Tests for Medical psychology exam - 200 tests (29.01.

2020)
1. The most prominent psychological causes, which may disturb the body’s function and can lead to
disorders, are:
a) Crisis
b) Stress
c) Acute stress disorder
d) Somatic trauma
e) Low economic status

2. The most prominent psychological causes, which may disturb the body’s function and can lead to
disorders, are:
a) Psychological trauma
b) Poor social connection
c) Posttraumatic stress disorder
d) Cronic difficult situations
e) Cronic emergency situations

3. Crisis is defined as a:
a) Rapid negative changing of functional state of the individual due to emotional and behavioral
challenges.
b) Sudden, unexpected change of the homeostasis of individual or group
c) Disturbance of daily existence, following the exhaustion (collapse) of coping mechanisms
d) Disturbance of daily existence, following the activation of coping mechanisms
e) Reaction in face of a dangerous situation

4. Stages of crisis reaction are:

a) Impact
b) Denial phase
c) Heroic phase
d) Desillussion
e) Resolution

5. The most productive stage of crisis reaction is:

a) Impact and immediate reaction to (astonishment, denial of the reality, etc).
b) Heroic phase: colaboration in order to dominate the anxiety, anger, regression, etc.
c) Honey moon phase (hope that everything will be all right).
d) Acceptance of the situation
e) Rezolution (final atitude to problem).

6. Main characteristics of crisis situations:

a) Unlimited in time
b) The individual is unable to solve the situation with his own resources
c) High personal vulnerability (suicide risk, homicide, accidents, etc)
d) Resolution by discovering new resources, coping strategies or developing some pathology
e) Empowering of personal experience if resolved satisfactorly.

7. Crisis intervention imply the followings steps:

a) Considers the person in crisis as a normal person in an abnormal situation.
b) Immediate intervention with short interactive form of psychotherapy to promote (stimulate) the
personal resources.
c) Facilitation of understanding of causes.
d) Focusing on patient emotions and feelings.
e) Encouragement in own forces.

8. Stress is defined as:

a) Tension, in adaptation to a new, inpleasant situation
 b) An unspecific reaction of the human body to disease, disturbance, unpleasant situations
c) Usual reaction of the human body to disease, disturbance, unpleasant situations
d) A reaction to a physical or psychological aggresion
e) Situation or stimulus which give the human organism a state of tension.

9. General adjustment syndrome (GAS) is defined as:

a) Effort of the body, mostly determined by hiperreactivity of the suprarenal cortex
b) Usual body reaction
c) Reaction to the environmental challenges
d) A specific syndrome corresponding to any of body changes
e) Body adaptation proces

10. Stress comes especially from a:

a) Subjective feeling of low-esteem
b) Discrepancy felt by the subject between external request and self-evaluation
c) Subjective feeling of low-confidence
d) Discrepancy felt by the subject between his expectations and competencies
e) Multiple social person’s responsabilities

11. The behavioral reaction to stress, when dealing with a new, possibly dangerous situation is to:
a) Fight
b) Ignore
c) Cry
d) Flight
e) Freeze

12. Main types of stress are:

a) Physical
b) Psychological
c) Social
d) Eustress
e) Distress

13. Some amount of stress into daily life:

a) Make us nervos and sad
b) Is undoubtably necessary for survival
c) Diminish normal body functioning and even induce disease
d) Helps a person in danger
e) Improves learning and self-organization

14. Effective stress management as a vital part of healthy life imply:

a) Setting clear timelines and priorities
b) Develop strategies to deal with unexpected moments
c) To detach from a situation for some minutes, in order to obtain valuable respite and a fresh point of
view
d) To set realistic goals
e) Seek out connections with most people you can

15. Main tips for effective stress management imply:

a) Stay involved and avoid boredom
b) Take a short 15 or 20-minute nap
c) Be connected with likeminded individuals
d) Have a balanced diet
e) Be engaged just in activities you find enjoyable and fulfilling.
16. Acute stress disorder (ASD) is defined as:
a) Anxiety thinking exposed to an extreme stressor
b) A temporary condition, that typically persist for at least 3 to 30 days after the traumatic
event
c) An common condition occurring after a person experiences a negative event
d) A short-term condition that typically resolves individually within a month
e) A physical, emotional, or psychological harm caused by traumatic event

17. Acute stress disorder (ASD) symptoms fall under some of broad categories:
a) Intrusion symptoms
b) Negative mood
c) Associative symptoms
d) Avoidance symptoms
e) Arousal symptoms

18. Symptoms of anxiety include:

a) Feeling a sense of impending doom
b) Excessive worrying
c) Difficulty concentrating and racing thoughts
d) Laziness
e) Fatigue

19. Symptoms of depression include:

a) Persistent feelings of hopelessness, sadness, or numbness
b) Crying and laughing unexpectedly
c) Loss of interest in activities that were once pleasurable
d) Changes in appetite or body weight
e) Thoughts of suicide or self-harm

20. Among possible traumatic events are:

a) The death of a loved one
b) Natural disasters
c) Motor vehicle accidents
d) Sexual assault, rape, or domestic abuse
e) Session exam failure

21. Acute stress disorder (ASD) treatment options aims to reduce symptoms and help a person
develop effective coping strategies include:
a) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
b) Meditation
c) Communication
d) Mindfulness techniques
e) Medication

22. Changes in physical and emotional reactions due to acute stress disorder (ASD) may
include:
a) Being easily startled or frightened
b) Trouble sleeping and nightmares
c) Self-destructive behavior, such as drinking too much or driving too fast
d) “Frozen” behavior
e) Overwhelming guilt or shame
 23. Psychological traumais defined as:
a) A mental disorderthat occurs as a result of a distressing event
b) An overwhelming amount of stress that exceeds the one’s ability to react
c) Reaction in face of a dangerous situation with psychological, behavioral inhibition or
hypervigilence
d) Usual reaction in face of a dangerous situation
e) Feeling of helplessness

24. Emotional and psychological trauma can be caused by:

a) One-time events, an accident, injury, or a violent attack, especially if it was unexpected
or happened in childhood.
b) Personal inability to cope with a potentially traumatic event.
c) Personal attitudes toward a potentially traumatic event.
d) Ongoing, relentless stress, (living in a crime-ridden neighborhood, bullying, domestic
violence, or childhood neglect).
e) Commonly overlooked causes, such as surgery, the sudden death of someone close, the
breakup of a significant relationship, a deeply disappointing experience, etc).

