Civil Engg MCQS

CIVIL ENGINEERING
MCQ’S TYPE
NOVEMBER 8, 2019
PREPARED BY:
ENGR. ZAIN UL ABIDIN
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Contents
Hydraulics And Fluid Mechanics ............................................................................................................. 3
Dams ..................................................................................................................................................... 18
Weirs ..................................................................................................................................................... 21
Types of Irrigation ................................................................................................................................. 23
Urban Engineering ................................................................................................................................ 25
Airport Engineering ............................................................................................................................... 28
Port and Harbour Engineering .............................................................................................................. 30
Railway Engineering .............................................................................................................................. 32
Highway Engineering ............................................................................................................................ 34
Geotechnical Investigation and Geosynthetics..................................................................................... 37
Soil Properties ....................................................................................................................................... 39
Geotechnical Engineering ..................................................................................................................... 41
Various Cycles of Environment ............................................................................................................. 44
Sustainable Engineering ........................................................................................................................ 47
Solid Waste Management..................................................................................................................... 49
Wastewater Management .................................................................................................................... 52
Environmental Engineering................................................................................................................... 54
Basic Surveying Terms........................................................................................................................... 57
Structures .............................................................................................................................................. 60
Source and Classification of Sand ......................................................................................................... 64
Bulking of Sand...................................................................................................................................... 66
Foundation ............................................................................................................................................ 68
Properties of Cement ............................................................................................................................ 71
Seasoning of Timber ............................................................................................................................. 74
Qualities of Timber ............................................................................................................................... 76
Characteristics and Ingredients of Paint ............................................................................................... 78
Types and Uses of Paints....................................................................................................................... 80
Properties of Concrete .......................................................................................................................... 82
Market Forms and Uses of Steel ........................................................................................................... 85
Properties and Uses of Aluminium ....................................................................................................... 87
RCC, PSC and Ferro-Cement.................................................................................................................. 89
Cost Effective Construction Techniques ............................................................................................... 91
Damp Proofing ...................................................................................................................................... 94
Plastering .............................................................................................................................................. 96
Tests on Concrete ................................................................................................................................. 98
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Types of Structures ............................................................................................................................. 101

Sieve Analysis ...................................................................................................................................... 103
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Hydraulics And Fluid Mechanics

1. Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
(e) flows.
ANS: d
2. Fluid
is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
ANS: c
3.
Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
ANS: d
4. In a
static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
ANS: d
5. A fluid
is said to be ideal, if it is
(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
ANS: e
6. An
ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
(a) Newton’s law of motion
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) Pascal’ law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
ANS: d
7. If no
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resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as

(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
ANS: e
8. The
volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.
ANS: c
9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
(GO are not viscous
(e) none of the above.
ANS: e
10.
Density of water is maximum at
(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.
ANS: c
12. The
value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is
(a) 1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 91
ANS: d
14.
Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
ANS: b
15.
Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
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(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
ANS: c
16. The
property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
ANS: c
17.
Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted
to each other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
ANS: a
1 The
specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m”
(a) at norma] pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
ANS: d
19.
Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
ANS: c
20. When
the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow
is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
ANS: d
21. Which
of the following is demensionless
(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
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(e) specific viscosity.

ANS: d
22. The
normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.
ANS: e
23. The
pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the
fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
ANS: e
24. An
object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of ‘g’ at
this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
ANS: a
25. The
tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
ANS: d
26. The
surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
ANS: a
27. A
perfect gas
(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is incompressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
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ANS: e
32. For
very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behaviour
ANS: d
33. A fluid
in equilibrium can’t sustain
(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
(e) all of the above.
ANS: c
34.
Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
ANS: a
35. The
bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
(e) unpredictable.
ANS: a
36. The
bulk modulus of elasticity
(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compressible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.
ANS: b
37. A
balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
(a) law of gravitation
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) continuity equation.
ANS: d
38. The
value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and
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temperature in kg/cm is equal to

(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.
ANS: e
39. The
increase of temperature results in
(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.
ANS: d
40.
Surface tension has the units of
(a) newtons/m
(b) newtons/m
(c) new tons/m
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.
ANS: c
41.
Surface tension
(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.
ANS: a
42. The
stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is
(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) inverse type
ANS: a
43. A
liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume
of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
ANS: b
44. The
units of viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
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(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec per metre
ANS: b
45.
Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
(a) pressure
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.
ANS: e
46. Units
of surface tension are
(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
(d) it has no units
ANS: c
47. Which
of the following meters is not associated with viscosity
(a) Red wood
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
ANS: d
48. Choose
the correct relationship
(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
ANS: b
49.
Dimensions of surface tension are
(a) MlL°T2
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.
ANS: a
50. For
manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
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(e) low density and viscosity.

ANS: a
51. If
mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury
will be following cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.
ANS: a
52. Choose
the wrong statement.
Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.
ANS: a
53.
Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R due to rotation at
corad/sec, full of liquid of density p will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
ANS: b
54. The
property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
(e) all of the above.
ANS: d
55. Choose
the wrong statement
(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the con-taining vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
(e) fluids have some degree of compressibility and offer little resistance to
form.
ANS: d
56. The
density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C (d) 20°C
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(e) all temperature.

ANS: c
57. If w
is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface,
then pressure intensity at that point will be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
ANS: b
5 Choose
the wrong statement
(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its
resistance to a shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
ANS: d
59. The
units of kinematic viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec per meter
ANS: a
60. The
ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.
ANS: c
4-61.
Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.
ANS: a
4.62.
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity
(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
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ANS: c
63. A one
dimensional flow is one which
(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero trANSverse component of flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.
ANS: d
64.
Alcohol is used in manometers because
(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.
ANS: d
65. A
pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.
ANS: b
66.
Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(d) all of the above
(e) heavy water.
ANS: d
67. If 850
kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
ANS: c
69. Free
surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to
force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
(e) adhesion.
ANS: a
70. A
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bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended

into water without touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring
balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
(e) unpredictable.
ANS: c
71.
Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
ANS: c
72. A
liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces
are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.
ANS: b
73. If
cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid
and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
ANS: c
74. The
point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid
may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
ANS: b
75. The
total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top
2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
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(e) 4000 kg.

ANS: d
76. The
resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight
of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes’ principle
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
ANS: c
77. The
resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) center of pressure
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of above is correct.
ANS: b
7 The
conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(a) the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
(b) the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same
vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above is correct.
ANS: d
79. Poise
is the unit of
(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.
ANS: c
80.
Metacentric height is given as the distance between
(a) the center of gravity of the body andthe meta center
(b) the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
(c) the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
(d) center of buoyancy and metacentre
ANS: a
81. The
buoyancy depends on
(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
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ANS: a
82. The
center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is
called
(a) meta-center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
ANS: c
83. A
piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific
gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at
mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
ANS: c
84. The
angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon
(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
(b) the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of die above.
ANS: c
3.85. Free
surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest
possible area due to the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.
ANS: b
86. Rain
drops are spherical because of
(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
ANS: c
87.
Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
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(e) viscosity.
ANS: b
1-8 The
capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is
ap-proximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.
ANS: e
89. The
difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
ANS: d
90. If the
surface of liquid is convex, men
(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
ANS: c
91. To
avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such
that it is not more than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
ANS: b
92. To
avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided
(a) at the inlet
(b) at the outlet
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
ANS: c
93. The
vapour pressure over the concave surface is
(a) less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(d) zero
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ANS: a
94. The
peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its
different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
ANS: c
95. The
process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable
membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.
ANS: b
96. The
units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
ANS: c
9 The
continuity equation is connected with
(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.
ANS: c
99. The
rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim increase in
size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
ANS: d
100.
Liquids trANSmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) Newton’s formula
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(e) Chezy’s equation.

ANS: c
Dams
1. Which of the below is the earliest known dam?
a) Sadd-el-Kafara dam
b) Dam of Marib
c) Jawa Dam
d) Ha-ilar Dam
Answer: c
Explanation: Jawa Dam is in Jordan. It is 100 kms northeast of capital Amman. It is a gravity
dam with stone wall. It is dated to 3000 BC.
2. Portion of dam in contact with ground at downstream side is __________
a) Crest
b) Toe
c) Foot
d) Heel
Answer: d
Explanation: Toe is the position of a dam in contact with the ground at the upstream side.
Crest is top of dam. There is no part called a foot.
3. Based on function of dam, it can be classified into: –
a) 5
b) 8
c) 10
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: The five types are storage, diversion, detention, debris and coffer dams.
4. The cross section below shows a
a) Earth
b) Buttress
c) Gravity
d) Arch
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Answer: c
Explanation: The figure shows a gravity dam. It is a massive sized dam built using concrete
or stone masonry. They can hold back large volume of water.
5. Which of the below is an example for earth dam?
a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
b) Banasura Sagar Dam
c) Idukki Dam
d) Bisalpur Dam
Answer: b
Explanation: Bhakra Nangal Dam is an example of gravity dam. Idukki dam is an arch dam.
Bisalpur Dam is also a type of gravity dam.
6. ___________ is the arrangement made near top of dam for passage of excess water from
the reservoir.
a) Sluice way
b) Spillway
c) Gallery
d) Abutments
Answer: b
Explanation: Spillway is kind of a passage to allow water from upstream side to downstream
side of a dam. They have floodgates to control the flow.
7. Hydroelectric power plants at dam supplies about _________ of world’s electricity.
a) 19%
b) 25%
c) 42%
d) 50%
Answer: a
Explanation: It also contributes to over 63% of renewable energy. Most of this is generated
by China (large dams) and contributes about 50% of world use of the power generated.
8. Natural dam is not created usually by:
a) Glacial activity
b) Volcanic activity
c) River meandering
d) Moraine deposit
Answer: c
Explanation: River meandering refers to the formation of a member by a river by altering its
straight course and following a sinuous winding path. It can’t form a dam naturally. Volcanic
dams form when lava flows and intercepts a river or lake, resulting in a natural
impoundment. Glacial activity and moraine deposits can also form dams.
9. Arch-gravity dams are thinner dams and save resources.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a combination of arch and gravity dam. It is inward compression by water
reduces lateral force acting on dam. Gravitational force required is less. Hence, it saves
resources and doesn’t need to be massive.
10. Buttress dams are of __________ types.
a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3
Answer: d
Explanation: The three types of buttress dam are deck type, multiple-arch type and massive-
head type. Deck type consists of a sloping deck supported by buttresses. In massive-arch
type, deck is replaced by horizontal arches. There is no deck slab in massive-head type.
11. _________ is a temporary dam constructed to exclude water from a specific area.
a) Debris dam
b) Diversion dam
c) Coffer dam
d) Storage dam
Answer: c
Explanation: Coffer dam is constructed on the upstream side of the site where a dam is to be
constructed, so that site is dry.
12. Based on material of construction, ___________ types are there.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types – rigid and non-rigid. Rigid material includes steel,
concrete, masonry, stone, etc. and non-rigid materials are earth (earth dam), tailings (waste
from mine), rock fill (rock).
13. Earth dams are _________ in shape.

a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Circular
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth dams are generally built using gravel, sand and clay. They are
trapezoidal in shape so as to hold the non-rigid materials properly.
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14. Hydraulic head for a small dam is:

a) 5-7.5m
b) 7.5-12m
c) 12-13m
d) 5-10m
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on size, there are three types of dam. Small with hydraulic head 12-15m,
intermediate with 12-30m and large with greater than 30m.
Weirs
1. How many types of weirs are there based on the shape of the crest?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
Answer: b
Explanation: The four types are sharp-crested, broad-crested, narrow-crested and ogee-
shaped weir.
2. _________ weir comprises several designs into one structure.
a) All-in-one
b) Open
c) Mixed
d) Compound
Answer: d
Explanation: Compound weirs are commonly seen in locations where a river has multiple
users who may need to bypass the structure. Common design includes a broad-crested
weir.
3. Triangular weir is also called:
a) Trigonometric
b) Ogee
c) V-notch
d) Isolated
Answer: c
Explanation: Triangular weir is shaped like a reverse triangle that is the shape of V. Hence, it
is also called V-notch weir. These can be used to measure discharge over small flows with
greater accuracy.
4. Head loss will be small in case of:
a) Ogee shaped
b) Broad crested
c) Sharp crested
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d) Narrow crested
Answer: b
Explanation: Broad crested weirs are constructed in rectangular shape only and are suitable
for larger flows. Hence, head loss is less.
5. In trapezoidal weir, sides are inclined outward with a slope of:
a) 1:4
b) 1:5
c) 1:6
d) 1:3
Answer: a
Explanation: In trapezoidal weir, the sides are sloping outward at a specific inclination of 1:4
(horizontal: vertical). It is a modification of rectangular weir with slightly higher capacity.
6. Weirs are normally used to calculate:
a) Volume
b) Head loss
c) Discharge
d) Velocity
Answer: c
Explanation: Discharge or flow rate is measured and calculated by analysing a weir. It is
given by Q=CLHn, where C is flow coefficient, L is width of crest, H is height of head, n is
different for different structures.
7. ________ is the standard shape of a weir.
a) Rectangular
b) Triangular
c) Square
d) Trapezoidal
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectangular is the standard shape of a weir. Triangular and trapezoidal weirs
are modifications of it. They are generally suitable for larger flowing channels.
8. Cippoletti weir has ___________ slope:
a) Different
b) Proportionate
c) Disproportionate
d) Equal
Answer: d
Explanation: Cippoletti weir is a special case of a trapezoidal weir. In this, the side slope on
either sides are equal. So, trapezoid can be divided into rectangular and triangular portion
and hence analysed easily.
9. The overflowing sheet of water is called:
a) Head
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b) Nappe
c) Upstream
d) Crest
Answer: b
Explanation: Nappe represents the overflowing sheet of water. If it discharges into air, it is
free discharge. If discharge is partly under water, it is submerged/drowned discharge.
10. For a discharge of triangular weirs with notch angle __________ the formula is 0.685
h2.45.
a) 90o
b) 60o
c) 30o
d) 45o
Answer: c
Explanation: For 30o angle, the formula is 0.685 h2.45. For 60o angle, it is 1.45 h2.47 and for
90o angle, it is 2.49 h2.48.
Types of Irrigation
1. _________ is a form of overhead irrigation.
a) Centre Pivot irrigation
b) Sprinkler irrigation
c) Terraced irrigation
d) Drip irrigation
Answer: a
Explanation: In centre pivot irrigation, steel/Al pipes are joined together, supported by
trusses and mounted on wheeled towers.
2. Inundation irrigation system is functional all through the year.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Inundation canal gets water which flows from a flooded river only. These are
then discharged into the fields. Only if rivers are flooded (rainy season), these are functional.
3. Surface irrigation is again subdivided into:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types are furrow, border strip and basin irrigation. It is also called
flood irrigation when the field is immersed in water completely.
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4. Tank water irrigation system is common in:

