Solutions Open Mock Clat Offline PDF

SOLUTIONS OPEN MOCK CLAT OFFLINE 2020
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTIONS

OPEN MOCK CLAT OFFLINE
1 B 16 C 31 A 46 A 61 B 76 A 91 C 106 D 121 C 136 A
2 C 17 D 32 A 47 A 62 D 77 A 92 B 107 A 122 D 137 C
3 A 18 A 33 A 48 B 63 B 78 A 93 A 108 C 123 B 138 B
4 C 19 C 34 B 49 C 64 B 79 D 94 D 109 A 124 A 139 D
5 B 20 B 35 B 50 A 65 B 80 C 95 C 110 C 125 C 140 D
6 C 21 C 36 A 51 B 66 A 81 B 96 C 111 C 126 C 141 B
7 C 22 A 37 A 52 A 67 B 82 B 97 C 112 C 127 D 142 C
8 A 23 B 38 D 53 D 68 C 83 D 98 B 113 C 128 C 143 C
9 C 24 A 39 B 54 D 69 B 84 A 99 A 114 A 129 D 144 A
10 C 25 C 40 C 55 B 70 C 85 D 100 D 115 B 130 A 145 B
11 B 26 A 41 D 56 C 71 D 86 A 101 D 116 A 131 B 146 B
12 A 27 B 42 D 57 A 72 C 87 C 102 C 117 A 132 D 147 D
13 D 28 B 43 C 58 D 73 D 88 C 103 A 118 D 133 C 148 D
14 D 29 D 44 A 59 D 74 D 89 C 104 B 119 B 134 D 149 C
15 B 30 D 45 A 60 B 75 D 90 B 105 C 120 C 135 B 150 C
COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 1

(H.O): SB TOWER, 3RD FLOOR, NEAR IOC PETROL PUMP, SAHAKAR MARG, JAIPUR

SECTION – I ENGLISH
1. (B) The first paragraph of the passage clearly mentions the two problems faced by
archeology and the author then moves on to explaining the way through which
these two problems can be contained.
2. (C) Option (a) is mentioned in the passage as the passage talks about the presence
of bidders in the illegal market. Option (b) can be inferred from the last part of
the third passage. Option (d) can be directly inferred from the line “The
basements of museums are …discovered in the future.” Mentioned in the fifth
paragraph of the passage. The passage nowhere talks about the quality of
artifacts.
3. (A) Refer to the fifth paragraph of the passage the lines “There is not enough
money even to …never been discovered” clearly support option (a).
4. (C) Option (a) is mentioned in the passage to show the large supply of these
artifacts and not to compare their value. Option (b) can be eliminated because
dearth of money causes a problem for cataloguing. Option (d) is not mentioned
anywhere in the passage. The information given in the fourth paragraph clearly
supports option (c).
5. (B) Refer to the last three lines of the last paragraph of the passage, “Who would
want an unmarked pot when another…archaeologist who excavated it?”. This
makes option (b) correct.
6. (C) The third paragraph of the passage clearly justifies that artifacts that would
have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors.
7. (C) Refer to the third and fourth paragraphs of the passage. It is clearly implied
that archaeologists would be able to publish the results of their excavations
more frequently than they currently do.
8. (A) The question requires you to recognize which of the choices is NOT mentioned
in the passage as a way in which senior managers use intuition. The passage
does not mention stipulating goals.
9. (C) Option (c) is the best answer. The author asserts that the writers “display a
poor grasp of what intuition is”. The next paragraph presents a view that,
according to the author of the passage, characterizes intuition more accurately
than the writers on management do. Isenberg’s research is specifically
described as showing the ways in which managers use intuition. Therefore,
what Isenberg correctly comprehends, and the writers in question
misunderstand, is how managers use intuition, as this choice states.
10. (C) Refer to the lines from the third paragraph, “A third function ofintuition …
often in an “Aha!” experience”. This means that the senior managers depend on
their intuition to join together the bits of information to make the bigger picture
clear. The word “suddenly” in option (c) makes it the correct answer.

11. (B) Option (b) is the best answer. The question requires you to identify which of the
choices is NOT mentioned in the passage as a part of the classical model of
decision analysis. Only “action undertaken in order to discover more
information about a problem,” does not appear in the passage.
12. (A) The question requires you to compare behavior based on intuition with
behavior based on formal decision analysis. Option (a) specifies that the
manager who uses intuition incorporates action into the decision-making
process, but the manager who uses formal analysis does not. This distinction
is made several times in the passage.
13. (D) Refer to the lines from the third paragraph of the passage, “Analysis is
inextricably tied … acting and analyzing in close concert”.
14. (D) The question requires you to identify a statement that can be inferred from
information in the passage but is not explicitly stated. The author asserts that
intuitive managers can “move rapidly to engender a plausible solution” and
that their intuition is based on “experience that builds skill”. This implies that
the combination of skill and rapidity enables mangers to employ their practical
experience more efficiently.
15. (B) Option (a) can be eliminated as an assertion is to make a claim, declaration.
But what we see from the first para is just fact. These are not claims rather
these statements are discussing the two models of thinking and dismissing the
other. Options (c) can be eliminated because it is out of scope of the passage as
there is no information mentioned in the passage to show the results.
Further,in the first paragraph, two opposing viewpoints are given but they are
not evaluated only the second is discussed more deeply. This eliminates option
(d).
16. (C) Refer to the line from the first paragraph of the passage, “However, at least one
study has shown that such monitoring may not be having the desired effect”.
This clearly makes option (c) correct.
17. (D) Refer to the lines from the first paragraph of the passage, “In contrast to
unmonitored workers doing … critical factor in assigning ratings”. This makes
option (d).
18. (A) Refer to the lines from the last part of the first paragraph, “However, measures
of the relationship … indications of customer satisfaction”.
19. (C) Refer to the lines from the second paragraph, “It is possible that productivity
may be a “hygiene factor”…will hurt the overall rating”. This means the hygiene
factor will not affect a worker’s rating unless it is judged to be inadequate.
20. (B) Option (a) can be eliminated because no such was recommended as needed.
Option (c) can be eliminated as no such recommendation is made in the
passage. Option (d) is incorrect because the main purpose is to discuss the
anticipated effect of a method and the undesired effect. This makes option (b)
correct as a study and its use is discussed.

