GATE 2016 2018 Question Paper and Answer Key

GATE
CIVIL ENGINEERING
2016-2018
QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-7
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “The driver applied the _______ as soon as she approached the hotel where she wanted to
take a ________.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) brake, break (B) break, break

(C) brake, brake (D) break, brake
Q.2 “It is no surprise that every society has had codes of behaviour; however, the nature of
these codes is often _________.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) unpredictable (B) simple (C) expected (D) strict
Q.3 Hema’s age is 5 years more than twice Hari’s age. Suresh’s age is 13 years less than 10
times Hari’s age. If Suresh is 3 times as old as Hema, how old is Hema?
(A) 14 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19
Q.4 Tower A is 90 m tall and tower B is 140 m tall. They are 100 m apart. A horizontal
skywalk connects the floors at 70 m in both the towers. If a taut rope connects the top of
tower A to the bottom of tower B, at what distance (in meters) from tower A will the rope
intersect the skywalk?
(A) 22.22 (B) 50 (C) 57.87 (D) 77.78
Q.5 The temperature 𝑇 in a room varies as a function of the outside temperature 𝑇0 and the
number of persons in the room 𝑝, according to the relation 𝑇 = Κ (Θ𝑝 + 𝑇0 ), where Θ and
Κ are constants. What would be the value of Θ given the following data?
𝑻𝟎 𝒑 𝑻
25 2 32.4
30 5 42.0
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 10.0
GA 1/3
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 A fruit seller sold a basket of fruits at 12.5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 108 more, he
would have made a 10% gain. What is the loss in Rupees incurred by the fruit seller?
(A) 48 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 108
Q.7 The price of a wire made of a superalloy material is proportional to the square of its length.
The price of 10 m length of the wire is Rs. 1600. What would be the total price (in Rs.) of
two wires of lengths 4 m and 6m?
(A) 768 (B) 832 (C) 1440 (D) 1600
Q.8 Which of the following function(s) is an accurate description of the graph for the range(s)
indicated?
(i) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 4 for −3 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ −1
(ii) 𝑦 = |𝑥 − 1| for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2
(iii) 𝑦 = ||𝑥| − 1| for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2
(iv) 𝑦 = 1 for 2 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only.
(C) (i) and (iv) only.
(D) (ii) and (iv) only.
Q.9 1 1
Consider a sequence of numbers 𝑎1 , 𝑎2 , 𝑎3 , ⋯ , 𝑎𝑛 where 𝑎𝑛 = − , for each integer
𝑛 𝑛+2
𝑛 > 0. What is the sum of the first 50 terms?
1 1 1 1
(A) (1 + 2) − 50 (B) (1 + 2) + 50
1 1 1 1 1
(C) (1 + 2) − ( 51 + 52) (D) 1 − ( 51 + 52)
GA 2/3
Q.10 Each of the letters arranged as below represents a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters are
positioned in the figure such that (A × B × C), (B × G × E) and (D × E × F) are equal.
Which integer among the following choices cannot be represented by the letters A, B, C, D,
E, F or G?
A D
B G E
C F
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 9
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 3/3
GATE 2018 Civil Engineering (Set 1)
Q.1 Which one of the following matrices is singular?

 2 5 3 2 2 4 4 3
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 1 3 2 3 3 6 6 2
Q.2 For the given orthogonal matrix Q,

3/7 2/7 6/7
𝑄 = [−6/7 3/7 2/7 ]
2/7 6/7 −3/7
The inverse is
3/7 2/7 6/7

(A) [ −6/7 3/7 2/7 ]
2/7 6/7 −3/7
−3/7 −2/7 −6/7

(B) [ 6/7 −3/7 −2/7]
−2/7 −6/7 3/7
3/7 −6/7 2/7

(C) [2/7 3/7 6/7 ]
6/7 2/7 −3/7
−3/7 6/7 −2/7

(D) [−2/7 −3/7 −6/7]
−6/7 −2/7 3/7
Q.3 At the point 𝑥 = 0, the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 has

(A) local maximum
(B) local minimum
(C) both local maximum and minimum
(D) neither local maximum nor local minimum
Q.4 A column of height h with a rectangular cross-section of size a×2a has a buckling load of
P. If the cross-section is changed to 0.5a × 3a and its height changed to 1.5h, the buckling
load of the redesigned column will be
(A) P/12 (B) P/4 (C) P/2 (D) 3P/4
CE 1/11
Q.5 A steel column of ISHB 350 @72.4 kg/m is subjected to a factored axial compressive load
of 2000 kN. The load is transferred to a concrete pedestal of grade M20 through a square
base plate. Consider bearing strength of concrete as 0.45fck, where fck is the characteristic
strength of concrete. Using limit state method and neglecting the self weight of base plate
and steel column, the length of a side of the base plate to be provided is
(A) 39 cm (B) 42 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 48 cm
Q.6 The Le Chatelier apparatus is used to determine

(A) compressive strength of cement (B) fineness of cement
(C) setting time of cement (D) soundness of cement
Q.7 The deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is

(A) creep (B) hydration (C) segregation (D) shrinkage
Q.8 A solid circular beam with radius of 0.25 m and length of 2 m is subjected to a twisting
moment of 20 kNm about the z-axis at the free end, which is the only load acting as shown
in the figure. The shear stress component 𝜏𝑥𝑦 at Point ‘M’ in the cross-section of the beam
at a distance of 1 m from the fixed end is
20 kNm
(A) 0.0 MPa (B) 0.51 MPa (C) 0.815 MPa (D) 2.0 MPa
Q.9 Two rectangular under-reinforced concrete beam sections X and Y are similar in all aspects
except that the longitudinal compression reinforcement in section Y is 10% more. Which
one of the following is the correct statement?
(A) Section X has less flexural strength and is less ductile than section Y
(B) Section X has less flexural strength but is more ductile than section Y
(C) Sections X and Y have equal flexural strength but different ductility
(D) Sections X and Y have equal flexural strength and ductility
Q.10 The percent reduction in the bearing capacity of a strip footing resting on sand under
flooding condition (water level at the base of the footing) when compared to the situation
where the water level is at a depth much greater than the width of footing, is approximately
(A) 0 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 100
CE 2/11
Q.11 The width of a square footing and the diameter of a circular footing are equal. If both the
footings are placed on the surface of sandy soil, the ratio of the ultimate bearing capacity of
circular footing to that of square footing will be
(A) 4/3 (B) 1 (C) 3/4 (D) 2/3
Q.12 Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for

(A) viscous and compressible fluid flow
(B) inviscid and compressible fluid flow
(C) inviscid and incompressible fluid flow
(D) viscous and incompressible fluid flow
Q.13 There are 20,000 vehicles operating in a city with an average annual travel of 12,000 km
per vehicle. The NOx emission rate is 2.0 g/km per vehicle. The total annual release of
NOx will be
(A) 4,80,000 kg (B) 4,800 kg (C) 480 kg (D) 48 kg
Q.14 A bitumen sample has been graded as VG30 as per IS : 73-2013. The ‘30’ in the grade
means that
(A) penetration of bitumen at 25C is between 20 and 40

(B) viscosity of bitumen at 60C is between 2400 and 3600 Poise
(C) ductility of bitumen at 27C is more than 30 cm
(D) elastic recovery of bitumen at 15C is more than 30%
Q.15 The speed-density relationship for a road section is shown in the figure.
Speed
Density
The shape of the flow-density relationship is
(A) piecewise linear

(B) parabolic
(C) initially linear then parabolic
(D) initially parabolic then linear
Q.16 A well-designed signalized intersection is one in which the

(A) crossing conflicts are increased
(B) total delay is minimized
(C) cycle time is equal to the sum of red and green times in all phases
(D) cycle time is equal to the sum of red and yellow times in all phases
CE 3/11
Q.17 A flow field is given by 𝑢 = 𝑦 2 , 𝑣 = −𝑥𝑦, 𝑤 = 0. Value of the z-component of the

angular velocity (in radians per unit time, up to two decimal places) at the point (0, −1, 1)
is ______
Q.18 The frequency distribution of the compressive strength of 20 concrete cube specimens is
given in the table.
f (MPa) Number of specimens with

compressive strength equal to f
23 4
28 2
22.5 5
31 5
29 4
If 𝜇 is the mean strength of the specimens and 𝜎 is the standard deviation, the number of
specimens (out of 20) with compressive strength less than 𝜇 − 3𝜎 is ______
Q.19 In a fillet weld, the direct shear stress and bending tensile stress are 50 MPa and 150 MPa,
respectively. As per IS 800: 2007, the equivalent stress (in MPa, up to two decimal places)
will be ______
Q.20 In a shrinkage limit test, the volume and mass of a dry soil pat are found to be 50 cm3 and
88 g, respectively. The specific gravity of the soil solids is 2.71 and the density of water is
1 g/cc. The shrinkage limit (in %, up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.21 A core cutter of 130 mm height has inner and outer diameters of 100 mm and 106 mm,
respectively. The area ratio of the core cutter (in %, up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.22 A 1:50 model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in the prototype
spillway is 1000 m3/s. The corresponding discharge (in m3/s, up to two decimal places) to
be maintained in the model, neglecting variation in acceleration due to gravity, is ______
Q.23 A 10 m wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 20 m3/s under critical condition.
Using g = 9.81 m/s2, the specific energy (in m, up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.24 For routing of flood in a given channel using the Muskingum method, two of the routing
coefficients are estimated as C0   0.25 and C1  0.55. The value of the third coefficient
C2 would be ______
Q.25 A city generates 40×106 kg of municipal solid waste (MSW) per year, out of which only
10% is recovered/recycled and the rest goes to landfill. The landfill has a single lift of 3 m
height and is compacted to a density of 550 kg/m3. If 80% of the landfill is assumed to be
MSW, the landfill area (in m2, up to one decimal place) required would be ______
CE 4/11
Q.26 The value of the integral ∫𝜋 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is

0
(A) π2/8 (B) π2/4 (C) π2/2 (D) π2
Q.27 A cantilever beam of length 2 m with a square section of side length 0.1 m is loaded
vertically at the free end. The vertical displacement at the free end is 5 mm. The beam is
made of steel with Young’s modulus of 2.0×1011 N/m2. The maximum bending stress at the
fixed end of the cantilever is
Q.28 A cylinder of radius 250 mm and weight, W = 10 kN is rolled up an obstacle of height

50 mm by applying a horizontal force P at its centre as shown in the figure.
All interfaces are assumed frictionless. The minimum value of P is
(A) 4.5 kN (B) 5.0 kN (C) 6.0 kN (D) 7.5 kN
Q.29 A plate in equilibrium is subjected to uniform stresses along its edges with magnitude
𝜎𝑥𝑥 = 30 MPa and 𝜎𝑦𝑦 = 50 MPa as shown in the figure.
The Young’s modulus of the material is 2×1011 N/m2 and the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3. If 𝜎𝑧𝑧 is
negligibly small and assumed to be zero, then the strain 𝜀𝑧𝑧 is
(A) -120×10-6 (B) - 60×10-6 (C) 0.0 (D) 120 ×10-6
CE 5/11
Q.30 The figure shows a simply supported beam PQ of uniform flexural rigidity EI carrying two
moments M and 2M.
The slope at P will be

