madhya PradeshD. West Bengal B. Sedimentary rocks
43. Which soil requires the least tilling? C. Alluvium
A. red D. Lava flows
B. black 53. This region of India is very important
C. laterite from biodiversity point of view:
D. alluvial A. Eastern Himalayas
44. National Environment Engineering Insti- B. Eastern Ghats
tute is located at: C. Panchmari Hill
A. Cuttack B. Jamshedpur D. Kashmir Valley
C. Nagpur D. Ranchi 54. When do the south-west monsoon winds
45. Where ‘Bheel’ tribe is founded? blow in India?
A. Asom A. January—February
B. Jharkhand B. March to mid-June
C. West Bengal C. Mid-June—September
D. Maharashtra D. October to December
46. Where is Indian Dynamite Limited lo- 55. The most ideal region for the cultivation
cated? of cotton in India is:
A. Kolkata B. Hyderabad A. The Brahmaputra Valley
C. Chennai D. Delhi B. Indo-Gangetic plain
47. Rainbow revolution is related with: C. Deccan Trap Region
A. Green - revolution D. Rann of Kutch
B. White - revolution
56. In India when population of an urban
C. Blue - revolution
settlement crosses 100000 it is called:
D. All the above
A. Town B. City
48. India gets maximum rainfall mainly C. Metropolis D. Megalopolis
from:
A. North - East Monsoon 57. The artificial harbour along the west
B. Retreating Monsoon coast of India is:
C. South - East Monsoon A. Cochin B. Kandla
D. South-West Monsoon C. Marmagao D. New Mangalore
58. The rocks of the Himalayan System are 68. In India the local name of shifting culti-
mainly: vation is:
A. sedimentary B. igneous A. Jhum B. Kumari
C. plutonic D. dyke C. Penda D. All of these
59. The Stretch of the Himalayas between 69. What is National water grid plan?
the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called: A. To link the Himalayan rivers with
A. The Asom Himalayas peninsular rivers
B. The Punjab Himalayas B. To link east and west flowing rivers
C. The Nepal Himalayas of the peninsular
D. The Kumaon Himalayas C. To link the rivers of India with the
60. The flood plain along river banks formed rivers of Pakistan
by newer alluvium is called: D. None of the above
A. Bhabar B. Khadar 70. Which of the following is called the Cot-
C. Tarai D. Bangar ton-polis of India?
61. The ‘Kalabaisakhis’ originate during: A. Kanpur B. Agra
A. Winter season C. Mumbai D. Ahmedabad
B. Rainy season 71. Ice-age in India was during:
C. Period of retreating monsoon A. Pleistocene
D. Summers B. Carboniferous
62. What type of forest are the ‘Sunderbans’? C. Paleozoic age
A. Tidal forests D. None of the above
B. Monsoon forests 72. ‘Haimanta system’ i.e. Cambrian
C. Tropical evergreen forests formation is the best seen in:
D. Temperate evergreen forests A. Spiti Valley
63. Which river basin has the maximum B. Kashmir Valley
amount of water available for irrigation? C. Doon Valley
A. The Ganga B. The Indus D. None of the above
C. The Brahmaputra D. Mahanadi 73. Gersoppa or Jog fall is on:
64. Which state of India is the largest A. Mahi river B. Periyar river
producer of Iron-ore? C. Brahmini river D. River Sharavati
A. Karnataka B. Orissa 74. Sivasamudram fall is on:
C. Jharkhand D. Madhya Pradesh A. Cauvery river
65. Which of the following states is the lead- B. River Sharavati
ing producer of sugarcane in India? C. Tista River
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh D. None of the above
C. Punjab D. Bihar 75. Satpura range is between rivers of:
66. Which of the following is a fibre crops? A. Tapi and Penganga
A. Sugarcane B. Jute B. Narmada and Tapi
C. Wheat D. Maize C. Narmada and Luni
67. Which state is the largest producer of D. None of the above
tea in India? 76. River Penganga is the tributary of:
A. Asom B. West Bengal A. Godavari B. Narmada
C. Kerala D. Karnataka C. Ganga D. Krishna
77. Narmada river rises in: 87. River Periyar rises near:
A. Vindhya range A. Elamai B. Anaimudi
B. Kashmir range C. Davarmalai D. Mahadeo hills
C. Maikal range
88. The old alluvium of the plain is
characteristic by the presence of:
78. Tapi river rises in: A. Kankar
A. Maikal range B. Mahadeo range B. Nitrogenous deposits
C. Satpura range D. Ajanta range C. Rich humus
79. Guru Shikher is the highest peak of: D. All of the above
A. Vindhya range 89. Mass of alluvium soil covered by the river
B. Aravalli range
courses called:
C. Kashmir range
A. Bet lands B. Bluffs
C. Dhaya D. Both B and C
80. Palghat gap is situated between
90. An intricate maze of gullies and ravines
A. Nilgiri Hills and Cardamom Hills
B. Nilgiri Hills and Shevaroy Hills known as badlands are commonly
C. Shevaroy and Cardamom Hills present in:
D. None of the above A. M.P. B. Bihar
C. U.P. D. Orissa
81. River Wardha is tributary of:
A. Narmada B. Luni 91. The northern flank of the plateau from
C. Godavari D. Krishna Thar Desert to the Rajmahal Hills is
characterised by:
82. The eastern ghats are the example of:
A. Remnants of the old mountain ranges
A. folded valley
B. continuous chain of mountains B. Scarped plateaus and faulted trough
C. group of isolated hills C. Both A and B
D. none of the above D. None of the above
83. Mahendragiri is the highest peak of ? 92. The Malwa plateau dominated by the
A. Western Ghat Vindhya scarps forms the:
B. Eastern Ghat A. Western flank of peninsular India
C. Nilgiri hills B. Northern flank of peninsular India
D. None of the above C. Eastern flank of peninsular India
84. The name of Blue mountain is given to: D. None of the above is correct
A. Cardamom hill B. Satpura hill 93. The striking difference between eastern
C. Nilgiri hill D. Palini hill and western coastal plains is:
85. Ootacamund lies at the foots of: A. presence of red soil
A. Velikonda hills B. Tirupati hills B. Alluvial margin
C. Dodabetta D. Ajanta hills C. Both A and B are correct
86. Palkonda and Velikonda hills are the D. Both A and B are wrong
example of: 94. Andaman and Nicobar islands consists of:
A. Western range A. about 250 islands
B. Himalayan range B. 225 islands
C. Eastern Ghat C. more than 500 islands
D. Nilgiri hills D. none of these
95. Nallamalai Hill is present in: 104. The Indus receives tributaries Gilgit,
A. Western Ghat Shigar etc.
B. Eastern Ghat A. Punjab
C. Tamil Nadu Hills B. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Tirupati Hills C. Himachal Pradesh
96. Cuddapah ranges is also know as: D. Pakistan
A. Northern Hills of Eastern Ghat 105. The middle Himalayas has an average
B. Middle Hills of Eastern Ghat elevation of about:
C. Tamil Nadu Hills A. 3500 to 5000 mt.
D. None of these B. 5000 to 7000 mt.
97. Nilgiri Hills is an example of: C. Around 8000 mt.
A. Block Mountain D. none of the above.
B. Young fold mountain 106. Mahabharata range is situated in:
C. Residual mountain A. the Greater Himalaya
D. Volcanic mountain B. lesser Himalaya
98. Giant gorges are the characteristic C. the outer Himalaya
feature of: D. none of the above
A. Coastal regions 107. The aver age height of greater Himalaya
B. Peninsular rivers is:
C. Himalayan rivers
A. 6000 mt. B. 5000 mt.
C. 4000 mt. D. 3000 mt.
99. Gorges are the feature of:
A. Deposition 108. Pir Panjal range is an example of:
B. Erosion A. Middle Himalaya
C. Erosional as well as depositional B. Greater Himalaya
D. None of the above C. Siwalik
100. Antecedent drainage is the characteristic
feature of: 109. “Marusthali or Thar” is the region of:
A. Indus B. Brahmaputra A. Drier parts of the plain of Punjab and
C. Godavari D. Both A and B Haryana
B. Arid Plains of Rajasthan
101. Most of the peninsular rivers flow
C. Both A and B
towards:
A. west
B. east 110. The fertile plain ‘Bari Doab’ is present
C. north-west between:
D. southwardly A. River Ravi and Beas
B. Beas & Sutlej
102. Narmada and Tapi which are peninsular
C. River Ravi and Sutlej
rivers flow towards:
A. west B. east
C. north-west D. north 111. The name Sahyadris is given to:
103. The river Indus rises in Tibbet near: A. Eastern Ghat B. Western Ghat
A. Manas lake C. Satpura range D. Vindhya range
B. Jhelam lake 112. Peaty soils are mostly found in:
C. Mansarover lake A. Bihar B. Kerala
D. None of the above C. Jharkhand D. Uttar Pradesh
113. The most important soil in the Deccan C. Alluvial soils are rich in potash but
trap area is the: poor in phosphorus
A. Red soil B. Black soil D. Red soils are rich suitable for
C. Laterite soil D. Alluvial soil cultivation of pulses and coarse grains
114. Sandy soil of Rajasthan Desert is called: 121. .....soil is found in the region of heavy
A. Khadar B. Bhangar rainfall.
C. Kallar D. Bhur A. Laterite B. Red
115. Assertion (A): Laterite soils are acidic C. Black D. Alluvial
in property. 122. Which of the following states has very
Reason (R): Laterite soils are rich little alluvial soil?
inlime. A. Bihar B. Jharkhand
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Madhya Pradesh D. Tamil Nadu
correct explanation of A 123. The Indo-Gangetic Plains are made up of
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the mostly
correct explanation of A A. Alluvial soil
C. A is true but R is false B. Mountain soil
D. A is false but R is true C. Black soil
116. Assertion (A): Laterite soils are D. Alpine medow soil
generally red in colour. 124. Which of the following soils is the most
Reason (R): Laterite soils are rich in fertile?
oxide of iron. A. Laterite soil B. Red soil
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Alluvial soil D. Yellow soil
correct explanation of A 125. Which soil is rich in iron and aluminium
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the compound?
correct explanation of A A. Laterite soil B. Black soil
C. A is true but R is false C. Yellow soil D. Alluvial soil
126. Which of the following soil is found in
117. Which of the following soils is regarded Maharashtra?
as negative land? A. Black soil B. Alluvial soil
A. Kallar B. Khadar C. Red soil D. Yellow soil
C. Bhangar D. Regur 127. Which of the following Indian states does
118. Which of the following soil type is called not possess acidic soils?
Kari in Kerala? A. Asom B. Tripura
A. Mountain soil B. Alluvial soil C. Manipur D. Rajasthan
C. Peaty saline soil D. Laterite soil 128. Assertion (A): The soils of the north
119. Red soil is commonly found in: Indian Plains are typically alluvial.
A. Punjab and Haryana Reason (R): The alluvial soils of the
B. Himchal Pradesh and Jammu and north Indian Plains have been deposited
Kashmir by the rivers.
C. Rajasthan and Gujarat A. Both A and R are true and R is the
D. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh correct explanation of A
120. Which of the following is incorrect? B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. Red soils are rich in iron correct explanation of A
B. Black soils are rich in phosphorus, C. A is true but R is false
nitrogen and organic matter D. A is false but R is true
129. Which of the following minerals is not 134. Assertion (A): Alpine meadow soil
found in Black Soils? contains mostly undecomposed plants.
A. Iron B. Phosphorous Reason (R): Alpine meadow soil is found
C. Magnesium D. Aluminium in very cold areas.
130. Assertion (A): Alluvial soils are regarded A. Both A and R are true and R is the
the richest soil. correct explanation of A
Reason (R): The mineral composition B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
in alluvial soils are well broken-up which correct explanation of A
can be easily absorbed by the root of C. A is true but R is false
plants. D. A is false but R is true
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 135. Assertion (A): Brown forest soil is rich
in humus and slightly acidic in reaction.
Reason (R): Brown soil is found in
marshy areas of the coastal plain.
D. A is false but R is true A. Both A and R are true and R is the
131. Which of the phenomenon can be B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
described as the creeping death of the correct explanation of A
soil?
A. Soil conservation
B. Soil formation
C. Soil erosion 136. The soils in the flood plains of the rivers
D. Nitrogen fixation formed by recent alluvium are called:
132. Assertion (A): The farmers of the drier A. Bhangar B. Khadar
parts of Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat C. Reh D. Bhur
plant rows of trees around their fields. 137. The soils of the.....have been formed in
Reason (R): Plantation of trees reduces situ.
the velocity of winds and prevents the A. Valley of Narmada
soil erosion. B. Sutlej-Ganga Plain
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Valley of Tapi
correct explanation of A D. Indian Plateau
correct explanation of A 138. Which of the following places receives
C. A is true but R is false minimum annual rainfall?
D. A is false but R is true A. Mangalore B. Bikaner
C. Allahabad D. Nagpur
133. Assertion (A): Contour bunding of the
fields is done in areas of steep slopes. 139. Assertion (A): The southern half of
Reason (R): The fields in areas of steep India has a tropical climate.
slopes face the problems of surface run Reason (R): The tropic of cancer does
off. not pass through the middle of India.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
140. Assertion (A): When the Kashmiri 144. Assertion (A): Southern Tamil Nadu
peasant Shivers with biting cold inside receives maximum rainfall during the
his pheren, the peasants of the Kerala months from June to September.
coast work in their paddy fields in a loin Reason (R): The southern Tamil Nadu
cloth. is situated on the leeward of Cardamom
Reason (R): The regional variations in hill.
the climatic characteristics strikingly A. Both A and R are true and R is the
differentiate the climate of different correct explanation of A
regions of India. B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the D. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 145. The amount and intensity of monsoon
C. A is true but R is false rainfall is determined by the frequency
D. A is false but R is true of:
141. Which of the following places in India A. Tropical depression
ranks second among the coldest inhabited B. Cyclones
places in the world? C. Dust-storms
A. Drass (Jammu and Kashmir) D. Western disturbances
B. Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) 146. Which of the following clouds is a middle
C. Manali (Himachal Pradesh) level cloud?
D. Kullu (Himachal Pradesh) A. Altocumulus B. Nimbostratus
142. Assertion (A): The central Asom valley C. Cirrostrates D. Cirrus
lies in rain shadow area. 147. South-west monsoon brings rain in India
Reason (R): The central Asom valley in the month of:
receives less rainfall (163.7 c.m. annual) A. January B. February
in comparison to Cherapunji (1141.9 cm.) C. June D. December
correct explanation of A 148. When south-west monsoon retreats in
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the December, it is called
correct explanation of A A. north-east monsoon
C. A is true but R is false B. east-west monsoon
D. A is false but R is true C. north-west monsoon
D. south-east monsoon
143. Assertion (A): Gujarat and the
neighbouring parts of Rajasthan receive 149. One of the regions that receives from the
scantly rainfall. north-easterly monsoon is:
Reason (R): The mountain ranges of A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala
Gujarat and Rajasthan do not confront C. Asom D. West Bengal
the moisture-laden winds coming from 150. One of the regions that receives rainfall
the Arabian Sea. from the north easterly monsoon is:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala
correct explanation of A C. Asom D. West Bengal
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 151. Which of the following states receives the
correct explanation of A heaviest rainfall?
C. A is true but R is false A. Meghalaya B. Manipur
D. A is false but R is true C. Bihar D. Kerala
152. Which hill tract in India receives the Reason (R): Temperature of sandy area
maximum rainfall? does not fluctuate.
A. Nilgiris B. Aravalli A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Khasi hills D. Eastern ghats correct explanation of A
153. A rainy month is one which receives more B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
than.....of the mean annual rainfall. correct explanation of A
1 C. A is true but R is false
A. 1/12 B. D. A is false but R is true
15
C. 1/10 D. 1/5 161. Which of the following is the hottest
154. The western disturbances originate over: month in south India?
A. Bay of Bengal A. June B. September
B. Arabian Sea C. May D. March
C. Mediterranean Sea
D. Indian Ocean 162. Which of the following places in
Rajasthan is likely to have the highest
155. In Kerala and parts of western coastal land temperature on a day in June?
the pre-monsoon showers are known as:
A. Barmer B. Jaipur
A. western disturbances
C. Udaipur D. Bhilwada
B. Mango shower
C. Nor westers 163. Assertion (A): Bengluru receives lesser
D. Kalbaisakhi rainfall than Mangalore even though both
156. Which of the following is incorrectly are located more or less on the same plain.
matched? Reason (R): Bengluru is situated in the
A. Mango shower — Kerala rain shadow area
B. Kalbaisakhi — Asom and West Bengal A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. Norwester— Maharashtra correct explanation of A
D. Loo — Haryana and Uttar Pradesh B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
157. The south-west monsoon causes rainfall correct explanation of A
over most of the country except. C. A is true but R is false
A. Tamil Nadu B. Punjab D. A is false but R is true
C. Rajasthan D. Gujarat 164. If a strong anticyclone develops on the
158. Which of the following region/area is not southern area of the Arabian sea. It will:
affected by the monsoon of the Arabian A. hamper the monsoon
Sea branch? B. mean premature coming of monsoon
A. The Western Ghat C. delay the monsoon
B. The Punjab Plain D. have no effect on monsoon
C. The Deccan Plateau
D. Madhya Pradesh 165. Which of the following cities in India has
a modest temperature through out the
159. The easterly depressions develop over: year?
A. Bay of Bengal
A. Patna B. Dehradun
B. Bay of Arab Sea
C. Bengluru D. Allahabad
C. Gulf of Cambay
D. Rann of Kutchh 166. Which of the following cities has the sun
160. Assertion (A): Rajasthan remains very overhead at least once a year?
warm during the day and cold in the A. Hyderabad B. Mangalore
night. C. Trivendrum D. Ujjain
167. Which of the following places will have B. May-June
maximum sunlight during the C. July-August
December? D. January-February
A. Shilong B. Kanyakumari 172. As Chaitra-Baisakha is to March-April,
C. Ranchi D. Jodhpur Magha Phalguana to:
168. Which of the following Indian states A. January-February
receives the sun-rays first in the B. September-October
morning? C. July-August
A. Arunachal Pradesh D. March-April
B. Sikkim 173. Which of the following is the first season
C. Tripura according to Indian convention?
D. Meghalaya A. Vasanta B. Sharada
169. Assertion (A): Shimla is cooler than C. Grishma D. Hemanta
Amritsar though both are on the same 174. Match List I with List II and select the
latitude. correct answer using the code given below
Reason (R): Temperature decreases at the lists:
higher altitude. List I List II
A. Both A and R are true and R is the (Indian Calendar) Month (Engish
correct explanation of A Calendar)
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the (a) Aswina-Kartika 1. July-August
correct explanation of A (b) Jyeshtha- 2. November-
C. A is true but R is false Assdha December
D. A is false but R is true (c) Sravana-Bhadra 3. May-June
(d) Margashirsa- 4. September-
170. Match List I with List II and select the pausa October
below the lists— Codes:
List I List II (a) (b) (c) (d)
(Indian seasons) Month (Engish A. 3 4 2 1
Calendar) B. 2 1 3 4
(a) Vasanta 1. November- C. 4 3 1 2
D. 1 2 4 3
December
(b) Hemanta 2. May-June 175. Assertion (A): The north west India
(c) Grishma 3. September- remains exceptionally dry in April and
October May.
(d) Sharada 4. March-April Reason (R): Very few western
depressions pass through the north-west
Codes: India during April-May.
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. 2 3 4 1 correct explanation of A
B. 3 4 1 2 B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
C. 4 1 2 3 correct explanation of A
D. 1 2 3 4 C. A is true but R is false
171. Which of the following months of English D. A is false but R is true
calendar correspond to the Indian season 176. Punjab in winter gets rain because of:
Shishira? A. north-west trade winds
A. March-April B. south-west monsoon
C. cyclones coming from Mediterranean C. China D. Sri Lanka
Sea and Gulf of Iran 186. The Jelepa La pass is situated in:
D. Retreating monsoons A. western frontier
177. According to Indian convention, the year B. north-western frontier
is divided into: C. eastern-frontier
A. six seasons D. north-eastern frontier
B. eight seasons
187. The Patkai hill separates India from:
C. four seasons
A. Myanmar B. China
D. None of these
C. Pakistan D. Sri Lanka
178. India extends between:
188. India has.....major ports along entire
A. 8°4'N to 37°6'N and 68°7' E to 97°
Peninsular coastline.
25'E
B. 7°2'N to 36°5'N and 67°6' E to 96° A. 15 B. 16
25'E C. 14 D. 11
C. 6°1'N to 35°4'N and 66°5' E to 95° 189. Peninsular India is dominated by:
25'E A. highly differentiated relief
D. None of these. B. Senile topography
179. India covers an area of: C. young mountain system
A. 32,87, 263 sq km. D. none of the above
B. 32,86, 253 sq km. 190. The snowline in the Himalaya varies
C. 32,85, 242 sq km. between:
D. 35,87, 243 sq km. A. 4500 to 6000 mt in thewest
180. The area of India is 2.2% of the total B. 4500 to 6000 mt in the east
world area but has: C. 4000 to 5800 mt in the west
A. 16% of the entire human race D. 4000 to 5700 mt in the east
B. 17% of the entire human race 191. The term rhododendrons is applied to:
C. 15% of the entire human race A. particular animals found in Himalaya
D. 14% of the entire human race B. deciduous trees
181. India measures.....km. North to south. C. trees
A. 2,9,33 km. B. 3,2,14 km. D. A and B are correct
C. 3,244 km. D. 2,9,34 km. 192. Dhauladhar range is situated in:
182. India measures.....km. east to west. A. lesser Himalaya
A. 2,9,33 km. B. 3,2,14 km. B. Greater Himalaya
C. 2,9,22 km. D. 2 7-11 km. C. Outer Himalaya
183. The coastline of India is about: D. Trans Himalaya
A. 8100 km. B. 7100 km. 193. The largest glacier is:
C. 6100 km. D. 5100 km. A. Baltoro B. Hispar
184. The valley of Leh, Gilgit are the: C. Batura D. Bipo
A. eastern outpost of India 194. Mizo hills are:
B. Northern most out post of India A. northern part of the northern east
C. North eastern outpost of India ranges
D. North western outpost of India B. southern part of the north east ranges
185. Kirthar hill separates India from: C. part of north-western ranges
A. Pakistan B. Afghanistan D. None of the above
195. The Himalayan region comes in: B. The Siwaliks, the Himachal and the
A. frequent earthquake zone Himadri
B. earthquake free zone C. The Himadri, the Siwalik and
C. comparatively less than eastern ghat Himachal
D. none of the above D. The Siwaliks, the Himadri and
196. Between the Himalaya in the north and Himachal
the stable table land of the peninsula lies: 203. The Siwaliks were formed during the:
A. Indo-Gangetic Plain having Semi-arid A. the mid miocene to lower pleistocene
plain as well as delta B. miocene time
B. Vast Indo-Gangatic plain only C. the cenozoic times
C. only the Desert D. the pleistocene
D. Both A and B 204. The Siwaliks are called.....in Arunachal
197. The name “dust of mountains” is given Pradesh.
to: A. Dhang B. Miri
A. Coastal areas (western) C. Dundwa D. Churiacohati
B. Deccan regions 205. The Shimla Hill Station is situated on:
C. Alluvial Plain A. the Shimla range
D. None of the above B. the Pir Panjal range
198. The great alluvial plain of India contains C. the Dhauladhar range
about: D. none of these
A. 1/3rd of total land as well as sea area 206. The river Narayani is the important
B. 2/3rd of the total land area tributary of the river.
C. 1/3rd of the total land area A. Gandak B. Ganga
D. 2/3rd of the total land as well as sea C. Ghaghra D. Yamuna