25. Emotional and psychological symptoms of psychological trauma are:

a) Shock, denial, or disbelief
b) Anger, irritability, mood swings
c) Anxiety and fear
d) Lack of guilt, shame, self-blame
e) Withdrawing from others

26. In the treatment for trauma, person will:

a) Need to resolve the unpleasant feelings and memories he long avoided
b) Discharge pent-up “fight-or-flight” energy
c) Learn to take advantages from each negative situation
d) Learn to regulate strong emotions
e) Rebuild his ability to trust other people

27. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is defined as:

a) A mental disorder that occurs as a result of a distressing event
b) An overwhelming amount of stress that exceeds the one’s ability to react
c) Hipervigilence, avoiding places, persons reminding the traumatic event, flash –backs.
d) Reaction in face of a dangerous situation with psychological, behavioral inhibition or
hypervigilence
e) Usual reaction in face of a dangerous situation

28. Common symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and complex PTSD include:
a) reliving the trauma through flashbacks and nightmares
b) avoiding situations that remind them of the trauma
c) a long term dizziness or nausea
d) the belief that the world is a dangerous place
e) difficulty sleeping or concentrating

29. A key step for people working toward leading healthy, balanced lives is to engage in
everyday activities through following activities:
a) Applying for a professional psychological help
b) Finding a social occupation, a job.
c) Socializing with old friends, if these relationships were healthy and making new ones.
d) Taking up a hobby
e) Be active in social media

30. People with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) or complex PTSD may exhibit certain
aspects of behavior as:
a) Abusing alcohol or drugs
b) Avoiding unpleasant situations by becoming "people-pleasers"
c) Lasting out at minor criticisms
d) Avoiding social and family responsibilities
e) Self-harm tendencies

31. Treatment process for people with acute stress disorder (ASD) and post-traumatic stress
disorder (PTSD) will imply mainly:
a) Medications for depression
b) Participating in healthy relationships with family and friends
c) Medicines in combination with psychotherapy
d) Copping strategies applying
e) “Placebo” medicines

32. Crisis is defined as:

a) A special posibility that enables reassessment and emotional strengthening.
b) Reaction in face of a dangerous situation with psychological, behavioral inhibition or
hypervigilence
c) High intensive negative state caused by a difficult life situation where an individual’s
learned approaches and coping strategies are insufficient or do not work.
d) Usual reaction in face of a dangerous situation
e) Feeling of helplessness

33. The following peculliarities are specific to crisis:

a) People go into crisis as a reaction to various life stages and events.
b) People go into crisis because of psychological weekness and high sensitivity.
c) People handle crises in different ways; however, most people need support from others at
some point during the process.
d) Crisis can also be the result of several stressful factors occurring simultaneously.
e) Natural and foreseeable events may lead to a crisis as well.

34.The diversity of crises can be clarified by dividing them into:

a) Developmental crises
b) Social crises
c) Life situation crises
d) Relationship crises
e) Traumatic crises

35. Individual ways of dealing with difficult situations in life will imply:
a) Situation’ cognitive processing
b) Defensive mechanisms active using
c) Affective expression of their feelings
d) Social support method
e) Beliefs reevaluation

36. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV) is:

a) Elaborated by the World Health Organization
b) Elaborated by the American Psychiatric Organization
c) A coding of diseases and signs, symptoms, abnormal findings, complaints, social
circumstances and external causes of injury or diseases
d) Patient evaluation according to criteria for each of 5 axis to produce a comprehensive
assessment
e) Designed to provide guidelines for psychologists and others to use in the diagnosis and
classification of mental disorders

37. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problem (ICD-10) is:
a) Elaborated by the American Psychiatric Organization,
b) Elaborated by the World Health Organization,
c) Patient evaluation according to criteria for each of 5 axis to produce a comprehensive
assessment;
d) A coding of diseases and signs, symptoms, abnormal findings, complaints, social
circumstances and external causes of injury or diseases,
e) Designed to provide guidelines for psychologists and others to use in the diagnosis and
classification of mental disorders.

38. The illness becomes specific by influence of some main factors as:
a) Disease symptoms
b) Relationship with the medical team
c) The conception about illness
d) Socio-economic status
e) Patient’s personality

39. The sick role of a patient implies:

a) Exemption of social responsibilities.
b) The right to be helped
c) The obligation of the sick person to consider his sickness undesirable and to cooperate for his
cure.
d) The obligation of the sick person to be conformed totally to physician prescription and treatment
e) Objective reactions to disease

40. Illness behavior implies:

a) Individual ability to perceive the sickness
b) Worsening relationships with close persons
c) Shallow interests
d) Variable reactions between denying and exaggeration
e) Potential “benefits” from this situation

41. Maintaining factors of illness behavior are:

a) Personality traits (depression, hypochondria, anxiety)
b) Education
c) Cultural model
d) Socio-economic status
 e) Objective reactions to disease

42. Patients perceive disorder in the following types as:

a) Normal situation they should solve
b) Enemy and weakness
c) Placebo
d) Deserved/undeserved punishment
e) Salvation/gain or irreversible loss

43. Patients may have specific emotional and behavioral reactions to disease like:
a) Objective reactions to disease
b) Partial or total denial of disease
c) Burnout
d) Emotional and behavioral regression
e) Task evasion and responsibility escape