(A) 0 (B) ML/(9EI) (C) ML/(6EI) (D) ML/(3EI)
Q.31 A 0.5 m × 0.5 m square concrete pile is to be driven in a homogeneous clayey soil having
undrained shear strength, cu = 50 kPa and unit weight, γ = 18.0 kN/m3. The design capacity
of the pile is 500 kN. The adhesion factor α is given as 0.75. The length of the pile required
for the above design load with a factor of safety of 2.0 is
(A) 5.2 m (B) 5.8 m (C) 11.8 m (D) 12.5 m
Q.32 A closed tank contains 0.5 m thick layer of mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) at the bottom.
A 2.0 m thick layer of water lies above the mercury layer. A 3.0 m thick layer of oil
(specific gravity = 0.6) lies above the water layer. The space above the oil layer contains
air under pressure. The gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank is 196.2 kN/m2. The
density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The value
of pressure in the air space is
(A) 92.214 kN/m2 (B) 95.644 kN/m2 (C) 98.922 kN/m2 (D) 99.321 kN/m2
Q.33 A rapid sand filter comprising a number of filter beds is required to produce 99 MLD of
potable water. Consider water loss during backwashing as 5%, rate of filtration as 6.0 m/h
and length to width ratio of filter bed as 1.35. The width of each filter bed is to be kept
equal to 5.2 m. One additional filter bed is to be provided to take care of break-down,
repair and maintenance. The total number of filter beds required will be
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22
Q.34 A priority intersection has a single-lane one-way traffic road crossing an undivided two-
lane two-way traffic road. The traffic stream speed on the single-lane road is 20 kmph and
the speed on the two-lane road is 50 kmph. The perception-reaction time is 2.5 s,
coefficient of longitudinal friction is 0.38 and acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. A
clear sight triangle has to be ensured at this intersection. The minimum lengths of the sides
of the sight triangle along the two-lane road and the single-lane road, respectively will be
(A) 50 m and 20 m (B) 61 m and 18 m
(C) 111 m and 15 m (D) 122 m and 36 m
CE 6/11
Q.35 The following details refer to a closed traverse:
Line Consecutive coordinate

Northing (m) Southing (m) Easting (m) Westing (m)
PQ ---- 437 173 ----
QR 101 ---- 558 ----
RS 419 ---- ---- 96
SP ---- 83 ---- 634
The length and direction (whole circle bearing) of closure, respectively are
(A) 1 m and 90°
(B) 2 m and 90°
(C) 1 m and 270°
(D) 2 m and 270°
Q.36 A square area (on the surface of the earth) with side 100 m and uniform height, appears as
1 cm2 on a vertical aerial photograph. The topographic map shows that a contour of 650 m
passes through the area. If focal length of the camera lens is 150 mm, the height from
which the aerial photograph was taken, is
(A) 800 m (B) 1500 m (C) 2150 m (D) 3150 m
Q.37 The solution at 𝑥 = 1, 𝑡 = 1 of the partial differential equation 𝜕2 𝑢 𝜕2 𝑢

= 25 subject to
𝜕𝑥 2 𝜕𝑡 2
𝜕𝑢
initial conditions of 𝑢(0) = 3𝑥 and (0) = 3 is ______
𝜕𝑡
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
Q.38 The solution (up to three decimal places) at 𝑥 = 1 of the differential equation
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+ 2 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 subject to boundary conditions 𝑦(0) = 1 and 𝑑𝑥 (0) = −1 is ______
𝑑𝑥 2
Q.39 Variation of water depth (𝑦) in a gradually varied open channel flow is given by the first
order differential equation
10
𝑑𝑦 1 − 𝑒 − 3 ln(𝑦)
=
𝑑𝑥 250 − 45𝑒 − 3ln(𝑦)
Given initial condition: 𝑦(𝑥 = 0) = 0.8 𝑚. The depth (in m, up to three decimal places) of
flow at a downstream section at x = 1 m from one calculation step of Single Step Euler
Method is ______
Q.40 An RCC short column (with lateral ties) of rectangular cross section of 250 mm × 300 mm
is reinforced with four numbers of 16 mm diameter longitudinal bars. The grades of steel
and concrete are Fe415 and M20, respectively. Neglect eccentricity effect. Considering
limit state of collapse in compression (IS 456 : 2000), the axial load carrying capacity of
the column (in kN, up to one decimal place), is ______
CE 7/11
Q.41 An RCC beam of rectangular cross section has factored shear of 200 kN at its critical
section. Its width b is 250 mm and effective depth d is 350 mm. Assume design shear
strength 𝜏𝑐 of concrete as 0.62 N/mm2 and maximum allowable shear stress 𝜏𝑐,𝑚𝑎𝑥 in
concrete as 2.8 N/mm2. If two legged 10 mm diameter vertical stirrups of Fe250 grade steel
are used, then the required spacing (in cm, up to one decimal place) as per limit state
method will be ______
Q.42 The dimensions of a symmetrical welded I-section are shown in the figure.
140
6.1
200
9
140
(All dimensions are in mm)

The plastic section modulus about the weaker axis (in cm3, up to one decimal place) is
______
CE 8/11
Q.43 Consider the deformable pin-jointed truss with loading, geometry and section properties as
shown in the figure.
Given that E = 2×1011 N/m2, A = 10 mm2, L = 1 m and P = 1 kN. The horizontal

displacement of Joint C (in mm, up to one decimal place) is ______
Q.44 At a construction site, a contractor plans to make an excavation as shown in the figure.
30
Proposed Elevation: +20 m

20
Elevation (in m)
Excavation
10 River
3
Clay, Unit weight, γ = 20 kN/m
0
Highly Pervious Sand

-10
The water level in the adjacent river is at an elevation of +20.0 m. Unit weight of water is
10 kN/m3. The factor of safety (up to two decimal places) against sand boiling for the
proposed excavation is ______
Q.45 A conventional drained triaxial compression test was conducted on a normally consolidated
clay sample under an effective confining pressure of 200 kPa. The deviator stress at failure
was found to be 400 kPa. An identical specimen of the same clay sample is isotropically
consolidated to a confining pressure of 200 kPa and subjected to standard undrained
triaxial compression test. If the deviator stress at failure is 150 kPa, the pore pressure
developed (in kPa, up to one decimal place) is ______
CE 9/11
Q.46 The void ratio of a soil is 0.55 at an effective normal stress of 140 kPa. The compression
index of the soil is 0.25. In order to reduce the void ratio to 0.4, an increase in the
magnitude of effective normal stress (in kPa, up to one decimal place) should be ______
Q.47 A rigid smooth retaining wall of height 7 m with vertical backface retains saturated clay as
backfill. The saturated unit weight and undrained cohesion of the backfill are 17.2 kN/m3
and 20 kPa, respectively. The difference in the active lateral forces on the wall (in kN per
meter length of wall, up to two decimal places), before and after the occurrence of tension
cracks is ______
Q.48 Rainfall depth over a watershed is monitored through six number of well distributed rain
gauges. Gauged data are given below
Rain Gauge Number 1 2 3 4 5 6

Rainfall Depth (mm) 470 465 435 525 480 510
Area of Thiessen Polygon (×104 m2) 95 100 98 80 85 92
The Thiessen mean value (in mm, up to one decimal place) of the rainfall is ______
Q.49 The infiltration rate 𝑓 in a basin under ponding condition is given by 𝑓 = 30 + 10𝑒 −2𝑡 ,
where, 𝑓 is in mm/h and t is time in hour. Total depth of infiltration (in mm, up to one
decimal place) during the last 20 minutes of a storm of 30 minutes duration is ______
Q.50 In a laboratory, a flow experiment is performed over a hydraulic structure. The measured
values of discharge and velocity are 0.05 m3/s and 0.25 m/s, respectively. If the full scale
structure (30 times bigger) is subjected to a discharge of 270 m3/s, then the time scale
(model to full scale) value (up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.51 A water sample analysis data is given below.
Ion Concentration, mg/L Atomic Weight

Ca2+ 60 40
Mg2+ 30 24.31
HCO3- 400 61
The carbonate hardness (expressed as mg/L of CaCO3, up to one decimal place) for the
water sample is ______
CE 10/11
Q.52 The ultimate BOD (𝐿0 ) of a wastewater sample is estimated as 87% of COD. The COD of
this wastewater is 300 mg/L. Considering first order BOD reaction rate constant k (use
natural log) = 0.23 per day and temperature coefficient θ = 1.047, the BOD value (in mg/L,
up to one decimal place) after three days of incubation at 27oC for this wastewater will be
______
Q.53 A waste activated sludge (WAS) is to be blended with green waste (GW). The carbon (C)
and nitrogen (N) contents, per kg of WAS and GW, on dry basis are given in the table.
Parameter WAS GW
Carbon (g) 54 360
Nitrogen (g) 10 6
The ratio of WAS to GW required (up to two decimal places) to achieve a blended C:N
ratio of 20:1 on dry basis is ______
Q.54 Given the following data: design life n = 15 years, lane distribution factor D = 0.75, annual
rate of growth of commercial vehicles r = 6%, vehicle damage factor F = 4 and initial
traffic in the year of completion of construction = 3000 Commercial Vehicles Per Day
(CVPD). As per IRC:37-2012, the design traffic in terms of cumulative number of standard
axles (in million standard axles, up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.55 An aircraft approaches the threshold of a runway strip at a speed of 200 km/h. The pilot
decelerates the aircraft at a rate of 1.697 m/s2 and takes 18 s to exit the runway strip. If the
deceleration after exiting the runway is 1 m/s2, then the distance (in m, up to one decimal
place) of the gate position from the location of exit on the runway is ______
CE 11/11
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA Marks to All 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA B 2
8 MCQ GA B 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 MCQ CE C 1
2 MCQ CE C 1
3 MCQ CE D 1
4 MCQ CE A 1
5 MCQ CE D 1
6 MCQ CE D 1
7 MCQ CE A 1
8 MCQ CE A 1
9 MCQ CE A 1
10 MCQ CE C 1
11 MCQ CE C 1
12 MCQ CE C 1
13 MCQ CE A 1
14 MCQ CE B 1
15 MCQ CE C 1
16 MCQ CE B 1
17 NAT CE 1.50 to 1.50 1
18 NAT CE 0 to 0 1
19 NAT CE 173.10 to 173.30 1
20 NAT CE 19.50 to 20.50 1
21 NAT CE 12.30 to 12.40 1
22 NAT CE 0.05 to 0.06 1
23 NAT CE 1.10 to 1.20 1
24 NAT CE 0.70 to 0.70 1
25 NAT CE 27271 to 27274 1
26 MCQ CE B 2
27 MCQ CE B 2
28 MCQ CE D 2
29 MCQ CE A 2
30 MCQ CE C 2
31 MCQ CE C 2
32 MCQ CE A 2
33 MCQ CE C 2
34 MCQ CE C 2
35 MCQ CE A or C 2
36 MCQ CE C 2
37 MCQ CE D 2
38 NAT CE 0.36 to 0.37 2
39 NAT CE 0.78 to 0.80 2
40 NAT CE 815.0 to 830.0 2
41 NAT CE 7.0 to 9.0 2
42 NAT CE 88.0 to 92.0 2
43 NAT CE 2.60 to 2.80 2
44 NAT CE 1.00 to 1.03 2
45 NAT CE 124 to 126 2
46 NAT CE 416.0 to 420.0 2
47 NAT CE 46.00 to 49.00 2
48 NAT CE 478.5 to 479.5 2
49 NAT CE 11.0 to 12.0 2
50 NAT CE 0.15 to 0.25 2
51 NAT CE 272.0 to 274.0 2
52 NAT CE 154.0 to 161.0 2
53 NAT CE 1.60 to 1.70 2
54 NAT CE 75.00 to 78.00 2
55 NAT CE 311.0 to 319.0 2

Q.1 “His face ___________ with joy when the solution of the puzzle was _______ to him.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) shone, shown (B) shone, shone

(C) shown, shone (D) shown, shown
Q.2 “Although it does contain some pioneering ideas, one would hardly characterize the work
as _________.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) innovative (B) simple (C) dull (D) boring
Q.3 𝑎 + 𝑎 + 𝑎 + ⋯ + 𝑎 = 𝑎2 𝑏 and ⏟
⏟ 𝑏 + 𝑏 + 𝑏 + ⋯ + 𝑏 = 𝑎𝑏 2 , where 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑛 and 𝑚 are
𝑛 times 𝑚 times
natural numbers. What is the value of
(𝑚
⏟ + 𝑚 + 𝑚 + ⋯ + 𝑚) (𝑛
⏟ + 𝑛 + 𝑛 + ⋯ + 𝑛)?
𝑛 times 𝑚 times
(A) 2𝑎2 𝑏 2 (B) 𝑎4 𝑏 4 (C) 𝑎𝑏(𝑎 + 𝑏) (D) 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2
Q.4 A three-member committee has to be formed from a group of 9 people. How many such
distinct committees can be formed?
(A) 27 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 84
Q.5 For non-negative integers, 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, what would be the value of 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 if

log 𝑎 + log 𝑏 + log 𝑐 = 0?
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) −1
Q.6 In manufacturing industries, loss is usually taken to be proportional to the square of the
deviation from a target. If the loss is Rs. 4900 for a deviation of 7 units, what would be the
loss in Rupees for a deviation of 4 units from the target?
(A) 400 (B) 1200 (C) 1600 (D) 2800
GA 1/2
Q.7 A faulty wall clock is known to gain 15 minutes every 24 hours. It is synchronized to the
correct time at 9 AM on 11th July. What will be the correct time to the nearest minute when
the clock shows 2 PM on 15th July of the same year?
(A) 12:45 PM (B) 12:58 PM (C) 1:00 PM (D) 2:00 PM
Q.8 The annual average rainfall in a tropical city is 1000 mm. On a particular rainy day
(24-hour period), the cumulative rainfall experienced by the city is shown in the graph.
Over the 24-hour period, 50% of the rainfall falling on a rooftop, which had an obstruction-
free area of 50 m2, was harvested into a tank. What is the total volume of water collected in
the tank in liters?
(A) 25,000 (B) 18,750 (C) 7,500 (D) 3,125
Q.9 log 𝑃 log 𝑄 log 𝑅