area 207. The river Brahmaputra or Tsangpo origi-
199. The oldest and one of the stable land nates from:
masses of the world is: A. Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh
A. Peninsular India B. Manali hills of Himachal Pradesh
B. Vast plain C. Mansarovar Lake
C. Himalayan region D. Chemayungdung glacier
D. Greenland 208. The river Baitarni drains into
200. Bundelkhand upland comes in: A. Arabian Sea. B. Indian Ocean.
A. the southern highlands C. Bay of Bengal. D. Rann of Kachh.
B. the northern highlands 209. East to west India covers almost the some
C. the central highlands distance as it does north to south, which
D. the western highlands is approximately.
201. Ajanta and Ellora hills lie in A. 6000 km. B. 5000 km.
A. North of Narmada C. 4000 km. D. 3000 km.
B. North of Tapi 210. Rechna doab is lying between the rivers:
C. South of Godavari A. The Chenab and the Jhelum
D. South of Tapi B. The Beas and the Ravi
202. Which order of the three parallel ranges C. The Ravi and the Chenab
is correct, according to arrangement? D. The Sutlej and the Ravi
A. The Himachal, the Siwaliks and the 211. Sind Sagar doab is lying between the
Himadri rivers.
A. The Jhelum-Chenab and the Indus 220. At the level of above 20 km winds are:
B. The Jhelum and Indus A. Westerly in winter
C. The Beas and the Ravi B. Easterly in summer
D. The Sutlej and the Beas C. Both A and B
212. All along the foot of the Siwaliks lies: D. None of these
A. Khadar 221. Indian monsoon is marked by seasonal
B. Bhabar shift caused by:
C. Bhangar A. great uniformity of temperature
D. None of the above B. cold winds of central Asia
213. The pebble beds of Bhabar region are C. deferential heating of the land and sea
usually: D. none of these
A. parallel to the slope of the river-bed 222. India have regular reversal of wind
B. transverse to the slope of the river- system at the time of:
beds A. the equinox
C. all of these B. the summer solstice
D. none of these C. the winter solstice
214. Along the dry course of Alluvial Plain D. None of these
these occurred numerous Alkaline Lakes 223. The wind system is largely confined to
locally known as: the tropics i.e. between:
A. Dhoros B. Bhangar A. 30°N and 20°S.
C. Khadar D. Dhang B. 20°N and 30°S.
215. The Khadar belt of Punjab plain is locally C. 20°N and 20°S.
known as: D. 30°N and 30°S.
A. Bad Lands B. Good Land 224. The line of demarcation between the trade
C. Bet Lands D. Dhoros winds of the northern and the southern
216. The peninsular river.....forms wide, fan hemisphere is often known as:
shaped, conspicuous delta, along eastern A. Inter temperate front
coast. B. Inter tropical front
A. Godavari B. Narmada C. Cold front
C. Tapi D. None of these. D. None of these
217. The river Tista is tributary of: 225. The example of sedentry soil is:
A. the Brahmaputra A. the black cotton soils
B. Yamuna B. alluvial soils
C. Ganga C. the peaty soil
D. Indus D. Both A and C
218. The waterfall Kapildhara is on the river: 226. Azonal soils are also known as:
A. Narmada B. Tapi A. transported soil B. drift soils
C. Godavari D. Krishna C. alluvial soils D. All of the above
219. The term “monsoon” is applied to a wind 227. The Indian Council of Agriculture
regime research divided Indian soils in:
A. Above a level of 20 mt. A. 8 different categories
B. Above a level of 20 km. B. 9 different categories
C. Above a level of 30 km. C. 7 different categories
D. Above a level of 30 mt. D. 11 different categories
228. The depth of Alluvial soil generally 238. Soils found on the north Indian Plain is:
exceeds about below the ground surface. A. transported and deposited by the
A. 800 mts. B. 800 ft. rivers
C. 600 mts. D. 600 ft. B. closely related to the parent rocks
229. The older alluviation known as Bhanger C. formed by the weathering of the rocks
is found.....above the flood level: insites
A. about 30 ft. B. 60 mts. D. none of these
C. 60 ft. D. 30 ft. 239. Koeppen’s system of classification is based
230. Peat and marshy soils originate in the: on:
A. below 400 mts. from the sea level A. on monthly values of term and
B. above 400 mts. from the sea level precipitation
C. humid regions B. precipitation
D. dry regions C. temperature
D. none of these
231. Saline and Alkaline soils specially occur
in: 240. Koeppen identified.....major climatic
A. Rajasthan B. Uttar Pradesh region.
C. Kerala D. Both A and B A. Seven B. Six
C. Five D. Four
232. The name Reh is given to:
A. Alkaline and Saline soil 241. Thornth waite’s system, of climate
B. Alluvial soil classification is based on:
C. Black soil A. on the concept of water balance
D. Red soil B. only precepitation
233. Chemically the Black Soils are deficient C. on monthly values of temperature
in: D. none of these
A. organic matter B. iron 242. The distribution of annual rainfall Bengal
C. potash D. none of these and Orissa coasts steadily, declines
234. Black Soils are mainly concentrated in: towards:
A. Maharashtra B. Gujarat A. the north-west
C. Kerala D. Both A and B B. the west
235. The process of pedogenesis includes: C. the north-east
A. classification of soils D. Both A and B
B. formation of soils 243. In the dry regions of west Rajasthan the
C. hydrological cycle rainfall is below:
D. none of these A. 40 cm. B. 30 cm.
236. The pattern of soil is determined by: C. 20 cm. D. 10 cm.
A. climate 244. The highest rainfall exceeds.....in a year
B. altitutde in the hills of Meghalaya.
C. Both climate and altitude A. 300 cm. B. 200 cm.
D. none of these C. 100 cm. D. 50 cm.
237. Soils and natural vegetations are: 245. The Ganga has its minimum flow in the
A. mutually interdependent period:
B. independent to each other A. January to June
C. inter dependent and modify the other B. June to October
against the ecosystem C. December to March
D. none of these D. None of these
246. The peninsular rivers are.....in nature. B. the great Himalayas
A. Monsoonal C. the Himachal ranges
B. Perennial D. none of these
C. Non-perennial 256. The Namcha Barwa is located near:
D. to depend on both snow melt and A. Namcha Barwa
rainfall for water supply B. North of Arunachal Pradesh
247. The river Girna joins the river: C. Nanga Parbat
A. Krishna B. Godavari D. Both A and B
C. Tapi D. Narmada 257. The Ladakh plateau occupies the.....por-
248. The north-west flank of plateau is drained tion of Kashmir.
by: A. North-eastern B. North-western
A. Sabarmati B. Tapi C. South D. North-south
C. Narmada D. Krishna 258. The Shipki La pass is in:
249. Which of the following river is land A. Bihar
locked? B. Jammu & Kashmir
A. Narmada B. Sabarmati C. Himachal Pradesh
C. Luni D. Tapi D. Uttar Pradesh
250. The port Tuticorin is located near: 259. The Nathu La is an important pass in:
A. Gulf of manner A. Sikkim
B. Gulf of Khambat B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Gulf of Kachch C. Uttarakhand
D. None of these D. Uttar Pradesh
251. The name Jammu Hills in Jammu is 260. Garlang, Zaskar and Dras and shigar
given to: are tributaries of:
A. the Himachal B. the Himadri A. Ganga B. Brahmaputra
C. the Sahyadri D. the Siwaliks C. Yamuna D. Indus
252. Most of the Himalayan rivers have their 261. Beyond Farakka, the main stream of the
sources in: Ganga flows into Bangladesh by the name:
A. the Aravali A. Bhagirathi B. Punpun
B. the Siwaliks C. Padma D. Son
C. the Himachal and the Himadri 262. Which of the following is the largest river
D. Both A and B of Peninsular India?
253. The important hill station Ranikhet is A. Krishna. B. Cauveri.
situated in the: C. Mahanadi. D. Godavari.
A. Himachal ranges B. Himadri 263. Match List I with List II and select the
C. Siwalik D. All of the above correct answer using the code given
254. The average height of the Pir Panjal below the lists:
range is: List I List II
A. 4000 mt. B. 5000 mt. (Rivers) (Tributaries)
C. 6000 mt. D. 7000 mt. (a) Indus 1. Mahanadi
255. The metamorphosed sediments with (b) Ganga 2. Bhima
grantic core is the common feature of (c) Krishna 3. Wainganga
A. the Siwaliks (d) Godavari 4. Nubra
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 2 3 4 1 1
B. 3 4 1 2
2
C. 4 1 2 3 3
D. 1 2 3 4 4
264. Which of the following states does not
share the Godavari?
A. Gujarat
B. Karnataka A. 1. Jhelum 2. Ravi 3. Sutlej. 4. Indus
C. Madhya Pradesh B. 1. Ravi 2. Jhelum 3. Indus 4. Chenab
C. 1. Sutlej 2. Luni 3. Ravi 4. Beas
D. Andhra Pradesh
D. 1. Indus 2. Jhelum 3. Chenab 4. Ravi
265. Assertion (A): Godavari is often referred
269. Under the regulations of the Indus water
to as Vridha Ganga.
treaty signed with Pakistan, India can
Reason (R): Godvari is larger than
utilize.....percent of the Indus water.
Ganga in size. A. 45 B. 40
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. 42 D. 20
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 270. The headstreams of Ganga, Bhagirathi
correct explanation of A and Alaknanda, unite at
C. A is true but R is false A. Haridwar. B. Rudraprayag.
D. A is false but R is true C. Badrinath. D. Dev Prayag.
271. Assertion (A): Deccan rivers fluctuate
266. Which of the following rivers empties
in volume.
itself into the Arabian Sea?
Reason (R): Deccan rivers are rain-fed.
A. Cauvery B. Krishna
C. Narmada D. Mahanadi
267. Match List I with List II and select the B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct answer using the code given correct explanation of A
below the lists: C. A is true but R is false
List I List II D. A is false but R is true
(Rivers) (Place of Origin) 272. Brahmaputra in Bangladesh is known by
(a) Chambal 1. Mhow (Vindhya the name:
range) A. Brahmini
(b) Son 2. Amarkantak B. Yamuna and Meghna
(c) Indus 3. Verinag C. Padma
(d) Jhelum 4. Kailash range D. Hugli
Codes: 273. Which of the following rivers has its
(a) (b) (c) (d) source near Ajmer in the Aravalli range?
A. 4 1 3 2 A. Tapi B. Sabarmati
B. 3 4 1 2 C. Suvarnrekha D. Luni
C. 2 3 1 4 274. Assertion (A): The deltas are not found
D. 1 2 4 3 at the mouth of Narmada.
268. Which of the following options correctly Reason (R): Narmada does not contain
indentifies the rivers numbered 1, 2, 3 large quantities of alluvial matter and
and 4 in the map given below? its mouth faces strong tides and currents.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the Reason (R): The tributaries of the
correct explanation of A Brahmaputra are large and they pour
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the enormous quantities of water.
correct explanation of A A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
D. A is false but R is true B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
275. Assertion (A): The Volume of water in correct explanation of A
the Ganga increases towards the east. C. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): Rainfall in India increases D. A is false but R is true
towards the east 283. Match List I with List II and select the
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct answer using the code given below
correct explanation of A the lists:
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the List I List II
correct explanation of A (Springs) (Places)
C. A is true but R is false (a) Mani Karan 1. Kulu
D. A is false but R is true (b) Tatapani 2. Shimla
(c) Jawalamukhi 3. Kangra
276. Which among the following rivers is a
(d) Rajgir 4. Nalanda
tidal river?
A. Tapi B. Narmada Codes:
C. Ganga D. Hooghly (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 1 2 3 4
277. The length of Yamuna from its source to
B. 4 3 2 1
the point of its merger into Ganga.
C. 3 2 4 1
(Allahabad) is about:
D. 1 3 2 4
A. 2000 km. B. 1500 km.
C. 1375 km. D. 1175 km. 284. Tochi, Gilgit and Hunza are tributaries
of:
278. Which of the following rivers is known
A. Ganga B. Indus
by the names the Kali and the Chauka
C. Brahmaputra D. Yamuna
at different places?
A. Brahmini B. Luni 285. Adyar estuary is located in:
C. Sarda D. Kosi A. Orissa B. Tamil Nadu
C. West Bengal D. Andhra Pradesh
279. Which of the following rivers has not been
declared as national waterway? 286. Match List I with List II and select the
A. Sutlej B. Brahmaputra correct answer using the code given
C. Godavari D. Krishna below the lists:
List I List II
280. Which of the following rivers makes an (Wetlands) (States)
estuary? (a) Kolleru 1. Rajasthan
A. Bhagirathi Hooghly (b) Pichola 2. Punjab
B. Mahanadi (c) Ashtamudi 3. Andhra Pradesh
C. Godavari (d) Harike 4. Kerala
D. Krishna
Codes:
281. The Brahmaputra in Tibet is known as: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Dhansiri. B. Padma. A. 3 1 4 2
C. Dibang. D. Tsangpo. B. 1 2 4 3
282. Assertion (A): The Brahmaputra carries C. 3 2 1 4
an immense quantity of water. D. 4 3 2 1
287. Match List I with List II and select the Reason (R): The kosi shifts its course
correct answer using the code given deposits silt and causes floods.
below the lists: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
List I List II correct explanation of A
(Wetlands) (States) B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
(a) Ujni 1. Punjab correct explanation of A
(b) Renuka 2. Himachal Pradesh C. A is true but R is false
(c) Loktak 3. Manipur D. A is false but R is true
(d) Kangli 4. Maharashtra 294. Assertion (A): The concept of natural
Codes: resource is said to be culture bound.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Reason (R): There is a close relationship
A. 4 2 3 1 between the resource and the level of
B. 1 2 3 4 technological (cultural) development.
C. 2 3 4 1
D. 3 2 1 4
288. Which of the following is incorrectly correct explanation of A
matched? C. A is true but R is false
A. Kabar Lake — Bihar D. A is false but R is true
B. Nalsarovar Lake — Gujarat 295. Match List I with List II and select the
C. Wullar Lake — Jammu and Kashmir correct answer using the code given below
D. Chilka — Andhra Pradesh the lists:
289. Which of the following Lakes is a Plaga List I List II
Lake? (Coalfied) (State)
A. Nainital Lake B. Sambhar Lake (a) Karanpura 1. Uttar Pradesh
C. Renuka Lake D. Chilka Lake (b) Sohagpur 2. Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tandur 3. Jharkhand
290. Which of the following Lakes is formed
(d) Singrauli 4. Madhya Pradesh
by the Volcanic activity?
A. Bhimtal Lake Codes:
B. Gobi and Sagar (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. Kabar Lake A. 3 4 2 1
D. Neelsarovar Lake B. 4 3 1 2
C. 1 2 4 3
291. Which of the following Lakes is an D. 2 1 3 4
ox bow Lake? 296. The largest reserve of coal in India occurs
A. Pulicat (Tamil Nadu) in:
B. Chilka (Orissa) A. Damodar Basin. B. Godavari Basin.
C. Wullar (Jammu and Kashmir) C. Narmada Basin. D. Cauvery Basin.
D. Sambhar (Rajasthan)
297. Ankeleshwar, Nawagam, Kalal, sobhasan
292. Which of the following Seas in Indian and sand oil-fields are situated in:
Ocean is the largest one? A. Asom. B. Mumbai
A. Bay of Bengal C. Gujarat. D. Andhra Pradesh.
B. Persian Gulf 298. Gulf of combay is associated with:
C. Gulf of Cambay A. oil and natural gas
D. Gulf of Aden. B. coal
293. Assertion (A): The Kosi is also known C. hydro electricity
as Bihar’s sorrow. D. nuclear minerals
299. Matatilla multipurpose project (Uttar A. Uttar Pradesh
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh) is located B. Himachal Pradesh
on river. C. Gujarat
A. Ganga B. Betwa D. West Bengal
C. Mahanadi D. Damodar 306. Which of the following pairs of hydro-
300. Which among the following projects is electricity projects and their locations is
administered by more than one state? incorrectly matched?
A. Hirakund B. Tungabhadra A. Uri Dulhasti — Jammu and Kashmir
C. Bhakra Nangal D. Kosi B. Shamera — Himachal Pradesh
C. Tanakpur — Rajasthan
301. Which of the following dams/projects is D. Loktak — Manipur
not situated in Gujarat?
A. Kakrapar B. Ukai 307. Which of the following districts in India
C. Mahi D. Tawa leads in the production of Havemetite
iron-ore?
302. Which of the following is true of Farakka A. Chickmagalur B. Singhbhum
project? C. Keonjhar D. Sundergarh
1. It is aimed at saving the Hooghly from
308. Noamundi and Manoharpur iron mining
salinity and silting
centres are located in:
2. It was constructed to improve the A. Madhya Pradesh
Navigation in Hooghly. B. Orissa
3. It is a barrage across the Ganga. C. Jharkhand
Codes: D. Bihar
A. 1 and 2 only
309. Badampahar and Sulaipat iron mining
B. 1 and 3 only
centres are situated in:
C. 2 and 3 only
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Karnataka
D. All of the above
C. Orissa D. Tamil Nadu
303. Assertion (A): Most of the nuclear power
310. Bhilai Steel Works receive iron ore from:
stations in India have been constructed A. Dhauli and Rajhara hills
near sources of water. B. Babubudan hills and Sulaipat
Reason (R): Nuclear power stations C. Badampahar and Monoharpur
require great quantity of water for cooling D. Gua and Noamundi
purpose.
311. 55% iron-ore in India is produced by:
A. Bihar and Orissa
B. Karnataka and Orissa
C. Bihar and M.P.
D. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
D. A is false but R is true 312. India has an estimated reserve of 28500
million tonnes of iron-ore which accounts
304. Monazite, Ilmenite, Ruttile and Sillimanite for about.....of the total reserves of the
are the minerals found in beach sands of world.
Kerala. Among these minerals.....is the A. 50% B. 60%
source of uranium and thorium. C. 40% D. 20%
A. Monazite B. Ilmenite
313. Balaghat—Bhandara—Nagpur belt is
C. Ruttite D. Sillimanite
famous for
305. Sanjay Vidyut project, Asia’s first fully A. Manganese ore B. Iron ore
underground Hydel-project is located in : C. Mica ore D. Bauxite
314. India has monopoly in the production Codes:
of..... in the world. (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Manganese B. Thorium A. 1 4 3 2
C. Uranium D. Iron B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 2 1 4
315. Assertion (A): Mica is indispensable for
D. 2 1 4 3
the manufacture of elctrical equipments.
Reason (R): Mica is a good conductor of 320. Muscovite phlogopite and biotite are the
electricity. three major forms of:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. Bauxite B. Gypsum
correct explanation of A C. Mangnese D. Mica
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 321. Ramgiri and Yeppamanna goldfields are
correct explanation of A located at:
C. A is true but R is false A. Anantpur (Andhra Pradesh)
D. A is false but R is true B. Jaisalmer (Rajasthan)
316. Kodarma, Giridih and DommChanch C. Raichur (Karnataka)
(Jharkhand) are the chief collecting D. Bastar (Madhya Pradesh)
centres of: 322. Hutti in Raichur district of Karnataka is
A. Coal B. Manganese famous for:
C. Iron D. Mica A. Copper-fields
317. Which of the following bauxite deposits B. Coal-fields
in considered as the largest one in India? C. Iron ore deposits
A. Riasi and Poonch deposit (Jammu & D. Gold fields
Kashmir) 323. Which of the following states in India
B. Panchpat mali deposit (Odisha) leads in the production of lead and zink?
C. Gandhamardan deposit (Odisha) A. Rajasthan B. Jharkhand
D. Balaghat deposits (Madhya Pradesh) C. Uttar Pradesh D. Bihar
318. Assertion (A): The aluminium (desired 324. Zawar mines (Udaipur) are famous for:
from bauxite) is used in the manufacture A. lead and zinc
of aeroplanes and automobile engines. B. sulphur and zypsum
Reason (R): The aluminium is a light C. iron and copper
and tough metal. D. mica and bauxite
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 325. Diamonds mines in India are located in:
correct explanation of A A. Rajasthan
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the B. Madhya Pradesh
correct explanation of A C. Bihar
C. A is true but R is false D. Tamil Nadu
326. Which one of the following is the wrong
319. Match List I with List II and select the pair?
correct answer using the code given A. Sulphur — Rohtas
below the lists: B. Gypsum — Jamsar
List I List II C. Phosphate — Thar Desert
(Copper) (States) D. Potash — Kerala Coast
(a) Rangpo 1. Jharkhand
(b) Kalyadi 2. Karnataka 327. Thorium is recovered most economically
(c) Mosabani 3. Sikkim from monazite which occurs extensively
(d) Jhanewasna 4. Maharashtra in the sands.
A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala Reason (R): The paper industry is
C. Goa D. Andhra Pradesh essentially plantation based.
328. Which of the following is wrongly A. Both A and R are true and R is the
matched? correct explanation of A
A. Shompens — Andaman & Nicobar B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
B. Minicoy — Lakshadweep correct explanation of A
C. Khasi — Mizoram C. A is true but R is false
D. Garo — Madhya Pradesh
329. Which of the following cities is a well
known centre for tanning process known
below the lists:
as E.L. (East India) tanning?
List I List II
A. Agra B. Kanpur
(Paper Mills) (State)
C. Surat D. Madras (a) Baranagore 1. Andhra Pradesh
330. Which of the following states leads in (b) Sirpur 2. Maharashtra
production of chrome-tanned hides? (c) Vikhroli 3. Madhya Pradesh
A. Tamil Nadu B. Uttar Pradesh (d) Shahdol 4. West Bengal
C. West Bengal D. Maharashtra Codes:
331. Jharia, Kudremukh, Khetri and Kolar (a) (b) (c) (d)
are associated with: A. 2 3 4 1
A. Iron, Coal, Copper and Gold B. 3 4 1 2
B. Coal, Iron, Copper and Gold C. 4 1 2 3
C. Copper, Iron, Coal and Gold D. 1 2 3 4
D. Coal, Copper, Iron and Gold 337. The best grades of papers such as bond
332. As glass bangles is to Firozabad, so is ledger, and book are made from:
enamelling (Minakari) of jwellery to: A. Wood pulp. B. Soda pulp.
A. Patna B. Bhubaneshwar C. Kraft pulp. D. Sulphite pulp.
C. Jaipur D. Shimla 338. The major part (85%) of the news print
333. The first paper mill in India was paper consists of:
established in 1832 at: A. Wood pulp B. Soda pulp
A. Kalyan C. Alfa cellulose D. Sulphite pulp
B. Serampur (West Bengal) 339. Match List I with List II and select the
C. Sehore correct answer using the code given
D. Belagola below the lists:
List I List II
334. Apart from Bamboo, Sabai and Salai
(Kinds of Paper) (Materials)
grasses make the main raw materials
(a) Wrapping paper 1. Soda pulp
for paper industry. These grasses are
(b) Blotting paper 2. Kraft pulp
mainly grown in:
(c) Facial tissue 3. Flax
A. Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cigarette paper 4. Sulphite pulp
B. Bihar
C. Rajasthan Codes:
D. Gujarat (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 4 3 2 1
335. Assertion (A): More land should be B. 3 2 1 4
brought under plantation of eucalyptus C. 1 4 3 2
and other trees for making paper. D. 2 1 4 3
340. The first rubber factory in India started 347. Which of the following iron and steel
in 1955 at: plant is not a public sector enterprise?
A. Barauni (Bihar) A. Jamshedpur B. Bhilai
B. Behrampur (Orissa) C. Rourkela D. Durgapur
C. Sonapur (Asom) 348. Match List I with List II and select the
D. Bareilley (Uttar Pradesh) correct answer using the code given
341. At present, Kerala is the most important below the lists:
rubber producing state in India with List I List II
plantations concentrated particularly (Steel Plant) (Source of Power)
in..... and.....districts. (a) Visvesvaraya 1. Korba Power
Station
A. Kottayam, Quilon
(b) Bhilai 2. Hirakud Project
B. Trichur, Palghat
(c) Rourkela 3. Sharavati Project
C. Palghat, Quilon
(d) Durgapur 4. Damodar Valley
D. Trichur, Kannur Corporation
342. Which of the following is the first iron Codes:
and steel industry in India set up in 1870 (a) (b) (c) (d)
at Kulti? A. 1 4 3 2
A. Bengal Iron Works B. 2 3 4 1
B. Tata Iron and Steel Company C. 3 1 2 4
C. Indian Iron and Steel Company D. 4 2 1 3
D. Mysore Steel Works 349. Match List I with List II and select the
343. Which is the largest steel plant of India? correct answer using the code given below
A. Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant the lists:
B. Diatri Steel Plant List I List II
C. Indian Iron and Steel Company (Steel Plant) (Source of Iron-ore)
D. Bokaro Steel Plant (a) Jamshedpur 1. Guru Mahisani
mines
344. Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Works was
(b) Visvesvaraya 2. Dauli Rajhara
formerly known as: mines
A. Mysore Steel Works (c) Bhilai 3. Kemangundi
B. Bengal Iron Works mines
