Professional Documents
Culture Documents
No. 165
Page No. 166
Contents
Water Supply Engineering
Page
S.No. Name of the Chapter
No.
01 Population Forecasting & Water Demands 167 – 169
02 Sources and Conveyance of Water 170 – 171
03 Quality of Water 172 – 179
04 Plain Sedimentation 180 – 182
05 Coagulation 183 – 184
06 Filtration 185 – 187
07 Disinfection 188 – 192
08 Miscellaneous Water Treatment 193 – 194
09 Distribution System 195 – 197
10 Water Supply Arrangements 198 – 199
Waste Water Engineering
Introduction to Waste Water Engineering
01 200 – 201
and Estimation of DWF & WWF
02 Design of Sewers 202 – 204
03 Characteristics of Sewage 205 – 209
04 Treatment of Sewage 210 – 212
05 Sludge Digestion 213 – 215
06 Septic Tanks 216 – 217
07 Trickling Filters 218 – 219
08 Activated Sludge Process 220 – 221
09 Oxidation Ponds 222 – 223
10 Disposal of Sewage Effluents 224 – 226
11 Solid Waste Management 227 – 229
12 Air Pollution and Control 230 – 233
House Drainage Arrangements in
13 234 – 234
Buildings
14 Noise Pollution 235 – 235
15 Environmental Impact Assessments 236 – 237
Chapter 1 Population Forecasting & Water
09. The distribution mains in a water supply (a) Arithmetical increase method
scheme are designed for (AEE-2007, 2008) (b) Geometrical increase method
(a) Average daily demand (c) Incremental increase method
(b) Maximum hourly demand (d) Graphical method
(c) Maximum daily demand + fire demand
(d) Greater of (b) and (c) 14. The recommended maximum water supply
needs as per CPHEEO guidelines for
10. As per code, water required per head per day metropolitan and mega cities where sewerage
for average domestic consumption is system is existing or contemplated, in litres
(AEE 2004, Managers-2008) per capita per day (lpcd), is
(a) 60 liters (b) 80 liters (APPSC AEE Prelims-2016)
(c) 100 liters (d) 135 liters (a) 45 (b) 70 (c) 136 (d) 150
11. If ‘V’ is total consumption of water in liters 15. The peak factor suggested by CPHEEO for
for ‘N’ individuals, the per capita computing carrying capacity in the design of
consumption (Q) (Managers-2008) sewers for the contributory population of
(a) Q = V/15N (b) Q = V/20N 20,000 is (APPSC AEE Prelims-2016)
(c) Q = V/30N (d) Q = V/365N (a) 2.00 (b) 2.25 (c) 2.50 (d) 3.00
12. The population of a town in three consecutive 16. The Freeman’s formula to estimate the
years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. quantity of water required to meet the fire
The population of the town in the fourth demand (Q) of a city with a population of P
consecutive year according to geometrical (in thousands) is________
increase method is (Observers-2013) (AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
(a) 9500 (b) 9800 (a) 3861 P (1 0.01 P ) lpm
(c) 10920 (d) 10100
(b) 5663 P lpd
P
n (c) 1136.5 10 lpm
r 5
13. The formula Pn P1 is used for
100
(d) 2650( P ) lpm
forecasting population by
(TSPSC AE 2015)
Solutions
12. Ans: (c) 13. Ans: (b) 14. Ans: (d) 15. Ans: (d)
Sol:
Increase 16. Ans: (c)
% Increase in
in
S.No Population Population
Population
(r)
(x)
P1 5000
2000
2000 100 40%
5000
P2 7000
1400
1400 100 20%
7000
P3 8400
01. A tube-well that supplies water to a surface 06. Identify the incorrect statement:
canal during non-monsoon season is known (AEE-2006)
as (AEE 2003) (a) Ground water has carbon dioxide and
(a) direct irrigation tube-well hardness.
(b) stand-by tube-well (b) Lake water at the bottom has low D.O.
(c) augmentation tube-well and colour.
(d) indirect irrigation tube-well (c) Canal water has low organic content and
high D.O.
02. For the least effect on the water table, the (d) River water in floods has high turbidity
location of tubewells should be one per every and low D.O.