44. Patient may adopt the following types of the attitude to his illness:
a) Abnormal
b) Scornful
c) Denying
d) Hypochondriac
e) Nosophilic

45. Personality is defined as:

a) The common pattern of enduring psychological and behavioral characteristics
b) The unique pattern of enduring psychological and behavioral characteristics
c) A set of acquired traits
d) A set of inborn peculiarities
e) The person’s social behavior

46. The personality’s main peculiarities are:

a) Temperament
b) Character
c) Individual resistance
d) Interests
e) Aptitudes

47. Temperament is considered as:

a) A personality social base
b) A personal characteristic, including energy level, prevailing mood and sensitivity to stimulation.
c) Objective reactions to disease
d) The person’s social behavior
e) Individual ability to perceive the sickness

48. Character is most often used in reference to

a) A personality social base
b) A set of basic innate, developed, and acquired motivations that shape an individual’s
behavior.
c) Patient’s personality
d) The person’s social behavior
e) Copping strategies applying

49. An aptitude is defined as:

a) Acquired special abilities for doing, or learning to do, certain kinds of things easily and quickly.
 b) Normal tendencies, which depend on previous learning.
c) A personality social base
d) An innate ability to do well at tasks that require a specific type of skill.
e) A biological basis for character.

50. Erik Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development underline the ideas that:

a) Personality develops in a predetermined order through eight stages of psychosocial

development, from infancy to adulthood.
b) The person experiences a psychosocial crisis, which could have a positive or negative outcome
for personality development.
c) These crises are of a psychosocial nature because they involve psychological needs of the
individual conflicting with the needs of society.
d) They exhibit the unique pattern of innate and acquired characteristics
e) Failure to successfully complete a stage can result in a more unhealthy personality and sense of
self.

51. Social influences on personality development include:

a) Early attachment relations, parental socialization,
b) Identification with parents, class, and ethnic groups,
c) Ordinal position in the family,
d) The personality IQ level
e) A number of unpredictable life experiences like divorce, early parental death, mental illness
in the family.

52. In their social accommodation, most children must deal with some of external challenges like:
a) Unfamiliarity, especially unfamiliar people, tasks, and situations
b) Knowing himself
c) The emotions’ control
d) Request by legitimate authority or conformity to and acceptance of their standards
e) Domination by or attack by other children.

53. In ontogenetic period, all children must learn to control the following basic emotions:
a) Fear,
b) Guilt,
c) Mistrust
d) Anger,
e) Jealousy.

53. The following statements characterize personality disorders:

a) Personality disorders are generally ongoing (constant).
b) Often, they first appear in childhood oradolescenceand persist throughout a person’s lifetime.
c) Personality disorders are persistent and inflexible
d) Personality disorders are easy treated by psychotherapy
e) People with personality disorders generally do not perceive that there is anything wrong with
their behavior.

54. The most effectively-diagnosed personality disorder is:

a) The schizotypal personality disorder
b) The antisocial personalitydisorder
c) The avoidant personality disorder
d) The borderline personality disorder
e) The narcissistic personality disorder

55. The most dramatic type of personality disorder is:

a) The paranoid personality disorder
 b) The borderline personality disorder
c) The narcissistic personality disorder
d) The histrionic personality disorder
e) The dependent personality disorder

56. According to the psychosocial investigations, the doctor’s main qualities (traits) are as follows:
a) Copping abilities;
b) Interrelation abilities
c) Technical abilities
d) Moral abilities;
e) Intellectual abilities

57. Professional status of a doctor implies:

a) Technical competencies expressed by diplomas, titles, etc.
b) Universalism in offering medical assistance;
c) Functional specificity;
d) Affective (emotional) ambivalence
e) The obligation to get the patient’s consent.

58. The main expectation from doctor professional role:

a) Apply a high degree of skill and knowledge to the problems of illness.
b) Act for welfare of patient and community rather than for own self-interest,
c) Be objective and emotionally detached.
d) Granted rights to examine patients physically and to enquire into intimate areas of patient’s life.
e) Occupy position of neutrality in relation to the patient.

59. Good communications boils down to the following things:

a) Active questioning
b) Respect for each other
c) Ability to manage expectations
d) Active listening
e) Eliminate interrelation barriers

60. Factors, which affect the doctor’s personality:

a) Stress
b) Depression
c) Addiction
d) Working place conditions
e) Working schedule

61. Some of barriers to patient-physician communication are:

a) Personality psychological peculiarities
b) Agoraphobia
c) Altered mental state
d) Medication effects
e) Psychological or emotional distress

62. The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education recommends that physicians
become competent in the following key communication skills:
a) Listening effectively
b) Eliciting information from family members
c) Providing information using effective explanatory skills
d) Making decisions based on collected information only
e) Counseling and educating patients
 63. Some learned skills that will help doctor to deal in a good way the medical consultation are:
a) Assess what the patient already knows
b) Assess what the patient wants to know
c) Show sympathy
d) Slow down
e) Tell the selective truth
f) Be prepared for a reaction

64. Recommended communication traps to avoid are:

a) Using highly technical language or jargon when communicating with the patient
b) Showing appropriate concern for problems voiced by the patient
c) Not pausing to listen to the patient
d) Not verifying that the patient has understood the information presented
e) Using an impersonal approach or displaying any degree of apathy in communications

65. Psychotherapy implies:

a) The treatment of mental or emotional disorders and adjustment of problems through the use of
psychological techniques
b) Therapy sessions, scheduled once or even twice a week, totally less than 20 sessions
c) A verbal exchange between the counselor or therapist and the person seeking help
d) A therapeutic interaction characterized by mutual trust, with the goal of helping individuals change
destructive or unhealthy behaviors, thoughts, and emotions
e) Type of therapy when internal state contribute significantly to a person’s problems

66. Psychoanalysis is also named as:

a) First modern form of psychotherapy
b) Counselling
c) The “talking cure”
d) The psychodynamic approach
e) The free association technique