a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: d
Explanation: In Southern states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu; rain water
harvesting and storage of water is done using tanks. The water is then fed to fields via a
canal.
5. The field water efficiency of trickle irrigation is:
a) 50-55%
b) 55-85%
c) 80-90%
d) 60-70%
Answer: c
Explanation: Drip irrigation is also called trickle irrigation. If this system is managed correctly,
the field water efficiency can be as high as 80-90%.
6. Sub-irrigation is used in areas with:
a) Low water table
b) High water table
c) Sloping terrain
d) Flat terrain
Answer: b
Explanation: Sub-irrigation is a method of artificially raising water table to allow the soil to be
moistened from below plant’s root zone. It is also used in commercial greenhouse
production.
7. Water for irrigation can come from ____________ sources.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The sources of water for irrigation can be ground water, surface water and non-
conventional sources. The non-conventional sources are treated wastewater, drainage
water, fog collection, etc.
8. Fertigation is a process in ___________ irrigation.
a) Sprinkler
b) Surface
c) Drip
d) Centre pivot
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Answer: c
Explanation: In drip irrigation nowadays, a plastic mulch is incorporated which reduces
evaporation and is a meANS of delivering fertilizers. Hence, the process fertigation.
9. The field water efficiency is determined by:
a) Water trANSpired by crop – water applied to a field
b) (Water absorbed by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
c) Water absorbed by crop – water applied to a field
d) (Water trANSpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x 100%
Answer: d
Explanation: The field water efficiency is the way to determine if the method of irrigation is
efficient. It is determined by using the formula (water trANSpired by crop ÷ water applied to a
field) x 100%. It is expressed in %.
10. Spate irrigation is a special form of irrigation using surface water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also called flood water harvesting. In this case, water is diverted to normally
dry river beds using a network of dams, gates and channels and are spread over large
areas.
11. Micro-irrigation is also called:
a) Nano-irrigation
b) Petite irrigation
c) Localized irrigation
d) Flood irrigation
Answer: c
Explanation: It is a system where water is distributed under low pressure through the piped
network in a pre-determined pattern and applied to each plant. Hence, it is called localized
irrigation.
12. Tube wells are not used in:
a) UP
b) Haryana
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
Answer: d
Explanation: In Rajasthan and Maharashtra artesian wells are used. Tube well can be
installed near agricultural land. A deep tube well, worked by electricity can irrigate a large
area
Urban Engineering
Urban Engineering
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1. How many types of land use patterns are there?

a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The land use pattern shows how the land is used for various purposes in the
development of housing/commercial/industrial areas. There are widely 10 land use patterns;
radio centric (a large circle with development starting from centre), rectilinear (2 areas
crossing centre), star (open spaces in star shape), ring (areas in circle with open space in
centre), linear (along topography contours), branch (with connecting areas), sheet (spread
out), articulated sheet (central and sub clusters), constellation (equal size areas nearby) and
satellite (constellation around main area).
2. General land use planning deals with:
a) Residential
b) Institutional
c) Forests
d) Commercial
Answer: c
Explanation: The general land use planning deals with the non-urban large scale areas like
forests, croplands, swamplands, etc. and they are used primarily for agriculture, forest or
special uses. The other 3 options come under urban land use planning.
3. The land supply for urban expANSion can be determined by:
a) TLA – (PCA+BU)
b) PCA – (TLA+BU)
c) BU – (PCA+TLA)
d) BU – (TLA-PCA)
Answer: a
Explanation: The total land area of a city (TLA) which is available for expANSion is found out
by deducting the total area of protected/conservation areas (PCA) and the existing built-up
areas (BU). All these are taken in hectares.
4. Urbanisation and occupation of river banks and flood plains lead to:
a) Periodic exposure to inundation
b) Greater flow velocity
c) High run off
d) Increased soil erosion
Answer: a
Explanation: The population of town on river banks are periodically exposed to inundation
from the rivers. Then slowly these extensions increase as there is less space for water to
flow. Removal of natural vegetation leads to the other 3 options.
5. A non-structural measure in flood control management is:
a) Canalisation
P a g e | 27
b) Polders and dikes

c) Flood proofing construction
d) Retention ponds
Answer: c
Explanation: The aim of a non-structural flood control management is to reduce the
population and properties exposure to the floods. Use of flood proofing in construction is one
of the ways.
6. Which of the following is not a flood proofing measures for houses?
a) Elevation
b) Floodwalls
c) Dry flood proofing
d) Detention basin
Answer: d
Explanation: The buildings which are in flood prone areas can be flood proofed by elevation
(raise a building), floodwalls (a wall built to keep water away) and dry flood proofing (making
walls of building watertight).
7. Noise map is an excellent tool for urban planning.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: These maps help to quantify the noise of a region and evaluate the population
exposed to it. They help to create a database for the planning of zones accordingly (noisy
activities/sensible, etc) and to predict the impact of noise in the predicted urban
infrastructure.
8. How many number of source types of noise are there?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 sources type noise propagation. They are point source
(loudspeakers, vehicles, industrial equipment, etc.), line source (road, railways, etc) and
area source (parking lot, functions, opening of tunnels, etc).
9. Optimization of urban mobility can be intervened at the infrastructure level by use of:
a) SUV lanes
b) HOV lanes
c) Toll free lanes
d) Slow lanes
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Answer: b
Explanation: The HOV (High Occupancy Vehicles) lane optimizes the existing roads by
allowing vehicles with 2,3 or more occupants to use these lanes exclusively. So, it promotes
people to use car pools to reach the destination faster, reducing the number of vehicles on
road
Airport Engineering
1. Airports can be classified on how many basis?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: b
Explanation: The airports can be classified into 4 on the basis of take-off and landing,
geometric design, based on aircraft approach speed (FAA) and function.
2. ICAO classification system considers how many things?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: The ICAO classification system is based on geometric designs broadly. It
mainly considers 2 things for its classification – length of the runway and on basis of wing
span and outer main gear wheel span.
3. The FAA classification of the airport is based on:
a) Function
b) Geometric design
c) Airport approach speed
d) Length of Runway
Answer: c
Explanation: The FAA or Federal Aviation Administration classifies on the basis of the
aircraft approach speed, given in knots. They are ranging from category A<91 knots to
category E>186 knots.
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of centralized system of the terminal Area?
a) Passengers, cargo routed centrally
b) Passenger facilities in small units
c) Walking distance to aircraft < 200m
d) Common facilities for different gate positions
P a g e | 29
Answer: b
Explanation: The passenger facilities are arranged in smaller units or provided separately at
different locations in a decentralised system. Each unit will have aircraft gate positions.
5. Which of the below does not affect the site-selection of an airport site?
a) Adequate access
b) Air traffic potential
c) Sufficient airspace
d) Number of ground staff
Answer: d
Explanation: The other 3 options are the specific aspects on which the site-selection is
dependent. The site should be accessible by people easily from different locations, there
should be potential for air traffic – flight or passenger and sufficient airspace for airports
without obstruction. The ground staff is considered depending on the size of airport.
6. Runways are oriented in a direction against the prevailing wind.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The runways are oriented in the direction of the wind so that it can utilize the
force provided by the wind for take-off and landing of the aircraft.
7. The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be:
a) Below 4.6km/hr
b) Above 5km/hr
c) Between 5-10 km/hr
d) Below 6.4km/hr
Answer: d
Explanation: The wind intensity should remain below 6.4km/hr during a calm period and it is
the same for all wind direction. It is equal to 100 minus the total wind coverage.
8. The application of __________ diagram is used to find the orientation of the runway to get
the desired wind coverage.
a) Wind Butterfly
b) Wind Cycle
c) Wind Star
d) Wind Rose
Answer: d
Explanation: An average date of around 5-10 years of the various components of wind
(intensity, duration and direction) of the area is compiled to make a Wind Rose diagram. The
entire area of the airport is divided into 16 equal parts at angles of 22.5o. The wind coverage
in each of the small quadrants is then studied for the orientation of the runway.
9. Elevation of airport site above MSL is a factor that controls airport size.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is one of the factors. As the elevation increases, the meteorological
conditions like air pressure and density reduces. As a result, bigger size of facilities has to
be provided.
10. How many types of Fly Rules are there?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: a
Explanation: There are 2 fly rules; the VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and IFR (Instrumental Fly
Rules). The VFR allows the aircraft to be operated within reasonable conditions by oneself.
In IFR, the operations are entirely controlled by instruments. A flight plan is required in both
cases
Port and Harbour Engineering

1. Every port is a harbour.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Harbour is an enclosed area where there is storage, refuelling, loading and
unloading of cargo facilities. A port is a harbour which provides all facilities for the trANSfer
of cargo as well as passengers. So, all the ports are harbours.
2. How many components does a harbour comprise of?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
Answer: b
Explanation: The various components of a harbour are entrance channel, break water,
turning basin, shelter basin, pier, wharf, quay, dry dock, wet dock and jetty.
3. The entrance channel ranges from:
a) 100-160m
b) 100-500m
c) 0-400m
d) 100-260m
Answer: d
Explanation: The ships enter the harbour from a wide water area, which is called an
P a g e | 31
entrance channel. The width is 100m for a small harbour, 100-160m for medium and 160-
260 for large harbour.
4. The solid parallel platform in a harbour with berthing facility on one side only is:
a) Pier
b) Quay
c) Wharf
d) Jetty
Answer: c
Explanation: A pier is the platform parallel to the shore with berthing possible on both sides,
a quay provides berthing on one side and retains earth on other side. A jetty is a platform
that is perpendicular to shoreline.
5. ____________ is a type of utility based harbour.
a) River harbour
b) Artificial harbour
c) Commercial harbour
d) Canal harbour
Answer: c
Explanation: The commercial harbour provides facilities for loading/unloading of cargo. An
artificial harbour is based on the protection needed. (Manmade to protect from
storms/waves). River and canal harbours are based on the location of these.
6. The open type of wharves are made of:
a) Timber
b) R.C.C.
c) Timber, R.C.C. or both
d) Earth or rock fill
Answer: c
Explanation: These have high level decks which are supported by piles and are made of
timber, R.C.C or both together. Sometimes stressed slab or beam is also used. The solid
type wharves are made of earth or rock fill with the bottom made of structures like steel pile
cells.
7. The marine structure located alongside or at the entrance of a pier or a wharf is:
a) Pier heads
b) Dolphins
c) Breakwater
d) Fenders
Answer: b
Explanation: These structures provide mooring facilities for ships, absorb impact force and
shorten the length of a pier or a wharf.
8. The ferry designs are dependent on:

a) Aesthetics
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b) Length of route
c) Country where it is used
d) Weather conditions
Answer: b
Explanation: The ferry designs depend on factors like passenger capacity, speed, water
conditions and length of route; ex- a double ended ferry used in States Island, Washington,
which has interchangeable sterns & bows to shuttle the route without turning around.
9. The alignment of breakwater should be:
a) Horizontal
b) Straight
c) Perpendicular
d) Diagonal
Answer: b
Explanation: Breakwater is a protection barrier constructed to protect the harbour from the
effect of sea waves. Its alignment should be straight with an intersection angle within 60o &
sometimes curved in the open sea to reduce the effect of waves.
Railway Engineering
1. The first passenger train was introduced in India in:
a) 1851
b) 1853
c) 1835
d) 1815
Answer: b
Explanation: The first passenger train in India started in 1853 with around 400 passengers, 3
coaches between Boribundar and Thane.
2. Name the organization which is the research and development wing of Indian Railways.
a) CRIS
b) RDSO
c) RSDO
d) IRCTC
Answer: b
Explanation: The RDSO (Research, Designs and Standards Organization) acts as the
technical advisor and consultant to the Ministry of Railways and their production units.
3. The Railways has a _________ degree of freedom for its movement.
a) Single
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
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Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of freedom refers to the number of directions in which a vehicle can
move. Since trains have to run on the provided tracks, their movement is restricted to one
direction only, compared to road trANSport which can move in x, y and z directions.
4. Track modulus is defined as:
a) Load/unit length of sleeper
b) Load/unit length of sleeper to produce depression in rail
c) Load/unit length of rail to produce depression in sleeper
d) Load/unit length of rail to produce unit depression/deflection in track
Answer: d
Explanation: The track modulus defines the stiffness of track or its load bearing capacity. It is
based on the elastic theory. When a load causes a deflection on the top of the rail, the
deformation comes on the sleeper, below the rail.
5. The track modulus is not affected by gauges.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As the three gauges (narrow-NG, metre –MG and broad-BG) increases, the
components of the permanent part (like ballast and sleeper) also increases in size. As a
result track modulus also increases. The recommended track modulus is: BG = 70 to
90kg/cm2, MG=42-54kg/cm2 and NG=30kg/cm2.
6. Which of the following causes stresses in Sleepers?
a) Eccentric vertical loads
b) Contact shear stress of wheel and rail
c) Lateral deflection of sleepers
d) Track components
Answer: d
Explanation: The track components like the track modulus, the stiffness of rail, design of the
sleeper, sleeper density (number of sleepers provided) and their load bearing capacity are
factors which cause stresses in sleepers. The other 3 options are responsible for stresses in
rails.
7. There are __________ types of rail sections.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types of rail sections are Double Headed Rail (Shaped like a
dumbbell), Bull Headed Rail (Head thicker/stronger than lower part) and Flat Footed Rail.
8. How does the depth of ballast cushion affect rail section?
a) Higher the depth bigger the rail section
P a g e | 34
b) Depth is less, bigger the rail section

c) Depth is less, smaller the rail section
d) Depth and Rail section same
Answer: b
Explanation: The selection of the rail section depends on many factors like heaviest axle
loads, maximum permissible speed, type of sleepers and depth of ballast cushion. If the
depth of the ballast cushion is less, then a bigger rail section has to be provided.
9. The mountain alignment can be classified into _________ types.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: They are the zig-zag development and the switch back development. In the zig-
zag developments, the alignments try to follow the contours of the region to an extent. In the
switch back, certain contours like steep slopes have to be negotiated and may use buffer
stops.
10. What must be done to wooden sleepers before use?
a) Seasoning
b) Washing
c) Painting
d) Hydrating
Answer: a
Explanation: The wood for the sleepers is taken directly from the trees and they contain
moisture. In order to reduce the moisture content, seasoning is adopted. In India, air
seasoning is the most commonly used method
Highway Engineering
Highway Engineering
1. The administration of highway projects depends on __________ factors.
a) 2
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: For each country, the administration of highway projects is different. But there
are three factors common to all countries – social, political and economic.
2. In car – centred approach, ___________ has been considered.
a) Importance of trANSport
b) Managing existing roads for future traffic
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c) Controlling demand for trANSportation

d) Future increase in traffic demand
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four strategies for highway planning. In car-centred approach, the
considerations for future increase in traffic demand are taken care of. They are used in most
large cities.
3. Travel patterns are determined by compiling a profile of ___________ and ___________
of all journeys made within the area.
a) Origin, destination
b) Mode, destination
c) Origin, speed
d) Mode, speed
Answer: a
Explanation: The origin and destination points are considered for travel patterns. It gives
details about the place and exact pattern in which people move from place to place.
4. Which of the below is a commercial element in highway construction?
a) Traffic
b) Installation technique
c) Environmental aspects
d) Material
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two elements in highway construction – technical and commercial.
Technical elements include materials, their quality, traffic, installation techniques whereas
commercial elements include environmental aspects, public concerns, legal aspects, political
aspects, etc.
5. In India roads are classified into ________ based on location.
a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: They are national highways (NH), state highways (SH), major district road
(MDRs), other district road (ODRs) and village road (VRs).
6. The longest international highway is:
a) Pan-American highway
b) TrANS-Canada highway
c) Karakoram highway
d) Australia highway 1
Answer: a
Explanation: Pan-American highway is nearly 25,000 kms long. It connects many countries
P a g e | 36
in America. TrANS-Canada is longest national highway. Karakoram is the highest

international highway. Longest national highway circuit is Australia’s highway 1.
7. ___________ can provide a 3-5 dB reduction in tyre-pavement noise emissions.
a) Asphalt
b) Bituminous
c) Rubberised asphalt
d) Concrete
Answer: c
Explanation: Compared to other options, rubberised asphalt give a 3-5 dB reduction in the
noise produced by tyre-pavement interaction.
8. How many types of pavement surfaces are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: The 2 types are Portland cement concrete (PCC) and hot-mix asphalt (HMA).
Weathering courses, base course is laid below these.
9. The design consideration of highways doesn’t include:
a) Settlement
b) Cross section
c) Level of service
d) Sight distance
Answer: a
Explanation: To design foundation, settlement is an important parameter. For designing
highways: the number of lanes, cross section, level of service, sight distance, alignment,
lane width and so on are important considerations.
10. A prime coat is low viscosity asphalt emulsion used to create bond between existing
pavement and new asphalt overlay.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A tack coat is used to bond existing pavement surface to the new asphalt
overlay. A prime coat is applied to base course prior to laying HMA course.
11. __________ is used in shaping the surface of sand-clay roads.

