Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. Which of the following is the correct flow of blood from the uterine wall to
the endometrium?
A. Uterine artery arcuate artery radial artery
straight & coiled spiral artery
B. Uterine artery radial artery arcuate artery straight
& coiled spiral artery
C. Uterine artery arcuate artery straight artery radial
& coiled spiral artery
D. Uterine artery straight artery arcuate artery radial
& coiled spiral artery
5. During the secretory phase, what is the uppermost layer from the uterine
cavity ?
A. Zona compacta
B. Zona basalis
C. Zona spongiosa
D. Decidua basalis
6. What stage of human development is implanted in the uterine cavity?
A. blastomeres
B. embryo
C. blastocyst
D. morula
7. How many new primary oocytes are there during puberty?
A. 0
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000
8. What is the important event that occurs prior to implantation?
A. Formation of daughter cells
B. Extrusion of the polar body
C. Accumulation of fluid between blastomeres
D. Disappearance of the zona pellucida
9. At what phase does regresson of the corpus luteum occur?
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A. At the end of the proliferative phase
B. At the end of the secretory phase
C. During menstruation
D. After ovulation
12. At what part of the fallopian tube does tubal rupture occur earliest?
A. Interstitial
B. B. Ampullary
C. Isthmic
D. Fimbria
13. What is the most commonly associated condition for abruption placenta?
A. External trauma
B. Pregnancy- induced hypertension
C. alcohol consumption
D. Short cord
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D. Locked
17. Which of the following is the most important parameter in the assessment
of patient in true labor?
A. intactness of the amniotic membrane
B. cervical dilatation and effacement
C. presenting part
D. bony pelvis
18. The level of the presenting part in the birth canal described in relationship
to the ischial spines, which is halfway between the pelvic inlet and the
pelvic outlet is called
A. position
B. B. effacement
C. Dilatation
D. station
20. A 30 year old G1P0, term was admitted for labor pains. FH- 34 cm, FHT-
140 bpm. IE- cervix is 4 cm dilated, 60% effaced, cephalic, station -2,
rupture BOW. Uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, moderate. After 2
hours, IE- cervix 4-5 cm dilated, 70 % effaced, station -2. After 2 hours, IE-
cervix is 5-6 cm dilated, 80% effaced, station -1.Describe the progress of
labor.
A. Normally progressing
B. Protracted cervical dilatation
C. Protracted descent
D. Arrest in descent
21. What phase of the active labor reflects the feto-pelvic relationship?
A. latent phase
B. B. acceleration phase
C. phase of maximum slope
D. deceleration phase
22. A 19 year old G1P0 PU 40 weeks, not in labor, was seen at the OPD for
decreased fetal movement. She was hooked to an electronic fetal monitor
and tracing showed: Baseline FHT- 140’s, good variability, with more than
2 accelerations of 20 bpm lasting for 20 secs. The tracing is interpreted
as:
A. reactive
B. non-reactive
C. positive
D. negative
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24. What is the presentation type when the fetal head is artially flexed with the
anterior fontanel or bregma is presenting?
A. face
B. vertex
C. brow
D. sinciput
25. You were the intern on duty in the ER and you did an abdominal exam on
a 22 year old G2P1 PU 37 weeks who consulted because of hypogastic
pain. You found out that the fundus is occupied by a hard ballotable mass.
What Leopold’s maneuver did you perform?
A. LM 1
B. LM 2
C. LM 3
D. LM 4
29. Naegele’s rule is use to estimate the expected date of delivery by ____.
A. adding 3 days to the first day of PMP and count back 7
months
B. adding 7 days to the first day of PMP and count back 3
months
C. adding 7 days to the first day of bleeding and count back
3 months
D. adding 7 days to the first day of LMP and count back
3 months
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32. The preferred method for the delivery of the aftercoming head is
A. Piper’s forceps extraction
B. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit Manuever
C. Bracht maneuver
D. Prague maneuver
33. You were assigned to deliver the baby of a 25 year old G1P0 PU 38
weeks. You applied the forceps on the fetal head with the following
findings: head was at station +2 with the sagittal suture at left occiput
anterior position. This is classified as
A. outlet forceps delivery
B. low forceps delivery
C. midforceps delivery
D. high forceps delivery
34. A 22 year old G1P0 patient at 39 weeks AOG was admitted for elective
Cesarean Section for breech presentation. She requested to her
obstetrician that a transverse suprapubic abdominal incision be done to
her. This type of incision is called
A. Kerr
B. Kronig
C. Pfannensteil
D. Classical
35. Which of the following is one of the requirements that must be present
before obstetric forceps must be used?
A. The membranes should be intact
B. Cephalic presentation
C. The fetal head must be floating
D. The cervix must be fully dilated and retracted
36. The single most significant risk factor in the development of post-partum
pelvic infection is
A. early rupture of membranes
B. Prolonged labor
C. Cesarean delivery
D. Multiparity
37. The process by which the uterus returns to its normal size, tone and
position after delivery is called
A. involution
B. puerperium
C. subinvolution
D. atony
38. What is the mechanism behind the increase in cardiac output right after
delivery?
A. maternal exhaustion
B. increase caval compression
C. sympathetic stimulation
D. autotransfusion
39. Congenital rubella syndrome is more likely common during which AOG?
A. 8-10 weeks
B. 12-14 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 36-38 weeks
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40. What is the diagnostic procedure of choice for identifying gallstones in
pregnancy?
A. CT Scan
B. X-Ray
C. Ultrasound
D. MRI
41. A patient consulted because her husband is a seaman and will be coming
home in 2 months for a 1-month vacation. She just had her menses 2
days ago. What is the most effective reversible form of contraception will
you give?
A. combined oral contraceptive
B. calendar rhythm method
C. Depo-Provera
D. combined oral contraceptives
42. A 30 year old G1P1 consulted at the OPD for Pap smear. According to her,
she had an IUD in-situ for 1 year. On PE, you can not visualize the tail of
the IUD string. What is the best thing to do for this patient?
A. Assume that the device has been expelled
B. Assume that the patient is telling a lie
C. Perform an transvaginal ultrasound
D. Assume that the device has been expelled and perform
the Pap smear
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D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
50. A 69- year old G4P4 (4004) consulted for an ulcerated mass on the right
labium majus. She had been to several physicians who have prescribed
unrecalled topical creams and solutions without relief. Upon seeing the
patient, your recommendation would be:
A. Observation
B. Steroid topical cream
C. Excision biopsy of the mass
D. Simple vulvectomy
51. The area of the cervix that is most prone to precancerous and cancerous
neoplasms is the:
A. Histologic portio
B. Transformation zone
C. Histologic endocervix
D. Isthmus
52. Which of the following HPV Types is associated with high oncogenic
potential?
A. HPV Type 1
B. HPV Type 5
C. HPV Type 6
D. HPV Type 18
53. A 37 year old, G3P3 was admitted because of vaginal bleeding. Pregnancy
test is negative. She underwent diagnostic curettage. While doing the
curettage humps and bumps were noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. intramural myoma
B. subserous myoma
C. submucous myoma
D. broad ligament myoma
54. A 68 year old woman has a biopsy result of atypical complex hyperplasia.
What is the most appropriate treatment for her?
