Target : NSEJS IX/TEST # 2/22-04-2018

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

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Physics for Question 1 to 20
1. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower. In the last second of its fall, the ball covers a distance 9/
25 times the height of the tower. If g = 10 ms–2, the height of the tower is
(1) 75 m (2) 100 m (3) 125 m (4) 150 m.
2. A ball is thrown vertically upwards trom the foot ot a tower. It crosses the top of the tower twice after
an interval of 4 s and reaches the foot of the tower 8 s after it was thrown. What is the height of the
tower? Takeg= 10 ms–2.
(1) 60 m (2) 80 m (3) 100 m (4) 120 m.
3. A stone is dropped from a height of 125 m. If g = 10 ms–2, what is the ratio of the distances trav-
elled by it during the first and the last second of its motion?
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 2 : 9 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 9.
4. A body, moving in a straight line with an initial velocity of 5 ms–1 and a constant acceleration, covers
a distance of 30 m in the 3rd second. How much distance will it cover in the next 2 seconds?
(1) 70 m (2) 80 m (3) 90 m (4) 100 m
5. A body, moving in a straight line, with an initial velocity u and a constant acceleration a, covers a
distance of 40 m in the 4th second and a distance of 60 m in the 6th second. The values of u and
a respectively are
(1) 10 ms–1, 5 ms–2 (2) 10 ms–1, 10 ms–2 (3) 5 ms–1, 5 ms–2 (4) 5 ms–1, 10 ms–2
6. A car, starling from rest, is accelerated at a constant rate until it attains a speed v. It is then retarded
at a constant rate until it comes to rest. The average speed of the car during its entire journey is.

v v v
(1) zero (2) 2 (3) (4)
2 2

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7. A car moving at a speed v is stopped in a certain distance when the brakes produce a deceleration
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a. If the speed of the car was nv, what must be the deceleration of the car to stop it in the same distance
and in the same time?
(1) na (2) na (3) n2a (4) n3a
8. Two balls are dropped from the same point after an interval of 1 second. What will be their separation
3 seconds after the release of the second ball? Take g= 10 ms–2.
(1) 25 m (2) 30 m (3) 35 m (4) 40 m.
9. A 150 m long train having a constant acceleration crosses a 300 m long platform. It enters the platform
at a speed of 40 ms–1 and leaves it at a speed of 50 ms–1. What is the acceleration of the train?
(1) 0.6 ms–2 (2) 0.8 ms–2 (3) 1.0 ms–2 (d) 1.2 ms–2
10. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with a speed of 3 m/s. The other half of
the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speeds of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively.
The average speed of the particle during this motion is.
(1) 4.0 m/s (2) 5.0 m/s (3) 5.5 m/s (4) 4.8 m/s
11. A stone dropped from a building of height h reaches the ground after t seconds. From the same building
if two stones are thrown (one upwards and the other downwards) with the same velocity u and they
reach the ground after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then the time interval t is.

t1 t2
(1) t = t1 – t2 (2) t = (3) t t 1t 2 (4) t t 12 t 22
2
12. Displacement (x) of a particle is related to time (t) as x = at + bt2 – ct3 where a, b and c are constants
of motion. The velocity of the particle when its acceleration is zero is given by.

b2 b2 b2 b2
(1) a (2) b (3) a (4) a
c 2c 3c 4c
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13. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It passes three points A, B and C in its upward journey

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u u u AB
with velocities , and respectively. The ratio is.
2 3 4 BC
20 10
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 1
7 7
14. A body, falling freely under gravity, covers half the total distance in the last second of its fall. If it
falls for n seconds, then the value of n is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 – 2 (4) 2 + 2
15. In 1.0 s, a particle goes from point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 1.0 m as shown
in Fig. The magnitude of the average velocity of the particle is

(1) 3.14 ms–1 (2) 2.0 ms–1 (3) 1.0 ms–1 (4) zero
–2
16. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time t = 0 is 5 ms which varies with time as shown
in Fig. The maximum speed of the particle will be

(1) 7.5 ms–1 (2) 15 ms–1 (3) 30 ms–1 (d) 2.5 ms–1
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17. Figure shows the variation of velocity (v) of a body with position (x) from the origin O. Which of
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the graphs shown in Fig. correctly represents the variation of the acceleration (a) with position (x)?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

18. A block is moving down a smooth inclined plane starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the distance
Sn
travelled by the block in the interval t = n – 1 to t = n. The ratio S is
n 1