a) Hoes and rakes
b) Mattocks and bush hooks
c) Drag scraper
d) Plow
P a g e | 37
Answer: a
Explanation: Mattocks and bush hooks are used for trimming surface. Drag scraper is used
for scraping the road surface. Plow is used to expose the surface by overturning it.
Geotechnical Investigation and

Geosynthetics
1. __________ gives general guidance for geotechnical investigation.
a) IS
b) GIS
c) BIS
d) IGS
Answer: d
Explanation: IGS is Indian Geotechnical Society. This body gives the general guidelines to
be followed while conducting a geotechnical investigation. The head office is in Delhi.
2. Geosynthetics includes __________ main product categories.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
Answer: b
Explanation: Geosynthetics are synthetic products (polymeric). The eight categories are
geotextiles, geogrids, geonets, geomembranes, geosynthetic clay liners, geofoam, geocells
and geocomposites.
3. ___________ is useful in determining gradient of water underground.
a) Pressure meter
b) Penetrometer
c) Piezometer
d) Hydrometer
Answer: c
Explanation: Piezometer is used for long term investigation of ground water tables in cut and
fill areas. They are also used to determine if there is upward or downward gradient of water.
4. How many types of primary functions of geosynthetics are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
Answer: a
Explanation: The main functions are separation, reinforcement, filtration, drainage and
containment.
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5. CPT is a more popular method compared to SPT as a method of geotechnical soil

investigation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: CPT is cone penetration test and SPT is standard penetration test. CPT is more
popular than SPT because of higher accuracy, speed, more continuous soil profile and less
cost.
6. How many steps are involved in a soil investigation?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 5
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: The first step is reconnaissance (visual inspection, maps, photos, etc.). The
next step is exploration (geophysical, electrical, pits, etc.). The last step is field tests (vane
shear, pumping, penetration, etc.).
7. The structure of a geocell is:
a) 2D honeycombed
b) 2D floccular
c) 3D floccular
d) 3D honeycombed
Answer: d
Explanation: Geocell is also called a cellular confinement system. It has a 3D honeycombed
structure, which is filled with compacted soil to make it a confinement system.
8. NDT is not employed in geotechnical investigations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: NDT is non-destructive technique and is a modern tool for geotechnical
investigation. A ground penetrating radar which utilizes radar pulses for subsurface imaging
is used.
9. ___________ is the largest group of geosynthetics.
a) Geonets
b) Geomembranes
c) Geotextiles
d) Geogrids
Answer: b
Explanation: Geomembranes are thin sheets of polymeric material and are impermeable.
They are widely used for linings and coverings of liquid or solid storage facilities.
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10. Which of the below is not a test on geosynthetics?

a) Grab test
b) Dry sieve test
c) Pumping in test
d) Tear test
Answer: c
Explanation: Pumping in the test is a field test to determine permeability of soil. All the others
are used to test geosynthetics.
11. Indirect method of geotechnical investigation is also termed as _____________

a) Geo-chemical methods
b) Geo-physical methods
c) Borehole method
d) Soil mechanics
Answer: b
Explanation: Geo-physical methods use the principle that physical properties of soil vary for
different types of soils. It is an indirect method of geotechnical investigation.
Soil Properties
1. Most soils have a particle density of about:
a) 2.6 g/cc
b) 2.9 g/cc
c) 2.5 g/cc
d) 2.7 g/cc
Answer: a
Explanation: Particle density is mass per unit volume of soil particles. It is expressed in g/cc
and most soils have 2.6 g/cc as particle density.
2. Soil exists in how many states?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: Soil can exist in four states based on the amount of water content. They are
liquid, plastic, semi solid and solid state. Water content decreases with each state.
3. In oven drying method for determination of water content, temperature maintained is:
a) 100-105oC
b) 150-160oC
c) 105-110oC
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d) 110-120oC
Answer: c
Explanation: An optimum and constant temperature of 105-110oC is to be maintained in the
oven. The specimen is kept for about 24 hours to ensure proper drying.
4. A soil generally consists of combination of __________ separates.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: The mineral components of soil are termed as separates. These are three of
them – clay, silt and sand. Various soils are designated based on the proportion of
separates.
5. Loose soil has a relative density within a range of:
a) 60-85
b) 85-100
c) 10-35
d) 35-60
Answer: c
Explanation: Relative density is used to express relative compactness of cohesionless soil. It
ranges from <10 to 100 (very loose to very dense). Loose soil has a relative density between
10 and 35.
6. _________ apparatus is used to test liquid limit of a soil.
a) Mohr
b) Casagrande
c) Otto
d) Terzaghi
Answer: b
Explanation: The water content at which soil changes from liquid to plastic state is liquid
limit. Casagrande apparatus consists of a rubber base and brass cup. Sample is filled in a
cup, subjected to blows by rotating handle at 2 revolutions per second. Water content
corresponding to 25 blows is the liquid limit.
7. How many tests in the lab can be performed to get permeability of soil?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: The two tests are constant head permeability test and variable head
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permeability test. The constant head permeability test is done for highly permeable soil and
the other one for fine grained soil.
8. Soil with higher Ic (consistency index) is a better foundation material.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If two soils are to be compared, based on Ic, then higher value one is better
foundation material. If Ic < 0, natural water content < liquid limit and soil would behave like
liquid. This is not a desired property for foundation material.
9. How many types of pores are present in a soil mass?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: The five types are macropore (too large, >75μm), mesopore (30-75μm),
micropore (5-30μm), ultramicropore (0.1-30μm) and cryptopore (smallest, < 0.1 μm).
10. How many grades of soil are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the degree of distinctness of peds (natural aggregates of soil
particles), there are 4 grades of soil. They are structureless, weak, moderate and strong.
Geotechnical Engineering
1. Water content is given by:
a) Weight of water/mass of soil
b) Mass of water/mass of solid
c) Mass of water/mass of soil
d) Mass of water/weight of solid
Answer: b
Explanation: In Geotechnical Engineering, water content is an important parameter for
analysing the soil. It is expressed as mass of water divided by mass of solids. It is denoted
by w and expressed in %.
2. Who is the father of Geotechnical Engineering?
a) Christian Otto Mohr
b) Clausius Cleyperon
c) John Smith
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d) Karl Von Terzaghi
Answer: d
Explanation: He was an Austrian civil engineer and geologist. Most of the findings in
geotechnical engineering and soil properties are done by him.
3. According to Darcy’s Law:
a) q=iA
b) q=kA
c) q∞iA
d) q∞kA
Answer: c
Explanation: Darcy’s Law states that the rate of flow per unit time is proportional to a
hydraulic gradient. q∞iA is the mathematical representation of the law.
4. Triaxial compression test is used to find __________ of soil.
a) Compressive strength
b) Permeability
c) Specific gravity
d) Shear strength
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 4 methods available to measure shear strength of soil – direct shear,
triaxial compression, unconfined compression and vane shear test. Triaxial compression test
is the most accurate one.
5. ____________ index is used to find settlement of soil.
a) Compression
b) ExpANSion
c) Recompression
d) Reloading
Answer: a
Explanation: A plot is made between void ratio (e) and log effective stress (logσ). It shows
different curves corresponding to loading, unloading and reloading of soil. Compression
index Cc= – ∆e⁄∆logσ
6. Which of the following does not happen when compaction is done?
a) Permeability decreases
b) Water content increases
c) Shear strength decreases
d) Compressibility decreases
Answer: c
Explanation: On compaction of a soil mass, the shear strength is increased. It is tightly and
firmly compacted and offers resistance to deformation and flow.
7. ____________ is the measure of loss of strength with remoulding, with water content
unchanged.
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a) Compressibility
b) Sensitivity
c) Stability
d) Thixotropy
Answer: b
Explanation: Sensitivity values range from 1-16. For an insensitive soil, it is 1. A soil with
sensitivity above 16, is termed as quick.
8. In Geotechnical Engineering, soil is considered as a _________ phase material.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Soil is a 3 phase material. It consists of solids, water and air voids. It is
represented in a 3 phase diagram with volume on left side and mass on the right side.
9. Fine particles are those particles with size less than _______ mm diameter.
a) 0.023
b) 0.090
c) 0.075
d) 4.75
Answer: c
Explanation: Fine particles should pass through 75μ IS sieve. Fine particles include clay, silt
and organic content in a soil mass.
10. The mass density of water at 4oC is:
a) 1000g/ml
b) 1kg/m3
c) 1000Mg/m3
d) 1000kg/m3
Answer: d
Explanation: Mass density is the ratio of mass of water to volume of water. At 4oC, it is 1g/ml
or 1000kg/m3 or 1Mg/m3.
11. Percentage air voids is denoted as:

a) v
b) na
c) s
d) av
Answer: b
Explanation: Percentage air voids is the ratio of volume of air in voids to total volume of soil.
It is denoted by na and expressed as a %.
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12. Porosity and void ratio are related by:

a) e = n⁄(1-n)
b) n = e⁄(1-e)
c) 1-e = n
d) (1+n)⁄n = e-1
Answer: a
Explanation: Void ratio is e and porosity is n. Another relationship between the two is
n = e⁄(1+e
Various Cycles of Environment

1. The carbon cycle has how many parts?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The carbon cycle naturally has 2 parts, the terrestrial (movement of carbon
through terrestrial ecosystems) and the aquatic (which is related to carbon movements
through marine ecosystems).
2. The carbon cycle is based on what?
a) CO
b) CO2
c) C6H12O6
d) CO3
Answer: b
Explanation: This cycle is based on movement of CO2 is the ecosystem. It is found in
gaseous form in air and dissolved form in water.
3. In Aquatic ecosystems, carbon is stored in:
a) Marine Plants
b) Marine animals
c) Rocks and sediments
d) Sea water
Answer: c
Explanation: CO2 is stored in rocks and sediments in aquatic ecosystems. These are
released into the atmosphere by weathering of the rocks.
4. How many different forms of precipitation are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
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Answer: c
Explanation: The different forms of precipitation are rain (water drops with diameter at least
0.5mm), snow (ice crystals/flakes with an average density of 0.1g/cm3), drizzle (water drops
less than 0.5mm), glaze (rain touches ground at 0oC), sleet (frozen raindrops) and hail
(pellets or lumps of ice of >8mm size).
5. A nutrient cycle is also called as __________
a) Atmospheric cycle
b) Atmospheric recycling
c) Ecological recycling
d) Ecological chain
Answer: c
Explanation: A nutrient cycle occurs within ecosystems and it is the movement of organic
and inorganic matter between different members of the ecosystem. This is regulated by the
food chains that use these for production and release them into the atmosphere on
decomposition.
6. Living organisms can use Nitrogen (N2) as it occurs in the atmosphere.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The living organisms cannot use N2 to synthesise organic compounds. N2 is
converted to NH3 by nitrogen fixing bacteria and then to nitrate by nitrifying bacteria which
can then be used by organisms.
7. The major source of Nitrogen deposition is:
a) Fertilizers
b) Deforestation
c) Factories
d) Household waste
Answer: a
Explanation: Nitrogen rich fertilizers are often overused. As a result, nitrogen gets into the
soil, favouring growth of weeds. It is also washed into waterways, where again it causes a
growth of aquatic weeds.
8. Which of the following cycle does not have a gaseous state?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon
d) Phosphorous
Answer: d
Explanation: Phosphorous is present as inorganic phosphate PO43-. It is released from
rocks and sediments. It is absorbed by plants and is incorporated into the nucleic acids.
9. In water cycle, the process can be explained in equation form as Evaporation +
__________ = Precipitation
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a) Infiltration
b) Ground water
c) TrANSpiration
d) Run-off
Answer: d
Explanation: Water cycle has three components – evaporation, run-off and precipitation.
TrANSpiration is included in evaporation. Run-off is that part of the water which is not
evaporated.
10. How many steps are involved in the sulphur cycle?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: The steps are assimilative sulphate reduction, desulphurization, oxidation of
hydrogen sulphide, oxidation of elemental sulphur, dissimilative sulphur reduction and
dissimilative sulphate reduction.
11. In the marine nitrogen cycle, _________ performs nitrogen fixation.
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Nitrobactor
c) Pseudomonas
d) Diazotrophs
Answer: a
Explanation: Diazotrophs are used to perform nitrogen fixation in normal nitrogen cycle.
Nitrobactor is used for nitrification and Pseudomonas for denitrification.
12. In hydrogen cycle _________ is a sink used.
a) Ocean
b) Fossil fuels
c) Microbial soil uptake
d) Nitrogen fixation
Answer: c
Explanation: There are mainly 2 sinks used in hydrogen cycle – oxidation by hydroxyl
radicals and microbial soil uptake. The rest of the options are sources.
13. Denitrification in nitrogen cycle happens in __________ conditions.