A. Judicious observation
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B. Repeat fractional D&C after 6 months
C. Give cyclic progestin therapy to promote monthly
withdrawal bleeding
D. Perform TAHBSO
55. This granulose-theca cell tumor has this characteristic inclusion body.
A. Psamomma bodies
B. Call-Exner bodies
C. Schiller Duvall bodies
D. keratin pearls
56. A 33 year old nulligravid patient consulted in your clinic because of cervical
mass. She was diagnosed as a case of prolapsed myoma . What is the best
management for her case?
A. Do myomectomy by laparotomy
B. Do subtotal hysterectomy
C. Do transcervical resection of the myoma
57. A 28 year old, single, nulligravid patient consulted in the OPD for the result of
her pelvic ultrasound. It revealed a 18mm x 10mm x 14mm and a 13mm x
16mm x 10 mm intramural myomatas. She is asymptomatic.
61. A 29 year old sexually active female consulted in your clinic because of vulvar
lesion. History revealed that it started as paresthesia of the vulvar skin then
papule and subsequent vesicle formation. Simple clinical inspection revealed
ulcers which are painful when touched with cotton-tipped applicator. The most
likely diagnosis is _____.
A. Syphilis
B. Granuloma inguinale
C. LGV
D. Genital herpes
62. What are the most important goals of the medical therapy of acute PID?
A. prevention and treatment of the disease
B. early diagnosis and prompt treatment of the disease
C. prevention of the disease and preservation of tubal function
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D. resolution of symptoms and preservation of tubal
function
68. Among the factors causing female infertility, the easiest to diagnose and
manage is
A. cervical factors
B. uterine factors
C. ovulatory factors
D. tubal/peritoneal factors
70. Over the counter pregnancy test kits will test for which placental hormone?
((Baja-Panlilio Chapter 6, p. 64)
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. human placental lactogen
D. human chorionic gonadotropin
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71. Mefenamic acid taken by pregnant women may result in the closure of
what structure? (Baja-Panlilio, Vol I pp. 82-83)
A. ductus venosus
B. foramen ovale
C. ductus arteriosus
D. ventricular septal defect
72. Hydroureter during pregnancy is more marked on the right than on the left
because of: (Baja panlilio Chapter 8 Page 107)
A. renal artery crossing the ureter on the right
B. dextrorotation of the uterus
C. sigmoid colon on the right
D. majority of fetus staying on the right maternal side
73. In which of the following are relatively low levels of hCG detected in
maternal blood? (Baja Panlilio Chapter 6 page 64)
A. Down syndrome
B. hydatidiform mole
C. multiple gestation
D. Impending abortion
74. The majority of spontaneous abortions are due to: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter
27, p. 317)
A. chronic infections
B. endocrine abnormality
C. chromosomal defects
D. uterine synechial
75. A 39 year old, G4P3 (3003) patient with a history of repeated episodes of
pelvic inflammatory disease was diagnosed to have an unruptured ectopic
pregnancy. The cause of her ectopic pregnancy is: (Baja-Panlilio,
Chapter 28, p. 327)
A. uterine tumor
B. adhesions
C. ovarian tumor
D. salpingitis
76. The best basis for the diagnosis of Preterm Labor in this patient is the
presence of: (Baja Panlilio Chapter 37 , page 355)
A. mucoid vaginal discharge
B. painful uterine contractions
C. contractions occurring every 10 to 15 minutes
D. cervical dilatation and effacement
78. A 29 year old G1P0, consulted for the 1st time on her 28 weeks AOG. Her
BP was 160/120 mmHg. She had severe headache and her fundic height
was only at the level of the umbilicus. The appropriate laboratory exams
to be done initially is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p. 337
A. non-stress test
B. doppler velocimetry
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C. biophysical profile
D. liver enzymes
79. A 35 year old, G6P5 (5005) on her 12th week of pregnancy was diagnosed
on ultrasound to have an h-mole. What will be the management for this
case? ((Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 30, p. 350)
A. single agent chemotherapy
B. hysterotomy
C. suction curettage
D. hysterectomy, followed by prophylactic
chemotherapy
80. When the long axis of the fetus parallels the longitudinal axis of the uterus,
the lie of the fetus is called: (Panlilio, Textbook of Obstetrics (Pathologic
and Physiologic) 2nd ed, Page 210)
A. transverse
B. longitudinal
C. cephalic
D. breech
81. The tracings showed that the fetus: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 21 pp. 237
83. A 25 year old G1P0, 38-39 wks. AOG consulted at the emergency room
due to labor pains. She has no prenatal check-ups and family history
revealed diabetes mellitus in sister and mother. Abdominal exam revealed
fundic height = 40 cm, uterine contractions every 2-3 mins, 45-50 secs.
duration. Internal exam has remained unchanged at 6 cms dilated, fully
effaced, station -2, cephalic, (-) BOW for the past 2 ½ hrs. The serious
complication during vaginal delivery of this baby where there is arrest in
delivery of the shoulder is: (Baja-Panlilio, . 421-422)
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A. Shoulder dystocia
B. Deep transverse of the head
C. Erb’s palsy
D. Prolonged second stage of labor
90. A 42 year old G2P1 at her 32 weeks gestation with known renal disease
and hypertension presents with BP of 220/120 mmHg but is
asymptomatic. The diagnostic test you will perform to detect chronicity of
her illness is: (Baja-Panlilio, Chapter 35 p. 342)
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A. Doppler velocimetry
B. urine protein
C. fundoscopy
D. elevated serum creatinine
94. A 60 yo G5P5 (5-0-0-5) has been menopausal for the past 12 years
presents with minimal vaginal bleeding. What diagnostic exam will you
recommend? (Compre Gyne, p. 1082-1083)
A. colposcopy
B. laparoscopy
C. diagnostic Dilatation and Curettage
D. Transvaginal Ultrasound
96. A 5 year old child was initially treated with antibiotics for purulent vaginal
discharge for a week. On follow up, the discharge was noted to be foul
smelling and bloody. The most probable cause is: (Comprehensive
Gynecology, 4th ed, page 274-277)
A. monilial infection
B. child molestation
C. foreign body in the vagina
D. precocious puberty
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97. A mother is concerned with the appearance of whitish, non puritic vaginal
discharge on her 11 year old child noted since 8 month preceding
menarche. It is best to; (Comprehensive Gynecology, 4 th ed, page 276)
A. do gram stain on the discharge
B. advise vaginal douche
C. prescribe oral antibiotics
D. reassure the mother and the child that the discharge
is normal
101. A 35 year old, G6P6 (6006) wife of a seaman, consulted due to postcoital
bleeding. Speculum exam revealed a flat warty lesion along the posterior
cervical lip. Histopathology of cervical punch biopsy done revealed
dysplastic cells involving nearly the whole thickness of the epithelium.