21. (C) In the first part of the passage, the author talks about a generalization -
introduction of the concept of provider and consumer. In the next part, author
talks about the premises - how Doctors are really consumers not the patients -
to draw the conclusion that economy measures directed at patients or general
public are relatively ineffective.The main idea is therefore, author talks about
trends such as doctor is really the consumer in health care. This is idea is
clearly justified by option (c).
22. (A) Refer to the lines from the third paragraph of the passage, "Little wonder then
that in the eyes of … not the administration." Doctors are consumers, hence
bread earners for the hospital. As a result, they are able to determine hospital
policies. This makes option (a) correct.
23. (B) This can be inferred from the same idea that doctor is consumer. So when
doctor tells a patient to come back on 'Wednesday', he/she is instructing the
patient to buy more service. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
24. (A) The conclusion of the passage is that since doctors are main consumers,
economy measures directed at patients or the general public are relatively
ineffective. Or in other words, author is proposing to control medical costs by
focusing economy measures at doctors - consumer rather than general public.
25. (C) The author mentions examples on why Doctor-patient relationship is unique
thereby trying to rationalize the thought process. This is an analytical process
rather than a defiant one. Although the author criticizes the choices that result
from the relationship, the tone is analytical.
26. (A) Refer to the lines from the second paragraph of the passage, “It is a rare and
sophisticated patient who will challenge such professional decisions or raise in
advance questions about price, especially when the ailment is regarded as
serious”.
27. (B) The author, throughout the passage, clarifies the misconception that doctors
are the seller. The author explains how a doctor is not a seller but a consumer.
Further, the passage goes on to explain the entire procedure how the hospital
staff represents the “power centre” in decision making and policies of the
hospital.
28. (B) In the given context, consumers (doctors) are the ones who deliver goods or
services.

SECTION – II GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
29. (D)
1. After the abrogation of Article 370 and Article 35A Jammu & Kashmir has not
its own constitution.
2. All the decisions of government of India are now binding on Jammu and
Kashmir as it is binding on all the other states of India.
3. The Parliament had only residuary powers of legislation in J&K. This included
enacted of laws to prevent terror and secessionist activities, for taxation on
foreign and inland travel and on communication.
30. (D) None of the Indian State has its own constitution.
31. (A) Three types of Emergency are described in Indian Constitution:

1. National Emergency: Article 352
2. State Emergency: Article 356
3. Financial Emergency: Article 360
32. (A) Article 370 is drafted in the Part XXI of Indian Constitution.
33. (A) The provision was drafted in 1947 by Sheikh Abdullah, the then prime minister
of J&K appointed by Maharaja Hari Singh and Jawaharlal Nehru.
34. (B) The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA is a foundation initiated by the
International Olympic Committee based in Canada to promote, coordinate and
monitor the fight against drugs in sports. The agency's key activities include
scientific research, education, development of anti-doping capacities, and
monitoring of the World Anti-Doping Code, whose provisions are enforced by
the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport. It was founded
in 1999.
35. (B) India cricketer Prithvi Shaw has been handed a backdated suspension of eight
months for a doping violation in the 2018-19 domestic season. The sample was
subsequently tested and found to contain Terbutaline — a specified substance
— that is prohibited both In & Out of Competition in the WADA Prohibited List
of Substances.
36. (A) Last year Yusuf Pathan and Abhishek from Punjab tested positive for the same
substance.
37. (A) RE Grant Govan was the first BCCI president. Current BCCI president is
Sourav Ganguly.
38. (D) The motto of the Nobel Prize summit is “Our Planet Our Future”.
39. (B) Nobel Prize first time awarded in 1901 in all the categories except Economics.