a) Aerobic
b) Humid
c) Anaerobic
d) Cold
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Answer: c
Explanation: Denitrification refers to the process of reduction of nitrates back to nitrogen gas.
Pseudomonas bacteria makes this happen. It uses nitrates in the soil to carry out respiration
and consequently, produce nitrogen gas.
14. How many reservoirs are there in the oxygen cycle?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The three main reservoirs are the atmosphere (air), biosphere (the global sum
of all ecosystems) and Earth’s crust.
15. An analogous process for organic nitrogen compounds to desulphurisation in the sulphur
cycle is:
a) TrANSnitrification
b) Denitrification
c) Deamination
d) Assimilation
Answer: c
Explanation: Deamination is the process of removal of amino group from an organic
molecule. The enzymes which catalyse this reaction are deaminases.
Sustainable Engineering
1. Carbon footprint can be measured by:
a) Carbon dating
b) Instruments
c) Carbon accounting
d) Formula
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an
individual, event, organisation or product. It is expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent. It can
be measured by assessment of GHG (greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon
accounting.
2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show bio productivity
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at each trophic level. The three types are the pyramid of energy, pyramid of numbers and
pyramid of biomass.
3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to environment is:
a) BEA
b) BA
c) MA
d) MEA
Answer: d
Explanation: MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is between 2
nation states, it is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement. These are predominantly
produced by the United Nations.
4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable development.
a) GHG indicator
b) Agenda 21
c) IPCC
d) UNEP
Answer: b
Explanation: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally,
nationally and locally by governments of member nations of UN and those major groups in
every area in which humANS impact on the environment.
5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?
a) 40-49
b) 60-79
c) 50-59
d) 80-110
6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
Answer: d
Explanation: This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low energy materials,
thus reducing carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has access to natural daylight.
7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.
a) Tidal wave
b) Currents
c) Water
d) Ripples
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydel power is obtained from a high velocity of running water. It is abundantly
P a g e | 49
present. It is used for a longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional

energy.
8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:
a) 1992
b) 1990
c) 1993
d) 1994
Answer: a
Explanation: William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The concept and
calculation was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis Wackernagel under Rees’
supervision from 1990-1994.
9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?
a) Eutrophication
b) Regional ozone
c) Climate change
d) Pollution
Answer: c
Explanation: These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional and global.
Climate change, global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc. are all issues at a global
level.
10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:
a) Biomass
b) Biofuel
c) Bioenergy
d) Bio carbon
Answer: a
Explanation: It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades in the form of
biomass. The carbon from these are released into the atmosphere on decomposition.
11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
a) Propene
b) Copper
c) Graphene
d) Potassium
Answer: c
Explanation: Graphene quantum dots can recycle waste CO2 to fuel. Scientist Pulickel
Ajayan has shown the conversion of CO2 into ethylene and ethanol using electro catalysis in
lab conditions
Solid Waste Management

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1. How many major sources of solid waste are there based on their origin?
a) 10
b) 5
c) 9
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: There are broadly 9 sources of solid waste. They are residential, industrial,
commercial, institutional, construction & demolition areas, municipal services, treatment
plants, agriculture and biomedical.
2. Which of the below is not an idea behind solid waste management?
a) Control of waste generation
b) Storage and collection
c) Disposal
d) Stop waste generation
Answer: d
Explanation: The generation of solid waste cannot be stopped. The idea behind solid waste
management is to reduce and eliminate the adverse effects of these on the environment and
human health.
3. The number of functional components of solid waste management is:
a) 5
b) 3
c) 6
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: The six functional components in order are waste generation (identification of
waste), onsite handling & storage (at site of waste), waste collection (collecting from different
sources), waste trANSfer (local to regional site), waste processing (sorting of
reusable/recyclable) and disposal (at landfills/waste to energy).
4. The term ISWM refers to:
a) International Solid Waste Management
b) Integrated Solid Waste Management
c) Integrated Solid Waste Machine
d) International Solid Waste Mechanism
Answer: b
Explanation: It stands for Integrated Solid Waste Management. It refers to the selection and
use of appropriate techniques for the disposal of solid waste.
5. Under which rule of Government, guidelines for solid waste management are followed
today?
a) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000
b) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2016
c) Solid Waste Rules, 2000
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d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016
Answer: d
Explanation: At present, we have to follow the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016. This
new rule was notified on 8th April 2016 and it supersedes the Municipal Solid Waste Rules,
2000. This new sets of rules have been extended to all Indian local bodies.
6. The average composition of Municipal solid waste is:
a) 41% organic, 40% inert & 19% recyclable
b) 20% organic, 60% inert & 20% recyclable
c) 30% organic, 20% inert & 50% recyclable
d) 19% organic, 41% inert & 40% recyclable
Answer: a
Explanation: The bulk of organic waste arrives from households and agriculture. The inert
waste is generated from construction sites, demolitions, public places, etc.
7. There are __________ ways to treat waste thermally.
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: The process which use heat to treat the waste are referred to as a thermal
treatment. These include incineration (combustion of waste & recover energy for
electricity/heating), pyrolysis (decomposition of organic waste with low oxygen and high
temperature), and open burning (environmentally harmful and mostly practical).
8. How many types of landfills are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: They are sanitary landfills, controlled dumps and bioreactor landfills. Sanitary
landfills are the most common and are situated where the land features aid in
decomposition. Controlled dumps are well planned sites and bioreactor landfills use a
superior microbiological process for decomposition.
9. Bio-medical waste can be effectively managed by the thermal process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The thermal process uses heat in varying temperatures to disinfect the
pathogens present. Autoclave & microwave process uses low heat whereas incinerator and
hydroclaring use high heat to render the waste pathogen free.
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10. The WHO has classified the bio-medical waste into ___________ categories.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: b
Explanation: The WHO has classified these into 4 categories- infectious (waste from
surgeries and any material containing pathogens), pathological (tissues/orgANS/drugs, etc
which are not required), radioactive (contaminated with a radioactive substance) and others
(waste from hospital housekeeping/kitchen).
11. Which gas produced in open dumps from the decomposition of biodegradable waste?
a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Propene
d) Ethene
Answer: b
Explanation: Methane is released by the decomposition under anaerobic conditions. This
can cause fires and explosions and promote global warming too.
Wastewater Management
1. The term ‘Sullage’ refers to:
a) Fresh wastewater
b) Septic wastewater
c) Wastewater from kitchen, laundry
d) Toxic wastewater
Answer: c
Explanation: The domestic wastewater generated from household laundry, preparation of
food, cleaning of utensils and personal washing is called sullage.
2. Wastewater can become septic by the loss of:
a) Dissolved oxygen content
b) Carbon content
c) Organic compounds
d) Water content
Answer: a
Explanation: In conditions of warm weather, the dissolved oxygen content of the wastewater
loses and it becomes septic. It has an offensive odour of hydrogen sulphide.
3. Which one of the below is not an attribute of drinking water?
a) Aesthetics
b) Economic
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c) Safety
d) Source
Answer: d
Explanation: Aesthetics refers that the water should be colourless, odourless and pleasing to
taste. Safety meANS it should be free from any chemicals or pathogens. And it should be
economic for everyone.
4. The extent of water treatment depends on how many factors?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The extent of treatment depends on 2 factors- the quality of water (depends on
the source) and the beneficial uses (high quality for domestic, production sector, low quality
for housekeeping, a germ free for recreational and for agricultural purposes having low TDS,
Na ratio, etc.).
5. One of the major objectives of water treatment plants is the removal of turbidity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbidity is the presence of solid particles in water. The removal of it removes
the colour, taste, odour producing components and makes water pleasant and safe to drink.
6. What is added to the water treatment tank to settle the colloidal particles?
a) Alum
b) Alum and lime
c) Lime
d) Potash
Answer: b
Explanation: Chemicals like alum and lime are added to the raw water. Then a rapid mix is
done to mix the chemicals with the water. After this, it goes into the coagulation unit, where
the colloidal particles combine to form a flock.
7. Disinfection of water in our country is mainly done by ____________
a) Oxygenation
b) Hydration
c) Chlorination
d) Filtration
Answer: c
Explanation: Disinfection is the most inexpensive way of killing the microorganisms present
in the water. The water is chlorinated and some residual chlorine of 0.5mg/litre is left so that
contamination in the distribution system is taken care of.
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8. Which minerals and in what form are present in ground water?

a) Fe & Mn in Ferrous and Manganous
b) Fe & Cu in Ferric and Cupric
c) Fe & Mn in Ferric and manganous
d) Cu & Mn in Cuprous and manganous
Answer: a
Explanation: Both these are present in their reduced forms. If the ground water has more
than the permissible amounts (Fe less than or equal to 0.3mg/litre and Mn≤ 0.05mg/ltr) then
it should be treated.
9. How many types of wastewater treatment plants are there based on the type of
wastewater?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 3 types- Sewage, Industrial and Agricultural.
10. On how many conditions does the intervention of wastewater depend on?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The seven factors are ground conditions, ground water level, location and type
of water source, topography, quantity and quality of wastewater produced, climatic, socio-
cultural factors.
Environmental Engineering
1. The living environment, the biosphere consists of __________ components.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
Answer: d
Explanation: The biosphere consists of 3 components – land (lithosphere), water
(hydrosphere) and air (atmosphere). They are all necessary for life to sustain on earth.
2. The presence of gas in water is indicated by:
a) Fizzing sound
b) Foam
c) Bubbles
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d) Colour change
Answer: b
Explanation: Water may be polluted by the presence of some unpleasant gases from
industries. They are recognized by the foaming of water.
3. To test turbidity of polluted water in the field, _________ is used.
a) Baylis Turbidimeter
b) Jackson Turbidimeter
c) Turbidity tube
d) Turbidity rod
Answer: d
Explanation: The first three options are used to test turbidity in the lab. The turbidity rod is a
graduated aluminium rod.
4. Refuse may be of _________ types.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The rejected materials which are collected in dustbins and the foul discharges
that are carried by underground drains are termed as refuse. It may be dry refuse (grass,
paper, cloth, vegetable peels) or wet refuse (urinals, kitchen discharges).
5. In the method of trenching, the size of the trench may be:
a) 12 x 5 x 2m
b) 15 x 5 x 3m
c) 12 x 3 x 2m
d) 15 x 5 x 5m
Answer: c
Explanation: Trenching is a method of disposing of solid waste. Trench is dug of size 12 x 3
x 2m, waste is filled and levelled and then covered with a layer of earth or ash.
6. Hydrogen Peroxide is generated from:
a) Photochemical smog products
b) Explosive manufacturing industry
c) Automobile exhausts
d) Thermal power plants
Answer: a
Explanation: It is generated from the photochemical smog products. It is a common pollutant
in the air and can cause lungs irritation when inhaled.
7. When some chemical is mixed with water, _________ is formed.
a) Solution
b) Floc
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c) Bubbles
d) Foam
Answer: b
Explanation: Coagulation can be explained by this method. Floc is the thick gelatinous
precipitate which forms when chemicals (coagulants) are mixed with water.
8. Which of the below leads to disturbance of nitrogen fixation in the soil?
a) Urban waste
b) Fertilizers
c) Pesticides
d) Industrial effluents
Answer: b
Explanation: Use of excess fertilizers destroys the microbial plant life in the soil. It leads to
disturbance of nitrogen fixation, which is an essential process in soil.
9. _________ is the simplest equipment used for collection of solid particulates.
a) Inertial separators
b) Filters
c) Settling chamber
d) Cyclones
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of a chamber in which the velocity of carrier gas is reduced in order
to allow particulates to settle out of moving stream under the action of gravity.
10. Pollution cases can be classified into _________ types.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: There can be two types based on special dimensions. They are localised
pollution cases (spill accidents) and diffused pollution cases.
11. _________ is a raw material sent to and processed in a waste recycling plant.
a) Recyclant
b) Nodules
c) Particulars
d) Recyclate
Answer: d
Explanation: It is used to form new products. For example, plastic bottles can be a recyclate.
It is Collected and processed to manufacture new ones.
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12. What are the main constituents of the environmental cycles?

a) Water cycle and food cycle
b) Water cycle and nutrient cycle
c) Nutrient cycle
d) Water cycle and air cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: The environmental cycles are natural processes in which the different elements
of the environment are cycled in various forms. These include the water cycle and nutrient
cycle (which include Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen and Phosphorus cycles, etc.
13. Failures within hydrosphere in oxygen cycle can result in the development of:
a) Hyperoxic zones
b) Hypoxic zones
c) Hydrolic zones
d) Hydroxic zones
Answer: b
Explanation: Hypoxic zones are also called dead zones. These are areas with low oxygen
content and can be inhabitable for living organisms. Any failure in the hydrosphere within
oxygen cycle can lead to the formation of hypoxic zones
Basic Surveying Terms

1. How many types of bench mark are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Bench mark is an object bearing a marked point whose elevation above or
below a datum is known. The 2 types are the temporary and permanent bench mark.
2. The difference between magnetic north and geographic north is:
a) Dip
b) Strike
c) Declination
d) Bearing
Answer: c
Explanation: Declination is determined using the compass. The error is calculated and the
necessary addition or deduction is carried out.
3. In the triangulation method, the whole area is divided into:
a) Scale triangles
b) Triangles
c) Obtuse triangles
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d) Well-conditioned triangles
Answer: d
Explanation: Well-conditioned triangles are those triangles with an angle less than or equal
to 60o. The plot is divided into such triangles, as it is the easiest figure that can be plotted
and analysed.
4. A stone that marks boundary is called:
a) Merestone
b) Milestone
c) Metestone
d) Linestone
Answer: a
Explanation: If a stone is used to mark a boundary, it is called Merestone. If a tree is on the
property line, it is called a Line tree.
5. Which of the below is not a classification of surveying?
a) Marine
b) Basement
c) Astronomical
d) Land
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on place of survey, the classification includes land, marine and
astronomical categories. Basement refers to underground, no survey is performed there.
6. EDM stands for:
a) Errorless Distance Measurement
b) Electronic Direct Measurement
c) Electronic Distance Measurement
d) Errorless Direct Measurement
Answer: c
Explanation: To locate points, measure angles, distance and perform other surveying
operations, an EDM can be used. It gives all the details with a click of button. Total station is
an example of EDM.
7. Plane and geodetic surveying are classifications of surveying based on:
a) Methodology
b) Earth’s curvature
c) Object of survey
d) Instrument
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on Earth’s curvature to be considered or not while surveying, plane and
geodetic surveying are there. Earth’s curvature is considered in geodetic and not considered
in plane surveying.
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8. _________ errors are small unavoidable fluctuation.

