UPPSC 2021 CIVIL ENGINEERING TEST-05 REVIEW

PRAGYAN
A Journey to Excellence
UPPSC 2021 CIVIL ENGINEERING
TEST-05
Time : 1 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 225

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3. This Test Booklet contains 75 questions. Each questions has four (4) options which are given
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corresponding to the alternative which you consider to be the correct or most appropriate answer
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(2) CE (Test–05), UPPSC AE Test Series | 27th October 2021 PRAGYAN
1. (d)
6.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
2.
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d) (d)
3. 7.
(a) (a) (b)
(b) (c) (d)
(c)
8.
(d)
(a) (b)
4.
(c) (d)
9.
(a)
(a) (b)
(b)
(c) (d)
(c)
10.
(d)
(a)
5.
(b)
(c)
(a) (d)
(b) 11.
(c)
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PRAGYAN CE (Test–05), UPPSC AE Test Series | 27th October 2021 (3)
(a) (b) (c) 30 m (d) 45 m

18. As per IS 456 : 2000, the stability of
(c) (d)
structure as a whole against overturning
12. shall be ensured so that the restoring
movement shall not be less than the sum
(a) of:
1. 1.4 times the maximum overturning
(b)
moment due to the characteristic
dead load.
(c)
2. 1.2 times the maximum overturning
(d) moment due to the characteristic
imposed load.
13.
Of the above statement, the correct
(a) (b) statements are
(a) 1 only
(c) (d)
(b) 2 only
14.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) (b)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) (d) 19. Fire resistance to concrete member
depends upon
15.
1. details of member size.
2. cover to steel reinforcement.
(a) (b) 3. type of aggregate used in concrete
(c) (d) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
16. The effetive length of a RC column (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
effectively held in position and restrained 20. Consider the following statements:
against rotation in one end, and at the
other partially restrained against rotation 1. A ‘recovery ratio’ of less than 1
but not held in position is means the soil sample is
compressed.
(a) 0.6L (b) 1.0L
2. For a sand having the same relative
(c) 1.2L (d) 1.5L density, N-values are different at
17. The effects due to temperature different depths.
fluctuations, shrinkage and creep can be 3. The static cone penetration test data
neglected in design calculation for the low is useful in estimating the skin
rise buildings whose lateral dimension do friction resistance and point
not exceed resistance of a pile foundation.
(a) 15 m (b) 20 m 4. A vane shear test is useful for
measuring the shear strength of very (c) Heat bonding

soft clay soils.
(d) Any of the above methods.
Choose the correct statements:
25. A sample of soil weighs 1.5 N. Its clay
(a) 1 and 4 fraction weight 0.24 N. If its liquid limitis
60% and its plastic limit is 26%, what is
(b) 1, 2 and 4
the activity number?
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1.5 (b) 1
(d) All of the above
(c) 2.3 (d) 2.8
21. Which one of the following is the
26. The toughness index of clayey soils is
appropriate field test for estimating the
given by
angle of shearing resistance  of a sand
deposit? (a) Flow index/Plastic limit
(a) Field vane shear test (b) Liquid limit/Plastic limit
(b) Plate load test (c) Plasticity index/Flow index
(c) Standard penetration test (d) Plastic limit/Liquidity index
(d) Electrical resistivity test 27. The relationship between water content
(w%) and no. of blows (N) in soil, as
22. Which of the following statements is
obtained from Casagrande’s liquid limit
incorrect?
device, is given by
(a) For an undisturbed sample, inside
w = 35 – log10(N)
clearance should be between 1 and
3% The liquid limit of soil is (Take log10(2.5)
= 0.4)
(b) For obtaining undisturbed samples,
the sampler should be pushed and (a) 32.6 (b) 33.6
not driven
(c) 34.6 (d) 36.6
(c) For reducing the driving force the
28. Match List–I with List–II and select the
outside clearance should be between
correct answer using the codes given
zero and 2%
below the lists:
(d) For obtaining good quality
List–I (Property of soil)
undisturbed samples, the area ratio
should be 10% or more A. Grain size
23. A wet, cohesive subgrade is most B. Specific gravity
effectively stabilized by the addition of
C. Coefficient of permeability
(a) Cement (b) Fly ash
D. Cohesion
(c) Bitumen (d) Lime
List–II (Laboratory equipment)
24. Geotextiles are usually joined in the field
1. Pycnometer
by
2. Permeameter
(a) Overlapping
3. Vane shear apparatus
(b) Sewing
4. Pipette (c) d = 1.971 gm/ml