(AEE-2004)
(a) 0.50 sq km (b) 0.75 sq km 07. Most important source of water for public
(c) 1.50 sq km (d) 2.50 sq km water supply is (Managers-2008)
(a) streams (b) rivers
03. The highest yield of water can be expected (c) ponds (d) lakes
from (AEE-2004)
(a) gravity springs (b) surface springs 08. Consider the following statements:
(c) artesian wells (d) aquifuge While deciding to locate an intake structure
for a city situated on a river bank, intake for
04. Perched aquifers are found (AEE-2004)
water supply should be located
(a) at ground surface
(Observers-2013)
(b) below ground surface but above water
1. In deep water
table
2. Sufficiently away from shore lines
(c) below ground water table
3. Upstream of the populated city
(d) at ground water table level
4. Near navigational channel
05. Underground water is obtained from
(AEE-2004) (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) rivers (b) lakes (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) reservoirs (d) springs
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Solutions
01. Ans: (d) 02. Ans: (a) 03. Ans: (c) 04. Ans: (b)
05. Ans: (d) 06. Ans: (b) 07. Ans: (b) 08. Ans: (b)
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Chapter 3 Quality of Water
01. The effect of dissolved oxygen is to cause 05. Which of the following is not a water borne
(a) Corrosion of metal (b) Turbidity disease?
(c) Hardness (d) Softening (a) Dysentery (b) cholera
(c) Typhoid (d) Malaria
02. Bacteriological examination of drinking water
for E. coli is performed because 06. The maximum permissible colour for
(a) they are pathogenic causing intestinal domestic water supply on platinum cobalt
diseases scale is equal to (AEE _2001)
(b) their presence indicates viral (a) 20 ppm (b) 40 ppm
contamination of pathogens (c) 60 ppm (d) None
(c) they are used as indicating organisms for
probable presence of pathogens 07. One of the following is the turbidity
(d) they represent the unique indicator permissible for drinking water (AEE_2001)
organisms for sewage pollution (a) 5 ppm to 10 ppm (b) 10 to 15 ppm
(c) 15 to 20 ppm (d) None of the above
03. The arsenic in drinking water should not be
more then 08. Permissible chloride limit in potable water is
(a) 0.1 ppm (b) 0.05 ppm above (AEE_2001)
(c) 1.0 ppm (d) 2.1 ppm (a) 250 mg/litre (b) 250 ppm
(c) Both (d) None
04. The bacteria which can survive with or 09. What does pH value of water indicate?
without free oxygen, is (TSPSE_2001)
(a) Aerobic bacteria (a) Acidity (b) Alkalinity
(b) Anaerobic bacteria (c) Both (d) None
(c) Facultative bacteria 10. E-coli test for examination of water is a
(d) Coliform bacteria (AEE_2001)
(a) Presumptive test (b) Confirmed test
(c) Completed test (d) All the above
11. One of the following is not an impurity if (c) about the same dissolved oxygen in
present in water (2001) summer and winter
(a) Algae (b) Fungi (d) the least amount of dissolved oxygen
(c) Suspended solids (d) Suspended liquids during floods
12. Electrical conductivity of water 16. The maximum permissible colour for
(AEE 2003) domestic water supply on cobalt scale is
(a) decreases with total dissolved solids (AEE-2004, 2009)
(TDS) (a) 5 ppm (b) 10 ppm
(b) increases with TDS (c) 12 ppm (d) 15 ppm
(c) decreases initially and then increases
(d) increases initially and then decreases 17. The maximum permissible nitrite content in
public water supply (AEE-2004)
13. The permissible limit of fluorides in drinking (a) 0.20 ppm (b) 1.00 ppm
water is (AEE 2003) (c) 3.25 ppm (d) Zero
(a) 1.0 ppm (b) 3.0
(c) 5.0 ppm (d) 10.0 ppm 18. The hardness of water which is due to
presence of bicarbonates of calcium and
14. E-coli is determined to examine the quality of magnesium is known as
water because (AEE 2003) (a) temporary hardness
(a) it is pathogenic (b) permanent hardness
(b) it indicates viral contamination (c) carbonate hardness
(c) it indicates pathogenic bacterial presence (d) both (a) and (c)
(d) it is a unique indicator organism for
sewage pollution 19 MPN is a count for (AEE-2006)
(a) E. Coli (b) Hardness
(c) Colour (d) Suspended solids
15. Under natural flow conditions, a polluted
river will contain (AEE 2003)
20. The starch iodide test is performed to test
(a) more dissolved oxygen in summer than
(AEE-2006)
in winter
(a) Residual iodine (b) Residual bromine
(b) more dissolved oxygen in winter
(c) Residual chlorine (d) Sulphates
than Summer
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21. A simple instrument used for the 26. Which one of the following would contain
measurement of colour, in water is called water with the maximum amount of turbidity?