a) Random
b) Gross
c) Systematic
d) Mistake
Answer: a
Explanation: Those errors which are made while performing survey are called gross errors.
These can accumulate and finally lead to re-doing the whole procedure. Systematic error
follows a consistent pattern.
9. Plan is a small-scale representation of a large area.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Map is a small-scale representation of a large area. Plan is a large-scale
representation of a small area.
10. Which of the below is not a meANS of linear surveying methods?
a) Theodolite
b) EDM
c) Tape
d) Chain
Answer: a
Explanation: Theodolite is an instrument used to measure angular readings. It is used in
angular surveying. All other options are used to take linear measurements.
11. The term Gore is used to indicate:

a) Rectangular land
b) Perimeter of a land
c) Thin triangular land
d) A measure of distance
Answer: c
Explanation: Gore is a thin triangular piece of land. Metes and bounds are used to describe
the perimeter of the parcel of land. Mete is a measurement of distance.
12. An acre is equal to 107,639 square feet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: An acre is equal to 43,560 square feet. A hectare is equal to 2.471 acres or
107,639 square feet.
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Structures
1. Generally acceptable nominal size of aggregates for reinforced concrete, is
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm
Answer => C
2. For heavily reinforced concrete member, the nominal maximum size of the
aggregates should be restricted tomain bars
A. 5 ram less than the minimum clear distance between the
B. 5 mm less than the minimum cover to the reinforcement
C. smaller of (a) and (b)
D. greater of (a) and (b).
Answer => C
3. The average 28 days compressive strength of at least three 15 cm concrete cubes

prepared with available water as compared to the average strength of three similer
concrete cubes prepared with distilled water, should be at least
A.70%
B.80%
C.90%
D. 95%.
Answer => C
4. The pH value of water to be used in concrete shall generally be

A. not more than 7
B. not less than 6
C. not less than 5
D. not more than 6.
Answer => C
5. All reinforcement should be free from

A. loose mill scales
B. loose rust
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C. paints
D. all the above.
Answer => D
6. For all practical purposes, the modulus of elasticity of steel is assumed

A. 200 If.N/mm2
B. 225 kNimm2
C. 250 IfN/mm2
D. 275 kN/mm2.
Answer => A
7. M 30 grade concrete meANS, its compressive strength of 15-cm cube, is 30 N/mm2

after
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days.
Answer => D
8. The grade of concrete generally not used in the rein-forced concrete, is
A.M 10
B. M 15
C. M 20
D. M 40.
Answer => A
9. The characteristic strength of concrete is the strength of material if its test result is
not less than
A.2%
B.3%
C.4%
D.5%
Answer => D
10. If fck is characteristic compressive strength of concrete, the flexural and split
tensile strength fr = a .Nifek N/mm2 where the value of a is
A.0.4
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B.0.5
C.0.6
D.0.7
Answer => D
11. If fah is the characteristic cube strength of concrete in N/mm2, the modulus of
elasticity of structural concrete E =coffii; where the value of a, is
A.5900
B.5800
C.5700
D.5600
Answer => C
12. Creep of concrete is assumed proportional to the stress if the stress does not
exceed ..... of the characteristic compressive strength
A.15%
B.20%
C.25%
D.33%
Answer => D
13. The creep coefficient i.e. the ratio of ultimate creep and elastic strain after
A. 7 days is 2.2
B. 28 days is 1.6
C. 365 days is 1.1
D. all the above.
14. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of
concrete should be
A. very low
B. low
C. medium
D. high.
Answer => D
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22. The tolerances for the form work of columns and beams range from
A. -3 mm to + 6 mm
B. - 4 mm to + 8 mm
C. - 6 mm to + 12 mm
D. - 8 mm to + 12 mm.
Answer => C
23. If the specified thickness of a footing is 100 cm, the depth of the form work may
be tolerated from
A. - 2 mm to + 2 mm
B. - 3 mm to + 3 mm
C. - 4 mm to + 4 mm
D. - 5 mm to + 5 inm.
Answer => D
24. Removal of props under

A. slabs spanning upto 4.5 m is 7 days
B. slabs spanning upto 4.5 m is 14 days
C. beams spanning upto 6 m is 14 days
D. all the above.
Answer => D
25. The cover to the main reinforced may be reduced up to one third of the specified
cover but not less than
A. 5 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 15 mm.
Answer => A
26. Moist curing of the exposed surfaces of concrete is done at least for
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days.
Answer => C
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27. For under water concreting.

A. at least 10 percent more cement is required as compared to dry conditions
B. the volume of coarse aggregates shall not be less than one and half times and not more
than twice that of fine aggregate
C. the slump should not be less than 100 mm and not more than 180 mm
D. All the above
Answer => D
28. The grade of plain concrete to be used in sea water or structures exposed to sea
water, should be
A. M 10
B. M 15
C. M 20
D. M 30.
Answer => B
Source and Classification of Sand

1. What is sand composed of?
a) Silica
b) Silicon
c) Silicon oxide
d) Quartz
Answer: a
Explanation: Sand is composed of small grains of silica (SiO2). It’s also called silicon dioxide.
2. Which of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar and concrete work?
a) Sea sand
b) Clayey sand
c) Pit sand
d) River sand
Answer: c
Explanation: Pit sand doesn’t contain any salts and has sharp, angular grains. These are the
desired properties for a sand to be used for mortar and concrete.
3. At what depth should pit sand be excavated from?
a) 1 – 2 m from bed of water body
b) 1 – 2 m from ground surface
c) 1 – 2 cm from bed of water body
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d) 1 – 2 cm from ground surface
Answer: b
Explanation: Pit sand is found in Earth in deposits. It is obtained by forming pits in the soil. At
a depth of 1 – 2 m from the ground surface, angular grained pit sand is obtained.
4. Which IS code gives the grading of sand?
a) IS 456
b) IS 383
c) IS 2368
d) IS 1542
Answer: b
Explanation: IS code 383-1970 gives the classification of sand based on the grading. There
are 4 grading zones. For each sieve size, there is a specific % of particle passing through
that sieve, denoted in the respective zone.
5. What type of grains constitutes river sand?
a) Angular
b) Flaky
c) Irregular
d) Rounded
Answer: d
Explanation: River sand is constituted of fine round grains. These are the result of mutual
attrition under the effect of water current. It is naturally occurring, clean and mostly white in
colour.
6. Sand is a fine grained component in soil.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Sand size lies in the range 4.75 mm to 75 microns. A fine grained component of
a soil has a size less than 75 microns.
7. How many classifications are there for sand based on the grain size distribution?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: There are three types of sands based on grain size distribution. They are fine
(passes through 1.5875 mm sieve), coarse (passes through 3.175 mm sieve) and gravelly
sand (passes through 7.62 mm sieve).
8. Fine sand is generally used for which of the following works?
a) Masonry
b) Concrete structures
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c) Plastering
d) Grinding and polishing
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastering is the act of applying a layer of plaster over a wall. It gives the wall a
smooth and decorative appearance. Hence, for achieving the smoothness, fine grained sand
is employed.
9. How is M-sand produced?
a) Crushing bricks
b) Quarrying
c) Reusing the debris of demolished building
d) Crushing granite stones
Answer: d
Explanation: M-sand stands for Manufactured sand and contains cubical grains with
grounded edges. These are the perfect replacement for sand to be used in construction
works.
10. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using M-sand?
a) Cost effective
b) Available in single size
c) Dust and impurity free
d) Can be obtained from hard rock
Answer: b
Explanation: M-sand is obtained by crushing specific hard rock and since it’s manufactured
in factories, any size can be manufactured depending on the need.
Bulking of Sand
1. What is the meaning of bulking of sand?
a) Increase in volume of sand due to moisture absorption
b) Increase in weight of sand due to moisture absorption
c) Increase in mass of sand due to moisture absorption
d) Increase in strength of sand due to moisture absorption
Answer: a
Explanation: When water is added to sand, a thin film of water is formed around the sand
particles. The film exerts surface tension on particles, making them move apart. This leads
to an increase in volume because there is no direct contact among particles.
2. How is bulking related to moisture content?
a) Keeps on increasing with moisture content
b) Increases to a certain point and then decreases
c) Keeps on decreasing with moisture content
d) Decreases to a certain point and then increases
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Answer: b
Explanation: The volume i.e. bulking increases as sand absorbs moisture. At about 6- 10%,
the film starts breaking and the volume reduces. If sand absorbs further moisture, no bulking
takes place.
3. a, b, c in the figure below in order are:
a) coarse, fine, medium grained sand

b) fine, coarse, medium grained sand
c) medium, fine, coarse grained sand
d) fine, medium, coarse grained sand
Answer: d
Explanation: As fine grained sands have higher voids than medium and coarse grained
sands, the percentage of moisture absorbed and the percentage volume increase is the
highest.
4. What happens if bulking is not accounted for while preparing concrete?
a) Concrete gets hardened
b) Concrete is not affected
c) Concrete gets softened
d) Concrete becomes watery
Answer: a
Explanation: If care is not taken while volume batching, concrete is likely to be undersanded
and gets hard eventually.
5. By how much percentage does the volume increase when the moisture content is 5-10%?
a) 10-20%
b) 20-40%
c) 30-40%
d) 20-30%
Answer: b
Explanation: The studies on bulking have shown this result. It is visible in the graphical
representation of bulking also.
6. How is particle size of sand related to bulking?
a) Not related
b) Directly proportional
c) Inversely proportional
d) Shows variable relation
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Answer: c
Explanation: Finer particle size will have more voids compared to coarser once. They tend to
absorb more water and hence exhibit more bulking.
7. What does ‘h’ represents in the formula used to calculate the bulking factor?
a) Height of jar
b) Height of saturated sample
c) Height of dry sample
d) Height of water
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula used to calculate bulking factor is (H-h/h) x 100%. ‘H’ represents
height to which dry sand sample is filled in jar and ‘h’ represents the height of the saturated
sample.
8. Bulking is the phenomenon applicable to both fine and coarse aggregates.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Bulking is possible only in fine aggregates. In coarse aggregate, size of particle
is large, void space is less and so water absorption is not possible up to the extent of fine
aggregates.
9. Sand does not show any bulking when:
a) Completely saturated
b) Partially saturated
c) Contains small amount of impurities
d) Voids are partially filled with air
Answer: a
Explanation: A completely saturated sand has no void space left to absorb any more water
and undergo bulking.
10. What effect does bulking have on fresh concrete?
a) Strength reduces
b) Shrinkage increases
c) Volume reduces
d) Workability increases
Answer: d
Explanation: The excess water in the sand can be used to maintain water-cement ratio. It
improves workability and hence it is easier to place fresh concrete. Strength is a property of
hardened concrete.
Foundation
1. How many types of foundations are there based on depth?
a) 3
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b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: The 2 types are shallow and deep foundations. Shallow foundation trANSfers
the load to very near earth. Deep foundations are used for high rise buildings to bear heavy
loads.
2. The figure below represents:
a) Isolated footing
b) Wall footing
c) Strap footing
d) Mat foundation
Answer: b
Explanation: Wall footing or strip footing is a continuous strip of concrete that serves to
spread weight of load bearing wall.
3. ___________ footing is used in load bearing masonry construction.
a) Isolated
b) Strap
c) Strip
d) Pile
Answer: c
Explanation: The strip footing bears a whole load of an entire wall. It is a continuous footing
that runs below the wall.
4. How many types of combined footing are possible?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Combined footing is provided when 2 columns are very close by. They can be
rectangular or trapezoidal in section.
5. CPRF stands for:
a) Combined Plain Round Foundation
b) Connected Pile Round Foundation
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c) Combined Pile Raft Foundation

d) Corrosion Proof Raft Foundation
Answer: c
Explanation: CPRF uses the combination of pile and raft foundation as the name suggests. It
is used as a foundation for high rise buildings. It is more powerful, strong, load bearing, safe
than raft or pile when used.
6. Micropiles find its main application in retaining walls.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Micropiles are used for under pinning. They are used in highways, bridges and
trANSmission tower projects. Sheet piles are extensively used in retaining walls.
7. Steining is a component of which of the below type of foundation?
a) Pile
b) Strap
c) Isolated
d) Well
Answer: d
Explanation: Well foundation is a type of deep foundation. It is shaped like a well. The well is
dug, filled with sand/concrete. Steining is the wall provided to the well and it is built over a
wedge shaped portion, called well curb.
8. Pier foundation is also called:
a) Caisson
b) Box
c) Bridge
d) Girder
Answer: a
Explanation: Caisson foundation is often used in the construction of bridge piers, hence it is
also called pier foundation. Caisson can be floated to the site and sunk to the required
position. It is used under water also.
9. The figure below represents __________ piles.
a) Load bearing
b) End bearing
c) Friction
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d) Sheet
Answer: c
Explanation: Friction piles are usually used in construction to provide underground support to
structures. They work on static friction developed between soil surface and the pile.
10. Which of the below is not a preliminary consideration for building a foundation?
a) Bearing capacity of soil
b) Ground water condition
c) Settlement control
d) Soil organisms
Answer: d
Explanation: Bearing capacity of soil, ground water conditions and settlement control are all
very important parameters to be considered while selecting the right foundation. Every soil
contains organisms, foundation should be able to withstand their activities.
11. Machine foundation is subjected to:

a) Static loads
b) Wind loads
c) Static and dynamic loads
d) Dynamic loads
Answer: c
Explanation: Machine foundation is used in industries, workshops, where there is machinery
under use. The static load includes a dead load of the machine and dynamic load (the
working load). It should be able to withstand both these loads.
Properties of Cement
1. Why is natural cement used very limitedly?
a) Brown in Colour
b) Standard consistency is not met with
c) Sets too quickly
d) Particle size is too fine
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural cement sets very quickly after the addition of water and hence it is not
quite workable. Artificial cement is preferred over this.
2. Who invented Portland cement and in which year?
a) William Aspdin, 1824
b) William Aspdin, 1840s
c) Joseph Aspdin, 1840s
d) Joseph Aspdin, 1824
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Answer: b
Explanation: Joseph Aspdin patented Portland cement in 1824. William Aspdin, his son is
regarded as the inventor of modern Portland cement due to his developments in 1840s.
3. What is the average particle size of cement?
a) 15 microns
b) 45 microns
c) 75 microns
d) 100 microns
Answer: a
Explanation: Approximately 95% of cement particles are smaller than 45 microns and the
average particle size is 15 microns.
4. What is the meaning of soundness of cement?
a) Ability to flow when mixed
b) Ability to make ringing noise when struck
c) Ability to form strong and sound structure
d) Ability to retain volume after setting.
Answer: d
Explanation: When cement paste hardens and sets, it should not undergo any volume
change. Soundness ensures this and is tested using Autoclave expANSion test.
5. Time elapsed from the instance of adding water until paste ceases to behave as fluid is
called:
a) Initial setting time
b) Final setting time
c) Intermediate setting time
d) Absolute setting time
Answer: a
Explanation: Final setting time is the time required for cement paste to reach a certain state
of hardness. Option c and d does not exist.
6. Which of the below mentioned is not a result of field test performed on cement?
a) There should not be any lumps
b) It should feel cold when you put your hand in bag of cement
c) The colour should be blackish grey
d) It should not be gritty when rubbed with finger
Answer: c
Explanation: The colour of cement is normally grey with a greenish tint. There are different
shades – lighter and darker, but it does not go as dark as blackish grey.
7. Which equipment is used to test the setting time of cement?
a) Core cutter
b) Vibrator
c) Universal testing machine (UTM)
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d) Vicat apparatus
Answer: d
Explanation: Core cutter is used to determine dry density of soil. Vibrator is used in sieve
analysis. UTM can be used to test various parameters – tension, bending, shear of various
materials. Vicat apparatus consists of a needle, used to penetrate the cement paste sample.
8. What is the initial setting time of cement?
a) 1 hour
b) 30 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 30 hours
Answer: b
Explanation: As per IS code 4031-part 5, the initial setting time of cement is minimum of 30
minutes. After this cement will start losing its plasticity and will not be workable.
9. Use of coarser cement particles leads to:
a) Low durability
b) Higher strength
c) Low consistency
d) Higher soundness
Answer: a
Explanation: For coarser particles, hydration starts on the surface of particles, hence, it
might not be completely hydrated. This causes low strength and low durability.
10. Wet cement can cause severe skin burns if not washed off with water immediately.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Cement is highly alkaline and setting process is exothermic. Wet cement is
strongly caustic and causes skin burns. Similarly, dry cement causes eye or respiratory
irritation, when it comes in contact with mucous membranes.
11. Green cement is:

a) Green coloured cement
b) Cement mixed with plant products
c) Cement mixed with recycled materials
d) Cement mixed with green algae
Answer: c
Explanation: Green cement is a cementitious material which employs the use of optimized
recycled materials. These can meet or even exceed the functional performance of Portland
cement.
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12. What is the depth the needle in Vicat apparatus should penetrate into the cement paste
in consistency test?
a) 33-35 cm from bottom of the mould
b) 33-35 mm from top of the mould
c) 33-35 cm from top of the mould
d) 33-35 mm from bottom of the mould
Answer: b
Explanation: The best procedure has been clearly mentioned in IS 4031 Part 4. According to
the code, 33-35mm depth of penetration is ideal
Seasoning of Timber
1. Seasoning of timber is the process of:
a) Burning timber
b) Adding preservatives
c) Removing water
d) Adding glaze
Answer: c
Explanation: Tree when felled contains sap and high moisture content. To use it for
engineering purpose, it has to be dried. The process of drying timber to remove water is
called seasoning.
2. Which of the below changes do not occur after seasoning?
a) Increase durability
b) Decrease stiffness
c) Workable timber
d) Reduction in weight
Answer: b
Explanation: Seasoning increases the stiffness of timber. It takes away sap and moisture
content and imparts stiffness to timber.
3. Kiln seasoning gives stronger timber.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Natural seasoning is the one that gives stronger timber. Kiln seasoning results
in weaker, lighter timber.
4. How much time does natural seasoning takes for timber to be properly seasoned?
a) 1-4 years
b) 6-12 months
c) 5-10 months
d) 5-7 years
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5. Which of the below is a disadvantage of air seasoning?

a) Power requirement
b) Skilled supervision
c) Elaborate equipment
d) Uniformity of seasoning
Answer: d
Explanation: Air or natural seasoning does not require power, skilled supervision and
elaborate equipment. These are all advantage of air seasoning. It might not give uniformly
seasoned timber.
6. How many methods of artificial seasoning are there?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 8
Answer: c
Explanation: The 5 types are water seasoning, boiling, chemical seasoning, electrical
seasoning and kiln seasoning.
7. Which method leaves the timber brittle after seasoning?
a) Water seasoning
b) Kiln seasoning
c) Electric seasoning
d) Boiling
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber pieces are totally immersed in running water for 2-4 weeks. The sap,
organic matter is carried away by water in water seasoning. It renders the timber brittle.
8. Which of the below chemicals is not used in chemical seasoning?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Urea
c) Sodium hypochlorite
d) Sodium nitrate
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemicals used are dehydrating agents. Timber is immersed in such salt
solutions and allowed to reduce water content. Sodium hypochlorite is a disinfectant.
9. Which is the most rapid and effective method of seasoning?
a) Chemical seasoning
b) Electric seasoning
c) Kiln seasoning
d) Natural seasoning
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric seasoning involves passing high electricity through timber. Since it is a
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bad conductor of electricity, it gets heated up. It results in rapid seasoning and it is effective
as it provides uniform seasoning.
10. In kiln seasoning, the temperature of air inside chamber and humidity is high.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Seasoning starts at low temperature and high humidity. As it proceeds,
conditions are gradually altered. At the end, in the chamber, temperature is high and the
humidity is low.
11. For how long is timber boiled in water in the seasoning method of boiling?
a) 3-4 hours
b) 1-2 hours
c) 5-6 hours
d) 10-12 hours
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber is immersed in water and allowed to boil for 3-4 hours. Then it is taken
into shed and dried very slowly.
Qualities of Timber
1. The surface of freshly cut timber should be:
a) Soft and shining
b) Hard and shining
c) Perfectly round
d) Light in colour
Answer: b
Explanation: Dull appearance is a sign of defective timber. Soft surface is prone to attack by
insects, fungus and is not a good quality.
2. The quality of timber does not depend upon:
a) Maturity of tree
b) Time of felling
c) Type of tree
d) Size of tree
Answer: d
Explanation: The size of a tree is not of much importance. The weight, maturity of tree
matters and not length.
3. How should the smell of a freshly cut timber be?
a) Sweet
b) Pungent
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c) Unpleasant
d) Odourless
Answer: a
Explanation: One can detect the quality of a timber by smelling freshly cut timber. Ideally, it
should be sweet. Unpleasant smell indicates decay of timber.
4. Where is the property of shock resistance an important parameter?
a) Furniture
b) Utensils
c) Tool handles
d) Doors
Answer: c
Explanation: A good timber should be capable of resisting shocks. Tool handles, parts of
motor cars, aeroplanes should use timber that has good shock resistance.
5. Timbers with ___________ annular rings are generally the strongest.
a) Narrow
b) Wide
c) Distinct
d) Indistinct
Answer: a
Explanation: Annular rings are formed every year and they consist of innumerable cells of
fibres and tissues. Total number of annular rings indicate an age of tree. Narrow annular
rings indicate the strength of tree.
6. How can the quality of timber be checked via sound?
a) Timber struck by hammer
b) Timber tapped by hand
c) Timber knocked by chisel
d) Two timber pieces struck together
Answer: d
Explanation: Just as in the case of bricks, two timber pieces are taken and struck against
each other. A good quality timber should make a clear ringing sound.
7. How should be the colour of good quality timber?
a) Light
b) Gradient
c) Dark
d) Brown
Answer: c
Explanation: Heart wood consists of dead cells which are free from sap, hard, dark in colour.
Hence, dark coloured wood is preferred. Light colour indicates low strength.
8. Timber should be light weight.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Heavy and dense timber is the one used for all purposes. Light weight wood
results in weak, unsound structure.
9. Which of the below is true about good timber?
a) Elastic
b) Round fibres
c) Less cost
d) Less density
Answer: a
Explanation: Timber should be elastic i.e., it should retain shape when load causing
deformation is removed. A good timber should have straight, compact fibres, moderate cost
and high density.
10. The water permeability of timber is greater:
a) Along centre
b) Along Fibres
c) Along annual rings
d) Along bark
Answer: b
Explanation: Water permeability of timber should essentially be zero. If it absorbs water, it is
prone to decay. Fibres are most porous.
Characteristics and Ingredients of Paint

1. What is a vehicle in paint used for?
a) To obscure surface
b) To adhere to surface
c) To provide shine to surface
d) To reduce crack on surface
Answer: b
Explanation: Paint consists of two ingredients-a base and a vehicle. Base helps to obscure
the surface. A vehicle allows even spreading, binding and adhering to surface.
2. Paint should provide resistance to:
a) Corrosion
b) Sound
c) Heat
d) Warping
Answer: a
Explanation: Paint should resist corrosion and protect the surface over which it is applied.
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3. The base in a paint does not serve the function of:

a) Durability
b) Hard and elastic
c) Protection against UV rays
d) Catalyst
Answer: d
Explanation: There are certain components called driers in the paint. They act as catalysts.
4. Which of the below is the most commonly used base?
a) Red lead
b) Zinc white
c) White lead
d) Oxide of iron
Answer: c
Explanation: White lead possess good bulk, it is dense, permanent and water proof. It is a
carbonate of lead and forms the base in lead paints.
5. Lithophone is a base widely used for exterior works.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Lithophone changes colour when exposed to day light. Hence, it is used for
interior works of inferior quality.
6. How does drier act as a catalyst?
a) Releasing oxygen
b) Releasing water
c) Absorbing oxygen
d) Absorbing water
Answer: c
Explanation: Drier accelerates the rate of drying of paint film. It absorbs oxygen from the
atmosphere and trANSfers it to a vehicle, which in turn hardens.
7. Which of the below vehicles are used for ordinary work?
a) Nut oil
b) Poppy oil
c) Stand oil
d) Linseed oil
Answer: a
Explanation: Nut oil is colourless and it dries rapidly. It is cheap as it is prepared from
ordinary walnuts. Hence, these are used for ordinary works.
8. When should drier be added to the paint?
a) 12 hours before paint is used
b) Immediately after opening it
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c) 1 hour before paint is used

d) When paint is ready to use
Answer: d
Explanation: Driers when added to paint, will start doing their action as a catalyst
immediately. This will lead to hardening of paint, decreasing workability.
9. ________ Oil is thicker and darker than raw oil, which is used as vehicle?
a) Double boiled linseed oil
b) Boiled linseed oil
c) Pale boiled linseed oil
d) Linseed oil
Answer: b
Explanation: Raw linseed oil is thin and pale. It requires more time to dry. Boiled linseed oil
is thicker and darker than raw oil and dries quickly.
10. Which of the below is a characteristic of an ideal paint?
a) Health of the worker is unaffected
b) Costly
c) Pleasant smell
d) Dries rapidly
Answer: a
Explanation: The person applying the paint should be safeguarded from any toxic or harmful
ingredients. The paint should economic, the smell is typically bit pungent. Paint should dry at
a reasonable time, not slowly or rapidly.
11. _________ base is generally used for priming coat to new wood work?
a) Antimony white
b) Titanium dioxide
c) Aluminium powder
d) Red lead
Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminium powder forms bulk of aluminium paints. It prevents warping and
cracking of wood when applied to a new wood work.
Types and Uses of Paints

1. In how many layers is oil paint applied to a surface?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
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Answer: a
Explanation: Three layers of varying compositions are applied. They are primers, undercoats
and finishing coats.
2. Emulsion Paints contain:
a) Nitro cotton
b) Zinc white
c) White lead
d) Polyvinyl acetate
Answer: d
Explanation: Nitro cotton is an element contained in cellulose paints, zinc white and white
lead are components of enamel paints.
3. Anticorrosive paint is ___________ in colour
a) Blue
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of pigments like chromium oxide, lead or zinc chrome. It is mixed
with sand and added to the paint. These pigments make the paint blackish in colour.
4. In which of the below, it is not necessary to remove existing paint to apply a new one?
a) Aluminium paints
b) Cement paints
c) Oil paints
d) Enamel paints
Answer: b
Explanation: They are suitable for painting fresh plasters having high alkalinity. They can be
directly applied on existing paint, hence they are economic.
5. Synthetic rubber paints are prepared from:
a) Resin
b) Rubber
c) Synthetic fibres
d) Polyvinyl Chloride
Answer: a
Explanation: Synthetic rubber paint is prepared from resins. These are chemically resistant
and offer protection against heavy rain, sunlight.
6. Cement paints require a smooth surface to be applied on.
a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
Explanation: Cement requires a rough surface for its application. It can adhere better onto
rough surfaces than smoother ones.
7. What is used to make paints odourless to an extent?
a) Flat latex
b) Celluloid sheets
c) Acrylic compound
d) Plioway resins
Answer: d
Explanation: These eliminate the odour present in alkyd, stain blocking primers. It also aims
to reduce VOC content (volatile organic compound), which is harmful.
8. Spray painting is used to:
a) Apply paint without touching surface
b) Apply large amount of paint
c) Reach high areas
d) Get textured paint
Answer: a
Explanation: Spray painting delivers a small amount of paint and gives the surface a smooth
finish. Rollers are used to reach high areas.
9. The open-time of paint can be extended by adding white spirit.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Open-time is the time interval, after the application of liquid paint, during which
other paint can be applied to give artistic effect. White spirit, Dowanol can be used. These
allow different layers of wet paints to mix together and give a textured appearance.
10. Which of the below has a sheen and is highly washable?
a) Acrylic flat
b) Acrylic eggshell
c) Acrylic satin
d) Acrylic gloss
Answer: c
Explanation: It has a satin finish. Compared to other types, it is more durable and washable.
Properties of Concrete
1. Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:
a) 8
b) 6
c) 4
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d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on the state of concrete, its properties vary. Concrete in the fresh state
has different properties than concrete in a hardened state.
2. The accumulation of water on the outer surface of the concrete is:
a) TrANSpiration
b) Bleeding
c) Guttation
d) Ponding
Answer: b
Explanation: Bleeding can be good as well as bad for fresh concrete. Sometimes due to
improper mixing, the water forms a thin layer on the outer surface, by oozing out through
voids.
3. Which of the below property of aggregates is not desirable?
a) Smooth texture
b) Well graded
c) Angular shape
d) Smaller size
Answer: c
Explanation: Aggregates should provide space for cement paste so as to lubricate the area.
The parameters like texture, size, shape, grading are to be considered. Larger size, cubical,
round and rough textured aggregates are preferred.
4. How does the strength of concrete differ with age of concrete?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No effect
d) Increases, then decreases
Answer: a
Explanation: It increases with increase in age. The strength measured after days, months
and years shows an increase. It takes 28 days for concrete to attain full strength. However, it
continues to attain strength even after 28 days.
5. Impermeability is a property of fresh concrete.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Fresh concrete cannot be judged as impermeable. After it hardens and forms a
structure, it may be impervious or pervious. Ideally, it should be impermeable.
6. Permanent dimension changes due to loading is termed as:
a) Strain
b) Extent
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c) Creep
d) Ambit
Answer: c
Explanation: Concrete shrinks with age. The changes in dimension are called creep. It is
determined using creep coefficient which is the ratio of ultimate creep strain to elastic strain
at the age of loading.
7. Which admixture is used to improve workability?
a) Plasticizers
b) Metakaolin
c) Reducers
d) Accelerators
Answer: a
Explanation: Plasticizers help to increase the workability of concrete without altering the
water-cement ratio. It is very helpful as it provides the required workability, at the same time
does not compromise on strength.
8. Workability reduces with time.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of evaporation of water from concrete mix increases as time
increases. Loss of water leads to less workability.
9. Bleeding is good to an extent if it occurs when concrete is:
a) TrANSported
b) Mixed
c) Plastic
d) Placed
Answer: c
Explanation: While the concrete is still plastic, the accumulated water due to bleeding can be
used to mix concrete again and improve workability. It also benefits by further reducing
water-cement ratio.
10. M15 concrete is used for:
a) Dams
b) Foundation
c) R.C.C
d) Mass concreting works
Answer: b
Explanation: M10 is used for Mass concrete works, dams, etc. M20 is used for R.C.C.
structures. M15 can be used for ground floor construction also.
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11. In design of R.C.C. structures, the tensile strength of concrete is taken as:
a) 5N/mm2
b) 2N/mm2
c) 0.3N/mm2
d) 0N/mm2
Answer: d
Explanation: Since concrete does not take up tensile loads, it is taken as zero. But IS 456-
2000 recommends the tensile strength to be calculated using Ft = 0.7√fck N/mm2.
12. Higher the cement content,
a) Higher aggregates
b) Lower workability
c) Higher strength
d) Lower strength
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher the cement content i.e. lower the aggregate cement ratio, higher is the
strength. It improves workability also
Market Forms and Uses of Steel