5. Sand pouring cylinder e = 0.588
(a) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3 (d) d = 1.80 gm/ml
(b) A–4, B–5, C–2, D–3 e = 0.520
(c) A–5, B–1, C–2, D–4 32. The bond between structural units in the
Illite mineral is
(d) A–1, B–5, C–3, D–2
(a) Covalent Bond
29. Given for a soil sample:
(b) Hydrogen Bond
Degree of saturation = 90%
(c) Water Molecules Bond
Specific gravity of soil grains = 2.70
(d) Potassium Bond
Void ratio = 0.30
33. Which one of the following statements is
The water content of the sample is
correct in case of a soil sample on dry side
(a) 10% (b) 13.5% of optimum moisture content for a given
compactive effort?
(c) 22.5% (d) 35%
(a) Permeability increases with increase
30. Soil samples A and B have void ratios of
in water content
0.5 and 0.7 respectively. If 1.5 m3 of soil
sample A and 1.7 m3 of soil sample B are (b) Permeability does not alter with
mixed to form sample C having a volume change in water content
of 3.2 m3, which one of the following
(c) Permeability decreases with
correctly represents the porosity of sample
increase in water content
C?
(d) Permeability initially decreases and
(a) 0.375 (b) 0.60
then increases with increase in water
(c) 1.66 (d) 2.66 content
31. A sample of clay was coated with paraffin 34. The yield of a retaining wall required to
wax and its mass including the mass of reach plastic equilibrium in ative case is
wax was found to be 650 gm. The sample
(a) more than that in the passive case
was immersed in water and the volume of
the water diplaced was found to be 325 (b) less than that in the passive case
ml. The mass of the sample without wax
(c) equal to that in the passive case
640 gm and water content of the specimen
was 15%, specific gravity of solids was (d) None of the above
2.70 and that of the wax 0.086.The void
35. Water of flowing upward through a
ratio and dry density of sample is
stratum of sand, 4 m thick under a total
(a) d = 1.50 gm/ml head difference of 2 m. The sand has a
specific gravity of 2.65 and void ratio of
e = 0.520
0.065. The factor of safety against quick
(b) d = 1.77 gm/ml sand condition would be:
e = 0.588 (a) 3.0 (b) 1.0
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0 at a depth of 1.2 m, resting on soil having

properties:
36. Which one of the following is correct in
respect of pore water pressure ‘u’ and d = 19 kN/m2, = 26° and C = 15 kN/m2
effective stress ‘s’, in the soil just below
Use Terzaghi’s theory. Bearing capacity
the bottom of a pond due to a 2 m rise in
factor are Nc = 25.5, Nq = 13, N = 10.
water level in the pond?
(a) 868.9 kN/m2 (b) 983.65 kN/m2
(a) u increases by 20 kN/m2 and s
remains unaltered (c) 741.4 kN/m2 (d) 857.5 kN/m2
(b) u increases by 20 kN/m 2 and s 41. Consider the following statements:
decreases by 20 kN/m2
1. In deeper foundations, the most
(c) u decreases by 20 kN/m 2 and s probable mode of shear failure is
remains unaltered punching shear failure.
(d) Both u and s remain unaltered 2. In punching shear failure, heaving
of ground near the foundation takes
37. An infinite slope has granular soil with
place.
sat = 19 kN/m3 and  = 35°. If seepage
occurs at and parallel to the surface of the 3. In local shear failure, there is
slope, find the tan  value (where  = considerable compression of soil
slope angle) for a factor of safety of 1.3 under the footing and only partial
(Take tan 35° = 0.7) development of state of plastic
equilibrium occurs.
(a) 0.46 (b) 0.36
4. Ultimate bearing capacity is not well
(c) 0.26 (d) 0.16
defined in local shear failure and
38. A slope is to be constructed at an angle of punching shear failure
30° to the horizontal from a soil having
Which of these statements are correct?
the properties, C = 15 kN/m2;  = 22.5°,
 = 19 kN/m3. Taylor’s stability number (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
is 0.046. If a factor, of safety (with respect
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
of cohesion) of 1.5 is required, then the
safe height of the slope will be 42. A timber pile is being driven with a drop
hammer weighing 20 kN and having a free
(a) 25.8 m (b) 19.1 m
fall of 1 m. The total penetration of the
(c) 17.2 m (d) 11.5 m pile in the last five blows is 30 mm. What
is the load carrying capacity of the pile
39. The ultimate bearing capacity of a square
using Engineering news formula?
footing of x m size, at a depth of x m, in
pure clay with an unconfined strength of (a) 102.56 kN (b) 83.3 kN
x kg/cm2 is 5.8 kg/cm2. If  = 1.7 g/cm3
(c) 60.6 kN (d) 107.5 kN
then x is:
43. A cast insitu bored pile 0.5 m diameter
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.5
and 10 m deep is placed in a purely
(c) 2.0 (d) 2.5 cohesive soil. If the cohesion of the soil
is 4 t/m2 and adhesion between the pile
40. Determine the ultimate bearing capacity
and the soil is half the value of cohesion,
of a strip footing 2.0 wide, with its base
then the ultimate bearing capacity of the
pile is given by 3. These cracks forms at middle

portion of the simply supported
  beam
(a) 19 tonnes (b) 29 tonnes
4 4
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
 