67. The health culture is defined as:

a) A combination of knowledge, adjustments, relationships, and behaviors in regard to restoration,
protection, individual and social health
b) A high social status both of the single person and of the entire society
c) A normative system presenting mandatory requirements to all members of the society and it
could be expressed as a morality, ethics or a popular opinion and behavior
d) Providing information using effective explanatory skills
e) The preventive psychohygiene

68. Theetiology of psycho-hygiene come from ancient Greek and means:

a) Listening soul
b) Following soul
c) Healing soul
d) Reassuring soul
e) Helping soul

69. Theetiology of psycho-prophylaxis come from ancient Greek and means:

a) Helping soul
b) Protecting soul
c) Listening soul
d) Following soul
e) Healing soul
 70. The family and environmental factors that most frequently influence in disadvantageous
way on the developing of unstable psychic are:
a) Disagreement between parents that makes young boy or girl unreliable, very often deprives
them of parental love and confidence
b) Parental attitude to the child of emotional indifference and coldness or of excessive love
and care
c) The bad inborn basis
d) The bad social and psychic climate in school
e) The bad example of the street, in places of public resort

71. As a rule the symptoms of mental disorders imply the fact that:
a) A person’s behavior becomes very different from what he/she has been before
b) A person’s ability to think and speak is affected
c) Movements of a mentally disordered person are chaotic and prove that this person has
serious difficulties going about his/her daily routines
d) There are so many mental disorders attempting to chase someone down and start
possessing his mind
e) The soon individual detect problems within his mental health and the sooner he starts
dealing with them medically, the higher his chances to be healed are

72. The major tasks of the psychohygiene postulated by C. W. Beers are:

a) Providing actions for the preservation of the mental health and of spirit
b) Preventing nervous diseases and defect conditions
c) Perfection of the treatment and care of psychologically patients
d) Apply a high degree of skill and knowledge to the problems of illness
e) Clearing-up over the meaning of the psychological anomalies for the problems of the education,
the socio-cultural life, and at all the human behaviors

73. K. Mierke sees three levels of the psychohygiene:

a) The preventive psychohygiene
b) The normative psychohygiene
c) The restitutivepsychohygiene
d) The medical psychohygiene
e) The curative psychohygiene

74. There are some factors which influence the personality mental state:
a) Attitudes and aptitudes
b) Hard (strong) feelings and emotions
c) Inner factors
d) Attack from the outside
e) Megalopolis syndrome

75. Psychoprophylaxis can be defined as:

a) Psychotherapy directed toward the prevention of emotional disorders and the maintenance of
mental health
b) Avoiding risk mental factors and increasing mental protective factors
c) Taking advance measures against the occurrence of something possible or probable
d) Perfection of the treatment and care of psychologically patients.
e) Apply a high degree of skill and knowledge to the problems of illness.

76. In principle the psycho-hygiene and psycho-prophylaxis are directed to psychic health
protection by the means of:
a) Development of the psychic qualities and characteristics of the individual;
b) Building up skills to manage stress and resolve conflicts
c) Raising of the resistance of the psyche against harmful environment factors
d) Promotion of the role of the sport and physical culture for psyche and psychic health consolidation
e) Harmonizing between labor and rest, and sleep and free time spent according to the hygiene, in order
to achieve a steady protection against psychic loads and failures

77. The main goals of psychology are:

a) Description
b) Explanation
c) Suggestion
d) Prediction
e) Modification

78. The main research methods used in medical psychology are:

a) Experiment
b) Test control
c) Survey
d) Naturalistic observation
e) Case study

79. The experiment has the advantages of:

a) Maintaining control over conditions
b) Checking the hypothesis
c) Watching and recording events as it naturally occurs.
d) Changing data according to hypothesis
e) Directing the procedure

80. A survey is an attempt to:

a) Watching and recording events as it naturally occurs
b) Changing data according to hypothesis
c) Estimate opinions, characteristics, or behavior
d) Confirm or infirm he existing hypothesis
e) Maintaining control over conditions

81. Naturalistic observation involves:

a) Watching and recording behavior as it naturally occurs
b) A patient records
c) An intensive and individual investigation of the person
d) Possibility to change data according to hypothesis
e) Providing information using effective explanatory skills

82. A case study, as a research method, is:

a) A patient records
b) An intensive and individual investigation of the person
c) Rather rare research method
d) A method to estimate patient’s opinions and behavior.
e) Based on information collected from patient only

83. The research methods use the following kinds of measures:

a) Self-report measures
b) Psychological assessments
c) Behavioralmeasures
d) Physiological assessments
e) Social assessments

84. The following schools of thought in psychology marked the history of psychology as a
science:
 a) Psychoanalysis
b) Clinical psychology
c) Behaviorism
d) Humanistic Psychology
e) Medical Psychology

85. According to S. Freud’s theory, humans use several defense mechanisms such as:
a) Ignoring
b) Displacement
c) Denial
d) Rationalization
e) Projection

86. Main postulates of medical psychology are:

a) Importance of individuality and individualization
b) There are also personality psychological particularities not only somatic ones
c) To diagnose psychological disorders and may apply psychotherapy to treat clients individually
or in groups.
d) To uncover unconsciouspersonalityprocesses and motivations
e) There are not diseases besides the patients with their individual particularities

87. Consciousnessis defined as:

a) The moral dimension of personality
b) The awareness of the thoughts, images, sensations, and emotions that flow through one’s
mind
c) The awareness of external stimuli and of one’s own mental activity
d) The humans’ ability to integrate the experience into a whole, but, also to be highly selective
e) The humans’ ability that allow us to focus upon important information

88. Conscienceis explained as:

a) Moral dimension of human consciousness
b) The awareness of external stimuli and of one’s own mental activity
c) The humans’ ability to integrate the experience into a whole, but, also to be highly selective
d) Means by which humans modify instinctual drives to conform to laws and moral codes
e) The humans’ ability that allow us to focus upon important information

89. S. Freudtheorized that the human mind is divided into the following parts:
a) The conscious
b) The conscience
c) Preconscious
d) Under conscious
e) Unconscious

90. The Structural Model of Personality implies the following components:

a) ID
b) REM
c) EGO
d) Super-EGO
e) Instincts and drives
91. Altered states of consciousness share the following characteristics:
a) Shallow mental processing
b) Avoiding risk mental factors and increase mental protective factors
c) Change in the way the self is experienced
d) Loss of normal inhibitions
e) Disconnection of perceptions from reality
92. There are several modes of consciousness:
a) Sleep
b) Hypnosis
c) Meditation
d) Feedback
e) States of consciousness caused by alcohol, stimulants, marijuana, and hallucinogens etc.