1. The carbon content of steel is:
a) Less than 0.15%
b) 2% – 4%
c) 0.08%
d) 0.002% – 2.1%
Answer: d
Explanation: Cast iron contains 2-4% of carbon, wrought iron contains less than 0.15% of
carbon and stainless steel contains maximum 0.08% carbon.
2. When carbon contents less than 0.1%, steel is called:
a) Mild steel
b) Medium carbon steel
c) Dead steel
d) Hard steel
Answer: c
Explanation: Mild steel contains carbon up to 0.25%. Medium carbon steel has 0.25%-0.7%
carbon. Hard steel has 0.7-1.5%.
3. Very low carbon steel is used for:
a) Wires
b) Wire nails
c) Screw drivers
d) Rods
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Answer: b
Explanation: Since it has very low carbon contents, that is 0.05-0.1% it can be used for low
strength works.
4. What property does steel impart to an R.C.C. structure?
a) Compression and tension
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Compression
Answer: a
Explanation: Concrete and steel are primarily used in R.C.C – reinforced cement concrete.
Concrete is strong in compression and weak in tension. Steel is strong in both properties
and hence provides strength to the structure.
5. Which of the below is not an ISI classified channel section?
a) ISLC
b) ISJC
c) ISHC
d) ISMC
Answer: c
Explanation: ISLC stands for Indian Standards Light Channel. Similarly, there are Junior (J),
Medium (M) and Special (S) Channels. There is no heavy (H) Channel.
6. What is the full form of TMT bars?
a) Thermo Modified Treated
b) Thermo Mechanically Treated
c) Thermal Mechanic Twisted
d) Thermo Mechanically Twisted
Answer: b
Explanation: TMT bars are produced by sudden quenching of red hot steel bars by spraying
water. Hence it is called Thermo Mechanically Treated bar.
7. Corrugated sheets are also referred to as:
a) CS Sheets
b) CI Sheets
c) GC Sheets
d) GI Sheets
Answer: d
Explanation: The corrugated sheets are galvanized to add a protective coating to the steel
sheet. Hence, GI-Galvanized Iron sheet is another name for corrugated sheets.
8. Flat iron bars are used generally for:
a) R.C.C
b) Grill work
c) Roofing
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d) Truss
Answer: b
Explanation: These are available in varying widths ranging from 10mm-400mm and
thickness from 3mm-40mm. These are widely used in the construction of steel grill work for
windows and gates.
9. Which of the below is not a disadvantage of using ribbed-torsteel bars?
a) High labour charge
b) Not easily identifiable
c) Weaker than plain round steel
d) Arc welding is not possible
Answer: a
Explanation: These bars are produced from ribbed-torsteel which is a deformed high
strength steel. These bars have projections (ribs) on their surface. The bending, fixing and
handling of these bars are simplified and it results in less labour charge.
10. Steel plates are rarely used for:
a) Connecting steel beams for extension
b) Serving as tension members in the truss
c) Forming built up sections of steel
d) Providing support in R.C.C structures
Answer: d
Explanation: Steel bars and rods are used widely in R.C.C structures. Steel plates find
application in structural steel works.
Properties and Uses of Aluminium

1. Aluminium is commercially produced from:
a) Aluminium sulphate
b) Alum
c) Cryolite
d) Bauxite
Answer: d
Explanation: Bauxite is the most commonly used ore of aluminium for production. It occurs
as a weathering product of iron and silica.
2. By which of the below process is Aluminium manufactured?
a) Bayer process
b) Ostwald process
c) Mayer process
d) Haber process
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Answer: a
Explanation: In the Bayer process, alumina in bauxite is dissolved in caustic soda solution
and precipitated to obtain aluminium hydroxide and calcinated to form pure Al2O3.
3. Which is the most important and useful alloy of Aluminium?
a) Magnalium
b) Silumin
c) Duralumin
d) Magnox
Answer: c
Explanation: Duralumin consists of 95% aluminium, 4% copper, 0.5% magnesium and 0.5%
manganese. It is widely used in aircraft manufacturing due to its light weight and high
strength.
4. Aluminium has a higher maintenance cost.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminium has excellent corrosion resistance and can withstand weathering,
hot and humid conditions also. Hence, maintenance cost required is less.
5. Which of the following is a property of aluminium?
a) Hard material
b) Brittle
c) Noise control
d) Magnetic
Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminium is an excellent reflector of electromagnetic and sound waves.
Therefore, it is less affected by external noise compared to other building materials.
6. Aluminium appears greyish in colour in pure form.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Pure form of Aluminium is white in colour. Its colour can vary from grey to
yellow or light green depending on the presence of impurities. Yellow colour is imparted by
Iron trichloride (impurity).
7. Aluminium finds its application in:
a) Golf clubs
b) Dehydrating agents
c) Waste management
d) Cricket field
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Answer: a
Explanation: Compared to steel, aluminium is lightweight. Aluminium golf heads, shafts allow
golfers to swing faster and increase the ball’s distance with each shot.
8. What is the melting point of Aluminium?

a) 250oC
b) 658oC
c) 700oC
d) 470oC
Answer: b
Explanation: The boiling point of aluminium is 2470oC. It is strong and can be widely used
everywhere.
9. Recycled Aluminium is called:
a) Primary Aluminium
b) Green Aluminium
c) Secondary Aluminium
d) Subsequent Aluminium
Answer: c
Explanation: Recycled Aluminium is called secondary aluminium and same properties of
primary aluminium.
RCC, PSC and Ferro-Cement

1. R.C.C. can be classified into:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforced cement concrete can be of two types. It can either be pre-cast or be
casted in-situ.
2. PSC stands for:
a) Post-Stressed Concrete
b) Post-Strained Concrete
c) Pre-Stressed Concrete
d) Pre-strained Concrete
Answer: c
Explanation: Pre-Stressed Concrete refers to the block of concrete which has been
subjected to compression prior to supporting any loads.
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3. __________ is used to construct very thin, hard and strong surface:

a) R.C.C.
b) PSC
c) PCC
d) Ferro-Cement
Answer: d
Explanation: Ferro-Cement is a system that reinforces mortar with metal (steel, iron bars). It
is used for the construction of relatively thin structure like hull of boat, shell roofs, etc.
4. The compression in PSC is done by _________ of high-strength tendons.
a) Compression
b) Tensioning
c) Shearing
d) Bending
Answer: b
Explanation: Tendons can be a single wire, mesh, threaded bars made from high tensile
steels. The pre-stressing is done by tensioning tendons.
5. In an R.C.C structure, the tension zone lies in the:
a) Top
b) Middle
c) Side
d) Bottom
Answer: d
Explanation: In the R.C.C. structure, there is a neutral axis in the middle, where no
compression and tension is there. Layers above it are subjected to compression and the
ones below it is subjected to tension.
6. R.C.C. was developed and first used by:
a) Joseph Monier
b) John Smeaton
c) Francois Coignet
d) Joseph Asphadin
Answer: c
Explanation: Joseph Monier founded ferro-cement. John Smeaton is considered the father of
Civil Engineering. Joseph Asphdin founded Portland cement. Francois Coignet was a French
industrialist and the first to use iron-reinforced concrete.
7. Which of the below structure doesn’t require PSC?
a) Bridge
b) Arch
c) Dam
d) Silos
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Answer: b
Explanation: Arches don’t require PSC. They are not under so much compression and
loading. All other structures carry heavy loads and hence will be efficient if PSC is used.
8. How many methods of ferro cementing are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: The three methods are armature system, closed mould system and integrated
mould system.
9. In which beam tension capacity of steel is greater than combined compression capacity of
steel and concrete?
a) Over-reinforced
b) Under-reinforced
c) Singly reinforced
d) Doubly reinforced
Answer: a
Explanation: Over-reinforced beams have higher tension capacity. So, these beams fail by
crushing of compression zone concrete, without any warning.
10. In a PSC, the tensioning system may be classified into:
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Tensioning can be mono-strand or multi-strand. In mono-strand, only one
strand is tensioned at a time. In multi-strand, multiple strands are tensioned simultaneously.
11. Which of the below is not a property of ferro cement?

a) Impervious nature
b) Capacity to resist shock
c) No need of formwork
d) Strength per unit mass is low
Answer: d
Explanation: The ferro cement has reinforcement provided in mortar. It has a strength per
unit mass higher than R.C.C. It has better tension resisting property.
Cost Effective Construction Techniques

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1. Low cost housing in Kerala was first developed by:

a) Lawrence Becker
b) Larry Baker
c) Laurence Becker
d) Laurie Baker
Answer: d
Explanation: Laurie Baker was a British born Indian architect. He developed ideas for cost
effective, energy efficient buildings.
2. What is the total area allotted for a low-cost house?
a) 40m2
b) 30m2
c) 20m2
d) 10m2
Answer: c
Explanation: The Planning Commission has recommended the Government of India to adopt
the following minimum standard for a low-cost house: – living room (11.1m2), veranda and
kitchen 6.5m2), bathroom (1.3m2), lavatory (1.1m2) and total of 20m2.
3. In Rat-trap bond masonry, course height is:
a) 110mm
b) 75mm
c) 230mm
d) 190mm
Answer: a
Explanation: Rat-trap bond masonry uses bricks of size 230x110x75mm. In this masonry,
bricksare laid on edges, making the course height to be 110mm. Laying of bricks creates a
cavity wall automatically.
4. For ordinary soil, which foundation can reduce cost?
a) Isolated
b) Arch
c) Ream pile
d) Combined
Answer: b
Explanation: Using arch foundation can reduce cost up to 40%. Foundation is an important
part of building and costs higher. A reduction is achieved, without compromising on strength.
5. Which masonry material is used for cost reduction?
a) Stone blocks
b) Concrete blocks
c) Laterite blocks
d) Cement blocks
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Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete blocks consume only 1/3rd of energy used in the production of red
bricks. It reduces the wall thickness from 20 to 15cm, and mortar also. Overall reduction in
the cost of 10 to 25% can be achieved.
6. Which of the below is not a filler material in filler slabs?
a) Rubber pieces
b) Clay pots
c) Burnt clay bricks
d) Coconut shell
Answer: a
Explanation: In R.C.C slabs, concrete in the lower portion does not help in anyway because
it is weak in tension (bottom zone). Therefore, in filler slabs, it is replaced by certain filler
materials, like coconut shells, burnt clary bricks, pots etc.
7. Rat-trap bond masonry requires _________ less mortar.
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
Answer: c
Explanation: Rat-trap bond masonry is a technique where bricks are laid on their edges.
Hence approximately 25% less bricks and 40% less mortar is used compared to
conventional one.
8. For natural and cost-effective ventilation, ________ can be used.
a) Hollow bricks
b) Wall openings
c) Skylight
d) Brick jali
Answer: d
Explanation: Bricks are arranged in such a way that a jali (hole) is formed. These provide
cross ventilation, natural lighting and reduction in cost greatly. They can be used in parapets,
living rooms, etc.
9. By using filler slab technique:
a) 20% saving of concrete is there
b) Aesthetic ceiling is obtained
c) Less thermal comfort is there
d) Load on foundation increases
Answer: b
Explanation: The filler material can be arranged in a systematic way, pattern to give an
aesthetically pleasing ceiling. The filler materials can be exposed, instead of plastering them.
5-10% saving of concrete, more thermal comfort and the load on columns and foundation
are reduced.
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10. Economy can be achieved in doors, windows, ventilator by:

a) No frame
b) Less width
c) Steel frames
d) Less height
Answer: c
Explanation: Doors, windows and ventilators are openings in the wall that are held on a
frame. Not using a frame is economic, but not very aesthetic. Using concrete/steel frames
instead of wood can help in reducing cost.
11. For sloping roofs, ferro cement roofing units can be used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Instead of using RCC, ferro cement roofing units can be used for sloping roofs.
They are lighter and stronger than RCC. The material requirement is also less.
Damp Proofing
1. DPM stands for:
a) Damp Proof Material
b) Damp Proof Mix
c) Damp Proof Member
d) Damp Proof Membrane
Answer: d
Explanation: DPM is a membrane material applied to prevent dampness. It can be used for a
DPC (Damp Proof Course). An example is laying a polyethylene sheet under concrete slabs.
2. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor consists of the layer of:
a) Metal
b) Coarse sand
c) Fine sand
d) Concrete
Answer: b
Explanation: Coarse sand layer of about 75-100mm thickness is provided over the entire
area under the floor. Over this, a layer of plain concrete with a ratio of 1:4:8 of 100mm
thickness is laid.
3. Dampness spreads upwards from the ground only.
a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
Explanation: Dampness does spread from the ground upwards. In addition to this, dampness
can also spread from roof downwards due to rain water.
4. At roof slab level over the DPC, __________ are provided.
a) Tiles
b) Concrete
c) P.C.C
d) Rubber sheet
Answer: a
Explanation: Tiles are provided to reduce the dampness. The treatment of dampness at roof
level involves treating parapet and roof slab. A PCC is provided on parapet, then DPC and
then tiles on the roof slab.
5. DPC materials can be classified into:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The materials can be classified into 3 categories. They are a flexible material,
semi rigid materials and rigid materials.
6. DPC materials should ideally be flexible, where differential thermal movements occur.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Although semi rigid and rigid materials can be used, flexible materials are the
best. These do not tend to crack or puncture under differential thermal movements, between
the material of roof and parapet.
7. Which of the below is an example of semi rigid DPC material?
a) Plastic sheeting
b) Cement concrete
c) Asphalt
d) Stone
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastic sheeting is an example of a flexible material. Cement concrete and
stone are examples of rigid materials.
8. For DPC at plinth level, which grade of concrete is used?