2n 1 2n 1 2n 1 2n
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2n 2n 1 2n 1 2n 1
19. A stone is released from an elevator going up with an acceleration a and speed u. The acceleration
and speed of the stone just after the release is
(1) a upward, zero (2) (g-a) upward, u (3) (g-a) downward, zero (4) g downward, u
20. A hall has the dimensions 10 m × 10 m × 10 m. Afly starting at one corner ends up at a farthest corner.
The magnitude of its displacement is:
(1) 5 3 m (2) 10 3 m (3) 20 3 m (4) 30 3 m
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Chemistry for Question 21 to 40

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21. The oxidation state of I in H4IO6– is :–
(1) +7 (2) –1 (3) +5 (4) +1
22. Which one of the following is a redox reaction?
(1) Reaction of H2SO4 and NaOH
(2) Evaporation of water
(3) The formation of ozone by lightning of oxygen of atmosphere
(4) The preparation of nitrogen oxide from atmospheric nitrogen & oxygen
23. Consider the following reaction,
5H2O2 + 2ClO2 + 2OH— x Cl— + yO2 + 6H2O
The reaction is balanced if :
(1) x = 5, y = 2 (2) x = 2, y = 5 (3) x = 4, y = 10 (4) x = 5, y = 5
24. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions SO32–, S2O42– and S2O62– follow the order:
(1) S2O42– < SO32– < S2O62– (2) SO32– < S2O42– < S2O62–
(3) S2O42– < S2O62– < SO32– (4) S2O62– < S2O42– < SO32–
25. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful reducing agent
(2) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a variable oxidation state
(3) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr
(4) HF is a stronger acid than HCl
26. The correct order of acidic strength is –
(1) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO (2) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO
(3) HClO4 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 (4) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
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27. In the reaction 2FeCl3+SnCl2 2FeCl2+SnCl4
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(1) Fe undergoes oxidation (2) Sn undergoes oxidation

(3) Sn undergoes reduction (4) None of the above
28. Check whether the reaction H2S+SO2 H2O + S is a redox reaction or not ? If yes, what will be the
oxidant :
(1) Yes, SO2 (2) Yes, S (3) Yes, H2S (4) No, this is not redox
–
29. Oxidation number of Xe in XeF5 is :-
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4
+ – +3
30. MnO2 + 4H + e Mn + 2H2O
In the above reaction oxidation number of Mn changes from :-
(1) + 2 to – 3 (2) + 4 to – 3 (3) + 2 to + 3 (4) + 4 to + 3
31. Which of the following may act both as an oxidizing and a reducing agent :
(1) H2O2 (2) MnO2 (3) SO2 (4) All of these
32. Assuming complete precipitation of AgCl, calculate the sum of the molar concentration of all the ions
if 2 lit of 2M Ag2SO4 is mixed with 4 lit of 1 M NaCl solution is :
(Ag2SO4 + NaCl AgCl + Na2 SO4)
(1) 4M (2) 2M (3) 3 M (4) 2.5 M
33. A reducing agent is a substance :
(1) in which an element undergoes increase in oxidation number.
(2) in which an element undergoes decrease in oxidation number.
(3) which gains electron(s)
(4) which shares electron(s)
34. In the reaction 2Ag + 2H2SO4 Ag2SO4 + 2H2O+ SO2 ,
sulphuric acid acts as:
(1) an oxidizing agent (2) a reducing agent
(3) a catalyst (4) an acid as well as an oxidant
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35. Consider the following reaction:

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3Br2 + 6CO32 – + 3H2O 5Br – + BrO3– + 6 HCO3–
Which of the following statements is true regarding this reaction:
(1) Bromine is oxidized and the carbonate radical is reduced.
(2) Bromine is reduced and the carbonate radical is oxidized.
(3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized.
(4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized.
36. In the ionic equation 2BrO3– + 12H+ + 10e– Br2 + 6H2O
the equivalent weight of BrO 3 will be : (where M = molecular weight of KBrO3)
(1) M/5 (2) M/2 (3) M/6 (4) M/4
37. Which of the following relations is incorrect for solutions ?
(1) 3 N Al2(SO4)3 = 0.5 M Al2(SO4)3 (2) 3 M H2SO4 = 6 N H2 SO4
(3) 1 M H3 PO4 = 1/3 N H3PO4 (4) 1 M Al2 (SO4)3 = 6 N Al2(SO4)3
38. The equation for complete combustion of methanol is
2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
If 64 g of CH3OH is combined with 44.8 L of O2, measured at STP, the number of moles of CO2
which can be produced is :
(1) 2/3 (2) 11/3 (3) 11/2 (4) 4/3
39. A certain weight of pure CaCO3 is made to react completely with 200 mL of a HCl solution to give
224 mL of CO2 gas at STP. The normality of the HCl solution is:
(1) 0.05N (2) 0.1 N (3) 1.0 N (4) 0.2 N
40. The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 g of CaC2 with water
CaC2 + H2O Ca(OH)2 + C2H2(g)
(1) 70 litre (2) 35 litre (3) 17.5 litre (4) 22.4 litre
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Biology for Question 41 to 60