93. Typical characteristics of the meditative state include:

a) Nirvana state
b) Intensified perception
c) An altered sense of time
d) Decreased distraction from external stimuli
e) A sense that the experience is pleasurable and rewarding

94. Biofeedback is a special state of consciousness that allows:

a) To give a person continuous information about his or her biological state
b) To decrease distraction from external stimuli
c) Subject gradually learns to control these internal states and regulate a variety of physiological
processes
d) To feel elated
e) To feel euphoria

95. Psychosomatic medicine is an interdisciplinary medical field studying

a) The doctor-patient relationship
b) The relationships of social, psychological, and behavioral factors on bodily processes and
well-being in humans and animals
c) The link between the mind and the body
d) Development of the psychic qualities and characteristics of the individual
e) Promotion of the role of the society for psychic health consolidation

96. In modern society, psychosomatic aspects of illness are often attributed to:
a) Social conditions
b) Stress
c) Concrete clinical situations
d) Patient behavior
e) Medical mistakes

97. Inpsychodynamic theory, somatization is conceptualized as an:

a) Ego defense
b) The unconscious rechanneling of repressed emotions into somatic symptoms.
c) Symptoms description
d) Future events prediction
e) Behavior modification

98. By studying the causes of psychosomatic diseases appearing,S. Freud introduced the idea that:
a) The symptoms that result from a somatoform disorder are due to social factors
b) External factors are a large contributor to the symptoms' onset, severity and duration.
c) Unconscious thoughts can be converted into physical symptoms (conversion reaction)
d) Psychological stress affects bodily organs that are constitutionally weak or weakened by
stress.
e) Physiological predispositions combined with psychological stress produce psychosomatic
illness.

99. People who have somatoform or psychosomatic disorder:

 a) May undergo several medical evaluations and tests to be sure that they do not have an illness
related to a physical cause or central lesion.
b) Medical test results are either normal or don't explain the person's symptoms.
c) Often become very worried about their health because the doctors are unable to find a cause for
their health problems.
d) Respond better to medication.
e) May complain similar symptomsto the different other illnesses which may last for several years.

100. Psychosomatic or somatoform disorder is:

a) Also known as Briquet's syndrome
b) Also known as Brissaud–Marie syndrome
c) Also known as Placebo syndrome
d) The result of conscious malingering or factious disorders
e) A mental disorder characterized by physical symptoms that mimic physical disease or injury
for which there is no identifiable physical cause

101. Today,psychologists commonly treat psychosomatic ailments with:

a) Relaxation techniques (progressive relaxation, autogenic training, transcendental meditation,
yoga etc.)
b) Biofeedback
c) Hypnosis
d) GBT therapy
e) Medicine
1. Which of the following notions represents the forms of the psychic?
a) Inteligence
b) Subconscious
c) Unconscious
d) Behaviour
e) Conscience
2. What does subconscious represent?
a) The superior form of psychic reflection
b) The reservoir of memories, knowledge, experiences
c) The reservoir of instincts, needs and desires
d) Something that was once conscious
e) The reservoir of intellectual assemblies
3. What does conscience represent?
a) A set of memories, information and knowledge
b) The reservoir of needs and desires
c) Higher level of psychic development
d) The place of unresolved conflicts
e) The reservoir of instincts
4. Unconscious is presented as:
a) The reservoir of desires, needs and feelings
b) Postponed, unresolved conflicts
c) Something that was once conscious
d) Place of instincts
e) A result of the social-historical conditions of human development
5. Which of the following notions designates states of modified conscience?
a) Dream
b) Nightmare
c) Sleep
d) Hypnosis
e) Illusion
6. Which of the following concepts constitutes access routes to the altered states of conscience?
a) Meditation
b) Bio-feedback
c) Over-exertion
d) Psycho-active substances
e) Stress
7. Which of the following characterizes the human psychic?
a) Critical thinking
b) Orientation and reflection system
c) Product of adaptation
d) Emotional intelligence
e) Function, property of the nervous system (brain)
8. The subjective reflection of the objective reality is performed by:
a) Thinking
b) Memory
c) Psychic
 d) Temperament
e) Perception
9. Which of the following items refers to the structure of the psychic?
a) Behaviour
b) Psychic processes
c) Psychic properties
d) Activity
e) Psychic states
10. Which of the ideas below regarding what the doctor must know to do in his activity belongs to
Hippocrates:
a) To know what remedy should be used in case of a particular patient and what remedies
should be avoided
b) To know, recognize and understand the disease
c) To know how to communicate with the patients
d) To know the man, the way he suffers and how he became ill
e) To be able to listen to activelly
11. With which of the following disciplines medical psychology has the deepest and most
indisputable relationship?
a) Philosophy
b) General psychology
c) Sociology
d) Psychiatry
e) Social psychology