The most probable diagnosis is CIN? (Compre Gyne, 802-803)
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
102. A 65 year old nulligravida consulted at the emergency room due to
postmenopause bleeding x 3 yrs. She’s obese and known to be
hypertensive for 10 years. Her menstrual history revealed irregularly
irregular cycles. She was treated for breast cancer 6 years ago and has
been taking tamoxifen for the past 5 years. The most appropriate
diagnostic test is: (Compre Gyne, 870-871)
A. Pap smear
B. Cervical punch biopsy
C. Fractional curettage
D. Transvaginal ultrasound
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103. A 25 year old, G6P0 (0060) consulted at the emergency room due to
postcoital bleeding x 3 months duration. She’s a victim of child
prostitution. On pelvic exam, there was a 2 cm cauliflower – like lesion on
the anterior lip of the cervix. The vagina and parametria are smooth. What
is the most appropriate diagnostic test? (Compre Gyne, p. 844)
A. pap smear
B. colposcopy with biopsy
C. direct punch biopsy
D. cone biopsy
104. A 20 year old commercial sex worker presented at the clinic due to painful
shallow ulcers in the vulva associated with burning sensation during
urination. She also has multiple oral ulcers at the time of consultation. The
most likely diagnosis is: (Compre Gyne, , Chapter 22, page 656)
A. Herpes simplex infection
B. granuloma inguinale
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum
D. Syphilis
105. A 38 year old diabeteic patient presented at the clinic due to vaginal
pruritus and whitish vaginal discharge. On examination, the vulva is beefy
red in appearance with whitish curdled discharge. The most likely
diagnosis is: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 669)
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Candidiasis
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Mucopuruloent Cervicitis
107. A patient with chronic ulcers in the vulva had smears done taken from the
ulcers. Findings shows presence of dark staining bacteria with a bipolar
appearance found in the cytoplasm of large mononuclear cells .These are
diagnostic of ; (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 660
A. Granuloma inguinale
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Chancroid
D. Syphilis
108. A patient with painless vulvar ulcers came with a positive screening test
for syphilis. Confirmatory test that should be done can either be any of the
following except: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22, page 664)
A. RPR
B. TPI
C. FTA-ABS
D. MHA-TP
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109. According to CDC, treatment of patients diagnosed with HIV includes the
following except: (Compre Gyne Chapter 22, page 686)
A. behavioral
B. psychosocial
C. emotional
D. medical
110. A patient diagnosed with gonorrhea should: (Compre Gyne, Chapter 22,
page 692)
A. be treated with Chloramphenicol
B. also be treated for Chlamydia infection
C. have follow-up cultures done for asymptomatic women
D. not have serologic test for syphilis if cultures for
gonorrhea are positive
111. Linda, 65 year old, G7P7 came to your clinic complaining of vaginal itching
with burning discomfort. This condition may be due to a decrease in what
hormone? (Compre Gyne, p.1223)
A. LH
B. progesterone
C. estrogen
D. FSH
112. Linda, 18 year old, delivered an 8 lbs baby. There was note of laceration
on the lateral wall off the vaginal vault with profuse vaginal bleeding. There
was a sudden drop of BP. Post partum there was note of amenorrhea.
Lab examination shows destruction of the pituitary gland. Linda has what
syndrome? (Compre Gyne p. 1116)
A. Simmonds syndrome
B. Sheehan’s syndrome
C. Edward’s syndrome
D. Asherman’s syndrome
114. The fetal heart tones can be best heard in this area if the following were
the Leopold’s findings:
L1- large nodular mass
L2 – hard, resistant structure at the right side of the mother
Small, irregular, mobile parts on the left side of the mother
L3 – movable hard round mass
L4 – tips of the fingers able to meet
A. right lower quadrant
B. left lower quadrant
C. right upper quadrant
D. left upper quadrant
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115. The patient with abnormal uterine bleeding is a:
A. 18 y.o. whose interval of menses is 24 to 30 days
B. 41 y.o. whose menses last 8 to 10 days
C. 29 y.o. on DMPA with occasional vaginal spotting
D. 22 y.o. leukemic patient with menstrual blood loss of 80
ml
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121. The violaceous discoloration of the vagina during pregnancy is called:
A. Godell’s sign
B. Hegar’s sign
C. Chadwick’s sign
D. Pawlik’s sign
126. During the second and third trimester, daily caloric intake should be
increased by:
A. 400
B. 300
C. 200
D. 100
128. The relation of the point of direction to the right and left of the maternal
birth canal is called:
A. presentation
B. posture
C. position
D. station
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130. Average duration of the first stage of labor in primigravidas:
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 5 hours
131. Average duration of the third stage of labor among multiparous patients:
A. 5 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. One hour
D. Two hours
134. The motor pathways to the uterus leaves the spinal cord at the level of:
A. T9T10
B. T7T8
C. T6
D. T7
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139. Significant oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of ____
cm. or less:
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5
140. Patient with heart disease without any obstetrical indication are best
delivered by:
A. cesarian section under general anesthesia
B. normal spontaneous delivery under pudendal block
C. outlet forceps extraction under epidural anesthesia
D. cesarian section under epidural anesthesia
144. Complete expulsion of sperm stored in the reproductive tracr beyond the
interrupted vas deferens takes about _____ ejaculations:
A. 2
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
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D. All of the above
148. What maneuver in shoulder dystocia involves flexing the maternal thighs
on the abdomen?