C. Tata Iron and Steel Works (d) Durgapur 4. Bolani Mines
D. Indian Iron and Steel Works Codes:
345. Which of the following rivers provides (a) (b) (c) (d)
water to Tata Iron and Steel Plant A. 3 2 4 1
Jamshedpur? B. 2 4 1 3
A. Mahanadi B. Gandak C. 4 1 3 2
D. 1 3 2 4
C. Subarnrekha D. Brahmaputra
350. Which of the following is the only
346. The three iron and steel plants at Kulti,
company which has developed the
Burnpur and Hirapur have been merged capability of the manufacturing of rigs
together as: used in off shore drilling?
A. Tata Iron and Steel Company A. The Mazgaon Dock Ltd.
B. Indian Iron and Steel Company B. The Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
C. Bengal Iron Works C. The Hindustan Machine Tools Ltd.
D. Mysore Iron Works D. M/s Larsen and Toubro Ltd.
351. The production of cement in India was 359. Match List I with List II and select the
first started in 1904 at: correct answer using the code given
A. Kolkata B. Surat below the lists:
C. Chennai D. Agra List I List II
352. Which of the Steel Plants and country of (Industry) (Location)
collaboration/assistance is wrongly (a) D.D.T. 1. Sindri
matched? (b) Tractor 2. Ranipur
A. Rourkela — Germany (c) Heavy machi- 3. Alwaye
B. Durgapur — United Kingdom nery
C. Bokaro — Former U.S.S.R. (d) Fertilizer 4. Faridabad
D. Bhilai — U.K. Codes:
353. Maruti Udyog Ltd is located at: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Ranchi B. Patna A. 2 3 4 1
C. Gurgaon D. Faridabad B. 1 2 3 4
354. The Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. (HAL) C. 3 4 2 1
is situated at: D. 4 1 3 2
A. Kanpur B. Ahmedabad 360. Equipment of transmission towers and
C. Bengaluru D. Nagpur roadways are manufactured at:
355. Aero engines are manufactured at: A. Cochin, Panji, Paradeep
A. Chittaranjan (West Bengal) B. Ranchi, Naini, Tungabhadra
B. Koraput (Orissa) C. Bokaro, Haldia, Paradeep
C. Salem (Tamil Nadu) D. Cochin, Haldia, Ballidila
D. Jamshedpur (Jharkhand) 361. Churk (Uttar Pradesh) is famous for:
356. Tata Chemicals, Mithapur (Gujarat) is A. Glass bangles
the largest production centre of: B. Hosiery
A. Sulphuric acid B. Soda ash C. Cement industry
C. Alcohol D. Pesticides D. Electrical goods
357. Which industry is basically dominated 362. National Inland Waterways No. 1 runs
by private bodies? from:
A. Cement A. Haldia to Allahabad
B. Fertilizers B. Sadiya to Dhubri
C. Iron and Steel C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Paper
D. None of these
358. Location of an industry can be explained
363. The commodity which accounts for
by traditional geographical factors. But
maximum volume of goods transported
sometimes the socio political considera-
by the Railways in India is:
tions outweigh these geographical factors.
The location of which of the following A. iron and steel
industries explains this fact? B. coal
A. Brass ware, Industry, Moradabad C. mineral oil
(Uttar Pradesh) D. metallic ore (other than iron ore)
B. Textile Factory, Ahmedabad (Gujarat) 364. In India, which industry provides jobs to
C. Fertilizer Plant, Jagdispur (Uttar the maximum number of people?
Pradesh) A. Iron and steel
D. Aluminium Factory, Korba (Chhattisgarh) B. Cotton textiles
C. Sugar industry A. Koraput B. Renukoot
D. Tea processing C. Bengaluru D. Adampur
365. Where is the prototype tools factory in 375. Telephone cables are manufactured at:
Maharashtra situated? A. Cochin B. Mumbai
A. Mumbai B. Pune C. Bengaluru D. Kanpur
C. Ambernath D. Nasik 376. Passenger and Merchant Ships are
366. Which of the following manufactures constructed at:
Ambassador car? A. The Hindustan Shipyard at Visakha-
A. Mahindra and Mahindra, Pune patnam
B. Premier Automobiles, Mumbai B. Goa Shipyard
C. Standard Motors, Chennai C. Cochin Shipyard
D. Hindustan Motors, Kolkata D. Mezagaon Docks
367. Which of the following is uncorrectly 377. The land utilisation statistics in India is
matched? available to nearly:
A. Trucks — Jamshedpur A. 92.5 per cent of the total area
B. Standard Car — Chennai B. 98 per cent of the total area
C. 90 per cent of the total area
C. Fiat Car — Mumbai
D. 85 per cent of the total area
D. Jeep — Kolkata
378. The total arable land in India is:
368. Army trucks Shaktiman and Nissan are
A. 35 per cent B. 43 per cent
manufactured at:
C. 15 per cent D. 51 per cent
A. Renukoot B. Perambur
C. Jabalpur D. Chittaranjan 379. Assertion (A): Nearly 5 per cent of the
land in India falls in the category of fallow
369. The Diesel locomotive engines are land.
manufactured at: Reason (R): The fallow lands are
A. Varanasi B. Perambur marginal lands and are cultivated not
C. Chittaranjan D. Jamshedpur every year but once in two or three year.
370. Broad guage railway engines are A. Both A and R are true and R is the
manufactured at: correct explanation of A
A. Chittaranjan B. Varanasi B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
C. Kanpur D. Baroda correct explanation of A
371. Tanks are manufactured at: C. A is true but R is false
A. Kanpur B. Avadi D. A is false but R is true
C. Perambur D. Chittaranjan 380. The area classified as cultivable wasteland
has been estimated as:
372. MIG engines are manufactured at:
A. 6.4 per cent of the total area
A. Koraput B. Kanpur
B. 10.4 per cent of the total area
C. Nasik D. Bengaluru
C. 8.5 per cent of the total area
373. Warships are manufactured at: D. 3.2 per cent of the total area
A. Mazagaon Shipyard
381. Many parts of India face difficulty in
B. Visakhapatnam Shipyard producing multiple crops because:
C. Hindustan Shipyard A. temperature fluctuates in extreme
D. Cochin Shipyard B. monsoons are unpredictable
374. Which of the following places is not the C. water is not easily available
centre for manufacturing aircraft? D. it is not economically satisfactory
382. Which of the following is the second most B. Ryotwari System
important crop of India? C. Zamindari System
A. Wheat B. Rice D. none of the above
C. Jawar D. Bajra 391. The most important industrial crop of
383. Pulses are grown all over the country India is:
except in the areas of: A. Sugarcane B. Cotton
A. unpredictable rainfall C. Tea D. Coffee
B. very high temperature 392. Rice area is characterised by:
C. very high rainfall A. low density of population
D. low rainfall B. moderate density of population
384. The essential features of shifting C. high density of population
cultivation is: D. none of the above
A. rotation of crops 393. Which of the following is not Kharif crop?
B. rotation of fields A. Barley B. Rice
C. single cropping C. Maize D. Sesamum
D. use of plenty of fertilizer
394. Important beverage of Japan, sake is
385. The proportion of area under rice to prepared by fermenting.
total cropped area is: A. Wheat B. Rice
A. 30 percent B. 23 percent C. Barley D. Sorghum
C. 45 percent D. 50 percent
395. Which of the following varieties of wheat
386. The first atomic power plant constructed occupies the largest area in India?
in India was at: A. Triticum aestivum
A. Tarapur B. Narora B. T. durum
C. Kalpakkam D. None of these C. T. turgidum
387. The per capita availability of land in D. T. dicoccum
India is: 396. Which region in India is known as the
A. one fifth of a hectare ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
B. one third of a hectare A. Indo — Gangetic Plain
C. one seventh of a hectare B. Krishna — Godavari Delta Region
D. one sixth of a hectare C. North — East Region
388. Most of India’s cultivated land is under: D. Kerala and Tamil Nadu
A. shifting cultivation 397. Almond (Badam) in India is cultivated
B. sedentry cultivation chiefly.
C. tribal cultivation A. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
D. Dry zone cultivation B. Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
389. Sugarcane cultivation in India is an C. Asom and Meghalaya
example of: D. Punjab and Kashmir
A. plantation agriculture 398. Assertion (A): The Coconut has been
B. shifting cultivation called a Kalpavrikasha.
C. irrigated cultivation Reason (R): The Coconut provides a
D. mechanised cultivation: large number of useful products such as
390. The communal system of farming is also ripe coconut copra, oil and coir.
known as: A. Both A and R are true and R is the
A. Mahalwari System correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not 406. Assertion (A): Blossoming as well as
the correct explanation of A fruiting of apple become insufficient in
C. A is true but R is false absence of chilled winters.
D. A is false but R is true Reason (R): Chilling checks the
dormancy period and induces the opening
399. Potato was introduced in India in the:
of burds in spring.
A. 16th century
B. 17th century
C. 18th century B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
D. 19th century correct explanation of A
400. Which of the following varieties of potato C. A is true but R is false
is the most suitable for hills and plains D. A is false but R is true
of northern India? 407. ‘Project Elephant’ was launched in which
A. Kufri Sheetman of the following year?
B. Kufri Jyoti A. 1992 B. 1986
C. Kufri Alankar C. 1996 D. 1982
D. Kufri Sinduri 408. When are the temperatures highest in
401. Which of the following states in India Southern India?
leads in the production of Litchi? A. June B. April
A. Orissa C. August D. July
B. Bihar 409. Which of the following states has a
C. Madhya Pradesh monoply in the production of sandalwood
D. Andhra Pradesh oil?
402. Which of the following states in India is A. Bihar B. Asom
famous for its banana chips known as C. West Bengal D. Karnataka
Nendran? 410. Central Tobacco Research Institute is
A. Karnataka located at:
B. Tamil Nadu A. Dharwar B. Ranchi
C. Kerala C. Rajahmundry D. Jodhpur
D. Maharashtra 411. Cultivation of which crop in India is
403. Which of the following fruits is also controlled by the government?
known as Adam’s fig and Apple of A. Coconut
paradise? B. Sun-flower
A. Banana B. Mango C. Eucalyptus
C. Guava D. Apple D. Opium-poppy
412. Government Opium Alkaloid Works is
404. Which of the following states in India
located at:
leads in the production of pineapple?
A. Guwahati B. Ludhiana
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Asom
C. Ghazipur D. Indore
C. Bihar D. Tamil Nadu
413. The great Darjeeling teas are grown
405. Which of the following states in India against the backround of.....of the
leads in the production of apple? Himalayas.
A. Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh A. Mount Kanchenjunga
B. Bihar and West Bengal B. Mount Everest
C. Asom and Meghalaya C. Mount Dhaulagiri
D. Orissa and Andhra Pradesh D. Nanga Parbat
414. Cultivation of which of the following 420. Major producer of spices like blackpepper,
classes of tea is commercially the most chillies cloves, ginger and cardamom in
viable? India is:
A. Green tea A. Malabar Coast Strip (Kerala and
B. Olonga tea Maharashtra)
C. Unfermented tea B. Himalaya Terai (Uttar Pradesh)
D. Black tea C. Brahmaputra Valley (Assam)
415. Fenny is a cashew liquor commonly D. Darjeeling foothill (West Bengal)
produced in: 421. The largest quantity of saffron is produced
A. Karnataka B. Gujarat by:
C. Bihar D. Goa A. Himachal Pradesh
416. Which crop is cultivated mainly for its B. Jammu and Kashmir
high protein content? C. Asom
A. Linseed D. Andhra Pradesh
B. Cotton seed 422. Sabarmati, Jamuna, Pankaj and
C. Groundnut Jagannath are high yielding varieties of:
D. Soyabean A. wheat B. maize
417. Match List I with List II and select the C. barley D. rice
correct answer using the code given 423. As sonara 64 is to wheat, so is IR-8 to:
below the lists: A. maize B. rice
List I List II C. barley D. sorghum
(Variety) (Crop)
(a) Ratna 1. Wheat 424. Which of the following is a high yielding
(b) Ranjit 2. Jowar variety of maize?
(c) Java 3. Maize A. Swarna B. Vijay
(d) Narmada-112 4. Rice C. Sonalika D. T.N.L
Codes: 425. Assertion (A): Certain parts of India
(a) (b) (c) (d) are not ideally suited for wheat
A. 4 3 2 1 cultivation.
B. 3 2 1 4 Reason (R): The winter season in these
C. 2 1 4 3 parts is short and relatively warm and
D. 1 4 3 2 dry.
418. Assertion (A): Clay loam soils are the
best suited for cultivation of rice.
Reason (R): Clay loam soils have high
water holding capacity.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A D. A is false but R is true
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 426. Which of the following plant diseases is
correct explanation of A an iron deficiency disease?
C. A is true but R is false A. Dropsy B. Chlorosis
D. A is false but R is true C. Crinkle D. Black heart
419. Which one of the following types of soils 427. Ergot of grains is caused by a pathogen
are the most suited for tea cultivation? known as:
A. Laterite soils B. Red soils A. claviceps B. puccinia
C. Black soils D. Alluvial soils C. ustilago D. xanthomonas
428. The disease, khaira, in rice is caused by: 435. Which of the following is not an
A. Nematode parasite important source of irrigation in India?
B. Fungal parasite A. Tanks B. Wells
C. Bacteria C. Springs D. Canals
D. Deficiency (in) of zinc
436. What percentage of the net irrigated area
429. Rust of wheat is caused by:
in India is under canal irrigation?
A. puccina
A. 24% B. 45
B. ustilago
C. xanthomonas C. 55 D. 25
D. helminthosporium 437. The maximum irrigated area is found in:
430. Which of the following is a serious pest A. J&K B. U.P.
of gram? C. Punjab D. Haryana
A. Sitotroga B. Alevrolobus 438. In which of the following states would
C. Heliothis D. Leptocorisa you not find Bhils?
431. Which of the following is a serious pest A. Kerala
of jute? B. Uttar Pradesh
A. Anomix B. Xylotrechus C. Karnataka
C. Chilo D. Agrotis D. Madhya Pradesh
432. Match List I with List II and select the 439. The multipurpose project irrigating
maximum area in India is:
below the lists:
A. Beas
List I List II
(Pest) (Crop) B. Bhakra Nangal
(a) Pyrilla 1. Coffee C. Damodar Valley
(b) Gandhi 2. Sugarcane D. Hirakud
(c) Boll-warm 3. Rice 440. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi
(d) Shoot-borer 4. Cotton Canal) draws its water from the:
Codes: A. Yamuna
(a) (b) (c) (d) B. Chambal
A. 2 3 4 1 C. Sutlej and Beas
B. 1 4 3 2 D. Chenab
C. 3 1 2 4
D. 4 2 1 3 441. Very high intensity of irrigation is found
in:
433. Assertion (A): Coir industry is mainly
A. Ganga-Yamuna Daob
concentrated in Kerala.
B. Malwa Plateau
Reason (R): Coconut is mainly
cultivated in Kerala. C. Eastern Uttar Pradesh
A. Both A and R are true and R is the D. Central Bihar Plain
correct explanation of A 442. Match List I with List II and select the
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct answer using the code given
correct explanation of A below the lists:
C. A is true but R is false List I List II
D. A is false but R is true (a) Pong dam 1. Krishna
434. Which state is least irrigated in India? (b) Nargunasagar dam 2. Godavari
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Punjab (c) Poochampad project 3. Bhagirathi
C. Haryana D. Bihar (d) Tehri dam 4. Beas
Codes: 449. Tawa irrigation project is in:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Madhya Pradesh
A. 4 1 2 3 B. Orissa
B. 4 3 2 1 C. Maharashtra
C. 1 2 3 4 D. Gujarat
D. 2 3 4 2 450. Assertion (A): Large areas of Indian
plateau are irrigated by means other than
443. In very high intensity irrigational areas canal.
the principal sources of irrigation are: Reason (R): The digging of canals in
A. canals B. wells rocky uneven areas is very expensive and
C. tanks D. rains of limited use.
444. More than half of the net irrigated areas A. Both A and R are true and R is the
in states of Gujarat, Maharashtra and correct explanation of A
Punjab are irrigated by: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
A. tanks
B. rains D. A is false but R is true
C. wells and tube-wells
451. Which of the following groups of two
D. dongs
states are benefitted by Tungabhadra
445. Assertion (A): Canals are the most project?
important sources of irrigation in India. A. West Bengal and Orissa
Reason (R): India has one of the world’s B. Gujarat and Rajasthan
largest canal system stretching over more C. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
than 1 lakh km. D. Kerala and Tamil Nadu
A. Both A and R are true and R is the 452. Which of the following projects comprises
correct explanation of A the Gandhi Sagar dam, the Jawahar
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the Sagar dam and the Rana Pratap Sagar
correct explanation of A dam?
C. A is true but R is false A. Rihand project
D. A is false but R is true B. Machkund project
C. D.V.C. project
446. Irrigation is required in India because of D. Chambal project
A. the low amount of rainfall 453. Match List I with List II and select the
B. the growing of crops call for it correct answer using the code given
C. the uneven distribution of rainfall over below the lists–
space List I List II
D. the uneven distribution of rainfall over (Irrigation Project) (Rivers)
time (a) Bhima 1. Mahanadi
447. Which state in India has the largest area (b) Ukai 2. Godavari
(c) Pochampad 3. Tapti
under irrigation interms of total acres?
(d) Hirakud 4. Pawana
A. Punjab B. Haryana
C. Tamil Nadu D. Uttar Pradesh Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
448. Which river has been harnessed under A. 4 3 2 1
Bhakra Nangal Project? B. 3 4 1 2
A. Ganga B. Sutlej C. 1 4 3 2
C. Chenab D. Ravi D. 1 2 4 3
454. .....is a good milker buffalo distributed 462. The Indian railways are the.....largest
through out Paunjab, Haryana and Uttar electified system in the world.
Pradesh. A. First B. Second
A. Nili B. Ravi C. Third D. Fourth
C. Murrah D. Jaffarabadi 463. Which of the following Indian railway
455. The breed of goat, Beetat is found in: zones covers the maximum distance?
A. Tamil Nadu A. North-eastern zone
B. Punjab B. North zone
C. Andhra Pradesh C. Central zone
D. Orissa D. Western zone
456. The breeds of Buffalo, Nili and Ravi are 464. Match List I with List II and select the
common in: correct answer using the code given below
A. Maharashtra B. Karnataka the lists:
C. West Bengal D. Punjab List I List II
(Railway Zone) (Headquarter)
457. Location of which of the following (a) Southern 1. Secunderabad
organisations in not correct. (b) South central 2. Gorakhpur
A. Central Arid zone Research Institute— (c) North eastern 3. Kolkata
Jodhpur (d) South eastern 4. Chennai
B. Indian Veterinary Reasearch Codes:
Institute—Izatnagar. (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. National Dairy-development Board— A. 2 1 3 4
Surat B. 4 1 2 3
D. National Dairy Research Institute— C. 1 4 3 2
Karnal D. 2 4 1 2
458. In which state of India sheep with quality
465. Which of the following states is not
wool are reared?
covered under the western railway-zone?
A. Uttar Pradesh
A. Gujarat B. Maharashtra
B. Jammu and Kashmir C. Rajasthan D. Bihar
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Himachal Pardesh 466. Which of the following is the first super-
fast train in India?
459. Indian Railway system is the largest in A. Magadh Express
Asia and the.....largest in the world. B. Sampurna Kranti
A. Second B. Third C. Jansatabdi
C. Fourth D. Fifth D. Rajdhani express
460. The India railways entered in the metro 467. The first train commenced in April 1853
age with the opening of.....metro railway between Bombay to Thane covered a
in 1984-85. distance of.....km.
A. Delhi B. Kolkata A. 312 km. B. 165 km.
C. Chennai D. Mumbai C. 34 km. D. 70 km.
461. Which of the following two cities have 468. Which of the following is the largest
the headquarters of two railway zones? railway bridge in India?
A. Madras and Gorakhpur A. Howrah bridge (West Bengal)
B. Guwahati and Secunderabad B. Sone bridge (Bihar)
C. Mumbai and Kolkata C. Eldrin bridge (Uttar Pradesh)
D. Delhi and Madras D. Old Yamuna bridge (Delhi)
469. Which of the following is the longest rail A. Maharashtra B. Goa
route? C. Karnataka D. Kerala
A. Delhi — Mumbai 476. The state with the highest density of road
B. Delhi — Kolkata is:
C. Guwahati — Trivandrum A. Karnataka B. Kerala
D. Amritsar — Pune C. Maharashtra D. Punjab
470. Assertion (A): No railway line has been 477. Amongst the union territories has the
constructed in Tripura, Mizoram,
highest road density.
Manipur and Nagaland.
A. Delhi B. Lakshadweep
Reason (R): The cost involved in
C. Chandigarh D. Pondicherry
providing railway tracks in the hilly
terrain and forested tracts is too high. 478. Which of the following shipyards makes
A. Both A and R are true and R is the warships for the Indian Navy?
correct explanation of A A. Cochin Shipyard, Cochin
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the B. Hindustan Shipyard, Vishakhapattanam
correct explanation of A C. Mazagon Dock, Mumbai
C. A is true but R is false D. Garden Reach Workshop, Kolkata
D. A is false but R is true 479. Which of the following National highways
471. Assertion (A): The rail network in the is the longest one?
whole peninsular region is very dense. A. National Highway-2
Reason (R): The whole of the peninsular B. National Highway-3
region has a hilly and plateau terrain. C. National Highway-4
A. Both A and R are true and R is the D. National Highway-44
480. National highway 7-links:
A. Agra with Mumbai
B. Varanasi with Kanyakumari
C. Nagpur with Madurai
D. Kolkata with Amritsar
472. Indian railways have been divided into.....
zones. 481. Which of the following National
A. 20 B. 19 Highways is known as Sher Shah Suri
C. 16 D. 17 Marg?
A. National Highway-1
473. The Railway Staff College is located to: B. National Highway-2
A. Baroda B. Allahabad C. National Highway-3
C. Lucknow D. Patna
D. National Highway-5
474. Which of the following two cities will be
482. Chhotanagpur in Jharkhand is famous
connected by a broad guage line under
for:
the project Konkan railway corporation
A. oil refinery B. textiles
limited?
C. oranges D. lac industry
A. Pune and Chennai
B. Trivandrum and Mangalore 483. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
C. Mumbai and Mangalore A. Barley B. Gram
D. Ernakulam and Bengaluru C. Rice D. Wheat
475. Which of the following states does not 484. India imports long staple cotton from:
share the line constructed by Konkan A. U.S.A. B. Egypt
Railway Corporation Limited? C. Sudan D. All of these
485. Assertion (A): India and Pakistan have 489. A rainy day as defined by the Indian
relatively little foreign trade. meterological department is a day when
Reason (R): Minerals and crops are the rainfall at a point received is:
absorbed almost entirely by the large A. 0.5 mm to 1mm in 24 hours
population of India and Pakistan. B. 1.1 mm to 1.5 mm in 24 hours
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. 1.6 mm to 2 mm in 24 hours
correct explanation of A D. Above 2.5 mm in 24 hours
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 490. Which among the following pairs of places
correct explanation of A have the most marked difference in total
C. A is true but R is false rainfall per annum even though located
D. A is false but R is true approximately along the same latitude?
486. Which one of the following provides the A. Bengluru and Chennai
correct sequence of occurance of four B. Mumbai and Vishakhapatanam
towns/cities as one proceeds from west to C. Ajmer and Shillong
east? D. Nagpur and Kolkata
A. Rajkot, Baroda, Kharagpur, Bilaspur 491. Soils of western Rajasthan have a high
B. Bikaner, Aligarh, Darbhanga, Nowgong content of:
C. Indore, Rourkela, Agartala, Jamshedpur A. Aluminium
D. Nasik, Aurangabad, berhampur, B. Calcium
Nanded C. Nitrogen
487. Consider the climograph given below: D. Phosphorus
492. The Neyveli thermal power plant is fed
by:
A. Gondwana coal
B. Tertiary coal
C. Quaternary coal
D. Cambrian coal
493. According to the ancient Indian
geographical concept” Bharatavarshas”
was a part of:
A. Pushkaradweepa
B. Jambudweepa
C. Kraunchadweepa
D. Kushadweepa
The above climograph relates to 494. Consider the map given below.
A. North-western region of India
B. Southern region of India
C. Mid central region of India RAIL ROUTES
D. North-eastern region of India Delhi
hi
c
488. In Mizoram the settlement pattern is

ra
Ka
mostly of linear type along the ridge Bhuj

because:
A. the valleys are cooler than ridges
B. accessibility is easier on the ridge tops
C. the ridges are cooler than the valleys Two tourists travelling from Delhi, one
D. the valleys are densely forested to Karachi and other to Bhuj wanted to
have company. The railway junction upto B. It is a place near to a city in India,
which they can travel together as shown which is nearest to the geographical
in the map is: equator
A. Dhulera B. Jodhpur C. It is situated on the geomagnetic equator
C. Luni D. Butotra D. Outer space near Thumba exhibits
495. Which one of the following shows the queer atmospheric phenomena
descending order of the four metropolitan 499. Consider the map given below:
cities in India in so far as their population
strength is concerned?
A. Mumbai, Kolkata, Ahmedabad, New
Delhi
B. Mumbai, Kolkata, New Delhi,
Ahmedabad
C. Mumbai, Kolkata, Ahmedabad, New 1
INDEX
Above 27
Delhi 2 25-27
D. Mumbai, New Delhi, Kolkata, 3

4
22-25
below 22
Ahmedabad
496. The hall mark of watershed develop- The map read with the index provided
ment in the semi arid regions of India is refer to the distribution of:
the: A. Winter rains
A. establishment of sheds on large scale, B. Pressure
so that the rain water does not C. Annual rainy days
evaporate. D. Mean temperature
B. undertaking of earth works, soil
500. The only anthropoid ape to be found in
conservation, in ensures and tree
India is the:
plantation so as to conserve soil
A. Hanuman monkey
moisture and recharge undergound
B. Lion tailed macaque of western ghats
water
C. drilling deep tube-wells so as to tap C. Slow Loris of Assam
water at the rock strata level D. White browed gibbon of Assam
D. setting up a system of tanks by em- 501. The highest milk producing breed of goat
banking water from seasonal rivers in India is:
497. In ancient historical geography the name A. Barbari B. Jamnapari
Ratnakara denoted: C. Block Bengal D. Beetal
A. the Arabian Sea 502. Assertion (A): The monsoon rainfall
B. the Bay of Bengal decreases as one goes north west in the
C. the Indian Ocean Ganga plain.
D. the influence of the Ganga, the Yam- Reason (R): The moisture bearing
una and the mythical Saraswati at monsoonal winds go higher up as one
Prayaga moves up in the Ganga Plain.
498. Which one of the following is the most A. Both A and R are true and R is the
important reason for the establishment correct explanation of A
of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
Thumba? correct explanation of A
A. The sea is near to the place in the C. A is true but R is false
east, west and south direction D. A is false but R is true
503. Which of the following types of erosion is 508. Which of the following fish are bred
responsible for the formation of Chambal exclusively in the cold region of India?
Ravines? 1. Catla 2. Tinca
A. Splash B. Sheet 3. Bhetki 4. Trout
C. Rill D. Gully Codes:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 4
504. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4
of freedom from hunger, has not been
achieved in India inspite of a more than 509. Match List I with List II and select the
three fold rise in food grains production
below the lists:
over 1950-2010. Which of the following
List I List II
are the reasons for it. (Project) (River)
1. The green revolution has been (a) Almatti 1. Tapi
restricted to small pockets of the (b) Idukki 2. Ravi
country. (c) Ranjit Sagar 3. Krishna
2. The cost of food is too high compared (d) Ukai 4. Periyar
to the earnings of the poor. Codes:
3. Too much emphasis is laid on wheat (a) (b) (c) (d)
and paddy compared to the coarse A. 3 4 2 1
grains. B. 4 3 2 1
4. The grains of the green revolution have C. 1 2 3 4
largely accrued to the cash crop rather D. 2 1 4 3
than food crops. 510. Though the railways are the most
Select the correct answer from the codes pervasive mode of transport in India. It
given below: is the road transport which received the
Codes: maximum impetus in most of the post
A. 1, 2 and 3 independence period. Which one of the
B. 1, 2 and 4 following are the reasons for this?
C. 1, 3 and 4 1. Railways are cheap to operate but the
D. 2, 3 and 4 associated capital costs are very high.
505. Surti is a breed of ........... 2. Given the geographic spread of the
human settlements. It is unrealistic
A. Cattle
that the railways alone can serve the
B. Buffalo
needs of transport.
C. Sheep 3. The per unit (tonne/km) cost of
D. Goat transport is cheaper in road compared
506. Which of the following periodical winds to rail transport.
blowing the sea to land cause summer 4. Given to indivisible nature of the
Mansoon in India? railways it is not always convenient
A. East West B. South West for the population to avail of it with
C. South East D. North East the same ease as private car, buses or
two wheelers.
507. Which of the following soil types of India Select the correct answer from the codes
is rendered in fertile by the presence of given below:
excess iron? Codes:
A. Desert sand B. Alluvial A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4
C. Podzolic D. Leteric C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
511. Why is Gujrat, the largest producer of The mountain ranges marked 1, 2, 3 and
salt in India? 4 are respectively.
A. Gujrat possesses the largest dry A. Ladakh, Zaskar, Karakoram and Pir
coastal area Panjal
B. The sea water here is more saline B. Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir
C. Gujrat farmers are highly skilled in Panjal
making salt C. Karakoram Zaskar Pir Panjal and
D. Gujrat has large areas of shallow sea Ladakh
512. Consider the map of India given below: D. Ladakh, Pirpanjal, Karakoram and
Zaskar
517. Consider the map given below:
The map shows:

A. An Isohyet
B. All India water divide
C. A combination of national highways The divisions along India’s costal region
D. A combination of major railway routes indicates:
513. The Himalayas are formed of parallel fold A. Coastal pollution zones
ranges of which the oldest range is: B. Salinity density Isopleths
A. The Siwalik range C. The area up to which sovereignty
B. The Lesser Himalayas extends
C. The great Himalayan range D. Under water relief contours.
D. The Dhauladhar range 518. Of the four places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4
514. Which one of the following does not belong on the map, the one indicating a tidal
to biosphere reserves set up so far? port is:
A. Great Nicobar B. Sunderbans 1
4
C. Nanda Devi D. Gulf of Kachchh
2
515. Which one of the following mountain
ranges is spread over only one state in
India?
A. Aravalli B. Satpura
C. Ajanta D. Sahyadri 3
516. Examine the map of Jammu & Kashmir
given below: A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
519. The Indian subcontinent was originally
1
2
part of a huge landlass called:
3 A. Jurassic landmass
B. Arya varta
4
C. Indiana
D. Gondwana continent
520. Alpine vegetation in the western B. near big rivers
Himalayas is found only upto a height of C. in the hilly and forested areas
3000 metre while in the eastern D. on the periphery of townships
Himalayas it is found up to a height of 525. Which one of the following regions of
4000 metre. The reason for this variation India is now regarded as an ecological
in the same mountain range is that: hot spot?
A. Eastern Himalayas are higher than A. Western Himalayas
western Himalayas B. Eastern Himalayas
B. Eastern Himalayas are nearer to the C. Western Ghats
equator and sea-coast than western D. Eastern Ghats
Himalayas.
C. Eastern Himalayas get more monsoon 526. Which one of the following areas of India
rainfall than the western Himalayas produces largest amount of cotton?
D. Eastern Himalayas rocks are more A. North western India and Gangetic
fertile than the western Himalayan West-Bengal
rocks. B. North west and western India
C. Western and southern India
521. What is Obra? D. Plains of northern India
A. Copper project in Rajasthan
B. Super thermal power project in Uttar 527. The Pak strait lies between:
Pradesh A. Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of
C. Atomic power plant at Kalpakkam Khambhat
D. Hydro-electric project in Uttar B. Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
Pradesh C. Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
522. The palaeomagnetic results obtained from
India indicate that in the past, the Indian 528. Which one of the following sets of
landmass has moved. commodities are exported to India by arid
A. Northward B. Southward and semi arid countries in the Middle
C. Eastward D. Westward East?
523. Monoculture of commercially viable trees A. Raw wool carpets
is destroying the unique natural profile B. Fruits and palm oil
of thoughtless exlplotation of timber C. Precious stones and pearls
deforesting vast tracts for palm D. Perfume and coffee
cultivation, destruction of mangroves, 529. Consider the following rivers:
illegal logging by tribals and poaching 1. Kishenganga 2. Ganga
only compound the problem fresh water 3. Wainganga 4. Penganga
pockets are fast drying up due to Codes:
deforestation and destruction of A. 1, 2, 3, 4
mangroves” The place referred to in this B. 2, 1, 3, 4
quotation is: C. 2, 1, 4 and 3
A. Sunderbans D. 1, 2, 4 and 3
B. Kerala Coast 530. Match the different ports of union
C. Orissa Coast territory of Pondicherry labelled as a b,
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands c and d in the given map with their
524. Tribal settlements in India are usually respective names select the correct
concentrated: answer using the codes given below the
A. on the plains list of ports.
1. Population of each mega city is more
than 5 million.
2. All the mega cities are important
seaports.
3. Mega cities are either national or state
d
capitals.
a c
Codes:
b A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3
List I (Ports of Puducherry) 535. The correct sequence in decreasing orde
1. Karaikal 2. Mahe of the four sugarcane producing states in
3. Puducherry 4. Yanam India is:
Codes: A. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil
(a) (b) (c) (d) Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
B. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil
A. 2 1 3 4
Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
B. 1 2 3 4
C. Maharahstra, Uttar Pradesh , Tamil
C. 2 1 4 3 Nadu.
D. 1 2 4 3 D. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra
531. Which one of the following pairs of Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.
primitive tribes and places of their 536. Consider the following statements:
inhabitation is not correct matched? 1. Maharashtra has the highest acreage
A. Buksa — Pauri-Garhwal. under jawar in India.
B. Kol — Jabalpur. 2. Gujarat is the largest producer of
C. Munda — Chhotanagpur. groundnut in India.
D. Korba — Kodagu. 3. Rajasthan has the largest area of
cultivable waste lands in India.
532. Along which one of the following 4. Andhra Pradesh as the highest per
meridians did India experience the first hectare yield of maize in India.
light of the sunrise of the new Which of these statements are correct?
millennium? Codes:
A. 2°30’W. B. 82°30’E. A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3
C. 92°30’W. D. 92°30’E. C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4
533. Consider the following statements: 537. Match the cities labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and
1. Tides are of great help in navigation 5 in the given map with the name of the
ands fishing. institutes located in these cities and select
2. High tides enable big ships to enter or the correct answer using the code given
leaves the harbour safely. below the names of the institute.
3. Tides prevent siltation in the harbours
4. Kandla and diamond harbour are tidal
ports.
Which of these statements are correct?
Codes:
A. 1 and 4 B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
534. Consider the following statements about
the mega cities of India.
Name of the Institutes Name of the Ports
(a) Central marine fisheries research 1. Kakinada 2. Karwal
institute 3. Mangalore 4. Tuticorn
(b) Central Sheep Breeding Farm 5. Veraval
(c) National Dairy Research Institute Codes:
(d) National Institute of Agricultural (a) (b) (c) (d)
extension managment A. 4 2 3 5
Codes: B. 5 2 4 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. 1 3 4 2
A. 5 1 3 2
D. 5 3 2 1
B. 5 2 1 4
C. 4 2 1 3 540. Transhu mance is practised by the:
D. 1 2 3 4 A. Bhotias B. Bhoksas
538. Match List I with List II and select the C. Jaunsaris D. Tharus
correct answer using the code given below 541. Vembanad Lake is in:
the lists: A. Andhra Pradesh B. Kerala
List I List II C. Odisha D. Tamil Nadu
(Industrial Unit) (Centre) 542. Which one of the following is not correctly
(a) Atlas cycle Co. 1. Bengluru matched?
Ltd.
A. Chennai—The deepest port of India
(b) Bharat Earth 2. Bhubaneswar
B. Cochin—A natural harbour
Movers Ltd.
(c) Indian Farmers 3. Kalol C. JawaharLal Nehru port only
Fertilizers Co- mechanised port in India
operative Ltd. D. Kandla—A tidal port
(d) National Alumi- 4. Sonepat 543. The blue revolution is related with:
nium Co. Ltd. A. Food grain production
Codes: B. Oilseed production
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Milk production
A. 1 4 2 3 D. Fish production
B. 1 4 3 2 544. Devasthal is famous for:
C. 4 1 2 3 A. finding relics of ancient civilisation
D. 4 1 3 2 B. installation of the largest telescope in
539. Match the location of ports labelled as a, Asia
b, c, d, in the given map with the names C. plan to develop a large herbal garden
of those ports and select the correct D. renovation of an ancient shrine
answer using the code given below the
name of the ports. 545. In which of the following areas is Konkani
spoken as the local language?
A. Kerala and Karnataka
B. Maharashtra nad Goa
C. Odisha and West Bengal
D. Andhra Pradesh
a
546. The Green Revolution involved the use of
d high yielding varieties of seeds which
b require:
A. less fertiliser and less water
c
B. more fertiliser and less water
C. less fertiliser and more water Codes:
D. more fertiliser and more water (a) (b) (c) (d)
547. Some people in Manipur live in houses A. 3 4 2 1
built on floating islands of weeds and B. 1 4 2 3
decaying vegetation held together by C. 3 1 4 2
suspended silt. These islands are called: D. 2 3 1 4
A. Tipis. B. Barkhans. 552. Which of the following is not an
C. Phoomdis. D. Izba. important reason for the suitability of the
548. Which one of the following east flowing Mumbai for textile industry?
rivers of India has rift valley due to down A. Moist climate
warping? B. Availability of cheap labour
A. Damodar B. Mahanadi C. Great demand for textile in Mumbai
C. Sone D. Yamuna D. Availability of raw material
549. The discovery of oak flora in 1966 added 553. Which one of the following languages
a new chapter to the history of Indian belongs to the Austria group?
sericulture which one of the following A. Marathi
states is the leading producer of oak tasar B. Ladakhi
silk.
C. Khasi
A. Manipur B. Bihar
D. Tamil
C. Asom D. Odisha
554. The most urbanised state in India is:
550. Commercial production of mineral oil has
started recently in which one of the areas A. Gujarat B. Maharashtra
of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the C. Tamil Nadu D. West Bengal
rough given below: 555. Match List I with List II and select the
the lists:
List I List II
(Places) (Industries)
1 (a) Jamnagar 1. Aluminium
(b) Hospet 2. Woollen textile
2
4 (c) Korba 3. Fertilizers
(d) Haldia 4. Cement
3
5. Iron and Steel
A. 1 B. 2 Codes:
C. 3 D. 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 4 3 1 2
551. Match List I with List II and select the B. 2 5 1 3
C. 4 5 2 1
the list:
D. 2 1 4 3
List I List II
(Minerals) (Mining area) 556. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of
(a) Graphite 1. Bellary specialised towns have been developed,
(b) Lead 2. Didwana match the lists of specialisation with
(c) Salt 3. Rampa towns and select the correct answer using
(d) Silver 4. Zawar the code given below the lists:
List I List II Select the correct answer using the codes
(Towns) (Specialization) given below:
(a) Alibag 1. Fishing centre Codes:
(b) Balapur 2. Holiday resort (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Nhova Sheva 3. Petro-chemical A. 3 4 2 1
complex B. 2 4 1 3
(d) Ratnagiri 4. Port C. 1 2 4 3
D. 2 3 1 4
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 559. Which one of the following ports shown
A. 1 3 2 4 on the rough outline map of India is a
B. 2 3 4 1 riverine port?
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 2 1 4 3
the lists:
List I List II
(a) Jaracoas 1. Tamil Nadu
(b) Abor 2. Himachal Pradesh
(c) Kotas 3. Bihar
(d) Gaddi 4. Arunachal Pradesh A. 1 B. 2
(e) Banjara 5. Andaman & Nicobar C. 3 D. 4
Codes: 560. What is the correct sequence of the
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) following Indian states in descending
A. 5 4 1 2 3 order of their length of national highway
B. 4 5 2 1 3 per 100 km2 of their area?
C. 5 4 3 1 2 1. Haryana
D. 1 2 3 4 5 2. Maharashtra
3. Punjab
558. The rough outline map given shows 4. Tamil Nadu
centres of cements industry labelled 1, 2, Select the correct answer using the code
3 and 4. Match these centres with the given below:
following sets of name. A. 1, 3, 4, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 2
C. 3, 4, 1, 2
D. 3, 4, 2, 1
561. The four railway junctions shown by
numerals 1, 2, 3, 4 on the rough outline
map of Gujarat are respectively:
1
3
(a) Katni (b) Tirunelveli
(c) Sikka (d) Churk 4
A. Palanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and 565. Match the following research institutes
Vadodara A, B,C and D with their respective
B. Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and location labelled as 1 to 6 in the given
Junagarh rough outline map.
C. Palanpur Kanda, Bhuj and Okla
D. Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and
Branch 6
562. Which one of the following is the correct 4
sequence of the states labelled 1, 2, 3 and 2

3
5
4 of India shown on the map in descending

order in terms of their available ground 1
water resources for irrigation?
(a) Central Drug Research Institutes.

4
1
(b) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping
2 Organisation
3 (c) National Institute of ocean technology.
(d) Temperature Forest Research centre.
given below:
A. 3, 4, 1, 2 B. 3, 4, 2, 1 Codes:
C. 4, 3, 1, 2 D. 4, 3, 2, 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
563. Among the Indian States shown labelled A. 4 3 2 6
1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map B. 4 5 1 6
given, the correct sequence of descending C. 2 3 4 5
order of percent of scheduled tribe D. 1 6 2 3
population to their total population is: 566. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
A. Bomdila — Arunachal Pradesh
1
B. Nathula — Sikkim
3 2
C. Bhorghat — Himachal Pradesh
4 D. Palghat — Kerala
567. The most urbanised state in India is:
A. Gujarat B. Maharashtra
C. Tamil Nadu D. West Bengal
A. 1, 3, 2, 4 B. 3, 1, 2, 4
C. 3, 1, 4, 2 D. 1, 3, 4, 2 568. Which one of the following is not the oil
producing field of Gujarat?
564. Which one of the following sets of states
stands to benefit the most from the A. Kalol
Konkan railway? B. Lunoz
A. Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala C. Koshamba
B. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil D. Badarpur
Nadu, Kerala 569. Which among the following are in the
C. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra private sector?
D. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil 1. Bongaigaon Refinery
Nadu 2. Mangalore
3. Haldia Refinery 575. Assertion (A): Northern plains of India
4. Essar Oil Ltd. receive some precipitation during winter
Select the correct answer from the codes season.
given below: Reason (R): North east monsoon is
Codes: active during winter.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the codes
C. 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4 given below.
570. The population of four states in the A. Both A and R are true and R is the
country in descending order in 2011 is: correct explanation of A
A. West Bengal, Maharashtra, Madhya B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu. correct explanation of A
B. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, West C. A is true but R is false
Bengal, Tamil Nadu. D. A is false but R is true
C. Maharashtra, West Bengal, Madhya 576. Chhotanagpur’s contribution to India’s
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu coal production is nearly:
D. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil A. 40 per cent B. 20 per cent
Nadu, West Bengal. C. 60 per cent D. 80 per cent
571. Shifting cultivation is a major problem
577. “The Queen of Hills” will soon be included
in the hilly areas of:
in the UN Heritage list it is:
A. Asom and Bihar
A. Hill Station B. Mountain Peak
B. Bihar and Orissa
C. Toy Train D. Tree
C. Orissa and Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh 578. Assertion (A): India is a monsoon
country.
correct answer using the code given below Reason (R): The high Himalayas impart
the lists: its climatic distinctiveness.
List I List II Select the correct answer from the codes
(a) Manganese 1. Orissa given below.
(b) Asbestos 2. Madhya Pradesh Codes:
(c) Nickel 3. Rajasthan A. Both A and R are true and R is the
(d) Zinc 4. Andhra Pradesh correct explanation of A.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 4 1 2 579. According to the census of 2011 the
D. 2 4 1 3 highest literary rate was recorded in
573. The best cooking coal is mostly obtained Kerala, followed by:
from: A. Chandigarh
A. Jharia B. Neyveli B. Delhi
C. Raniganj D. Singrauli C. Mizoram
D. Puducherry
574. Which one of the following is the land
area in the extreme south of India? 580. Match List I with List II and select the
A. Cape Camorin B. Indira Point correct answer using the code given below
C. Rameshwaram D. Pondicherry the lists:
List I List II A. Kochi B. Alappuzha
(a) Coal 1. Kudremukh C. Kandla D. Mumbai
(b) Copper 2. Zawar 586. The place Sabarimala is situated in which
(c) Iron-ore 3. Khetri of the following states?
(d) Silver 4. Talcher A. Andhra Pradesh B. Tamil Nadu
Codes: C. Kerala D. Karnataka
(a) (b) (c) (d) 587. Which of the following pairs of cities are
A. 1 2 3 4 connected by the bus service between
B. 2 1 4 3 India and Pakistan?
C. 4 3 1 2 A. Amritsar — Lahore
D. 3 2 4 1 B. Islamabad — Delhi
581. The maximum power in India comes from C. Karachi — Delhi
_______ plants. D. Lahore — Delhi
A. thermal B. hydro-electric 588. Which of the following is also known by
C. nuclear D. solar the name of Sahyadri range?
A. Eastern ghats B. Western ghats
C. Shiwaliks D. Vindhayas
the lists: 589. Which of the following occur more
List I List II frequently, than the other three in the
(States) (National Parks) Indian ocean?
(a) Uttarakhand 1. Bandipur A. Cyclones B. Tornadoes
(b) Asom 2. Rajaji National C. Hurricanes D. Typhoons
Park 590. India's permanent research Station
(c) Orissa 3. Similipal Dakshin Gangotri is situated in the:
(d) Karnataka 4. Manas A. Great Himalayas
B. Indian Ocean
Codes:
C. Antarctica
(a) (b) (c) (d) D. Arabian Sea
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 2 4 3 1 591. Irrigation through canals, tube-wells
C. 4 3 2 1 tanks, etc is resorted to in India because:
D. 2 3 1 4 A. The country has a large number of
rivers, big and small.
583. What is the difference between Indian
B. The failure of rains or inadequate rain
standard time and Greenwich standard
can prove highly detrimental to crop
time?
production.
A. – 4 hours and 30 minutes
C. It is easy to regulate water supply to
B. – 5 hours plants according to their needs.
C. + 5 hours and 30 minutes D. It is too much expensive to store rain
D. + 6 hours and 30 minutes water.
584. Telgu Ganga project is intended to solve 592. Which of the following states has the
the drinking water problem of which of literacy rate lower than the national
the following cities? average?
A. Hyderabad B. Bengaluru A. Karnataka
C. Chennai D. Cochin B. West Bengal
585. Which place is known as Queen of the C. Andhra Pradesh
Arabian Sea? D. Maharashtra
593. The distance between New Delhi and 600. To which of the following types does the
which of the following Stations by rail is natural vegetation of the western ghats
the shortest? belong?
A. New Delhi – Thiruvananthapuram A. Evergreen B. Mangrove
B. New Delhi – Bengaluru C. Deciduous D. Alpine
C. New Delhi – Chennai 601. With the addition of the new sea port of
D. New Delhi – Guwahati Navasheva the number of major
594. Pong Dam is a venture undertaken jointly seaports on the western coast of India is.
by which of the following groups of states? A. 4 B. 5
A. Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan C. 6 D. 7
B. Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and 602. Who demarcated the line which divides
Orissa India and Pakistan?
C. Gujarat, Maharashtra and Rajasthan A. Lord Mountbatten
D. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa B. Sir Henry McMohan
595. Which of the following parts of India C. Sir Mortimer Durand
produces nearly two-thirds of the total D. Sir Cyril Rad Cliffe
quantity of tea? 603. According to the 2011 census the states
A. North East–India with the lowest and the highest density
B. Northern India of population are respectively:
C. Southern India A. Nagaland and West Bengal
D. North West India B. Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
596. To which of the following eras does the C. Arunachal Pradesh and Bihar
Aravalli system belong? D. Arunachal Pradesh and Orissa
A. Palaeozoic B. Mesozoic 604. Assertion (A): Madhya Pradesh is the
C. Cainozoic D. Precambrian leading producer of Limestone in India.
597. Which part of India receives rain when Reason (R): The entire output of
the summer monsoon recedes? Limestone in Madhya Pradesh is obtained
A. North east India from the Barakar series.
B. Malabar Coast In the context of the above two
statements which one of the following is
C. Tamilnadu Coast
correct.
D. Orissa
Codes:
598. Mangrove vegetation in India is most A. Both A and R are true and R is the
extensive in: correct explanation of A.
A. Rann of Kutch B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
B. Malabar correct explanation of A.
C. Sunderbans C. A is true but R is false.
D. None of these D. A is false but R is true.
599. The rivers included in which of the 605. Cash crops of India include:
following groups flow into the Bay of A. Cotton and Sugarcane
Bengal? B. Maize, Jowar and Paddy
A. Narmada, Ganges and Brahmaputra. C. Bajra and Paddy
B. Brahmaputra, Ganges and Godavari D. Paddy and Jowar
C. Cauveri, Krishna and Narmada 606. Assertion (A): Godavari is often referred
D. Krishna, Godavari and Tapti to as "Dakshin Ganga" or "Vridha Ganga".
Reason (R): Godavari's size and extent 614. Most of the Indian coal is extracted from:
is large. A. Upper Gondwana rocks
A. A and R are correct and R explains A. B. Middle Gondwana rocks
B. A and R are correct but R does not C. Lower Gondwana rocks
explain A. D. Tertiary rocks
C. A is true but R is incorrect. 615. Which one of the following statements is
D. Both A and R is correct. not true of the Konkan railway?
607. The Indian institute of science is located A. The total length is about 760 km
at: B. It runs through the states of
A. Chennai B. Kolkata Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, Kerala
C. Bengluru D. Mumbai C. It is the only rail route that cuts
608. India's biggest superthermal power across the western ghats.
station is located in: D. The Konkan railway construction
A. Barh near Patna company which came into being raised
B. Talcher-Kiniha in Orissa money through public issues.
C. Koradi near Nagpur 616. The first marine sanctuary in India,
D. Bathinda in Punjab havin within its bounds coral reefs,
609. Which of the following is not correctly mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various
matched? kinds of sea birds has been established in:
A. Glass Industry – Firozabad A. Lakshadweep
B. Crackers Industry – Shivakasi B. Gulf of Kachch
C. Silk Industry – Karnataka C. Chilka Lake
D. Cement Industry – Patiala D. Sunderbans
610. The total area in India under water 617. The given figure shows a portion of
logging (type) situation is: Southern India the proposed site
A. 6 million hectares (Koodankulam) for the construction of two
B. 2 million hectares 100 MW nuclear power plants has been
C. 30 million hectares labelled in the map as:
D. 182 million hectares
611. The largest Industry in India is:
A. Steel industry
B. Cement industry 4
C. Textiles industry
D. Automobile industry 1
2
3
612. The recently discovered field with oil

potential in Krishna-Godavari Basin is A. 1 B. 2
called: C. 3 D. 4
A. Golcunda Block
B. Rawa off shore Block
C. Bombay High
the lists:
D. Telengana Block
List I List II
613. The minimum Land area recommended Resprts States
for forest cover to maintain proper (a) Chakrata 1. Asom
ecological balance in India is: (b) Haflong 2. West Bengal
A. 57% B. 43% (c) Kalimpong 3. Uttarakhand
C. 33% D. 23% (d) Kufri 4. Himachal Pradesh
Codes: Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 1 3 2 4 A. 2 1 4 3
B. 3 1 4 2 B. 2 1 3 4
C. 3 1 2 4 C. 1 2 4 3
D. 1 3 4 2 D. 1 2 3 4
619. In the given figure, the site of the Tehri 622. Which of the following statements is
Dam has been labelled as: correct?
A. Kacchativu and Tin Bigha were the
territories acquired by the India
republic from the french.
B. Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are the
territories handed over to Sri Lankan
and Bangladeshi sovereignity
respectively by the Government of
India
C. Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are those
areas that were annexed by the
A. A B. B Chinese in the 1962 sino Indian War.
C. C D. D D. Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are those
enclaves which were transferred to
620. In which of the following areas in the
given map, there was a recent discovery India by lease arrangements with
of copper deposits by the atomic minerals Srilanka and Pakistan respectively.
division of the Department of Atomic 623. Almatti dam is being constructed between
energy. which of the following pairs of state?
A. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
B. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
C. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
624. Amarnath is situated at a height of about:
A. 6100 metres
B. 5320 metres
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4785 metres
C. 3 D. 4 D. 4054 metres
625. The maximum stretch of India between
North to South is about
the lists:
A. 3500 km B. 3200 km
List I List II
C. 3000 km D. 2800 km
Industries Industrial Centre
(a) Pearl fishing 1. Pune 626. Orissa has longest border with:
(b) Automobiles 2. Tuti Corin A. Andhra Pradesh
(c) Ship building 3. Pinjore B. Chhattisgarh
(d) Enginneering 4. Marmagao C. Jharkhand
goods D. U.P.
627. In India most of the rainfall occurs D. the winds do not come across any
during: barrier to cause the necessary uplift
A. south west monsoon season to cool the winds
B. north east monsoon 634. How many notified Biosphere Reserve in
C. summer season India?
D. winter season A. 18 B. 20
628. Which Indian states share the C. 22 D. 26
tungbhadra multipurpose project? 635. The solar eclipse achieves totaling only
A. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka in limited geographical regions between:
B. Karnataka and M.P. A. The size of shadow of the moon on the
C. Odisha and Jharkhand earth is small as ompared to the cross
D. Tamil Nadu and Karnataka section of the earth
629. Indian Standard time is the local time of B. The earth is not smooth flat surface,
but has elevations and depressions
1° C. The trajectories of the earth around
82 E which passes through.
2 the sun and the moon around the
A. Kolkata B. Delhi earth are not perfect cycles
C. Guntur D. Allahabad D. Sun rays can reach most of the
630. Which one of the following types of forests peripheral regions of shadow of the
is found in Sahyadris? moon due to atmospheric retraction
A. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest 636. Among the tour houses types shown
B. Topical Dry Deciduous Forest below, which one represents the house
C. Tidal Forest type of the pygmies?
D. Wet Temperate Forest
631. Country’s longest tunnel is ...............
A. Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel
B. Kurbude
C. Nathuwadi
D. Tike
632. Which one of the following strongly
treatens bio diversity?
A. Fragile ecosystems such as mangroves
and wetlands.
A. (A) B. (B)
B. In accessible habitats in the C. (C) D. (D)
Himalayas.
C. Destruction of natural habitats and 637. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases:
vegetation and shifting cultivation. A. If high rainfall occurs during the
D. Creation of biosphere reserves. period of growth of the plant
B. If frost occurs during the period of
633. Rajasthan receives very little rain ripening
because: C. If there is fluctuation in temperature
A. it is too hot during the period of growth of the
B. there is no water available and thus plant
the winds remain dry D. If there is high temperature during
C. the monsoons fail to reach this area the time of ripening
638. Assertion (A): The frequency of floods Which of the pairs given above are
in north indian plains has increased correctly matched?
during the last couple of decades. A. 1, 2 and 4
Reason (R): There has been reducing B. 2, 3, 4 and 5
in the depth of river valleys due to C. 2 and 5 only
deposition of silt. D. 1, 3, 4 and 5
Codes:
641. Which one of the following statements is
not true?
A. Ghaggar's water is utilised in the
the correct explanation of A Indira Gandhi Canal.
C. A is true but R is false B. Narmada rises from Amarkantak
D. A is false but R is true region.
C. Nizam Sagar is situated on the manjra
river
D. Penganga is a tributory of the Godavari
the lists:
List I : List II 642. Kistwar town is situated on the bank of:
Institutes Location A. Ravi
(a) Central Institute 1. Hyderabad B. Chenab
of Higher Tibetan C. Jhelum
Studies. D. Satluj
(b) Indira Gandhi 2. Mumabi 643. Which one of the following states of India
Institute of is the least densely populated?
Development A. Chhattisgarh
Research B. Jharkhand
(c) National Institute 3. Bengluru C. Sikkim
of Mental Health
D. Arunachal Pradesh
and Neuro Sciences
(d) Central Institute 4. Dharmshala 644. Assertion (A): The snow line in the
of English and western. Himalayas is lower than that
Foreign Languages in the eastern Himalayas.
5. Varanasi Reason (R): Western Himalayas are at
Codes: a higher Latitude.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Codes:
A. 5 3 4 1
B. 5 2 3 1
correct explanation of A.
C. 3 2 4 5
D. 4 5 1 2 B. Both A and R are true but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
640. Consider the following pairs: C. A is true but R is false.
Famous place Region D. A is false but R is true.
1. Bodhgaya : Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho : Bundelkhand 645. Assertion (A): About seventy five percent
3. Shirdi : Vidarbha of the working population of the Aravalli
4. Nasik (Nashik) : Malwa mountain region is engaged in
5. Tirupati : Rayalaseema agriculture.
Reason (R): The greater parts of Codes:
Aravallis receive scantly rainfall. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Codes: A. 4 3 1 2
A. Both A and R are true and R is the B. 3 4 2 1
correct explanation of A. C. 3 4 1 2
B. Both A and R are true but R is not D. 4 3 2 1
the correct explanation of A. 649. Indian Standard Meridian passes through
C. A is true but R is false. the States of U.P., M.P., Chhatisgarh:
D. A is false but R is true. A. Orissa, A.P. and Telangana
B. A.P. and Karnataka
646. Consider the following seaports:
C. A.P. and Tamil Nadu
1. Chennai
D. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
2. Machilipatnam
3. Nagapattinam 650. Assertion (A): Urbanisation follows
4. Tuticorin industrialisation.
The correct sequence of these parts as Reason (R): In developing countries,
one moves from north to south is urbanisation is a movement in itself.
A. 1, 2, 4, 3 B. 2, 1, 3, 4 Codes:
C. 1, 3, 2, 4 D. 2, 1, 4, 3 A. Both A and R are true and R is the
647. The axis of rotation of the earth is tilted correct explanation of A.
by 23.5° to the plane of revolution around B. Both A and R are true but R is not
the sun the latitude of Mumabi is less the correct explanation of A.
than 23.5° whereas the laititude of Delhi C. A is true but R is false.
is more than 23.5° which one of the D. A is false but R is true.
following statements is this regard is 651. The Singareni coal fields is located in the
correct? river basin of:
A. The sun can come overhead at both A. Godavari
these places B. Damodar
B. The sun will never come overhead at C. Mahanadi
either of these places D. Narmada
C. At Mumbai the sun can come over 652. While India's human population is
head, but it will never do so at Delhi growing at an astounding pace, the bird
D. At Delhi sun can come overhead but population is shrinking fastly mainly
it will never do so at Mumbai because:
648. Match List I with List II and select the 1. There has been an abnormal increase
correct answer using the code given below in the number of hunters.
the lists: 2. Bio-pesticider and organic manure are
List I List II being used on a large scale.
3. There has been a large scale
(a) Pir Panjal 1. Arunachal Pradesh
reduction in the habitats of the birds.
(b) Dhauladhar 2. Uttarakhand 4. There has been a large scale use of
(c) Nag Tibba 3. Jammu & Kashmir pesticides chemical fertilisers and
(d) Mishimi Hills 4. Himachal Pradesh mosquito repellents.
Select your answer correctly using the 656. Which one of the following pairs of cities
code given below. has recently been connected by a six Lan
Codes: express way?
A. 1 and 2 are correct A. Ahmedabad and Vadodra
B. 2 and 3 are correct B. Dhaka and Chittagong
C. 3 and 4 are correct C. Islamabad and Lahore
D. 1 and 4 are correct D. Mumabi and Pune
653. Which one of the following is an 657. Lakshadweep islands are the product of:
important tribe of the Dhauladhar range? A. Volcanic activity
A. A bor B. Gaddi
B. Wave action
C. Lepcha D. Tharu
C. Sea floor expansion
654. Match List I with List II and select the D. Reef formation
the lists: 658. The success of Green revolution depends
List I List II on the availability of:
Forest Region A. High Yielding Variety (HYV) of seeds.
(a) Tropical moist 1. Arunachal B. Adequate irrigation facilities
deciduous Pradesh C. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
(b) Tropical dry 2. Sahyadris D. All of these
deciduous 659. Kaziranga is known for:
(c) Alpine 3. Middle ganga A. Project tiger
plain B. Two horned Rhino
(d) Tropical wet 4. Tarai C. One horned Rhino
evergreen
D. Operation flood
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 660. Consider the following statements
A. 4 3 1 2 regarding environmental issue of India.
B. 4 2 1 3 1. Gulf of manner is one of the biosphere
C. 1 3 2 4 reserves.
D. 3 1 4 2 2. The Ganga action plan phase II has
655. Match List I with List II and select the been merged with the national river
correct answer using the code given conservation plan.
below the lists: 3. The National Museum of Natural
List I List II History at New Delhi imparts non
(Industry) (Production Centre) formal education in environment and
(a) Jute Textile 1. Bhadohi conservation.
(b) Silk textile 2. Ludhiana 4. Environmental information system
(c) Woollen 3. Bengluru (ENVIS) acts as a decentralised
Hosiery information net work for environmetnal
(d) Woollen 4. Titagarh information.
Carpet Which of these statements are correct?
Codes: A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
A. 3 4 2 1
B. 4 3 2 1 661. Assertion (A): The Koyna region of
C. 1 3 4 2 Maharashtra is likely to become more
D. 4 1 3 2 earthquake prone in near futrue.
Reason (R): The Koyna dam is located 669. In which one of the following places is
on an old fault plane which may get the Shompen tribe found?
activated more frequently with changes A. Nilgiri Hills B. Nicobar Islands
in water level in Koyna reservoir. C. Spiti Valley D. Lakshadweep
Select the correct answer using the code 670. The Brahmaputra is an example of:
given below. A. Subsequent river
Codes: B. Obsequent river
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Antecedent river
correct explanation of A. D. Super imposed river
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 671. Which one of the following soils found in
correct explanation of A. India has been derived from materials
C. A is true but R is false. deposited by fissure eruptions in
D. A is false but R is true. cretaceous period?
662. The longitude determining Indian A. Laterite soil B. Alkaline soil
Standard Time passes through. C. Black soil D. Sandy soil
A. Ranchi B. Delhi 672. Which one of the following is not correctly
C. Chennai D. Kolkata matched?
663. Which place receives the maximum solar A. Hyderabad — Hussain Sagar
energy in December? B. Srinagar — Dal Lake
A. Kolkata B. Delhi C. Sagar — Ravindra Sagar
C. Amritsar D. Chennai D. Udaipur — Pichhola Lake
673. The weather map of India is drawn on:
664. Occasional winter rianfall in the northern
A. Bonne's projection
India occurs due to the cyclones from.
B. Polyconic projection
A. Bay of Bengal
C. Mercator's projection
B. Pacific Ocean
D. International projection
C. Arabian Sea
D. Mediterranean Sea 674. The Malwa region is mostly inhabited
by:
665. Khetri is famous for the production of: A. Compact villagers
A. Tin B. Gold B. Semi compact villagers
C. Copper D. Mineral oil C. Fragmented villagers
666. In India, which one of the following states D. Sprinkled villagers
has the largest inland saline wetland? 675. Most of the precipitation in India is .......
A. Gujarat in nature.
B. Haryana A. cyclonic B. convectional
C. Madhya Pradesh C. orogaphic D. frontal
D. Rajasthan 676. Patlands are found in:
667. Which country of the world is the largest A. Chhotanagpur region
exporter of cardamom? B. Dand Karanya
A. India B. China C. Vidarbha Plains
C. Brazil D. Srilanka D. Vindhyan Uplands
668. Maximum iron ore from Bailadila mine 677. Among the following which one is not a
is exported to: cause of soil-erosion?
A. Australia B. Malayasia A. Drift B. Deforestation
C. Japan D. New Zealand C. Drainage system D. Excess cutting
678. Consider the following statements: 684. Which of the following geological systems
1. Salt water crocodile is found in the is considered the most ancient in India?
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. A. Cuddapah System
2. Shrew and tapir are found in the B. Dharwar System
Western Ghats of the malabar region. C. Gondwana System
Which of the statements given above is/ D. Vindhyan System
are correct? 685. Which of the following statements are
A. 1 only B. 2 only correctly regarding the Khadar soils?
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Select your answer from the code given
679. The first three largest producers of sugar below:
in India are: 1. They occupy flood plains of the rivers
A. Bihar, U.P, Maharashtra 2. They are rich in plant nutrients.
B. U.P., Maharashtra and Andhra 3. They have sizeable tracts of usar.
Pradesh Code:
A. Only 1 is correct
C. U.P., Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
B. Only 1 and 2 are correct
D. Bihar, U.P., Andhra Pradesh
C. Only 1 and 3 are correct
680. The population of Uttar Pradesh out D. All are correct
excels the population of which one of the
686. Which is located in lesser Himalayas?
following countries? A. Burzil pass B. Baramula pass
A. Brazil B. Indonesia C. Zozila pass D. Shipkila
C. Japan D. U.S.A
687. The oil refinery at Mathura has locational
681. Tochi, Gilgit and Hunza are tributaries advantage of:
of A. Raw material B. Market
A. Ganga B. Brahmaputra C. Power supply D. Water supply
C. Indus D. Yamuna
688. The headquarters of the S.W. Railway
682. The Cauvery flows through the states of: zone is located at:
A. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and A. Thiruananthapuram
Tamil Nadu B. Bengluru
B. Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu C. Kochi
C. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil D. Coimbatore
Nadu 689. The river which marks the international
D. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and boundary between India and Nepal is:
Tamil Nadu A. Gandak B. Kosi
683. Assertion (A): Western Ghats are not C. Kali D. Tista
true mountains. 690. Read the following statements and select
Reason (R): The Western Ghats the correct answer from the code given
represent the precipitous western edge of below:
a plateau uplifted in the present form. Assertion (A): Yamuna becomes a dead
Codes: river between Delhi and Agra during most
A. Both A and R are true and R is the of the year.
correct explanation of A. Reason (R): Yamuna is a non perennial
B. Both A and R are true but R is not river.
the correct explanation of A. Codes:
C. A is true but R is false. A. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true. B. A is false but R is true
C. Both A and R are true and R is the 697. Based on the intensity of irrigation
correct explanation of A arrange the following states in their order
D. Both A and R are true but R is not of rising percentage of net irrigated area
the correct explanation of A to net cropped area:
691. Read the following statements and select 1. Punjab 2. Uttar Pradesh
the correct answer from the code given 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Haryana
below: Codes:
Assertion (A): The river Ganga is not A. 1 4 2 3
navigable. B. 4 3 2 1
Reason (R): There are great fluctuations C. 3 1 2 4
in the river regime. D. 2 3 4 1
Codes: 698. The largest tea producing group of states
A. Both A and R are true and R is the in India is:
correct explanation of A A. Asom, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
B. Both A and R are true but R is not B. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala
the correct explanation of A C. Asom, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu
C. A is true but R is false D. Asom, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh
699. After Independence new industrial towns
692. Where can one expect dry winters in were developed in India to:
India? 1. Utilize the raw materials
A. Tamil Nadu 2. Decentralize heavy industries
B. Punjab and Haryana Plains 3. Check the overgrowth of migration of
C. Jammu & Kashmir population
D. Bengal Plains 4. Develop backward area
693. Which one of the following is correctly Codes:
matched? A. 1 and 3 are correct
A. Manipur–Shillong B. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B. Meghalaya–Kohima C. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C. Arunachal–Itanagar D. 2 and 3 are correct
D. Nagaland–Imphal
700. Consider the following statement:
694. Which one of the following rivers of India Assertion (A): Ahmedabad is a great
does not make the delta? centre of sick cotton textile industry.
A. Ganga B. Tapi Reason (R): Cotton required by the
C. Godavari D. Mahanadi industry is grown on large scale in the
695. Tamil Nadu coast of India receives black cotton soil region around it.
rainfall in winter through Codes:
A. North-east monsoon A. Both A and R are true and R is the
B. South-east monsoon correct explanation of A
C. North-west monsoon B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
D. South-west monsoon correct explanation of A
696. Garo-Khasi-Jaintia hills are part of the C. A is true but R is false
A. Deccan Plateau D. A is false but R is true
B. Himalaya Mountains 701. The coal producing geological system in
C. Hill chains between India and India is:
Myanmar A. Dharwar B. Vindhyan
D. All the above C. Cuddapah D. Gondwana
702. The main boundary fault is found in: A. Gangetic delta region
A. the Deccan Plateau B. East Himalayan region
B. the Western Ghats C. Western Ghats region
C. the Eastern Ghats D. Eastern Ghats region
D. the Himalayas 710. Which of the following has evergreen
703. The third stage in the demographic forests?
transition is characterised by: A. Chhotanagpur Plateau
A. high birth rate and high death rate B. North-eastern States
B. high birth rate and rapidly declining C. Eastern slopes of eastern ghats
death rate D. Eastern slopes of Sahyadris
C. low death rate and rapidly declining 711. The greatest length of canals is found in:
birth rate A. Andhra Pradesh B. Haryana
D. low birth rate and low death rate C. Punjab D. Uttar Pradesh
704. As per India's National Population Policy, 712. Which one of the following sites has been
2000, by which one of the following years selected for setting up a steel plant in
is it our long-term objective to achieve the private sector?
population stabilisation? A. Dabhol B. Gopalpur
A. 2025 B. 2035 C. Kochin D. Paradeep
C. 2045 D. 2055 713. Match List I with List II and select the
705. Arrange the following states in order of correct answer using the code given below
their increasing density of population. the lists:
1. Asom 2. Maharashtra List I List II
3. Orissa 4. Tamil Nadu (a) Block 1. Himalaya
Codes: (b) Fold 2. Sahyadri
A. 1 2 3 4 (c) Relict 3. Rajmahal Hills
B. 1 4 3 2 (d) Volcanic 4. Nilgiris
C. 3 2 1 4 Codes:
D. 2 4 3 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
706. Which of the following is not a correct A. 2 4 1 3
statement? B. 4 3 2 1
C. 2 1 4 3
A. Haldia is in West Bengal
D. 4 2 3 1
B. Paradeep is in Asom
C. Kandla is in Gujarat 714. The habitat of Toddas is:
D. Marmagao is in Goa A. plain
B. hilly
707. Diamond mines are located in: C. undulating plateau
A. Uttar Pradesh D. high mountain valley
B. Karnataka
C. Madhya Pradesh 715. The annual amount of rainfall decreases
D. Gujarat from east to west in the Ganga Plain
because:
708. The Matatilla multipurpose project is A. relief increases moderately
situated on: B. moisture content of air decreases
A. Sone river B. Ken river gradually
C. Betwa river D. Yamuna river C. temperature increases
709. The mangrove vegetation in India is found D. western disturbances have high
in: frequency in the west
716. Which of the following statement is not List I List II
correct? (Mining Areas) (Minerals)
A. Jute is grown in Asom (a) Badampahar 1. Bauxite
B. Cotton is wide spread in Maharashtra (b) Bhandara 2. Copper
C. Gujarat is the main area of ground- (c) Musabani 3. Iron-ore
nut (d) Lohardaga 4. Manganese
D. Madhya Pradesh has the maximum Codes:
cultivated area under maize (a) (b) (c) (d)
717. Which one of the following river passes A. 3 1 2 4
through a Gorge? B. 3 4 2 1
A. Godavari B. Krishna C. 1 4 3 2
C. Tapti D. Mahanadi D. 2 3 4 1
718. The water received through annual 724. Which of the following soils occupies the
precipitation in India, on an average largest area in peninsular India:
amounts to: A. Black soil
A. 200 mhm. B. 300 mhm. B. Laterite soil
C. 400 mhm. D. 500 mhm. C. Red soil
719. Acquaculture in coastal states of India D. Alluvial soil
poses a threat to the environment 725. Which one of the following notations has
because been used by G.T. Trewartha for the
A. prawns emanate foul smell climate of Ganga plain?
B. prawn feed used is filthy A. CA'W B. Caw
C. it entails mixture of brackish with C. CB'W D. Cwg
fresh water
726. The Hoogly industrial belt is known for its:
D. prawns may engender epidemics
A. jute, iron, steel and heavy engineering
720. Doon Valley is able to grow rice because: industries
A. It has warm summers and snowmelt B. cement, leather, woollen textile and
waters for irrigation heavy engineering industries
B. People in the valley are rice eaters C. aluminium, iron and steel, petrol
C. Other crops cannot be grown refining and textile industries
D. There is a huge export demand D. jute, cotton textile, chemicals and light
721. Banihal pass is in: engineering industries
A. Punjab Himalaya 727. The main boundary fault in the Himalaya
B. Kumaon Himalaya separates.
C. Kashmir Himalaya A. Great Himalaya from middle
D. Asom Himalaya Himalaya
722. A Centre of mica mining in India is B. Middle Himalaya from Siwalik
located at: C. Siwalik from Bhabar
A. Khetri D. Tibet from Great Himalaya
B. Kodarma 728. Which one of the following is not correctly
C. Kalahandi matched?
D. Guru Mahisani A. Naomundi — Singhbhum
723. Match List-I with List-II and select the B. Guru Mahisani — Keonjhar
correct answer using the code given below C. Kemmangundi — Bhadravati
the lists: D. Rajahara — Chandrapur
729. The most important deposits of gypsum 736. Which of the follwing districts of U.P.
in India are found in: has been the pioneer in intensive area?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Gujarat A. Aligarh B. Ballia
C. Rajasthan D. Tamil Nadu C. Banda D. Lucknow
730. Which one of the following areas is 737. Bansagar project is located on the river.
characterized by dispersed rural A. Rihand B. Sone
settlements? C. Kanhar D. Chambal
A. Mirzapur Plateau
738. Which one of the following cities of Uttar
B. Bundelkhand Highland
C. Ganga-Yamuna Doab Pradesh is not located beside the G.T.
D. Lower Ganga-Ghagra Doab Road?
A. Allahabad
731. Which one of the following is shown by B. Kanpur
shading on the map given below? C. Sikohabad
D. Lucknow
INDIA
739. In terms of industrial development, the
most backward region of Uttar Pradesh
is:
A. Bundelkhand
B. Central Uttar Pradesh
C. Rohil Khand
D.Purvanchal
A. 40 to 120 cm rainfall zone 740. Winter rain along the coast of Tamil
B. Erosion affected area Nadu is caused by:
C. Drought prone area A. Retreating monsoon
D. Area of regur soil B. Pre monsoon or winds
732. Which one of the following states has the C. Western disturbances
largest network of national highway? D.Mango showers
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Maharashtra 741. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of:
C. Madhya Pradesh D. Uttar Pradesh A. wheat, sugarcane and rice
733. In terms of value India is the largest B. wheat, potato and groundnut
exporter of: C. wheat, colton and potato
A. Textile D.wheat, sugarcane and potato
B. Germs and jewellery 742. The most serious objection to the
C. Engineering goods construction of Tehridam is raised on the
D. Agricultural products ground that:
734. Luni River is in the: A. its cost benefit ratio is high
A. Punjab B. it will displace large number of people
B. Rajasthan C. it will inundate vast tracts of forest
C. Gujarat D.it is vulnerable to earthquake
D. Himachal Pradesh 743. Which of the following pairs is correctly
735. Pat lands are found in: matched ?
A. Dandakarnya Select the correct answer from the code
B. Chhotanagpur given below:
C. Vidarbha plains 1. Vedda — Food gathering
D. Vindhyan uplands 2. Kukis — Shifting cultivation
3. Bhotias — Transhumance 750. Which of the following is not a major
4. Todas — Sedentary cultivation problem associated with canal irrigation
Codes: in India?
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 4 A. Water logging
C. 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. Decrease in area under pulses and oil
744. The most suitable map projection for the seeds
map of Uttar Pradesh is: C. Increase in area under alkaline and
A. Bonne’s projection saline soils
B. International projection D.Fragmentation of land holdings
C. Interrupted sinusoidal projection 751. The southern limit of India (main land) is:
D.Mollweide projection A. 6°4' North latitude
745. The weather map of India does not show: B. 7°4' North latitude
A. Cloudiness C. 8°4' North latitude
B. Wind direction D.6°8' North latitude
C. Isobars 752. The name of the pass located in lesser
D.Isotherms Himalayas is:
746. Which one of the following dams in the A. Burzil B. Baramula
Himalayas lies in Pakistan? C. Zozila D. Shipkila
A. Bhakra dam B. Mangla dam 753. Which of the following factors is most
C. Kalagarh dam D. Salal dam significant in the localization of HINAL
747. Consider the following statements: Co. at Renukut?
Assertion (A): The main habitat of the A. Cheap labour
Mikir tribe is the mikir hills of Asom. B. Easy access to raw materials
Reason (R): The principal occupation of C. Efficient transportation
the mikirs is hunting. D.Cheap power
Codes: 754. In the context of Himalayan orogency
A. Both A and R are true and R is the river Gomti is:
correct explanation of A A. obsequent
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the B. exhumed stream
correct explanation of A C. antecedent stream
C. A is true but R is false D.consequent stream
D. A is false but R is true 755. Had there been Equator in place of tropic
748. The incidence of poverty in rural India of cancer in India, the changed caused in
is, because: the climate would be?
A. the people are engaged in agriculture. A. high temperature and low rainfall
B. the people are not hard working. B. low temperature and high rainfall
C. of rural unemployment and under C. high temperature and high rainfall
employment D.low temperature and low rainfall
D.of lack of the means of transportation. 756. Which one of the following denotes the
749. Winter rains in Uttar Pradesh are southern most place in India?
associated with: A. Indira point B. Kanyakumari
A. retreating monsoon C. Nagarcoil D. Rameshwaram
B. thunder storms 757. Trans humance is practiced by the:
C. temperatecy clones A. Bhils B. Bhotias
D.local convection C. Kukis D. Nagas
758. Which one of the following is not a sea The climate of the Brahmaputra valley
port? is characterised by the following
A. Okhla B. Trichur conditions:
C. Quilon D. Nagarcoil 1. Orography
759. Which one of the following is not correctly 2. Alternating seasonal pressure
matched? oscillations
A. Chandraprabha Sanctuary — Uttar 3. Mountain and valley winds
Pradesh 4. Heat waves.
B. Bandipur sanctuary — Karnataka Codes:
C. Kaziranga — Assam A. 1 and 2 are correct
D.Kanha National Park — Maharashtra B. 2 and 3 are correct
760. Pat lands are the main source of: C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
A. Mica B. Buxatie D.1, 3 and 4 are correct
C. Iron-ore D. Coal 767. The most mineralized rock system of
761. Pearl fishing is done in the coast of: India is:
A. Tamil Nadu A. Cuddadpah system.
B. Orissa B. Dharwar system.
C. Kerala C. Gondwana system.
D.Andhra Pradesh D.Vindhyan system.
762. Which one of the following metropolises 768. Who of the following proposed planning
has the distinction of the best corporate regions of India?
health care system in the country? A. S.C. Chatterji
A. Chennai B. Kolkata B. S. M. Ali
C. Delhi D. Mumbai C. V. Nath
763. Sand bluff, locally called ‘Dhus’ is a typical D.George Kuriyan
topographic feature in: 769. Which of the following is not correctly
A. Thar Desert matched?
B. Middle Ganga plain A. Pir Panjal — lesser Himalaya
C. Malabar Coast B. K2 — Karakoram
D.Mahanadi delta C. Karewas — Valley of Kashmir
764. In which one of the following states and D.Potwar — Kumaon Himalaya
union administered territories, 770. Consider the following statements about
uninhabited villages are found?
Gondwana rocks of India and select the
A. Chandigarh
correct answer from the code given
B. Arunanchal Pradesh
below:
C. Dadra-Nagar-Haveli
D.Himachal Pradesh 1. Gondwana rocks were formed in the
post Vindhyan period.
765. Which one of the following rock series 2. These are the oldest sedimentary rocks
belongs to the cuddapah system of rocks? in the country.
A. Champaner 3. These are highly metalliferous rocks.
B. Papa ghani cheyar range 4. These consist of large deposit of coal.
C. Semri
Codes:
D.Sausar
766. Consider the following statements and B. 1 and 3 are correct
select the correct answer from the code C. 2 and 4 are correct
given below: D.3 and 4 are correct
771. In the development of hydro-electricity the Codes:
pioneering state was: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Karnataka A. 1 2 3 4
B. Himachal Pradesh B. 4 3 2 1
C. Tamil Nadu C. 2 4 1 3
D.Uttar Pradesh D. 1 3 2 4
772. The correct sequence in decreasing order 776. The major forest product in India is:
in terms of total production of the given A. Timber B. Fuel wood
non-ferrous metal in India is: C. Cane products D. Resins
A. Lead, Zinc, Copper, Aluminium 777. Consider the following statements:
B. Zinc, Lead, Aluminium, Copper Assertion (A): No census towns are
C. Aluminium, Zinc, Copper, Lead found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
D.Aluminium, Copper, Zinc, Lead Reason (R): There are no large scale
industries.
773. Consider the following statements about
Konkan Railway and select the correct
given below.
answer from the code given below:
Codes:
1. It traverses across the most-rugged
and hilly-terrain of the west coast correct explanation of A
facing the Arabian Sea. B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
2. It has been financed by the World correct explanation of A
Bank. C. A is true but R is false
3. The total length of the broad guage D. A is false but R is true
single line railway is 760 km.
778. Which of the following is a feature of
4. It passes through the states of
'Syntaxial Bend'?
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and
A. Himalayas B. Aravallis
Kerala. C. Satpuras D. Vindhyas
Codes:
A. 1 and 4 are correct 779. Consider the following statements:
B. 1 and 3 are correct Andhra Pradesh is one of the leading
C. 2 and 4 are correct producers of rice because
D.3 and 4 are correct 1. It has fertile alluvial soil in the
coastal plain
774. The dominant type of irrigation in 2. It receives about 125 cm of rainfall
peninsular India is: per annum in the coastal tract
A. Canal 3. It has a lot of tank irrigation in the
B. Tank coastal plain
C. Well Of these statements:
D.Sprinkler A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
775. Match List I with List II and select the B. 1 and 2 are correct
correct answer using the code given below C. 2 and 3 are correct
the lists D.1 and 3 are correct
List I List II 780. The Kulu Valley is situated between the
(Minerals) (Important Mines) mountain in ranges of:
(a) Iron-ore 1. Zawar A. Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal
(b) Mica 2. Bailadil B. Ranjoti and Nag Tibba
(c) Silver 3. Babupali C. Ladakh and Pirpanjal
(d) Graphite 4. Kodarma D.Middle Himalayas and Siwalik
781. The highest percentage of decadal growth 787. Which one of the following is the youngest
of population during the period 2001-2011 mountain chain?
was registered by: A. Annamalai B. Aravalli
A. West Bengal B. Uttar Pradesh C. Siwalik D. Vindhayan
C. Bihar D. Meghalaya 788. Which of the following favours the onset
782. Which of the following is not correctly of West Monsoon?
matched? A. El-Nino
A. Kanyakumari — Tamil Nadu B. Subtropical Westerly jet
B. Ooty — Karnataka C. Polar front jet
C. Manas — Assam D. Tropical easterly jet
D. Simlipal — Orissa 789. Which of the following names is given to
783. Western Ghats are: the oldest sedimentary rocks found in
A. Mountains India?
B. Plateaus A. Cuddapah B. Dharwar
C. Escarpment of the Plateaus C. Gondwana D. Vindhyan
D. Hills
790. Higher literacy in Kerala state is
784. Which of the following factors is more accounted by:
important for the location of the steel A. Sound economy
plants at Bokaro? B. Absence of backward communities
1. Nearness to iron ore deposits C. Well-developed social infrastructure
2. Nearness to coal deposits D. Highly urbanised society
3. Nearness to both coal and iron ore
791. In India the highest infant mortality rate
deposits
is associated with the state of:
4. Nearness to the port city of Kolkata
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 A. Bihar
C. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
785. Match List I with List II and select the D. Orissa
the lists: 792. The union territory of India having
List I List II enclaves in three states is:
(a) Bengaluru 1. Fertilizer A. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Chittranjan 2. Electric Rail En- B. Daman and Diu
gine C. Lakshadweep
(c) Kapurthala 3. Air Craft D. Pondichery
(d) Sindri 4. Railway Coaches 793. Which of the following region is
Codes: characterised by ‘As’ climate of Koppen?
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. Asom Himalaya
A. 3 1 2 4 B. Kerala coast
B. 4 2 3 1 C. Rajasthan desert
C. 3 2 4 1 D. Tamil Nadu coast
D. 1 3 4 2 794. Which of the following items have mostly
786. India recorded the highest growth rate of dominated the recent export trade of
population in the decades: India on the basis of value?
A. 1951-61 B. 1961-71 A. Machineries, textiles, gems, leather
C. 1971-81 D. 1981-91 goods
B. Tea, spices, jute, goods, iron-ore C. A is true but R is false
C. Manganese coal, tobacco, iron & steel D. A is false but R is true
D.Tea, sugar, spices, engineering goods 801. Which one of the following shipyards
795. Western Ghats are: builds wroships for the Indian Navy?
A. block mountain A. Cochin B. Garden Reach
B. folded mountain C. Hindustan D. Mazgaon
C. relict mountain 802. Which one of the following dams is not
D.volcanic mountain meant for irrigation?
796. Which of the following regions exhibit A. Bhavani Sagar
identical drainage pattern as that of the B. Sivasamudram
Amar Kantak hills? C. Krishnaraja Sagar
A. Satmala hills B. Mikir hills D.Bhakra-Nangal
C. Mizo hills D. Satpura hills 803. Which one of the following physiographic
797. Which one of the following rivers has the units has been created by both exogenic
largest basin area in India? and endogenic forces?
A. Brahmaputra B. Godavari A. The Peninsular Plateau
C. Krishna D. Mahanadi B. The Thar Desent
798. Which of the following states has the C. The Indo-Gangetic Plain
largest area under maize in India? D. The Himalayas
A. Bihar B. Madhya Pradesh 804. Which mountain system in India is the
C. Rajasthan D. Uttar Pradesh oldest one?
799. Assertion (A): The coal bearing Gond- A. Himalaya B. Vindhyan
wana rocks in India are found in river C. Aravalli D. Satpura
valleys. 805. Which one of the following is associated
Reason (R): There has been sag faulting with Indian Agriculture?
in the Gondwana rock area. A. I.C.A.R. B. I.C.C.R
Select the correct answer using the code C. I.C.M.R. D. I.C.W.A.
given below.
806. Tulbul project is associated with the:
Codes:
A. Jhelum B. Beas
C. Ravi D. Sutlej
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the 807. Match List I with List II and select the
correct explanation of A correct answer using the code given
C. A is true but R is false below the lists:
D. A is false but R is true List I List II
800. Assertion (A): Green revolution has (a) Nepa Nagar 1. Oil Refinery
been spectacularly successful in canal (b) Jharia 2. Paper Mill
irrigated area. (c) Mathura 3. Atomic Energy
Reason (R): Canal irrigation is the plant
cheapest and safest source of irrigation. (d) Kalpakkam 4. Coal mining
Select the asnwer from the codes: Codes:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the A. 1 2 3 4
B. Both A and R are true but R is not C. 4 2 3 1
the correct explanation of A D. 2 3 4 1
808. Match List-I with List-II and select the 814. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given correct answer using the code given
below the lists: below the lists:
List-I List-II List I List II
(City) (Characteristics) (a) Malanjkhand 1. Coal
(a) Jammu 1. Sea-front location (b) Kudremukh 2. Copper
(b) Kakinada 2. River-front location (c) Korba 3. Iron-ore
(c) Faizabad 3. Lake-front location (d) Jaduguda 4. Uranium
(d) Udaipur 4. Hill-front location Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) A. 1 2 3 4
A. 1 2 3 4 B. 2 3 4 1
B. 2 3 4 1 C. 2 3 1 4
C. 3 4 1 2 D. 4 3 1 2
D. 4 1 2 3 815. Which one of the following metropolitan
809. Which one of the following statements cities of India has the lowest density of
describes correctly the birth and death population?
rate trends in present day India? A. Mumbai B. Kolkata
A. Birth rate is rising and eath rate is C. Delhi D. Chennai
falling 816. The correct descending order of the three
B. Birth rate is falling and death rate is largest wheat producing states in India
rising is:
C. Both birth and death rates are falling A. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
D.Both birth and death rates are rising B. Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
810. Oil refineries in India are generally Pradesh
located near major ports because: C. Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Madhya
A. oil fields are generally located near the Pradesh
coast D.Uttar Pradesh Punjab, Haryana
B. dependence on imported raw material 817. From which of the following places the
C. refined produce has easy access to best quality of marble is found in India?
market A. Jabalpur B. Bharatpur
D.availability of technical skill C. Makrana D. Jaisalmer
811. In which state of India Idduki hydro 818. Match fishing ports of India labelled as
power porject is located. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the map with their
A. Kerala respective names given in the list using
B. Himachal Pradesh the code given below:
C. Arunachal Pradesh (a) Kakinada (b) Kozikhode
D.Jammu & Kashmir (c) Porbandar (d) Tutikorin
812. Ranchi Plateau is an example of:
A. True peneplain
B. Incipient peneplain
C. Fossil peneplain
D.Uplifted peneplain
813. Which one of the following rivers does
not have its source in the maikal range?
A. Narmada B. Tapi
C. Sone D. Mahanadi
Codes: 823. Which one of the following is not correctly
(a) (b) (c) (d) matched?
A. 2 3 1 4 A. Bhabar : Subterranean drainage
B. 4 2 5 3 B. Tarai : Marshy land
C. 5 2 1 3 C. Bhangar : Older alluvium
D. 5 1 3 4 D.Khadar : Mature alluvium
819. Which of the following river valley 824. Of which major river system does the
projects is the joint enterprise of Andhra Teesta form a part?
Pradesh and Orissa Governments? A. Ganga B. Brahmaputra
A. Machkund B. Mayurakshi C. Indus D. Godawari
C. Nagarjun sagar D. Pochampad
825. Conservation of natural resources aims
820. Match List I with List II and select the at one of the following:
correct answer using the code given A. Total ban on the use of resources for
below the lists:
a short duration
List I List II
B. Partial restriction on their use
(a) Karnataka Plateau 1. Regur
C. Rotational use of natural resources
(b) Pat Plateau 2. Red soil
D.Profitable use of natural resources
(c) Malwa Plateau 3. Lateritic soil
(d) Northern 4. Alluvial soil 826. Which one of the following is a foot loose
Circars industry?
Codes: A. Cement B. Hosiery
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Sugar D. Jute
A. 4 3 2 1 827. Assertion (A): The green belt represent
B. 1 2 3 4 a planning concept for controlling the
C. 2 1 4 3 physical expansion of large cities.
D. 2 3 1 4 Reason (R): It is an integral component
821. Assertion (A): Existing drainage pattern of a city.
of North India is the outcome of the Codes:
disruption in the Indo-Brahma river A. Both A and R are true and R is the
system. correct explanation of A
Reason (R): There has been upliftment B. Both A and R are true but R is not
in the potwar plateau and subsidence in the correct explanation of A
the Malda Gap areas. C. A is true but R is false
Codes: D. A is false but R is true
828. In which one of the following segments
the Yamuna water is called ‘green soup’
due to heavy pollution load?
A. Delhi — Agra
D. A is false but R is true B. Agra — Yamuna-Chambal
confluence
822. Which one of the following climatic C. Tajewala — Wazirabad
symbols has been used by C.W. D. Wazirabad — Okhla barrage
Thornthwaite to denote the climate of the
Southern Ganga Plateau? 829. Which one of the following rivers is called
A. AA’r B. BA’W the ‘Biological desert’ due to heavy
C. CA’W D. CB’W pollution load?
A. Ghaghra river 834. Which one of the following is the youngest
B. Damodar river mountain chain?
C. Periyar river A. Annamalai B. Aravalli
D.Brahmaputra river C. Siwaliks D. Vindhyan
830. Consider the following statements: 835. Which one of the following area exhibits
Assertion (A): There is close correlation identical drainage pattern as that of the
between educational pollution control. Amarkantak hills?
Reason (R): The decline in fertility rate A. Satmala hills B. Mikir hills
in Kerala provides the best example. C. Mizo hills D. Satpura hills
Codes: 836. Which one of the following rivers has the
A. Both A and R are true and R is the largest basin area in India?
correct explanation of A A. Brahmaputra B. Godavari
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the C. Krishna D. Mahanadi
correct explanation of A 837. Which type of rainfall does take place in
C. A is true but R is false the coastal areas of West Bengal and
D. A is false but R is true Orissa in April-May?
831. Consider the following statements: A. Orographic B. Cyclonic
Assertion (A): Green revolution has C. Convectional D. Frontal
been spectacularly successful in canal 838. Consider the following statements:
irrigated areas. Assertion (A): The coal-bearing
Reason (R): Canal irrigation is the Gondwana rocks in India are found in
cheapest and safest source of irrigation. river valley.
Select the correct answer using the code Reason (R): There have been faulting
given below. in the Gondwana rock areas.
Codes: Select the correct answer using the code
A. Both A and R are true and R is the given below.
correct explanation of A Codes:
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the A. Both A and R are true and R is the
C. A is true but R is false B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
D. A is false but R is true correct explanation of A
832. Which one of the following statements is D. A is false but R is true
not correct?
A. Maximum number of cotton yarn and 839. Match List I with List II and select the
textile mills are located in Gujrat
below the lists:
B. Carpet industry is chiefly in the state
List I List II
of Uttar Pradesh
(Mineral) (Place)
C. Cotton textile industry provides job to (a) Copper 1. Panna
the maximum number of people (b) Gold 2. Ghatsila
D.The first cotton mills was set up at (c) Iron-ore 3. Hutty
Fort Gloster in Kolkata. (d) Diamond 4. Kudremukh
833. Which one of the following is not correctly Codes:
matched? (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Kanyakumari : Tamil Nadu A. 2 3 4 1
B. Ooty : Karnataka B. 4 3 2 1
C. Manas : Asom C. 3 4 1 2
D.Simplipal : Orissa D. 1 2 3 4
840. On account of the differences in geologi- 846. The Coastline of India is:
cal structure and history, India is divided A. 7,200 km long B. 4,783 km long
into: C. 6,300 km long D. 6,100 km long
A. One major physiographic unit 847. Assertion (A): The Himalayan mountain
B. Two major physiographic units ranges are being described as youthful.
C. Three major physiographic units Reason (R): The Himalayan mountain
D. Four major physiographic units ranges were formed in the last phase of
841. India is lying entirely in: geological history of the earth.
1°
A. 23 N latitude or cancer. correct explanation of A
2 B. Both A and R are true but R is not the
B. 0° latitude or equator. correct explanation of A
C. Northern hemisphere. C. A is true but R is false
D. Southern hemisphere. D. A is false but R is true
842. The tropic of cancer passes through: 848. Which among the following ranges acts
A. Mizoram, Tripura, West Bengal, as a natural barrier between India and
Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, M.P., Tibbet?
Rajasthan and Gujarat. A. Telepala B. Kalim pong
B. Sikkim, Bihar, U.P., J&K, H.P. C. Lipu Lekh D. Bara-La-chala
Gujarat, Delhi and Rajasthan.
849. .....Mountain range protects India from
C. Rajasthan Gujarat, M.P., Bihar, A.P.,
any danger of attack from the interior of
Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.
Asia and also keeps off the very dry wind
D. Mizoram, Tripura, W.B, Jharkhand,
of central Asia.
Bihar, M.P., Gujarat and Rajasthan.
A. Makalu B. Kanchanjunga
843. Name the place in India where sun is C. Karakoram D. K2
almost overhead all around the year: 850. The Himalaya running from west to east
A. Andaman and Nicobar islands for
B. Arunanchal Pradesh A. 2700 km. B. 2600 km.
C. Nagaland C. 2500 km. D. 2400 km.
D. Lakshadweep
851. The Siwaliks represent the outermost
844. At the northern most part of India the range of the Himalayas are made up of
rays of the sun are always. A. Folding of Himalaya
A. Direct B. Vertical B. Tertiary-sediments
C. Oblique D. Slanting C. Both A and B
845. Assertion (A): When the sun has D. None of these
already risen in Arunachal Pradesh. It is 852. The Dhang Range and Dundwa Range
still night in Saurashtra. are the parts of
Reason (R): The east-west extension of A. the Trans-Himalayas.
India covers almost 30° of longitude. B. the Greater Himalaya
A. Both A and R are true and R is the C. Siwalik Range
correct explanation of A D. Lesser Himalaya
853. In ancient Indian literature “The
Himadri” is referred to:
A. Pir Panjal B. Karakoram
C. lesser Himalaya D. Great Himalaya
854. Shipki La pass is situated in: B. The Siwalik range from the Dhang
A. Uttar Pradesh range
B. Uttarakhand C. None of the above
C. Himachal Pradesh D. Both A and B
D. Sikkim 863. Mountain ranges—the Patkoi, Naga
855. Zaskar range is another name for: separate India from:
A. Siwalik Range B. Lesser Himalaya A. Tibbet B. Pakistan
C. Trans-Himalaya D. Great Himalaya C. Myanmar D. China
856. The Himachal lying to the north of the 864. Naga hills form the watershed between:
Siwalik Range is mainly composed of: A. India and China
A. alluvium and thick gravel B. India and Myanmar
B. highly compressed and altered rocks C. India and Tibet
of Algonkian times D. India and Sri Lanka
C. both A and B 865. The Kangra Valley in Himachal Pradesh
D. only alluvium extends from:
857. The Himadri Range is snow bound and A. the foot of the Dhauladhar range to
having number of glaciers descends from: north-south of Beas.
A. upto 2,440 m above sea level B. the foot of the Dhauladhar range to
B. upto 4,000 m above sea level north of Beas.
C. upto 5000 m above sea level C. between Pir Panjal Himadri.
D. up 4,500 m above sea level D. none of the above.
858. The Asom Himalaya stretches from: 866. Nathu La and Jelepla pass lead from:
A. Tista to Brahmaputra A. Afghanistan to Kashmir
B. Kali to Tista B. Gilgit to Leh
C. River Sutlej to Kali C. Sikkim to Tibbet
D. None of the above D. Plains of Punjab to Gilgit
859. The highest peak of Nanda Devi is of: 867. The Gulf of mannar separates India from:
A. Sri Lanka B. Bangladesh
A. the Garhwal Himalaya
C. China D. Pakistan
B. the Central Himalaya
C. the Punjab Himalaya 868. The Kanchanjunga (8598 m) is in:
D. the Kumaon Himalaya A. The Himadri
B. Great Himalayas
860. Lake chilka is situated in which of the
C. None of the above
following states?
D. Both A and B
A. West Bengal B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh D. Odisha 869. The Laddakh Plateau occupies the:
A. North-eastern portion of Kashmir
861. Khyber pass leads from Afghanistan to:
B. Tibetan plateau portion
A. Leh
C. Portion of Himachal Pradesh
B. Gilgit
C. Kashmir
D. Plains of Punjab (undivided) 870. The Indian Plateau is made up of:
A. Ancient igneous rocks
862. The Dehradun Valley covered with thick B. Metamorphic rock
gravel and alluvium separates. C. Sedimentary rocks
A. The Himchal and Siwalik range D. Molten Lava
871. Assertion (A): During the winter the List I List II
northern half of India is warmer than (a) Burzil 1. Uttarakhand
the areas in similar latitudinal location (b) Bara Lacha La 2. Himachal
by 3° to 8°C. Pradesh
Reason (R): The great Himalaya checks (c) Lipu Lekh 3. Sikkim
the Penetration of the cold polar air into (d) Nathula 4. Jammu and
India effectively. Kashmir
A. Both A and R are true and R is the Codes:
correct explanation of A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the A. 2 1 3 4
C. A is false but R is true C. 1 3 4 2
D. A is true but R is false D. 4 2 1 3
872. Which of the following ranges separates 877. Which of the following is the highest peak
the Kashmir Valley from the Indus situated in Indian Union?
Valley? A. Mt. Everest B. Kanchanjunga
A. Siwalik range C. K2 D. Dhaulagiri
B. Pir Panjal range 878. Assertion (A): The Deccan plateau has
C. Dhaula Dhar range black soils.
D. Great Himalayan range Reason (R): The underlying rock of
873. Himalayas owe its origin in.....Epoch: Deccan Plateau consists of basalt.
A. Miocene B. Paleocene
C. Oligocene D. Pliocene
874. In the northern, most part of the correct explanation of A
Himalaya is: C. A is true but R is false
A. Sagarmatha B. Gaurishankar D. A is false but R is true
C. Himadri D. Siwalik 879. The Western ghats join the Eastern
875. Match List I with List II and select the ghats at:
correct answer using the code given below A. Nilgiri Hills B. Javadi Hills
the lists: C. Cardamom Hills D. Cap Camorin
List I List II 880. The range lying north of the upper
(Peaks) (Mountains) Godavari is called:
(a) Doda-Beta 1. Nilgiri A. Ajanta range B. Balaghat range
(b) Makalu 2. Himalaya C. Satpura range D. Minu range
(c) Dhupgarh 3. Aravalli 881. Which of the following is the highest Hill
(d) Guru Shikhar 4. Satpura of South India?
Codes: A. Cardamom Hill B. Anamalai Hill
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Rajmahal Hill D. Nilgiri Hill
A. 2 1 3 4 882. Assertion (A): Extra peninsular India
B. 3 2 1 4 is prone to earthquakes.
C. 1 2 4 3 Reason (R): Extra peninsular India lies
D. 4 1 2 3 in the Himalayan mountain range which
876. Match List I with List II and select the has not yet attained stability.
correct answer using the code given below A. Both A and R are true and R is the
the lists: correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not 888. Middle or lesser Himalaya is known as:
the correct explanation of A A. Sahyadri B. Purvanchal
C. A is true but R is false C. Himachal D. Pir Panjal
D. A is false but R is true 889. The Queen of Himalaya is:
883. Match List I with List II and select the A. Dhaulagiri B. Kanchunjunga
correct answer using the code given below C. Nanda Devi D. K2
the lists: 890. According to geological history, the oldest
List I List II mountains is Aravalli and the youngest
(Plains) (Types) is:
(a) Imphal basin 1. Lava A. Vindhya B. Sahyadri
(b) Ladakh plain 2. Lacustrine C. Eastern Ghat D. Himalaya
(c) Konkan Coast 3. Alluvial 891. Which mountain lies parallel to two rivers
(d) Ganga Plain 4. Glacial. in Deccan Plateau?
Codes: A. Nilgiri B. Satpura
(a) (b) (c) (d) C. Mahadev D. Vindhaya
A. 3 2 1 4 892. Parasnath hill is situated in:
B. 2 4 1 3 A. Karnataka Plateau
C. 4 1 3 2 B. Deccan Plateau
D. 1 3 4 2 C. Chhotanagpur Plateau
884. Which of the following is the largest D. Hazaribagh Plateau
Plateau in India? 893. The Chhattisgarh plain is separated from
A. Betul Plateau the Wainganga Valley by:
B. Deccan Plateau A. Chhotanagpur Plateau
C. Chhotanagpur Plateau B. Deccan Plateau
D. Malwa Plateau C. Malwa Plateau
885. Which of the following Indian portion is D. Khairagarh Plateau
considered as a remnant of the Gondwana 894. Nokrek is the highest peak of the:
Land? A. Mikir Hill B. Garo Hill
A. The Gangetic Plain C. Khasi Hill D. Jaintia Hill
B. Deccan Plateau 895. Patkai Bum and Dapha Bum are the
C. Himalaya important ranges of:
D. Punjab Plain A. lesser Himalaya B. Aravalli
886. Which of the following statements is C. Siwalik D. Purvanchal
correct? 896. The highest peak of the Nanga range is:
A. Himalayas are the oldest mountains A. Saramati B. Blue Mountain
B. Himalayas formed due to folding of C. Dapha Bum D. Patkai
the earth’s crust 897. The Kaimur hill belongs to the:
C. Himalayas belong to the caledonian A. Aravalli range B. Vindhya range
mountain system C. Satpura range D. Ajanta range
D. Himalayas have risen from the sea
898. The Dhaula Dhar, the Pir Panjal and
when the tethys sea got compressed Nagtiba are the ranges of:
887. The Dhang, Dundwa and Churia ranges A. the Siwalik
of siwalik are situated in: B. the lesser Himalaya
A. Myanmar. B. Bhutan. C. the Aravalli
C. Nepal. D. India. D. Sahyadri
899. Amindivi and Minikoy islands lie in: C. Tsangpo D. None of these
A. Bay of Bengal B. Arabian Sea 905. The Sutlej is the tributory of:
C. Indian Ocean D. Atlantic Ocean A. Indus
900. Bangar and Khadar are the examples of: B. Brahmaputra
A. Black soil B. Alluvial soil C. Ganga
C. Bhabar soil D. Red soil D. None of the above
901. Bhabar is the another name of: 906. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi are the head
A. Forelands of Himalayas streams of:
B. Red soil A. Indus B. Brahmaputra
C. Black soil C. Yamuna D. Ganga
D. Loamy soil 907. The largest catchment area is possessed
902. The Himalayas came into existence during: by:
A. Paleozoic age A. Ganga system
B. Carboniferous period B. Brahmaputra system
C. Tertiary age C. Indus system
D. Both A and B D. None of the above
903. The early tertiary rocks are of: 908. The source of river Kosi is:
A. shallow and deep water marine origin A. Gangotri B. Yamunotri
B. fresh water or sub aerial origin C. Tibet D. Kulu Hills
C. only deep water origin
909. Himalayan rivers are fed by:
A. sea inlets
904. The Brahmaputra system known as ..... B. only rains
in Tibet: C. melting snow and rain
A. Dihang B. Manas D. none of these
ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B B B C D C C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D D A D A B B C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B B A C D B B B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C C B A A D B D C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C B C D B D C D D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A B C D A C B B B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D A B B A B A D D C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A A D A B A C B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C C B C B C C A D A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B B B B B A C B D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
B A C B A B A A C A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B B B D C A A C D B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A C A C A A D A B A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C A A A C B D B C A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A A A D A A C A A A
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A C A C B C A B A C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C A A C C D B A A C
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
D A A C A C A A A A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B A C B B D A D B A
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
C A A B A A C C A C
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
D B A B C A D C D C
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
A B A D C A A A B C
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
C A C B D D A C D C
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
D A A D B C A A A C
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
A D C B A D C A C A
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
D C A A B D A C A D
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
C D C A C C D D D D
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
A B D A A D C C A A
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
D A A B B A A D B A
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
B A A A A A C A B B
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
D D A A B C A C C A
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
B D A B C D B A C D
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
A D A A B D B D D C
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
B C B A A C D A D D
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
A A D A C B A C D A
351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
C D C C B B A C C B
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
C A B B C D D C A A
371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
B A A D B A A B A A
381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
A A C B B A A B C A
391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
B C A B A B D A B B
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410
B C A B A A A B D C
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
D C A D D D A A A A
421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430
B D B B A B A D A C
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440
A A A D C A B B D C
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450
A A A C B D D C A A
451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460
C D A C B D C B A B
461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470
C B B B D D C B C A
471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480
D D A C D B A B D B
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490
A D C D A B D A D C
491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500
B B A C D B A C D D
501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510
B C D A B B D C A B
511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520
D B C D C B D D D C
521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530
B A A C C B B A D A
531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540
D D D D B D B D C A
541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550
B A D B B D C A A D
551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560
A C C B B B A B D A
561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570
B D B A A C B D C C
571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580
A D A B C B A B C C
581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590
A B C C A C D B A C
591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600
B C C A A D C C B A
601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610
C D C A A A C C D A
611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620
C B C C D A A C C A
621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630
A B A D B B A A D A
631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640
A C D A A A A B B C
641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650
A C D D D B C B A B
651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660
A C B A B D D D C B
661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670
A C D D C D A C B C
671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680
C C B B C A C A C C
681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690
C B A B B B B B C A
691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700
D D C B A A A C B D
701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710
D D C C C B C C A B
711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720
D B C B B A C A C A
721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730
C B B C B D B D C B
731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740
C B B B B A B D D A
741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750
D D B A D B C C C D
751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760
C B D D C A B A D B
761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770
A A B D B C B C D A
771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780
A D B B C A D A B D
781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790
D B A D C B C D A C
791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799 800
C D D A A B B D A B
801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810
D B A C A A B B C B
811 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820
A D B C D D C C A D
821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830
A C D B C B B A B A
831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840
A B B C B B C A A D
841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849 850
D A A C A D A A D D
851 852 853 854 855 856 857 858 859 860
B C D C C B A A A D
861 862 863 864 865 866 867 868 869 870
C D C B B C A A D A
871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880
A D A C C D C B A A
881 882 883 884 885 886 887 888 889 890
B A B B B D C C B D
891 892 893 894 895 896 897 898 899 900
B C D B D A B B B B
901 902 903 904 905 906 907 908 909
A C A C A D C C C
R
About the Book

The present book ‘Objective Geography’, in objective MCQ-format, has been specially
published keeping in mind the requirements of students, exam-aspirants and other readers
with academic as well as competitions’ point of view. The book is especially useful for the
aspirants of various competitive exams where Objective Geography forms an essential part of
the Examination.
The main aim of the book is to present the specialised subject of Geography in an objective and
reader-friendly manner to make the readers study and practise numerous questions on its Objective
OBJECTIVE GEOGRAPHY
various topics thoroughly.
Geography
The book comprises a wide spectrum of question-answers (MCQs frequently asked in various
exams) covering all important topics and solved by experts. The book will also act as an efficient
tool to test your knowledge of the subject and preparation of exam.
The book will definitely prove to be a boon to the inquisitive students, exam-aspirants, and
other readers in improving and enhancing their knowledge of Geography and will immensely
help them perform better in their respective exams and competitions.
The book is highly recommended for self-practice of questions on the subject and to sharpen
your problem-solving skills to a great-extent.
Our Other Useful Books in Objective Series
A Collection of Highly Useful Questions

for Competitive Examinations
Book Code: R-809 Book Code: R-786 Book Code: R-681 Book Code: R-1016 Book Code: R-720
ISBN: 978-93-5012-760-5 ISBN: 978-93-5012-789-6 ISBN: 978-81-7812-670-8 ISBN: 978-81-7812-539-8 ISBN: 978-93-5012-468-0
Books to Accomplish A Successful Career
HSN Code: 49011010
ISBN 978-93-5012-755-1
RAMESH PUBLISHING HOUSE

12-H, New Daryaganj Road, New Delhi-110002
E-mail: info@rameshpublishinghouse.com A Collection of Highly Useful Questions
Website: www.rameshpublishinghouse.com 9 789350 127551
R-712 for Competitive Examinations
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About the Book

Our Other Useful Books in Objective Series

A Collection of Highly Useful Questions

Books to Accomplish A Successful Career

HSN Code: 49011010

RAMESH PUBLISHING HOUSE

Size: 20×30×8, Date: 09/2018

RAMESH PUBLISHING HOUSE, New Delhi

© Reserved with the Publisher

Book Code: R-712

l Solar Systems and General Geography.................................... 3

l Geographical Thought ............................................................. 73

l Human Geography ................................................................... 99

l Economic Geography ............................................................ 107

l Cartography ............................................................................ 115

l Biogeography ......................................................................... 123

l Asia ......................................................................................... 131

l China ....................................................................................... 140

l Europe .................................................................................... 142

l Africa ...................................................................................... 151

l North America ......................................................................... 158

l South America ........................................................................ 165

l Australia, Antarctica and New Zealand .................................. 167

l India ........................................................................................ 171

the climate would be :

A. Low temperature and high rainfall.

B. High temperature and high rainfall.

111. The tropics extend from north to south

1. Because of which one of the following A. It is found across all longitudes.

1. Sunda Trench lies in: C. Deformation of sea floor and vertical

1. Which of the following countries has (a) Vedda 1. Food gathering

1. China is the largest producer in the world A. Canton B. Nanking

c A. unsuited to vegetation growth

1. The longest river of South America– A. Bolivia and Paraguay

16 Australia, Antarctica And New Zealand

1. The most important mineralized rock A. Bengaluru B. Earnakulam

488. In Mizoram the settlement pattern is

mostly of linear type along the ridge Bhuj

D. Mumbai, New Delhi, Kolkata, 3

The map shows:

562. Which one of the following is the correct 4

sequence of the states labelled 1, 2, 3 and 2

4 of India shown on the map in descending

water resources for irrigation?

(a) Central Drug Research Institutes.

612. The recently discovered field with oil

About the Book

Our Other Useful Books in Objective Series

A Collection of Highly Useful Questions

Books to Accomplish A Successful Career

HSN Code: 49011010

RAMESH PUBLISHING HOUSE

Size: 20×30×8, Date: 09/2018

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