40. (C) The 100th Nobel Prize for peace has been awarded to the Ethiopian Prime
Minister Abhiy Ahmed Ali for his efforts towards peace and international
cooperation. The prize was awarded in particular to honor his initiatives to
resolve border conflict with Eritrea.
41. (D) First Nobel prize summit will be held in Washington DC.
42. (D) The Nobel Prize Summit is hosted by the Nobel Foundation and organised by
the National Academy of Sciences in partnership with the Potsdam Institute for
Climate Impact Research, and the Stockholm Resilience Centre/Beijer
Institute.
43. (C)
1. APPLE was India’s First Communication Satellite
2. ISRO built India's first satellite, Aryabhata, which was launched by the Soviet
Union on 19 April 1975. It was named after the mathematician Aryabhata. In
1980, Rohini became the first satellite to be placed in orbit by an Indian-made
launch vehicle, SLV-3.
3. INSAT 2A was India's first indigenously built satellite. The satellite was
launched on 9 July 1992 from Kourou, French Guyana. The Insat 2 program
was started in 1983. Its objective was to develop an indigenous multi-purpose
Geo spacecraft.
44. (A) IRNSS-1E is the fifth out of seven in the Indian Regional Navigational Satellite
System (IRNSS) series of satellites. IRNSS-1E has been successfully launched
into orbit on January 20, 2016. It was launched by PSLV-C31.
45. (A) GSLV Mark-III is the heaviest rocket of India.
46. (A)
1. Mars Mission of India was launched in 2013.
2. It was India’s first interplanetary mission.
3. ISRO became the fourth space agency after USA, Soviet Union and Europe.
47. (A) The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is an expendable medium-lift launch
vehicle designed and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO). It was developed to allow India to launch its Indian Remote Sensing
(IRS) satellites into sun-synchronous orbits, a service that was, until the
advent of the PSLV in 1993, commercially available only from Russia. PSLV can
also launch small size satellites into Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO).
48. (B) The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station is an Indian spaceport
established on 21st November 1963, operated by the Indian Space Research
Organisation. It is located in Thumba, Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
49. (C) The Assam Accord was a Memorandum of Settlement (MoS) signed between
representatives of the Government of India and the leaders of the Assam
Movement. It was signed in the presence of the then Prime Minister Rajiv
Gandhi in New Delhi on 15 August 1985.

50. (A) March 25, 1971 is when the Bangladesh Liberation War began.
51. (B) The first NRC was prepared in 1951, by recording details of people included in
that year’s Census.
52. (A) More than 19 lakh people in Assam have been excluded from the final version
of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam that was released by the
government on 31st August 2019.
53. (D) There are four ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired: birth,
descent, registration and naturalisation. The provisions are listed under the
Citizenship Act, 1955.
54. (D) Boris Johnson
55. (B) The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 28 member
states that are located primarily in Europe.
56. (C) Member countries of European Union: Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia,
Cyprus, Czechia, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece,
Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands,
Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and United
Kingdom.
57. (A) Headquarter of European Union is located in Brussels, Belgium.
58. (D) The main objectives of European Union are:

 A common European area without borders
 Internal market
 Stable and sustainable development
 Scientific and technological development
 Prevention of social exclusion
 Solidarity
 Respect for languages and cultures
 Common foreign and security policy
59. (D) Current President of European Commission is Ursula von der Leyen.
60. (B) Finance Minister Niramala Sitharaman announced amalgamation of 10 public

sector banks into four big banks. After this the total number of Public Sector
Banks in the country will come down to 12 from 27 banks in 2017.
61. (B) Before the merger 2nd largest PSB after SBI is Bank of Baroda in which Dena
Bank and Vijaya Bank recently amalgamate.

62. (D) Better Employee-Cost Ratio is not the benefit of the merger.
63. (B) “Ex dolo malo non oritur actio” means - A right of action cannot arise out of
fraud.
64. (B) Babri Masjid was a mosque in Ayodhya. According to the mosque's
inscriptions, it was built in 1528–29 (935 AH) by general Mir Baqi, on orders of
the Mughal emperor Babur.
65. (B) Babri Masjid was a mosque in Ayodhya. According to the mosque's
inscriptions, it was built in 1528–29 (935 AH) by general Mir Baqi, on orders of
the Mughal emperor Babur.
66. (A) In the year 1961, the UP Sunni Waqf Board filed an application demanding the
possession of the disputed site and the removal of statues.
67. (B) A Bench of Justices Aftab Alam and R.M. Lodha (in 2011), admitting a batch of
appeals from both Hindu and Muslim organisations, stayed the September 30,
2010 judgment of the Lucknow Bench of the High Court and directed the
parties to maintain the status quo at the site.
68. (C) K.M Pandey district judge of Faizabad allow Hindus to worship on 1 February
1986.
69. (B) On 6 August 2019 Supreme Court started hearing daily in Ayodhya Case.

SECTION – III LEGAL REASONING
70. (C) It is given that earlier fine was Rs. 100 and it is increased to Rs. 1000 now. In
the first para of the comprehension, it is mentioned that Gujrat has announced
substantial reduction in the fines. Option A cannot be correct as in Gujrat, the
fine cannot be Rs. 100 as there must be reduction of fines in that state. Thus,
A contradicts the very statement made above. The amount of fine in Kerala
cannot be figured out as Kerala is still studying the prospects of law, and
therefore, nothing can be said with certainty. B is wrong for this reason. No
information is provided with respect to position of fines in Rajasthan, and
hence, D is also wrong. The fine in West Bengal will remain the same Rs. 100,
because it is stated in the first para itself that West Bengal has refused to
adopt the higher penalties. Hence, C is the right answer.
71. (D) As per the para 2, it is mentioned that motorists are upset with the fact that
government has imposed fines without upgrading road infrastructure. Further,
in the 6-7th lines of third para of the passage, it is clearly stated that the fines
and regulations would be challenged in courts until infrastructural
requirements are met. Hence, D is the most suitable answer based on the
above information.
72. (C) In the sixth line of the third para, it is evident that the author believes that
compliance of the road safety standards must be made in order to make the
roads safe, which is given in statement-I of the question, hence, it is right.
Further, in the last paras, it is made clear that if VIPs are treated at par with
ordinary persons and are charged for road violations equally, the same shall
serve as encouragement. Hence, the statement-II in question is also correct.
Since both the statements are right, C is the right answer.
73. (D) It is explicit from the seventh line of the para three, that the fines and
regulations would be challenged in court until statutory requirements of safety,
etc. are not met. Hence, D is right.
74. (D) If the states are forced to follow the law passed, then statement in option A will
be wrong as it provides same penalties for varied violations which is
contradictory as the law will be uniformly applicable on all states without any
variation or discretion, and therefore, must provide same penalties only for
same or similar violations and not for different or varied ones as otherwise
given in option A. Thus, A is wrong. Further, B is wrong as there is no
connection between the fines being challenged in court and compulsion for
states to follow the same law, in fact, if the states follow the same law, there
can be more litigation in courts against the imposition of said rules and
regulations. Thus, B is also wrong. In option C, it is stated that authorities
responsible for construction will be responsible for any damage. This is
incomplete and vague in itself, as not just an authority responsible for
construction will be liable, but there are several other authorities that are being
made liable for fault at their part as is clearly given in first four lines of para
three. Hence, C is also wrong. The answer should, therefore, be D; none of the
above.

75. (D) Option A is wrong as it provides that there is inconsistency of the law relating
to group admins. However, there is nothing mentioned about any such law
which relates to liability of group admins. Hence, nothing about such law can
be commented upon. By the same logic, option B becomes wrong as nothing is
expressly stated of cyber laws in the passage. Option C is also wrong as it is
not clear which moral contradiction is being talked about. The only suitable
option is D which is based on facts rather than mere assumption. It says that
there are procedural inconsistencies in similar cases, which is correct as in the
first instance, the group admin was not arrested but in the second one, such
admin is arrested without showing any differentiating ground between two
cases on the basis of which such discrimination is made while both cases have
similar factual situations. Thus, D is right.
76. (A) The legal issue revolving around the entire passage in both incidences is
whether a group admin should be liable for anything and everything that is
posted in that group with or without his knowledge. This is clear from the last
para below incidence-II wherein the author expresses his concern and raises a
question as to the justifiability of holding the admin liable in the given
scenarios. Therefore, A is the right answer.
77. (A) It is expressly asked in the question that in which incidence group admin will
be liable if there is a law which holds “the then” administrator liable for the
alleged posts in the group. The question focuses upon determining liability of
the admin who was an admin of that group in which such posts were made
which is exactly the case in incidence-I. The question does not cover those
cases wherein a person becomes admin after the post is already made, which is
the case in incidence-II. Hence, the law talked of in question would only make
the admin liable in incidence-I. Thus, A is right.
78. (A) The question asked is which statement will “most” support the view taken by
author in the passage. To answer this, one must understand the central theme
or main point which flows through the entire passage, rather than focusing
upon an isolated or single instance given in the passage as a part of various
arguments made. It must be noted that the author has only made an instance
of gender equality in the second para, as one of the features of the law, but
does not use or emphasize upon this throughout the passage. There is also no
critical comment by author available on this point. Thus, B is wrong. Further,
option C is wrong as the author has nowhere talked personally as to whether
the bill will do more harm than good to women. The only reflection of this is
found in last lines of para one, wherein the author has merely stated that the
government failed to answer this query which was raised by opposition. Thus,
it is not a personal view of the author. Thus, C is also wrong for this reason.
Also, option D may appear correct but is not so, as the author did not declare
anywhere in the passage that the bill wrongly criminalized the act of triple
talaq. He only asked a question regarding the viability or justification for it in
the last few lines of the para one but has refrained from making any comment
about it. Also, this argument is not the backbone of the passage but a mere
one of the many questions raised by the author. Option A is the most suitable
here as it says that the bill was passed without adequate scrutiny
(check/ethical procedures) it requires otherwise. The author has consistently
pointed out the various steps that the government did not take before passing
the bill. This is found starting from the first seventh and eighth lines of first
para wherein such question was raised by author. Also, in the last few lines of

this para, he pointed out government failed to give convincing response to the
query of opposition. It is further seen in the beginning and ninth to eleventh
lines of second para wherein author stresses upon the fact that government did
not provide adequate response to concerned behind the bill. He once again
made this point clear in the last two lines of second para. By all these
arguments, the author has persistently pointed out deficiencies by government
while passing the bill and this is exactly what the main point of author is that
there was not enough scrutiny by government which was required. Hence, A is
right.
79. (D) The information that a man can be sent to jail for divorcing his wife can be
found in last two lines of para-I of the passage. thus, only the statement-I
would have been right if it alone was given as an option. However, that’s not
the case. There is no information about alimony in the passage. Thus,
statement-II is wrong. Further, in the same para, it is also provided that the
aggrieved woman or any specified relative can file a case. In that event,
statement-III becomes wrong since it restricts the right to file case only to blood
relative of the victim which is not true as such right is provided to other
persons also, as narrated above. Since, only statement-I could be right, but
that’s not an option anywhere, D would be most appropriate answer. D is right.
80. (C) The author has criticized the bill based on all the three grounds as stated in
question as is also explained in detail above. Hence, C is right.
81. (B) It is clear from the reading of 9th line of the second para, that the SC decision
was not the reason why government brought in the new bill. Hence, A is
incorrect. Nothing about uniform civil code and secularism is mentioned in
passage. Thus, C is also wrong. Option D is irrelevant and also not derivable
from the data given as nothing about constitutional right is stated therein.
Option B is correct as it is provided by author in the beginning of second para
that gender justice is imperative. In the third and fourth lines of second para,
the author has mentioned of discriminatory nature of triple talaq. Further, in
the sixth to eighth lines of para two, the author has said that Supreme Court
had laid out interwined (closely connected) aspects of gender equality and
personal law and that the court did some reform to the minorities law. It is
logically derivable here that the court restricted application of Muslim personal
law in order to bring gender equality by ending the practice of triple talaq. This
means personal laws cannot outweigh or suppress gender equality as is
mentioned in option B which is one of the basis of SC decision. Hence, B is
right.
82. (B) The fallout of the bill as asked in question must indicate an adverse impact or
result of the bill. The statement-I does not talk of any specific impact of the bill,
rather is a vague or abstract idea in general. Hence, it cannot be right. The
statement-II provides a specific apprehended impact of the bill which was also
the criticism made by opposition. Since it lists a specific impact of the bill, only
statement-II can be right. B is correct.
83. (D) In the end of last para, it is provided that five states eliminated exemptions for
religious and philosophical reasons, but permitted only the exemption based
on medical grounds. Thus, only medical reason is treated as an excuse here.
Hence, D is right.