A. Woods
B. Pinard
C. Zavanelli
D. McRoberts
149. A woman using the oral contraceptive pills for the first time should be
advised to start taking it :
A. on day 1 of menses
B. on day 5 of menses
C. on day 7 of menses
D. anytime as long as she is not pregnant
152. The following are congenital anomalies of the mullerian duct EXCEPT:
A. imperforate hymen
B. transverse vaginal septum
C. unicornuate uterus
D. uterus didelphys
154. Abnormal uterine bleeding during the pubertal and perimenarcheal period
is due to:
A. polycystic ovaries
B. failing ovarian function
C. delayed,aynchronous hypothalamic maturation
D. exogenous estrogen stimulation
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155. Most common cause of vaginal bleeding among postmenopausal women:
A. endometrial carcinoma
B. endometrial hyperplasia
C. endometrial polyp
D. atrophic endometrium
159. The so called tobacco pouch appearance of the fallopian tube is seen in:
A. gonorrhea infection with tubo ovarian abscess
B. Chlamydia infenction with tubo ovarian abscess
C. Pelvic tuberculos
D. Old tubal ectopic gestation
163. Which of the following Pap’s smear will definitely require colposcopic
examination of the cervix:
A. AGUS
B. ASCUS
C. LSIL
D. HSIL
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164. Which of the following is considered a precursor of cervical carcinoma:
A. Metaplasia
B. dysplasia
C. eversion
D. severe eroisions
166. Cystocele and rectocele occur because of weakness of the (ANS: C page
44)
A. uterosacral ligaments
B. anal sphincter
C. endopelvic fascia
D. cardinal ligament
170. A Pap smear is likely to identify all the following except (ANS: B page 150-
151)
A. cervical squamous cell carcinoma
B. gonorrhea
C. human papilloma virus
D. inflammatory changes
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172. The major mechanism of DMPA, which accounts for its contraceptive
effect, is the (ANS: A page 327)
A. inhibition of the midcycle gonadotropin surge
B. production of unfavorable endometrial environment
C. alteration of tubal motility
D. alteration of cervical mucus
173. The most commonly encountered cancer of the breast (ANS: D page 383)
A. lobular carcinoma in situ
B. lobular infiltrating carcinoma
C. ductal carcinoma in situ
D. ductal infiltrating carcinoma
176. The greatest lifetime risk of breast cancer is associated with a(an) (ANS:
C page 430)
A. early menarche
B. late menopause
C. history of oral contraceptive use longer than 10 years
D. history of postmenopausal estrogen use longer than 10
years
178. The most consistent symptom of ectopic pregnancy is (ANS: D page 456)
A. amoenorrhea
B. vaginal bleeding
C. subjective symptoms of pregnancy
D. abdominal pain
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D. CA-125
180. The cell origin of the most common type of ovarian neoplasm is (ANS B
page 958)
A. germ cells
B. epithelial cells
C. stromal cells
D. lipoid cells
181. The most common cause of direct maternal deaths in the Philippines:
(ANS: A p.4)
A. Hemorrhage
B. Hypertension
C. Infection
D. Heart disease
182. Most perinatal deaths are due to the following maternal factors: (ANS: A
p.8)
A. Premature labor
B. Anoxia from maternal hemorrhage
C. Postmaturity
D. Cephalopelvic disproportion
183. The placental circulation (feto-maternal) is established by this day after
fertilization (ANS: D p.57)
A. 12th day
B. 14-15th day
C. 10th day
D. 17th day
185. This maneuver of Leopold is often called the umbilical grip and answers
the question, “What side is the fetal back?” (ANS: B p.122)
A. first maneuver
B. second maneuver
C. third maneuver
D. fourth maneuver
186. “Triple screen” as a diagnostic tool for the detection fof Down’s syndrome
utilizes the following except: (ANS: D p.153)
A. unconjugated estriol
B. alphafetoprotein
C. human chorionic gonadotrophin
D. human placental lactogen
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188. Relation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother; (ANS:
C p.183)
A. attitude
B. presentation
C. lie
D. position
189. A 28 y/o at 32 weeks age of gestation consults at a clinic. She had one set
of twins both are alive and she had an abortion. Her OB code is:
A. G3P2(2102)
B. G3P1(1012)
C. G3P2 (2012)
D. G2P1(1012)
191. What is the maneuver were the index and middle fingers are applied over
the maxilla in order to free the head?
A. Bracht
B. Zavanelli
C. Pinard
D. Mauriceau
193. The most common cause of direct maternal deaths in the Philipppines is:
(p. 4)
A. Hemorrhage
B. Hypertension
C. Infection
D. Heart Disease
194. Glucose transfer from the mother to the fetus is through: (p.110)
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Simple diffusion
C. Carrier system
D. Pinocytosis
195. The “fern” formation of dried cervical mucus is due to the effect of: (p.116)
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Human placental lactogen
D. Relaxin
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D. Rate of fetal movement
197. When is the earliest time that can hCG be detected in maternal urine after
implantation? (p.116)
A. 5-7 days
B. 14-16 days
C. 8- 9 days
D. 18-21 days
198. A woman who has had three consecutive abortions and no other pregnancies is
called: (p.119)
A. Nullipara
B. Multipara
C. Primipara
D. Primigravida
199. At what age of gestation should screening for glucose be done in a pregnant
woman: (P. 125)
A. 18-20 wks
B. 24-28 wks
C. 30-32 wks
D. 34-36 wks
200. The Biophysical Profile represents all of the following EXCEPT: (p.162)
A. Accurate prediction of fetal well-being
B. Indirect measurement of fetal oxygenation
C. Fetal behavioral activities including fetal tone
D. Status of fetal cardiac function
202. Cervical softening and ripening is brought about by: (p. 196)
A. Collagen breakdown and rearrangement
B. Decreased hyaluronic acid
C. Increased dermaton sulfate
D. Increased collagen synthesis
203. The following characterize uterine changes during phase 2 of parturition: (p.
199)
A. The uterus is divided into an actively contracting upper
part and a relatively passive lower segment
B. The whole muscle contract simultaneously and with equal
intensity thus increasing the expulsive force on the fetus
C. After each contraction, the myometrium of the upper and lower
segment becomes fixed at a shorter length and this is known
as retraction
D. After delivery, the uterus diminish in size and the placenta
buckles because of limited elasticity
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204. The most ominous sign of fetal compromise: (p. 237)
A. Early deceleration
B. Late deceleration
C. Variable deceleration
D. Alternating deceleration
205. Failure to maintain temperature regulation in the newborn may lead to one or all
of the following: (p. 246)
A. Peripheral vasoconstriction
B. Hypoxia
C. Acidosis
D. All of the above
207. What is the average maternal weight loss immediately after delivery? (p. 254)
A. 4 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 6 kg
D. 7 kg
208. The lochia consisting of servical mucus and debris from healing tissues and
leucocytes, lighter yellow and creamy in color: (p. 254)
A. Rubra
B. Alba
C. Cervicosa
D. Serosa
211. The implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the endometrium lining the uterine
cavity is called: (p. 279)
A. Eccyesis
B. Ectropion
C. Endosalpingosis
D. Blighted ovum
28
213. The triad of symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are: (p. 282)
A. Amenorrhea, syncope and vaginal bleeding
B. Abdominal pain, vomiting and vaginal bleeding
C. Syncope, abdominal rigidity and amenorrhea
D. Amenorrhea, abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding
217. Toxicity of magnesium sulfate therapy may be monitored using: (p. 339)
A. Urine output
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Respiratory rate
D. All of the above
219. In case of discordant twins resulting from “twin to twin transfusion”, the smaller
twin usually presents with: (p. 348)
A. Severe anemia
B. Growth retardation
C. Oligohydramnios
D. All of the above
220. The fetal mortality rate in multifetal pregnancy is highest in: (p. 348)
A. Monozygotic, dichorionic, diamniotic
B. Monozygotic, monochorionic, diamnionic
C. Monozygotic, monochorionic, monoamnionic
D. Dizygotic, dichorionic, diamnionic
29
222. The most common cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in the preterm
neonate is: (p. 395)
A. Hyaline Membrane Disease
B. Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
C. Meconium Aspiration
D. Pneumothorax
223. What antenatal procedure is used to detect fetal lung maturity? (p. 395-396)
A. Cordocentesis
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. X-ray of the fetal lungs
225. Which is considered an indication for internal podalic version: (p. 445)
A. Oblique lie in case of fetal demise
B. Delivery of second of twins
C. Fetal distress in cephalic presentation with fully dilated cervix
D. Prolapsed cord with 8 cm dilated cervix, live, cephalic
228. Postpartum hemorrhage is blood loss during the first 24 hours after delivery in
excess of : (p.465)
A. 100 cc
B. 300 cc
C. 500 cc
D. 1,000 cc
229. The following are viral infections known to be related to congenital infection
syndromes, EXCEPT: (p. 524-525, 533)
A. Herpes virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Rubella
30
230. What is the daily minimum requirement for elemental iron in pregnancy? (p.
561)
A. 4-6 mg
B. 6-8 mg
C. 8-10 mg
D. 10-12 mg
235. In a patient with monozygotic twinning, if cell division occurs about 8 days
after fertilization, what type of twinning will develop?