(c) 39 tonnes (d) 49 tonnes (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
4 4
44. For an anisotropic soil with kx = 4kz, the 48. Match the exposure conditions with
value of the modified coefficient of environmental conditions:
permeability ‘k’ is:
List–I
(a) 2 kx (b) 4 kx
A. Moderate B. Severe
(c) 0.5 kx (d) 0.25 kx
C. Very severe D. Extreme
45. What is the effect of wall friction on
List–II
lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall
(As per Rankine’s theory)? 1. Concrete completely immersed in
sea water.
(a) It reduces both active and passive
earth pressure 2. Concrete member sheltered from
saturated salt air in coastal area.
(b) It reduces the active earth pressure
but increases the passive earth 3. Surface of members in tidal zone.
pressure
4. Concrete surface exposed to sea
(c) It increases both active and passive water spray.
earth pressure
(a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(d) It increases active earth pressure but
(b) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
reduces passive earth pressure
(c) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3
46. Which of the following factors influence
durability of concrete? (d) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4
1. cover to embedded steel 49. A simply suported beam of width 400 mm

and effective depth 600 mm is laterally
2. cement content
restrained at ends. What is the maximum
3. shape and size of member clear distance between lateral supports to
ensure proper lateral stability?
4. grade of steel used as reinforcement
(a) 66.67 m (b) 24 m
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 10 m (d) 26.67 m
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
50. The development length, for Fe415
47. Which of the following statements are
deformed bars in M25 grade concrete in
correct for flexural shear cracks in
compression is ( is the nominal diameter
reinforced concrete beam?
of bar) for M25 concrete bd = 1.4 N/mm2.
1. These craks occur under large shear
(a) 41 (b) 65
force and less bending moment.
(c) 52 (d) 33
2. These cracks occur normally at
about 90° with horizontal. 51. 3 cube samples of concrete tested in
compression testing machine failed at of collapse in shear.

compressive stress of 25 N/mm2, 29 N/
(a) 180 mm
mm 2 and 21 N/mm 2 . What is the
characteristic strength of the concrete? (b) 300 mm
(a) 25 N/mm2 (c) 110 mm
(b) 18.4 N/mm2 (d) No shear reinforcement needed
(c) 31.6 N/mm2 56. The ratio of modulus of elasticity to
modulus of rupture of M30 concrete as
(d) None of the above
per IS 456 : 2000 is:
52. As per IS 456 : 2000, under transient wind
(a) 167 (b) 913
load, the lateral sway at the top of a 80 m
high building should not exceed: (c) 7857 (d) 7143
(a) 80 mm (b) 160 mm 57. If 7 day strength of a concrete sample is
17.5 N/mm2, the concrete grade is likely
(c) 800 mm (d) 400 mm
to be:
53. If the partial safety factor m for steel and
(a) M20 (b) M25
concrete are taken as 1.50 and 2.0
respectively, then the ratio of maximum (c) M30 (d) None of these
depth of neutral axis to effective depth for
58. What is the minimum (internal) turning
Fe 415 will be:
radius ‘r’ for a hook of 10 mm nominal
(a) 0.43 (b) 0.47 diameter plain mild steel bar hook?
(c) 0.68 (d) 0.51 (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
54. The equivalent bending moment in case (c) 40 mm (d) 80 mm
of torsion is given by:
59. What is the lever arm for the section
1 b / D  shown in figure?
(a) M e1  M u  Tu  
 1.7  fck = 25 MPa, fy = 415 MPa. Use limit state
method.
1 D / b 
(b) M e1  M u  Tu  
 1.7 
1 D 
(c) M e1  M u  Tu  
 1.7b 
 1 b 
(d) M e1  M u  Tu  
 1.7D 
55. A reinforced concrete beam 300 mm wide
and 540 mm deep (effective depth) is
subjected to maximum factored shear
force of 100 kN. The concrete is M25
grade, main steel is Fe 415 and stirups are
Fe 250 grade.
Given C = 1.50 N/mm2. Find spacing of
2 legged 8 mm dia stirrups for limit state
(a) 6.7 mm (b) 7.3 mm