12. Etymologically, the word ”normal” means:

a) Right angle
b) Neutral
c) Right
d) Center
e) Left
13. What other words define and characterize normality?
a) Disease
b) In accordance with the natural state
c) Health
d) As it should be
e) Handicap
14. What other synonyms describe the notion of ”norm”?
a) Genius
b) Standard
c) Correct, rule
d) Disease
e) Natural, common
15. The notion of ”norm” is defined as:
a) An exception
b) Which corresponds to a common model, a rule
c) An average value, specific for the majority of the population
 d) Standard deviation
e) Unique and original
16. Which of the statements appreciates normality according to Ellis and Diamond?
a) High level of tolerance to frustration
b) Clear conscience of the self
c) Rigidity and negative thinking
d) Engagement in creative activities
e) Flexibility in thinking and action
17. Which of the following features correspond to a normal person?
a) Self-knowledge, appreciation and acceptance
b) Rigidity in behaviour and perception of reality
c) Voluntary control over behavioural reactions
d) Perception of reality and ability to have harmonious relationships
e) Inability to adapt to new life circumstances
18. Which of the perspectives below refers to normality?
a) As process and health
b) As utopia and average value
c) As behaviour and feeling
d) As disease and pathology
e) As adaptation and communication
19. What other notions are used to designate abnormality?
a) Disease, pathology
b) Health
c) Genius
d) Original
e) Realistic thinking
20. Which of the psychic aspects can generate organic diseases?
a) Great life deceptions and conflicts
b) Unrealized aspirations
c) Personal achievements
d) Feelings of guilt
e) Inferiority complexes
21. Which of the models below refers to the relationship between the doctor and patient?
a) Professor-student (parent-child)
b) Passive-active
c) Friendly (social-familial)
d) Collegial
e) Mutual participation
22. The relationship model between doctor and patient of the professor-student type is characterized
by:
a) A relationship based on equality between the doctor and patient
b) A relationship where the doctor dominates
c) Dysfunctional character
d) A paternalistic attitude
e) Doctor’s total controll and management
23. What are the aspects that the doctor is required to take into account when establishing the
patient's diagnosis?
a) The social-economical level of the patient
b) The patient has insufficient knowledge to describe his complaints in precise terms
c) Culture and education level in order to understand the words
d) The professional training of the patient
e) Age and common sense of the patient
24. Which of the following aspects may adversely affect the doctor-patient conversation?
a) Lack of confidence in the doctor
b) Lack of interest of the doctor for his patient
c) Attentive listening
d) Avoidance by the doctor of the eye contact during the conversation
e) Providing by the doctor of the emotional, affective support
25. Which of the following will motivate and encourage the patient to answer honestly the questions
asked by the doctor?
a) Ensuring confidentiality
b) The warm and welcoming atmosphere that the doctor offers to the patient
c) The questions have a noble character, to help the patient
d) Direct and close questions
e) All the details and information are important for the doctor
26. What is the purpose of the open questions addressed to the patient?
a) To obtain detailed information from the patient
b) For a self-ensuring
c) For a better understanding of the situation the patient is going through
d) To respect the procedure
e) For a patient’s self-confidence increasing
27. Which of the questions below are of a closed type?
a) "Tell me, how was your work today?"
b) "How many pills did you take?"
c) "What do you think about medicine today?"
d) "At what time, did you feel the first painful signals?"
e) "How many days have you been in the hospital?"
28. Which of the elements below refers to non-verbal language?
a) Facial expression
b) Voice tone
c) Gestures
d) Words
e) Pantomime
29. Which of the elements below refers to verbal language?
a) Word
b) Intonation
c) Facial expression
d) Voice tone
e) Pantomime
30. Which of the following refers to the paraverbal language?
a) Gestures
 b) Intonation
c) Voice tone
d) Word
e) Punctuation marks
31. Which of the non-verbal aspects of the language shows the interlocutor's interest for
communication?
a) Irritation and haste manifested by the interlocutor during the discussion
b) Position of the body and head slightly towards the interlocutor
c) Facial look and expression that shows interest and availability
d) Asking questions for specification, etc.
e) Avoidance of the visual contact with the interlocutor
32. What is the basic mission of the non-verbal language in relation to the verbal-oral language?
a) To guide and direct the discussion
b) To impress
c) To ”verbalize” the emotions
d) To manipulate
e) To complete it and enrich it
33. What are the details that the doctor must draw attention to the patient, when indicating the
treatment?
a) About the rules of administration of medicinal preparations
b) About the mandatory number of days for treatment
c) About holidays
d) About the possible side effects
e) About alimentation and lifestyle
34. Indicate the principles that the physician should follow when indicating treatment to the patient?
a) The influence of evil forces
b) The principle of healing nature
c) The influence of the spirit forces
d) The "everything will pass" principle
e) The influence of the external environment
35. According to Hippocrates, therapeutic success depends on:
a) Plant
b) Word
c) Water
d) Knife
e) Air
36. Which of the following Carl Rogers considers to be essential for the physician:
a) Tenderness
b) Respect
c) Originality
d) Sensitivity
e) Empathy
37. Indicate the stereotypes that negatively influence communication?
a) Age
b) Residence environment
c) Culture, ethnicity
 d) Religion
e) Gender
38. Indicate the rules of behaviour specific to the doctor in relation to his patient:
a) Not to exceed the time offered for consultation
b) Careful and patient listening
c) Respecting patient’s intimacy
d) Provide few details about the patient's health
e) Manifestation of affective support
39. Which of the following causes negatively influences the communication between the doctor and
patient?
a) Attentive listening
b) Inadequate interrogation styles
c) The patient's distrust of the doctor
d) Supporting and encouraging dialogue
e) Difficulties in understanding the patient
40. Which of the strategies below positively influences the relationship and communication between
the doctor and patient?
a) Doctor’s attitude of superiority
b) Encouraging the patient to talk, relate
c) Openness and availability of the doctor to help the patient
d) The patient's distrust of the doctor, medicine, etc.
e) Attentive listening
41. Which of the classical explanatory models of the disease considers the disease as a consequence
of some external or internal agents?
a) Psychological model
b) Philosophical model
c) Biomedical model
d) Medical model
e) Psychosomatic model
42. What are the inadmissible features of the doctor regarding the communication of the diagnosis?
a) Personal information of the patient (tete-a-tete)
b) Avoiding or delaying the discussion with the patient
c) Incomplete information on patient’s health
d) Demonstration of readiness to help the patient
e) Distant and cold attitude with the patient
43. Which of the techniques below are inappropriate and inadequate for the doctor-patient
relationship?
a) Persuation
b) Disagreement
c) Disregard of the expressed emotions
d) Openness and empathy
e) Stereotypical comments