84. (A) It is given that backlash against big pharma is one of the reasons behind anti-
vaccine ideology. Thus, statement-I is correct. Further, it is mentioned that
“anti-government libertarians” and “apostles of the all-natural” are against the
said vaccine. Thus, statement-II and III are also correct as they groups
mentioned therein are the groups supporting anti-vaccine ideology. Hence, A is
right.
85. (D) The statement made by Dr. Paul A. offit is shown in passage. The overall
meaning of his statements is that he suggests the importance of science has
been diluted and that it no longer commands the same relevance or respect
that it did previously as people can believe whatever they’d want to rather than
relying on science. Based on this, option A cannot be right as it directly
contradicts what Dr. Paul has said. Option B is not specific as which or what
kind of facts is being talked about. Thus, B is also wrong. Option C is wrong as
well as it contradicts Dr. Paul’s belief that personal opinion has diluted the
importance of science but the option says opposite to what he believed. Hence,
it is wrong too. Option D is right as it aptly expresses the belief Dr. Paul holds
about science losing importance in discussions and being taken over by
personal opinion. D is the right answer.
86. (A) The two statements will contradict each other and cannot co-exist together as
both clearly go against each other. On one hand, vaccine is made compulsory,
and on another, everyone has a right to decide their way of living. If vaccine is
compulsory, then nobody can refuse to be vaccinated even if they desire
otherwise. Thus, right to refusal has been taken away from citizens. If such
right is taken away, then there is no point in giving them a right to decide their
way of living. On the other hand, if they enjoy right to decide their way of living,
then they cannot be forced to get vaccinated. If they have such right to refuse,
then there is no point in making vaccine compulsory. Thus, only one of these
laws will stay, both cannot stay together. A is right.
87. (C) Citizenship regime in India is governed under the provisions of Constitution
and Citizenship Act, 1955. C is right.
88. (C) In this legal article, author is trying to demonstrate that CAA is constitutionally
not sustainable as it goes against the principle of secularism of Indian
constitution and this amendment bill also falls flat in view of the Article 14
which only permits government to make reasonable classifications and the
basis on which this Bill is enacted cannot be said to be making reasonable
classification. C is right.
89. (C) The legal article does not talk about the basis of classification under CAA on
the grounds of economic criteria. Self-Explanatory. It challenges the validity of
CAA on the grounds of making unreasonable classification of similarly situated
people i.e. illegal migrants on the basis of religion and arbitrary selection of
countries for the purposes of this Bill. C is right.
90. (B) Author clearly specifies that the assumption that religious persecution does not
operate against co-religionist is false and author gives multiple examples to
prove his point. B is right.
91. (C) Article 14 uses a neutral word “person” as opposed to specific term indicating
protection only to citizens. C is right.

92. (B) As expressly mentioned in the passage. B is right.
93. (A) Since the question is only concerned about the religious persecution in
neighbouring countries of Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh and
exclusion of religiously persecuted Ahmadiyas from Pakistan under the CAA
provisions cannot be sustained in view of the sole aim of the government to
protect religiously persecuted minorities in neighbouring countries. A right.
94. (D) The author has nowhere stated or opined in any way that the court had
sufficient evidences to decide the matter. Thus, it cannot be determined based
on the given passage. D is right.
95. (C) The author mentions that dispute has not been decided wholly in line with
evidentiary conclusions. This means, the author believes that the court has
omitted to decide either certain disputes or has decided the dispute partially or
not considered evidence in totality. Whatever it be, the author is sure that the
dispute is not totally decided as is explicit in the opening lines of passage as
well. Hence, C is right.
96. (C) Option A is directly opposite to what is stated in passage seventh and eighth
lines. Thus, A is wrong. In the thirteenth line, it is given that the court did not
decide whether Hindus had any exclusive title to the property or not. Hence, B
is also wrong. However, the court had decided that Hindus had possessory
rights over the disputed property which is explicit in the twelfth line of the
passage. Therefore, C is right.
97. (C) In the fourteenth and fifteenth lines, it is mentioned that the court decided the
case against Muslims solely on the ground that they failed to prove exclusive
right on their part. Thus, C is right as is based on accurate facts given in
passage.
98. (B) In the end of the passage, it is clearly shown that the court decided the case on
the ground that Hindus proved their rights better than Muslims. This can also
be understood to mean that Muslims could not prove their rights better than
Hindus with respect to the property. Thus, B is right.
99. (A) The question asked is to look for an option that opposes the judgment. All
other options except option A clearly support the judgment which is in favor of
Hindus, and therefore, none of those which support the decision can be an
answer to the question. Hence, A is correct.
100. (D) The lines 13-15 in the passage mention that the tendency has been to pass
new laws rather than to modify the same by way of amendment or repeal.
Hence, the author has suggested that existing laws should be modified and old
ones must be removed but introducing new laws every time is not a solution.
Thus, both (a) and (c) are correct and option D is right.
101. (D) There is express mention in the passage that courts on the whole face multiple
challenges and even Supreme Court is included within that. Hence, D is right.
102. (C) The aim of the passage is to give a suggestion that recommendations made for
judicial reforms must be implemented. In the last few lines of the passage, the
concern to effectively implement the recommendations is made. Thus, the

purpose is not to make recommendations or suggestions to change the system,
but to implement those policies which are already agreed upon. Hence, C is
right.
103. (A) In the beginning of the passage itself, there is shown a problem with the
policing as the police are governed by an old law even now. None of the options
other than policing is even talked of in the passage. Hence, A is right.
104. (B) Though, the statement in option A is given in the opening lines of the passage,
but the same is not found throughout the passage as the central theme. The
question looks for an idea which is persistently found in the entire passage or
serves as the main object of it. By a careful reading, it is evident that the idea
constantly being supported is to address the problem of old and/or ineffective
procedural laws pertaining to various categories. Thus, B is right.
105. (C) The meaning of the term “sine qua non” can be derived from the context in
which it is being used in the passage. It is used to portray rule of law being an
important factor for democracy and hence, must only mean “essential” out of
the given options. C is right.

SECTION – IV LOGICAL REASONING
106. (D) The author is trying to point out the redundancy of the so-called new
invention/development. Hulls are made of wood. The new invention involves a
method, which converts wood into some kind of plastic, which is then used to
make hulls of ships. The new invention is basically lengthening and
complicating the process. Thus, D is correct.
107. (A) B does not have any effect on the argument. If the wood is in short supply, that
difficulty will remain as it is whether we use the wood directly or indirectly. C
actually strengthens the argument of the author, since the plastic is actually
increasing the cost of production. Now we narrow down to A and D. As far as D
is concerned, that only reduces part of the cost, and mentions no additional
benefit. A gives a much greater functional advantage, which now makes sense
for involving the extra step. Thus, author’s argument that involving an extra
step is idiotic gets seriously weakened.
108. (C) A, B, and D contain functional developments that actually have practical
advantages and applications, in either being time efficient, or creating new
usage. C is most similar to the statement in question. Wine is made of grapes,
so what is the point of adding an extra step to the same.
109. (A) Assumption questions usually involve a missing link or a sudden transition of
definition of something. The statement is basically trying to assert (conclusion)
that the two major political parties are still maintaining strong influence. But
to show this the author says that these two parties raised and spent more
money than ever before in support of their candidates. So the missing or
connecting link is that the amount of money raised/spent somehow shows the
influence of the party.
110. (C) As mentioned above, the conclusion of the author is that the two political
parties still maintain considerable amount of influence. A, B, and D weaken
the conclusion. C obviously strengthens the conclusion, since if every member
of the US Senate is from either parties, they obvsiously have a lot of influence.
111. (C) Refer to the explanation of the question 108. The conclusion of the paragraph
is that the two political parties still have major influence. D seems enticing, but
that is not the point of the author.
112. (C) A, B, and D are supported by the author, i.e., if the government is deceiving the
public in order to achieve a useful objective, then the government is correct in
doing that, although government should not uselessly deceive the public. C is
nowhere implied in the passage. The author is basically saying that the press
may have bona fide intentions in pointing out the deception, but they are
missing the point by not looking at the long term benefit of such deception.
113. (C) On a ship, the captain is the ultimate boss, and the sailors work for the boss.
Thus, the captain is not elected, he is the captain and that is it. And thereafter,
he makes all the decisions/goals/methods etc., whether the sailors like it or

not. The sailors do not get to vote for a decision, the decision comes from above
and is to be followed as it is. Whereas, in a democracy, functioning is quite
different, the elected leader is answerable to the people, and only works (at
least in theory) as per their wishes. Technically, it is the citizens who make the
decisions who make the decisions. Thus, democracy and ship are not false
analogies.
114. (A) B does not entail a long term benefit, it is just manipulation of someone’s
statement for personal benefit. C, once again, entails a personal benefit, not a
public one. A is correct, in that there is clear deception and lying, but the
purpose is a bona fide one and one which entails a common good (at least
intended), i.e., ending a military dictatorship.
115. (B) Most cases in which the exclusionary rule has been invoked have involved
purely technical violations of constitutional principles. "Even when the rights
violation was a minor or purely technical one, ..." - just means even in those
cases where the violation was technical. It doesn't mean that this is true of
MOST cases. Hence the author does not assume this anywhere in the passage.
116. (A) D is obviously wrong. B and C are confusing and very close. C is not correct
since in the end the cases have been just used as examples. The author is not
saying that minor crimes should keep on suffering from this disadvantage.
Now, we narrow down to A and B. B may be implied in the passage, but for A
there is direct evidence, “it has been clear that the police officers were acting in
good faith”. So, A is a better option, since it has direct contextual evidence in
its support.
117. (A) A option is totally unrelated, and even if the exclusionary principle was
exempted, even so, it would not help the police in any case, since this does not
help in solving the crime at all, no matter what principle you use.
118. (D) Read the statement -- that statement is saying that the extended work day
(which came earlier in the industrial process) and the shorter work day (which
came later) are "products of different stages of the continuing process". This
wording suggests that countries that go through those different stages of the
industrial process, then, will encounter similar phenomena with regard to the
work day. Thus, D.
119. (B) Conclusion: Prehistoric humans must have labored incessantly for their very
survival.
Assumption: many people assume that the same trend has obtained
throughout history. Also, the passage states: We cannot, of course, directly test
this assumption. However, a study of primitive peoples of today suggests a
different conclusion. The Mbuti of central Africa, for instance, spend only a few
hours each day in hunting, gathering, and tending to other economic
necessities.
If we can link primitive people of today, for example the Mbuti of Central Africa
to the prehistoric humans, the argument is strengthened. (B) gives us the
connection.

