Rhodamine-B with antimony in the presence of HCl gives

a. pink precipitate
b. blue precipitate
c. violet precipitate
d. black precipitate

Most abundant isotope of Hydrogen

a. Deuterium c. Protium
b. Tritium d. Hydrogen

Inadequate Oxygen tension in air i.e. Baguio, high altitiude

a. histotoxic c. anoxic
b. anemic d. stagnant

Principal use/ indication of Pentamidine

a. African trypanosomiasis
b. Leishmaniasis
c. Paragonimiasis
d. Balantidial dysentery
e. Pneumocystis carnii pneumonia

MOA of amino glycosides:

I. interferes with cell wall synthesis
II. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis
III. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III only
e. I and III

Phenol coefficient is defined as the ration of a disinfectant to the dilution of phenol

required to kill a given strain
of bacterium. What microorganism is used in determining the phenol coefficient?
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Enterobacter aerogenes
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Salmonella typhi
e. Proteus vulgaris

A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned after nalidixic acid, with an effective
antibacterial spectrum largely confined to gram-negative bacteria
a. substituted imidazoles
b. polyenes
c. biguanides
d. dihydrotriazines
e. quinolones

Its congeners represent important alternatives for the treatment of urinary tract infections
caused by strains of Proteus resistant to other agents
a. Norfloxacin
b. Cinoxacin
c. Nitrofurantoin
d. Nalidixic acid
e. Methenamine

. Methicillin is chemically named as:

a. 2-ethoxy-1-naphthalpenicillin
b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin
c. 5-methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin
d. 2,6- dimethoxylphenylpenicillin
e. 2,6-dimethylpenicillin

Augmentin is a combination of:

I. K salts of Clavulanic acid
II. Amoxicillin
III. Ampicillin
IV. Sulbactams
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV
e. III and IV

Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of

thienamycin in which the primary amino group is converted to a non-nucleophilic basic
function. Imipenem is also:
a. 5-acetoimidothienamycin
b. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin
c. N-formimidoylthienamycin
d. α-(1-methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin

A parenteral Cephamycin
a. cefoxitin
b. ceftazidime
c. cephalexin
d. cefadroxil
e. cefamandole

The factors that contribute to an extremely long serum half-life of sterile ceftriaxone
disodium, USP
 I. High fraction of protein binding in the plasma
II. Slow urinary excretion
III. It is not metabolized in vivo
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I and III
e. III only

the 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy:

a. amikacin
b. gentamicin
c. streptomycin
d. kanamycin
e. neomycin

Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and transferable by conjugation that ois

responsible for the transfer of resistance from one bacterium to another.
a. R-factors
b. F-factors
c. S-factors
d. M-factors
e. X-factors

It is known as Streptomycin B
a. Sreptomycin
b. Mannisidostreptomycin
c. Hydroxystreptomycin
d. Humatin
e. Paromycin Sulfate, USP

A group of antibiotics that are derivatives of an octahydronaphthacene, a hydrocarbon

system that comprises four annelated six-membered rings.
a. macrolides
b. tetracyclines
c. lincomycins
d. polymixins
e. sulfonamides

The first widely used broad spectrum that was isolated by Ehrlich in 1974 from
S.venezuelae
a. Clindamycin
b. Chloramphenicol, USP
c. Vancomycin HCl, USP
d. Novobiocin Sodium, USP
e. Bleomycin Sulfate
Copper is essential trace element used for the utilization for iron and occurs in:
a. hemoglobin
b. albumin
c. hemocyanin
d. heme

This is a chronic condition resembling tuberculosis in symptoms:

a. silicosis
b. parakeratosis
c. itai-itai disease
d. minamata disease

164. This element is purported to have an immune system enhancing and anti-tumor
effects.
a. tin
b. germanium
c. lead
d. tin (same lang e)

165. Thenard’s “oxygenated acid”

a. hydrogen chloride
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. sulfuric acid
d. nitric acid

166. This is a relative term used to describe a solution having the same pH as another
solution in which it is compared
a. isohydric
b. isotonic
c. isosteres
d. isohydrates