(AEE-2007) (AEE-2008 & 2012)
(a) Spectrometer (b) Tintometer (a) Oceans (b) Lakes
(c) Turbidimeter (d) Nephelometer (c) Rivers (d) Wells
22. The colour of water for domestic supplies on 27. The chemical which impact(s) pseudo
standard platinum-cobalt scale should not hardness to water is: (AEE-2008)
exceed (AEE-2007 & 2009) (a) Calcium only
(a) 10 units (b) 15 units (b) Magnesium only
(c) 20 units (d) 25 units (c) Calcium and magnesium
(d) Sodium
23. The threshold odour number (TON) for a
water sample of 40 ml, diluted to standard 28. The permissible limit of nitrate content in
200 ml mixture in which odour is just barely potable water is:
detectable to the sense of smell, is (AEE-2008, Lecturers 2013)
(AEE-2007) (a) 40 ppm (b) 45 ppm
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 50 ppm (d) 55 ppm
25. When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 30. Dissolved impurities consist of
1.5 mg/l or so, the disease that may be caused (Managers-2008)
is (AEE-2007) (a) bacteria (b) silt
(a) Methemoglobinemia (c) fungi (d) iron
(b) Fluorosis
(c) Dental caries in children 31. The presence of calcium and magnesium
(d) Poliomyelitis chloride in water causes (Managers-2008)
(a) hardness (b) softness
(c) turbidity (d) bad taste
32. Tularemia disease is due to: (AEE-2009) 37. Temporary hardness in water is caused by the
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus presence of (AEE-2012)
(c) Protozoa (d) All of the above (a) Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
(b) Sulphates of Ca and Mg
33. The maximum permissible limit for fluoride (c) Chlorides of Ca and Mg
in drinking water is (AEE-2012) (d) Nitrates of Ca and Mg
(a) 0.1 mg/litre (b) 1.5 mg/litre
(c) 5 mg/litre (d) 10 mg/litre 38. Blue baby disease (methaemoglobinemia)
caused in children by the presences of excess
34. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic (AEE-2012)
acid) solution is used to determine the (a) chlorides (b) nitrates
(AEE-2004, 2012) (c) fluorides (d) lead
(a) hardness of water
(b) turbidity of water 39. Two samples of water, A and B pH values of
(c) dissolved oxygen in water 4.4 and 6.4 respectivley. How many times
(d) residual chlorine in water more acidic is sample A than sample B?
(AEE-2012)
35. Turbidity is measured on (AEE-2012) (a) 0 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 200
(a) Standard silica scale
40. Dechlorination of water is achieved by adding
(b) Standard cobalt scale
(AEE-2012)
(c) Standard platinum scale
(a) Sodium thiosulphate
(d) Platinum cobalt scale
(b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Sodium biosulphate
36. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of
(d) None of these
(AEE-2012)
(a) dissolved oxygen
41. If the total hardness of water is greater than its
(b) residual chlorine
total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will
(c) biochemical oxygen demand
be equal to (Observers-2013)
(d) none of these
(a) total alkalinity
(b) total hardness
(c) total hardness-total alkalinity
(d) Non-carbonate hardness
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42. Activated carbon is used to remove 47. Odour and taste is controlled by
(TSPSC AEE 2015) (TSPSC AE 2015)
(a) Iron and manganese (b) Hardness (a) Disinfection
(c) Dissolved salts (d) Odour and taste (b) Aeration
(c) Coagulation
43. If total hardness of water is less than its total (d) Soda-lime process
alkalinity the non-carbonate hardness will be
equal to (TSPSC AEE Manager 2015) 48. A water borne disease is (TSPSC AE 2015)
(a) zero (a) Malaria (b) Plague
(b) Total hardness (c) Dysentery (d) Encephalitis
(c) Total alkalinity-total hardness
(d) Total alkalinity 49. The permissible turbidity in mg/l for potable
water is (TSPSC AE 2015)
44. If for diluting 25 ml of water sample 175 ml (a) 30 – 40 (b) 20 – 30
of taste free water is required to be added to (c) 10 – 15 (d) 5 – 10
make the water sample to just lose its taste
then the Flavour Threshold Number (FTN) 50. Turbidity of water is an indication of the
will be (TSPSC AEE Manager 2015) presence of (TS GENCO 2015)
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 6 (a) dissolved solids
(b) dissolved gases
45. Hardness is expressed in mg/l as (c) floating solids
(TSPSC AE 2015) (d) suspended inorganic matter
(a) Ca(HCO3)2 (b) CaCO3
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaSO4 51. Blue baby disease may be caused in infants
due to drinking water containing higher
46. Presence of chlorides and sulphates of concentrations of
calcium and magnesium in water causes (APPSC AEE Mains-2016)
(TSPSC AE 2015) (a) nitrates (b) arsenic
(a) Acidity (c) lead (d) nitrites
(b) Temporary hardness
(c) Permanent hardness
(d) Softness
52. Dental caries, a disease caused by drinking 54. In split treatment process often used to soften
water, is due to (APPSC AEE Prelims-2016) the water with high magnesium hardness, the
(a) Excess of fluorine fraction of total flow bypassed is given by
(b) Absence of fluorine (Mg1 is the magnesium concentration
(c) Excess of nitrates remaining in the fraction of water receiving
(d) Presence of lead first stage treatment)
(AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
53. The observed BOD, of a wastewater is
determined as 150 mg/l at 20C. The reaction Mg f Mg r Mg f Mg 1
(a) (b)
rate constant is 0.23 per day. What is the Mg r Mg 1 Mg r Mg 1
BODs at 20C? (AE (ENV) Mains-2017) Mg f Mg 1 Mg r Mg 1
(c) (d)
(a) 210 mg/l (b) 220 mg/l Mg r Mg f mg f Mg 1
(c) 185 mg/l (d) 168 mg/l
Solutions
01. Ans: (a) 02. Ans: (c) 03. Ans: (b) 25. Ans: (b)
Sol:
04. Ans: (c) 05. Ans: (d) 06. Ans: (a) Fluoride < 1 ppm, causes formation of
cavities in the teeth
07. Ans: (a) 08. Ans: (c) 09. Ans: (c) Fluoride > 1.5 ppm, causes fluorosis and
deformation of bones
10. Ans: (d) 11. Ans: (a) 12. Ans: (b)
26. Ans: (c) 27. Ans: (d)
13. Ans: (a)
28. Ans: (b)
14. Ans: (c) Sol:
Sol: Nitrates concentration more than 45 ppm
E-coli is the indicator organism during causes blue baby disease (or)
Biological quality analysis of water to deflect methaemoglobinemia in infants.
probable presence of pathogenic bacteria.
29. Ans: (d) 30. Ans: (d) 31. Ans: (a)
15. Ans: (a) 16. Ans: (d) 17.. Ans: (d)
32. Ans: (a)
18. Ans: (d) 19. Ans: (a) 20. Ans: (c)
33. Ans: (b)
21. Ans: (b) 22. Ans: (b) Sol:
Flouride concentration greater than 1.5 mg/l
23. Ans: (b) in water causes fluorosis
Sol:
A B 200 34. Ans: (a)
TON 5
A 40
H
A
10 4.4
100
48. Ans: (c) 49. Ans: (d) 50. Ans: (d)
H
B 10 6.4
51. Ans: (a) 52. Ans: (b) 53. Ans: (c)
[H ]A = 100 [H+]B
+
09. The ratio of design discharge to surface area 13. Which of the following treatment processes
of a sedimentation tank is known as its are necessary for removing suspended solids
(Observers-2013) from water? (TS GENCO 2015)
(a) Surface loading (b) Overflow velocity (a) Coagulation (b) Flocculation
(c) Overflow rate (d) All of the above (c) Sedimentation (d) All of these
10. The rate of settling of a particle depends upon 14. Sedimentation is the process related to
the (TSPSC AEE 2015) (APPSC AEE Mains-2016)
(a) specific gravity of particle (a) Bed material carried by flowing water
(b) viscosity of water, specific gravity and (b) Floating material in rivers
shape and size of particles (c) Cutting land for channelling
(c) shape and size of particle (d) Seepage into Embankments
(d) viscosity of water
15. Which one of the following is the Newton’s
11. A sedimentation tank 6 m wide, 15 m long equation for setting velocity of a discrete
and 3 m water depth is treating 2MLD of spherical particle under turbulent settling
2
water. The surface overflow rate in lit/hr/m is conditions? (where S is the specific gravity of
(TSPSC AEE Manager 2015) particle, d is the diameter of the particle, Cd is
(a) 748 (b) 926 the drag coefficient, and is the dynamic
(c) 1028 (d) 858 viscosity) (AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
1 g 1 f
(a) (S 1)d 2 (b) (S 1)d
12. The efficiency of a sediment removal in a 18 18
continous sedimentation tank does not depend (c) 3.33g (S 1)d (d) 3.33gC d (S 1)d
upon the (TSPSC AEE Manager 2015)
(a) Depth of the tank
(b) Width of the tank
(c) Length of the tank
(d) Discharge through the tank
Solutions
01. For removing the finely suspended matter 06. The most common coagulant is(AEE-2006)
from the water, the process adopted is (a) acid (b) soap solutions
(a) Aeration (c) bleaching power (d) alum
(b) Sedimentation along with coagulation
(c) Permutit method 07. In flocculator, the detention time normally is
(d) Screening (AEE-2006)
(a) 1 min (b) 30 min
02. The normal dose of alum in treatment of (c) 2 hours (d) 1 day
water is
(a) 2 to 3 mg/lt (b) 6 to 8 mg/lt 08. The overflow rate of a flocculator clarifier is
(c) 50 to 100 mg/lt (d) 250 to 500 mg/lt 60 lit/m2-min. If the side water depth or depth
of tank is 3.50 m, then the detention period is
03. Alum as coagulant is found to be most (polytechnic Lecturers-2007)
effective in the pH range of (a) 0.96 hour (b) 0.86 hour
(a) 3.5 to 6.5 (b) 6.5 to 8.5 (c) 0.46 hour (d) None of these
(c) 8.5 to 10.5 (d) 1.5 to 12.5
09. Alum increases: (AEE-2009)
04. The detention period in coagulation tanks is (a) Carbonates in water
usually kept as (b) Sulphates in water
(a) 1 to 2 min (b) 30 to 45 min (c) Acidity of water
(c) 2 to 6 hours (d) 2 to 6 days (d) Hardness of water
05. The normal values of overflow rate in 10. The coagulant widely used for sewage
2
lit/hr/m for sedimentation tank using treatment, is (TS GENCO 2015)
coagulants (AEE-2004) (a) Alum (b) Ferric sulphate
(a) 750-1000 (b) 1000-1250 (c) Ferric chloride (d) Chlorinated copperas
(c) 1250-1500 (d) 1500-2000
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Solutions
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Chapter 6 Filtration
01. Air binding in a rapid sand filter is due to 06. ‘Schmutzdecke’ is formed in one of the
(a) excessive depth of water over the sand bed following water treatment unit:
(b) excessive loss of head (AEE-2008)
(c) excessive negative pressure (a) Sedimentation tank (b) Rapid sand filter
(d) excessive turbidity (c) Coagulation tank (d) Slow sand filter
02. Backwashing is done for (AEE-2006) 07. The rate of filtration of pressure filter is
(a) Sedimentation tank (b) Slow sand filter (Observers-2013)
(c) Rapid sand filter (d) Pressure filter (a) Less than that of slow sand filters
(b) In between the filtration rate of slow sand
03. Slow sand filters have to be cleaned every
filters and rapid sand filters
(AEE-2007)
(c) Greater than that of rapid sand filters
(a) Two days (b) Two weeks
(d) equal to that of slow and filters
(c) Month (d) One to three months
04. The percentage of filtered water which is used 08. Uniformity coefficient of filter sand is given
for backwashing in rapid sand filters is about by (Observers-2013)
(AEE-2007) D 50 D 50
(a) (b)
(a) 0.2 to 0.6% (b) 0.6 to 1% D15 D10
(c) 2 to 5% (d) 6 to 8% D 60 D 60
(c) (d)
D15 D10
05. The cleaning of slow sand filter is done by:
(AEE-2008) 09. Which of the following is not correctly
(a) reversing the direction of flow of water matched? (Observers-2013)
(b) passing a solution of alum and lime (a) Aerator-Excess CO2 and H2S
through the filter (b) Rapid sand filter-Suspended matter
(c) scraping off the top layers of sand and (c) Sedimentation tank – Settleable and
admitting water colloidal matter
(d) passing air through the filter (d) Slow sand filter-Hardness
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10. Rapid sand filters can remove bacteria as 13. The Carmen-Kozeny equation to compute the
much as (Lecturers-2013) friction loss through filters used for water
(a) 70-80% (b) 80-90% treatment consisting of bed of particles of
(c) 90-95% (d) 98-99% uniform size dp is ______ (where f is the
friction factor, L is the depth of the filter, e is
11. Slow sand filters require the porosity of the bed, Vs is the filtering
(APPSC AEE Mains-2016) velocity, dp is the diameter of the filter media
(a) Medium sand media grains, and g is the acceleration due to
(b) Coarser sand media gravity) (AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
(c) Any type of sand media
(d) Finer sand f ' L(1 e) m
(a) 1
gd p w
12. Design period for slow sand filters as
f ' L(1 e) 2 Vs2
suggested by CPHEEO is (b)
e 2 gd p
(APPSC AEE Mains-2016)
(a) 25 years (b) 50 years f ' L(1 e)Vs2
(c)
e 3 gd p
(c) 10 years (d) 30 years
' Le 3 Vs2
(d)
(1 e)g d p
Solutions
01. Ans: (c) 02. Ans: (c) 03. Ans: (d) 09. Ans: (d)
Sol:
04. Ans: (c) 05. Ans: (c) 06. Ans: (d) Hardness is removed by
(a) Boiling of water
07. Ans: (c) (b) Excess lime treatment
Sol: (c) Softening methods like
Rate of filtration for (i) zeolite process
Slow sand filters : 100 – 200 l/hr/m2 (ii) soda ash process
2
Rapid sand filters : 3000 – 6000 l/hr/m (iii) lime soda method
2
Pressure filters : 15000 l/hr/m
10. Ans: (b)
08. Ans: (d) Sol:
Rapid sand filters are less efficient in removal
of bacteria, but more efficient in removal of
colour & turbidity due to high ROF.
01. Chlorine is the most efficient 06. The following is not a method of disinfection
(a) Disinfectant (b) Sterilizer (AEE-2006)
(c)Break-point item (d) Infectant (a) Filtration
(b) Boiling
02. The pathogens can be killed by (c) Ultraviolet ray treatment
(a) nitrification (b) chlorination (d) Chlorination
(c) oxidation (d) None of the above
07. If the dose of chlorine is to be 0.5 ppm and
03. The orthotolidine test indicates residual the bleaching powder contains 30% of
chlorine when colour of the sample after test available chlorine, the quantity of bleaching
is powder required for disinfecting 4 million
(a) yellow (b) blue litres per day is (AEE-2006)
(c) green (d) red (a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg
(c) 7.76 kg (d) 6.67 kg
04. Water can be dechlorinated by adding
08. A city supply of 15000 cubic meters of water
(AEE 2003)
per day is treated with a chlorine dosage of
(a) sodium thiosulphate
0.5 ppm. For this purpose the requirement of
(b) sodium sulphate
25% bleaching powder per day should be
(c) sodium hexametaphosphate
(AEE-2007)
(d) sodium bisulphate
(a) 300 kg (b) 75 kg
(c) 30 kg (d) 7.5 kg
05. In chlorination (AEE-2006)
(i) Chlorine is the most efficient sterilizer. 09. Chlorine can be applied in water as
(ii) Quantity of chlorine added in (polytechnic Lecturers-2007)
superchlorination is beyond break point. (a) bleaching powder only
Correct answer is (b) bleaching powder or chloramines
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) chloramines only
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) none of the above (d) None of these
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: 189 : Disinfection
10. After passing through which water treatment 14. Which of the following is not a dechlorinating
unit, the turbidity of water is maximum: agent? (AEE-2009)
(AEE-2008) (a) Sodium chloride
(a) Chlorination (b) Activated carbon
(b) Primary sedimentation (c) Sodium thiosulphate
(c) Flocculation basin (d) Potassium dichromate
(d) Secondary sedimentation
15. Swimming pool water requires:
11. The chlorine demand of a water sample was (AEE-2009)
found to be 0.2 mg/l. The amount of (a) Dual chlorination (b) Superchlorination
bleaching powder containing 30% available (c) Prechlorination (d) Dechlorination
chlorine to be added to treat one litre of such
a water sample is: (AEE-2008 & 2003) 16. Disinfection of drinking water involves
(a) 0.6 mg (b) 0.30 mg removal of : (AEE-2009)
(c) 0.367 mg (d) 1.33 mg (a) Oxygen (b) Turbidity
(c) Bacteria (d) Odour
12. The chemical employed for dechlorination of
water is: (AEE-2008) 17. The chemical generally used to control algae
(a) Sodium sulphite is: (AEE-2009)
(b) Sodium bicarbonate (a) alum (b) bleaching powder
(c) Calcium carbonate (c) copper sulphate (d) Sodium chloride
(d) Hydrogen peroxide
18. The chlorine demand of a water sample was
13. Chlorides from water are removed by: found to be 0.5 mg/l. The amount of
(AEE-2008) bleaching powder containing 30% available
(a) Lime soda process chlorine to be added to treat one litre of such
(b) Reverse osmosis a water sample is (Observers-2013)
(c) Cation exchange process (a) 1.67 mg (b) 1.92 mg
(d) Chemical coagulation (c) 1.01 mg (d) 1.36 mg
19. When chlorine is added beyond the break- 22. The chlorine residue to be maintained in
point the process of treating the water is disinfection of a new water distribution
known as (TSPSC AEE 2015) system is (AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
(a) Pain chlorination (b) Super chlorination (a) 25 mg/l (b) 14 mg/l
(c) Dechlorination (d) Post chlorination (c) 50 mg/l (d) 2 mg/l
20. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in 23. The application of hypocholrites for
water treatment disinfection process in water treatment tends