a) M10
b) M20
c) M25
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d) M15
Answer: d
Explanation: Cement concrete is used to provide DPC at plinth level. 38-50mm thickness of
M15 (1:2:4) cement concrete is provided and it serves the purpose under normal conditions.
Plastering
1. Plastering is also called:
a) Pre-casting
b) Pargeting
c) Porting
d) Polishing
Answer: b
Explanation: Pargeting is decorative or water proof plastering that is applied on the walls.
2. __________ is used to ensure that the thickness of plastering is uniform.
a) Bull point
b) Pivot point
c) Bull mark
d) Bench mark
Answer: c
Explanation: It is provided at a specific distance to make sure that the required thickness of
plastering is even throughout. It is a small rectangular or hexagonal mark.
3. Before plastering, the surface has to be:
a) Rough
b) Smooth
c) Cemented
d) Watered
Answer: a
Explanation: All the mortar joints and the brick surface has to be slightly scraped so as to
obtain a rough surface. Plastering will be able to bond better on to a rough surface.
4. Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?
a) IS 1500
b) IS 1221
c) IS 1400
d) IS 1661
Answer: d
Explanation: IS code 1661 deals with the code of practice for the application of cement and
cement-lime plastering on buildings.
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5. Which of the below is not a plaster type based on the material?

a) Cement
b) Gypsum
c) Pozzolana
d) Lime
Answer: c
Explanation: Plastering requires a binding material and aggregates. The binding material is
cementitious-cement, lime and gypsum. Pozzolana are siliceous compounds and possess
no cementitious nature as such. When mixed with water, they can act as a cementitious
material. But are generally not used in plastering.
6. In plastering, the 1st coat is called ___________ and its thickness should be _______ mm.
a) Undercoat, 6-9
b) Floating coat, 6-9
c) Floating coat, 10-15
d) Undercoat, 10-15
Answer: d
Explanation: Plastering can either be done in single, 2 or 3 coats. The 1st coat is undercoat
of thickness of 10-15mm. 2nd coat is floating coat of 6-9mm thickness. The last coat is the
finishing coat of 2-3mm thickness.
7. ___________ are used to press mortar and spread it uniformly.
a) Trowel
b) Aluminium rod
c) Floats
d) Brush
Answer: c
Explanation: Trowel is used for gauging and applying mortar to surface. Aluminium rod is
used to strike off excess mortar. Brush is used to clean it.
8. Wood surface requires _________ coats of plastering.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) None
Answer: b
Explanation: Wood and metal surface require 3 coats of plastering so that the surface is
completely safe and sealed. Stone and brick masonry generally require 2 coats and a single
coat is done for low cost construction.
9. In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:
a) Lime:cement:sand
b) Cement:Lime:sand
c) Lime:sand:gravel
d) Cement:sand:gravel
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Answer: b
Explanation: In plastering, a binding material and fine aggregate are used. Since in lime-
cement plaster, 2 binding materials are present, a ratio of both material and sand is taken.
10. Which of the below is not a plaster finish?
a) Rough-cast
b) Pebble dash
c) Sand faced
d) Wooden
Answer: d
Explanation: There is no wooden plaster finish available. Rough-cast is provided to the
external surface using 1:1:3 mortar (cement:sand:coarse aggregates). Pebble or flint dash
finish involves embedding 10-20mm sized pebbles or flints in 12mm thick plaster. Sand
faced finish is provided with 1:1 mortar.
Tests on Concrete
1. Modulus of elasticity, E is calculated using:
a) E=5000
b) E=500
c) E=50
d) E=5
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulus of elasticity is found out to determine plastic or elastic nature of
concrete. In the formula, fck is the characteristic strength.
2. The figure below represents a:
a) Low slump
b) Normal slump
c) Shear slump
d) Collapse slump
Answer: d
Explanation: In slump test, fresh concrete is filled in a slump cone and it is taken off. The
shape of the so formed concrete is represented in the figure above. The concrete has
completely collapsed, hence the name.
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3. Tensile strength is found out using:

a) CTM
b) Gradual tensile test
c) Split tensile test
d) Radial tensile test
Answer: c
Explanation: In addition to using characteristic strength fck to determine tensile strength, split
tensile test can also be used. It is performed using a UTM.
4. Flexure strength is determined as:
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of rupture
c) Modulus of plasticity
d) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: b
Explanation: Flexure strength of concrete is defined as the tensile strength of extreme fibre
of plain concrete beam. It is determined in terms of modulus of rupture.
5. Compaction factor for a heavily reinforced section with vibration is:
a) <0.75
b) 0.75-0.85
c) 0.85-0.92
d) >0.92
Answer: c
Explanation: Compaction factor test is conducted to determine the compaction factor. It has
different values required for different purposes. To concrete a heavily reinforced section with
vibration it is 0.85-0.92.
6. The result of Vee-Bee test is expressed in terms of:
a) s
b) m
c) N/mm2
d) kg
Answer: a
Explanation: The time is tested is Vee-Bee test. Time required to complete remoulding of
concrete when subjected to the vibration is measured. It is then expressed in seconds.
7. The size of a commonly used specimen for compression test is:
a) 50×30 mm
b) 150x150x150 mm
c) 150x50x50 mm
d) 150×150 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: The commonly used specimen to test compressive strength is a cube. It has 3
P a g e | 100
dimensions-length, width and height. These cubes are cast in moulds of size
150x150x150mm.
8. Concrete is filled in how many layers in slump cone in slump test.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 6
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: The fresh concrete is filled in slump cone in 4 layers. Each layer is tamped 25
times with a 16mm pointed rod. The specifications are given in IS 1199.
9. Modulus of rupture is calculated using the formula:
a) f=PL/bd2
b) f=PL3/3EI
c) f=I/6bd2
d) f=Pb/Ld2
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulus of rupture is found out dividing maximum moment M/section
factor Z. M is given by PL/6 and Z=1/6bd2.
10. A slump of 50-100mm can be used for:
a) Mass concreting
b) Strip footing
c) Trench fill
d) Beams
Answer: d
Explanation: Slump of higher value gives greater workability, but yields less strength. A
slump of 25-75mm can be used for mass concreting and strip footing. A slump of 100-150cm
is used for trench fill.
11. How many hoppers are there in compaction factor test?

a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 2 hoppers and 1 cylinder in the apparatus. Concrete is poured in
hopper A (first one). The hinged bottom is opened, concrete falls to 2nd hopper B. Again,
hinged bottom is opened, concrete is allowed to fall into cylinder C.
12. If cylinder specimen is used to test compressive strength, equivalent cubes strength can
be found using:
a) 3/4th strength of cylinder
b) 5/4th strength of cylinder
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c) 5/6th strength of cylinder

d) 1/4th strength of cylinder
Answer: b
Explanation: This formula is recommended by IS codes. IS 516 gives the details.
Types of Structures
1. Pyramid is a type of ___________ structure.
a) Triangulated
b) Massive
c) Pneumatic
d) Framed
Answer: b
Explanation: Massive or lintelled structure is built with a large amount of materials. It can
take up compression efficiently and has very few spaces.
2. Pneumatic structure contains:
a) Metal
b) Water
c) Wood
d) Compressed air
Answer: d
Explanation: Compressed air is filled inside a pneumatic structure. It is light and can be
deflated and dismantled easily. It is used in fun, activity area for kids.
3. Vault is an architectural term for:
a) Cable
b) Bridges
c) Arch
d) Dam
Answer: c
Explanation: Vault is an arched form used to provide high ceiling spaces. There can be
barrel vault or continuous vaults.
4. How many types of frame structures are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2 main types are rigid frame structure and braced frame structure. Both of
these are further sub-divided into two.
P a g e | 102
5. Which of the below is a disadvantage of frame structure?

a) Ease of construction
b) Economy
c) Speed of construction
d) Span length
Answer: d
Explanation: Span length is usually restricted to 40ft when normal R.C.C. is used. SpANS
greater than this can cause lateral deflections.
6. In frame structure, what trANSfers the load to columns?
a) Foundation
b) Beams
c) Slabs
d) Roofs
Answer: b
Explanation: The load bearing action in a framed structure is as follows- slab to a beam,
beam to column, column to foundation.
7. In a truss structure, _________ bear tension.
a) Joints
b) Base
c) Bottom chords
d) Top chords
Answer: c
Explanation: The bottom beams are called bottom chords and are capable of bearing
tension. The top chords bear compression.
8. The figure below represents a:
a) Warren truss
b) Pratt truss
c) King post truss
d) Lattice truss
Answer: a
Explanation: Warren truss consists of series of equilateral triangles, alternating up and down
as shown in the figure.
9. Shell structure does not have any:
a) Bending moment
b) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Compressive stress
P a g e | 103
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a thin structure. It resists and trANSfers loads within its minimal thickness.
Loads applied to it are carried to ground by tensile, shear and compressive forces.
10. ___________ structure is a space truss geometry inspired.
a) Quadric
b) Quadron
c) Quadror
d) Quadrangle
Answer: c
Explanation: This structure uses 4 identical L-shaped pieces which results in a trestle
structure and allows flexible and versatile design. It allows for rapid assembly. It can be used
as road barriers, interior column, interior partitions, etc.
11. Triangulated structure is used for:

a) Wall
b) Bridges
c) Arch
d) High rise buildings
Answer: b
Explanation: Triangulated structure is also referred to as truss. It is widely used in roofing. It
is also employed in bridges.
Sieve Analysis
1. The sieve sets for coarse aggregate ranges from:
a) 40-4.75mm
b) 20-4.75mm
c) 80-4.75mmvi
d) 100-4.75mm
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 565, the sieve sets are 80mm, 40mm, 20mm, 10mm, 4.75mm
for coarse aggregates.
2. The aggregate sample for the sieve analysis is placed on:
a) Largest sieve
b) Smallest sieve
c) 40mm IS sieve
d) 4.75mm IS sieve
Answer: a
Explanation: Only if the sample is placed on largest sieve size, it can be sorted, according to
each smaller sieve size below.
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3. What is a receiver in a sieve analyser?

a) Round pan on top
b) First sieve
c) Last sieve
d) Round pan at base
Answer: d
Explanation: At the base of all the sieve sets, round pan is placed to collect the particles finer
than the last sieve size. It is called the receiver.
4. How is percentage retained on each sieve calculated?
a) wsample/wsieve
b) wsieve/wsample
c) wsieve-wsample
d) wsample-wsieve
Answer: b
Explanation: The percentage retained is calculated by dividing weight of sample retained by
the weight of the total sample, taken in beginning of test.
5. In how many ways can sieve analysis be carried out?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: The 5 methods are throw-action, horizontal, tapping, wet and air circular jet.
6. Under what circumstance is a wet sieve analysis carried out?
a) Sample is washed
b) Moisture content is high in sample
c) Sample contains organic matter
d) Very fine powdered sample
Answer: d
Explanation: Sometimes samples contain very fine powders which tend to agglomerate. In
dry sieve analysis, it would lead to clogging of meshes and it makes analysis difficult.
7. Which of the below is a limitation of performing sieve analysis?
a) Time consuming
b) Costly
c) Particle shape
d) Particle size
Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of particles is assumed to be nearly round or spherical so that they
pass through the square opening. For elongated, flaky particles it will be difficult.
P a g e | 105
8. A narrow gradation is also called:

a) Gap gradation
b) Uniform gradation
c) Rich gradation
d) Open gradation
Answer: b
Explanation: A graph is plotted after performing sieve analysis. It shows different curves. A
narrow gradation is also called uniform gradation. It shows that the aggregate is of
approximately the same size.
9. For how long is the mechanical vibrator shaked?
a) 15-20 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10-15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS code 2720 Part 4. Mechanical vibrator is switched on and allowed to
vibrate for 15-20 minutes. It ensures proper grading of particles.
10. For fine aggregates that is, sample passing through 4.75mm IS sieve, how much sample
should be taken?
a) 5 kg
b) 1 kg
c) 2 kg
d) .5 kg
Answer: b
Explanation: IS 2720 gives the specifications. It requires using sample weighing 5 kg for
coarse aggregates and 1 kg for fine aggregates.
11. Gradation affects the properties of an aggregate.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Gradation affects properties like bulk density, physical stability and
permeability. With careful selection of the gradation, desired properties can be achieved.
WITH BEST REGARDS

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CIVIL ENGINEERING

Types of Structures ............................................................................................................................. 101

Hydraulics And Fluid Mechanics

resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as

(e) specific viscosity.

temperature in kg/cm is equal to

(e) low density and viscosity.

(e) all temperature.

bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended

(e) 4000 kg.

(e) Chezy’s equation.

13. Earth dams are _________ in shape.

14. Hydraulic head for a small dam is:

4. Tank water irrigation system is common in:

1. How many types of land use patterns are there?

b) Polders and dikes

8. How many number of source types of noise are there?

Port and Harbour Engineering

8. The ferry designs are dependent on:

b) Depth is less, bigger the rail section

c) Controlling demand for trANSportation

in America. TrANS-Canada is longest national highway. Karakoram is the highest

11. __________ is used in shaping the surface of sand-clay roads.

Geotechnical Investigation and

5. CPT is a more popular method compared to SPT as a method of geotechnical soil

10. Which of the below is not a test on geosynthetics?

11. Indirect method of geotechnical investigation is also termed as _____________

d) Karl Von Terzaghi

11. Percentage air voids is denoted as:

12. Porosity and void ratio are related by:

Various Cycles of Environment

13. Denitrification in nitrogen cycle happens in __________ conditions.

present. It is used for a longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional

Solid Waste Management

d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016

8. Which minerals and in what form are present in ground water?

12. What are the main constituents of the environmental cycles?

Basic Surveying Terms

8. _________ errors are small unavoidable fluctuation.

11. The term Gore is used to indicate:

3. The average 28 days compressive strength of at least three 15 cm concrete cubes

4. The pH value of water to be used in concrete shall generally be

5. All reinforcement should be free from

6. For all practical purposes, the modulus of elasticity of steel is assumed

7. M 30 grade concrete meANS, its compressive strength of 15-cm cube, is 30 N/mm2

24. Removal of props under

27. For under water concreting.

Source and Classification of Sand

d) 1 – 2 cm from ground surface

a) coarse, fine, medium grained sand

c) Combined Pile Raft Foundation

11. Machine foundation is subjected to:

11. Green cement is:

5. Which of the below is a disadvantage of air seasoning?

Characteristics and Ingredients of Paint

3. The base in a paint does not serve the function of:

c) 1 hour before paint is used

Types and Uses of Paints

Market Forms and Uses of Steel

Properties and Uses of Aluminium

8. What is the melting point of Aluminium?

RCC, PSC and Ferro-Cement

3. __________ is used to construct very thin, hard and strong surface: