PHYSICAL PHARMACY – BLUE PACOP

PHYSICAL PHARMACY

1) First-order half-life is equal to

A. 1/k D. 2k+1
B. K a. NOTA
C. 0693/k

2) The buffer equation is also known as:

A. Young’s equation D. Stoke’s Law

B. Charle’s Law E. Henderson-Hasselbalc h
C. Bolye’s Law equation

3) The decay of radioactive atoms occurs.

A. At constant rate D. At constantly increasing rates

B. As a first-order reaction E. As a second-order rate
C. As a zero-order reaction

4) According to the Poiseuille equation, the factor that has the relatively greatest influence on rate of
flow of liquid through a capillary tube is the

A. Length of the tube D. Raduis of the tube

B. Viscosity of the liquid E. Temperature of the liquid
C. Pressure differential on tube

5) Which of the following reference sources has the most extensive listings of sodium chloride
equivalents and freezing point depression values?

A. Merck Manual D. USP/NF

B. Merck Index E. USP DI
C. Remington

6) Although isotonicity is dessrable for almost all parenterals, it is particularly critical for what
preparations

A. Intra-articular D. Intravenous
B. Intradermal E. Subcutaneous
C. Intramusclar

7) The osmotic pressure of 0.1 molar dextrose solution will be approximately how many times that of
a 0.1 molar sodium chloride?

A. 0.5 D. 3
B. 1 E. 4
C. 2

8) Parenteral solutions that are isotonic with human red blood cells have an osmolality of
approximately how many mOsm/L?

A. 20 C. 50
B. 40 D. 150

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E. 300

9) Which of the following parenteral solutions is considered the most closely approximate the
extracellular fluid of human body?

A. Dextroe 2.5 and sodium chloride C. Ringer’s Injection

0.45% Injection D. Sodium Chloride Injection
B. Lactated Ringer’s Injection E. Sodium Lactate Injection

10) An isotonic solution has that same

A. Salt content as blood D. fluid pressure as blood

B. pH as blood E. osmotic pressure as blood
C. specific gravity as blood

11) Mixing hypertonic solution with red blood cell will cause of the red blood cells

A. Bursting D. Hemolysis
B. Chelating E. Hydrolysis
C. Crenation

12) Sodium chloride equivalents are used to estimate the amount of sodium chloride needed to
render a solution isotonic. The sodium chloride eqiuvalent or “E” value may be defined as the
A. Amount of sodium chloride that is theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of a specific chemical
B. Amount of a specified chemical theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of a specificied
chemical
C. Milliequivalents of sodium chloride needed to render a solution isotonic
D. Weight of a specified chemical that will make a solution isotonic
E. Percent sodium chloride need to make a solution isotonic
13) Another method for adjusting solution to isotonicity is based upon

A. Boiling point elevation D. Milliequivalent calculation

B. Blood coagulation time E. Refractive index
C. Freezing point depression

14) All aqueous solutions that freeze at -0.52° are isotonic with red blood cells. They are also iso-
osmotic with each other. Which of the following apply?
A. Both statement are true
B. The first is true but the second is false
C. The second statement is true but the first is false
D. Both statement are false
E. A and D may be applied
15) A specific drug has first-order biological half-life of 4 hours. This half-life value will
A. Be independent of the initial drug concentration
B. Increase when the concentration of the drug increase
C. Decrease when the concentration of the drug increase
D. Decrease if the patient has renal impairment
E. Be the same whether the drug level is determined in the blod or by observing the
pharmacological action

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16) To prepare a buffer system with the greatest buffer capacity at pH of 4.0, one would use which
one of the following acids?

A. Acetic (pKa= 4.76) D. Lactic (pKa= 3.86)

B. Acetylsalicylic (pJa= 3.49) E. Salicylic (pKa= 2.97)
C. Boric (pKa= 9.24)

17) Most drugs are metabolized or eliminated from the body by first-prder kinetics. This implies that
the amount of drug metabolized or eliminated
A. Is constant
B. Changes wit time but is not dependent on the concentration of drug in blood
C. Changes with time and is dependent only on the concentration of drug in blood
D. is dependent of drug concentration in the blood
E. NOTA
18) The biological half-life of a drug
A. Is constant physical property of the drug
B. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
C. Is the time for one-half of the therapeutic activity to be lost
D. May be decreased by giving the drug by rapid IV injection
E. Depends entirely on the route of administration
19) The decay constant of a radioisotope is 0.96/hour. At half-life of the radioisotope is approximately

A. 100 hours D. 10 hours

B. 1 hour E. 69 hours
C. 14 hours

20) A drug is said to have a biological half-life of 2 hours. At the end of eight hours, what percentage
of the drug’s original activity will remain?

A. 6.25% D. 50%
B. 12.5% E. 2.5%
C. 25%

21) The PBE is based on

A. Arrhenius theory of acid and bases

B. Browsted-Lowry theory
C. Lewis Electron Theory
D. A strong acid and its salt
E. A weak acid and it salt

22) A buffer system is usually a combination of

A. A weak acid and a weak base

B. A strong acid and its conjugate base
C. A weak acid and its cinjugate base
D. A strong acid and its salt
E. A weak acid and its salt

23) The following factors may affect buffer activity, except

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A. Temperature D. Addition of nuetral salts

B. Pressure E. A and B are correct
C. Dilution with water

24) If the buffer solution is prepared using equal concentrations of acetic acid and sodium acetate,
the pH would then be

A. 1 D. Equal to ½ of pKa
B. 14 E. Lesser than 1
C. Equal to the pKa

25) The biological buffer system inclouding solvents

I. Oxyhemoglobin III. Phosphates

II. Carbonates

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I and II only

26) The following are aprotic solvents

I. Carbon tetrachloride III. Phenol

II. Methane

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I and II only

27) Protolysis
A. Involves the exchange of proton from bases to acids
B. Involves the transfer of protons from acids to bases
C. Determines the strength of a solvent
D. Is the determination of an acid to free a proton
E. Is the destruction of acids and bases
28) pH is mathematically
A. the log of the hydroxyl ion concentration
B. the negative log of the hydroxyl ion concentration
C. the log of the hydronium ion concentration
D. the negative log of the hydronium ion concentration
E. NOTA
29) Data required to determine the pH of a buffer system include

I. Molar concentration of the weak acid

II. The pKa of the weak acid
III. The volume of solution present

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I and II only

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30) pH is equal to pKa at

A. pH 1 D. the end point

B. pH 7 E. the half-neutralization point
C. neutralization

31) Units for expressing radioisotope decay include the

I. Rad
II. Curie
III. Becquerel

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I and II only

32) Which one of the following forms of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?

A. Alpha radiation D. X-ray

B. Beta radiation E. Ultraviolent
C. Gamma radiation

33) A constituted drug solution assays at 15mg/mL after 24 hours. What is the first-order reaction rate
if the original solution concentration was 2.0 mg/mL?

A. 0.2/day D. 0.33/day
B. 0.25/day E. 0.5/day
C. 0.3/day

34) By storing the above reconstituted drug solution in the refrigerator, its halflife is extended to 4
days. What will be the concentration of the drug solution (mg/mL)?

A. 0.25 mg/mL
B. 0.5 mg/mL
C. 1.0 mg/mL
D. 1.2 mg/mL
E. 1.5 mg/mL

35) The temperature at which a gas liquefies at the maximum vapour pressure the liquid form can
achieve

A. Absolute temperature
B. Critical temperature
C. Melting point
D. Flash point
E. Boiling point
36) The polymorphic form of cacao butter that is most suitable in suppository preparation
A. Gamma
B. Alpha
C. Beta prime
D. Beta
E. Epsilon

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37) TheseA. are

Additive
physical properties of drug molecules that are dependent
D. Subjective
on the structure arrangement
of the
B.atoms
Constitutive
within the molecule E. AOTA
C. Colligative
38) Refraction occurs when there is
I. Entrance of light thru a denser substance
II. Passage of light thru this substance is slow
III. Bending of the light away from the interface rather than towards it
IV. Bending of a wave more quickly as it passes though the interface

A. I and II D. II and III

B. II and III E. I, II, and III
C. II and III

39) An instrument that measures optical rotation is

A. Spectrophotometer D. Manometer
B. Refractometer E. Optical Rotator
C. Polarimeter

40) These are solutions that do not adhere to the Raoult’s Law throughout the entire range of
composition, where no uniform attractive forces exist

A. Ideal solution D. B and C are correct

B. Non- Ideal solution E. A and C are correct
C. Real solutions

41) The molal elevation constant (Kb) is also known as

A. Ebullioscopic constant D. Specific reaction rate constant

B. Cryoscopic constant E. Ionization contant
C. Osmotic pressure constant

42) The following are considered strong electrolytes

I. HCl
II. KOH
III. NH4OH
IV. H2CO3
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III
E. I, II and IV
43) The parameter that is dynamic equilibrium when dissolution of electrolytes occur
A. Concetration of the reactants
B. Concentration of the products
C. Velocities of the forward and reverse reactions
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
44) A species that can function either as an acid or a base
A. Polyprotic
B. Ampholyte

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C. Polymorphic
D. Zwitterions
E. Aprotic
45) pH as Sorensen suggested, is described as following
I. A simplified method of expressing the hydroxyl ion concentration
II. The hydrogen ion potential
III. The common log of the reciprocal of the hydrogen ion concentration
IV. Is expressed in numeric scale of 0 to 14
A. I, II and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I and III
E. I, II , III and IV
46) A equation that calculates the pH of the buffer solution and the change in the pH upon the
addition of an acid or a base
A. Buffer constant
B. Buffer capacity
C. Maximum buffer capacity
D. A and C are correct
E. AOTA
47) It is the ratio of the increment of strong base (or acid) to the small change in pH brought about by
its addition
A. Buffer equation
B. Henderson-Hasselbach equation
C. Noye’s-Whitney Equation
D. Arrhenius Equation
E. NOTA
48) This occurs when the pH of the urine goes beyond pH 7.4
A. H+ ions are excreted by the kidneys
B. H+ ions are retained by the kidneys
C. CO2 is excreted by the kidneys
D. CO2 is retained by the kidneys
E. A and D are correct
49) This is a method of measuring tonicity wherein the effect of various solutions is observed on the
appearance of the red blood cells suspended in the solutions

A. Hemolytic method D. VP elevation

B. FP depression method E. AOTA
C. BP elevation method

50) A class I method of adjusting tonicity

I. Cryoscopic method
II. NaCl Equivalent method
III. White Vincent method
IV. Sprowls method

A. I and II D. I and IV
B. II and III E. I, II and III
C. III and IV

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51) A change in appearance, palatability, uniformity, dissolution and suspendability are examples of
this kind of instability

A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Microbiologic
D. Therapeutic
E. AOTA
52) The following are Non- Newtonian classes of flow, EXCEPT
A. Plastic
B. Psuedoplastic
C. Dilatant
D. Parallel
E. Thixotropic
53) The slope ogf the line that is equal to –K0, when a plot with concentration on the vertical axis and
time on the horizontal axis is made
A. Zero order reaction
B. First order reaction
C. Second order reaction
D. Third order reaction
E. First and Second order reaction
54) The most form of the drug that undergo an apparent zero- order reaction kinetics are

A. Solids D. solutions
B. Solutions E. suppositories
C. Suspensions

55) Pharmaceutical preparations with high viscosities include

A. Syrups D. Suspensions
B. Mucilages E. AOTA
C. Jellies

56) These are formulated to react in water CO2 affecting partial anesthesia of the
sensory buds of the oral cavity, thereby covering up saline and bitter tastes
A. Suspensions D. Solutions
B. Emulsions E. Granules
C. Effervescent granules
57) Which of the following intermolecular bond is involved in the attraction of electrons of nonpolar
molecules resulting to transient polarity?
A. Dipole-dipole forces D. ion-dipole interaction
B. Dipole-induced dipole forces E. ion-ion interaction
C. Ion- induced dipole interaction
58) This is a physical property of systems that is dependent on the number or quantity of particles in
solution
A. Additive property D. NOTA
B. Constitutive property E. AOTA
C. Colligative property

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59) Official method of the USP for determining specify gravity

A. Floatation method D. Pycnometer method
B. Braume method E. Westphal balance
C. Manometric method
60) . Which gas law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume occupied?
A. Boyle’s law D. Ideal Gas law
B. Charle’s law E. NOTA
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
61) Chloramphenicol has three crystal forms. This capability of a crystal to change from one form to
another is known as
A. Enantiomerism D. NOTA
B. Polymorphism E. AOTA
C. Stereoisomerism
62) USP method of determining particle size distribution
A. Optical microscopy D. Particle volume measurement
B. Sieving E. NOTA
C. Sedimentation method
63) In liquid dosage forms, if the dispersed particle is more than 0.1 microns, the system is called___
A. True solution D. NOTA
B. Colloidal dispersion E. AOTA
C. Coarse dispersion
64) Phenomenon wherein solubility is increased upon addition of salt
A. Salting in D. Precipitation
B. Salting out E. NOTA
C. Caking
65) Which of the following is indicated for a dehydrated person?
A. Hypertonic D. isosmotic
B. Isotonic E. NOTA
C. Hypotonic
66) . Method of adjustment of tonicity wherein a stock solution is isotonic is added to bring the
solution into volume
A. Class I D. Cryoscopic method
B. Sodium chloride equivalent E. NOTA
C. White Vincent
67) Which of the following are highly hydrophilic agents and have high HLB value
A. SPAN D. antifoaming agent
B. TWEEN E. surfactants
C. Wetting agents
68) A problem commonly encountered in emulsions wherein the dispersed phase floats
A. Creaming D. inversion
B. Aggregation E. separation
C. Coalescence
69) Classify sodium lauryl sulphate as synthetic emulsifying agent
A. Anionic D. NOTA
B. Cationic E. AOTA
C. Non-ionic
70) The type of system in semisolid and fluid preparations where viscosity increases with time ( upon
standing )
A. Thixotropic D. dilatant

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B. Rheopectic E. pseudo-dilatant
C. Eutectic
71) Which of the following is not a colligative property of solutions?
A. Freezing point depression D. Molecular weight]
B. Osmotic pressure E. NOTA
C. Vapour pressure
72) ___ are molecules whose mirror images are non-super imposable
A. Enantiomer D. analogue
B. Isomer E. NOTA
C. Diastereoisomer
73) . One gram of a salt dissolves in 20 ml of water. What is its solubility ?
A. Very soluble D. sparingly soluble
B. Freely soluble E. practically soluble
C. Soluble
74) Which of the following can be used as a diluent , binder and disintegrant ?
A. Lactose D. microcrystalline cellulose
B. Sorbitol E. magnesium carbonate
C. Starch
75) Glidants are added to tablets in order to improve flow properties and reduce interparticulate
friction. They prevent the following problems except ______
A. Bridging D. rat holing
B. Arching E. NOTA
C. Sticking
76) . Problems commonly encountered in suspensions where there is claying of the sediments due to
very slow settling race of the particles
A. Creaming D. coalescence
B. Caking E. NOTA
C. Particle growth
77) Convert 25.44 decigram to nanogram
A. 2.5 x 108 D. 2.5 x 1010
9
B. 2.5 x 10 E. 2.5 x 1015
7
C. 2.5 x 10
78) The slope of a line can be calculated by
A. ∆y/ ∆x D. NOTA
B. ∆x/ ∆y E. AOTA
C. B= sxx/ syy
79) .In the equation of the expressed as y=a+bx , a is the
A. Slope D. Pearson coefficient
B. Intercept E. NOTA
C. Correlation coefficient
80) An acid dissociation constant, denoted Ka, is the equilibrium constant for the dissociation of an
acid. It is the primary way in which the _______ is gauged.
A. Ionization of an electrolyte D. A and b are correct
B. Strength of an acid E. AOTA
C. Hydrolysis reaction
81) Acetic acid has a Ka of 1.8x10-5 while formic acid has a Ka of 1.8x10-4 under the _____, this
indicates that the ________ directly releases more protons into an aqueous solution.
A. Bronsted-lowry acid-based theory,
HAc

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B. Lewis theory, HAc

C. Bronsted-Lowry acid-base theory, formic acid
D. Arrhenuis, formic acid
E. NOTA
82) pKa, which is equal to the ______ of Ka ( cologarithm of Ka )
A. Negative decimal logarithm D. logarithm of Ka
B. Negative antilog E. Antilog of –Ka
C. Antilog –
83) A _____ is a species which donates an electron pair to form a bond. This is a special type of
covalent bond because the bond is formed by two electrons from one species and none from the
other.
A. Lewis acid D. arrhenuis base
B. Lewis base E. NOTA
C. Arrhenius acid
84) In the hydrolis reaction of ammonia , ____ is the conjugate acid
A. Water D. NOTA
B. Ammonium ion E. AOTA
C. H+
85) . A dilute solution of a weak electrolyte is ____ than a more concentrated solution of the same
weak electrolyte
A. Less ionized D. completely ionized
B. More ionized E. NOTA
C. Not ionized
86) Gifford’s buffer is similar to most of the borate buffers but contains mainly ___ as its salt
A. Sodium chloride D. ammonium hydroxide
B. Potassium chloride E. NOTA
C. Ammonium chloride
87) Which among the following ions has the greatest influence in fluid balance?
A. Potassium D. magnesium
B. Sodium E. NOTA
C. Calcium
88) ____ is involved in the depolarization of the muscles causing the release of an action potential
A. Calcium D. magnesium
B. Sodium E. NOTA
C. Potassium
89) ____ 9s an example of a hypotonic solution
A. D5W D. Hetastarch
B. Dextrose 5% in half normal saline E. D10W
C. D 2.5%W
90) All of the following is linked with the importance of preparing pH-adjusted solutions except
A. Drug administration D. parenteral administration
B. Blood administration E. NOTA
C. Ophthalmic administration
91) Because ___ solutions flood cells , certain patients should not receive them e.g. patients with
cerebral edema
A. hypertonic D. intravenous
B. Isotonic E. oral
C. Hypotonic
92) All of the following are isotonic solutions except

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A. D5LRS D. plain Ringer’s solution

B. LRS E. NOTA
C. Hetastarch
93) .Because the liver converts lactate to bicarbonate. Lactated Ringer’s solution should be given if
the patient’s blood pH exceeds ______
A. 7.35 D. 7.2
B. 7.50 E. NOTA
C. 8.0
94) Hypotonic solutions cause a fluid shift from _____ to ___
A. Blood vessels : cells D. ECF to interstitial fluid
B. Cells : blood vessels E. ECF to ICF
C. ICF to ECF
95) Buffer capacity is the amount of an acid or base the buffer can neutralize before
A. pH changes by one unit D. pH decreases
B. pH changes to a appreciable degree E. NOTA
C. neutralization
96) Sorensen’s buffer is composed of a ( basic ) solution of dibasic sodium phosphate with the
formula

A. Na2HPO4 D. Na 3PO

B. NaH2PO4 E. NOTA

C. NaPO4

97) The pH range of Sorensen’s buffer should not exceed

A. Two D. Seven
B. Three E. Ten
C. Eight
98) Which of the following utilizes Sorensen’s buffer to have a pH of 6.5?
A. Neomycin eye drops D. Pilocarpine eye drops
B. Prednisolone eye drops E. AOTA
C. Timolol eye drops
99) In Gifford’s buffer the addional salt of potassium makes the solution
A. Isotonic D. hypotonic
B. Hypertonic E. NOTA
C. Neutral
100) Gifford’s buffer is used contains which of the following salts
A. Monohydrated sodium carbonate D. potassium phosphate
B. Sodium acetate E. sodium phosphate
C. Potassium acetate
101) pH range for Gifford’s buffer
A. 5 – 9 D. A and C are correct
B. 9 - 10 E. NOTA
C. 10 – 11
102) Which among the following is the most important buffer in blood?
A. Acetate D. carbonate
B. Phosphate E. bicarbonate
C. Borate
103) Hind and Goyan’s Buffer contains _____, used to adjust the tonicity

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A. Sodium chloride D. sodium carbonate

B. Sodium fluoride E. AOTA
C. Sodium fluoride
104) Colligative properties such as freezing point is influenced by:
A. Particle size D. electronegativity
B. Number of particles E. AOTA
C. Particle ionization
105) Quantities of two substances that are tonicic equivalents are proportional to the molecular
weights of each multiplied by ____
A. Its I value D. its mass
B. The “I” value of the other E. NOTA
C. The MW of the other
106) Fundamental dimensions include; I. Length II. Mass III. Volume
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. I and III
107) Which of the following is NOT a derived dimension?
A. Volume C. Length
B. Density D. Velocity
108) The square of a length is called:
A. Area C. mass
B. Volume D. density4
109) Density is derived quantity obtained from;
A. Volume and length C. mass and volume
B. Mass and weight D. mass and pressure
110) Official temperature for specific gravity determination is;
A. 15.56⁰C C. 25⁰C
B. 30⁰C D. 20⁰C
111) The attraction of unlike molecules is referred to as;
A. Adhesion C. Collision
B. Cohesion D. Friction
112) Intermolecular forces of attraction occur when:

I. The binding forces that exist between molecules

II. Occur when the positive pole of one molecule is close to the
negative pole of the other
III. When the electron clouds of the two molecules interpenetrate

A. I and II C. I and III

B. II and III D. I, II and III
113) Which of the following statement is/are correct about Van der Waals forces:

I. Exist between ionic and dipolar molecule

II. London Forces
III. Weak forces of attraction

A. I, II and III C. I and II

B. II and III D. only III
114) Which of the following has the strongest bonding interaction?
A. Na-Ci C. CO2 – H2O
B. ROH – NOH D. HCI – H2O

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115) The intermolecular force of attraction responsible for the formation of KL3 is known as:
A. Dipole-dipole interaction
B. Dipole-induced dipole interaction
C. Ion-dipole interaction
D. Ion-induced dipole interaction
116) This theory that explains the behavior/characteristics of gases
A. Van der Waals Theory C. Kinetic Molecular Theory
B. Gas laws D. Le Chantelier’s Principle
117) This property is exhibited by gases within a confined system, which is due to the collision
of gas particles with one another and to the wall of the container.
A. Volume C. Elasticity
B. Pressure D. Mole
118) The interrelation among volume, pressure and temperature is expressed by;
A. Boyle’s Law C. Ideal Gas Law
B. Charles Law D. Van Holf’s Equation
119) The value of R which is 0.08205 L-atm/mole-K is determined when;

I. P is 1 atm II. T is 273 K III. V is 22.4 L

A. I, II and III C. I and II

B. II and III D. I and III

120) 6.0221 x 10²³ mole ¯¹ is known as:

A. Molar gas constant C. Molar Volume
B. Avogadro’s number D. Acceleration of gravity
121) What pharmaceutical gas is used to sterilize or disinfect heat-labile objects?
A. Oxygen C. Nitrous oxide
B. Carbon dioxide D. Ethylene Oxide
122) The pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature is termed as;
A. Standard pressure C. Vapor pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure D. Critical pressure
123) The preparation of this drug delivery system is based on liquefaction of gases.
A. Tablet C. aerosol
B. Capsule D. suspension
124) Properties of gas molecules include;
I. Molecules travel in random and rapid motion
II. Exhibit pressure w/in confined system
III. The intermolecular forces of attraction exist between molecules are Van der Waals
forces and Hydrogen bonding
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. Only III
125) Which of the following statements about pharmaceutical gases is CORRECT?
A. Nitrogen is used as an anesthetic
B. Carbon dioxide is used in therapy as an antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Ethylene oxide is used to sterilize or disinfect heat-labile objects
D. CO₂, N₂ and NO are liquefiable gases used as aerosol propellants
126) The transformation of solid directly into vapor state without passing through the liquid
state known as:
A. Vaporization C. Condensation

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B. Evaporation D. Sublimation
127) Which of the following substances is transformed directly into gaseous state without
passing through the liquid state is known as:
A. Amyl nitrite C. Camphor
B. Halothane D. Ether
128) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Gases are liquefied at low temperature and low pressure
B. Gases are liquefied at high temperature and high pressure
C. Gases are liquefied at low temperature and high pressure
D. Gases are liquefied at high temperature and low pressure
129) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. The boiling point of water is 100°C
B. The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is 20mmHg
C. The heat of vaporization of water at boiling, ∆Hv (water) BP = 9720 cal/mole
D. Boiling point of liquid increases with lowered atmosphere pressure
130) Which of the following statements, regarding the physical properties of Nitroglycerin,
is correct?
I. Nitroglycerin, an antianginal drug, is liquid at room temperature
II. It solidifies when cooled below 14°C forming 2 polymorphs
III. When heated, it begins to decompose at 50°C and explodes at 218°C
A. I, II and III are correct C. II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct D. Only I is correct
131) Which of the following statements about crystalline solids is NOT true?
A. Diamond is an ionic crystal
B. Boric acid is a triclinic crystal
C. Crystalline solids have distinct melting points
D. Crystals other than cubic are anistropic
132) Which of the following statement is the least characteristic of amorphous solids?
A. May exhibit polymorphism C. Randomly arranged molecules
B. Nondistinct melting points D. isotropic
133) Substances characterized by both amorphous and crystalline properties include;
I. Beeswax II. Paraffin III.Petrolatrum
A. I and II C. I and III
B. II and III D. I, II and III
134) It is the characteristic temperature at which there is a major change in the properties
include;
A. Absolute glass temperature C. Glass transition temperature
B. Glass critical temperature D. Glass composition temperature
135) Boric acid is an example of ______ crystal system.
A. Cubic C. monoclinic
B. Hexagonal D. triclinic
136) An example of tetragonal crystal is;
A. Urea C. Iodine
B. Iodoform D. Sodium chloride
137) Solid substances that exhibit similar properties and characteristics in all directions are;
A. Monotropic C. anistropic
B. Isotropic D. enantiotropic
138) The polymorphic form of theobroma oil that melts at 34.5°C.
A. Alpha C. stable beta

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B. Beta prime D. unstable gamma

139)This is the reversible change from one polymorphic form to another.

A. Monotropic C. anistropic
B. Isotropic D. enantiotropic

140) Polymorphs differ in;

I. Solubility II. Melting point III. X-ray diffraction pattern

A. I, II and III C. I and III

B. I and III D. I only

141) Applications of liquid crystals in pharmacy include;

I. Detect areas of elevated temperature
II. In developing display system
III. In extraction, crystallization and preparation of formulations

A. I and II C. I and III

B. II and III D. I, II and III

142) TRUE statements regarding supercritical fluid include;

I. A mesophase formed from gaseous state where the gas is held under combination of
temperatures and pressures that exceed the critical point of a substance
II. Have properties intermediate those of liquids and gases
III. Exhibit flow properties
A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. I and III D. only III

143) True statements about liquid crystal state include;

I. Thermotropic liquid crystal are prepared by heating of solids

II. Nematic crystal are soap- or grease-like crystal
III. Exhibit flow properties
A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. Only III

144) Property of mesophase associated with crystals.

A. Flow property
B. Permeability
C. Amorphous
D. Birefringence

145) A useful device for relating the effect of the least number of independent variables upon
the various phases that can exist in equilibrium system containing a given number of
components.

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A. Eutexia C. Polymorphism
B. The Phase Rule D. Degrees of Freedom

146) A homogenous, physically distinct portion of a system that is separated from other portions
of the system by bounding surfaces

A. Degree of freedom C. phase

B. Component D. variable

147) In two-component system, the variables considered to described the system completely include:
I. Temperature II. Concentration III. Pressure

A. I, II and III C. I and II

B. I and III D. only III

148) In the equilibrium mixture of liquid water + benzyl alcohol, the number of phases (P) is;

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

149) A phenomenon that results to liquefaction when two solids are combined due to the lowering
of their melting points

A. Condensed system C. Salting-out

B. Eutexia D. Co-solvency

150) In a mixture of 34% thymol in salol, the system occurs as one liquid phase 13°C.
This point in the phase diagram is known as;

A. Triple point C. critical point

B. Eutectic point D. absolute point

151) All combinations of phenol and water are completely miscible at 66.8°C. This is termed as;

A. Upper critical temperature C. Conjugate temperature

B. Upper consulate temperature D. Transition temperature

152) At 0.0098°C and 4.58mmHg, ice-liquid water-water vapour exist in equilibrium.

This is referred to as;

A. Degree of freedom C. triple point

B. Independent variables D. critical temperature

153) The study of heat changes in chemical reactions and certain physical processes.

A. Thermodynamics C. Thermochemistry
B. Heat dynamics D. Enthalpy

154) Energy can be transformed from one form into another but cannot be lost, destroyed
or created. This statement is the;

A. First law of thermodynamics C. Third law of thermodynamics

B. Second law of thermodynamics D. Gibbs free energy

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155) It is used to measure optical activity of a drug molecule;

A. Spectrometer C. Oscillometer
B. Refractrometer D. Polarimeter

156) A property of drug molecule expressed in Debyeunits is;

A. Dielectric constant C. Optical rotation

B. Dipole moment D. Refractive index

157) Properties of drug molecules which are derived from the sum of the properties of the
individual atoms of functional groups

A. Additive C. constitutive
B. Colligative D. extensive

158) Optical rotation exhibit what type of physical property

A. Additive C. constitutive
B. Colligative D. extensive

159) A counter clockwise rotation in the planner light, as observed looking into the beam of
polarized light, this substance is define as:

A. Dextrorotatory C. polar
B. Levorotatory D. nonpolar

160) The passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity through a conductivity cell produces a
chemical change of 1 gram equivalent weight of any substance. This is known as:

A. Henry’s Law C. Faraday’s Law

B. Coulombs Law D. Debye-Huckel theory

161 ) Semipolar solvents include;

I. acetone II. Water III. Propylene glycol

A. I, II and III C. I and II

B. II and III D. III only

162) As temperature increases, the solubility of most gases _______.

A. Increases C. unaltered
B. Decreases D. remain constant

163) A solution that contains more of the dissolved solute than it would normally contain at a
definite temperature is;

A. Saturated C. unsaturated
B. Supersaturated D. subsaturated

164) If one part of the solute requires 30 to 100 parts of the solvent, the solubility is described as;

A. Freely soluble C. sparingly soluble

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B. Soluble D. slightly soluble

165) Water acts as a solvent due to which of the following mechanisms?

A. High dielectric constant

B. Ability to break covalent bond of potentially strong electrolytes
C. Through dipole interaction forces
D. All of these

166) The effect of pressure to the solubility of gases is expressed by this law which states that the
concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the solution at
equilibrium.

A. Henry’s Law C. Boyle’s Law

B. Raoult’s Law D. Charle’s Law

167) TRUE statements regarding solubility of gases in liquids include;

I. Governed by Raoult’s Law
II. Solubility increases with a decrease in temperature
III. Gases can be salted out with the addition of electrolytes

A. I, II and III C. II and III

B. I and II D. only III

168) Gases are liberated from solutions in which they are dissolved by the introduction of an
electrolyte. This phenomenon is known as;

A. Solubility constant C. salting-out

B. Blending D. salting-in

169) Correct statements include;

I. HCI is more soluble in water than oxygen
II. α-alanine is more soluble than α-amino-n-butyric acid.
III. Phenobarbital sodium is soluble in water.

A. I, II and III C. II and III

B. I and III D. III only

170) Amphiprotic solvents;

I. acts both proton acceptors and proton donors
II. neither accept nor donate protons
III. Includes water and alcohols

A. I and II D. I only
B. I and III E. II only
C. II and III

171) For salts of weak base like codeine sulfate, as the pH increases, solubility;

A. Decreases C. not affected

B. Increases D. remains constant

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172) Which of the following liquid-liquid mixture is the least characterized by complete miscibility?

A. Benzene and carbon tetrachloride

B. Alcohol and acetone
C. Water and ether
D. Glycerine and alcohol

173) The increase in mutual solubility of two partially miscible solvents by another agent
is referred to as;

A. Miscibility C. association
B. Blending D. solvation

174) In phenol-wate system, the addition of glycerine, (or succinic acid) will _______ the mutual
solubility of the liquid pair.

A. Increase C. not change

B. Decrease D. unaltered

175) The FGSA, functional group surface area (in A⁰²) of n-butanol is 59.2, while
cyclohexanol is 49.6, therefore;

A. n-butanol is not soluble while cyclohexanol is soluble

B. n-butanol is more soluble than cyclohexanol
C. cyclohexanol is more soluble than n-butanol4
D. both liquids are not soluble in water

176) Which of the following is/are the least factors affecting the solubility of solids in liquid?

A. pH C. pressure
B. temperature D. presence of other substance

177) Real or non-ideal solutions are:

I. those in which changes in the physical properties occur when components are mixed
II. those in which heat is given off when the mixture gets warm
III. Those in which the volume does not shrink or expand

A. I, II and III C. I and III

B. II and III D. I and II

178) Solutions for which changes in the physical properties of the solution occur when the
components are mixed are called:

A. Ideal solution C. Real solution

B. Saturated solution D. true solution

179) It describes the solubility of slightly soluble electrolytes to form a saturated solution.

A. Solubility coefficient C. co-solvency

B. Solubility product constant D. solubility fraction

180) A dissolution process accompanied by the absorption of heat is;

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A. Endothermic C. idiopathic
B. Exothermic D. amphoteric

181) When a solution of AgCI is added with NaCI, some of the AgCI precipitates. This is known as__.

A. Solubility C. salting-out
B. Association D. common-ion effect

182) Sodium chloride does not evolve nor absorb heat when dissolved, so the heat of solution
is approximately;

A. Positive C. zero
B. Negative D. either positive or negative

183) What is the co-solvent used to enhance the aqueous solubility of the
undissociated Phenobarbital?

A. Alcohol C. ether
B. Water D. acetone

184) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Solubility increases with increased particle size

B. Solubility increases with decreased particle size
C. Solubility decreases with decreased particle size
D. Solubility is not affected by particle size

185) If 100 – 1,000 parts of the solvent is required to dissolved 1 g of the solute.
It is described as;

A. Sparingly soluble C. very slightly soluble

B. Slightly soluble D. soluble

186) The vapor pressure of solvent over a dilute solution is equal to the vapor pressure of the
pure solvent, multiplied by the mole fraction of solvent in solution.
This is according to;

A. Raoult’s Law C. Faraday Law

B. Debye’s Law D. Henry’s Law

187) Application of distribution coefficient in pharmacy include;

A. Preservation is oil/water system

B. Absorption and distribution of drugs across the biologic membranes
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

188) TRUE statements include;

I. The dissociated species of the drug molecule cannot cross biologic membranes,
so are less absorbed. II.
Ionization of weak acid is favorable at low pH. III.
Salts of weak base precipitate at low pH.

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A. I, II and III C. II and III

B. I and II D. I only

189) It is the pressure that must be applied to the solution to prevent the flow of pure solvent into
the concentrated solution.

A. Vapor pressure C. Osmotic pressure

B. Partial pressure D. Atmospheric pressure

190) Which of the following is a colligative property?

I. Change in osmotic pressure
II. Boiling point depression
III. Freezing point depression

A. I, II and III C. II and III

B. I and II D. I and III

191) When a solute is added to the pure solvent, it will alter the tendency of the molecules to
escape the original liquid. What colligative property is described?

A. Boiling point elevation C. Vapor pressure lowering

B. Freezing point depression D. Change in osmotic pressure

192) The equation πV = nRT is;

A. The ideal gas equation

B. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation
C. Raoult’s Law
D. The van’t Hoff equation

193) Based on Arrhenius dissociation theory, an acid is a substance that;

A. Liberates H⁺ in aqueous solution

B. Liberates hydroxyl (OH-) in aqueous solution
C. Accepts an electron pair from another atom
D. Donates an electron pair to be shared with another atom

194) The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for weak acid and its salt is;

A. pH = pKₐ + log (salt/acid) C. pOH = pKw -pKb + log (acid/salt)

B. pH= pKₐ + log (acid/salt) D. pKw = H⁺ + OH

195) Species that can function either as an acid or a base is;

A. an ampholyte C. a diprotic
B. a polyprotic D. a monoprotic

196) A zwitterion is;

I. A molecule that carries both positive and negative charge
II. Electrically neutral
III. An amphoteric species

A. I and II C. I and III

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B. II and III D. I, II and III

197) Which of the following factors is the least affecting the pH of the buffer?

A. Addition of neutral salt C. particle size

B. Temperature D. dilution with water

198) Dilution of an acetate buffer will give a ________ dilution value.

A. Positive C. constant
B. Negative D. unchanged

199) The secondary buffer in erythrocytes is composed of;

A. Hemoglobin/oxymoglobin
B. Acid/alkali sodium salts of phosphoric acid
C. Carbonic acid/carbonate
D. Plasma proteins

200) The total buffer capacity of the blood is

A. 0.003 C. 0.028
B. 0.025 D. 0.35

201) It is the number of gram equivalents in an acid or base that changes the pH of 1 L buffer solution by
1 unit.

A. Buffer action C. either A or B

B. Buffer capacity D. neither A nor B

202) It is the number of moles of solute per kilogram of the solvent.

A. Normality C. Molality
B. Molarity D. Mole Fraction

203) The number of moles per liter of the solution is;

A. Normality C. Molality
B. Molarity D. Mole Fraction

204) The concentration of solution may be expressed in terms of Normality. Normality is the;

A. Number of moles solute/L of solution

B. Moles of solute/Moles of solute + Moles of solvent
C. Gram-equivalent weights of solute/L of solution
D. Milligram-equivalent weights of solute/L of solution

205) Correct statements include;

I. Ammonia-ammonium buffer system is a weak acid and conjugate base buffer pair.
II. A positive dilution value signifies that the pH raise with temperature.
III. Additional buffers are added to drug solutions though they exhibit buffer capacity.
A. I, II and III C. I and III

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B. II and III D. II only

206) The pKb of pilocarpine is 7.15 at 25°C (pH = 7.4), calculate the mole percent of the base.

A. 78% D. 64%
B. 3.56% E. 36%
C. 1.78%

207) In a liter of a 0.01M solution of acetic acid, it was found to dissociate into 1.32 x 10-3 gram-ions
each of hydronium and acetate at 25°C. What is the k a?

A. 1.74 x 10-6 C. 1.74 x 10-4

B. 1.74 x 10-5 D. 1.74 x 10-3

208) What is the maximum buffer capacity of an acetate buffer with a total concentration of 3.75 x 10 -
2
nmole/liter?

A. O.0115 C. 2.16 x 10-2

B. O.00216 D. 2.303

209) An isotonic solution is one which

A. Does not cause hemolysis

B. Has the same salt concentration
C. Causes the cell to swell
D. Has freezing point less than that of plasma

210) Sodium chloride equivalents are used to estimate the amount of sodium chloride needed to render a
solution isotonic. The E may be defined as;

A. The amount of NaCI that is theoretically equivalent to 1 g of specified chemical

B. Equivalent salt to make it isotonic
C. Equivalent NaCI enough to make normal saline
D. Equivalent NaCI to make an isotonic diluting vehicle

211) The following concentration of sodium chloride solutions are hypertonic EXCEPT;

A. 2.5% C. 5%
B. 1.5% D. 0.5%

212) The component of aerosol system is liquid due to the high pressure inside the container.

A. product concentrate C. active ingredient

B. propellant D. foam

213) The freezing point depression of an isotonic solution is ;

A. 0.52°C C. 0.85°C
B. 0.48°C D. 0.44°C

214) This solution causes the cells to shrink because of the outward passage of water.

A. Isotonic C. hypertonic

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B. Hypotonic D. isosmotic

215) According to haemolytic method of measuring tonicity, a solution that liberates haemoglobin is;

A. Isotonic C. hypertonic
B. Hypotonic D. isosmotic

216) The sodium chloride equivalent of atropine sulfate is 0.13. this means that;

A. 1 g NaCI represents 0.13 g atropine sulfate

B. 1 g atropine sulfate is osmotically equivalent to 0.13 g NaCI
C. 0.13 g NaCI is equivalent to 0.13 g atropine sulfate
D. 0.13 g NaCI is present in 100 g of atropine sulfate

217) The bais of the V values by Sprowl’s is;

A. 0.3 g the drug in 100 mL of the solution

B. 0.1 of the drug in 0 mL of the solution
C. 0.1 g of the drug in 100 mL of the solution
D. 0.3 g the drug in 1 fl.oz. (30 mL) of the solution

218) Drug A has a MW = 356 g/mole and anLisovalue = 4.3. Calculate ∆tf1% of Drug A.

A. 0.68° C. 0.22°
B. 0.44 D. 0.12°

219) It utilizes the use of freezing point in calculating the tonicity of solution.

A. Cryoscopic method C. NaCI equivalent method

B. Haemolytic method D. White-Vincent method

220) A newly discovered weak acid was found to diffuse freely through the red blood cell membrane. A
2.3% of this weak aid has the same freezing point as blood. The 2.3% is;

A. Isotonic C. isosmotic and isotonic

B. Isosmotic D. hypertonic

221) A newly discovered weak acid was found to diffuse freely through the red blood cell membrane. A
2.3% of this weak acid has the same freezing point as blood. When volume of this solution is mixed with
blood, red blood cells will;

A. Retain their normal size and shape

B. Shrink and become wrinkled
C. Swell and finally burst
D. Be crenated

222) These are characteristics of particles of molecular dispersion, EXCEPT;

A. Particles size is greater than 1 nm

B. Invisible in electron microscope
C. Pass through ultrafilter and semipermeable
D. Undergo rapid diffusion

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223) Particle size of colloidal dispersion is;

A. Less than 1 nm C. greater than 0.5 um

B. Between 1 nm to 0.5 um D. 100- 1000 um

224) The characteristics of particles in a real dispersion include;

I. Not uniformly sized

II. Exhibit Brownian motion
III. Do not interact
A. I, II and III D. I and II
B. II and III E. III only
C. I and III

225) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a colloidal particle?

A. Can pass through filter paper but not through semipermeable membrane
B. Exhibit Faraday- Tyndall effect
C. Diffuse rapidly
D. Detected under ultramicroscope

226) If an electric potential is applied to a colloid, the charged colloidal particles move toward the
oppositely charged electrode. What property of colloids is described?

A. Adsorption C. electrophoresis
B. Brownian motion D. Tyndall effect

227) In colloidal dispersions, if the dispersed phase interacts appreciably with the dispersion medium, it
is referred to as;

A. Iyophobic C. amphiphilic
B. Iyophilic D. hydrophobic

228) Which of the following is an optical property of colloids?

A. Diffusion C. Brownian motion

B. Tyndal effect D. Viscosity

229) Colloidal electrolytes are sometimes used;

A. As plasma substitute
B. As diagnostic agent for paresis
C. To increase solubility, stability and taste of drugs
D. As germicides

230) Colloidal drug delivery systems include;

I. Liposomes II. nanoparticles III. Hydrogels

A. Only I C. II and III
B. I and II D. I, II and III

231) Colloidal system that has the ability to increase the solubility of materials that is normally insoluble
include;

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I. Association colloids II. lyophilic colloids III. Lyophilic colloids

A. I only C. III only
B. II and III D. I and II

232) Which of the following is NOT a hydrophilic colloid?

A. Gelatin C. albumin
B. Acacia D. rubber

233) The random and erratic movement of colloidal particles which is due to the bombardment of particles
by the molecules of the dispersion medium is termed as;

A. Tyndall effect C. viscosity

B. Brownian motion D. electrophoresis

234) The sedimentation of colloidal particles can be accomplished by the use of;

A. Ultrafilter C. ultracentrifuge
B. Ultramicroscope D. QELS

235) Properties associated with amphiphilic colloids include;

I. A system containing particles that have negligible attraction for the dispersion medium
II. Dispersed phase consist of agreegates of small organic molecules or ions.
III. Hydrophilic and lipophilic portion of the molecule is solved
A. Only I C. I and II
B. II and III D. I, II and III

236) Factors affecting Brownian movement of particles include;

I. Viscosity of the medium II. electric potential III. Particle size

A. I, II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. I and III

237) The number of monomers that aggregate to form a miracle is known as the;

A. Aggregation number C. coordination number

B. Gegenion number D. association value

238) Sodium ions are attracted to the surface of the micelle is known as the;

A. Gegenions C. cations
B. Anions D. zwitterions

239) The light scattering property of colloids is expressed in terms of;

A. Fluidity C. turbidity
B. Transparency D. light rays

240) The protective property of colloids is expressed in terms of;

A. Silver number C. CMC

B. Gold number D. bronze number

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241) This apparatus examine light points responsible for the tyndall cone in colloids

A. Ordinary microscope C. electron microscope

B. Ultramicroscope D. all of these

242) Which of the following statement/s is true regarding parenteral suspensions;

I. Contain 0.5 to 30% solid particles

II. Are used in depot therapy
III. Viscosity and particle size affect the ease of injection
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and III D. I and II

243) Parameters used to evaluate a suspension formulation in terms of the amount of flocculation include;

I. Critical micellar concentration (CMC)

II. Sedimentation volume (F)
III. Degree of flocculation (B)
A. I,II and III C. II and III
B. I and III D. I and II

244) A suspension having an F value equal to 1 means;

A. The formulation is flocculated C. both statements are correct

B. The formulation is deflocculated D. both statements are wrong

245) How does the increase in the viscosity of the liquid affect the rate of sedimentation in a suspension?
(assume that the density of the particles is greater than the density of the dispersing liquid.)

A. The sedimentation rate will not change

B. The sedimentation rate will be slower
C. The sedimentation rate will be higher
D. Particle sedimentation will not take place

246) Which of the following statements does not described dispersed

heterogenous systems

A. A two- phase system C. paritcles exhibit Brownian motion

B. Inherently stable system D. particles are not uniform in size

247) A clear supernatant liquid is produced, upon settling of particles in this system.

A. Flocculated C. concentrated suspensions

B. Deflocculated D. dilute suspensions

248) Which of the following phenomena is undesirable in pharmaceutical suspensions?

A. Slow settling of particles

B. Particles agglomerate to dense crystals
C. Particles readily redisperse upon agitation
D. The suspension pours readily and evenly

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249) The settling of particles in flocculated system is termed as;

A. Sedimentation C. subsidence
B. Caking D. flocculation

250) A process of forming a light, fluffy conglomerates that are held together by

weak Van der Waals forces.

A. Aggregation C. Caking
B. Deposition D. flocculation

251) Hydrophobic powders has/have the following characteristic/s

I. Have low contact angle

II. Include sulphur and charcoal
III. Not easily wetted
A. Only III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I, II and III

252) Which of the following powders are having low contact angle?

I. Charcoal II. zinc oxide III. Magnesium carbonate

A. I and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I, II and III

253) This agent prevents coalescence and maintains the integrity of the individual droplets in emulsion.

A. Flocculating agent C. wetting agent

B. Dispersing agent D. emulsifying agent

254) This theory of emulsification places the emulsifying agent at the interface between the oil and water,
surrounding the droplets of the internal phase as a thin layer of film adsorbed on the surface of the drops.

A. Surface tension theory C. interfacial film theory

B. Oriented-wedge theory D. dissolution theory

255) A problem affecting the pharmaceutical elegance of emulsion that involves the complete fusion of
droplets followed by ultimate fusion of two immiscible phases.

A. Phase inversion C. flocculation

B. Creaming D. breaking

256) Creaming of emulsion can be prevented by;

I. Addition of viscosity improver

II. Homogenation
III. Adjusting the external and internal phase densities
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. II only

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257) A phenomenon occur when there is a change of an emulsion type form O/W To W/O or vice versa?

A. Coalescence C. creaming
B. Breaking D. phase inversion

258) Which of the following statements/s describe/s an O/W emulsion?

I. Stabilized by surfactants with an HLB value of 3-6

II. Generally employed for oral administration
III. Water is the external phase
A. I,II and III C. I only
B. II and III D. I and II

259) Which of the following test is the least method use for determining the type of emulsion form?

A. Conductivity test C. dilution test

B. Dye solubility test D. adsorption test

260) A system in which the liquid is removed and only the frameworks remains.

A. Hydrogel C. jellies
B. Organogel D. xerogel

261) Stoke’s Law describes;

A. Brownian motion C. dissolutions rate

B. Diffusion rate D. sedimentation rate

262) The taking up of a gel with a certain amount of liquid without a measurable increase in volume is
referred to as ;

A. Swelling C. syneresis
B. Imbibition D. bleeding

263) A phenomenon where the liquid in gel is pressed out upon standing is referred to as;

A. Syneresis C. imbibition
B. Swelling D. bleeding

264) Petroleum contains a substance that thickens the system, thus referred to as gel former. This
substance is known as;

A. Waxy fraction C. jelly

B. Carbowax D. protosubstance

265) The capillary rise method is used in measuring, which of the following physical Property?

A. Surface tension only C. both A and B

B. Interfacial tension only D. viscosity

266) Which of the following substance is the major component of a lung surfactant that allows us to
breath and prevents pulmonary edema?

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A. Sodium myristate C. sodium palmitate

B. Phospatidylcholine D. benzalkonium chloride

267) TRUE statements regarding HLB system include;

I. Surfactants with high HLB values are hydrophilic

II. Surfactants with low HLB values are lipophilic
III. Spans are hydrophilic surfactants
A. Only I is correct C. I and III are correct
B. I and II are correct D. I, II and III are correct

268) A surfactant having an HLB value of 1.3 is used as;

A. Wetting agent C. detergents

B. Solubilizing agent D. antifoaming agent

269) Surfactants with an HLB value of 7 – 9 are used as;

A. Antifoaming agents C. detergents

B. Wetting agents D. solubilizing agents

270) Tween 20 is;

A. Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate

B. Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monolaureate
C. Sorbitan tristearate
D. Sorbitan monolaurate

271) Which of the following surfactant is used to lower the contact angle of the powder and the liquid?

A. Solubilizing agent
B. Detergent
C. Wetting agent
D. Foaming agent

272) Describe as a stable structure consisting of air pockets enclosed within thin film of liquid.

A. Foam C. detergent
B. Aerosol D. antifoam

273) The angle between a liquid droplet and the surface over which it spreads is

Defined as;

A. Angle of repose C. contact angle

B. Tanф D. spreading coefficient

274) An equation used to determine the contact angle is known as;

A. Draves equation C. Young’s equation

B. Arrhenius equation D. Clark’s equation

275) It described as a complex process involving the removal of foreign matter from Surfaces.

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A. Wetting C. cleansing
B. Detergency D. foaming

276) Which of the following pharmaceutical products follow a zero-order kinetics for degradation?

A. Solutions C. suspensions
B. Ointments D. elixirs

277) Which of the following rate of reaction (degradation) is independent to the concentration of the
reactants.

A. Zero-order C. second order

B. First-order D. third order

278) What order of reaction if graph of log C vs t yielded a straight line?

A. Zero C. second
B. First D. third

279) Which of the given equation can be applied to calculate the zero-order rate constant?

A. C = kot + Co C. InC = -kt + InC o

B. InC = 2.3 log D. log C = -kt/2.3 + log C o

280) Which method is used to calculate an estimate of shelf-life for a product that may have been stored
or is going to be stored under a different set of conditons?

A. Q10 method C. rate constants

B. T90 method D. half life

I. Less frequently encountered mode of degradation are hydrolysis and oxidation

II. Esters, lactams and amides usually undergo hydrolytic decomposition
III. Oxidation is mediated by atmospheric oxygen
A. I,II and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. Only I

282) What test is use to determine the the stability of formulation using exaggerated conditions of
temperature and humidity?

A. Stress testing C. accelerated stability testing

B. Stability at room temperature D. stability studies 90

283) It define as the amount of time that the product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use through
either chemical decomposition or physical deterioration

A. Expiraty date C. half-life

B. Shelf-life D. degradation time

284) Instability of drug products may give rise to the following consequences include;

I. Substantial loss of the active ingredient from the dosage form

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II. Formation of a toxic product

III. Can cause decreased bioavailability
A. I,II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. only III

285) Which of the following pharmaceutical preaparations is categorized as Non- Newtonian system?

I. Colloidal sols II. Emulsions III. Ointments

A. I,II and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. only III

286) The viscosity of pseudoplastic material;

A. Decreases with decreasing rate of shear

B. Decreases with increasing rate of shear
C. Increases with increasing rate of shear
D. Is not affected by either increase or decrease rate of shear

287) Factors affecting rheological properties and measurement of viscosity of liquids and semisolids
include;

I. Temperature II. shear rate III. Time

A. I and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I,II and III

288) This apparatus is used to determine the rheologic properties of material

A. Hansen paddle equipment C. Brookfield viscometer

B. Du nouytensiometer D. andreasen pipet

289) A comparatively slow recovery of the material structure on standing that was lost by shear- thinning
is referred to as

A. Dilatancy C. thixotropy
B. Rheopexy D. viscoelasticity

290) What type of flow does gels and magmas exhibit when they form semisolids on standing and
become fluid upon shaking?

A. Rheopexy C. antithixotropy
B. Thixotropy D. dilatancy

291) Which of the following substances exhibit dilatant rheology?

I. Ketchup
II. Whipping cream
III. Suspensions that contain very high solid content.
A. I,II and III D. II and III
B. I and III E. III only
C. I and II

292) it is used to express the rate at whicha solid dissolves in a solvent.

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A. Fick’s law C. Hixson-crowell cube root law

B. Noyes-whitney equation D. stoke’s law

293) The passive diffusion of drugs is described by;

A. Fick’s first law C. stoke’s law

B. Fick’s second law D. none of these

294) It describes the dissolutions rate of the drug powder consisting of uniformly

sized particles.

A. Fick’s law C. noyes-whitney equation

B. Hixson-crowell cube root law D. henry’s law

295) Diffusion is the rate limiting step in the drug release of the following formulations

I. Transdermal patches II. spansule system III. Norplant system

A. I,II and III C. I only
B. II and III D. III only

296) The central metal ion in inorganic complexes is known as;

A. Ligand C. guest
B. Host D. substrate

297) The host molecule of a monomolecular inclusion compound is represented by;

A. Zeolite C. quinhydrone
B. Clathrate D. cyclodextrin

298) Graphite is an example of what type of complex?

A. Channel lattice type D. monomolecular inclusion compound

B. Layer type E. macromolecular inclusion compound
C. Clathrate

299) The angle of repose is;

I. A measure of frictional forces in a loose powder

II. A function of surface roughness
III. Used to estimate the flow properties of powders
A. I,II and III are correct C. II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct D. III only

300) Andreasen pipet is an apparatus used to obtained data used in determining particle size by;

A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieving method
C. Sedimentation method
D. Particle volume measurement

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