167. This gas was once name niton.

a. Radon
b. Argon
c. Xenon
d. Helium

168. The two scientists who isolated krypton is liquid residues from argon.
a. Ramsay and Travers
b. Dorn and Ramsay
c. Rutherford and Soddy
d. Ramsay and Collie

169. This is emitted when a neutron converts to a proton

a. positron
b. negatron
c. gamma rays
d. alpha rays
170. When handling bromine, it is always advisable to have this in order to stop its action
a. ammonia water
b. magnesium hydroxide
c. water
d. spirit of ammonia

171. Chemically, Koppeschaar’s solution is

a. iodobromide solution
b. bromine, tenth normal solution
c. bromine-acetic acid solution
d. bromine t.s

172. Phenolated Iodine Solution is

a. Lugol’s solution
b. Boulton’s solution
c. Burnham solution
d. Brandon’s solution

173. In what concentration of iodine is it effective to combat many common bacteria in

distilled water?
a. 1:5000
b. 1:100
c. 1:50000
d. 1:1000

174. Three Bromides Elixir contains bromides of:

a. Na, K, Ca
b. Na, K, NH4
c. Na, NH4, Ca
d. K, Na, Fe

175. Strength of potassium permanganate as antimicrobial:

a. 0.02%
b. 0.05%
c. 0.10%
d. 0.09%

176. This is used as antioxidant in Hydriodic Acid syrup and Ferrous Iodide syrup
a. hypophosphorous acid
b. phosphoric acid
c. bisulfite
d. orthophosphorous acid

The only single acid that can dissolve gold

a. hydrochloric acid
b. nitric acid
c. selenic acid
d. aqua regia

201. The calcium salt that is the most frequent recommended for oral consumption as an
electrolyte replenisher
a. calcium lactate
b. calcium carbonate
c. calcium phosphate
d. dibasic calcium phosphate

202. This process can produce hydrogen with 99% purity and is based on the
decomposition of superheated steam by metallic iron with the subsequent reduction of
iron oxides so formed by a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen (blue water gas)
a. Messerschimdt process
b. Solvay Ammonia process
c. Haber process
d. none of these

203. Chalybeate water contains

a. Lithium
b. Carbon
c. Salt
d. Iron

204. It is found in hydrogen peroxide in concentration of 0.03% to increase its stability by

catalytically regarding its decomposition.
a. Benzene
b. Ether
c. Acetanilid
d. None of these

205. Continued use of hydrogen peroxide as mouth wash may cause

a. green tongue
b. black tongue
c. hairy tongue
d. scaly tongue

The process by which water molecules move under high pressure through a
semipermeable membrane from the more concentrated to the less concentrated
solution.
a. osmosis c. active diffusion
b. passive diffusion d. reverse osmosis
432. Standard temperature for gas
a. O deg Celsius c. 273 K
b. 314 K d. a and c
433. Movement of an object against some force
a. work c. free energy
b. energy d. b and c
434. SI unit for pressure is:
a. Pascal c. N
 b. N/m² d. a and b
435. It states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum
nummers.
a. Heisenberg Uncertainty c. Pauli Exclusion
b. Aufbau d. a and b
436. In a given period, as the atomic number increases, metallic properties:
a. increase c. remain the same
b. decrease d. double
437. Yne and designed to be a part of water
a. Hydrogen c. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen d. Chlorine
438. Cryolite consists of:
a. Aluminum, Nitrogen, Chlorine c. Iron, Aluminum, Potassium
b. Sodium, Aluminum, Fluorine d. Potassium, Iron, Aluminum
439. Sulfur in Sulfur Ointment is usually:
a. 15.7% c. 5%
b. 10% d. 15%
440. Calcium Hydrate is:
a. Calcium Sulfate c. Calcium Oxide
b. Calcium Lactate d. Calcium Hydroxide
441. White bole is:
a. bentonite c. talc
b. pumice d. kaolin
442. Produces a grayish green precipitate with sodium hydroxide which is soluble in
excess giving a green solution that turn yellow upon addition of Sodium Peroxide.
a. Chromium (III) c. Iron (II)
b. Zinc d. Nickel
443. Combined with Strong Ammonia Solution, it has been used as “smelling salts”
a. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit c. Preston Salt
b. Spirit of Minderesus d. all of the above
444. It has been used in recent years in the surgical repair of large abdominal hernias:
a. Strontium c. Platinum
b. Tantalum d. Selenium
445. A metalloid:
a. Gallium c. Nitrogen
b. Tellurium d. Tin

The chemical CH₃CH₂COOCH₃ is given what IUPAC name?

a. 3-butanone d. Butanal
b. Propanoic Acid e. Methyl Propanoate
c. Ethyl Methyl Ether
456. The chemical CH₃CH₂COOCH₃ is an example of what type of organic compound?
a. Ketone d. Aldehyde
b. Ester e. Acid Anhydride
c. Ether
457. What is the type formula of the chemical Methoxyethane?
a. RCHO d. RCOR
b. RCOOH e. ROR
c. RCOOR
458. What is the correct chemical formula for 2-pentanone
a. CH₃CH₂CH₂OCH₂CH₃ d. CH₃CH₂CH₂COCH₃
b. CH₃CH₂COOCH₂CH₃ e. CH₃OCH₂CH₂CH₂CH₃
c. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CHO
459. Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical: CH₃CH=CHCH₂CH₂OH
a. 2-pentenol d. 1-pent – 2-enol
b. 2-penten – 5-ol e. 3-pentenol
 c. 3-penten – 1-ol

What is the type formula for ethers?

a. RH d. RCHO
b. RX e. RCOOR
c. ROR
472. The compound with formula, CH3CH2COCH2CH3 is a/an:
a. Ketone d. Ether
b. Aldehyde e. Ester
c. Carboxylic acid
473. A carbon with four different moieties attached to it is generally called
a. Anomeric carbon d. Stereocenter
b. Epimeric carbon e. Carbonyl carbon
c. Achirality center
474. The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system is used for what purpose?
a. Identify reactive sites in an organic compound
b. Determine R or S designation of enantiomers
c. Determine presence of pi bonds
d. Identify optical isomerism
e. Determine cis-trans isomerism
475. What is the IUPAC name of the given molecule below?

