Environmental Engineering - AEE - CRPQs

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Environmental Engineering
(PSU’s Objective Practice Questions)
05. The total water requirement of a city is
Population Forecasting & Water Demands
generally assessed on the basis of
(a) maximum hourly demand
01. Which one of the following practices (b) maximum daily demand + fire demand
causes reduction in the per capita water (c) average daily demand + fire demand
consumption? (d) greater of (a) and (b)
(a) good quality water
(b) hotter climate 06. Coincident draft in relation to water demand,
(c) modern living is based on:
(d) metering system (a) peak hourly demand
(b) maximum daily demand
02. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain (c) maximum daily + fire demand
the maximum daily water demand, in relation (d) greater of (a) and (b)
to the average i.e. per capita daily demand,
is: 07. The distribution system in water supplies, is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.7 designed on the basis of
(a) average daily demand
03. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain (b) peak hourly demand
the peak hourly demand, in relation to the (c) coincident draft
maximum daily demand, (per hour of course) (d) greater of (b) and (c)
is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7 08. As compared to the geometrical increase
method of forecasting population, the
04. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain arithmetical increase method gives:
peak hourly demand, in relation to the (a) lesser value
average daily demand, (per hour of course) (b) higher value
is (c) equal value
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7 (d) may, vary as it may depend on the
population figures.
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2 Environmental Engineering
09.
The suitable method for forecasting 13. As per IS : 1172 – 1993 in the design of
population for an old developed large city, is a water supply scheme for a town with full
(a) arithmetic mean method flushing system minimum water supply for
(b) geometric mean method domestic water demand is
(c) comparative graphical method (a) 135 , pcd (b) 200 , pcd
(d) none of these (c) 270 , pcd (d) 335 , pcd
10. The pipe mains carrying water from the 14. The suitable method for forecasting population
source to the reservoir are designed for for a young and a rapidly developing city is :
(a) maximum daily demand (a) arithmetic mean method
(b) average daily demand (b) geometric mean method
(c)
maximum hourly demand of the (c) comparative graphical method
maximum day (d) none of these
(d) maximum weekly demand
15. The per capita per day demand of water is
11. The design period for the design of water taken as an average value over a period of
supply project is generally taken as (a) 24 hours (b) one month
(a) Less than 10 years (c) one year (d) more than one year
(b) 20 – 30 years
16. Water distribution systems are sized to meet
(c) 50 years
the
(d) more than 50 years
(a) maximum hourly demand
(b) average hourly demand
12. Filter and other units of treatment plant are
(c) maximum daily demand and fire demand
designed for
(d) average daily demand and fire demand
(a) the annual average daily demand of
water 17.
The growth of population can be
(b) two times the annual average daily represented by a
demand of water (a) straight line curve (b) semi-log curve
(c) maximum daily demand of water ( i.e., (c) logistic curve (d) logarithmic
1.8 times the annual avg. daily demand curve
of water)
(d) two times the maximum daily demand 18. If the average daily water consumption of a
of water city is 24,000cum, the peak hourly demand
(of the maximum day course) will be:
(a) 1000 cum/hr (b) 1500 cum/hr
(c) 1800 cum/hr (d) 2700 cum/hr
3 Objective Practice Questions
19. If the population of a city is 2 lakh, and 24. According to Kuichling formula, the fire
average water consumption is 200 lpcd, then demand (Q) in litres per minute is given by
the capacity of the pipe mains, carrying raw (a) Q= 1135((P/5) +10)
water from source will be : (b) Q= 2500((P/5) +10)
(a) 108 MLD (b) 72 MLD (c) Q = 3182 P
(c) 60 MLD (d) 40 MLD (d) Q = 5663 P
20. Find the population at the end of 2011 by 25. In designing a water works for a city to
Arithmetical increase method? meet the water demand for public use, a
Year Population provision of about _____________ of the total
1951 1,00,000 consumption is made.
1961 1,09,000 (a) 5% (b) 10%
1971 1, 16,000 (c) 20% (d) 25%
1981 1, 28,000
(a) 1,26,000 (b) 1,36,000
KEY for CRPQ
(c) 1,46,000 (d) 1,56,000
01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (a) 04. (d) 05. (d)
21. In India, as per Indian standards, water
consumption per capita per day for domestic
06. (c) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (a) 10. (a)
purpose is
(a) 85 litres (b) 100 litres
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c)
(c) 115 litres (d) 135 litres
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
22. The domestic use of water amounts to
__________ of the total water requirements
per capita per day. 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b)
(a) 20% (b) 30%

(c) 40% (d) 50%
23. According to Indian standards, 45 litres of

water per person per day is provided in case
of
(a) hotels (b) hostels
(c) offices (d) all of these
07. Water from infiltration wells is collected

Sources and Conveyance of Water
by pipes and led to sump from where it is
pumped, this sump is called
01. Which source of water, among the following, (a) Under ground sump
is not a surface source? (b) Jack well
(a) river (b) well (c) Artesian well
(c) lake (d) ocean (d) Infiltration well
02. Which source of water, among the following, 08. Ground water is
is not a sub surface source? (a) Free from suspended solids but contain
(a) spring (b) well dissolved solids
(c) storage reservoir (d) infiltration gallery (b) Free from harmful bacteria but may
contain harmless bacteria
03. The natural out flow of subsurface water at (c) Free from floating impurities but may
the surface is termed as have suspended solids
(a) lake (b) spring (d) Free from dissolved solids but may have
(c) infiltration gallery (d) tube well colloidal solids
09. A shallow well is one tapping an aquifer

04. A well constructed in the upper most water
(a) nearest to ground level
bearing stratum with out entering any
(b) below an impervious layer
impervious stratum is called
(c) sand witched in between two impervious
(a) Infiltration well (b) tube well
(d) runs through a number of strata
(c) shallow well (d) jack well
10. A deep well

05. An infiltration gallery is (a) easily gets dried up during summer
(a) a tube well with horizontal arms (b) may yield constant discharge
(b) a horizontal well under the ground surface (c) is not deeper than a shallow well
(c) an artesion well (d) is formed by just tapping the nearest
(d) a shallow well aquifer to the ground
06. A well consisting of RCC rings placed on a 11. River water may have
curb, sunk in the bed of a river is called (a) more suspended solids and less dissolved
(a) infiltration well (b) jack well solids
(c) deep well (d) artesian well (b) more dissolved solids and less suspended
solids
(c) more dissolved solids and less floating
solids
(d) more colloidal and dissolved solids
12. A good source of water requiring practically 18. As compared to shallow wells, deep wells
the least treatment is have
(a) a perennial river (a) more depth
(b) an impounded reservoir (b) more discharge
(c) a deep well (c) more depth and more discharge
(d) an elevated lake (d) more depth but less discharge
19. The quantity of water available from an

13. Sedimentation may not be required for water
infiltration gallery depends on
from a
(a) size of the gallery
(a) shallow well (b) deep well
(b) yield of the surrounding aquifer
(c) river (d) canal
(c) of the gallery and yield of the surrounding
aquifer
14. Which one of the following would contain
(d) neither size of the gallery nor yield of the
water with the maximum Turbidity?
surrounding aquifer
(a) lakes (b) oceans
(c) rivers (d) wells 20. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) The quality of tube well water is better
15. The treatment that should be given to the than that of surface sources.
water from a deep tube well is (b) The discharge of tube well is more than
(a) pre-settling only that of an open well.
(b) coagulation and flocculation (c) The tube well should not derive water
(c) Filtration only from the first pervious strata.
(d) disinfection only (d) none of the above
16. If the ground water is saline and subsoil depth 21. Underground water is obtained from
in the river bed is shallow, then the best (a) rivers (b) lakes
(medium size) source to develop is (c) reservoirs (d) springs
(a) tube well (b) infiltration gallery
(c) river (d) spring
KEY for CRPQ
17. The most commonly used type of tube well in 01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (b)
India is 06. (a) 07. (b) 08. (a) 09. (a) 10. (b)
(a) Cavity type
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
(b) Strainer type
(c) slotted type 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
(d) perforated pipe type
21. (d)
07. If total hardness of water is less than its total

