18.

112 FALL 2017: PROBLEM SET 5 SOLUTIONS

Problem 1.
Let Ω ⊂ C be star-shaped and z0 ∈ Ω a point such that for any z ∈ Ω, the segment [z, z0 ] =
{rz + (1 − r)z0 : 0 ≤ r ≤ 1} is entirely contained in Ω. To show Ω is simply connected, let
γ : [0, 1] → Ω be a continuous function with γ(0) = γ(1) (i.e., a closed loop). We need to show
that γ is homotopy-equivalent to a point in Ω, in this case we choose z0 to be such point. In other
words, we show the existence of a continuous map F : [0, 1] × [0, 1] → Ω such that F (s, 0) = F (s, 1)
for all s ∈ [0, 1]; F (0, t) = γ(t) and F (1, t) = z0 , for all t ∈ [0, 1]. Simply define
F (s, t) := (1 − s)γ(t) + sz0 .
The boundary conditions for F are clear. The image of F is contained in Ω, because of the fact
that Ω is star-shaped.
The slit plane C \ (−∞, 0] is simply connected: in fact, we claim it is star-shaped for z0 = 1. This is
easy to see geometrically. If you want to convince yourself algebraically, you can do the following.
If a + bi ∈ C \ (−∞, 0], then for any 0 ≤ r ≤ 1, we need to check that (a + bi)r + (1 − r) =
(a − 1)r + 1 + bri ∈ C \ (−∞, 0]. The latter is false if and only if (a − 1)r ≤ −1 and br = 0. Assume
both conditions hold simultaneously. Clearly r 6= 0 or the first one would be violated. But then
br = 0 implies b = 0. Also (a − 1)r ≤ −1 implies a − 1 < 0 and then −1 ≥ (a − 1)r ≥ a − 1, then
0 ≥ a. As a conclusion a + bi ∈ (−∞, 0], a contradiction.

Problem 2.
Consider the holomorphic function g(z) = zf (z) on D; clearly it extends continuously to 1 on the
boundary of the disc. By Cauchy’s integral formula:
˛ ˆ 2π ˆ 2π
1 g(z) 1 g(reiθ ) iθ 1
0 = g(0) = dz = (ire dθ) = g(reiθ )dθ.
2πi |z|=r z 2πi 0 reiθ 2π 0
for any 0 < r < 1. Since g(reiθ ) → g(eiθ ) = 1 as r → 1, as mentioned above, the right side of the
1
´ 2π
integral above converges to 2π 0
dθ = 1. This is a contradiction.

Problem 3.
Without loss of generality, let us assume z0 = 0. Then F (z) = z 2 f (z) for some holomorphic f (z)
with f (0) = a 6= 0. Then f (z) = a+a1 z +a2 z 2 +. . . and we can take ln f (z) in a small neighborhood
of z = 0. If we let g(z) = zeln f (z)/2 , then F (z) = (g(z))2 and g is holomorphic in a neighborhood
of z = 0, such that g(0) = 0 and g 0 (0) 6= 0.
Since g 0 (0) 6= 0 and g is holomorphic, it follows that g is a local bijection near 0, say U, V ⊂ C are
open neighborhoods of 0 such that g : U → V is a bijection. Let  > 0 be small enough so that the
square with center 0 and side-length 2 is completely contained in V . Let γ1 : (−, ) → U be the
curve γ1 (t) = g −1 (t) and γ2 : (−, ) → U be the curve γ2 (t) = g −1 (it). Then the curve Γ1 ⊂ U
defined by the image of γ1 is such that F takes real values and attains a minimum at 0 (because
F (γ1 (t)) = g(γ1 (t))2 = t2 attains a minimum at 0). Similarly for Γ2 ⊂ U the image of γ2 . The
1
2 18.112 FALL 2017: PROBLEM SET 5 SOLUTIONS

curves Γ1 , Γ2 are orthogonal at 0 because g is (locally) conformal, and the images of them under g
are γ1 , γ2 , which are obviously orthogonal at 0.
A last remark: the fact that f 0 (0) 6= 0 implies that the Jacobian of the real function (u, v) : R2 → R
is nonzero; then we can invoke a theorem from real analysis, called the inverse function theorem,
to say that (u, v), and therefore f , is locally bijective.

Problem 4.
a) Let F (z) = ez/2 , the composition of the two functions f (z) = ez and g(z) = z 1/2 , with the
square root function defined on C \ (−∞, 0].
The function f maps U1 conformally onto the upper half plane H. To see this note that for
x ∈ R, 0 < y < π, f (x + iy) = ex eiy has positive imaginary part.
The map f is injective: if f (x1 + iy1 ) = f (x2 + iy2 ), then |f (x1 + iy1 )| = |f (x2 + iy2 )|
implies ex1 = ex2 , so x1 = x2 ; then eiy1 = eiy2 and since 0 < y1 , y2 < π, then also y1 = y2 .
The map f is surjective: if z ∈ H, then its polar decomposition is z = reiφ , for some r > 0
and φ ∈ (0, π). Let a = ln r ∈ R; then f (a + iφ) = z.
The function g maps H conformally onto V1 . This is a special case of Example 2, pg. 210,
in the textbook. You should repeat the argument.
As a consequence, the composition F (z) = g ◦ f (z) = ez/2 maps U1 conformally onto V1 .
The boundary of U1 consists of 2 lines. The line {x+iy : y = 0} is mapped onto {ex : x ∈ R},
which is the positive real axis (part of the boundary of V1 ). The line {x + iy : y = 0} is
mapped onto {ex eiπ/2 = ex i : x ∈ R}, which is the positive part of the imaginary axis (also
a part of the boundary of V1 ).
1+ez 1+z
b) Let F (z) = 1−ez , the composition of the two functions f (z) = ez and g(z) = 1−z

The function f maps U2 conformally onto the half-disc

W2 = {z ∈ C : 0 < |z| < 1, Im(z) > 0}.
To see this note that for x < 0, 0 < y < π, f (x + iy) = ex eiy has positive imaginary part.
The map f is injective: if f (x1 + iy1 ) = f (x2 + iy2 ), then |f (x1 + iy1 )| = |f (x2 + iy2 )|
implies ex1 = ex2 , so x1 = x2 ; then eiy1 = eiy2 and since 0 < y1 , y2 < π, then also y1 = y2 .
The map f is surjective: if z ∈ W2 , then its polar decomposition is z = reiφ , for some
0 < r < 1 and φ ∈ (0, π). Let a = ln r ∈ R; then f (a + iφ) = z.
The function g maps W2 conformally onto V2 . This is Example 3, pg. 210, in the textbook.
You should repeat the argument.
1+ez
As a consequence, the composition F (z) = g ◦ f (z) = 1−ez maps U2 conformally onto V2 .
The boundary of U1 consists of 2 lines and one segment. The line {x + iy : y = 0, x < 0}
is mapped onto {(1 + ex )/(1 − ex ) : x < 0}, which is [1, ∞) (part of the boundary of V1 ).
The line {x + iy : y = π, x < 0} is mapped onto {(1 − ex )/(1 + ex ) : x < 0}, which is (0, 1)
(a part of the boundary of V1 ). Finally, the segment {yi : 0 < y < π} is mapped onto
 18.112 FALL 2017: PROBLEM SET 5 SOLUTIONS 3

{i sin y/(1 − cos y) : 0 < y < π}, which is the imaginary axis (also a part of the boundary
of V1 ).

Problem 5.
If we let z = reiφ , 0 < r < 1, φ ∈ (0, π), then
 
1 sin φ
=f (z) = = − (z + 1/z) = (1/r − r)
2 2
and the latter is negative because sin φ > 0 and 1/r − r > 0, so f is a conformal map from
{z = x + iy : |z| < 1, y > 0} to the upper half plane H. We show f is bijective.
1
f is injective. If z1 + 1/z1 = z2 + 1/z2 , then (z1 − z2 )(1 − z1 z2 ) = 0. Since |z1 |, |z2 | < 1, then
1 − 1/(z1 z2 ) 6= 0, so z1 − z2 = 0.
f is surjective. As the hint suggests, z 2 + 2wz + 1 = 0 has two distinct roots z1 , z2 in C. Note
that z1 z2 = 1. Now the image of the upper semicircle {z = x + iy : |z| < 1, y > 0} is mapped
by 1/z to {z = x + iy : |z| > 1, y < 0}; similarly {z = x + iy : |z| < 1, y < 0} is mapped by
1/z to {z = x + iy : |z| > 1, y > 0}. So we can have either z1 ∈ {z = x + iy : |z| < 1, y > 0},
z2 ∈ {z = x + iy : |z| > 1, y < 0} (in which case we are done, because f (z1 ) = w), or z1 ∈ {z =
x + iy : |z| < 1, y < 0}, z2 ∈ {z = x + iy : |z| > 1, y > 0}. Let us get rid of the latter possibility:
z1 = reiφ , 0 < r < 1, φ ∈ (−π, 0), then
sin φ
= {z1 + 1/z1 } = (1/r − r)
2
is negative because 1/r − r > 0 and sin φ < 0, so z1 + 1/z1 cannot be mapped to w because
=w > 0.

Problem 6.
(1) (x2 + y 2 = ax.) If a = 0, then x = y = 0, and 1/z = 1/(x + iy) has no image, so assume
a 6= 0. The circle is of the form (x − a/2)2 + y 2 = (a/2)2 , which has center (a/2, 0) and
radius a/2. The circle goes thorugh the origin, and thus the image under the map z 7→ 1/z
sends it to a straight line. Two points of the circle are (x, y) = (a, 0) and (x, y) = (a/2, a/2),
whose images are 1/a and (1 − i)/a. A line through them is vertical (parallel to the y-axis).
Thus the image of the family of circles as above is the family of vertical lines.
(2) (x2 + y 2 = by.) If b = 0, then x = y = 0, and 1/z = 1/(x + iy) has no image, so assume
b 6= 0. The circle is of the form x2 + (y − b/2)2 = (b/2)2 , which has center (0, b/2) and
radius b/2. The circle goes thorugh the origin, and thus the image under the map z 7→ 1/z
sends it to a straight line. Two points of the circle are (x, y) = (0, b) and (x, y) = (b/2, b/2),
whose images are −i/b and (1 − i)/b. A line through them is horizontal (parallel to the
x-axis). Thus the image of the family of circles as above is the family of horizontal lines.
(3) (y = x + b.) When b = 0, then the image of the line is 1/(x + xi) = (1 − i)/(2x): the line
with slope −1 and through the origin. For b 6= 0, we have lines that do not go through the
origin. Under the map 1/z, they transform to a family of circles going through the origin
and whose centers belong to the line x + y = 0. In fact, this follows from part (1) which
shows the image under 1/z of vertical lines are circles through the origin and whose centers
are in the x-axis.
4 18.112 FALL 2017: PROBLEM SET 5 SOLUTIONS

(4) (y = kx.) Since 1/(x + iy)|y=kx = 1/(x(1 + ik)) = x1 (1−ik) 1 ki

1+k2 = x(1+k2 ) − x(1+k2 ) , then the
line y = kx of slope k is mapped onto the line through the origin with slope −k. So the
pencil of straight lines is mapped onto the same family.
(5) (pencil of lines through z0 6= 0.) The pencil of lines through a given point z0 6= 0 map to
the family of circles passing through the origin and through 1/z0 . The only different line
is the one going through 0 and z0 , which maps to the line through 0 and 1/z0 (because of
part 4).