a. Meso-2-butene d. (+)-S-2-butene
b. Trans-2-butene e. (-)-R-2-butene
c. Cis-2-butene
476. Which of the following substituents is ortho-para directing in a benzene ring?
a. NO2 d. OH
b. SO3H e. CHO
c. CN
477. Which of the following compounds is subject to addition reactions?
a. 1-propene d. 1-propanol
b. benzene e. 1-aminopropane
c. 2-chloropropane
478. Given the compound, 1-pentene, electrophilic groups will most likely attach to
which carbon?
a. C-1 d. C-4
b. C-2 e. C-5
c. C-3
479. Which of the following substrates is subject to addition nucleophilic?
a. Ethanal d. Ethanol
b. Ethyne e. Phenol
c. Monochloroethane
480. 2-Butanone can be represented by which of the following type formulas?
a. RCHO d. RX
b. RCOR e. ROR
c. RCOOR
481. What is the general term that is used to refer to compounds having two hydroxyl
groups attached to two adjacent carbons?
a. Carbinol d. Polyol
b. Catechol e. Glycol
519. This drug is also know by the chemical name, (+)-N, alpha-dimethylphenylamine
a. Amphetamine d. Phentermine
b. Methamphetamine e. Fenfluramine
c. Ephedrine
520. Which of the following drugs useful for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is
commercially available as the threo-racemate form, which is about 400 times
more potent than its erythro-racemate form?
a. Phenmetrazine d. Phentermine
b. Amphetamine e. Fenfluramine
c. Methylphenidate
521. Which of the following agents is considered as a selective reversible inhibitor of
MAO-A (RIMA)?
a. Pargyline d. Tranylcypromine
b. Isocarboxazid e. Moclobemide
c. Selegiline
522. Which of the following agents is considered as a selective MAO-B inhibitor?
a. Pargyline d. Tranylcypromine
b. Isocarboxazid e. Moclobemide
c. Selegiline
523. The first clinically useful MAO-inhibitors were alkyl substituted derivatives of which of
the following drugs?
a. Erythromycin d. Isoniazid
b. Digitoxin e. Epinephrine
c. Imipramine
524. Which of the following agents is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant?
a. Trazodone d. Amitryptiline
b. Amoxapine e. Sertraline
c. Maprotine
525. The enzyme Tyrosine Hydroxylase which catalyzes the rate-limiting step in
catecholamine biosynthesis, contains which of the following metals
a. Iron d. Manganese
b. Zinc e. Aluminum
c. Copper
526. Which of the following metabolites is/are common to both MAO-mediated and
COMT-mediated metabolisms of catecholamines like Nerepinephrine and
Epinephrine
I. 3-Methoxy-4-hydroxy phenylethylene glycol
II. Vanillylmadelic acid
III. 3, 4-Dihydroxymandelic acid
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II
527. Which of the following statements regarding Epinephrine in solution is/are correct?
I. The development of a pink to brown color is indicative of oxidative
breakdown
II. It is destroyed readily in alkaline solutions and by metabolism
III. The catechol ring system confers stability against oxidative reaction
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and I
528. What is the common functional moiety present in the molecules of the clinically
useful carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
a. Benzene d. Chlorobenzene
 b. CH3 e. SNO2H2
c. Nitrobenzene
1. Which of the following is/are true regarding phase I drug metabolism?
I. Also known as conjugation reaction
II. Includes oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
III. Generally tends to provide a functional group or “handle” to the molecule
a. I, II and III
b. I and II only
c. I only
d. II and III onlywr
e. I and III only

2. Which of the following is/are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?

I. Allows the attachment of small, polar, and ionisable endogenous compounds
II. Allows the termination or attenuation of a biologic activity
III. Serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites
a. I, II and III
b. I and II only
c. I only
d. II and III only
e. I and III only

3. Which of the following undergo oxidative reaction?

I. Olefins
II. Alcohols and Aldehydes
III. Aromatic moieties
IV. Nitro and Azo compounds
a. I, II and III only
b. II, III and IV only
c. III only
d. I and II only
e. IV only

4. Which of the following is/ are examples of drugs that are extensively metabolized by the
first pass effect?
I. Lidocaine
II. Nitroglycerin
III. Morphine
IV. Meperidine
a. III and IV only
b. II and III only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, II, III and IV
e. I and II only

5. Glucuronidation is the most common conjugative pathway in drug metabolism. Which of

the following is/are responsible for this?
I. Readily available supply of D-glucuronic acid
II. Numerous functional groups that can combine enzymatically with glucuronic acid
 III. Utilization of D-glucuronic acid to conjugate steroids, heparin, chondroitin,
catecholamines and thyroxine
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. I, II, and III
d. III only
e. I only

6. Which of the following is/ are factors affecting drug metabolism?

I. Age
II. Economic status
III. Species and strain
IV. Gender
a. I only
b. I, II, III and IV
c. I and III only
d. I, III and IV only
e. I, II and III only

7. Which of the following is/ are true regarding methylation?

I. Generally leads to polar or water soluble metabolites
II. Important in the biosynthesis of many endogenous compounds like epinephrine
and melatonin
III. Constitutes only a minor pathway for conjugating drugs or xenobiotics
a. I only
b. I, II, and III
c. I and II only
d. I and III only
e. II and III only

8. Which of the following is/ are considered slow acetylators?

I. Eskimos
II. Egyptians
III. Filipinos
IV. Mediterranean Jews
a. III only
b. I and II only
c. III and IV only
d. I and III only
e. II and IV only

9. Which of the following may induce metabolism of other drugs?

I. Phenytoin
II. Cimetidine
III. Meprobamate
IV. Rifampicin
a. I, II and III only
b. I and IV only
c. I, II, III and IV
d. I, III and IV only
e. I only