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41. _____was a German scientist, who observed that all plant tissues are made up of cells At the same
time……………. British scientist studies different type of cells. Though he was able to observe the
nuclei, but he could not locate the cell wall, he examined and realized that cell wall forms a unique
character of plants.
(1) Rudolf Virchow and Nageli respectively
(2) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann respectively
(3) Theodore Hooke and Purkinje respectively
(4) Robert Hooke and Purkinje respectively
42. Which of the following features is common to prokaryotes and many eukaryotes?
(1) Chromosomes present (2) Cell wall present
(3) Nuclear membrane present (4) Sub cellular organelles present
43. Lipids are arranged within the membrane with
(1) polar heads towards inner side and the hydrophobic tails towards outer side
(2) both heads and tails towards outer side
(3) heads towards outer side and tail towards inside
(4) both heads and tails towards inner side
44. All plastids have essentially the same structure because
(1) They have to perform the same function
(2) They are localized in the aerial parts of plants
(3) One type of plastids can differentiate into another type of plastids depending upon the cell requirements
(4) All plastids have to store starch, lipids and proteins.
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45. Which of the following observations most strongly support the view that mitochondria contain electron

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transport enzymes arranged into compact association?
(1) Mitochondria have a highly folded inner wall.
(2) Disruption of mitochondria yields membrane fragments, which are able to synthesise ATP.
(3) A contractile protein capable of utilizing ATP has been obtained from mitochondria.
(4) Mitochondria in animal embryos have a tendency to concentrate in cells, which are to become
locomotory structures.
46. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Lysosomes (i) Protein synthesis
B. Ribosomes (ii) Hydrolytic activity
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (iii) Steroid synthesis
D. Centriole (iv) Formation of spindle
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), (C)-(iii), D-(iv) (2) A-(i), B-(iii), (C)-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), (C)-(iii), D-(ii) (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), (C)-(i), D-(ii)
47. Which of the following statements is incorrect for centrioles?
(1) Both the centioles in a centorsome lie perpendicular to each other
(2) Central proteinaceous hub is missing in a centriole
(3) Each centriole has an organization like that of a carthwheel
(4) Centrosome usually contains 2 cylindrical centrioles
48. A component of cyto-skeleton is
(1) Microtubule (2) Bone (3) Chitin (4) Cartilage
49. Largest isolated single cell is
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Ostrich egg (3) Human red blood cell (4) Nerve Cells
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50. Mark the incorrect match

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(1) Neutral solute-simple diffusion (2) Water-osmosis

(3) Non polar molecules-facilitate diffusion (4) ATP utilized-active transport
51. Identify the components labeled A, B, C, D and E in the diagram (cell membrane) below from the list
(i) to (vii) given along with
Components: -
(i) Sugar (ii) Protein
(iii) Lipid bilayer (iv) Integral protein
(v) Cytoplasm (vi) Cell wall
(vii) External protein
The correct components are :
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v) (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(vi) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(vii), E-(v)
52. (a) Minute vesicles (B) Membrane bound
(c) Contained enzymes (d) Present in plant & animal cells
Above statements are correct for
(1) Plastids (2) Microbodies (3) Nucleoli (4) Satellite bodies
53. Which is not the function of cell wall?
I. Provides shape to the cell II. Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection
III. Helps in cell to cell interaction IV. Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
V. Imbibition of water
(1) Only III (2) Only IV (3) Only II, III and IV (4) None
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54. The long tubular unbranched structures presnt in golgi bodies are called as

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(1) Cristae (2) Saccule (3) Cisternae (4) Columns
55. Cristae are infoldings molecules of __________ present towards the ________

(1) E and B (2) B and C (3) C and D (4) F and D

56. The given diagram shows the sectional view of a chloroplast. In which of the following all the four
parts labelled as A, B, C, D are correctly identified ?