44. What types of questions does the doctor mostly use in communication with his patient?
a) Easy
b) Open
c) Provocative
 d) Creative
e) Closed

45. What is the purpose of the closed questions?

a) To verify the truth
b) To concretize the details about the patient situation
c) To put the patient in difficulty
d) Out of politeness to see what he things
e) Out of curiosity of his situaton

46. Which of the questions below are of a closed type?

f) "Tell me, how was your work today?"
g) "How many pills did you take?"
h) "What do you think about medicine today?"
i) "At what time, did you feel the first painful signals?"
j) "How many days have you been in the hospital?"

47. Besides the physical examination, what other investigations should be indicated and carried
out?
a) Psychological
b) Paraclinical
c) Visual
d) Psychiatric
e) Auditive

48. Which of the following is relevant to the doctor-patient relationship?

a) Assertive style of communication
b) To keep distance and be official with patient
c) Authoritarian style of communication
d) Correctness and honesty
e) Collaboration and cooperation

49. Which of the iatrogenies cause the deepest psychological traumas?

a) Investigation iatrogeny
b) Environment iatrogeny
c) Communication iatrogeny
d) Hospital iatrogeny
e) Drug-induced iatrogeny

50. In which of the following situations the patient is the responsible one for the production of
iatrogenies?
a) Lack of physical effort
b) Failure to follow the doctor's instructions
c) Failure to follow the diet
d) Automedication
e) Failure to follow the day regime
 51. Which of the following words serve as synonyms for psychic iatrogenies?
a) Behavioural iatrogenies
b) Feeling iatrogenies
c) Communication iatrogenies
d) Relationship iatrogenies
e) Invetigation iatrogenies

52. What aspects triggers psyhic or communication iatrogenies?

a) Lack of information about patient’s situation
b) Medical terms used in comunication with patient
c) Patient’s age
d) Excess of information about patient’s situation
e) Weather outside

54. Enumerate the causes of a wrong diagnosis.

a) Disease with unusual symptoms
b) Nurse
c) Family
d) Physician with his inappropriate attitude
e) Patient with his abilities to explain what happened to him

55. Who is responsible for a positive, pleasant and constructive psychological climate in the doctor-
patient relationship?
a) Patient’s family
b) Nurse
c) Patient
d) Physician
e) Registered nurse, medical assistant

56. What components are strongly necessary for an efficient communication?

a) Empathy
b) Professional, medical language
c) Attentive, active listening
d) Addressing multiple questions
e) Positive feedback

57. Which of the following characteristics refers to the pathogenic interpersonal environment?
a) Manipulation
b) Hostility and indiference
c) Encouragement
d) Aggression
e) Empathy

58. Which of the following characteristics refers to the supportive interpersonal environment?
a) Respect
b) Loneliness
c) Mutual sincerity
d) Positive feedback
e) Social status

59. Which of the aspects indicated below refers to inspection?

a) State of the skin
b) Body hygiene
c) Social status
d) Body and face language
e) Patient’s clothes

60. Which of the stages of the doctor-patient meeting has the greatest influence on the
therapeutic process?
a) Observation
b) Conversation
c) Physical examination
d) Diagnosis
e) Treatment

61. According to Hippocrates, what exactly should the doctor treat?

a) Disease
b) Man
c) A sick organ
d) Rich patient only
e) Soul

62. Which of the following aspects refer to the deficient communication between the doctor and the
patient?
a) Professional attitude
b) Distrust towards the doctor
c) Wrong interrogation styles
d) Receptivity of the doctor and of the patient
e) Patient’s and doctor’s diferent point of view on the disease

63. Indicate the criteria for the abnormality appreciation.

a) Danger/Aggressiveness
b) Deviation
c) Depresion
d) Distress
e) Dysfunction

64. Which of the criteria of normality characterizes the person's ability to have positive
relationships with others?

a) Functional criteria
b) Interpersonal criteria
c) Statistical criteria
d) Moral criteria
e) Danger/Aggressiveness
65. Which of the following criteria of normality refers to the person's ability to accommodate to
the surrounding environment?

a) Cultural criteria
b) Functional criteria
c) Interpersonal criteria
d) Adaptation criteria
e) Moral criteria

66. Indicate below what are the rights of the patients:

a) To obtain reasonable care and treatment

b) To be treated with dignity and respectfully
c) To follow the doctor’s instructions diligently
d) To make the payment for the treatment
e) To obtain information and respectful care

67. Which of the statements below refers to the patient's responsibilities?

a) To take necessary preventive measures in case of infectious diseases in accordance

with the doctor’s instructions
b) To faithfully undergo the agreed therapy
c) To confidentiality, human dignity and privacy
d) To be aware that the doctors and nurses are also human beings and are predisposed to
mistakes and lapses
e) To obtain a second opinion

68. What does „a good doctor” mean?

a) To have a medical-professional language

b) To know how to listen to attentively to the patient
c) To always be hurried and impatient
d) To manifest interest and empathy
e) To be respectful and delicate
a) Drawing out the patient’s explanatory model

69. Which of the following describes the "role" of the physician?

a) To request qualified assistance

b) Communication disponibility with the patient
c) To be punctual
d) Attitude adaptation according to the patient’s personality
e) Guide in chronic disorders and in prophylaxis

70. Indicate which are the doctor's responsibilities:

a) To obtain a second opinion

b) To provide an accessible enviroment in which the patient can be examined
c) To recommend reasonable, alternative treatments or medications
d) To discuss diagnoses, tests and treatments with the patient in an easy way
 e) To ask for a patient total obedience
71. Which of the following aspects, according to Piaget, are indispensable for the doctor-
patient relationship?
a) Moral
b) Material
c) Intellectual
d) Emotional
e) Social