(c) 8.6 mm (d) 3.6 mm
63. A triangular beam of base width 200 mm
and effective depth 300 mm is reinforced
with 3 bars of 20 mm diameter. If material
used is M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel,
then limiting depth of neutral axis will be:
(a) 144 mm (b) 159 mm
(c) 135 mm (d) 168 mm
64. A singly reinforced beam of width 300
mm and overall depth 600 mm is
reinforced with 5 bar of 20 mm diameter.
If grade of concrete is M25 and grade of
steel is Fe 415, then total compressive
(a) 319.35 mm (b) 359.35 mm force at collapse state will be (Take
(c) 96.79 mm (d) 40.65 mm effective cover 50 mm)
60. For a given balance cross section of a (a) 567 kN (b) 712 kN
beam. The moment of resistance will be (c) 622 kN (d) 778 kN
(a) more in WSM 65. If the stress block of concrete is assumed
(b) more in LSM as a straight line up to ultimate strain of
0.0035, then depth of balance neutral axis
(c) depend upon grade of concrete and of a beam of effective depth of 500 mm
steel and steel grade Fe 415, will be
(d) same in WSM and LSM (a) 220 mm (b) 230 mm
61. Design code IS 456 : 2000 mentioned (c) 240 mm (d) 250 mm
minimum nominal cover to reinforcement
on the basis of exposure conditions of the 66. Which of the following are considered as
structure. Code also mentioned minimum limit state of serviceability?
nomial cover for different RCC members 1. Unstability due to overturning
separately on the basis of
2. Fire resistance
(a) Durability
3. Leakage
(b) Fire resistance
4. Excessive vibrations
(c) Embedment of steel
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Use of RCC member
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
62. A reinforced concrete beam of cross-
section 200 mm × 300 mm has 5 m span. 67. The tensile strain in the concrete at the
This beam is loaded by a udl of 5 kN/m time of cracking, will be
after 28 days of casting. What will be the (a) 1.4 × 10–4 (b) 1.6 × 10–4
short term deflection if M25 concrete is
used? (c) 1.8 × 10–4 (d) 2 × 10–4
68. For the structure given in figure below: (a) 20 mm (b) 15 mm

What is lumped mass for earthquake (c) 23 mm (d) 12 mm
analysis?
72. The minimum thickness at the edge of
reinforced and plain concrete footing on
soils specified by the IS code is:
(a) 300 mm (b) 450 mm
(c) 100 mm (d) 150 mm
73. The one way shear in case of footing slab
on piles is checked across the full width
of base slab on vertical section located:
(a) 144 kN (b) 100.8 kN (a) From face of column at a distance
(c) 90.8 kN (d) 57.6 kN equal to effective depth of footing
slab
69. The design horizontal seismic coefficient
(b) From face of column at a distance
ZISa equal to half the effective depth of
(Ah) for structure is given by Ah = 2Rg .
footing slab
For structure with time period = 0.1 sec, (c) At the face of the column
(d) Halfway between centre line and
Sa I 1 edge of the column
 2.5,  zone factor (Z) = 0.24.
g R 3
74. Which method is usually adopted for the
The value of Ah will be: production of pre-tensioned members on
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 a large scale?
(c) 0.12 (d) None of these (a) Magnel Blaton system
70. Percentage of imposed load to be (b) Hoyer system

considered in seismic weight calculation (c) P.S.c. Monowire system
when imposed load is less than 3 kN/m2
will be (d) CCL standard system
(a) 25% (b) 50% 75. The percentage loss of pre-stress due to
anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete beam
(c) 100% (d) 75% of length of 30 m which is post-tensioned
71. The minimum horizontal spacing between by a tendon subjected to an initial stress
reinforcing bars in beam for maximum bar of 1200 N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity
dia 20 mm and maximum aggregate size equal to 2.1 × 105 N/mm2, is
18 mm is: (a) 0.0175% (b) 0.178%
(c) 1.75% (d) 17.5%

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PRAGYAN

Time : 1 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 225

(a) (a) (b)

(b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) 30 m (d) 45 m

(c) (d) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

measuring the shear strength of very (c) Heat bonding

4. Pipette (c) d = 1.971 gm/ml

(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0 at a depth of 1.2 m, resting on soil having

pile is given by 3. These cracks forms at middle

1. cover to embedded steel 49. A simply suported beam of width 400 mm

compression testing machine failed at of collapse in shear.

(a) 6.7 mm (b) 7.3 mm

68. For the structure given in figure below: (a) 20 mm (b) 15 mm

(c) 0.12 (d) None of these (a) Magnel Blaton system

70. Percentage of imposed load to be (b) Hoyer system

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