(TSPSC AEE Manager 2015 & Lectures 2013) to (AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
(a) is reduced by increase in pH value
(b) is increased by increase in pH value (a) lower the pH and drive the production of
(c) remains constant at all pH values less effective OCl
(d) is not dependant on pH value (b) rise the pH and drive the production of
effective HOCl–
21. Super chlorination is done (TSPSCAE 2015) (c) rise the pH and drive the production of
(a) In day to day practice less effective OCl–
(b) During an epidemic (d) lower the pH and drive the producton of
(c) During winter effective HOCl–
(d) During summer
Solutions
01. Ans: (a) 02. Ans: (b) 03. Ans: (a) 08. Ans: (c)
Sol:
04. Ans: (a) Quantity of Bleaching Powder (kg)
100
= Quantity of water cl2 demand
05. Ans: (b) %c 2
Sol: = 15000 103 0.5 106 100/25
Chlorine is able to kill Harmful bacteria only. = 30 kg
It does not show any action on harmless
bacteria. So, chlorine is a disinfectant. It is not 09. Ans (b)
a sterilizer. Sol:
The agent which kill both harmful & harmless Chloramines are the combined Cl2 forms
bacteria to create zero bacterial condition is a which are resulted due to reaction of chlorine
sterilizer. with ammonia. It carries some disinfecting
If residual Cl2 concentration is 0.2 mg/L (or) properties but less effective.
less, the condition is break point and
additional chlorination to be carried out to rise 10. Ans: (a)
residual chlorine is super chlorination.
11. Ans: (a)
06. Ans: (a) Sol:
Quantity of Bleaching powder
07. Ans: (d) 100
= Quantity of water cl2 demand
Sol: %c 2
Quantity of Bleaching powder required 100
1 0.2 0.6 mg
100 30
= Quantity of water cl2 demand
%c 2
100
4 10 6 0.5 10 6
30
= 6.67 kg
12. Ans: (a) 13. Ans: (b) 14 Ans: (d) 19. Ans: (b)
15. Ans: (b) 16. Ans: (c) 17. Ans: (c) 20. Ans: (a)
Sol:
18. Ans: (a) With increasing pH value HOCl concentration
Sol: reduces, HOCl is more efficiency disinfectant
Amount of Bleaching powder than OCl –. It is 80 times more efficient than
= Quantity of water Cl2 demand OCl–
100
% of C 2 21. Ans: (b) 22. Ans: (d) 23. Ans: (a)
100
Amount of BP = 1 0.5
30
= 1.66 ≃ 1.67 mg
01. The mixture of silicates of sodium and 06. Which of the following treatments reduces
aluminium is called salinity of water? (AEE-2006)
(a) Zeolite gelatin (b) sulphonated sand (a) Filtration and reverse osmosis
(c) Zeolite sand (d) Loam sand (b) Reverse osmosis and electrodialysis
(c) Sedimentation and filtration
02. Reverse osmosis process is used for (d) Flocculation and electrodialysis
(a) Desalinization (b) Fluoridation
(c) Distillation (d) Ionization 07. Which of the following treatments reduce
salinity of water? (AEE-2007)
03. Permanent hardness of water may be removed (a) Flocculation and sedimentation
by (b) Filtration
(a) lime-soda process (b) adding lime water (c) Reverse osmosis
(c) boiling (d) All of the above (d) Fluoridation
04. Zero hardness of water is achieved by 08. The process of desalination which makes use
(a) using lime soda process of microporous membranes is (AEE-2007)
(b) excess lime treatment (a) Electro-dialysis (b) Solar distillation
(c) ion exchange method (c) Aeration (d) Filtration
(d) using excess alum dosage
09. A device for mixing air with water is called
05. Which of the following pairs is correctly (AEE-2007)
matched? (AEE 2003) (a) Eductor (b) Drafter
(a) Lime soda process-fluoride removal (c) Air meter (d) Hydrant
(b) Nalgonda technique-softening
(c) Aeration-coagulation 10. Activated carbon is used in water treatment
(d) Ozonation-disinfection for removing (TS GENCO 2015)
(a) Colour (b) Taste and Odour
(c) Turbidity (d) Corrosiveness
11. Treatment required for raw water containing 13. The mechanism involved in the removal of
only carbon dioxide and odourous gases is undesirable constituents such as organic
(APPSC AEE Mains-2016) contaminants from water using activated
(a) Aeration followed by disinfection carbon is (AE (ENV) Mains-2017)
(b) Chlorination only (a) Absorption (b) Chemical oxidation
(c) Softening and chlorination (c) Adsorption (d) Ion exchange
(d) Plain sedimentation and chlorination
Solutions
ACE Engineering Academy Hyderabad | Delhi | Bhopal| Pune | Bhubaneswar | Bengaluru | Chennai | Vijayawada | Visakhapatnam | Tirupati
Chapter 9 Distribution System
01. A goose neck is used in service pipes in 05. A water-closet means (AEE-2006)
order to (AEE 2003) (a) a latrine (b) group of latrines
(a) control discharge (c) a bath-room (d) combined (a) and (c)
(b) prevent damage due to unequal settlement
(c) control pressure in service pipe 06. Hardy Cross method is used to design
(d) increase service pipe capacity (AEE-2006)
(a) Sedimentation tank (b) Pipe network
02. The function of a sluice valve is to (c) Septic tank (d) Sewer
(AEE 2003)
(a) control flow through pipe lines 07. Distribution outlet is said to be proportional,
(b) release accumulated air if the flexibility is: (AEE-2009)
(c) remove silt accumulated in the pipes (a) Equal to unity
(d) reduce water hammer effects (b) Less than unity
(c) Slightly greater than unity
03. A scour valve (AEE-2004) (d) Greater than 2
(a) removes silt in a pipe
(b) releases the accumulated air 08. The suitable layout of distribution system for
(c) controls water flow a city with roads of rectangular pattern is
(d) improves water quality (AEE-2012)
(a) grid iron system (b) dead end system
04. When the rate of demand is lower than the (c) ring system (d) radial system
natural stream flow, the mass curve will be
(AEE-2004) 09. The layout of distribution system in which
(a) flatter than the demand line water flows towards the outer periphery is the
(b) equal to the demand line (AEE 2007 Lecturers-2013)
(c) steeper than the demand line (a) ring system (b) dead end system
(d) fluctuating about the demand line (c) radial system (d) grid iron system
Solutions
01. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge 05. Which of the following statement is correct?
from sanitary fittings like bathrooms and (AEE 2006)
kitchens is called (a) Waste pipe carries waste water
(a) waste pipe (b) soil pipe (b) Soil pipe carries liquid wastes including
(c) vent pipe (d) antisiphonage pipe human excreta.
(c) anti siphonage pipe carries liquid Wastes
02. In transition of sewers from smaller diameter that do not include human excreta.
sewer to larger diameter sewers, the (d) Vent pipe prevents vacuum and excessive
continuity of sewers is maintained at the pressures.
(a) bottom of the concrete bed of sewers
(b) inverts of the sewers 06. Boning rod is used in (AEE 2006)
(c) crowns of the sewers (a) laying of water supply lines
(d) hydraulic gradients of the sewers (b) sedimentation
(c) filtration
03. Traps are used in household drainage systems
(d) laying sewers
to
(a) prevent entry of foul gases in houses
07. The valve provided after the pump in the
(b) restrict the flow of water
rising mains to prevent the back flow of
(c) provide partial vacuum
water, when the pump is stopped, is known as
(d) trap the solid wastes.
(AEE CE/ME-2008)
04. The water supply in a house begins with the (a) sluice valve (b) air relief valve
connection of service pipe with the municipal (c) reflux or check valve (d) air inlet valve
water mains. The connection comprises
(AEE 2006) 08. The trap used for a water closet is called
(i) Goose neck (ii) Stop-cock (AEE-2012)
(iii) Ferrule (iv) Water meter (a) Gully trap (b) Anti-siphon trap
The correct sequence of connection is, (c) Intercepting trap (d) P-trap
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) (iv), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
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: 199 : Water Supply Arrangements
Solutions