72. What does it mean to build the relationship in a medical consultation?

a) To make links
b) To greet the patient warmly and by name
c) To negotiate a management plan
d) Active listening
e) To detect and respond to emotional issues

73. Enumerate the functions of the medical consultation:

a) Show respect
b) Agree to a management plan
c) Build the relationship
d) Respond to the patient’s „cues”
e) Collect data

74. What does „a good patient”mean?

a) To answer the doctor's questions clearly and honestly
b) To comply strictly with the doctor's instructions
c) To be rigid, unbelieving and suspicious
d) To be welcoming and respectful
e) To provide the doctor with one’s own treatment solutions

75. Which of the following elements indicates non-compliance?

a) Stopping the treatment without medical advice
b) Listening carefully and respecting the doctor's instructions
c) Demanding hospital discharge without consulting the doctor
d) Following strictly the treatment prescribed by the doctor
e) Treatment modification without consulting the doctor

76. Indicate what are the rules that must be followed by the doctor during the collection
of data for anamnesis?
a) Developing shared understanding
b) Doubting the patient's answers
c) Not interrupting the patient
d) Considering other factors
e) Drawing out the patient’s explanatory model

77. Which of the following describes the "role" of the physician?

 a) To request qualified assistance
b) Communication disponibility with the patient
c) To be punctual
d) Attitude adaptation according to the patient’s personality
e) Guide in chronic disorders and in prophylaxis

78. Indicate which are the doctor's rights:

a) To ask the patient embarrassing and unimportant questions for his treatment
b) To ask the patient questions and to know all about the patient’s lifestyle
c) To be paid by the patient's family
d) To stop the treatmeant if the patient feels that something wrong happened
e) To inform the patient about his health

79. What are the types of iatrogenies?

a) Pharmaceutical
b) Investigation
c) Communication
d) Hospital
e) Drug-induced

80. Which are the main causes of iatrogenies?

a) Patient
b) Medicines
c) Surgical tools, equipment
d) Incorrect diagnosis
e) Patient’s family

81. Who is responsible for the production of iatrogenies?

a) Clinic/hospital
b) Nurse
c) Physician
d) Registered nurse and medical assistant
e) Patient

82. Which iatrogeny is of a heterogeneous nature?

a) Investigation iatrogeny
b) Communication iatrogeny
c) Hospital iatrogeny
d) Drug-induced iatrogeny
e) Communication and investigation iatrogenies

83. Which of the iatrogenies is the most widespread, numerous?

a) Investigation iatrogeny
b) Communication iatrogeny
c) Hospital iatrogeny
d) Environment iatrogeny
e) Drug-induced iatrogeny

84. What other types of medical errors do you know?

a) Medical fault
b) Negligence
c) Malpractice
d) Iatrogenies
e) Professional indifference

85. What measures do you consider important to reduce the number of drug-induced iatrogenies?
a) Limiting the "free" access to medicines
b) Encouraging the patients to go to the doctor and then take pills
c) Cheapening of medicines
d) Careful attitude regarding the advertising of medicinal products
e) Increased medicine prices

86. Which are the main causes of hospital iatrogenies?

a) Hygiene
b) Working and activity regime of the hospital
c) High number of patients in a ward
d) Great distance from the patient’s home
e) Isolation
f) Medical staff

87. Which of the following words serve as synonyms for exploration iatrogenies?
a) Research iatrogenies
b) Attention iatrogenies
c) Investigation iatrogenies
d) Appreciation iatrogenies
e) Knowledge iatrogenies

88. Which of the strategies indicated below contribute to the prevention of mental iatrogenies?
a) Active listening
b) Encouragements
c) Lack of time
d) Development of the communication aptitudes
e) Indifference

89. What does the word „iatros” mean in Greek?

a) Patient
b) Physician
c) Healing
d) Personality
e) Complication

90. Which are the causes that condition and encourage automedication?
a) Cheap medicines
b) Loss of confidence in physicians and medicine
c) Free access to medicines
d) TV advertising
e) Big number of pharmacies

91. Which would be the strategies for the prevention of hospital iatrogenies?
a) Hospital humanization
b) Respecting hygiene
c) Limited number of persons in a ward
d) Staying in the hospital with one’s (patient’s) family
e) Going home every evening

92. What consequences could prolonged hospitalization bring?

a) Happiness
b) Depression
c) Anxiety
d) Joy
e) Neuroses

93. Which of the following parameters ensures a harmonious functioning of interpersonal

relationships?
a) Direct and Formative
b) Economic and Juridical
c) Conscious
d) Ethical and Psychological
e) Political

94. What are the main individual needs met in the process of connecting people?
a) Psychological support
b) Love/affection
c) Respect
d) Material support
e) Religious

95. Which of the parameters indicated below is mandatory in the doctor-patient relationship?
a) Economic
b) Social
c) Direct
d) Ethical
e) Juridical

96. Which of the following stereotypes can adversely affect the doctor-patient relationship?
a) Age
b) Common sense
c) Religion, race
d) Gender
e) Social belonging

97. What rules must the doctor follow when performing the physical examination?
a) Avoid the comments regarding the signs on the patient’s body
b) Tell the patient what actions, manipulations he or she plans to do
c) Undress the patient
d) Make observations regarding the clothes of the patient
e) Show a keen interest in the patient's feelings/sensations during the physical examination

98. What qualities would a physician need to possess in order to be a skilled interlocutor?
a) Sociability
b) Flexibility
c) Stubbornness
d) Diplomacy
e) Creativity

99. Who is responsible for a good and harmonious doctor-patient relationship?

a) Registered nurse, medical assistant
b) Doctor
c) Both (doctor and patient)
d) Patient’s family
Patient