A B C D
(1) Cytoplasm Thylakoid Stroma Granum
(2) Stroma Granum Stroma lamella Thylakoid
(3) Stroma Thylakoid Stroma lamella Granum
(4) Cytoplasm Granum Thylakoid Stroma lamella
57. (a) granular structure
(b) first observed under the electron microscope as dense particles by George Palade
(c) composed of RNA and proteins
(d) not surrounded by any membrane
Above given statements are true for which cell organelle ?
(1) Nucleolus (2) Ribosomes (3) Cristae (4) Chloroplast
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58. An elaborate network of filamentous, proteinaceous structures, present in the cytoplasm which helps
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in the maintenance of cell shape is called

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Plasmalemma (3) Thylakoid (4) Cytoskeleton
59. Which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Nuclear matrix or nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.
(b) Ectokaryotheca usually remains continuous with the ER and also bears ribosomes on it.
(c) Small and less number of nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis
(1) a and b (2) only a (3) a, and c (4) b and c
60. Which one is correct? (with respect to chromosome)

A B C D
(1) Telocentric Acrocentric Submetacentric Metacentric
(2) Acrocentric Telocentric Metacentric Submetacentric
(3) Submetacentric Metacentric Telocentric Acrocentric
(4) Metacentric Submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric
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Mathematics for Question 61 to 80

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61. For every natural number n, the highest number, that n × (n2– 1) × (5n + 2) is always divisible by is:

(1) 6 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 48

62. The sum of all 2-digit positive integer which exceeds the product of their digits by 12 is:

(1) 67 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 13

63. How many key strokes are needed to type numbers from 1 to 1000 on a standard keyboard?

(1) 3001 (2) 2893 (3) 2704 (4) 2890

64. A set of S consist of,

(i) All odd no from 1 to 55

(ii) All even no from 56 to 150

What is the index of the highest power of 3 the product of all the elements of the set S

(1) 35 (2) 48 (3) 6 (4) 36

65. a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive integers in increasing order of size. Which one of the following
expression is not odd?

(1) ab + c (2) ab + d (3) ac + d (4) ac + e

66. a, b, c are distinct natural number less than 25. What is the maximum possible value of

|a-b| + |b-c|– |c-a|

(1) 44 (2) 46 (3) 23 (4) 21

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67. There are 2 number such that a > b, HCF (a, b) = h and LCM(a, b) = K. What is the LCM of a - b and
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b?
(a b)b
(1) K (2)(a – b) b (3) (4) h (a-b)
h
68. A number leaves a remainder 3 on division 14, and leaves a remainder K on division 35. How many
possible values can K take?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 4
69. Find the remainder when 4.6n + 5n+1 is divided by 20
(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 13 (4) 7
70. The number of positive integral solution of x4 – y4 = 3789108 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
10

71. If 30! = 2 .3 .5 .7 .11 .13 .17 .19 .25 .29 Then

x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 x6 x7 x8 x9 x l0 xi =
i 1

(1) 59 (2) 60 (3) 63 (4) 64

72. Find the remainder if
(2!)3 + (3!)3 + (4!)3 + ............. (100!)3is divided by 40
(1) 8 (2) 0 (3) 11 (4) None of these
73. A number N when successively divided by 5, 7 and 9 leaves remainder 3, 4, 7 respectively. What will
be the remainder when N is divided by 35?
(1) 13 (2) 17 (3) 19 (4) 23
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74. Let N be an integer such that 2N2 has exactly 28 distinct positive divisors and 3N2 has exactly 24

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distinct positive divisor. How many distinct positive divisor does 6N2 have ?

(1) 30 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 44

75. Suppose n is an integer such that the sum of the digit of n is 2 and 1010 < n < 1011. The number of
different value of n is :

(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8

76. Find the last 2 digit of (79)147 × (46)144

(1) 54 (2) 04 (3) 34 (4) 94

77. The total number of integer pair (x, y) satisfyingthe equation x + y = xy is :

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) None of these

78. When 100 is divided by 12. the remainder is 4.

When 100 is divided by a positive integer x. the remainder is 10.

When 1000 is divided by x. the remainder is

(1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 10 (4) 1

79. The decimal equivalent of binary number (1001.0010)2 is:

(1) 125 (2) 12.5 (3) 90.125 (4) 9.125

80. Find the smallest number that leaves a remainder of 4 on division by 5, 5 on division by 6, 6 on
division by 7. 7 on division by 8 and 8 on division by 9?

(1) 2519 (2) 5039 (3) 1079 (4) 979

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