120. (C) Assumption question involving “find the missing link”. The author is trying to
imply that the reduction in air pollution is not due to effectiveness of the Act,
but rather slowdown in economic activity. However, the author shows
slowdown in economic activity indirectly, i.e., he shows that the Number of
business has declined and number of workers has also declined. So the
missing link is that decrease in number of businesses and workers means
economic activity has also slowed down.
121. (C) Of the businesses that ceased operating in the state during the last ten years,
only 5 percent were engaged in air-polluting industries.
that the reduction is due to the act and not because of decline of business.
Then, a 18% reduction in pollution levels could not have been caused by the
closure of just 0.5% of the industries. Some other reason must account for this
decline.
122. (D) The logical flaw in stimulus is that it readily assumes the sample provided is
enough to draw the conclusion that the investment is booming. But, option D
weakens the argument by stating that 85% (high interest) is only among the
magazine readers and not as a whole. Hence, D.
123. (B) Premise : survey in House magazine revealed that 85% of the magazine’s
readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few years. A study of
the real estate industry, however, revealed that the current supply of homes
could only provide for 65% of that demand each year.
Conclusion : So invest in realty
So to undermine the Conclusion we need to prove that demand can be easily
met with existing supply or demand figures are overestimated or supply figures
are underestimated. B matches that.
124. (A) Cable companies argue that telephone companies would have an unfair
advantage if they (the telephone companies) offer cable. The unfair advantage is
based on the fact that telephone companies could use the profits from their
monopoly on the local market to pay for cables transmissions.
We are looking for the answer choice that most weakens this claim. This
answer gives a clear reason for why the cable companies' fears are unfounded.
All the money that telephone companies make from their monopoly would be
spent on "moderating their operations." (A) goes on to say that this overhaul
would completely sap the companies' financial reserves for a long time to come.
125. (C) Yes we can answer this (C option) with certainty as the cable companies believe
that profits generated from monopoly of the phone companies would be an
unfair advantage to phone companies.
126. (C) The argument is basically dependent on the logic, that if a pattern has
occurred in the past, then it will certainly occur again in the future.
127. (D) The pay and status of female accountants, lawyers, and physicians today are
governed by significantly different economic and sociological forces than were

the pay and status of female teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries in the
past.-CORRECT-IF this is true, this can put forward a different reason for
changing pay scale other than the one assumed by the author. hence it
undermines the author's belief.
128. (C) Prof. A goal =Completely Against X polices, ways 2 achieve = total divestment
Prof. B goal = Encourage X to change policies = partial divestment. Both the
goals and the ways differ. A looks confusing, but if you look closely even the
goals are different.
129. (D) Very straightforward. If the financial return due to total disinvestment is
basically the same as the normal financial return, then the university is
basically suffering no financial loss. Thus, D is correct.
130. (A) The belief is Y Z (i.e., Y causes Z).

But X  Y and Z. That is, when X happens, Y and Z happen. So the author is
saying that actually X is the underlying cause of Z, and not Y (and that Y may
just be a byproduct). B does not add anything new. C actually weakens the
argument of the author, since it suggests that Z can happen independence of
X. D is useless, since it does not tell us anything about the cause of Z (since Z
does not happen). A suggests that when X happens, Z also happens after it,
even in the absence of Y. This breaks the possible causal link between Y and Z,
and strengthens the causal link between X and Z, which is what the author is
saying.
131. (B) Straightforward. Mr Primm is basically saying that teaching hospitals are
useless for private enterprises since pvt enterprises are focused on profit, but
teaching hospitals are not so profitable but rather add to the cost. Now Nakai
says that teaching hospitals concentrate on nonroutine cases, which, according
to option B, command a high price and thus are very profitable, thus breaking
Primm’s argument that these hospitals may not be profitable.
132. (D) Refer to the lines, “…by accident, to produce sequences of words which human
beings recognize as poetry.” So, D is not only being implies, it is actually being
explicitly stated in the passage.
133. (C) In this passage, the author compares the aspects of organizing and
communication between computers and human brains which is similar in both
the cases. Refer to the following line for better illustration:" Furthermore,
brains and computers can both be organized so as to solve problems. The mode
of communication is very similar in both the cases.”
134. (D) A is wrong because it suggests there is no similarity, even though the passage
suggests there is. B is also wrong since it is too strong a similarity that has
nowhere been suggested in the passage. C is also wrong since the passage
suggests (implicitly) that the similarity is not mechanical. D is correct, look at
the lines, “the comparison does not…; it depends on what the machines do”
(which implies functionality).

135. (B) The author clearly states that computers compose the poetry by accident while
the mode of communication is same in both the cases. Refer to the lines “The
mode of communication is very similar in both the cases…” Thus, B is correct.
(be careful, the question is in the form of a double negative, so basically asking
for a positive).