Given that = = = 10 for 𝑥 ≠ 𝑦 ≠ 𝑧, what is the value of the product
𝑦−𝑧 𝑧−𝑥 𝑥−𝑦
𝑃𝑄𝑅?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 𝑥𝑦𝑧 (D) 10𝑥𝑦𝑧
Q.10 Each of the letters in the figure below represents a unique integer from 1 to 9. The letters
are positioned in the figure such that each of (A+B+C), (C+D+E), (E+F+G) and (G+H+K)
is equal to 13. Which integer does E represent?
A B C
D
E F G
H
K
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7
GA 2/2

Q.1 dy
The solution of the equation x + y = 0 passing through the point (1,1) is
dx
(A) x (B) x2 (C) x -1 (D) x -2
Q.2 The graph of a function f(x) is shown in the figure.
3h
2h
f(x)
0 1 2 3
x
For f(x) to be a valid probability density function, the value of h is
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 1 (D) 3
Q.3 A probability distribution with right skew is shown in the figure.
f(x)
The correct statement for the probability distribution is
(A) Mean is equal to mode

(B) Mean is greater than median but less than mode
(C) Mean is greater than median and mode
(D) Mode is greater than median
CE 1/13
Q.4 All the members of the planar truss (see figure), have the same properties in terms of area
of cross-section (A) and modulus of elasticity (E).
For the loads shown on the truss, the statement that correctly represents the nature of forces
in the members of the truss is:
(A) There are 3 members in tension, and 2 members in compression

(B) There are 2 members in tension, 2 members in compression, and 1 zero-force member
(C) There are 2 members in tension, 1 member in compression, and 2 zero-force members
(D) There are 2 members in tension, and 3 zero-force members
Q.5 The setting time of cement is determined using

(A) Le Chatelier apparatus (B) Briquette testing apparatus
(C) Vicat apparatus (D) Casagrande’s apparatus
Q.6 A structural member subjected to compression, has both translation and rotation restrained
at one end, while only translation is restrained at the other end. As per IS 456 : 2000, the
effective length factor recommended for design is
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.65 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.80
Q.7 A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge located at a distance of L/4 from the roller support
Q of a beam of length L (see figure).
10 kN
P Q
3L/4 L/4
The vertical reaction at support Q is
(A) 0.0 kN (B) 2.5 kN (C) 7.5 kN (D) 10.0 kN
Q.8 A flownet below a dam consists of 24 equipotential drops and 7 flow channels. The
difference between the upstream and downstream water levels is 6 m. The length of the
flow line adjacent to the toe of the dam at exit is 1 m. The specific gravity and void ratio of
the soil below the dam are 2.70 and 0.70, respectively. The factor of safety against piping is
(A) 1.67 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.4 (D) 4
CE 2/13
Q.9 The contact pressure and settlement distribution for a footing are shown in the figure.
The figure corresponds to a

(A) rigid footing on granular soil
(B) flexible footing on granular soil
(C) flexible footing on saturated clay
(D) rigid footing on cohesive soil
Q.10 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) When the water content of soil lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil is
said to be in plastic state.
(B) Boussinesq’s theory is used for the analysis of stratified soil.
(C) The inclination of stable slope in cohesive soil can be greater than its angle of internal
friction.
(D) For saturated dense fine sand, after applying overburden correction, if the Standard
Penetration Test value exceeds 15, dilatancy correction is to be applied.
Q.11 The clay mineral, whose structural units are held together by potassium bond is
(A) Halloysite (B) Illite (C) Kaolinite (D) Smectite
Q.12 Dupuit’s assumptions are valid for

(A) artesian aquifer
(B) confined aquifer
(C) leaky aquifer
(D) unconfined aquifer
Q.13 For a given discharge in an open channel, there are two depths which have the same
specific energy. These two depths are known as
(A) alternate depths (B) critical depths
(C) normal depths (D) sequent depths
Q.14 As per IS 10500:2012, for drinking water in the absence of alternate source of water, the
permissible limits for chloride and sulphate, in mg/L, respectively are
(A) 250 and 200 (B) 1000 and 400 (C) 200 and 250 (D) 500 and 1000
CE 3/13
Q.15 In the figures, Group I represents the atmospheric temperature profiles (P, Q, R and S) and
Group II represents dispersion of pollutants from a smoke stack (1, 2, 3 and 4). In the
figures of Group I, the dashed line represents the dry adiabatic lapse rate, whereas the
horizontal axis represents temperature and the vertical axis represents the altitude.
Group I Group II
The correct match is

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
Q.16 Peak Hour Factor (PHF) is used to represent the proportion of peak sub-hourly traffic flow
within the peak hour. If 15-minute sub-hours are considered, the theoretically possible
range of PHF will be
(A) 0 to 1.0 (B) 0.25 to 0.75 (C) 0.25 to 1.0 (D) 0.5 to 1.0
CE 4/13
Q.17 As per IRC:37-2012, in order to control subgrade rutting in flexible pavements, the
parameter to be considered is
(A) horizontal tensile strain at the bottom of bituminous layer
(B) vertical compressive strain on top of subgrade
(C) vertical compressive stress on top of granular layer
(D) vertical deflection at the surface of the pavement
Q.18 The initial concavity in the load-penetration curve of a CBR test is NOT due to
(A) uneven top surface
(B) high impact at start of loading
(C) inclined penetration plunger
(D) soft top layer of soaked soil
Q.19 Probability (up to one decimal place) of consecutively picking 3 red balls without
replacement from a box containing 5 red balls and 1 white ball is ______
Q.20 The quadratic equation 2 x2  3x  3  0 is to be solved numerically starting with an initial

guess as x0  2 . The new estimate of x after the first iteration using Newton-Raphson
method is ______
Q.21 As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum percentage of tension reinforcement (up to two decimal
places) required in reinforced-concrete beams of rectangular cross-section (considering
effective depth in the calculation of area) using Fe500 grade steel is ______
Q.22 A reinforced-concrete slab with effective depth of 80 mm is simply supported at two

opposite ends on 230 mm thick masonry walls. The centre-to-centre distance between the
walls is 3.3 m. As per IS 456 : 2000, the effective span of the slab (in m, up to two decimal
places) is ______
Q.23 A fillet weld is simultaneously subjected to factored normal and shear stresses of 120 MPa
and 50 MPa, respectively. As per IS 800 : 2007, the equivalent stress (in MPa, up to two
decimal places) is ______
Q.24 The intensity of irrigation for the Kharif season is 50% for an irrigation project with
culturable command area of 50,000 hectares. The duty for the Kharif season is 1000
hectare/cumec. Assuming transmission loss of 10%, the required discharge (in cumec, up
to two decimal places) at the head of the canal is ______
Q.25 A culvert is designed for a flood frequency of 100 years and a useful life of 20 years. The
risk involved in the design of the culvert (in percentage, up to two decimal places) is
______
CE 5/13
Q.26  2 4 
The matrix   has
 4 2 
(A) real eigenvalues and eigenvectors
(B) real eigenvalues but complex eigenvectors
(C) complex eigenvalues but real eigenvectors
(D) complex eigenvalues and eigenvectors
Q.27 The Laplace transform F  s  of the exponential function, f  t   eat when t  0 , where a
is a constant and  s  a   0 , is
1
(A)
sa
1
(B)
sa
1
(C)
as
(D) 
Q.28 The rank of the following matrix is
 1 1 0 2 
 
2 0 2 2 
4 1 3 1 
 
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.29 Two rigid bodies of mass 5 kg and 4 kg are at rest on a frictionless surface until acted upon
by a force of 36 N as shown in the figure. The contact force generated between the two
bodies is
36 N 5 kg
4 kg
(A) 4.0 N (B) 7.2 N (C) 9.0 N (D) 16.0 N
CE 6/13
Q.30 Four bolts P, Q, R and S of equal diameter are used for a bracket subjected to a load of 130
kN as shown in the figure.
Centre-line
200 mm
130 kN
240 mm
Q P
R S
100 mm
The force in bolt P is
(A) 32.50 kN (B) 69.32 kN (C) 82.50 kN (D) 119.32 kN
Q.31 A singly-reinforced rectangular concrete beam of width 300 mm and effective depth 400
mm is to be designed using M25 grade concrete and Fe500 grade reinforcing steel. For the
beam to be under-reinforced, the maximum number of 16 mm diameter reinforcing bars
that can be provided is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.32 A 3 m high vertical earth retaining wall retains a dry granular backfill with angle of internal
friction of 30° and unit weight of 20 kN/m3. If the wall is prevented from yielding (no
movement), the total horizontal thrust (in kN per unit length) on the wall is
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 270
CE 7/13
Q.33 Three soil specimens (Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3), each 150 mm long and 100 mm diameter,
are placed in series in a constant head flow set-up as shown in the figure. Suitable screens
are provided at the boundaries of the specimens to keep them intact. The values of
coefficient of permeability of Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3 are 0.01, 0.003 and 0.03 cm/s,
respectively.
560 mm
Soil 1 Soil 2 Soil 3 100 mm
150 mm 150 mm 150 mm
The value of h in the set-up is
(A) 0 mm (B) 40 mm (C) 255 mm (D) 560 mm
Q.34 In a 5 m wide rectangular channel, the velocity u distribution in the vertical direction y is
1
given by u  1.25 y 6 . The distance y is measured from the channel bed. If the flow depth is
2 m, the discharge per unit width of the channel is
(A) 2.40 m3/s/m (B) 2.80 m3/s/m (C) 3.27 m3/s/m (D) 12.02 m3/s/m
Q.35 A car follows a slow moving truck (travelling at a speed of 10 m/s) on a two-lane two-way
highway. The car reduces its speed to 10 m/s and follows the truck maintaining a distance
of 16 m from the truck. On finding a clear gap in the opposing traffic stream, the car
accelerates at an average rate of 4 m/s2, overtakes the truck and returns to its original lane.
When it returns to its original lane, the distance between the car and the truck is 16 m. The
total distance covered by the car during this period (from the time it leaves its lane and
subsequently returns to its lane after overtaking) is
(A) 64 m (B) 72 m (C) 128 m (D) 144 m
Q.36 A level instrument at a height of 1.320 m has been placed at a station having a Reduced
Level (RL) of 112.565 m. The instrument reads 2.835 m on a levelling staff held at the
bottom of a bridge deck. The RL (in m) of the bottom of the bridge deck is
(A) 116.720 (B) 116.080 (C) 114.080 (D) 111.050
Q.37 The value (up to two decimal places) of a line integral


