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ESE 2020 : Prelims Exam GENERAL STUDIES

Test 7
CLASSROOM TEST SERIES & ENGG. APTITUDE
Section A : Basics of Project Management
Section B : General Principles of Design, Drawing, Importance of Safety
Section C : Basics of Energy and Environment

1. (c) 11. (a) 21. (b) 31. (d) 41. (d)

2. (a) 12. (c) 22. (a) 32. (d) 42. (c)

3. (a) 13. (d) 23. (a) 33. (b) 43. (d)

4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (d) 34. (c) 44. (d)
5. (d) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (b)
6. (c) 16. (d) 26. (d 36. (a) 46. (c)
7. (b) 17. (d) 27. (b) 37. (b) 47. (a)
8. (c) 18. (b) 28. (d) 38. (c) 48. (b)
9. (d) 19. (d) 29. (b) 39. (d) 49. (d)
10. (c) 20. (d) 30. (d) 40. (a) 50. (b)
12 ESE 2019 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
1. (c)
12 12 29 29
D, 17
2 5
2 I, 11
A, 1 7 23 E y)
mm
B, 7 ( Du F, 12
0 0 1 3 6 40 40

G, 8
C, 15 H, 9
4
15 31

2. (a)
Security money is deposited by successful bidder only.

3. (a)
• In the early life cycle phase, the total project risk is high in part because of the lack of information
that may preclude comprehensive and accurate risk, identification and because risk response
plans have yet to developed.
• Identifying risks as high moderate or low is a qualitative risk assessment.

4. (c)
Time, cost and scope are the triple constraints in a project because they have strong interrelationship
with each other.

6. (c)
Contractor is least likely to want to control prices in cost plus percentage of cost contract while
he/she is most likely to want to control prices in firm fixed contract.
Fixed price contract is also known as lump-sum contract.
7. (b)
Force majeure clause: A provision in a contract that excuses the parties involved from any liability
or contractual delegation because of acts of god, wars terrorism, or any such event.
Non-disclosure clause: An agreement providing restriction on certain proprietary information
such that it cannot be disclosed without written permission.
Statement 2 in question refers to penalty clause while statement 4 refers to Non-compete clause.

8. (c)
For Break-even analysis,
Renting cost = Leasing cost
1000x = 30000 + 700x (x → Number of days)
x = 100 days

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 General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 7 13

10. (c)
• In discounted cash flow we discount future values to the present.
• If the NPV is greater than or equal to zero Rupees, accept the project.
Internal rate of return is the rate at which money is return such that net present value (NPV) is
equal to zero.
i.e.
NPV = (Present value of future cash flow) – (Initial investment)
⇒ Present value of future cash flow = Initial investment

11. (a)
Given, T E = 50 week
Variance, σ2 = 16 week
Standard deviation σ = 4 week
Ts − TE
Now, z =
σ
Ts − 50
1.647 =
4
T s = 50 + 1.647 × 4 = 56.588  56.59 weeks

12. (c)
Phase Percent of direct labour costs
Conceptualization 5
Feasibility study 10
Preliminary planning 15
Detail planning 20
Execution 40
Commissioning 10

13. (d)
Project charter should include:
1. Identification of project manager and his/her authority to apply resources to the project.
2. The business purpose that the project was undertaken to address.
3. Summary of the conditions defining the project.
4. Description, objective, constraints of project.
5. Project scope (inclusion and exclusion).
6. Key stakeholders and their roles.
7. Risks.
8. Involvement by certain stakeholders.

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14. (c)
Duration Cost Remarks

16 16000 + 8000 + 9000 = 33000 No activity crashed

15 15000 + 8000 + 9500 = 32500 Activity 2–3 crashed by 1 day

14 14000 + 8000 + 10000 = 32000 Activity 2–3 crashed by 2 day

13 13000 + 10000 + 10000 = 33000 Activity 2–3 crashed by 2 day

and 1–2 by 1 day

Project overhead cost = 1000 Rs./day

10000 − 8000
Activity 1–2 Cost slope = = 2000 Rs./day
1
10000 − 9000
Activity 2–3 Cost slope = = 500 Rs./day
2

33000

32500
32000
Project cost

13 14 15 16
Duration (days)
From graph, it is clear that the optimum duration = 14 days
Minimum cost = Rs. 32000

15. (c)
Event: Equivalent to a milestone indicating when on activity starts or finishes.
Activity: Element of work that must be accomplished.

17. (d)

10 10 23 37 24 57
E H
2 5 8
13 1
A L
C I 8
10 25 12
35 35 49 49
F K
1 4 7 9
12 16
0 0 65 65
10 D J 30
B 15 14
M
G
3 6
17
10 18 35 35

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 General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 7 15

Activity 1 – 2, 2 – 4, 4 – 6, 6 – 7, 7 – 9, and 6 – 9 have total float zero.

Since, critical path is the time wise longest path in the network.
Various possible (Path) (TE)

1–2–5–8–9 10 + 13 + 1 + 8 = 32
1–2–5–7–9 10 + 13 + 12 + 16 = 51
1–2–4–7–9 10 + 25 + 12 + 16 = 63
1–2–4–6–7–9 10 + 25 + 14 + 16 = 65
1–2–4–6–9 10 + 25 + 30 = 65
1–3–4–6–7–9 10 + 15 + 14 + 16 = 55
1–3–4–7–9 10 + 15 + 12 + 16 = 50
1–3–6–9 10 + 17 + 30 = 57

Critical path of project will be

Either 1 – 2 – 4 – 6 – 7 – 9
1–2–4–6–9

18. (b)
Monte Carlo is quantitative risk assessment system. Other quantitative risk assessment system
includes payoff matrix, decision analysis, expected value etc.

19. (d)
All three statements are the major limitations of Bar (Gantt) chart.

20. (d)
TF1–3 = TLj – TEi– tij 7 7
TF1–3 = TL – TE – t1-3 5
3
7
3 1 14 14
= 7–0–5=2
1 4
FF1–3 = TEj – TEi – t1-3 3
0 0
= 7–0–5=2 4
2
IF1–3 = TEj – tLi – t1-3 = 3
4 4
= 7–0–5=2

21. (b)
The special projects office of the U.S. Navy introduced PERT on its Polaris weapon system in 1958.

22. (a)
A suspiciously low price, particularly on cost plus type proposal, night be perceived by the customer
as unrealistic and risky regarding technical performance, cost, or schedule.

23. (a)
Payback period is the exact length of time needed for a firm to recover its initial investment as
calculated from cash inflows.
Both statements regarding payback period are correct and statements 2 justifies statement 1.

24. (d)
PERT is used for research and development projects where the risks in calculating time durations
have a high uncertainty. CPM is used for construction projects that are resource dependent and
based on accurate time estimates.

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25. (c)
Activities in PERT follows β-distribution while the project as a whole follows normal distribution.
The main idea of CLT is that the averages of sample of observation drawn from a population with
any distribution shape is approximately distributed as a NORMAL distribution.

26. (d)
In general an engineering designer must be capable of dealing with the following:
• The production of practical design solutions starting from a limited definition of requirements
taking into account many factors.
• The production of design schemes, analysis, manufacturing drawings and related documentation
within defined timescales.
• The assessment of the design requirements of a particular component, system, assembly or
installation in consultation with other departments.
• The production of designs which will favourably influence the cost and functional quality of
the product and improve profitability and/or the company's reputation with customers.
• The undertaking of feasibility studies for future projects.
• Negotiations with vendors on aspects of bought out components and equipment, and with
subcontractors or partner firms on interfaces.
• The assessment of the work of others.

27. (b)
Product architecture is concerned with dividing the overall design system into small subsystems
and modules. It is in this step we decide how the physical components of the design are to be
arranged in order to combine them to carry out the functional duties of the design.

28. (d)
Technology development cycle: The development of a new technology follows a typical S-shaped
curve.
(b)
(a)
Performance index

Technology A
Performance

Major technical
obstacles are Technical
overcome maturity Technology B
reached

Time Time
Schematic outline of (a) technology development curve, (b) improved program
to develop new technology before the complete extinct of existing technology.

In its early stage, the progress is limited by the lack of ideas.

A single good idea can make several other good ideas possible, and the rate of progress is
exponential.
Gradually the growth becomes linear when the fundamental ideas are in place and the progress is
concerned with filling the gaps between, the key ideas. It is during this time when the commercial
exploitation flourishes. But with time the technology begins to run dry and increased improvements
come with greater difficulty. This matured technology grows slowly and approaches a limit

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 General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 7 17

asymptotically. The success of a technology based company lies in its capabilities of recognizing
when the core technology on which the company's products are based begin to mature and through
an active R& D program, transfer to another technology growth curve, which offers greater
possibilities

29. (b)
Traditionally, safety theories and programs have focused on accidents and the resulting injuries.
However, the current trend is towards a broader perspective that also encompasses the issue of
industrial hygiene. Industrial hygiene concerns environmental factors that can lead to sickness,
disease, or other forms of impaired health. This trend has, in turn, led to the development of an
epidemiological theory of accident causation.
Epidemiology is the study of causal relationships between environmental factors.
• The epidemiological theory holds that the models used for studying and determining these
relationships can also be used to study causal relationships between environmental factors and
accidents or diseases.

30. (d)
The machine safeguards for all industries meet the following minimum requirements:
• Prevent contact: Must prevent any part of the worker's body from making contact with dangerous
moving parts.
• Be secure: Must be secure enough to prevent workers from easily removing them, durable
enough to withstand normal use, and firmly secured to the machine where possible (or secured
elsewhere if it is not possible to secure them to the machine).
• Protect from falling objects: Must ensure that falling objects should not fall into moving parts.
• Create no interference: Must not impede the worker's ability to perform required tasks quickly
and comfortably.
• Allow safe lubrication: Must be able to be lubricated without removal from the machine if
possible.

31. (d)
To be properly prepared to handle such conceivable incidents and to keep them in the realm of
emergency rather than disaster, a Site Emergency Response Plan (SERP) with the following nine
elements is recommended:
1. A list of emergency numbers for company team members, fire departments, medical and rescue
services, and police.
2. Site evacuation routes and procedures, both primary and secondary.
3. Location, type and availability of both site and community emergency equipment.
4. A plot plan designated hazardous materials, locations and operations.
5. Material safety data sheets on all hazardous materials at or near the location.
6. A crisis communication plan for dealing with the media.
7. Plan coordination, recommendations and contacts of site and community officials and emergency
responders.
8. Training information, including responsibilities of site personnel.
9. Testing dates and procedures, including site exercise results and recommendations.

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32. (d)
OSHA reinforces the integrated approach by requiring companies to have a plan for doing at least
the following: (1) providing appropriate medical treatment for injured or ill workers, (2) regularly
examining workers who are exposed to toxic substances, and (3) having a qualified first-aid person
available during all working hours. Smaller companies may contract out the fulfilment of these
requirements. Larger companies often maintain a staff of safety and health professionals.

33. (b)
If cutting plane makes a smaller angle with axis than the generators of the cone, the curve obtained
is hyperbola.

34. (c)

Chain thin, thick at ends and change in direction is used to represent cutting planes.

35. (b)

Length of drawing
Representative fraction, RF = Length of object

20 1
= =
10 × 100 50
Maximum length = 12 m
Length of scale (LOS) = RF × maximum length
1
= × 12 × 100 = 24 cm
50

36. (a)
We can write equation of line as

x−2 y−6 z−2

= =
3 −2 0
For horizontal trace, y = 0
x−2
So, = 3
3
⇒ x = 11
z−2
and 3 =
0
⇒ z = 2
So, horizontal trace is x = 11, y = 0, z = 2.

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 General Studies & Engineering Aptitude | Test 7 19

37. (b)
Statement (I) is the definition of hypocycloid. Statement (II) is the conclusion from one of the
standard questions on hypocycloid: If the diameter of the directing circle is twice the diameter of
the generating circle then hypocycloid is a straight line. A curve with zero curvature will have
infinite radius and will be a straight line.

38. (c)
The development of a cone is a sector of a circle.

Sector
θ of circle

FV

Top view
40. (a)
• Primary productivity is the rate at which radiant energy is stored by photosynthetic and
chemosynthetic activity of producers.
• Photosynthesis and chemosynthesis are the processes by which organisms produce food;
photosynthesis is powered by sunlight whereas chemosynthesis runs on chemical energy.
• In most cases, primary production occurs through photosynthesis while in some case, it occurs
through chemosynthesis as well. Together, photosynthesis and chemosynthesis fuel all life on
Earth.

41. (d)
Forest fires cause following adverse impact:
(i) Loss of valuable timber resources and depletion of carbon sinks
(ii) Degradation of water catchment areas resulting in loss of water
(iii) Loss of biodiversity and extinction of plants and animals
(iv) Global warming resulting in rising temperature
(v) Increase in percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere
(vi) Soil erosion affecting productivity of soils
(vii) Ozone layer depletion
(viii) Health problems leading to diseases
(ix) Indirect effects on agricultural production

42. (c)
• Kyoto Protocol limits the emissions of six main GHGs (Greenhouse gases) produced by human
activities during its first commitment period (2008-12). These gases are Carbon dioxide (CO2),
Methane (CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs),
and Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).

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43. (d)
Greenhouse gases below Earth’s surface can potentially migrate to the surface and subsequently
released into the atmosphere. Such emissions tend to be higher near geothermal power plants,
which are associated with sulphur dioxide and silica emissions. Besides, the reservoirs can contain
traces of toxic heavy metals including mercury, arsenic and boron.

45. (b)
• A scrubber is a waste gas treatment installation, in which a gas stream is brought into intensive
contact with a liquid, with the aim of allowing certain gaseous components to pass from the gas
to the liquid. Scrubbers can be employed as an emission-limiting technique for many gaseous
emissions. It can be used to remove some particulates and gases from industrial exhaust systems.
• Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) is a filtration device that is used to remove fine particles like
smoke and fine dust from the flowing gas. It is the commonly used device for air pollution
control. They are used in industries like steel plants, thermal energy plants. Electrostatic
Precipitator (ESP) cannot be used to treat moist flows, mists or sticky particles.

46. (c)
• Ecological Niche refers to the unique functional role and position of a species in its habitat or
ecosystem. Niche plays an important role in the conservation of organisms.
• Niche is unique for a species while many species share the habitat. No two species in a habitat
can have the same niche.
• Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems.

47. (a)
Rated head is the water head at which turbine produces the rated output at the rated speed.

48. (b)
Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) identifies the post-2020 voluntary national
climate targets, including mitigation and adoption regarding climate change.
Key data regarding India’s INDCs:
(i) To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35% by 2030 from 2005 level.
(ii) To achieve about 40% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based
energy resources by 2030.
(iii)To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional
forest and tree cover by 2030.

49. (d)
• Fourth generation biofuels technology combines genetically optimized feedstocks, which are
designed to capture large amounts of carbon, with genomically synthesized microbes, which
are made to efficiently make fuels. Key to the process is the capture and sequestration of CO2,
a process that renders fourth-generation biofuels a carbon negative source of fuel.
• Second generation biofuels are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and
waste biomass.

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