Quality of Water
alkalinity the non-carbonate hardness will be
equal to
01. The Ca 2+
concentration and Mg 2+
(a) total alkalinity
concentration of a water sample are 160 mg/ (b) total hardness
, and 40 mg/ , as their ions respectively. The (c) total alkalinity – total hardness
total hardness of this water sample in terms of (d) zero
CaCO3 in mg/ , is approximately equal to
(a) 120 (b) 200 (c) 267 (d) 567 08. The only metal among the following which is
toxic to human beings in
02. The coliform organism in 100 m , of drinking (a) calcium
water should not be more than (b) iron
(a) 1000 (b) 450 (c) 100 (d) 1 (c) arsenic
(d) magnesium
03. The apparatus in which the measurement
of turbidity is based on the intensity of light 09. When flouride concentration in water
scattered at right angle to the incident light is exceeds 1.5 mg/ , or so, the disease that may
called be caused is
(a) spectrometer (b) tintometer (a) methmoglobinemia
(c) turbid meter (d) nephelometer (b) fluorosis
(c) dental carries in children
04. A water having pH value equal to 9 will have (d) poliomyelitis
hydrogen ion concentration equal to
(a) 10-9 moles / litre (b) 109 moles / litre
10. For a water sample, the total hardness is 200
(c) 10-5 moles / litre (d) 105 moles / litre
mg/ , as CaCO3 and alkalinity is 250 mg/ , as
CaCO3. Then the carbonate hardness is
05. The product of H+ ions and OH– ions in a
(a) 200 (b) 250
stronger acid is
(c) 450 (d) 50
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10-7 (d) 10-14
11. In the above question (No.10) the non

06. Water is considered ‘hard’ if its hardness is of
carbonate hardness is
the order of
(a) 50 (b) 200
(a) 50 ppm (b) 100 ppm
(c) 25 (d) zero
(c) 150 ppm (d) over 200 ppm
12. Match the List-I with List-II and select the 16. Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of
correct answer using the codes given below (GATE-05)
the lists : (a) total organic nitrogen
List I (Test) (b) total organic and ammonia nitrogen
A. Colour B. Odour (c) total ammonia nitrogen
C. Turbidity D. Hardness (d) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen
List II (Instrument)
1. Baylis instrument 17. 1 TCU is equivalent to the colour produced
2. Burgess scale by (GATE-05)
3. Versenate method (a) 1mg/ , of chloroplatinate ion
4. Coliform Test (b) 1mg/ , of platinum ion
5. Osmocope (c) 1mg/ , platinum in form of chloroplatinate
Codes: ion
A B C D (d) 1mg/ , organo-chloroplatinate ion
(a) 2 5 1 3
(b) 2 1 3 4 18. The presence of hardness in excess of
(c) 1 2 3 4 permissible limit causes (GATE-06)
(d) 2 5 4 1 (a) cardio vascular problems
(b) skin discolouration
13. Most of the turbidity meters work on the (c) calcium deficiency
scattering principle. The turbidity value so (d) increased laundry expenses
obtained is expressed in (GATE-04)
(a) CFU (b) FTU (c) JIU (d) NTU 19. The alkalinity and the hardness of a water
sample are 250 mg/ , and 350 mg/ , as
14. Hardness of water is directly measured by CaCO3, respectively. The water has
titration with ethylene di-amine-tetracetic (GATE-06)
acid (EDTA) using. (GATE-04) (a) 350mg/ , carbonate hardness and non-
(a) Eriochrome black T indicator carbonate hardness.
(b) Eerroin indicator (b) 250mg/ , carbonate hardness and zero
(c) Methyl orange indicator non-carbonate hardness.
(d) Phenolphthalein indicator (c) 250mg/ , carbonate hardness and
350 mg/ , non-carbonate hardness.
15. The organism, which exhibits very nearly (d) 250mg/ , carbonate hardness and 100
the characteristics of an ideal pathogenic non-carbonate hardness.
indicator is (GATE-04)
(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Escherichia coli
(c) Salmonella typhi (d) Vibrio comma
20. In a water sample, CO3– – ions = 90 mg/L, (milliequivalent weight of CaCO3=50/m.eq).

HCO3 –
ions = 61 mg/ , . What is alkalinity of Hardness of the water sample in mg/l as
the water sample in mg/l as CaCO3? CaCO3 is
(a) 250 (b)50 (a) 44.8 (b) 89.5
(c) 100 (d) 200 (c) 179 (d) 358
21. If the pH value of a water sample is 9, the Common Data for Questions 24 & 25
alkalinity caused by OH in mg/L as CaCO3 is
-

(a) 0.5 (b) 5 In concentrations obtained for a groundwater
(c) 0.17 (d) 0.005 sample (having pH=8.1) are given below
(GATE-10)
22. The results of analysis of a raw water sample Ion concentration
Ion Atomic Weight
are given below: (mg/ , )
(GATE-03) Ca+2 100 Ca =40

Mg 2+
6 Mg = 24
Turbidity : 5 mg/ ,
Na +
15 Na =23
pH : 7.4
H=1, C =12,
Fluorides : 2.5 mg/ , HCO-3 250
O = 16
Total Hardness : 300 mg/ ,
SO42- 45 S =32, O = 16
Iron : 3.0 mg/ ,
CL–
30 CL= 35.5
MPN : 50 per 100m ,
From the data given above, it can be inferred
24. Total hardness (mg/L as CaCO3) present in
that water needs removal of
the above water sample is
(a) turbidity followed by disinfection
(a) 205 (b) 50 (c) 275 (d) 308
(b) fluorides and hardness
(c) iron, followed by disinfection
25. Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO3)
(d) fluorides, hardness and iron followed by
present in the above water sample is
disinfection.
(a) 205 (b) 350 (c) 275 (d) 289
23. Results of a water sample analysis are as

follows: (GATE-03) KEY for CRPQ
01. (d) 02. (d) 03. (d) 04. (a) 05. (d)
Concentration Equivalent
Cation
mg/ , Weight 06. (d) 07. (d) 08. (c) 09. (b) 10. (a)
Na+ 40 23
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b)
Mg+2 10 12.2
Ca+2 55 20 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d)
K+
2 39
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a)
06. Weir loading in m3 / day / m is

Plain Sedimentation (a) 208 (b) 263 (c) 194 (d) 159
01. A sedimentation tank 6m wide, 15m long and 07. In a wastewater treatment plant, primary
3 m water depth is treating 2 MLD of water. sedimentation tank (PST) designed at an
Find the surface overflow rate is overflow rate of 32.5 m3/day/m2 is 32.5 m
(a) 858 lit/hr/m2 (b) 926 lit/hr/m2 long, 8.0 m wide and liquid depth of 2.25 m. If
(c) 1028 lit/hr/m 2
(d) None the length of the weir is 75 m, the weir loading
rate (in m3/day/m) is __________ (GATE-15)
02. A sedimentation tank 6m wide, 15m long and
3 m water depth is treating 2 MLD of water. 08. An ideal settling basin has a plan area of
Find the detention time. 100 m2. If a flow of 2400 m3/day has passed
(a) 4.26 hr (b) 3.84 hrs through the basin, then for removing the dis-
(c) 4.8 hr (d) 3.24 hrs crete particle completely from the basin, the
terminal settling velocity is, nearly
03. A rectangular sedimentation tank is treating (a) 1 m/hour (b) 0.5 m/hour
1.8 MLD of raw water with a detention period (c) 0.1 m/hour (d) 0.05 m/hour
of 4 hours. The volume of the tank required is
(a) 180 m3 (b) 260 m3
(c) 300 m3 (d) 360 m3
KEY for CRPQ
04. A sedimentation tank is to be designed to

01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (a)
treat one lakh cum of water per day. If the
settling velocity of the particles to be removed
06. (d) 07. (112.66) 08. (a)
is 20 m/day, then the area of tank required is
(a) 1000m2 (b) 3000m2
(c) 5000m2 (d) 6000m2
Coagulation
Common Data for Questions 05 & 06
A settling tank has 26 m in dia. with a 2.10 m
01. Coagulation-Flocculation with alum is
side water depth. Effluent weir is located on the
performed
periphery of the tank. For a water flow of 13000
(a) immediately before chlorination
m3/day
(b) immediately after chlorination
(c) after rapid sand filtration
05. The detention time available is
(d) before rapid sand filtration
(a) 2.41 hrs (b) 3.56 hrs
(c) 4.2 hrs (d) 1.86 hrs
02. Flocculation is a process 07. The over flow rate for sedimentation tanks
(a) That removes algae from stabilization on using coagulants is about
pond effluent (a) 20 to 30 m3 / day / m2
(b) That promotes the aggregation of small (b) 20 to 30 m3/day/m2
particles into larger particles to enhance (c) 40 to 50 m3/day/m2
their removal by gravity (d) 50 to 60 m3/day/m2
(c) That removes easily settlable solids
(d) Which is same as filtration 08. Which of the following is not a coagulating
agent?
03. The most widely used coagulant for water (a) Ferric sulphate
treatment, is (b) Ferric chloride
(a) lime and soda (c) Aluminum sulphate
(b) Ferrous Sulphate (d) Copper sulphate
(c) chlorinated copperas
(d) alum 09. The alum when mixed with water as a
coagulant,
04. The amount of coagulant needed in water (a) does not effect pH value of water
treatment , increases with the : (b) decreases pH value of water
(a) increase in temperature of water (c) increases pH value of water
(b) increase in turbidity of water (d) none of these
(c) decrease in turbidity of water
(d) none of the above 10. Determine the quantity of alum required in
order to treat 12 million liters of water per day
05 Coagulants, used in water treatment, function at a treatment plant, where 14ppm of alum
better when the raw water is dose is required. Also determine the amount
(a) acidic (b) alkaline of CO2 gas which will be released per litre
(c) neutral (d) none of water treated. [Atomic weights A , =27,
S=32, O=16, H=1]
06. A clarifloculator is a (a) 168 kg/day; 5.51 mg/l
(a) plain sedimentation unit (b) 182 kg/day; 6.72 mg/l
(b) aeration unit (c) 194 kg/day; 8.20 mg/l
(c) coagulation-sedimentation unit (d) 154 kg/day; 4.83 mg/l
(d) none
11. A surface water treatment plant operates

Filtration
round the clock with a flow rate of 3.5 m3/min.
The water temperature is 15oC and jar testing
indicated an alum dosage of 25 mg/ , , Gt = 01. Cleaning of slow sand filters is done by
4x104 for producing optimum result. The alum (a) scraping and removal of sand
request for 30 days (in kg) is (GATE-14) (b) back washing
(a) 17800 (b) 27800 (c) any of the above
(c) 37800 (d) 14800 (d) none
12. A flash mixer of 2 m3 with a velocity gradient 02. Back washing of rapid gravity filters, may face
of mixing mechanism equal to 600 S-1 and rough weather, due to
fluid absolute viscosity of 1.0 x 10-3 N-sec/m2 (a) air-binding
is continuously operated. What is the power (b) mud-balls
input per unit volume? (c) negative head
(a) 360W (b) 720W (d) cracking of filters
(c) 1440W (d) 300W
03. Air-binding phenomenon in rapid sand filters
13. A town is required to treat 4.2 m3/min of raw may occur due to
water for daily domestic supply. Flocculating (a) excessive negative pressure
particles are to be produced by chemical (b) mud ball formation
coagulation. A column analysis indicated (c) higher turbidity in the effluent
that an overflow rate of 0.2 mm/s will produce (d) low temperature
satisfactory particle removal in a settling basin
at a depth of 3.5m. The required surface 04. The quality of the filtered effluent and the
area (in m2) for settling is (GATE- working of the filter, in a rapid gravity filter, is
12) adversely affected by
(a) 210 (b) 350 (a) air-binding
(c) 1728 (d) 21000 (b) mud-balls
(c) cracking of filter
(d) none
KEY for CRPQ
05. A roughening filter, as used in treating water
01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (d) 04. (b)
supplies, is like a
05. (b) 06. (c) 07. (a) 08. (d) (a) slow sand filter
(b) rapid gravity filter
09. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
(c) rapid gravity filter with coarser sand
13 (b) (d) none
06. Double filtration is used 12. Consider

(a) to increase the filtration capacity of slow 1. Mechanical straining
sand filters 2. Biological Metabolism
(b) to increase the filtration capacity of rapid 3. Electrolytic changes 4. Flocculation
sand filters The processes of filtration are
(c)
for isolated colonies of a few (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1,3 and 4
houses (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
(d) none
13. Pick out the incorrect statement, for a rapid
07. In double filtration, the roughening filter unit is sand filter
placed (a) the effective size of the sand particles is
(a) prior to the slow sand filter 0.35 to 0.6mm
(b) after the slow sand filter (b) the period of cleaning is usually 2 to 3
(c) any of (a) and (b) weeks
(d) none (c) the maximum permitted loss of head is
3m
08. Rate of filtration in slow sand filter in , / hr / (d) the removal of bacteria; impurities is upto
m is
2
90%
(a) 100 to 200 (b) 3000 to 6000
(c) 6000 to 15000 (d) 15000 to 18000 14. The uniformity coefficient of sand used in
rapid sand filter is
09. The influent treated in rapid sand filter should (a) 1.2 to 1.8 (b) 2.5
generally be (c) 3 to 4 (d) more than 4
(a) Plain sedimented (b) Disinfected
(c) Coagulated (d) Free from impurities 15. The effective size of sand particles used in
slow sand filters is
10. Pressure filters are used for (a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm (b) 0.45 to 0.70 mm
(a) Urban water supply (c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm (d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
(b) Rural water supply
(c) Ground water 16. The periodicity with which rapid sand filters
(d) Swimming pools need cleaning is usually
(a) 1 to 3 days (b) 10 to 15 days
11. High bacterial removal by slow sand filter is (c) 1 to 3 months (d) 1 to 2 years
accomplished by
(a) mechanical straining 17. The rate of filtration of pressure filters as
(b) schmutzdecke compared to that of rapid gravity filters is
(c) filtration (a) poor (b) equally good
(d) electrolytic chambers (c) better (d) much better
18. Cleaning of rapid sand filters is done by 22. The percentage of filtered water which is
(a) scraping and removal of sand used for back washing in rapid sand filters is
(b) back washing about
(c) any of the above (a) 0.2 to 0.6 % (b) 0.6 to 1 %
(d) none (c) 2 to 5 % (d) 6 to 8 %
19. As compared to rapid sand filters slow sand 23. The quality of filtered effluent of pressure filters
filters are as compared to that of rapid gravity filters is
(a) more efficient in the removal of bacteria (a) poor (b) equally good
but less efficient in the removal of color (c) better (d) much better
and turbidity
(b) more efficient in the removal of bacteria 24. In rapid sand filters the ratio of length to
as well as in the removal of colour and diameter of the lateral should not exceed
turbidity (a) 10 (b) 20
(c) less efficient in the removal of bacteria (c) 40 (d) 60
but more efficient in the removal of
colour and turbidity 25. Rapid sand filter
(d) less efficient in the removal of bacteria (a) should be preceded by coagulation and
as well as in the removal of colour and sedimentation
turbidity. (b) is used after slow sand filtering has been
done
20. Rapid sand filters remove bacteria to as much (c) uses rapid sand as filter media
as (d) can combine disinfection also
(a) 70 to 80 % (b) 80 to 90 %
(c) 90 to 95 % (d) 98 to 99 % 26. Slow sand filter is efficient to remove the
bacteria from the raw water to an extent of
21. As compared to slow sand filters rapid sand (a) 50% (b) 70% (c) 85% (d) 99%
filters give
(a) lower filtration rate but higher efficiency 27. Rapid sand filter can remove bacteria up to
in removal of bacteria an extent of
(b) lower filtration rate and lower efficiency (a) 60% to 70% (b) 70% to 80%
in removal of bacteria (c) 80% to 90% (d) 90% to 99%
(c) higher filtration rate but lower efficiency
in removal of bacteria 28. The organic impurities in water form a layer
(d) higher filtration rate and higher efficiency on the top of a filtering media. Such a layer
in removal of bacteria called
(a) permeable layer (b) filtering layer
(c) dirty skin (d) none of these
29. Design six slow sand filter beds from the

following data KEY for CRPQ
Population = 50,000 persons
01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (c)
Per capita water Demand = 150 lit/head/day
Rate of filtration = 180 lit/hr/m2
06. (b) 07. (a) 08. (a) 09. (c) 10. (d)
L = 2 B. Assume max demand as 1.8 times
average daily demand. Also assume that 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a)
one unit out of six will be kept as standby.
(a) 25.3 m; 17.7 m 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
(b) 29.42 m; 15.3 m
(c) 35.35 m; 12.8 m 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a)
(d) 35.35 m; 17.7 m
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (a)
30. Find number of 20 m x 10 m size slow sand

31. (c) 32. (c)
filters required to treat 10 MLD of water with a
rate of filtration 200 lit/hr/m2
(a) 11 (b) 12 Disinfection
(c) 13 (d) 14
01. It is required to supply water to a population

Common Data for Questions 31 & 32
of 20,000 at a per capita demand of 150 lit
A city is going to install the rapid sand filter
per day. Determine how much bleaching
after the sedimentation tanks.
powder is required in kg on an average per
Use the following data.
day if the chlorine dosage is 0.2ppm. Assume
Design loading rate to the filter – 200m3/m2d
bleaching powder contains 30% of available
Design flow rate – 0.5m3/s
chlorine.
Surface area per filter box– 50m2
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.18
(c) 2 (d) 0.8
31. The Surface area required for the rapid sand
filter will be
02. Chlorine usage in the treatment of 20,000
(a) 210m2 (b) 215m2
cum of water per day is 8 kg. The residual
(c) 216m2 (d) 218m2
after 10min. contact is 0.15 mg/ , . The chlorine
dosage and demand of water in mg/ , , are
32. The number of filters required shall be
respectively
(a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 2.5 & 0.25 (b) 2.5 & 2.35
(c) 6 (d) 8
(c) 0.4 & 0.25 (d) 0.4 & 0.15
03. For a water, the dosage at break point is 1.5

Miscellaneous Water Treatment
mg/ , and residual chlorine at that time is
found to be 0.3mg/L. If cumulative chlorine
added is 2 mg/l, the residual chlorine will be 01. Odour and taste is controlled by
(a) 1.2 mg/L (b) 0.8 mg/L (a) Disinfection (b) Aeration
(c) 0.5 mg/L (d) zero (c) Coagulation (d)Soda–lime
process
04. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in water
treatment 02. Activated carbon is used to remove
(a) is not dependent on pH value (a) Odour and taste (b) Hardness
(b) is increase by increased pH value (c) Iron and manganese (d) Dissolved salts
(c) remains constant at all pH values
(d) is reduced by increased pH value 03. The dosage of alum is decided by ---
(a) EDTA test (b) Jar test
05. In disinfection, which of the following forms (c) Chloro test (d) none
of chlorine is most effective in killing the
pathogenic bacteria? 04. Approximately 1.0 mg/ , fluoride in drinking
(a) CL (b) OCL water helps to prevent
(c) NH2CL (d) HOCL (a) Mottling (b) Fluorosis
(c) Dental cavities (d) Blue baby
06. Pathogens are usually removed by disease
(a) chemical precipitation
(b) sedimentation 05. Fluoride concentration less than ….. ppm
(c) activated sludge process causes cavities in teeth.
(d) chlorination (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) 1.5

06. For algae control the chemical used is
(a) calcium hydroxide (b) sodium
KEY for CRPQ
carbonate
(c) copper Sulphate (d) alum
01. (c) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (d)
07. Which of the following is not matched

06. (d)
correctly?
(a) Odour → Aeration
(b) Colour → Burgess scale
(c) Turbidity → Threshold number
(d) Bacteria → Disinfection
08. Which one of the following process of 13. The adsorbent most commonly used in water
softening water may require re carbonation ? and waste water treatment is
(a) lime – soda process (a) sand of grain size from 0.1 to 2 mm
(b) sodium – cation exchange process (b) Activated carbon granules of size 0.1 to
(c) demineralization process 2 mm
(d) hydrogen – cation exchanges process (c) Ordinary Wood pieces fine size
(d) coal-tar
09. In lime-soda process of water softening
(a)
only carbonate hardness is 14. By lime soda process, hardness can be
removed reduced to less than
(b) only non-carbonate hardness is removed (a) 50 ppm (b) 75 ppm
(c) lime reduces non carbonate hardness, (c) 100 ppm (d) 150 ppm
and soda removes carbonate hardness
(d) lime reduces carbonate hardness, and 15. The lime soda process of water softening
soda removes non-carbonate hardness (a) requires less quantity of coagulant
(b) helps in killing pathogenic bacterias
10. The main disadvantage of lime-soda process (c) is suitable for turbid and acidic water
of water softening is that: (d) all of these
(a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic
waters 16. Zero hardness of water is achieved by
(b) zero hardness effluent can not be (a) lime soda process
obtained (b) excess lime treatment
(c) excessive hard waters can not be (c) ion exchange treatment
softened by it (d) excess alum and lime treatment
(d) huge amount of precipitate is formed,
posing disposal problem 17. Aeration of water is done to remove
(a) Suspended impurities
11. Activated carbon is added to water to (b) Colour
remove tastes and odours : (c) Dissolved Salts
(a) before coagulation (b)after coagulation (d) Dissolved Gases
(c) before filtration (d) all the above
KEY for CRPQ

12. Iron and manganese can be removed from
waters, by : 01. (b) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (c)
(a) boiling
06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (a) 09. (d) 10. (d)
(b) aeration followed by coagulation
(c) chlorination 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d)
(d) activated carbon addition 16. (c) 17. (b)
05. An advantage of intermittent system of

Distribution System
supply of water is
(a) it is economical
01. When the source of water is a reservoir on a (b) supply is assured during a fire accident
mountain slope and the city is in plains then (c) pumping is for limited hours
the system of distribution is (d) repairs can be carried out during non-
(a) gravity system supply hours.
(b) pumping system
(c) combined gravity and pumping system 06. A major disadvantage of intermittent system
(d) gravity system for a part and pumping for of supply of water is
remaining (a) bigger pipes and pumps required
(b) more number of valves required
02. Pumping system is best suited when (c) consumers should store water
(a) fire accidents occur frequently (d) infiltration of impurities may occur
(b) source of water is at low level through leaky joints
(c) density of population is high and space
07. Intermittent system is more popular in India
available is less
because
(d) power failures are more common
(a) supply hours can be staggered for
different zones of different elevations.
03. Combined pumping and gravity flow system
(b) Less quantity of water shall be sufficient
best suited, where
(c) Wastage is quite less
(a) the city is in plains and source is fairly
(d) It is highly economical in the long run
elevated
(b) the city had a gentle slope and source is
08. The purpose of stand pipe is that it
elevated
(a)
increases storage capacity of
(c) the city is on steep slopes and source is
water
below
(b) helps fire fighting
(d) any type of topography
(c) is of great help in intermittent supply
system
04. A disadvantage of combine pumping and
(d) boosts pressures in pipes
gravity flow is that
(a) it needs pumping round the clock 09. Losses in a distribution system are due to
(b) elevated storage reservoir required (a) poor quality of pipes and fittings
(c) adequate pressure may not exist in pipes (b) unauthorized connections
(d) we may not get enough water to fight fire (c) dead end system of network of
pipes
(d) low morale of people
10. The only advantage of dead end system is 16. Distribution layout in which the mains, sub
(a) it had more number of dead ends mains and branches are interconnected with
(b) blow off valves empty stagnant pockets each other is
of water (a) Tree system (b) Grid iron system
(c) less pipe length (c) Radial System (d) none
(d) suited for any town
17. Distribution layout in which a large number of
11. Grid iron system is best suited to scour valves required is
(a) an irregularly grown old town (a) Dead end system
(b) undulating topography (b) Grid iron system
(c) radial roads (c) Radial System
(d) planned city on a gentle slope (d) Ring system
12. A disadvantage of interlaced system is 18. The chances for contamination of water are
(a) not suited for any town less in
(b) elevated reservoirs required (a) Continuous system
(c) more length of pipes required (b) Intermittent system
(d) repairs can not be attended easily (c) Combined system
(d) Dead end system
13. Computations of discharges is difficult for
(a) dead end system 19. In radial distribution layout, the service
(b) reticulation system reservoirs are generally located at the ….of
(c) radial system the area under its control.
(d) ring system (a) centre (b) outer
(c) at the periphery (d) anywhere
14. The suitable layout for a water supply
distribution system, for an irregularly grown 20. The storage capacity of the service reservoir
town, is is found by ……….method.
(a) dead end system (b) grid iron system (a) Hyetograph
(c) ring system (d) radial system (b)Flow frequency curve
(c) Mass Curve
15. The suitable layout for a water supply (d) all the above
distribution system, for a city of roads of
rectangular pattern, 21. The cheapest distribution layout system is
(a) is dead end system (a) Dead end system
(b) is grid iron system (b)Grid iron system
(c) is ring system (c) Radial System `
(d) is radial system. (d)Ring system
22. The minimum residual pressure for single 29. A pressure relief valve is provided to prevent
storey buildings is (a) the water flowing out of the suction pipe
(a) 5m (b) 7m (c) 10m (d) 15m (b) the back flow, when the pump is stopped
(c)
the increase of pressure after certain
23. Valve which allows water in one direction safe limit
only is known as (d) all of the above
(a) Sluice valve (b) Scour valve
(c) Air valve (d) Reflux valve 30. The corrosion in pipe is due to
(a) dissolved oxygen in water
24. The valves which are used to remove the (b) pH value of water
sediment in the pipelines are called. (c) impurities in the material particularly
(a) Butterfly valve those having a lower potential
(b) Scour valve (d) all of the above
(c) Air valve
(d) Check valve 31. The plain ends of cast iron pipes are joined
by
25. Check valves are used (a) spigot and socket joint
(a) At summit points (b) flanged joint
(b) To prevent back flow (c) victuallic joint
(c) At dead ends (d) dresser coupling joint
(d) At junctions of main and branch pipe
32. The suitable layout of a distribution system for
26. The valve used for controlling the flow is well planned cities is
(a) Sluice valve (a) dead end system
(b) Check valve (b) ring system
(c) Scour valve (c) radial system
(d) Pressure relief valve (d) grid iron system
27. A scour valve, in a water distribution system, is 33. In network of pipes

provided at (a) the algebraic sum of discharges around
(a) low points (b) high points each circuit is zero
(c) junction points (d) all of these (b) the algebraic sum of head losses around
each circuit is zero
28. The valve provided on the suction pipe in a (c) the elevation of hydraulic grade line is
tube well is assumed for each junction point
(a) sluice valve (d) elementary circuits are replaced by
(b) air relief valve equivalent pipes
(c) pressure relief valve
(d) reflux valve
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the lists:
Introduction to Waste Water Engg
List-I
P. Release value
Q. Check value 01. The liquid wastes originating from residential
R. Gate value and industrial buildings, are collectively
S. Pilot value called:
List-II (a) domestic sewage
1. Reduce high inlet pressure to lower outlet (b) combined sewage
pressure (c) sanitary sewage
2. Limit the flow of water to single direction (d) None
3. Remove air from the pipeline
4. Stopping the flow of water in the pipeline 02. The sewer which transports the sewage to the
point of treatment, is called:
Codes: (a) house sewer (b) main sewer
P Q R S (c) outfall sewer (d) None of these
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 2 1 3 03. A combined sewerage system, collectively
(c) 3 4 2 1 carries:
(d) 1 2 4 3 (a) domestic sewage and industrial
sewage
(b) storm sewage and domestic sewage
(c)
storm sewage and industrial
KEY for CRPQ
sewage
(d) storm sewage and sanitary sewage
01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (b) 05. (d)
04. A sewer which receive’s the discharge from a

06. (d) 07. (a) 08. (d) 09. (a) 10. (c)
number of independent houses, is called:
(a) house sewer
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b)
(b) intercepting sewer
(c) lateral sewer
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
(d) None of these
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 05. A sewer pipe carrying sewage from a building
to the point of its immediate disposal, is
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d) (a) intercepting sewer
(b) lateral sewer
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) (c) house sewer
(d) None of these (a) 25-30% of water supplied from water

works
(b) 75-80% of water supplied from water
06. When rainy season is confined to a few works
months, like that in India, the preferred (c) 100% of water supplied from water
sewerage system would be: works
(a) combined system (d) None of these
(b) separate system
(c) partially separate system 11. The peak design flows, expressed as number
(d) None of these of times their average values, will be
(a) greater for smaller lateral sewers, as
07. The suitable system of sanitation for an compared to these for larger trunk sewers
area having uniformly distributed mild rains (b) greater for larger trunk sewers, as
throughout the year, like that in England, is: compared to these for smaller lateral
(a) separate system sewers
(b) combined system (c) equal for all sizes and types of
(c) partially separate system sewers
(d) partially combined system (d) none of these
08. The water carriage system of collection 12. The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the
of waste products is preferred to dry average flow of sewage, is
conservancy system, because: (a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 3
(a) it is cheaper in initial cost
(b) it does not require treatment before 13. Point out the wrong statement, in the following
disposal assumptions, generally made in the design of
(c) it is more hygienic in nature moderate sized sewers:
(d) it is easier to maintain (a) average daily flow = annual average
daily flow
09. The waster water coming from kitchens and (b) minimum daily flow = 2/3 average daily
bath rooms is popularly known as: flow
(a) domestic sewage discharge (c) minimum hourly flow = 1/3 average daily
(b) sullage discharge flow
(c) drainage discharge (d) none of these
(d) None of these
14. A space of 1/4 to 1/3 is left vacant in the
10. For the design of sewers in India, the design of sewer pipes at maximum discharge,
percentage of sewage discharge, is assumed due to:
as: (a) possible low estimates of maximum and
average flows
(b) large scale possible infiltration of storm 20. A sewer which receives sewage from the
water collection system and conducts it to a point
(c) unexpected increase in population a final disposal is called a
(d) all the above factors (a) common sewer (b) trunk sewer
(c) branch sewer (d) outfall sewer
15. The min. and the max. diameter of sewers,
generally adopted in the designs, may be: 21. A separate system will be favourable when
(a) 15 and 100 cm (b) 15 and 300 cm (a) the sewers are to be laid in rocks
(c) 25 and 450 cm (d) 60 and 300 cm (b) the finances are limited
(c) the topography is flat necessitating
16. The value of the coefficient of runoff for deep excavation for combined sewers
perfectly impervious areas, tend to: (d) all of the above
(a) more than one (b) less than one 22. The sanitation system in which a small portion
(c) equal to one (d) None of these of storm water is allowed to enter in the
sanitary sewage sewers and the remaining
17. With the increase in its duration, the intensity storm water flows in separate set of sewers, is
of rainfall will: known as
(a) decrease (b) increase (a) separate system
(c) remains constant (d) no relation (b) combined system
(c) partially separate system
18. The drainage discharge of a town of 16 (d) partially combined system
hectares area, consisting of 40% hard
paved (k=0.80), 30% unpaved (k=0.20), 23. A city with a population of 1,00,000 has the
and remaining as wooded (k=0.10), with a rate of water supply = 200 lpcd.
maximum rain intensity of 5 cm/hr, Assuming 75% of water supplied reaches the
would be computed by Rational formula, as sewer, the Dry Weather Flow in m3/sec will be
equal to: (a) 0.232 (b) 0.174
(a) 0.91 cumecs. (b) 0.091 cumecs (c) 0.51 (d) 0.68
(c) 9.1 cumecs (d) None
KEY for CRPQ

19. A minimum velocity should be maintained in
sewer to
01. (c) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (c) 05. (c)
(a) enable the sewage to reach the
treatment unit quickly
06. (b) 07. (b) 08. (c) 09. (b) 10. (b)
(b) reduce the size of sewer
(c) keep the suspended matter in suspension
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b)
(d) prevent clogging due to floating matter
and fats
full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest.

16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d) The discharge in this condition is denoted by
Qfull. Similarly, the discharge when the pipe is
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) flowing half-full, i.e., with a flow depth of 0.5m,
is denoted by Qhalf. The ratio Qfull/Qhalf is:
(GATE- 15)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 4
Design of Sewers
KEY for CRPQ

01. The flow in a sewer is
(a) pressure flow (b)open channel flow 01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (c) 04. (c)
(c) laminar flow (d)super-critical flow
02. Self-cleansing velocity is Characteristics of Sewage

(a) the minimum velocity of flow required to
maintain a certain amount of solids in the
01. Determine the BOD5 of a waste water
flow
sample which was subjected to the BOD
(b) the maximum velocity of flow required to
determination as follows :
maintain a certain amount of solids in a

sewer
6 m , of waste water containing no dissolved
(c) such flow velocity as would be sufficient
oxygen was mixed with 294 m , of water
to flush out any deposited solids in a
containing 8.6 mg/ , of D.O. After incubation
sewer
at 20oC for 5 days, the D.O. of the mixture was
(d) such flow velocity as would be sufficient
5.4 mg/ , .
to ensure that sewage does not remain
(a) 112 (b) 212 (c) 121 (d) 221
in the sewer.
02. A waste water sample diluted to 100 times

03. The slope of a 1.0 m diameter concrete sewer
with aeration water had an initial D.O. of 7.0
laid at a slope of 1 in 1000, develops a velocity
mg/ , and after 5 days of incubation at 20oC,
of 1 m/s when flowing full. The velocity of flow
the D.O was 2mg/ , . The BOD of waste water
the sewer when it is flowing half full, will be
is:
(a) 0.5 m/s (b) 2 m/s
(a) 700 mg/ , (b) 200 mg/ ,
(c) 1.0 m/s (d) 2.0 m/s
(c) 500 mg/ , (d) 300 mg/ ,
04. A circular pipe has a diameter of 1m, bed 03. In a BOD test using 5% dilution of the sample
slope of 1 in 1000, and Manning’s roughness (15 m , of sample and 285 m , of dilution
coefficient equal to 0.01. It may be treated as water). D.O. values for the sample and
an open channel flow when it is flowing just dilution water blank bottles after five days
incubation at 20oC were 3.80 and 8.80 mg/ 02. Floating substances like oil, fat and grease
, , respectively D.O. originally present in the are separated and removed by
undiluted sample was 0.80 mg/ , . The 5 day (a) bar screens
20 C BOD of the sample is
o
(b) primary sedimentation
(GATE-98) (c) skimming tank
(a) 116mg/ , (b) 108 mg/ , (d) trickling filter
(c) 100 mg/ , (d) 92 mg/ ,
03. Grit chambers are designed to remove
(a) fine sand particles
04. To determine the BOD5 of a waste water
(b) organic particles
sample, 5, 10 and 50m , aliquots of the waste
(c) particles equivalent to fine sand,0.2 mm
water were diluted to 300m , and incubated
diameter and specific gravity of 2.7 with
at 20oC in BOD bottles for 5 days. The result
a minimum of organic material
were as follows. Based on the data, the
(d) particles with 0.2 cm diameter and
average BOD5 of the waste water is equal to
specific gravity 3.5 with maximum of
(a) 139.5mg/ , (b) 126.5mg/ ,
organic matter
(c) 109.8mg/ , (d) 72.2mg/ ,

04. The detention period adopted for grit
Waste water Initial DO, DO after 5
chamber is of the order of
volume m , mg/ , days, mg/ ,
5 9.2 6.9 (a) 1 minute (b) 5 minutes
10 9.1 4.4 (c) 2 – 4 min (d) 12 min

50 8.4 0.0
05. The sewage treatment units, which work on
anaerobic decomposition of organic matter,
are
KEY for CRPQ (a) oxidation ponds
(b) septic tanks
01. (d) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (a) (c) activated sludge plants
(d) (b) and (c) both
06. The grit chambers of a sewage treatment

plant, normally need cleaning
Treatment of Sewage (a) every hour (b) every day
(c) every fortnight (d) every year
01. The treatment in a grit chamber is

(a) primary treatment 07. In the design of grit chambers in sewage
(b) preliminary treatment treatment
(c) secondary treatment (a) baffles are essential
(d) tertiary treatment (b) temperature control is an important

factor
(c) the maximum flow velocity should be of

the order of 0.3 m/sec KEY for CRPQ
(d) the detention period should at least be
10 minutes. 01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (c) 04. (a) 05. (b)
06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (a) 09. (c) 10. (c)
08. To remove floating matter like papers, rags
etc, the unit used is
(a) screens 11. (c) 12. (c)
(b) grit chamber
(c) imhoff tank
(d) septic tank
Activated Sludge Process
09. The settleable faecal and other organic solids
are removed in
01. A town produces sewage of 50 × 106 , /d
(a) activated sludge process
with BOD of 180 mg/ , . Taking permissible
(b) Trickling filter
volumetric organic loading as 550 gm of BOD
(c) primary sedimentation tank
per 1 cu.m of volume, the volume of aeration
(d) secondary sedimentation tank
tank required is
(a) 16363 m3 (b) 14360 m3
10. In preliminary treatment of sewage, the
(c) 2800 m3 (d) 8423 m3
operation which takes place, is
(a) removal of fine suspended particles
02. A town produces sewage of 50 × 106 , /d with
(b) removal of fine dissolved organic
BOD of 180 mg/ , . Taking permissible organic
material
loading as 50 gm of BOD per 100 gm of
(c) removal of lighter floating material
suspended solids and MLSS as 1800 mg/ , the
(d) removal of harmful bacterias and other
volume of aeration tank required is
organisms
(a) 16363 m3 (b) 14360 m3
(c) 2800 m3 (d) 10000 m3
11. The secondary treatment of sewage is carried
out by the use of
03. The MLSS concentration in an aeration tank is
(a) screens (b) grit chambers
2000 mg/ , and the sludge vol. after 30 min
(c) trickling filters (d) chlorinators
of settling in a 1,000 ml graduated cylinder
12. In primary settling tank, suspended solids are
is 176 m , , then SVI is
reduced from
(a) 88 m , /gm (b) 176 m , /gm
(a) 10 to 20 % (b) 20 to 40 %
(c) 200 m , /gm (d) zero
(c) 40 to 70 % (d) 70 to 90 %
04. Assuming that the supernatant is clear of 08. In activated sludge process, the sludge is
suspended solids one liter of activated sludge mixed thoroughly with activated or
containing 1000 mg/ , MLSS occupies a (a) treated sludge (b) untreated
volume of 200 ml after settling for 30 minutes sludge
in a measuring cylinder, the value of SVI will (c) raw sludge (d) oxidized sludge
be
(a) 50 (b) 100 Common Data for Questions 09 to 12
(c) 200 (d) 400 An average Operation data for conventional
activate sludge treatment plant is as follows:
05. An aeration basin with a volume of 400 m 3
(i) waste water flow = 35,000 m3/d
contains mixed liquor with suspended solid (ii) vol. of aeration tank = 10,900 m3
concentration of 1000 mg/ , . The amount of (iii) influent BOD = 250 mg/ ,
mixed liquor suspended solids in the tank is (iv)effluent BOD = 20 mg/ ,
(a) 500 kg (b) 250 kg (v) mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS)
(c) 6600 kg (d) 400 kg = 2,500 mg/ ,
06. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index (vi) effluent suspended solids = 30 mg/ ,
for Indian conditions is (vii)waste sludge suspended solids=9,700 mg/
(a) 0 to 50 (b) 50 to 150 ,
(c) 150 to 350 (d) 350 to 500 (viii) quantity of waste sludge = 220 m3/d
Based on this information,
07. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer (GATE) 09. Aeration period is (hrs)
List-I (a) 4.5 (b) 6.4 (c) 7.47 (d) 8.43
P. Thickening of sludge sludge by chemical
oxidation 10. Food to microorganism ratio F/M (kg/d BOD/
Q. Stabilization of sludge or chemical kg MLSS) is
treatment (a) 0.18 (b) 0.32
R. Conditioning of sludge (c) 0.48 (d) 0.52
S. Reduction of sludge
List-II 11. Percentage efficiency of BOD removal is
1. Decrease in volume of (a) 80 % (b) 88 %
2. Separation of water by heat (c) 92 % (d) 96 %
3. Digestion of sludge
4. Separation of water by floatation or 12. Sludge age in days is
gravity (a) 8.58 (b) 10.42
Codes: (c) 12.86 (d) None
P Q R S P Q R S
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
13. If the SVI is 88 m , /gm for an activated sludge, 03. When the re-circulation ratio in a high rate
then the concentration of the returned sludge trickling filter is unity, then what is the value of
is the re-circulation factor?
(a) 8800 mg/ , (b) 9704 mg / , (a) 1 (b) > 1 (c) < 1 (d) Zero
(c) 11364 mg/ , (d) zero
KEY for CRPQ
KEY for CRPQ 01. (c) 02. (a) 03. (b)
01. (a) 02. (d) 03. (a) 04. (c) 05. (b)
06. (b) 07. (c) 08. (c) 09. (c) 10. (b) Sludge Digestion
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c)

01. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly
composed of
(a) nitrogen (b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen sulphide (d) methane
Trickling Filters 02. The gas coming out from a sludge digestion
tank is
01. The BOD of a sewage entering a T.F is 200 (a) methane only
mg/l. If the effluent of the sewage of TF is 40 (b) carbon dioxide
mg/l, then the efficiency of the TF is (c) 70% methane and 30% carbon dioxide
(a) 40 % (b) 85 % (c) 80 % (d) 0 (d) 30% methane and 70% carbon dioxide
02. Which one of the following statements is true 03. The first stage of natural process of sludge
of trickling filter sludge? digestion is
(a) It has a comparatively low sludge volume (a) hydrolysis
index. (b) acid fermentation
(b) It is more difficult to dewater than (c) alkaline fermentation
activated sludge. (d) methane fermentation
(c) It has a comparatively low concentration
of sludge solids 04. Sludge digestion is done by the following
(d) It is bulky. bacteria
(a) aerobic (b) anaerobic
(c) facultative (d) pathogenic
05. The main useful gaseous component in the 10. An industry has a sewage treatment plant
digestion process is which produces sludge with a moisture
(a) ethane (b) methane content of 98%. With the solid content
(c) butane (d) propane remaining the same, the sludge is thickened
so that the moisture content now is 96%. If
06. For the same solid content if the quantity of the original quantity of sludge is P, what is the
sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then quantity of the thickened sludge?
the quantity, of sludge with moisture content (a) 0.98 P (b) 3 P/4 (c) 2 P/3 (d) P/2
of 96% will be
(a) X/4 (b) X/2
(c) X (d) 2X KEY for CRPQ
01. (d) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (b)
07. If the percentage decrease in the volume
of sludge is 50, the moisture content is 06. (b) 07.(a) 08.(a) 09. (c) 10. (d)
about
(a) 90-100 (b) 80-90
(c) 70-80 (d) 60-70 Septic Tanks
08. A sedimentation tank is treating 4.5 MLD of

sewage containing 275 ppm of suspended 01. The two chambered tank in which the upper
solids. The tank removes 55% of the suspended one is used for sedimentation and the lower
solids. Calculate for digestion is
i) weight of sludge produced per day (a) imhoff tank (b) septic tank
assuming moisture content of the sludge (c) detritus tank (d) sedimentation tank
as 96%
ii) if sp. gravity of the sludge is 1.02, calculate 02. The partial treatment and sedimentation unit
sludge quantity in bulk (volume) suitable for isolated building is
(a) 17015.62 kg/day; 16.68 m3/day (a) imhoff tank (b) septic tank
(b) 18210.52 kg/day; 17.73 m3/day (c) detritus tank (d) sedimentation tank
(c) 15223.62 kg/day; 13.68 m3/day
(d) 14015.23 kg/day; 15.46 m3/day 03. The process of waste water treatment in
imhoff tank is classified
09. Fresh sludge has moisture content of 99% (a) aerobic suspended culture
and after thickening its moisture content is (b) aerobic attached culture
reduced to 96%. The reduction in volume of (c) anaerobic digestion
sludge is (d) none
(a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 75% (d) 197%
04. The average normal efficiency of BOD 10. Anaerobic bacteria play the main role in
removal in imhoff tank is (a) trickling filter
(a) 95 % (b) 75 % (c) 60 % (d) 30 % (b) activated sludge process
(c) septic tank
05. The detention period in a septic tank is of the (d) sedimentation tank
order of
(a) 2 – 6 hours (b) 2 – 4 hours 11. A septic tank is
(c) 12 – 36 hours (d) 4 – 8 hours (a) a settling tank
(b) a digestion tank
06. The BOD5 of the effluents obtained from septic (c) both (a) and (b)
tanks, is of the order of (d) none
(a) 10 – 20 mg / , (b) 50 – 100 mg/ ,
KEY for CRPQ
(c) 100 – 200 mg / , (d) more than 200mg/ ,
01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (c) 04. (d) 05. (c)
07. The working conditions in Imhoff tank are
(a) aerobic only
(b) anaerobic only 06. (c) 07. (d) 08. (c) 09. (d) 10. (c)
(c) aerobic in lower compartment and
anaerobic in upper compartment 11. (c)
(d) anaerobic in lower compartment and
aerobic in upper compartment
Oxidation Ponds
08. The rate of sludge accumulation in a septic
01. In a shallow waste stabilization pond, the
tank is generally of the order of
sewage is treated by:
(a) 10 litres/person/year
(a) aerobic bacteria only
(b) 20 litres/person/day
(b) algae only
(c) 30 litres/person/year
(c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and
(d) 100 litres/person/year
algae
(d) sedimentation
09. The effluent of a septic tank is
(a) fit for discharge into any open drain
02. The waste stabilization ponds can be
(b) highly foul, containing large amount of
(a) aerobic (b) anaerobic
suspended solids, needing sedimentation
(c) facultative (d) any of these
(c) as good as that from a complete
treatment plant
(d) none of the above
03. The function of algae in an oxidation pond is

Disposal of Sewage Effluents
to
(a) Provide a mat over the surface of
the oxidation pond so as to prevent 01. Sewage can generally be disposed of without
evaporation of water any specific treatment in a water body, if the
(b) Provide oxygen for bacteria to degrade dilution factor available is
organic matter (a) more than 150
(c) Provide a greenish appearance to the (b) between 150 to 300
pond (c) more than 150
(d) Prevent the odour nuisance (d) more than 500
04. The sewage in a waste stabilization pond is
treated by 02. Complete thorough treatment should
(a) aerobic bacteria generally be given to sewage, before its
(b) algae disposal in a stream or river, if dilution factor
(c) aerobic bacteria and algae available is
(d) facultative bacteria (a) less than 150 (b) less than 250
(c) less than 300 (d) less than 350
05. For a colony of 10000 persons having
sewage flow rate of 200 , pcd with a BOD of 03. As compared to river water sea water
sewage 300 mg/ , and organic loading of contains
310 (kg/day/ha), the area of an oxidation (a) 10 % less oxygen (b) 20 % less oxygen
pond required for treating the sewage of the (c) 10 % more oxygen (d)20 % more
colony oxygen
(a) 0.2 hectares (b) 1 hectare
(c) 2 hectare (d) 6 hectares 04. Disposal of sewage causes formation of
sludge banks in
(a) rivers (b) lakes
KEY for CRPQ
(c) sea (d) rivers as well as lakes
01. (c) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (c)
05. The most common method of sewage
disposal is
(a) evaporation
(b) rapid infiltration
(c) dilution in surface water
(d) application in irrigation
06. Disposal of sewage by land treatment will be (a) 6.8 mg/l

most favorable where (b)13.85 mg/l
(a) rivers are not perennial (c) 17.65 mg/l
(b) climate is wet and rate of evaporation (d) 10.55 mg/l
is low
(c) area is hilly 12. A drain carrying sewage of BOD= 200 mg/L
(d) subsoil water table is high and flow rate of 50 m3/s joins a river whose
upstream BOD is 8 mg/L and flow rate is 500
07. Sewage disposal by dilution is most preferred m3/s. Assume immediate and complete mixing
where of drain with the river. What is the estimated
(a) the sewage arriving at outfall point is downstream BOD of the river flow?
fresh and non – septic (a) 20.4 mg/L
(b) there are strong back currents (b) 25.4 mg/L
(c) discharge in water body is low (c) 104. 4 mg/L
(d)
diluting water has low content of (d) 70.4 mg/L
dissolved oxygen (DO)
13. In a certain situation, water discharged into a
08. The natural process under which the flowing river mixes with the river water instantaneously
river gets cleaned in known as and completely. Following is the data
(a) oxidation (b) photosynthesis available
(c) reduction (d) self – purification Waste water DO = 2.00mg/ ,
09. The phenomenon by virtue of which soil pores Discharge rate = 1.10m3/s
get clogged with sewage matter is called River water DO = 8.3mg/ ,
(a) sewage farming (b) sewage bulking Flow rate = 8.70m3/s
(c) sewage sickness (d) sewage Temperature = 20oC
irrigation Initial amount of DO in the mixture of waste
and river shall be
10. The minimum dissolved oxygen required in (a) 5.3mg/ , (b) 6.5mg/ ,
water to save the aquatic life is (c) 7.6mg/ , (d) 8.4mg/ ,
(a) 1 ppm (b) 2 ppm
(c) 4 ppm (d) 8 ppm
KEY for CRPQ
11. Secondary effluent from a municipal waste
01. (d) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (c)
water plant is discharged into a stream at a
rate of 12,000 m3/d with a BOD5 of 50mg/l,
06. (a) 07. (a) 08. (d) 09. (c) 10. (c)
The stream flow is estimated to be 40,000m3/d
and the B.O.D5 of water in the stream is 3mg/l.
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c)
The B.O.D. of the mixture is
(c) 2.0 to 5.0 kg per capita per day

Solid Waste Management
(d) 4.0 to 6.0 kg per capita per day
01. The aerobic method of composting as
practiced in India is called 07. Non-disposal of solid waste may cause the
(a) Bangalore method spread of
(b) Mangalore method (a) malaria
(c) Indore method (b) typhoid
(d) Nagpur method (c) rodent related diseases
(d) dysentery
02. The anaerobic method of composting as
practiced in India is called 08. Two biodegradable components of municipal
(a) Bangalore method solid waste are
(b) Mangalore method (a) plastic and wood
(c) Indore method (b) cardboard and glass
(d) Nagpur method (c) leather and tin cans
(d) food wastes and garden trimmings
03. The method of refuse disposal involving burial
in trenches is called
(a) incineration (b) Pulverization
KEY for CRPQ
(c) Land filling (d) Composting
01. (c) 02. (a) 03. (c) 04. (a) 05. (b)
04. Sanitary land fill may cause troubles during

(a) Peak monsoon season 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (d)
(b) Peak summer season

(c) Peak winter season
(d) both peak summer and peak winter Air Pollution and Control
seasons
01. Most of the weather phenomenon take
05. Leachate is a colored liquid that comes out place in the
of (a) Stratosphere (b) Mesosphere
(a) Septic tanks (b) Sanitary landfills (c) Troposphere (d) Ionosphere
(c) Aerated lagoons (d) Compost plants
02. The following is not an air pollution control
06. The quantity of refuse produced in an equipment
average Indian city or a town is of the order (a) Cyclone separators
of (b) Electrostatic precipitators
(a) 0.5 to 0.8 kg per capita per day (c) Venturi scrubbers
(b) 1.0 to 2.0 kg per capita per day (d) Trickling filters
03. The dispersion of pollutants in atmosphere is 03. The valve fixed buy the authority at the end
maximum when of communication pipe is
(a) environmental lapse rate is greater than (a) Stop cock (b) Bib cock
adiabatic laps rate (c) Air relief valve (d) Sluice valve
(b) environmental lapse rate is less than
adiabatic laps rate 04. The right angled sleeve used to make a joint
(c) environmental lapse rate is equal to in the water main is called______
adiabatic laps rate (a) Ferrule (b) goose neck
(d) maximum mixing depth is equal to zero. (c) Drain pipe (d) sounding rod
05. For house drainage and lateral connections,

04. Two primary air pollutants are
we shall use
(a) sulphur oxide and ozone
(a) stone ware sewers
(b) nitrogen oxide and peroxyacetylnitrate.
(b) cast iron sewers
(c) sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon
(c) concrete sewers
(d) ozone and perodyacety Initrate
(d) masonry sewers
KEY for CRPQ 06. For large sewers, the maximum distance
between manholes should be
01. (c) 02. (d) 03. (a) 04. (c) (a) 75 m (b) 150 m
(c) 200 m (d) 300 m
07. A drop manhole is provided if

(a) a sewer drops from a height
House Drainage arrangements in
(b) a branch sewer discharges into the main
Buildings
sewer at a higher level
01. Pipe connecting storage tank and various (c) both (a) and (b)
fixture is called (d) none of these
(a) Service pipe (b) supply pipe
08. The equipment used for checking the levels
(c) Water pipe (d) distribution pipe
of the sewer inverts is
(a) dumpy level (b) theodolite
02. The goose neck connection is given for the
(c) boning rod (d) all of these
purpose of
(a) Reducing the cost
(b) Reduce the leakages KEY for CRPQ
(c) To increase the strength of joint
(d) To withstand stresses and strains. 01. (d) 02. (d) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (a)
06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (c)
05. A source emitting 80 dB and other emitting

Noise Pollution
60dB if put in the same location will produce
a noise of
01. If P represents the pressure of sound wave (a) 140 dB (b) 80 dB
and Pref represents the reference pressure, (c) 70 dB (d) 60 dB
then sound pressure level (SPL) is equal to
(a) 20 log10 (P/Pref)
(b) (1/20) log10 (P/Pref)
KEY for CRPQ
(c) 20 log10 (Pref/P)
(d) (1/20) log10 (Pref/P) 01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (b)

02 The reference pressure used in the
determination of sound pressure level is
(GATE-09)
(a) 20 µPa (b) 20 db
(c) 10 µPa (d) 10 db
03. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation

and Control) Rules, 2000, of the Ministry of
Environment and Forests, India, the day time
and night time noise level limits in ambient air
for residential areas expressed in db(A) Leq
are (GATE-10)
(a) 50 and 40
(b) 55 and 45
(c) 65 and 55
(d) 75 and 70
04. A 60 dB re: 20 µPa noise is accompanied

with another 60 dB re: : 20 µPa noise.
Then the total noise level in dB re: : 20 µPa is
(a) 120 (b) 63
(c) 84.85 (d) 60

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ACE

(a) 20% (b) 30%

23. According to Indian standards, 45 litres of

07. Water from infiltration wells is collected

09. A shallow well is one tapping an aquifer

10. A deep well

19. The quantity of water available from an

07. If total hardness of water is less than its total

11. In the above question (No.10) the non

20. In a water sample, CO3– – ions = 90 mg/L, (milliequivalent weight of CaCO3=50/m.eq).

(GATE-03) Ca+2 100 Ca =40

23. Results of a water sample analysis are as

06. Weir loading in m3 / day / m is

04. A sedimentation tank is to be designed to

11. A surface water treatment plant operates

06. Double filtration is used 12. Consider

29. Design six slow sand filter beds from the

30. Find number of 20 m x 10 m size slow sand

01. It is required to supply water to a population

03. For a water, the dosage at break point is 1.5

07. Which of the following is not matched

KEY for CRPQ

05. An advantage of intermittent system of

27. A scour valve, in a water distribution system, is 33. In network of pipes

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

04. A sewer which receive’s the discharge from a

(d) None of these (a) 25-30% of water supplied from water

KEY for CRPQ

full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest.

KEY for CRPQ

02. Self-cleansing velocity is Characteristics of Sewage

02. A waste water sample diluted to 100 times

10 9.1 4.4 (c) 2 – 4 min (d) 12 min

06. The grit chambers of a sewage treatment

01. The treatment in a grit chamber is

(b) preliminary treatment treatment

(c) secondary treatment (a) baffles are essential

(d) tertiary treatment (b) temperature control is an important

(c) the maximum flow velocity should be of

KEY for CRPQ

KEY for CRPQ 01. (c) 02. (a) 03. (b)

11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c)

08. A sedimentation tank is treating 4.5 MLD of

03. The function of algae in an oxidation pond is

06. Disposal of sewage by land treatment will be (a) 6.8 mg/l

(c) 2.0 to 5.0 kg per capita per day

04. Sanitary land fill may cause troubles during

(b) Peak summer season

05. For house drainage and lateral connections,

07. A drop manhole is provided if

06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (c)

05. A source emitting 80 dB and other emitting

03. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation

04. A 60 dB re: 20 µPa noise is accompanied

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