SECTION – V QUANTITATIVE TECHINIQUES
136. (A) According to the information given in the question we can tabulate the following
data:
Months STAGE COST

1 – 2 Specification (240000)+(340000)=200000
3–4 Design (420000)+(320000)=140000
5–8 Coding (410000)+(510000)+(510000)=140000
9 – 10 Testing (415000)+(115000)=75000
11 – 15 Maintenance (310000)+(310000)+(110000)+(110000)+(1+10000)=90000
[Note: There was some important data missing in the paper uploaded on
Telegram which was required to solve Q.137 and Q.138. So, you can mark
them as bonus. We have uploaded the updated question paper along with this
answer key. You can download the paper and attempt these questions for
practice.]
Total cost in that period

137. (C) Average cost per man month = . Average cost per man
No. of man months taken
120000
month will be minimum for 11 – 15 month i.e. = Rs. 10,000.
12
138. (B) Consider the following tabulation:
Month 3 4 5 6 7 8
Old 4 3 4 5 5 4
New 4 3 5 4 5 5
The difference is in the 5th, 6th, and the 8th month Cost under old technique in
these months = (4 + 5 + 4) × 10,000 = 1,30,000/-.
Cost under new technique = 5×20,000 + (4 + 5) × 10,000 = Rs 1,90,000/-.
Hence the difference = 1,90,000 – 1,30,000 = Rs 60,000/-.
SOLUTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.139 TO Q.142): According to the information

given in the question the can tabulate the following data.
Institutes Arts Commerce

A 570 504
B 304 714
C 640 630
D 798 588
E 532 714
F 494 546
G 456 504
TOTAL 3800 4200
139. (D) The required ratio is 532 : 588  19 : 21

140. (D) Total number of students studying Arts from institutes A & G together is 456 +
570 = 1026
141. (B) Total number of students studying commerce from B and D are 714 + 588 =
1302
142. (C) Total number of students studying Arts & Commerce from institute B is 304 +
714 = 1018.
143. (C) Children between age 6 – 12 years = 77 – 22 = 55.

Children older than 12 years = 100 – 77 = 23
Children with weight more than 38kg = 100 – 33 = 67
Children satisfying given condition = 67 – 23 = 44.
144. (A) Children with age higher than 10 years
= 100 – 60 = 40
Children taller than 150 cm = 100 – 75 = 25
Children more than 48kg = 100 – 91 = 9
To find children not more than 48kg,
we get 25 – 9 = 16
145. (B) Table A gives children of age 9 or less as 48

Table B give children of height 135 cm or less as 45
Hence 45 children satisfy both conditions.
SOLUTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.146 TO Q.150): According to the information

given in the question we can tabulate the initial data as:
Chand Chandni Chanchal

Initial Amount 2500 2500 2500
Discounts given successively 10% 10% + 20% 10% + 20% + 25%
Now, let the marked price be x also, it is given in the question that Chandni paid
Rs. 360 more than Chanchal then:
 90 80   90 80 75 
x     x      360 Þ x = Rs. 2000.
 100 100   100 100 100 
90 90 80
Hence, Chand paid 2000   1800 Rs.; Chandni paid 2000    1440 Rs.
100 100 100
90 80 75
and Chanchal paid 2000     1080 Rs.
100 100 100
146. (B) Total amount paid by them 1080 + 1440 + 1800 = 4320 and the total marked
price of the three juicers = 3 ´ 2000 = 6000. Hence, the required percentage will
4320
be  100  72% .
6000

1800  1080
147. (D) The required percentage change is  100  66.66% .
1080
148. (D) The required ratio is 1800 : 1080  5 : 3.
149. (C) Chand initially had 2500 Rs. and the amount spent by him is 1800 Rs. Hence,
the money left after purchasing the juicer is 2500 – 1800 = 700 Rs.
150. (C) The marked price of the juicer is Rs. 2000




Solutions Open Mock Clat Offline PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Solutions Open Mock Clat Offline PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SOLUTIONS OPEN MOCK CLAT OFFLINE 2020

ANSWER KEY & SOLUTIONS

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 1

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 2

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 3

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 4

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 5

31. (A) Three types of Emergency are described in Indian Constitution:

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 6

45. (A) GSLV Mark-III is the heaviest rocket of India.

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 7

54. (D) Boris Johnson

57. (A) Headquarter of European Union is located in Brussels, Belgium.

58. (D) The main objectives of European Union are:

60. (B) Finance Minister Niramala Sitharaman announced amalgamation of 10 public

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 8

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 9

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 10

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 11

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 12

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 13

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 14

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 15

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 16

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 17

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 18

130. (A) The belief is Y Z (i.e., Y causes Z).

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 19

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 20

Months STAGE COST

Total cost in that period

SOLUTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.139 TO Q.142): According to the information

Institutes Arts Commerce

139. (D) The required ratio is 532 : 588  19 : 21

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 21

143. (C) Children between age 6 – 12 years = 77 – 22 = 55.

145. (B) Table A gives children of age 9 or less as 48

SOLUTIONS FOR QUESTIONS (Q.146 TO Q.150): According to the information

Chand Chandni Chanchal

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 22

148. (D) The required ratio is 1800 : 1080  5 : 3.

150. (C) The marked price of the juicer is Rs. 2000

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 23

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 24

COMPILED BY CLATPREP EDUCATION Page 25

You might also like