C
F (r )  dr , for F(r )  x 2i  y 2 j
along C which is a straight line joining (0,0) to (1,1) is ______
CE 8/13
Q.38 An 8 m long simply-supported elastic beam of rectangular cross-section (100 mm × 200

mm) is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m over its entire span. The
maximum principal stress (in MPa, up to two decimal places) at a point located at the
extreme compression edge of a cross-section and at 2 m from the support is ______
Q.39 A prismatic beam P-Q-R of flexural rigidity EI  1104 kNm2 is subjected to a moment of
180 kNm at Q as shown in the figure.
180 kNm
P Q R
5m 4m
The rotation at Q (in rad, up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.40 A prismatic propped cantilever beam of span L and plastic moment capacity M p is
Mp
subjected to a concentrated load at its mid-span. If the collapse load of the beam is  ,
L
the value of  is ______
Q.41 A 6 m long simply-supported beam is prestressed as shown in the figure.
Neutral axis 50 mm
Prestressing cable
(straight profile)
The beam carries a uniformly distributed load of 6 kN/m over its entire span. If the
effective flexural rigidity EI = 2×104 kNm2 and the effective prestressing force is 200 kN,
the net increase in length of the prestressing cable (in mm, up to two decimal places) is
______
Q.42 A cable PQ of length 25 m is supported at two ends at the same level as shown in the
figure. The horizontal distance between the supports is 20 m. A point load of 150 kN is
applied at point R which divides it into two equal parts.
20 m
P Q
R
150 kN
Neglecting the self-weight of the cable, the tension (in kN, in integer value) in the cable
due to the applied load will be ______
CE 9/13
Q.43 The compression curve (void ratio, e vs. effective stress, 𝜎v′ ) for a certain clayey soil is a
straight line in a semi-logarithmic plot and it passes through the points (e = 1.2; σvʹ = 50
kPa) and (e = 0.6; σvʹ = 800 kPa). The compression index (up to two decimal places) of the
soil is ______
Q.44 The total horizontal and vertical stresses at a point X in a saturated sandy medium are 170
kPa and 300 kPa, respectively. The static pore-water pressure is 30 kPa. At failure, the
excess pore-water pressure is measured to be 94.50 kPa, and the shear stresses on the
vertical and horizontal planes passing through the point X are zero. Effective cohesion is
0 kPa and effective angle of internal friction is 36. The shear strength (in kPa, up to two
decimal places) at point X is ______
Q.45 A group of nine piles in a 3 × 3 square pattern is embedded in a soil strata comprising
dense sand underlying recently filled clay layer, as shown in the figure. The perimeter of an
individual pile is 126 cm. The size of pile group is 240 cm × 240 cm. The recently filled
clay has undrained shear strength of 15 kPa and unit weight of 16 kN/m3.
Recently
2m
filled clay
5m Dense sand
240 cm
240 cm
The negative frictional load (in kN, up to two decimal places) acting on the pile group is
______
CE 10/13
Q.46 A three-fluid system (immiscible) is connected to a vacuum pump. The specific gravity
values of the fluids (S1, S2) are given in the figure.
To Vacuum Pump
p
1
S1= 0.88
Fluid I
patm 1.5 m
S2= 0.95 patm
1.0 m
Fluid II 0.5 m
Fluid III: Water

Unit weight of water, γw = 9.81 kN/m3
Atmospheric Pressure, patm = 95.43 kPa
The gauge pressure value (in kN/m2, up to two decimal places) of 𝑝1 is ______
Q.47 The total rainfall in a catchment of area 1000 km2, during a 6 h storm, is 19 cm. The
surface runoff due to this storm computed from triangular direct runoff hydrograph is
1×108 m3. The index for this storm (in cm/h, up to one decimal place) is ______
Q.48 A rough pipe of 0.5 m diameter, 300 m length and roughness height of 0.25 mm, carries
water (kinematic viscosity  0.9×106 m2/s) with velocity of 3 m/s. Friction factor (f) for
laminar flow is given by f = 64/Re, and for turbulent flow it is given by
1 r
 2log10    1.74 , where, Re = Reynolds number, r = radius of pipe, k = roughness
f k
height and g  9.81 m/s2. The head loss (in m, up to three decimal places) in the pipe due to
friction is ______
Q.49 A flocculation tank contains 1800 m3 of water, which is mixed using paddles at an average
velocity gradient G of 100/s. The water temperature and the corresponding dynamic
viscosity are 30oC and 0.798×10-3 Ns/m2, respectively. The theoretical power required to
achieve the stated value of G (in kW, up to two decimal places) is ______
Q.50 A coal containing 2% sulfur is burned completely to ash in a brick kiln at a rate of 30
kg/min. The sulfur content in the ash was found to be 6% of the initial amount of sulfur
present in the coal fed to the brick kiln. The molecular weights of S, H and O are 32, 1 and
16 g/mole, respectively. The annual rate of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emission from the kiln (in
tonnes/year, up to two decimal places) is ______
CE 11/13
Q.51 At a small water treatment plant which has 4 filters, the rates of filtration and backwashing
are 200 m3/d/m2 and 1000 m3/d/m2, respectively. Backwashing is done for 15 min per day.
The maturation, which occurs initially as the filter is put back into service after cleaning,
takes 30 min. It is proposed to recover the water being wasted during backwashing and
maturation. The percentage increase in the filtered water produced (up to two decimal
places) would be ______
Q.52 A schematic flow diagram of a completely mixed biological reactor with provision for
recycling of solids is shown in the figure.
Aeration tank
S = 15 mg/L
X = 3000 mg/L Secondary
Detention time = 2 h settling tank
Q = 15000 m3/d Q  Qw = 14950 m3/d

S0 = 100 mg/L S = 15 mg/L
X0 ~ 0 mg/L Xe  0 mg/L
Qr = 5000 m3/d
S = 15 mg/L
Xu = 10000 mg/L Qw = 50 m3/d
S = 15 mg/L
Sludge return Xu =10000 mg/L
S0, S = readily biodegradable soluble BOD, mg/L

Q, Qr, Qw = flow rates, m3/d
X0, X, Xe, Xu = microorganism concentrations (mixed-liquor volatile suspended solids or
MLVSS), mg/L
The mean cell residence time (in days, up to one decimal place) is ______
Q.53 The space mean speed (kmph) and density (vehicles/km) of a traffic stream are linearly
related. The free flow speed and jam density are 80 kmph and 100 vehicles/km
respectively. The traffic flow (in vehicles/h, up to one decimal place) corresponding to a
speed of 40 kmph is ______
Q.54 A 7.5 m wide two-lane road on a plain terrain is to be laid along a horizontal curve of
radius 510 m. For a design speed of 100 kmph, super-elevation is provided as per IRC: 73-
1980. Consider acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2. The level difference between the
inner and outer edges of the road (in m, up to three decimal places) is ______
CE 12/13
Q.55 An aerial photograph of a terrain having an average elevation of 1400 m is taken at a scale
of 1:7500. The focal length of the camera is 15 cm. The altitude of the flight above mean
sea level (in m, up to one decimal place) is ______
CE 13/13
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA D 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA B 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 MCQ CE C 1
2 MCQ CE A 1
3 MCQ CE C 1
4 MCQ CE D 1
5 MCQ CE C 1
6 MCQ CE D 1
7 MCQ CE A 1
8 MCQ CE D 1
9 MCQ CE A 1
10 MCQ CE B 1
11 MCQ CE B 1
12 MCQ CE D 1
13 MCQ CE A 1
14 MCQ CE B 1
15 MCQ CE A 1
16 MCQ CE C 1
17 MCQ CE B 1
18 MCQ CE B 1
19 NAT CE 0.5 to 0.5 1
20 NAT CE 1 to 1 1
21 NAT CE 0.17 to 0.17 1
22 NAT CE 3.15 to 3.15 1
23 NAT CE 147.50 to 148.50 1
24 NAT CE 27.00 to 28.00 1
25 NAT CE 17.50 to 18.50 1
26 MCQ CE D 2
27 MCQ CE B 2
28 MCQ CE B 2
29 MCQ CE D 2
30 MCQ CE B 2
31 MCQ CE C 2
32 MCQ CE C 2
33 MCQ CE B 2
34 MCQ CE A 2
35 MCQ CE B 2
36 MCQ CE A 2
37 NAT CE 0.60 to 0.70 2
38 NAT CE 0.0 to 0.0 2
39 NAT CE 0.01 to 0.01 2
40 NAT CE 6.0 to 6.0 2
41 NAT CE 0.10 to 0.12 2
42 NAT CE 125 to 125 2
43 NAT CE 0.45 to 0.55 2
44 NAT CE 51.50 to 53.50 2
45 NAT CE 472.00 to 472.50 2
46 NAT CE ‐9.0 to ‐8.0 2
47 NAT CE 1.50 to 1.50 2
48 NAT CE 4.50 to 4.70 2
49 NAT CE 14.00 to 15.00 2
50 NAT CE 590.00 to 595.00 2
51 NAT CE 7.75 to 7.95 2
52 NAT CE 7.5 to 7.5 2
53 NAT CE 2000.0 to 2000.0 2
54 NAT CE 0.520 to 0.530 2
55 NAT CE 2520.0 to 2530.0 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th Feb 2017 Session 1

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33




Question Number : 20 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0


















Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ CE-1 C 1
2 MCQ CE-1 B 1
3 MCQ CE-1 B 1
4 MCQ CE-1 A 1
5 MCQ CE-1 A or B 1
6 MCQ CE-1 B 1
7 MCQ CE-1 C 1
8 MCQ CE-1 C 1
9 MCQ CE-1 C 1
10 MCQ CE-1 D 1
11 MCQ CE-1 C 1
12 MCQ CE-1 B 1
13 MCQ CE-1 B 1
14 MCQ CE-1 D 1
15 MCQ CE-1 D 1
16 MCQ CE-1 A 1
17 MCQ CE-1 C 1
18 MCQ CE-1 B 1
19 MCQ CE-1 C 1
20 NAT CE-1 35.9 to 36.1 1
21 NAT CE-1 -1.1 to -0.9 1
22 NAT CE-1 1765 to 1775 1
23 NAT CE-1 0.60 to 0.63 1
24 NAT CE-1 15 to 15 1
25 NAT CE-1 0.1276 to 0.1372 1
26 MCQ CE-1 B 2
27 MCQ CE-1 D 2
28 MCQ CE-1 A 2
29 MCQ CE-1 A 2
30 MCQ CE-1 D 2
31 MCQ CE-1 C 2
32 MCQ CE-1 A 2
33 MCQ CE-1 B 2
34 MCQ CE-1 C 2
35 MCQ CE-1 Mark to all 2
36 MCQ CE-1 A 2
37 NAT CE-1 7.95 to 8.05 2
38 NAT CE-1 4.5 to 5.0 2
39 NAT CE-1 34.9 to 35.1 2
40 NAT CE-1 59.0 to 61.0 2
41 NAT CE-1 199 to 201 2
42 NAT CE-1 7.9 to 8.3 2
43 NAT CE-1 5.9 to 6.1 2
44 NAT CE-1 5.4 to 5.6 2
45 NAT CE-1 51 to 51 2
46 NAT CE-1 385 to 392 2
47 NAT CE-1 34.0 to 34.5 2
48 NAT CE-1 0.80 to 0.83 2
49 NAT CE-1 2.50 to 3.75 2
50 NAT CE-1 25.5 to 27.0 2
51 NAT CE-1 149.0 to 151.0 2
52 NAT CE-1 79 to 81 2
53 NAT CE-1 0.3 to 0.5 2
54 NAT CE-1 20.0 to 22.0 2
55 NAT CE-1 17.9 to 18.1 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA C 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA C 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA B 2
62 MCQ GA B 2
63 MCQ GA B 2
64 MCQ GA A 2
65 MCQ GA C 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Civil Engineering 12th feb 2017 session 2

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100























Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ CE-2 A 1
2 MCQ CE-2 C 1
3 MCQ CE-2 D 1
4 MCQ CE-2 A 1
5 MCQ CE-2 C 1
6 MCQ CE-2 Mark to all 1
7 MCQ CE-2 C 1
8 MCQ CE-2 A 1
9 MCQ CE-2 B 1
10 MCQ CE-2 B 1
11 MCQ CE-2 B 1
12 MCQ CE-2 C 1
13 MCQ CE-2 D 1
14 MCQ CE-2 B 1
15 MCQ CE-2 C 1
16 MCQ CE-2 A or D 1
17 MCQ CE-2 B 1
18 NAT CE-2 209 to 219 1
19 NAT CE-2 133.9 to 134.1 1
20 NAT CE-2 0.5 to 0.5 1
21 NAT CE-2 1.6 to 1.6 1
22 NAT CE-2 199.99 to 200.01 1
23 NAT CE-2 1.9 to 2.1 1
24 NAT CE-2 0.98 to 1.00 1
25 NAT CE-2 1.49 to 1.51 1
26 MCQ CE-2 A 2
27 MCQ CE-2 A 2
28 MCQ CE-2 A 2
29 MCQ CE-2 A 2
30 MCQ CE-2 A 2
31 MCQ CE-2 A 2
32 MCQ CE-2 C 2
33 MCQ CE-2 D 2
34 MCQ CE-2 A 2
35 MCQ CE-2 A 2
36 MCQ CE-2 A 2
37 MCQ CE-2 A 2
38 NAT CE-2 89 to 91 2
39 NAT CE-2 20 to 25 2
40 NAT CE-2 0.14 to 0.16 2
41 NAT CE-2 59 to 61 2
42 NAT CE-2 0.9 to 1.1 2
43 NAT CE-2 Mark to all 2
44 NAT CE-2 187.0 to 192.0 2
45 NAT CE-2 20.70 to 20.76 2
46 NAT CE-2 1.06 to 1.08 2
47 NAT CE-2 286.9 to 287.9 2
48 NAT CE-2 5150 to 5250 2
49 NAT CE-2 65.0 to 69.0 2
50 NAT CE-2 3850 to 3900 2
51 NAT CE-2 0.22 to 0.24 2
52 NAT CE-2 8 to 8 2
53 NAT CE-2 300 to 300 2
54 NAT CE-2 1.9 to 2.1 2
55 NAT CE-2 32.5 to 33.5 2
56 MCQ GA B 1
57 MCQ GA B 1
58 MCQ GA C 1
59 MCQ GA B 1
60 MCQ GA B 1
61 MCQ GA A 2
62 MCQ GA C 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA D 2
65 MCQ GA D 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-5

Q.1 Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and
usage.
(A) I will not leave the place until the minister does not meet me.
(B) I will not leave the place until the minister doesn’t meet me.
(C) I will not leave the place until the minister meet me.
(D) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me.
Q.2 A rewording of something written or spoken is a ______________.
(A) paraphrase (B) paradox (C) paradigm (D) paraffin
Q.3 Archimedes said, “Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum on which to place it, and I will move
the world.”
The sentence above is an example of a ___________ statement.
(A) figurative (B) collateral
(C) literal (D) figurine
Q.4 If ‘relftaga’ means carefree, ‘otaga’ means careful and ‘fertaga’ means careless, which of the
following could mean ‘aftercare’?
(A) zentaga (B) tagafer (C) tagazen (D) relffer
Q.5 A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is removed
from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square units) after the
removal is __________.
(A) 56 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 96
1/3

Q.6 A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive.
Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173 per piece. The
table below shows the numbers of each razor sold in each quarter of a year.
Quarter \ Product Elegance Smooth Soft Executive

Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109
Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the revenue of the company in that year?
(A) Elegance (B) Executive (C) Smooth (D) Soft
Q.7 Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in at least seventeen languages. If this is not
an indication of the nation’s diversity, nothing else is.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?
(A) India is a country of exactly seventeen languages.
(B) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator of a nation’s diversity.
(C) Indian currency notes have sufficient space for all the Indian languages.
(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s diversity.
Q.8 Consider the following statements relating to the level of poker play of four players P, Q, R and S.
I. P always beats Q
II. R always beats S
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to Q
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players

(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the set
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.9 If f(𝑥𝑥) = 2𝑥𝑥 7 + 3𝑥𝑥 − 5, which of the following is a factor of f(x)?

(A) (x3+8) (B) (x-1) (C) (2x-5) (D) (x+1)
2/3
Q.10 In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases exponentially with an increase in load. At a
load of 80 units, it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it takes 10000 cycles for
failure. The load for which the failure will happen in 5000 cycles is ________.
(A) 40.00 (B) 46.02 (C) 60.01 (D) 92.02
3/3
GATE 2016 Civil Engineering Set-1
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each
Q.1 Newton-Raphson method is to be used to find root of equation 3𝑥𝑥 − 𝑒𝑒 𝑥𝑥 + sin 𝑥𝑥 = 0. If the initial
trial value for the root is taken as 0.333, the next approximation for the root would be _________
(note: answer up to three decimal)
Q.2 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑃𝑃 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑃𝑃 𝜕𝜕 2 𝑃𝑃 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

The type of partial differential equation 𝜕𝜕𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝜕𝜕𝑦𝑦 2 + 3 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 + 2 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 − 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 = 0 is
(A) elliptic (B) parabolic (C) hyperbolic (D) none of these
Q.3 If the entries in each column of a square matrix 𝑀𝑀 add up to 1, then an eigenvalue of 𝑀𝑀 is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
Q.4 Type II error in hypothesis testing is

(A) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
(B) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted
(C) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected
(D) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is true and should be accepted
Q.5 ∂u ∂ 2u
The solution of the partial differential equation = α 2 is of the form
∂t ∂x
[
(A) C cos(kt ) C1e
( k α )x
+ C2 e −( )
kα x
]
[
(B) Ce kt C1e
( k α )x
+ C2 e −( )
kα x
]
[
(C) Ce kt C1 cos ( )
k α x + C2 sin( − k α ) x ]
[
(D) C sin (kt ) C1 cos ( )
k α x + C 2 sin( − k α ) x ]
CE(1) 1/14
Q.6 Consider the plane truss with load P as shown in the figure. Let the horizontal and vertical reactions
at the joint B be HB and VB, respectively and VC be the vertical reaction at the joint C.
A G
L
60°
L 60°
E F
P
L
60° 60°
B D C
L L
Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of VB, HB and VC?
(A) VB = 0; HB = 0; VC = P
(B) VB = P/2; HB = 0; VC = P/2
(C) VB = P/2; HB = P (sin 60°); VC = P/2
(D) VB = P; HB = P (cos 60°); VC = 0
Q.7 In shear design of an RC beam, other than the allowable shear strength of concrete (τ c ) , there is
also an additional check suggested in IS 456-2000 with respect to the maximum permissible shear
stress (τ c max ) . The check for τ c max is required to take care of
(A) additional shear resistance from reinforcing steel

(B) additional shear stress that comes from accidental loading
(C) possibility of failure of concrete by diagonal tension
(D) possibility of crushing of concrete by diagonal compression
Q.8 The semi-compact section of a laterally unsupported steel beam has an elastic section modulus,
plastic section modulus and design bending compressive stress of 500 cm3, 650 cm3 and 200 MPa,
respectively. The design flexural capacity (expressed in kNm) of the section is _________
Q.9 Bull's trench kiln is used in the manufacturing of

(A) lime (B) cement (C) bricks (D) none of these
Q.10 The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting and early strength gain of Ordinary
Portland Cement is
(A) C3A (B) C3S (C) C2S (D) C4AF
CE(1) 2/14
Q.11 In the consolidated undrained triaxial test on a saturated soil sample, the pore water pressure is zero
(A) during shearing stage only
(B) at the end of consolidation stage only
(C) both at the end of consolidation and during shearing stages
(D) under none of the above conditions
Q.12 A fine grained soil is found to be plastic in the water content range of 26-48%. As per Indian
Standard Classification System, the soil is classified as
(A) CL (B) CH (C) CL-ML (D) CI
Q.13 A vertical cut is to be made in a soil mass having cohesion c, angle of internal friction ϕ, and unit
weight γ. Considering Ka and Kp as the coefficients of active and passive earth pressures,
respectively, the maximum depth of unsupported excavation is
4c 2c K p 4c K a 4c
(A) (C) (D)
γ Kp (B)
γ γ γ Ka
Q.14 The direct runoff hydrograph in response to 5 cm rainfall excess in a catchment is shown in the
figure. The area of the catchment (expressed in hectares) is________
1.2
0.8
Discharge (m3/s)
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Time (hours)
Q.15 The type of flood routing (Group I) and the equation(s) used for the purpose (Group II) are given
below.
Group I Group II
P Hydrologic flood routing 1. Continuity equation
Q Hydraulic flood routing 2. Momentum equation
3. Energy equation
The correct match is
(A) P - 1; Q - 1, 2 & 3 (B) P - 1; Q - 1 & 2
(C) P - 1 & 2; Q - 1 (D) P - 1 & 2; Q - 1 & 2
Q.16 The pre-jump Froude Number for a particular flow in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The
ratio of sequent depths (i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth) is ________
CE(1) 3/14
Q.17 Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are

(A) NOX, VOCs and sunlight
(B) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
(C) H2S, CO and sunlight
(D) SO2, NH3 and sunlight
Q.18 Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by:

(A) H2S (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) NH3
Q.19 It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m long, for
removing industrial stack gas containing particulates. The expected rate of airflow into the filter is
10 m3/s. If the filtering velocity is 2.0 m/min, the minimum number of bags (rounded to nearest
higher integer) required for continuous cleaning operation is
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 32
Q.20 Match the items in Group – I with those in Group – II and choose the right combination.
Group - I Group - II
P. Activated sludge process 1. Nitrifiers and denitrifiers
Q. Rising of sludge 2. Autotrophic bacteria
R. Conventional nitrification 3. Heterotrophic bacteria
S. Biological nitrogen removal 4. Denitrifiers
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.21 During a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs P, Q, R
and S, using partial and damaged old reports.
Theoretically plausible correct graphs according to the 'Marshall mixture design output' are
(A) P, Q, R (B) P, Q, S (C) Q, R, S (D) R, S, P
Q.22 In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic stream, the observed average headway is 3.0 s. The
flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in this traffic stream is________
CE(1) 4/14
Q.23 The minimum number of satellites needed for a GPS to determine its position precisely is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 24
Q.24 The system that uses the Sun as a source of electromagnetic energy and records the naturally
radiated and reflected energy from the object is called
(A) Geographical Information System
(B) Global Positioning System
(C) Passive Remote Sensing
(D) Active Remote Sensing
Q.25 The staff reading taken on a workshop floor using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff reading
taken to the bottom of a beam is 2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500 m. The reduced
level (expressed in m) of the bottom of the beam is
(A) 44.105 (B) 43.460 (C) 42.815 (D) 41.145
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each
Q.26 Probability density function of a random variable X is given below
0.25 if 1 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 5
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = �
0 otherwise
P(X ≤ 4) is
3 1 1 1
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
Q.27 ∞ 1 ∞ sin 𝑥𝑥
The value of ∫
0 1+𝑥𝑥 2
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 + ∫0 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 is
𝑥𝑥
𝜋𝜋 3𝜋𝜋
(A) (B) π (C) (D) 1
2 2
Q.28 The area of the region bounded by the parabola 𝑦𝑦 = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 1 and the straight line 𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 = 3 is
59 9 10 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 2 3 6
CE(1) 5/14
Q.29 The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are 100 kN, 250 kN and 150 kN, respectively as shown in
the figure.
P
45°
90°
R 60°
x
The respective values of the magnitude (in kN) and the direction (with respect to the x-axis) of the
resultant vector are
(A) 290.9 and 96.0° (B) 368.1 and 94.7° (C) 330.4 and 118.9° (D) 400.1 and 113.5°
Q.30 The respective expressions for complimentary function and particular integral part of the solution
d4y d2y
of the differential equation 4
+ 3 2
= 108 x 2 are
dx dx
[ ]
(A) c1 + c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 3 x − 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
[ ]
(B) c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 5 x − 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
[ ]
(C) c1 + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 3 x − 12 x + c[ 4 2
]
[ ]
(D) c1 + c2 x + c3 sin 3 x + c4 cos 3 x and 5 x − 12 x + c [ 4 2
]
Q.31 A 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform cross section is subjected to a uniformly distributed
load of w = 20 kN/m in the central 1 m as shown in the figure.
w = 20 kN/m
P EI = 30×106 N⋅m2 Q
1m 1m 1m
If the flexural rigidity (EI) of the beam is 30 x 106 N-m2, the maximum slope (expressed in radians)
of the deformed beam is
(A) 0.681 × 10-7 (B) 0.943 × 10-7 (C) 4.310 × 10-7 (D) 5.910 × 10-7
CE(1) 6/14
Q.32 Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which allows
vertical movement) and XZ (with a hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II respectively. The
spans of PQ and XZ are L and 2L respectively. Both the beams are under the action of uniformly
distributed load (W) and have the same flexural stiffness, EI (where, E and I respectively denote
modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia about axis of bending). Let the maximum deflection
and maximum rotation be δmax1 and θmax1, respectively, in the case of beam PQ and the
corresponding quantities for the beam XZ be δmax2 and θmax2, respectively.
P Q
L
Figure I
w w
Hinge
X Y Z
L L
Figure II
Which one of the following relationships is true?
(A) δmax1 ≠ δmax2 and θmax1 ≠ θmax2

(B) δmax1 = δmax2 and θmax1 ≠ θmax2
(C) δmax1 ≠ δmax2 and θmax1 = θmax2
(D) δmax1 = δmax2 and θmax1 = θmax2
Q.33 A plane truss with applied loads is shown in the figure.

20 kN
J 10 kN
K 1m
10 kN H
1m
G L
U V
F M 1m
E N 1m
T S R Q P
2m 2m 2m 2m 2m 2m
The members which do not carry any force are

(A) FT, TG, HU, MP, PL (B) ET, GS, UR, VR, QL
(C) FT, GS, HU, MP, QL (D) MP, PL, HU, FT, UR
CE(1) 7/14
Q.34 A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure. The member is supported at A and B by pinned and
guided roller supports, respectively. A force P acts at C as shown. Let RAh and RBh be the horizontal
reactions at supports A and B, respectively, and RAv be the vertical reaction at support A. Self-
weight of the member may be ignored.
P B
2m
6m
1.5 m 1.5 m
Which one of the following sets gives the correct magnitudes of RAv, RBh and RAh ?
1 2
(A) RAv = 0; RBh = P; and RAh = P
3 3
2 1
(B) RAv = 0; RBh = P; and RAh = P
3 3
3 1.5
(C) RAv = P; RBh = P; and RAh = P
8 8
1.5 1.5
(D) RAv = P ; RBh = P ; and RAh = P
8 8
Q.35 A reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of 250 mm and effective depth of 400 mm is
reinforced with Fe415 steel. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and maximum
amount of tensile reinforcement (expressed in mm2) for the section are, respectively
(A) 250 and 3500 (B) 205 and 4000
(C) 270 and 2000 (D) 300 and 2500
Q.36 For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5, the long-term static modulus of elasticity
(expressed in MPa) as per the provisions of IS:456-2000 is ________
CE(1) 8/14
Q.37 A propped cantilever of span L carries a vertical concentrated load at the mid-span. If the plastic
moment capacity of the section is Mp, the magnitude of the collapse load is
8M p 6M p 4M p 2M p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L L L
Q.38 Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the
figure. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of
steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is done in the workshop (γmw = 1.25).
P
100 mm
150 mm
P
As per the Limit State Method of IS 800: 2007, the minimum length (rounded off to the nearest
higher multiple of 5 mm) of each weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN (factored) is
(A) 90 mm (B) 105 mm (C) 110 mm (D) 115 mm
Q.39 The Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M) and Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the activities
in the critical path are given below in the format O-M-P.
8-10-14 6-8-11 5-7-10 7-12-18

E F G H I
The expected completion time (in days) of the project is _________
Q.40 The porosity (n) and the degree of saturation (S) of a soil sample are 0.7 and 40%, respectively. In a
100 m3 volume of the soil, the volume (expressed in m3) of air is _________
CE(1) 9/14
Q.41 A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting a cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure.
The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom of the wall is 40 kPa.
Cohesionless
Gravity
backfill
Retaining
6m
Wall
4m
The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in kN per m length) required to prevent it from
overturning about its toe (Point P) is
(A) 120 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360
Q.42 An undisturbed soil sample was taken from the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as
shown in figure. The water table was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test results are as follows:
Natural water content of clay : 25%

Preconsolidation pressure of clay : 60 kPa
Compression index of clay : 0.50
Recompression index of clay : 0.05
Specific gravity of clay : 2.70
Bulk unit weight of sand : 17 kN/m3
A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight of 20 kN/m3 is placed at the ground level.
GL
1m
Sand
GWT
1m
Clay
Hard stratum
Assuming unit weight of water as10 kN/m3, the ultimate consolidation settlement (expressed in
mm) of the clay layer is ____________
CE(1) 10/14
Q.43 A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure. The saturated unit weight of the soil γsat = 18
kN/m3. Using unit weight of water, γw = 9.81 kN/m3, the effective vertical stress (expressed in
kN/m2) on plane X-X is ________
3m
1m
5m
Soil
γsat = 18 kN/m3
X X
1m
2m
Q.44 A drained triaxial compression test on a saturated clay yielded the effective shear strength
parameters as c' = 15 kPa and ϕ' = 22o. Consolidated Undrained triaxial test on an identical sample
of this clay at a cell pressure of 200 kPa developed a pore water pressure of 150 kPa at failure. The
deviator stress (expressed in kPa) at failure is _________
CE(1) 11/14
Q.45 A concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure. Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3
and unit weight of concrete as 24 kN/m3, the uplift force per unit length of the dam (expressed in
kN/m) at PQ is _________
65 m
Drain
holes
5m
P Q
40 m
10 m
Q.46 Seepage is occurring through a porous media shown in the figure. The hydraulic conductivity
values (k1, k2, k3) are in m/day.
Impervious
15 m 10 m
P
3m k1 = 2 k2 = 3 k3 = 1 3m
Q
20 m 10 m 20 m 10 m
The seepage discharge (m3/day per m) through the porous media at section PQ is
7 1 9 3
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 16 (D) 4
Q.47 A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed slope of 0.001 carries a discharge of 16 m3/s.
Considering Manning's roughness coefficient = 0.012 and g = 10 m/s2, the category of the channel
slope is
(A) horizontal (B) mild (C) critical (D) steep
CE(1) 12/14
Q.48 A sector gate is provided on a spillway as shown in the figure. Assuming g = 10 m/s2, the resultant
force per meter length (expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be __________
Sector gate 5m
30°
30°
Spillway
Q.49 A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section has a uniform flow depth of 2 m. The bed
width (expressed in m) of the channel is __________
Q.50 Effluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of 4.2. The effluent from another industry 'B' has double the
hydroxyl (OH-) ion concentration than the effluent from industry 'A'. pH of effluent from the
industry 'B' will be __________
Q.51 An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600 m2 of collector plate area is 96 percent efficient in
treating 185 m3/s of flue gas from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It was found that in order to
achieve 97 percent efficiency, the collector plate area should be 6100 m2. In order to increase the
efficiency to 99 percent, the ESP collector plate area (expressed in m2) would be ______
Q.52 The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage sample are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L, respectively.
The value of BOD rate constant (expressed in per day) is _________
Q.53 A two lane, one-way road with radius of 50 m is predominantly carrying lorries with wheelbase of
5 m. The speed of lorries is restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph. The mechanical
widening and psychological widening required at 60 kmph are designated as 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,60 and 𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,60 ,
respectively. The mechanical widening and psychological widening required at 80 kmph are
designated as 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,80 and 𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,80 , respectively. The correct values of 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,60 , 𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 ,60 , 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ,80 ,
𝑤𝑤𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,80 , respectively are
(A) 0.89 m, 0.50 m, 1.19 m, and 0.50 m (B) 0.50 m, 0.89 m, 0.50 m, and 1.19 m
(C) 0.50 m, 1.19 m, 0.50 m, and 0.89 m (D) 1.19 m, 0.50 m, 0.89 m, and 0.50 m
CE(1) 13/14
Q.54 While traveling along and against the traffic stream, a moving observer measured the relative flows
as 50 vehicles/hr and 200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average speeds of the moving observer
while traveling along and against the stream are 20 km/hr and 30 km/hr, respectively. The density
of the traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is _________
Q.55 The vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower T at two instrument stations set up at P and Q,
are shown in the figure. The two stations are in line with the tower and spaced at a distance of 60
m. Readings taken from these two stations on a leveling staff placed at the benchmark (BM =
450.000 m) are also shown in the figure. The reduced level of the top of the tower T (expressed in
m) is _________
T
16.5o
2.555
0.555 10.5o
Q
BM 450.000 P
60 m
CE(1) 14/14
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA D 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA A 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA D 1
6 MCQ GA B 2
7 MCQ GA D 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA B 2
1 NAT CE-1 0.355 : 0.365 1
2 MCQ CE-1 C 1
3 MCQ CE-1 D 1
4 MCQ CE-1 A 1
5 MCQ CE-1 B 1
6 MCQ CE-1 A 1
7 MCQ CE-1 D 1
8 NAT CE-1 99.9 : 100.1 1
9 MCQ CE-1 C 1
10 MCQ CE-1 B 1
11 MCQ CE-1 B 1
12 MCQ CE-1 D 1
13 MCQ CE-1 D 1
14 NAT CE-1 21.5 : 21.7 1
15 MCQ CE-1 B 1
16 NAT CE-1 13.6 : 13.7 1
17 MCQ CE-1 A 1
18 MCQ CE-1 A 1
19 MCQ CE-1 B 1
20 MCQ CE-1 A 1
21 MCQ CE-1 B 1
22 NAT CE-1 1199 : 1201 1
23 MCQ CE-1 C 1
24 MCQ CE-1 C 1
25 MCQ CE-1 A 1
26 MCQ CE-1 A 2
27 MCQ CE-1 B 2
28 MCQ CE-1 B 2
29 MCQ CE-1 C 2
30 MCQ CE-1 A 2
31 MCQ CE-1 C 2
32 MCQ CE-1 D 2
33 MCQ CE-1 A 2
34 MCQ CE-1 D 2
35 MCQ CE-1 B 2
36 NAT CE-1 9999 : 10001 2
37 MCQ CE-1 B 2
38 MCQ CE-1 B 2
39 NAT CE-1 37 : 38 2
40 NAT CE-1 41 : 43 2
41 MCQ CE-1 A 2
42 NAT CE-1 36 : 38 2
43 NAT CE-1 65.3 : 65.6 2
44 NAT CE-1 100 : 110 2
45 NAT CE-1 10490 : 10510 2
46 MCQ CE-1 B 2
47 MCQ CE-1 B 2
48 NAT CE-1 126 : 128 2
49 NAT CE-1 2.29 : 2.32 2
50 NAT CE-1 4.4 : 4.6 2
51 NAT CE-1 8000 : 8020 2
52 NAT CE-1 0.29 : 0.31 2
53 MCQ CE-1 B 2
54 NAT CE-1 2.9 : 3.1 2
55 NAT CE-1 476.500 : 477.500 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-7

Q.1 If I were you, I __________ that laptop. It’s much too expensive.
(A) won’t buy (B) shan’t buy
(C) wouldn’t buy (D) would buy
Q.2 He turned a deaf ear to my request.
What does the underlined phrasal verb mean?
(A) ignored (B) appreciated (C) twisted (D) returned
Q.3 Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
_________ ___________ is a will, _________ is a way.
(A) Wear, there, their (B) Were, their, there
(C) Where, there, there (D) Where, their, their
Q.4 (x % of y) + (y % of x) is equivalent to .
(A) 2 % of xy (B) 2 % of (xy/100) (C) xy % of 100 (D) 100 % of xy
Q.5 The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits
is greater than the original number by 54, find the original number.
(A) 39 (B) 57 (C) 66 (D) 93
1/3
Q.6 Two finance companies, P and Q, declared fixed annual rates of interest on the amounts invested
with them. The rates of interest offered by these companies may differ from year to year. Year-wise
annual rates of interest offered by these companies are shown by the line graph provided below.
P Q
10
9.5
9 9
8 8 8 8
7.5
7
6.5 6.5
6
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
If the amounts invested in the companies, P and Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8:9, then the amounts
received after one year as interests from companies P and Q would be in the ratio:
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3
Q.7 Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler because of the copious evidence he left behind in the
form of stone carved edicts. Historians tend to correlate greatness of a king at his time with the
availability of evidence today.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Emperors who do not leave significant sculpted evidence are completely forgotten.
(B) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts to ensure that later historians will respect him.
(C) Statues of kings are a reminder of their greatness.
(D) A king’s greatness, as we know him today, is interpreted by historians.
2/3
Q.8 Fact 1: Humans are mammals.

Fact 2: Some humans are engineers.
Fact 3: Engineers build houses.
If the above statements are facts, which of the following can be logically inferred?
I. All mammals build houses.

II. Engineers are mammals.
III. Some humans are not engineers.
(A) II only. (B) III only.
(C) I, II and III. (D) I only.
Q.9 A square pyramid has a base perimeter x, and the slant height is half of the perimeter. What is the
lateral surface area of the pyramid?
2 2 2 2
(A) x (B) 0.75 x (C) 0.50 x (D) 0.25 x
Q.10 Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4 hours to read a book. Both started reading copies of the
book at the same time. After how many hours is the number of pages to be read by Ananth, twice
that to be read by Bharath? Assume Ananth and Bharath read all the pages with constant pace.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3/3
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each
Q.1 The spot speeds (expressed in km/hr) observed at a road section are 66, 62, 45, 79, 32, 51, 56, 60,
53, and 49. The median speed (expressed in km/hr) is _________
(Note: answer with one decimal accuracy)
Q.2 The optimum value of the function f(x) = x2 – 4x +2 is

(A) 2 (maximum) (B) 2 (minimum) (C) −2 (maximum) (D) −2 (minimum)
Q.3 The Fourier series of the function,
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 0, −𝜋𝜋 < 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 0

= 𝜋𝜋 − 𝑥𝑥, 0 < 𝑥𝑥 < 𝜋𝜋
in the interval [−𝜋𝜋, 𝜋𝜋] is
𝜋𝜋 2 cos 𝑥𝑥 cos 3𝑥𝑥 sin 𝑥𝑥 sin 2𝑥𝑥 sin 3𝑥𝑥

𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = + � + + ………� + � + + + … … . �.
4 𝜋𝜋 12 32 1 2 3
The convergence of the above Fourier series at 𝑥𝑥 = 0 gives
∞
1 π2 ∞
(−1) n +1 π 2
(A) ∑ 2
= (B) ∑ n2
=
12
n =1 n 6 n =1
∞
1 π2 ∞
(−1) n +1 π
(C) ∑
n =1 ( 2n − 1)
= (D) ∑ =
−
2
8 n =1 2 n 1 4
Q.4 X and Y are two random independent events. It is known that P( X ) = 0.40 and
(
P X ∪Y C
) = 0.7. Which one of the following is the value of P( X ∪ Y ) ?
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.3
Q.5 xy
What is the value of lim ?
x →0
y →0
x + y2
2
(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) Limit does not exist
Q.6 The kinematic indeterminacy of the plane truss shown in the figure is
(A) 11 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 0
CE(2) 1/15
Q.7 As per IS 456-2000 for the design of reinforced concrete beam, the maximum allowable shear
stress (τ c max ) depends on the
(A) grade of concrete and grade of steel

(B) grade of concrete only
(C) grade of steel only
(D) grade of concrete and percentage of reinforcement
Q.8 An assembly made of a rigid arm A-B-C hinged at end A and supported by an elastic rope C-D at
end C is shown in the figure. The members may be assumed to be weightless and the lengths of the
respective members are as shown in the figure.
A D
L P L
Rigid arm Rope
B C
L L
Under the action of a concentrated load P at C as shown, the magnitude of tension developed in the
rope is
3P P 3P (D) 2P
(A) (B) (C)
2 2 8
Q.9 As per Indian standards for bricks, minimum acceptable compressive strength of any class of burnt
clay bricks in dry state is
CE(2) 2/15
Q.10 A construction project consists of twelve activities. The estimated duration (in days) required to
complete each of the activities along with the corresponding network diagram is shown below.
Activity Duration (days) Activity Duration (days)

A Inauguration 1 G Flooring 25
B Foundation work 7 H Electrification 7
C Structural construction-1 30 I Plumbing 7
D Structural construction-2 30 J Wood work 7
E Brick masonry work 25 K Coloring 3
F Plastering 7 L Handing over function 1
E F
4 6 8
C J
A B K L
1 2 3 10 11 12
D I
G H
5 7 9
Total floats (in days) for the activities 5-7 and 11-12 for the project are, respectively,
(A) 25 and 1
(B) 1 and 1
(C) 0 and 0
(D) 81 and 0
Q.11 A strip footing is resting on the surface of a purely clayey soil deposit. If the width of the footing is
doubled, the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil
(A) becomes double (B) becomes half (C) becomes four-times (D) remains the same
Q.12 The relationship between the specific gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic gradient (i) to initiate
quick condition in the sand layer having porosity of 30% is
(A) G = 0.7i + 1 (B) G = 1.43i − 1
(C) G = 1.43i + 1 (D) G = 0.7i − 1
Q.13 The results of a consolidation test on an undisturbed soil, sampled at a depth of 10 m below the
ground level are as follows:
Saturated unit weight : 16 kN/m3

Pre-consolidation pressure : 90 kPa
The water table was encountered at the ground level. Assuming the unit weight of water as 10
kN/m3, the over-consolidation ratio of the soil is
(A) 0.67 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.77 (D) 2.00
CE(2) 3/15
Q.14 Profile of a weir on permeable foundation is shown in figure I and an elementary profile of
'upstream pile only case' according to Khosla's theory is shown in figure II. The uplift pressure
heads at key points Q, R and S are 3.14 m, 2.75 m and 0 m, respectively (refer figure II).
1m Gate
3m Weir
Floor
P
5m
10 m 5m 25 m
Figure I
4m
R S
5m
40 m
Q
Figure II
What is the uplift pressure head at point P downstream of the weir (junction of floor and pile as
shown in the figure I)?
(A) 2.75 m (B) 1.25 m (C) 0.8 m (D) Data not sufficient
Q.15 Water table of an aquifer drops by 100 cm over an area of 1000 km2. The porosity and specific
retention of the aquifer material are 25% and 5%, respectively. The amount of water (expressed in
km3) drained out from the area is _________
CE(2) 4/15
Q.16 Group I contains the types of fluids while Group II contains the shear stress - rate of shear
relationship of different types of fluids, as shown in the figure.
Group I Group II 5
P. Newtonian fluid 1. Curve 1
Shear stress
Q. Pseudo plastic fluid 2. Curve 2
R. Plastic fluid 3. Curve 3 4
S. Dilatant fluid 4. Curve 4 2
5. Curve 5
3
Yield stress
1
The correct match between Group I and Group II is
Rate of shear
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
Q.17 The atmospheric layer closest to the earth surface is

(A) the mesosphere (B) the stratosphere
(C) the thermosphere (D) the troposphere
Q.18 A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling column analysis
indicates that an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory removal for a depth of 3.1 m.
It is decided to have two circular settling tanks in parallel. The required diameter (expressed in m)
of the settling tanks is __________
Q.19 The hardness of a ground water sample was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3. A softener containing
ion exchange resins was installed to reduce the total hardness to 75 mg/L as CaCO3 before
supplying to 4 households. Each household gets treated water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the
efficiency of the softener is 100%, the bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is _________
Q.20 The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of the faintest sound that a normal healthy individual can
hear is
(A) 0.2 (B) 2 (C) 20 (D) 55
Q.21 In the context of the IRC 58-2011 guidelines for rigid pavement design, consider the following pair
of statements.
I: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to modulus of elasticity of concrete and inversely
related to Poisson's ratio
II: Radius of relative stiffness is directly related to thickness of slab and modulus of subgrade
reaction.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?

(A) I: True; II: True (B) I: False; II: False
(C) I: True; II: False (D) I: False; II: True
Q.22 If the total number of commercial vehicles per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the minimum
percentage of commercial traffic to be surveyed for axle load is
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30
CE(2) 5/15
Q.23 Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering
(A) only side-lap
(B) only end-lap
(C) either side-lap or end-lap
(D) both side-lap as well as end-lap
Q.24 The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line is N30°E. The departure of the line is
(A) 10.00 m (B) 8.66 m (C) 7.52 m (D) 5.00 m
Q.25 A circular curve of radius R connects two straights with a deflection angle of 60°. The tangent
length is
(A) 0.577 R (B) 1.155 R (C) 1.732 R (D) 3.464 R
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each
Q.26 Consider the following linear system.
𝑥𝑥 + 2𝑦𝑦 − 3𝑧𝑧 = 𝑎𝑎
2𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑦𝑦 + 3𝑧𝑧 = 𝑏𝑏
5𝑥𝑥 + 9𝑦𝑦 − 6𝑧𝑧 = 𝑐𝑐
This system is consistent if 𝑎𝑎, 𝑏𝑏 and 𝑐𝑐 satisfy the equation
(A) 7𝑎𝑎 − 𝑏𝑏 − 𝑐𝑐 = 0 (B) 3𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 − 𝑐𝑐 = 0 (C) 3𝑎𝑎 − 𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0 (D) 7𝑎𝑎 − 𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0
Q.27 If 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are two probability density functions,

𝑥𝑥
⎧ +1 ∶ −𝑎𝑎 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 < 0
⎪ 𝑎𝑎
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥
⎨ − 𝑎𝑎 + 1 ∶ 0 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 𝑎𝑎
⎪
⎩ 0 ∶ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑥𝑥
⎧− ∶ −𝑎𝑎 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 < 0
⎪ 𝑎𝑎
𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥
⎨ 𝑎𝑎 ∶ 0 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 ≤ 𝑎𝑎
⎪
⎩ 0 ∶ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same
(B) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different
(C) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are same
(D) Mean of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different; Variance of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) and 𝑔𝑔(𝑥𝑥) are different
Q.28 The angle of intersection of the curves 𝑥𝑥 2 = 4𝑦𝑦 and 𝑦𝑦 2 = 4𝑥𝑥 at point (0, 0) is
(A) 0o (B) 30o (C) 45o (D) 90o
CE(2) 6/15
Q.29 The area between the parabola 𝑥𝑥 2 = 8𝑦𝑦 and the straight line y = 8 is _________.
Q.30 The quadratic approximation of 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝑥𝑥 3 − 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 5 at the point 𝑥𝑥 = 0 is

(A) 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 6𝑥𝑥 − 5 (B) −3𝑥𝑥 2 − 5
(C) −3𝑥𝑥 2 + 6𝑥𝑥 − 5 (D) 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 5
Q.31 An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For no change in
the volume to occur, what should be its Poisson's ratio?
σy
σx
σz
(A) 0.00 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 1.00
Q.32 For the stress state (in MPa) shown in the figure, the major principal stress is 10 MPa.
5
5 5
τ
5
The shear stress τ is

CE(2) 7/15
Q.33 The portal frame shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical load w (per unit
length).
w
Q R
L/2
P S
The bending moment in the beam at the joint ‘Q’ is

wL2
(A) zero (B) (hogging)
24
wL2 wL2
(C) (hogging) (D) (sagging)
12 8
Q.34 Consider the structural system shown in the figure under the action of weight W. All the joints are
hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of elasticity
(E) are also given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30 × 106 N/m2, respectively, and
W be 100 kN.
90°
P L
A, E A, E
Q 45° 2A, E 45° R

45° 45°
A, E A, E
S
90°
Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of the force, stress and change in length of
the horizontal member QR?
(A) Compressive force = 25 kN; Stress = 250 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0118 m
(B) Compressive force = 14.14 kN; Stress = 141.4 kN/m2; Extension = 0.0118 m
(C) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress = 1000 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0417 m
(D) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress = 1000 kN/m2; Extension = 0.0417 m
CE(2) 8/15
Q.35 A haunched (varying depth) reinforced concrete beam is simply supported at both ends, as shown in
the figure. The beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed factored load of intensity 10 kN/m.
The design shear force (expressed in kN) at the section X-X of the beam is ______
X
5m
10 kN/m
400 mm
600 mm
X
effective span = 20 m
Q.36 A 450 mm long plain concrete prism is subjected to the concentrated vertical loads as shown in the
figure. Cross section of the prism is given as 150 mm × 150 mm. Considering linear stress
distribution across the cross-section, the modulus of rupture (expressed in MPa) is ________
11.25 kN 11.25 kN
P S
Q R
150 mm 150 mm 150 mm
Q.37 Two bolted plates under tension with alternative arrangement of bolt holes are shown in figures 1
and 2. The hole diameter, pitch, and gauge length are d, p and g, respectively.
P d P P g P
p
Figure 1 Figure 2
Which one of the following conditions must be ensured to have higher net tensile capacity of
configuration shown in Figure 2 than that shown in Figure 1 ?
(A) p > 2 gd (B) p < 4 gd (C) p > 4 gd (D) p > 4 gd
2 2 2
CE(2) 9/15
Q.38 A fixed-end beam is subjected to a concentrated load (P ) as shown in the figure. The beam has
( )
two different segments having different plastic moment capacities M p ,2 M p as shown.
2L/3
2M P MP
L
L
The minimum value of load (P ) at which the beam would collapse (ultimate load) is
(A) 7.5M P L (B) 5.0 M P L (C) 4.5M P L (D) 2.5M P L
Q.39 The activity-on-arrow network of activities for a construction project is shown in the figure. The
durations (expressed in days) of the activities are mentioned below the arrows.
Q T W
30 70
3 5 3
X
80 90
2
P R U
10 20 40 50
2 4 3
S V
60
3 2
The critical duration for this construction project is

(A) 13 days (B) 14 days (C) 15 days (D) 16 days
Q.40 The seepage occurring through an earthen dam is represented by a flownet comprising of 10
equipotential drops and 20 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is 3 mm/min
and the head loss is 5 m. The rate of seepage (expressed in cm3/s per m length of the dam) through
the earthen dam is _________
CE(2) 10/15
Q.41 The soil profile at a site consists of a 5 m thick sand layer underlain by a c-φ soil as shown in
figure. The water table is found 1 m below the ground level. The entire soil mass is retained by a
concrete retaining wall and is in the active state. The back of the wall is smooth and vertical. The
total active earth pressure (expressed in kN/m2) at point A as per Rankine's theory is _________
1m γbulk = 16.5 kN/m3

Sand
4m γsat = 19 kN/m3, γw = 9.81 kN/m3,
φ ' = 32°
3m c-φ soil
γsat = 18.5 kN/m3, γw = 9.81 kN/m3
A c' = 25 kN/m2, φ ' = 24°
Q.42 OMC-SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum moisture content and maximum dry density obtained
from standard Proctor compaction test, respectively. OMC-MP and MDD-MP denote the optimum
moisture content and maximum dry density obtained from the modified Proctor compaction test,
respectively. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP
(B) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDD-MP
(C) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP
(D) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDD-MP
CE(2) 11/15
Q.43 Water flows from P to Q through two soil samples, Soil 1 and Soil 2, having cross sectional area of
80 cm2 as shown in the figure. Over a period of 15 minutes, 200 ml of water was observed to pass
through any cross section. The flow conditions can be assumed to be steady state. If the coefficient
of permeability of Soil 1 is 0.02 mm/s, the coefficient of permeability of Soil 2 (expressed in
mm/s) would be ________
600 mm
300 mm Q
P Soil 1 Soil 2
150 mm 150 mm
CE(2) 12/15
Q.44 A 4 m wide strip footing is founded at a depth of 1.5 m below the ground surface in a c-φ soil as
shown in the figure. The water table is at a depth of 5.5 m below ground surface. The soil properties
are: c' = 35 kN/m2, φ' = 28.63°, γsat = 19 kN/m3, γbulk = 17 kN/m3 and γw = 9.81 kN/m3. The values
of bearing capacity factors for different φ' are given below.
φ' Nc Nq Nγ
15° 12.9 4.4 2.5
20° 17.7 7.4 5.0
25° 25.1 12.7 9.7
30° 37.2 22.5 19.7
.
1.5 m
5.5 m 4m
Using Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation and a factor of safety Fs = 2.5, the net safe bearing
capacity (expressed in kN/m2) for local shear failure of the soil is __________
Q.45 A square plate is suspended vertically from one of its edges using a hinge support as shown in
figure. A water jet of 20 mm diameter having a velocity of 10 m/s strikes the plate at its mid-point,
at an angle of 30° with the vertical. Consider g as 9.81 m/s2 and neglect the self-weight of the plate.
The force F (expressed in N) required to keep the plate in its vertical position is _________
Water jet
300 Plate
20 mm
200 mm
Q.46 The ordinates of a one-hour unit hydrograph at sixty minute interval are 0, 3, 12, 8, 6, 3 and 0 m3/s.
A two-hour storm of 4 cm excess rainfall occurred in the basin from 10 AM. Considering constant
base flow of 20 m3/s, the flow of the river (expressed in m3/s) at 1 PM is _________
CE(2) 13/15
Q.47 A 3 m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 6 m3/s. The depth of flow at a section P is 0.5 m.
A flat-topped hump is to be placed at the downstream of the section P. Assume negligible energy
loss between section P and hump, and consider 𝑔𝑔 as 9.81 m/s 2 . The maximum height of the hump
(expressed in m) which will not change the depth of flow at section P is _________
Q.48 A penstock of 1 m diameter and 5 km length is used to supply water from a reservoir to an impulse
turbine. A nozzle of 15 cm diameter is fixed at the end of the penstock. The elevation difference
between the turbine and water level in the reservoir is 500 m. Consider the head loss due to friction
as 5% of the velocity head available at the jet. Assume unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3 and
acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s2. If the overall efficiency is 80%, power generated
(expressed in kW and rounded to nearest integer) is _______________
Q.49 A tracer takes 100 days to travel from Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart. The elevation of
water surface in Well-2 is 3 m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity equal to 15%, the
coefficient of permeability (expressed in m/day) is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.45 (C) 1.00 (D) 5.00
Q.50 A sample of water has been analyzed for common ions and results are presented in the form of a
bar diagram as shown.
meq/L 0 2.65 4.10 6.35 6.85
Ca2+ Mg2+ Na+ K+
HCO3− SO42− Cl−
meq/L 0 3.30 3.90 6.75
The non-carbonate hardness (expressed in mg/L as CaCO3) of the sample is
(A) 40 (B) 165 (C) 195 (D) 205
Q.51 A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m from a point source recorded 74 dB. The reading at a
distance of 60 m from the point source would be _________
Q.52 For a wastewater sample, the three-day biochemical oxygen demand at incubation temperature of
20°C (BOD3day, 20°C) is estimated as 200 mg/L. Taking the value of the first order BOD reaction rate
constant as 0.22 day-1, the five-day BOD (expressed in mg/L) of the wastewater at incubation
temperature of 20°C (BOD5day, 20°c) would be _________
Q.53 The critical flow ratios for a three-phase signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25. The total time
lost in the cycle is 10 s. Pedestrian crossings at this junction are not significant. The respective
Green times (expressed in seconds and rounded off to the nearest integer) for the three phases are
(A) 34, 28, and 28 (B) 40, 25, and 25 (C) 40, 30, and 30 (D) 50, 25, and 25
CE(2) 14/15
Q.54 A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a highway needs to take the next exit, which has a speed limit
of 50 km/h. The section of the roadway before the ramp entry has a downgrade of 3% and
coefficient of friction ( f ) is 0.35. In order to enter the ramp at the maximum allowable speed limit,
the braking distance (expressed in m) from the exit ramp is _________
Q.55 A tall tower was photographed from an elevation of 700 m above the datum. The radial distances of
the top and bottom of the tower from the principal points are 112.50 mm and 82.40 mm,
respectively. If the bottom of the tower is at an elevation 250 m above the datum, then the height
(expressed in m) of the tower is _________
CE(2) 15/15
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA B 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ CH C 1
2 MCQ CH A 1
3 MCQ CH D 1
4 MCQ CH B 1
5 NAT CH -58.1 : -57.9 1
6 MCQ CH C 1
7 MCQ CH A 1
8 NAT CH 9.9 : 10.1 1
9 NAT CH 3.88 : 3.92 1
10 MCQ CH C 1
11 NAT CH 0.39 : 0.41 1
12 MCQ CH D 1
13 MCQ CH C 1
14 NAT CH 1.99 : 2.01 1
15 MCQ CH C 1
16 NAT CH 28.0 : 29.0 1
17 MCQ CH D 1
18 MCQ CH C 1
19 MCQ CH D 1
20 MCQ CH A 1
21 MCQ CH B 1
22 MCQ CH D 1
23 MCQ CH B 1
24 MCQ CH D 1
25 MCQ CH A 1
26 NAT CH 14.9 : 15.1 2
27 MCQ CH D 2
28 NAT CH 2.52 : 2.62 2
29 NAT CH 2.6 : 2.7 2
30 NAT CH 94.5 : 94.8 2
31 MCQ CH A 2
32 NAT CH 371.0 : 375.0 2
33 NAT CH 399.9 : 400.1 2
34 NAT CH 1.63 : 1.67 2
35 MCQ CH B 2
36 MCQ CH C 2
37 NAT CH 2.05 : 2.25 2
38 NAT CH 48.5 : 49.5 2
39 NAT CH 0.12 : 0.13 2
40 MCQ CH B 2
41 MCQ CH A 2
42 NAT CH 0.245 : 0.255 2
43 NAT CH 0.98 : 1.02 2
44 MCQ CH C 2
45 MCQ CH C 2
46 MCQ CH B 2
47 NAT CH 0.255 : 0.280 2
48 NAT CH 7.9 : 8.1 2
49 MCQ CH B 2
50 NAT CH 0.23 : 0.27 2
51 NAT CH 10.00 : 10.25 2
52 NAT CH 2.49 : 2.51 2
53 MCQ CH MTA 2
54 MCQ CH D 2
55 MCQ CH D 2

GATE 2016 2018 Question Paper and Answer Key

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QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) brake, break (B) break, break

(A) unpredictable (B) simple (C) expected (D) strict

(A) 14 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19

(A) 22.22 (B) 50 (C) 57.87 (D) 77.78

(A) 0.8 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 10.0

(A) 48 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 108

(A) 768 (B) 832 (C) 1440 (D) 1600

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which one of the following matrices is singular?

Q.2 For the given orthogonal matrix Q,

3/7 2/7 6/7

−3/7 −2/7 −6/7

3/7 −6/7 2/7

−3/7 6/7 −2/7

Q.3 At the point 𝑥 = 0, the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 has

(A) P/12 (B) P/4 (C) P/2 (D) 3P/4

(A) 39 cm (B) 42 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 48 cm

Q.6 The Le Chatelier apparatus is used to determine

Q.7 The deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is

Q.12 Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for

(A) 4,80,000 kg (B) 4,800 kg (C) 480 kg (D) 48 kg

(A) penetration of bitumen at 25C is between 20 and 40

The shape of the flow-density relationship is

(A) piecewise linear

Q.16 A well-designed signalized intersection is one in which the

Q.17 A flow field is given by 𝑢 = 𝑦 2 , 𝑣 = −𝑥𝑦, 𝑤 = 0. Value of the z-component of the

f (MPa) Number of specimens with

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The value of the integral ∫𝜋 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is

(A) π2/8 (B) π2/4 (C) π2/2 (D) π2

Q.28 A cylinder of radius 250 mm and weight, W = 10 kN is rolled up an obstacle of height

All interfaces are assumed frictionless. The minimum value of P is

(A) 4.5 kN (B) 5.0 kN (C) 6.0 kN (D) 7.5 kN

(A) -120×10-6 (B) - 60×10-6 (C) 0.0 (D) 120 ×10-6

The slope at P will be

(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22

Q.35 The following details refer to a closed traverse:

Line Consecutive coordinate

Q.37 The solution at 𝑥 = 1, 𝑡 = 1 of the partial differential equation 𝜕2 𝑢 𝜕2 𝑢

(All dimensions are in mm)

Given that E = 2×1011 N/m2, A = 10 mm2, L = 1 m and P = 1 kN. The horizontal

Proposed Elevation: +20 m

Highly Pervious Sand

Rain Gauge Number 1 2 3 4 5 6

Q.51 A water sample analysis data is given below.

Ion Concentration, mg/L Atomic Weight

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

(A) shone, shown (B) shone, shone

(A) innovative (B) simple (C) dull (D) boring

(A) 2𝑎2 𝑏 2 (B) 𝑎4 𝑏 4 (C) 𝑎𝑏(𝑎 + 𝑏) (D) 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2

(A) 27 (B) 72 (C) 81 (D) 84

Q.5 For non-negative integers, 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, what would be the value of 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 if

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) −1

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

(A) 400 (B) 1200 (C) 1600 (D) 2800

(A) 12:45 PM (B) 12:58 PM (C) 1:00 PM (D) 2:00 PM