A. Monoamnionic, monochorionic twin pregnancy
B. Dichorionic, diamnionic twin pregnancy
C. Diamnionic, monochorionic twin pregnancy
D. Conjoined twin pregnancy
ANS: A (APMC page 411)
236. A patient at 38 weeks AOG came in labor. I.E. cervix is 5 cm dilated, 50%
effaced, intact BOW, cephalic, station -3. Clinical pelvimetry shows the
ischial spine is bilaterally prominent, pelvic sidewalls are convergent and
concavity of the sacrum is shallow. With these findings, you suspect the
presence of:
A. Pelvic inlet contraction
B. Midpelvic contraction
C. Pelvic outlet contraction
31
D. Pelvis is adequate
ANS: B (APMC page 204)
237. When the fetal head is fully flexed, the chin lies in front of the chest and
the presenting anteroposterior diameter is suboccipitobregmamtic. What
type of presentation is this?
A. Vertex (occiput) presentation
B. Sinciput Presentation
C. Brow presentation
D. Face presentation
ANS: A (APMC page 211)
238. Which Leopold’s maneuver will identify the location of the cephalic
prominence?
A. Leopold’s maneuver 1
B. Leopold’s maneuver 2
C. Leopold’s maneuver 3
D. Leopold’s maneuver 4
ANS : D (APMC page 216)
242. This is considered as the most crucial event for the further development of
an antral follicle
A. activation of the aromatase system by FSH
B. activation of the aromatase system by LH
C. luteinization of the granulosa cell
D. luteolysis
ANS: A (APMC page 28)
32
243. Rubin’s pathologic criteria for cervical pregnancy include the following,
EXCEPT:
A. there must be cervical glands opposite the placental
attachment
B. he attachment of the placenta to the cervix must be
intimate
C. fetal elements must be present in the corpus uteri
D. the whole portion of the placenta must be situated below
the entrance of the uterine vessels
ANS: B (APMC page 333)
246. Nayda, an 18-year old primigravida comes to the clinic on her 12 th week of
gestation for her 1st check-up. She is curious as to when she can start to
perceive fetal movements. You will reassure her that this will occur :
A. anytime now
B. between the 16th and 18th week
C. between the 18th and 20th week
D. between the 20th and 24th week
ANS: C (APMC page 127)
33
249. This movement of the head refers to turning of the occiput from its original
transverse oblique position towards the symphysis pubis or less
commonly towards the hollow of the sacrum:
A. internal rotation
B. extension
C. external rotation
D. flexion
ANS: A (APMC page 244)
254. A 28 year old G1P0 at 35 weeks AOG consulted in the ER with chief
complaint of severe abdominal pain. Accompanied by moderate vaginal
bleeding. Her BP is 180/120 mmHg, PR-88/min, RR: 22/min. On palpation
of the abdomen the uterus was tetanically contracted and the FHT was
faint. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. placenta previa
B. abruptio placenta
C. acute abdomen
D. uterine rupture
ANS: B (APMC page 374 & 376)
34
ANS: B (APMC page 586)
257. Among the anti-TB regimen, the drug which is contraindicated during
pregnancy is
A. INH
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutal
D. Streptomycin
ANS: D (APMC page 586)
259. This type of forceps has a double pelvic curve to facilitate application to
the after coming head in breech presentation
A. Simpson forceps
B. Barton forceps
C. Piper forceps
D. Kielland
ANS : C (APMC page 529)
260. The following are contraindications for vacuum extraction EXCEPT
A. fetal postmaturity
B. prior fetal scalp trauma
C. active bleeding
D. nonvertex presentation
ANS: A (APMC page 533)
261. This is known as the low longitudinal incision of the uterus, used to
delivery babies abdominally
A. Classical cesarean section
B. Kerr incision
C. Kronig incision
D. a and c
ANS: C (APMC page 541)
35
263. What is the first histologic indication of the effect of progesterone on the
endometrium?
A. presence of mitotic figures
B. glandular proliferation
C. subnuclear vacuolization
D. stromal edema
ANS: C (APMC page 44)
266. A 26 y/o patient was seen in the OPD complaining of a vaginal discharge.
The vaginal pH was 4.5. What is the most likely cause of the vaginitis
A. Bacterial Vaginosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Atrophic Vaginal Discharge
D. Moniliasis
ANS: D (compre page 669)
268. The least of the nodal involvement for distant metastasis of cervical
cancer is via the:
A. Paracervical nodes
B. Hypogastric nodes
C. External iliac nodes
D. Presacral nodes
ANS: D (compre page 898)
269. A 45 year old G2P2 female came in due to postcoital bleeding. Pelvic
exam revealed a nodular cervix which bleeds to touch, sidewalls are free
of lesion. What is the stage of the disease?
A. Carcinoma-in-situ
B. Stage IB
C. Stage IIA
D. Stage IIB
ANS: B (compre page 899)
36
270. Operative treatment for cervical cancer that guarantees the removal of the
entire cervix and uterus with the ureters undisturbed.
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class IV
D. Class V
ANS; A (compre page 902)
271. A 54 year old G5P5 woman came in due to metrorrhagia. She’s of heavy
build, and a smoker of the following risk factors, what would have the least
risk for developing endometrial carcinoma?
A. Smoking
B. Obesity
C. Multiparity
D. late menopause
ANS: C (compre page 920)
272. A tumor metastatic to the ovary, usually bilateral, consisting of signet ring
cells, that usually originate from GIT is
A. mucinous tumor
B. krukenberg tumor
C. serous tumor
D. sex-cord stromal tumor
ANS: B (compre page 956)
274. A 13 year old who has not had menarche was brought in for consult with
the following features: short stature, low breast development, with
webbing of the neck. The diagnosis is:
A. Gonadal agenesis
B. Turner syndrome
C. Hypothalamic failure
D. Testicular feminization
ANS: B (compre page 1105)
276. A 35- year old female came in for infertility work-up. When is the best time
to do hysterosalpingography (HSG)?
A. during menses
B. during the week following the end of menses
C. at mid cycle
D. before menses
37
ANS: B (compre page 1176)
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 23
Answer: b
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 30
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 96
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 96
Answer: b
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 102
38
283. Which of the following are cardiovascular changes in pregnancy?
There is an increase in heart beat to 10 beats per
minute.
There is a decrease in cardiac output.
There is marked fall in plasma volume before delivery.
There is an increase in diastolic pressure.
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 104
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 105
285. What is the average increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy?
A. 10 %
B. 25 %
C. 50 %
D. 75 %
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 104
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 113
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 118
288. The mean duration of a normal pregnancy calculated from the first day of
LMP averages
close to .
A. 40 weeks
B. 37 weeks
C. 42 weeks
D. 28 weeks
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 120
39
289. At what age of gestation can fetal cardiac activity be detected by
ultrasound?
A. 4 weeks ovulation age
B. 6 weeks ovulation age
C. 8 weeks gestational age
D. 10 weeks gestational age
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 75
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 78
291. What is the term used to describe the encirclement of the largest fetal
head diameter by the vulvar ring?
A. full dilatation
B. full effacement
C. crowning
D. engagement
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 226
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 229
Answer: b
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 224
40
295. A 32 year old G6P5 patient comes in 7cm. dilated at 10 am. What time do
you expect her to be fully dilated if labor progress is normal?
A. 11 am
B. 12 am
C. 1 pm
D. 2 pm
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 224
297. A 21 y/o primigravid presents with severe abdominal pain associated with
shoulder pain and dizziness. BP – 90/60, PR – 110/min. These is rebound
tenderness on examination of the abdomen and exquisite tenderness on
wiggling the cervix. The patient has history of completion of abortion by
curettage at 6 weeks gestation 2 weeks prior to consult. Histopath findings
reveal decidual reaction. Pregnancy test is (+). The most likely diagnosis
is .
A. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C. Threatened uterine abortion
D. Ruptured corpus luteum
Answer: b
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 282
299. A 22 year old G2P1 (1001) at 35 weeks AOG has a chief complaint of
regular uterine contractions for 12 hours. She has stable vital signs.
Fundic height is 27 cm, estimated fetal weight is 2,400 grams. Fetal heart
tones are 148 bpm and presentation is cephalic. On internal examination,
the cervix is 7 cm dilated, fetal head at station -1, intact bag of waters.
What would be your management?
A. Start IV tocolytics to control labor.
B. Send her home with prescription for oral tocolytics.
C. Administer betamethasone.
41
D. Admit her and allow labor to progress.
Answer: d
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 358
303. What is the role of the hepatitis B surface antigen (+) patient in the
genesis of hepatitis B infection?
A. Chronic carrier state
B. Chronic active hepatitis
C. Acute hepatitis B
D. Facilitates entry of Hepatitis A virus
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 529
305. A 21 y/o G1P0 12rh week AOG complained of sore throat, cough and
fever and developed post-auricular lymphadenopathy. What is your
main consideration?
A. Varicella zoster
B. Rubella
C. Rubeola
D. Measles
42
Answer: b
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 576
307. R.C., 28 y/o, G2P2, delivered spontaneously to a live fetus 8 days ago at
home assisted by a nurse. She developed high-grade fever on the 5th
post-partum day associated with body malaise, lower abdominal pain &
moderate vaginal bleeding. On admission, the patient was febrile and on
IE, the cervix was open, the uterus was enlarged to 18 week-size & both
adnexae were tender and foul-smelling lochia was noted. Your impression
is .
A. Puerperal infection
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Uterine subinvolution
D. Retained placenta fragments
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 472
308. You are attending to a 25 y/o, G3P3 who just delivered vaginally to a live
term fetus. Five minutes later, signs of placental separation appeared
followed by profuse vaginal bleeding. Bleeding before placental delivery is
called .
A. Early postpartum hemorrhage
B. Late postpartum hemorrhage
C. Third-stage bleeding
D. Puerperal bleeding
Answer: c
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 467
309. The definitive treatment in a 40 y/o, G8P5 (5,0,3,5) who developed septic
shock due to endomyometritis is .
A. Surgical removal of the nidus of infection
B. Dilatation and curettage
C. Triple antibiotic therapy
D. D & C after antibiotic coverage
Answer: a
Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics 1st edition, Baja-Panlilio et al, page 473-474
43
Answer: d
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd edition, page 1032
313. What is the most appropriate treatment for a 20 year nulligravid diagnosed
with simple hyperplasia without atypia by curettage?
A. Endometrial oblation
B. Continous or cyclic progestin
C. Total hysterectomy
D. External radiotherapy
Answer: b
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 871
316. A patient underwent THBSO omentectomy and lymph node dissection for
an ovarian cancer. Histopathological report showed the tumor in the right
ovary measured 10x8x8 cm ruptured with extension to the fallopian tube
and omentum. One para aortic node showed malignant cells. What is the
stage?
A. Stage II-C
B. Stage III-A
C. Stage III-B
D. Stage III-C
Answer: d
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 912
44
317. What is the primary treatment of malignant epithelial ovarian tumor?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Surgical removal of the tumor
C. Radiotherapy
D. Chemo and radiotherapy
Answer: b
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 918
Answer: d
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 949
320. A 3 y/o girl was brought to the Emergency Room because of vaginal
bleeding. On inspection of the external genitalia, there was a mass
protruding through the vaginal introitus. It measured 4x3 cm and
resembled a cluster of grapes forming multiple polypoid masses. The
most likely diagnosis is .
A. Vaginal adenosis
B. Sarcoma botryoides
C. Epidermoid cancer
D. Condyloma acuminata
Answer: b
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 981
323. What is the most common route of spread of the organisms in PID?
A. Lymphatic spread
45
B. Hematogenous route
C. Direct extension
D. Ascending route
Answer: d
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 663
46
330. Which of the following organisms are hostile to sperm in the vagina?
A. Ureaplsma urealyticum
B. Amoeba
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Clostridia
Answer: a
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 1124
331. A 12 y/o girl was noted to have breast budding. What is the average age
you would expect her to experience menarche?
A. 10 year old
B. 12 year old
C. 14 year old
D. 16 year old
Answer: c
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 1046
Answer: b
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 1161
Answer: b
Reference: Comprehensive Gynecology 3rd Edition, page 1161
335. A 47 year old woman has poorly differentiated endometrial carcinoma and
a uterine cavity that measures 10 cm in depth. The endocervix has
stromal invasion of endometrial carcinoma but no other structure is
involved. What is the stage of her disease?
A. I A
B. I B
C. II A
D. II B
MPL 0.5 p: 929
47
336. What endoscopic procedure is utilized to evaluate tubal disease?
A. colposcopy
B. laparoscopy
C. hysteroscopy
D. hysterosalpingography
MPL 0.5 p: 719
338. A 26 year old G1P1 had cervical intraepithelial neoplasia involving the
entire thickness of the cervical epithelium. What is the best management?
A. cryosurgery
B. electrocautery
C. conization
D. hysterectomy
MPL 0.5 p: 878
339. A 25 year old woman and her husband use natural family planning as their
method of contraception. Her menstrual cycle length range from 26 to 32
days. She does not measure her basal body temperature. The time of
her maximum or peak fertility with the first day of her menses defined as
day 1 would be between
A. day 1 – 14
B. day 8 – 14
C. day 8 – 21
D. day 14 – 21
MPL 0.5 p: 301
341. What type of myoma insinuates itself between the leaves of the broad
ligament?
A. parasitic
B. serosal
C. interstitial
D. intraligamentary
MPL 0.5 p: 498
342. What tumor will be positive for the tumor marker HCG?
A. embryonal carcinoma
B. choriocarcinoma
C. endodermal sinus tumor
D. adenocarcinoma
MPL 0.5 p: 1053
48
343. What type of abnormal uterine bleeding is excessive in amount and
duration of flow occurring at regular interval?
A. Menorrhagia
B. metrorrhagia
C. polymenorrhea
D. menometrorrhagia
MPL 0.5 p: 1079
344. A 67 year old had episodes of vaginal bleeding 15 years after menopause.
Biopsy revealed endometrial hyperplasia. Transvaginal sonogram reveals
a solid adnexal mass of 4 cm diameter. She is not on hormonal
replacement therapy. What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
A. sertoli-leydig tumor
B. granulose cell tumor
C. serous cystadenocarcinoma
D. endodermal sinus tumor
MPL 0.5 p: 173
346. A 36 year old G2P2 has amenorrhea of 11 months with hot flushes.
Examination reveals a small uterus. If this is a case of premature ovarian
failure, which finding is applicable?
A. biphasic basal body temperature
B. endometrial hyperplasia
C. elevated FSH > 40 IU/ml
D. tonically raised LH
MPL 0.5 p: 1100
348. Which of these is the most likely site for implantation of endometriosis?
A. omentum
B. appendix
C. bladder mucosa
D. peritoneum of culdesac
MPL 0.5 p: 536
349. Which disease of the vulva is best treated with wide excision?
A. hidradenitis suppuritiva
B. invasive vulvar cancer
C. angioma
D. contact dermatitis
MPL 0.5 p: 489
49
350. What ovarian tumor will most commonly cause precocious puberty ?
A. teratoma
B. luteoma
C. granulosa cell tumor
D. sertoli leydig tumor
MPL 0.5 p: 173
351. A woman with this type of pelvis is more prone to urethrocoele because of
more force of the fetal head on this area during descent in labor
A. platypelloid
B. anthropoid
C. gynecoid
D. android
MPL 1.0 p: 571
354. Which theory of endometriosis best explains remote sites of the disease
such as in the spinal cord, nasal septum or lungs?
A. iatrogenic dissemination
B. coelomic metaplasia
C. immunologic changes
D. lymphovascular metastasis
MPL 0.33 p: 533
356. A 32 year old has been having her regular pap smear for the last ten
years. Her latest result however revealed low grade SIL. What is the next
step to do?
A. colposcopic examination
B. repeat smear in 4 months
C. conization
D. laser ablation
MPL 0.33 p: 873
50
357. A 19 year old was brought to the ER because of acute pain. There was
also vaginal spotting. Examination revealed a small tender adnexal mass.
Based on the LMP, she is on day 25 of her cycle. Pregnancy test was
negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. ectopic pregnancy
B. acute salpingitis
C. ruptured corpus luteum
D. ruptured endometrial cyst
MPL 0.33 p: 509
358. A 28 year old nulligravida with primary infertility and cyclic pelvic pain was
diagnosed to have endometriosis. She was placed on hormonal
treatment. However, while on this drug, she developed acne, hirsutism,
and deepening of the voice. What is a better alternative?
A. laparoscopic fulguration
B. GnRH agonist
C. Progesterone injectables
D. Oral contraceptives
MPL 0.33 p. 546
359. A 35 year old consulted because of vesicular lesions in the vulva. She
related that several days prior to the appearance of the vesicles, she felt
numbing sensation over her vulvar skin. Which is the best treatment?
A. metronidazole
B. acyclovir
C. doxycycline
D. penicillin
MPL 0.33 p. 659
362. A patient was diagnosed to have squamous cell cervical cancer. Clinical
evaluation revealed that the disease has involved the upper third of the
vagina. Parametrial tissues were indurated. However, there was no
evidence of pelvic well involvement. What is the best treatment for her?
A. radiotherapy
B. chemoradiation
C. RHBLND
51
D. Chemotherapy
MPL 0.33 p. 905
366. A G2P1 with 7 weeks missed period presents with one week diagnosis of
vaginal bleeding and hypogastric pains. Cervix is 1 cm open with intact
membranes. What is the diagnosis?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Imminent abortion
C. Inevitable abortion
D. Incomplete abortion
MPL 0.33 p. 243
368. A 26 year old G3P2, Previous CS I, on her 29th week age of gestation
went to the hospital because of episodes of bright red vaginal bleeding
upon waking up without other symptoms. Vital signs were normal with no
uterine contraction noted. Leopolds maneuver showed a baby in cephalic
presentation, floating, FHT was 150/min. What is the diagnosis?
A. placenta previa
B. placenta abruption
C. Premature labor
52
D. Ruptured uterus
MPL 1.0 p. 630
369. A nullipara was admitted on active labor at 5 cms., ruptured bag of waters,
station -2. After 3 hours of good contractions, cervix was 5 cms dilated,
station -2. What condition is she in?
A. prolonged latent phase of labor
B. arrest of cervical dilatation
C. arrest of descent
D. protracted active phase of labor
MPL 0.5 p. 499
372. A 25 year old consulted for vaginal spotting and sharp pelvic pain. History
revealed 6 weeks amenorrhea. Pregnancy test was positive. Physical
exam elicited cervical wriggling tenderness with a vague mass and
tenderness in the left adnexae. Posterior vaginal fornix as full and
bulging. BP was 100/60 mm Hg., PR 102/min. What should be done next
to this patient?
A. culdocentesis
B. emergency transvaginal ultrasound
C. blood transfusion
D. immediate exploration
MPL 0.5 p. 890
373. A woman on her 32nd week of gestation was admitted for threatened
preterm labor. Tocolytic management was initiated with magnesium
sulfate. Which of the following needs to be monitored closely while on
tocolysis?
A. SGOT
B. Glucose
C. Blood pressure
D. Potassium
MPL 1.0 p. 714
374. A 20 year old primigravida at 39 weeks came in due to labor pains. This
patient was a diagnosed case of rheumatic heart disease. When should
she receive the initial dose of ampicillin-gentamycin?
A. about 2-3 hours after admission
B. prior to amniotomy
C. after the first internal examination
D. 30 minutes prior to anticipated delivery
MPL 0.25 p. 1189
53
375. A puerperal women was rushed to the ER because of profuse bleeding.
On examination, a sac-like structure was seen out of the introitus with the
placenta still attached. A crater-like depression as noted on abdominal
palpation. Which of the following is part of good management?
A. immediate removal of the placenta before replacement
B. give oxytocin to facilitate replacement
C. administer fluids and magnesium sulfate for uterine
relaxation
D. do a vaginal hysterectomy
MPL 0.33 p. 643
378. Immediately after an apparently normal labor and delivery, the mother
suddenly manifested with dyspnea and went into convulsions. Blood
pressure likewise dropped sharply from 120/80 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary
arrest rapidly ensued. What is the probable cause?
A. cerebrovascular accident
B. eclampsia
C. amniotic fluid embolism
D. postpartum cardiomyopathy
MPL 0.33 p. 660
379. A G5P4 pregnant uterine 39 weeks was in active labor for 3 hours. IE
showed cervix 7 cms dilated, fetal head at station -1 to 0. Suddenly, fetal
heart rate decelerated and maternal blood pressure dropped from 120/80
to 90/60 mm Hg. On doing IE, the presenting part appeared to retract.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. abruption placenta
B. spontaneous uterine rupture
C. acute cord torsion
D. uterine atony
MPL 0.5 p. 650
380. A G2P1 PU 31 weeks came to the clinic with complaints of watery vaginal
discharge. After noting some fluid pooling at the culdesac, the clinician
requested for an ultrasound. What information can be derived from an
ultrasound pertinent to management?
A. demonstration of site of bag rupture
54
B. confirmation of fetal maturity
C. assessment of amniotic fluid volume
D. detection of fetal meconium staining
MPL 0.33 p: 526
381. During clinical pelvimetry, the ischial spines were noted to be prominent,
the sidewalls convergent and the sacraosciatic notch is narrow. Of the
following, what is the most common consequence of these findings?
A. this promotes cord prolapse
B. there is increase likelihood for transverse arrest of
fetal head
C. extreme posterior asynclitism is favored
D. production of abnormal presentation is facilitated
MPL 0.25 p: 756
382. Anticipating a large baby, the patient’s legs were removed from the
stirrups and sharply flexed upon her abdomen. What will be the effect of
this maneuver?
A. increase pelvic dimension
B. facilitate bearing down effort
C. rotates symphysis pubis toward maternal head
D. dislodges the posterior shoulder
MPL 0.25 p: 461
55
A. an outright cesarean section
B. a vaginal delivery for both
C. a vaginal delivery for the first of twin then a cesarean
section for the second
D. a vaginal delivery for the first of twin then an internal
podalic version for the second of twin
MPL 0.25 p: 941
387. When the fetal breech presents with both legs extended and the hips
flexed, it is classified as
A. complete breech
B. incomplete breech
C. frank breech
D. footling breech
MPL 0.5 p: 567
391. What is considered as the major vestibular glands that lie under the
constrictor muscles of the vagina
A. Paraurethral glands
B. Skene’s glands
C. Sebaceous glands
D. Bartholin’s glands
MPL 0.5 p: 17
56
392. A 28 year G1P0 sought her first prenatal check up at 12 weeks gestation.
Family history is positive for diabetes mellitus (father). When should she
have her GCT?
A. 16 – 20 wks
B. 24 – 28 wks
C. 32 – 36 wks
D. at term
MPL 0.33 p: 1171
393. What is the most accurate ultrasonographic parameter for fetal aging in
the first trimester ?
A. femur length
B. biparietal diameter
C. head circumference
D. crown – rump length
MPL 0.5 p: 391
394. What do you call a woman who had 3 pregnancies, all of which were
aborted?
A. nulligravida
B. nullipara
C. multipara
D. primipara
MPL 0.5 p: 207
395. What is the earliest age of gestation when fetal sex can be identified by
gross examination of the external genitalia?
A. 6 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 14 weeks
D. 20 weeks
MPL 0.33 p: 113
398. How much weight does a average weighted woman gain throughout her
pregnancy?
A. 10 lbs
B. 18 lbs
C. 24 lbs
D. 30 lbs
MPL 0.5 p: 452
57
399. On histopathology, a placenta is found to have dense stroma containing
round cells with granular and vacuolated cytoplasm with vascular and
eccentric nuclei. What is age of this placenta?
A. 8 weeks
B. 14 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 40 weeks
MPL 0.33 p: 612
401. A woman on her 41st week of pregnancy had a BPS with the following
findings during the 30 minutes test-sustained breathing movement of 45
secs, five simultaneous limb and trunk movements, 2 episodes of arm
flexion and extension, 3 episodes of fetal heart rate accelerations each for
5 secs with fetal movement, amniotic fluid pocket of 3 cms in
perpendicular planes. What should be done for this patients based on the
BPS score?
A. Do a outright cesarean section
B. Induce labor first
C. Repeat the BPS on the same day
D. Repeat the BPS after a week
MPL 0.5 p: 1104
58
405. On physical examination of a pregnant woman, the clinician detected a 2/6
systolic murmur intensifying during inspiration. What should be done for
this patient with regards this finding?
A. cardiology referral
B. ECG
C. No intervention needed
D. Echocardiogram
MPL 0.5 p: 1168
407. What maneuver will the fetal head undergo right after engagement?
A. internal rotation
B. extension
C. flexion
D. descent
MPL 0.5 p: 416
408. What part of the uterus forms the lower uterine segment during labor?
21
A. external cervical os
B. cornua
C. fundus
D. isthmus
MPL 0.5 p: 21
59
412. Myrna, a primigravida, on her 32nd week AOG, came in for prenatal check-
up. Auscultation of the FHT yields negative result and the ultrasound
revealed fetal death in utero. How will you manage her?
A. hysterotomy
B. wait for spontaneous labor *
C. prostaglandins
D. curettage
MPL 0.5 p: 681
413. In which part of labor does the descent of the presenting part of the fetus
is most marked?
A. preparatory division of labor
B. 1st stage of labor
C. pelvic division of labor
D. 3rd stage of labor
MPL 0.5 p:422
417. Which is the most biologically potent estrogen in the normal menstrual
cycle?
A. estrone
B. estradiol
C. estriol
D. androstenedione
MPL 0.33 pp: 43-44
418. If her last menstrual period is last Jan 23, 2007, when is her expected date
of confinement?
A. April 30, 2007
B. June 26, 2007
C. Oct 23, 2007
D. Oct 30, 2007
MPL 1.0 p: 208-209
60
419. Lochia serosa is expected to occur
A. immediately after birth
B. after 3 or 4 days
C. after 10 days
D. after 1 month
MPL 0.33 pp: 696-697
423. Of the following, which is most associated with low birthweight infants?
A. Placenta previa
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Maternal height of < 5 ft
D. Smoking in pregnancy *
MPL 0.25 p: 354
424. A 5 year old was referred to you at the ER due to complaints of perineal
pain. What is the best way to examine the vagina of this child?
A. dorsal lithotomy
B. knee-chest position
C. lying on her mother’s lap
D. standing with one leg raised
MPL 0.25 p: 274
425. Keanna, 32 y/o “sexy dancer” and ramp model complained of burning
sensation over her vulva after a lingerie fashion show where she wore
“thongs” and stringed nylon bikinis. There was pruritus so she used a
newly-launched vaginal wash. Immediately, the burning sensation
became worse but she thought it was normal. The next morning, she
found her vulva to be erythematous and inflamed. The redness now
reached the peri-anal area. What is the diagnosis?
A. Vulva vestibulitis
B. Mechanical intertrigo
C. Allergic dermatitis
D. Fungal vulvo-vaginitis
MPL 0.33 p: 487
61
426. On cut-section of an ovarian mass in a 26 year old nulligravida, there were
ufts of hair, sebum and bony cartilage. What type of ovarian mass is most
likely in this case?
A. Follicular cyst
B. Dysontogenetic cyst
C. Cystic teratoma (dermoid)
D. Theca lutein cyst
MPL 0.33 p: 979
427. What ulcerative lesion of the genital tract is characterized by the presence
of “groove sign”?
A. Granuloma inguinale
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Chancroid
D. Syphilis
MPL 0.33 p: 661
428. What surgical procedure will prevent a woman from experiencing vaginal
coitus?
A. Manchester Fothergill
B. Colpocleisis
C. Vaginal hysterectomy
D. Perineorrhaphy
MPL 0.25 p: 580
62